NSO Level 2 - Class 10 (2018-2019)

Science
Q 1.

A square wire of side 1 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave

mirror of focal length 15 cm at a distance of 20 cm. The area enclosed by the image of
the wire is

A 4 cm 2

B 6 cm 2

C 2 cm 2

D 9 cm 2
67 ER B
12 W DA
Q 2.
01 N A

32
In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40 W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1
H

heater of 1 kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The minimum capacity of the
main fuse of the building will be
41
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A 14 A
D

B 8 A
A
M

C 10 A

D 12 A

Q 3.

Observe the given diagram carefully. What could be the causes of this defect?

(i) The focal length of the eye lens is too long.

(ii) The eyeball becomes too small.
(iii) The focal length of the eye lens is too small.
(iv) The eyeball becomes too long.

A (i) and (ii) only

B (i) and (iv) only

C (ii) and (iii) only

D (iii) and (iv) only

Q 4.

An infinite ladder network of resistances is constructed with 1 W and 2 W resistance as

shown in figure. The 6 V battery between P and Q has negligible internal resistance. The
current supplied by the battery is

A 1 A

B 3 A

C 2 A
67 ER B
D 0
12 W DA

Q 5.
01 N A

32
Match column I and column II and select the correct option from the given codes.
H

41
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D
A
M

A P-(ii), Q-(ii), R-(iii)

 B P-(ii), Q-(i), R-(iii)

C P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii)

D P-(i), Q-(i), R-(ii)

Q 6.

Read the given statements and select the correct option.

Statement 1 : The box-type solar cooker can be used for baking.
Statement 2 : The box-type solar cooker can be used to cook only those food materials
which require slow heating.

A Both statements 1 and 2 are true and statement 2 is the correct explanation of
statement 1.
B Both statements 1 and 2 are true but statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
statement 1.
C Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false.

D Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true.

Q 7.

A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After
travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is

A Blue

B Green

C Violet

D Red

Q 8.

An old man suffering from vision defect has to place book away at a distance of 40 cm
to read. For clear vision what is the power of the lens required to correct his vision?

A 1 D

B 1.5 D

C 2 D

D 2.5 D
 Q 9.

PQ and RS are long parallel conductors separated by certain distance. M is the midpoint
between them as shown in the figure. The net magnetic field at M is B. Now, the current
4 A is switched off. The magnitude of magnetic field at M now becomes

A 2B

B B

67 ER B
D 3B 12 W DA
Q 10.
01 N A

32
H

A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular crosssection of cm is connected

41
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to a battery across opposite faces. The resistance will be

D

A Maximum when the battery is connected across cm faces

A
M

B Maximum when the battery is connected across 10 cm × 1 cm faces

C Maximum when the battery is connected across cm faces

D Same irrespective of the three faces.

Q 11.

A ray of light travelling in a medium of refractive index μ is incident at an angle θ on a

composite transparent plate consisting of 50 plates of refractive index 1.01μ, 1.02μ,
1.03μ, .... , 1.50μ. If the ray emerges from the composite plate into a medium of
refractive index 1.6μ at angle x, then the relation between θ and x is
 A

Q 12.

A wire is being drawn to make it thinner such that the length of the wire l increases and
radius r decreases. Its resistance R will finally be proportional to

Q 13.

A cylindrical bar magnet is rotated about its axis as shown in figure. If a wire is
connected from the axis and is made to touch the cylindrical surface through a contact,
then
 A A direct current flows in the ammeter

B No current flows through the ammeter

C A time varying current flows through the ammeter

D None of these.

Q 14.

All lights around a swimming pool are switched off, except for a bright point-light source
kept at the bottom of a swimming pool filled with clear water of refractive index 4/3. As a
result, only a circular patch of 6 m diameter of the water surface is visible to spectators
standing around the swimming pool. Which of the following gives the nearest value of the
depth of the pool?

A 1.6 m

B 5.0 m

C 2.6 m
67 ER B

D 4.0 m
12 W DA

Q 15.
01 N A

32

Heater coil P takes time t 1 to boil certain quantity of water. Heater coil Q takes time t 2 to
H

boil same quantity of water. If P and Q are connected in series, the time taken to boil the
same quantity of water by the combination (using same voltage supply) is
41
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A
D

B
A
M

D
 Q 16.

