We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible

https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

CompTIA
Exam Questions CS0-003
CompTIA CySA+ Certification Beta Exam

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

About Exambible

Your Partner of IT Exam

Found in 1998

Exambible is a company specialized on providing high quality IT exam practice study materials, especially Cisco CCNA, CCDA,
CCNP, CCIE, Checkpoint CCSE, CompTIA A+, Network+ certification practice exams and so on. We guarantee that the
candidates will not only pass any IT exam at the first attempt but also get profound understanding about the certificates they have
got. There are so many alike companies in this industry, however, Exambible has its unique advantages that other companies could
not achieve.

Our Advances

* 99.9% Uptime
All examinations will be up to date.
* 24/7 Quality Support
We will provide service round the clock.
* 100% Pass Rate
Our guarantee that you will pass the exam.
* Unique Gurantee
If you do not pass the exam at the first time, we will not only arrange FULL REFUND for you, but also provide you another
exam of your claim, ABSOLUTELY FREE!

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

NEW QUESTION 1
The Chief Executive Officer (CEO) has notified that a confidential trade secret has been compromised. Which of the following communication plans should the
CEO initiate?

A. Alert department managers to speak privately with affected staff.

B. Schedule a press release to inform other service provider customers of the compromise.
C. Disclose to all affected parties in the Chief Operating Officer for discussion and resolution.
D. Verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The CEO should initiate an alert to department managers to speak privately with affected staff. This is because the trade secret is confidential and should not be
disclosed to the public. Additionally, the CEO should verify legal notification requirements of PII and SPII in the legal and human resource departments to ensure
compliance with data protection laws.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-002, 2nd Edition, Chapter 4, “Data Protection and Privacy Practices”, page 194; CompTIA CySA+
Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 4.0 “Compliance and Assessment”, Objective 4.1 “Given a scenario, analyze data as part of a security
incident”, Sub-objective “Data classification levels”, page 23

NEW QUESTION 2
An organization has tracked several incidents that are listed in the following table:

Which of the following is the organization's MTTD?

A. 140
B. 150
C. 160
D. 180

Answer: C

Explanation:
The MTTD (Mean Time To Detect) is calculated by averaging the time elapsed in detecting incidents. From the given data: (180+150+170+140)/4 = 160 minutes.
This is the correct answer according to the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide1, Chapter 4, page 161. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study
Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4, page 153; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4, page 161.

NEW QUESTION 3
An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following
pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server?

A. Hard disk
B. Primary boot partition
C. Malicious tiles
D. Routing table
E. Static IP address

Answer: A

Explanation:
The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the
files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The
hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing
algorithms.

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A. Lessons learned
B. Service-level agreement
C. Playbook
D. Affected hosts
E. Risk score
F. Education plan

Answer: DE

Explanation:

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames, operating systems, and services. It should
also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official
References: https://www.first.org/cvss/

NEW QUESTION 5
A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics. Which
of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?

A. CVSS 3.0/AVP/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S U/C:H/I:H/A:H

B. CVSS 3.0/AV:A/AC .L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
C. CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S;U/C:H/I:H/A:H
D. CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H