A few metals are listed in the given box.

(i) Sodium
(ii) Aluminium
(iii) Potassium
(iv) Zinc
(v) Lead
(vi) Copper
(vii) Silver
(viii) Magnesium
Which of the following statements is/are correct about these metals?
I. (i) and (iii) catch fire when kept in open air.
II. (ii) and (vi) on heating form white and black oxides respectively which are amphoteric
in nature.
III. (v) is the best conductor of heat while (vii) is the poorest conductor of heat.
IV. (iv) has very high tensile strength.
V. (i), (vii) and (viii) are highly malleable.

A II, III and V only

B I only

C IV and V only

D I, III and IV only

Q 17.

Observe the given experimental set-up.

If at the end of this experiment, a black substance is formed, then which of the following
statements is/are true regarding this experiment?
I. If the gas formed by reaction of zinc metal with dil. HCl is passed over the heated
black substance, it again changes back to reddish brown colour.
II. The change discussed in statement I is a redox reaction in which the black substance
is acting as a reducing agent.
III. The black substance is formed due to a decomposition reaction.
 A I only

B I and III only

C II and III only

D I, II and III

Q 18.

The given table represents the proton number of seven elements P to V.

Element Proton number

P 3
Q 6
R 9
S 17
T 18
U 19
V 10

Study the table carefully and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate option.
Elements __(i)__ belong to group 1 of the periodic table while elements __(ii)__ belong
to period 3 of the periodic table. Elements __(iii)__ form uninegative ions to attain stable
configuration like elements __(iv)__.
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A P, U S, Q T, V R, U

B R, T S, P Q, R U, V

C P, U S, T R, S T, V

D U, V S, T P, R Q, U

Q 19.

pH values of three acids W, X and Y at different concentrations are given in the table.

Concentration pH value pH value pH value

(mol/L) of W of X of Y
0.1 1 0.5 3
0.01 2 1.6 3.5
0.001 3 2.3 4
What can be concluded from the given information?

A pH value depends upon the concentration of acid taken.

B For same concentration, acid Y produces more hydrogen ions as compared to acids
W and X.
C The order of strengths of these acids is X > W > Y.

67 ER B
D Both A and C

12 W DA
Q 20.

01 N A

32
The structural formulae of two compounds are given as:

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D

Which of the following statements is false about these compounds?

A
M

A Compound I on saponification will give sodium salt of preceding member of

compound II in its homologous series and methanol.
B Compounds I and II both can be represented by the same molecular formula.

C Compounds I and II both will give brisk effervescence with sodium bicarbonate as

both
D None of these

Q 21.

Observe the given figure carefully and select the correct statement about the experiment
being carried out.
 A A redox reaction is taking place in test tube 1 in which ferrous sulphide is acting as
an oxidising agent.
B A displacement reaction is taking place in test tube 1 in which an active metal
displaces hydrogen from the acid and gas X is H 2 .
C A double displacement reaction is taking place in test tube 2 and gas X is hydrogen
sulphide.
D A displacement reaction takes place in test tube 2 and precipitate Y is formed
which is white coloured CuS.

Q 22.

Select the correct match.

I. Gypsum - CaSO 4 .2H 2 O
II. Green vitriol - CaCl 2 .6H 2 O
III. Epsom salt - MgSO 4 .H 2 O
IV. Washing soda - Na 2 CO 3 .10H 2 O
V. Glauber's salt - FeSO 4 .7H 2 O

A I and IV only

B I, III and IV only

C II and V only

D II, IV and V only

Q 23.

Study the given experimental set-up.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Gas X burns with a pop sound.
II. When the reaction stops, a yellow residue is left in the test tube 1 which becomes
white on cooling.
III. Gas X will not be formed if zinc is replaced by silver.
IV. The residue left in test tube 1 is ZnO which changes to white Zn on cooling.

A I only
 B II only

C I, II and III only

D I, II, III and IV

Q 24.

A certain mass of hydrocarbon P was burnt completely in air. It produced 22 g of carbon

dioxide and 13.5 g of water. Which of the following represents the molecular mass of P?

A 16 g

B 26 g

C 30 g

67 ER B
D 60 g

Q 25.
12 W DA
01 N A

32
A few elements are represented as :
H

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Which element does not belong to the same period as the other three?