Answer: C

Explanation:
CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H is the attack vector that the analyst should remediate first, as it has the highest CVSSv3 score of 8.1. CVSSv3
(Common Vulnerability Scoring System version 3) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities, based on various metrics that reflect the
characteristics and impact of the vulnerability. The CVSSv3 score is calculated from three groups of metrics: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base
metrics are mandatory and reflect the intrinsic qualities of the vulnerability, such as how it can be exploited, what privileges are required, and what impact it has on
confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The Temporal metrics are optional and reflect the current state of the vulnerability, such as whether there is a known
exploit, a patch, or a workaround. The Environmental metrics are also optional and reflect the context of the vulnerability in a specific environment, such as how it
affects the asset value, security requirements, or mitigating controls. The Base metrics produce a score ranging from 0 to 10, which can then be modified by
scoring the Temporal and Environmental metrics. A CVSS score is also represented as a vector string, a compressed textual representation of the values used to
derive the score.
The attack vector in question has the following Base metrics:
? Attack Vector (AV): Network (N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection.
? Attack Complexity (AC): Low (L). This means that the attack does not require any special conditions or changes to the configuration of the target system.
? Privileges Required (PR): Low (L). This means that the attacker needs some privileges on the target system to exploit the vulnerability, such as user-level
access.
? User Interaction (UI): None (N). This means that the attack does not require any user action or involvement to succeed.
? Scope (S): Unchanged (U). This means that the impact of the vulnerability is confined to the same security authority as the vulnerable component, such as an
application or an operating system.
? Confidentiality Impact ©: High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of confidentiality, such as unauthorized disclosure of all data on the
system.
? Integrity Impact (I): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of integrity, such as unauthorized modification or deletion of all data on the
system.
? Availability Impact (A): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of availability, such as denial of service or system crash.
Using these metrics, we can calculate the Base score using this formula: Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(Impact + Exploitability), 10])
Where:
Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - Confidentiality) x (1 - Integrity) x (1 - Availability))] Exploitability = 8.22 x Attack Vector x Attack Complexity x Privileges Required x User
Interaction
Using this formula, we get:
Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56))] = 5.9
Exploitability = 8.22 x 0.85 x 0.77 x 0.62 x 0.85 = 2.8
Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(5.9 + 2.8), 10]) = Roundup(8.7) = 8.8
Therefore, this attack vector has a Base score of 8.8, which is higher than any other option. The other attack vectors have lower Base scores, as they have
different values for some of the Base metrics:
? CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.2, as it
has a lower value for Attack Vector (Physical), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having physical access to the target system.
? CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 7.4, as it
has a lower value for Attack Vector (Adjacent Network), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by being on the same physical or logical network
as the target system.
? CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.8, as it has
a lower value for Attack Vector (Local), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having local access to the target system, such as through a
terminal or a command shell.

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following is described as a method of enforcing a security policy between cloud customers and cloud services?

A. CASB
B. DMARC
C. SIEM
D. PAM

Answer: A

Explanation:
A CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) is a security solution that acts as an intermediary between cloud users and cloud providers, and monitors and enforces
security policies for cloud access and usage. A CASB can help organizations protect their data and applications in the cloud from unauthorized or malicious
access, as well as comply with regulatory standards and best practices. A CASB can also provide visibility, control, and analytics for cloud activity, and identify and
mitigate potential threats12
The other options are not correct. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) is an email authentication protocol that helps
email domain owners prevent spoofing and phishing attacks by verifying the sender’s identity and instructing the receiver how to handle unauthenticated
messages34 SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a security solution that collects, aggregates, and analyzes log data from various sources
across an organization’s network, such as applications, devices, servers, and users, and provides real-time alerts, dashboards, reports, and incident response
capabilities to help security teams identify and mitigate cyberattacks56 PAM (Privileged Access Management) is a security solution that helps organizations
manage and protect the access and permissions of users, accounts, processes, and systems that have elevated or administrative privileges. PAM can help
prevent credential theft, data breaches, insider threats, and compliance violations by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to
critical resources78

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

NEW QUESTION 7
An incident response team finished responding to a significant security incident. The management team has asked the lead analyst to provide an after-action
report that includes lessons learned. Which of the following is the most likely reason to include lessons learned?

A. To satisfy regulatory requirements for incident reporting

B. To hold other departments accountable
C. To identify areas of improvement in the incident response process
D. To highlight the notable practices of the organization's incident response team

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most likely reason to include lessons learned in an after-action report is to identify areas of improvement in the incident response process. The lessons
learned process is a way of reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths,
weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying areas of improvement in the incident response process can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or
capability of the organization for future incidents, as well as provide feedback or recommendations on how to address any issues
or challenges.