A W
D

B X
A
M

C Y

D Z

Q 26.

Select the incorrect statement(s).

I. The ratio of H + ion concentration of solution A having pH equal to 2 to solution B
having pH equal to 4 is 100.
II. The pH of solution formed by mixing equal volumes of solution A with pH equal to 4
and solution B with pH equal to 10 is 7.
III. To increase the pH of a solution by unity, hydrogen ion concentration should be
increased ten times.
IV. The OH - ion concentration for a solution having pH equal to 6 is 10 -8 .

A I and IV only
 B III only

C IV only

D II and IV only

Q 27.

Two groups of students, group P and group Q, studied the speed of reaction between
magnesium and sulphuric acid. They summarised their observations graphically as
shown in the figure. Which of the following best identifies the reaction mixture taken by
group P and group Q?

Group P Group Q
10 cm of magnesium 10 cm of magnesium
ribbon + 100 mL of ribbon + 100 mL of
A
0.002 mol/L sulphuric 0.001 mol/L sulphuric
acid acid
5 cm of magnesium 5 cm of magnesium
ribbon + 100 mL of ribbon + 100 mL of
B
0.001 mol/L sulphuric 0.002 mol/L sulphuric
acid. acid.
5 cm of magnesium 5 cm of magnesium
ribbon + 50 mL of ribbon + 50 mL of
C
0.01 mol/L sulphuric 0.001 mol/L sulphuric
acid acid.
D None of these

Q 28.

Compound X is an unsaturated hydrocarbon having two carbon atoms and one double
bond. It undergoes the following sequence of reactions to form compound Z.

Compounds X, Y and Z are respectively

A C 2 H 4 , CH 3 CH 2 OH and CH 3 COOH

B C 2 H 4 , CH 3 CH 2 OH and CH 3 CH 2 COOH
 C C 2 H 6 , CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 OH and CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 COOH

D C 2 H 2 , CH 3 CH 2 OH and CH 3 CH 2 COOH

Q 29.

Select the correct statement(s) about the given esters.

(i) Methylethanoate (ii) Ethylpropanoate

(iii) Propylmethanoate (iv) Butylethanoate
(v) Propylethanoate (vi) Ethylmethanoate

I. (ii) and (v) have same molecular mass.

II. (i) and (vi), both contain 8 hydrogen atoms per molecule.
III. (iii) is formed by esterification of propanoic acid and methanol.
IV. Percentage of carbon in (iv) is 62.07%.

A I and III only

B I and IV only

C III and IV only 67 ER B

D I, II, III and IV
12 W DA

Q 30.
01 N A

32
Element R forms a compound RH with hydrogen. This compound dissolves in water to
H

form a solution having pH less than 7. Element Q forms a compound Q 2 O with oxygen
which dissolves in water to form a solution having pH greater than 7. In which of the
41
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following groups would you find R and Q respectively?

A Group 2 and Group 15

D

B Group 15 and Group 1

A
M

C Group 1 and Group 17

D Group 17 and Group 1

Q 31.

Study the given flow chart carefully and fill in the blanks by selecting an appropriate
option.
 A (i) - Electron number, (ii) - Valency, (iii) - Oxidation number, (iv) - Electro negativity,
(v) - Metallic character
B (i) - Neutron number, (ii) - No. of electrons, (iii) - No. of valence electrons, (iv) -
Ionisation energy, (v) - Non metallic character
C (i) - Proton number, (ii) - No. of electron shells, (iii) - No. of valence electrons, (iv) -
Atomic radius, (v) - Metallic character
D (i) - No. of electron shells, (ii) - No. of valence electrons, (iii) - No. of electron
shells, (iv) - Ionisation energy, (v) - Non metallic character

Q 32.

Identify the endocrine glands L, M and N in the given figure and select the option that
correctly matches them with the function of hormone released by them.

L M N
Stimulates
Controls Stimulates
synthesis
A rate of development
of melanin
metabolism of lymphocytes
in skin
Lowers Regulates Controls
B blood calcium circadian rate of
level rhythm cellular oxidation
Helps in Regulates water
Controls
milk ejection and mineral
C rate of
from mammary balance
metabolism
glands in body
Increases Stimulates Induces
D blood development contractions
calcium of secondary of uterus
 level sexual characters during child
in males and birth
females

Q 33.