NEW QUESTION 8
An incident response analyst is investigating the root cause of a recent malware outbreak. Initial binary analysis indicates that this malware disables host security
services and performs cleanup routines on it infected hosts, including deletion of initial dropper and removal of event log entries and prefetch files from the host.
Which of the following data sources would most likely reveal evidence of the root cause?
(Select two).

A. Creation time of dropper

B. Registry artifacts
C. EDR data
D. Prefetch files
E. File system metadata
F. Sysmon event log

Answer: BC

Explanation:
Registry artifacts and EDR data are two data sources that can provide valuable information about the root cause of a malware outbreak. Registry artifacts can
reveal changes made by the malware to the system configuration, such as disabling security services, modifying startup items, or creating persistence
mechanisms1. EDR data can capture the behavior and network activity of the malware, such as the initial infection vector, the command and control
communication, or the lateral movement2. These data sources can help the analyst identify the malware family, the attack technique, and the threat actor behind
the outbreak.
References: Malware Analysis | CISA, Malware Analysis: Steps & Examples - CrowdStrike

NEW QUESTION 9
A security analyst is responding to an indent that involves a malicious attack on a network. Data closet. Which of the following best explains how are analyst
should properly document the incident?

A. Back up the configuration file for alt network devices

B. Record and validate each connection
C. Create a full diagram of the network infrastructure
D. Take photos of the impacted items

Answer: D

Explanation:
When documenting a physical incident in a network data closet, taking photos provides a clear and immediate record of the situation, which is essential for
thorough incident documentation and subsequent investigation.
Proper documentation of an incident in a data closet should include taking photos of the impacted items. This provides visual evidence and helps in understanding
the physical context of the incident, which is crucial for a thorough investigation. Backing up configuration files, recording connections, and creating network
diagrams, while important, are not the primary means of documenting the physical aspects of an incident.

NEW QUESTION 10
A recent penetration test discovered that several employees were enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and running downloaded files when
prompted by phone calls. Which of the following would best address this issue?

A. Increasing training and awareness for all staff

B. Ensuring that malicious websites cannot be visited
C. Blocking all scripts downloaded from the internet
D. Disabling all staff members' ability to run downloaded applications

Answer: A

Explanation:
Increasing training and awareness for all staff is the best way to address the issue of employees being enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and
running downloaded files when prompted by phone calls. This issue is an example of social engineering, which is a technique that exploits human psychology and
behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. Social engineering can take many forms, such as
phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, or impersonation. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and train the staff on how to recognize and
avoid common social engineering tactics, such as:
? Verifying the identity and legitimacy of the caller or sender before following their instructions or clicking on any links or attachments
? Being wary of unsolicited or unexpected requests for information or action, especially if they involve urgency, pressure, or threats
? Reporting any suspicious or anomalous activity to the security team or the appropriate authority
? Following the organization’s policies and procedures on security awareness and best practices

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002- exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 10
A security analyst has found a moderate-risk item in an organization's point-of-sale application. The organization is currently in a change freeze window and has
decided that the risk is not high enough to correct at this time. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation does this scenario illustrate?

A. Service-level agreement
B. Business process interruption
C. Degrading functionality
D. Proprietary system

Answer: B

Explanation:
Business process interruption is the inhibitor to remediation that this scenario illustrates. Business process interruption is when the remediation of a vulnerability or
an incident requires the disruption or suspension of a critical or essential business process, such as the point-of-sale application. This can cause operational,
financial, or reputational losses for the organization, and may outweigh the benefits of the remediation. Therefore, the organization may decide to postpone or
avoid the remediation until a more convenient time, such as a change freeze window, which is a period of time when no changes are allowed to the IT
environment12. Service-level agreement, degrading functionality, and proprietary system are other possible inhibitors to remediation, but they are not relevant to
this scenario. Service-level agreement is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident violates or affects the contractual obligations or expectations of the
service provider or the customer. Degrading functionality is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident reduces or impairs the performance or usability of
a system or an application. Proprietary system is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident involves a system or an application that is owned or
controlled by a third party, and the organization has limited or no access or authority to modify it3. References: Inhibitors to Remediation — SOC Ops Simplified,
Remediation Inhibitors - CompTIA CySA+, Information security Vulnerability Management Report (Remediation…

NEW QUESTION 11
A manufacturer has hired a third-party consultant to assess the security of an OT network that includes both fragile and legacy equipment Which of the following
must be considered to ensure the consultant does no harm to operations?