Identify the reactions X and Y from the given outline of photosynthesis and select the
correct option regarding them.

A Reaction X occurs in the matrix of chloroplast whereas reaction Y occurs over

thylakoids.
B Reaction X is influenced by temperature whereas temperature has little effect over
reaction Y.
C Reaction X is an enzyme catalysed reaction whereas reaction Y does not require
presence of enzymes for it to occur.
D None of these

Q 34.

Identify blood corpuscles P, Q, R and S and select the INCORRECT statement regarding
them.

A P is a non-motile and non-phagocytic cell that produces antibodies to destroy

microbes.
B Q increases during allergic reactions.

C R stains with basic dyes and releases heparin, serotonin and histamine.

D S is phagocytic in nature and therefore capable of ingesting microorganism that

 67 ER B
enter our body.

12 W DA
Q 35.

01 N A

32
Read the given paragraph. X is a phytohormone that induces dormancy in a seed to help

H
it tolerate unfavourable environmental stresses. Its effects are overcome by
phytohormone Y which helps in germination of seed on arrival of favourable

41
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environmental conditions. Select the correct option regarding phytohormones X and Y.

A X induces bolting in rossette plants whereas Y causes senescence in leaves.

D
B Mevalonic acid serves as a precursor in the synthesis of both X and Y

A
M
C X reduces the rate of transpiration by leaves by closing stomata whereas Y is a
gaseous hormone that promotes ripening of fruits.
D X and Y are essential for morphogenesis during tissue culture.

Q 36.

The given figure represents a food web in a particular ecosystem. Each letter represents
a species. The arrows indicate the direction of energy flow. Which would most likely
represent humans if they were part of this ecosystem?

A D

B B

C C

D None of these

Q 37.

Refer to the given Venn diagram and select the INCORRECT statement regarding it.
 A P could be a method in which a small portion of Fallopian tubes are cut and then
tied.
B Q could be a method in which a plastic or rubber sheath is used by males to cover
copulatory organ before copulation.
C R could be a method in which a flexible rubber cap is fitted over the cervix.

D S could be a method in which oral pills are used to check ovulation.

Q 38.

Refer to the given food chains.

I. Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Small fish → Large fish
II. Grass → Rabbit → Snake → Birds
III. Tree → Herbivorous bird → Hawk
If these are converted to pyramid of biomass. Then which of the following will assume an
inverted shape?

A I only

B I and III only

C II only

D I and II only

Q 39.

Which of the following will NOT be a consequence of reduction or removal of forest

cover?

A Weather will be affected as summers will be more hot and winters will be
excessively cold.
B There will be more floods.

C There will be more overgrazing by a large live stock population.

 67 ER B
D Land slides will occur bringing damages to local population.

12 W DA
Q 40.

01 N A

32
Select the option that correctly matches organ of human digestive system with digestive

H
reaction occurring in it.

41
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Digestive
Reaction
organ
A Intestine - Lactose D Glucose + Galactose

A
M
B Mouth - Starch Glucose + Fructose

C Stomach - Casein Calcium paracaseinate

D Mouth - Fats + Water Fatty acids + Glycerol

Q 41.

A plant bearing purple flowers (RR) was cross pollinated with a plant bearing white
flowers (rr). What would be the ratio of the plants bearing white flowers and purple
flowers respectively, in F 2 generation when the F 1 progeny were self pollinated?

A 1 : 3

B 3 : 1

C 1 : 1

D 2 : 1

Q 42.

Refer to the given figure.

In which of the labelled structures do the following events occur?

 Development Storage of Formation
of fetus urine of zygote
A R T U

B T P R

C T R Q

D R T P

Q 43.

In the given food chain suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ,
what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk

A 5 kJ

B 50 kJ

C 500 kJ

D 5000 kJ

Q 44.

Read the following statements carefully and select the option which correctly identifies
true (T) and false
(F) ones.
(i) Grafting involves two closely related dicotyledonous plants each having vascular
cambium.
(ii) In Bryophyllum, adventitious buds of leaves develop into new plant.
(iii) Gastrulation period in human female is of 280 days.
(iv) Asexual reproduction is a common means of rapidly increasing organisms under
unfavourable conditions.

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

A T T F F

B F F F T

C T T T F

D F T F T
 12 W DA
Q 45.

01 N A
67 ER
32
Two types of animals, P and Q, were placed in a confined research area with sufficient

H
water and plants for the consumption of animals. The given graph is plotted after
observing animals over a period of time. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding

41
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this?

D
A
M
A Animal P comes under the category of prey.

B Animal Q comes under the category of predator.

C Animal Q is carnivore and animal P is herbivore.

D All of these

Achievers Section
Q 46.

Read the given passage and answer the following questions. Isomerism is the
phenomenon in which a certain compound can exist in different forms due to different
arrangement of atoms in the molecule. Thus, a single molecular formula can represent
several compounds.
An alkane P can have only three chain isomers. In one of its isomers, all the alkyl
groups attached to central carbon atom are same. The preceding and succeeding
homologues of P are respectively

A C 6 H 14 and C 8 H 18

B C 4 H 10 and C 6 H 14

C C 4 H 10 and C 4 H 8

D C 3 H 8 and C 5 H 12

Q 47.

Read the given passage and answer the following questions. Isomerism is the
phenomenon in which a certain compound can exist in different forms due to different
arrangement of atoms in the molecule. Thus, a single molecular formula can represent
several compounds.
Which of the following are not the isomers of hexane?
I. 2 - Methylbutane
II. 2 - Methylpentane
III. 2 - Methylhexane
IV. 2, 2 - Dimethylbutane
V. 2, 3 - Dimethylbutane
VI. 2, 2 - Dimethylpentane

A I, III and VI only

B II, IV and V only

C I, V and VI only

D V and VI only

Q 48.

Refer to the given dichotomous key and select the option that correctly identifies
organisms P, Q, R and S.
I. (A) Unicellular organism that reproduces asexually to produce its offspring. - Go to II
(B) Multicellular organism that reproduces asexually to produce its offspring. - Go to III
II. (A) Organism produces a number of daughter individuals by repeated division of
nucleus. __P__
(B) Organism produces motile flagellated spores that grow into new individuals. __Q__
III. (A) Modified tuberous root of the organism is capable of propagation. __R__
(B) Modified underground stem of the organism is capable of propagation. __S__

P Q R S
Chlamy Sweet
A Plasmodium Eichhornia
domonas Potato
B Leishmania Mucor Onion Banana

C Plasmodium Agaricus Ginger Garlic

D Amoeba Rhizopus Colocasia Pistia

Q 49.

Read the given statements and select the option that correctly fill in the blanks in any
two of them.
I. Olfactory lobes of fore brain are concerned with sense of __(A)__ where as Occipital
lobe is the region for __(B)__ reception.
II. Broca's area of brain controls __(A)__ whereas somaesthetic area controls __(B)__.
III. Cerebellum controls body's __(A)__ whereas medulla controls __(B)__.
IV. Parietal lobe of cerebral hemisphere controls __(A)__
whereas temporal lobe controls __(B)__.

A I - (A) vision, (B) auditory II - (A) temperature, (B) speech

 B III - (A) temperature, (B) posture IV - (A) hearing, (B) smell

C I - (A) smell, (B) visual III - (A) posture, (B) heart beat

67 ER B
D II - (A) speech, (B) sensation of pain IV - (A) taste, (B) vision

12 W DA
Q 50.

01 N A

32
A rectangular loop is being pulled at a constant speed v, through a region of certain

H
thickness d, in which a uniform magnetic field B is set up. The approximate variation of
induced emf e in the loop with time will be (× represents the magnetic field is going into

41
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the paper) D
A
M

D None of these
67 ER B
W DA

Answers

Science
AN HA

32

1.D, 2.D, 3.A, 4.B, 5.A, 6.D, 7.D, 8.B, 9.B, 10.A, 11.B, 12.D, 13.A, 14.C, 15.B, 16.B, 17.A,
18.C, 19.D, 20.C, 21.C, 22.A, 23.C, 24.C, 25.D, 26.B, 27.B, 28.A, 29.B, 30.D, 31.C, 32.D,
33.D, 34.A, 35.B, 36.C, 37.D, 38.A, 39.C, 40.A, 41.A, 42.C, 43.D, 44.A, 45.D,
41

Achievers Section
S

46.B, 47.A, 48.A, 49.C, 50.B,

D