A. Employing Nmap Scripting Engine scanning techniques

B. Preserving the state of PLC ladder logic prior to scanning
C. Using passive instead of active vulnerability scans
D. Running scans during off-peak manufacturing hours

Answer: C

Explanation:
In environments with fragile and legacy equipment, passive scanning is preferred to prevent any potential disruptions that active scanning might cause.
When assessing the security of an Operational Technology (OT) network, especially one with fragile and legacy equipment, it's crucial to use passive instead of
active vulnerability scans. Active scanning can sometimes disrupt the operation of sensitive or older equipment. Passive scanning listens to network traffic without
sending probing requests, thus minimizing the risk of disruption.

NEW QUESTION 16
Which of the following should be updated after a lessons-learned review?

A. Disaster recovery plan

B. Business continuity plan
C. Tabletop exercise
D. Incident response plan

Answer: D

Explanation:
A lessons-learned review is a process of evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response plan after an incident or an exercise. The purpose of
the review is to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response plan, and to update it accordingly to improve the future performance and resilience
of the organization. Therefore, the incident response plan should be updated after a lessons-learned review. References: The answer was based on the NCSC
CAF guidance from the National Cyber Security Centre, which states: “You should use post-incident and post-exercise reviews to actively reduce the risks
associated with the same, or similar, incidents happening in future.
Lessons learned can inform any aspect of your cyber security, including: System configuration Security monitoring and reporting Investigation procedures
Containment/recovery strategies”

NEW QUESTION 20
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report and must make recommendations to the executive team. The analyst finds that most systems can be upgraded with a
reboot resulting in a single downtime window. However, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the company does not have
access to. Which of the following inhibitors to remediation do these systems and associated vulnerabilities best represent?

A. Proprietary systems
B. Legacy systems
C. Unsupported operating systems
D. Lack of maintenance windows

Answer: A

Explanation:
Proprietary systems are systems that are owned and controlled by a specific vendor or manufacturer, and that use proprietary standards or protocols that are not
compatible with other systems. Proprietary systems can pose a challenge for vulnerabilit management, as they may not allow users to access or modify their

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

configuration, update their software, or patch their vulnerabilities. In this case, two of the critical systems cannot be upgraded due to a vendor appliance that the
company does not have access to. This indicates that these systems and associated vulnerabilities are examples of proprietary systems as inhibitors to
remediation

NEW QUESTION 23
A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan
of the network.
Which of the following would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration?

A. Operating system version

B. Registry key values
C. Open ports
D. IP address

Answer: B

Explanation:
Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of
the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To
scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script. The other items would not be missing from
the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or
fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving
the hostname or using network discovery tools. https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1112/

NEW QUESTION 26
Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled "What We Learned" regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach?

A. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for
B. Include references and sources of information on the first page
C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report
D. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the
sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of technical knowledge, understanding, or interest
in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience can help tailor the
report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report for executive management may be more concise, high-level,
and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.

NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program?

A. Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communicationplan
B. Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification
C. Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies
D. Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems

Answer: B

Explanation:
A successful information security program consists of several key elements that align with the organization’s goals and objectives, and address the risks and
threats to its information assets.
? Security policy implementation: This is the process of developing, documenting,
and enforcing the rules and standards that govern the security of the organization’s information assets. Security policies define the scope, objectives, roles, and
responsibilities of the security program, as well as the acceptable use, access control, incident response, and compliance requirements for the information assets.
? Assignment of roles and responsibilities: This is the process of identifying and assigning the specific tasks and duties related to the security program to the
appropriate individuals or groups within the organization. Roles and responsibilities define who is accountable, responsible, consulted, and informed for each
security activity, such as risk assessment, vulnerability management, threat detection, incident response, auditing, and reporting.
? Information asset classification: This is the process of categorizing the information assets based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality to the organization.
Information asset classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls for each asset, as well as the impact and likelihood of a security
breach or loss. Information asset classification also facilitates the prioritization of security resources and efforts based on the risk level of each asset.

NEW QUESTION 29
Which of the following is the first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery plan?

A. Agree on the goals and objectives of the plan

B. Determine the site to be used during a disasterC Demonstrate adherence to a standard disaster recovery process
C. Identity applications to be run during a disaster

Answer: A

Explanation:
The first step that should be performed when establishing a disaster recovery
plan is to agree on the goals and objectives of the plan. The goals and objectives of the plan should define what the plan aims to achieve, such as minimizing
downtime, restoring critical functions, ensuring data integrity, or meeting compliance requirements. The goals and objectives of the plan should also be aligned
with the business needs and priorities of the organization and be measurable and achievable.

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

NEW QUESTION 33
An analyst is suddenly unable to enrich data from the firewall. However, the other open intelligence feeds continue to work. Which of the following is the most likely
reason the firewall feed stopped working?

A. The firewall service account was locked out.

B. The firewall was using a paid feed.
C. The firewall certificate expired.
D. The firewall failed open.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The firewall certificate expired. If the firewall uses a certificate to authenticate and encrypt the feed, and the certificate expires, the feed will stop working until the
certificate is renewed or replaced. This can affect the data enrichment process and the security analysis. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam
CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161.

NEW QUESTION 36
A security manager is looking at a third-party vulnerability metric (SMITTEN) to improve upon the company's current method that relies on CVSSv3. Given the
following:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized?

A. Vulnerability 1
B. Vulnerability 2
C. Vulnerability 3
D. Vulnerability 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability 2 should be prioritized as it is exploitable, has high exploit activity, and is exposed externally according to the SMITTEN metric. References:
Vulnerability Management Metrics: 5 Metrics to Start Measuring in Your Program, Section: Vulnerability Severity.

NEW QUESTION 37
Exploit code for a recently disclosed critical software vulnerability was publicly available (or download for several days before being removed. Which of the
following CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics was most impacted by this exposure?

A. Remediation level
B. Exploit code maturity
C. Report confidence
D. Availability

Answer: B

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Explanation:
Exploit code maturity in the CVSS v.3.1 temporal metrics refers to the reliability and availability of exploit code for a vulnerability. Public availability of exploit code
increases the exploit code maturity score.
The availability of exploit code affects the 'Exploit Code Maturity' metric in CVSS v.3.1. This metric evaluates the level of maturity of the exploit that targets the
vulnerability. When exploit code is readily available, it suggests a higher level of maturity, indicating that the
exploit is more reliable and easier to use.

NEW QUESTION 40
A security alert was triggered when an end user tried to access a website that is not allowed per organizational policy. Since the action is considered a terminable
offense, the SOC analyst collects the authentication logs, web logs, and temporary files, reflecting the web searches from the user's workstation, to build the case
for the investigation. Which of the following is the best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies?

A. Create a timeline of events detailinq the date stamps, user account hostname and IP information associated with the activities
B. Ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information Password protect the evidence and restrict access to personnel related to the
investigation
C. Create a code name for the investigation in the ticketing system so that all personnel with access will not be able to easily identity the case as an HR-related
investigation
D. Notify the SOC manager for awareness after confirmation that the activity was intentional

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best way to ensure that the investigation complies with HR or privacy policies is to ensure that the case details do not reflect any user-identifiable information,
such as name, email address, phone number, or employee ID. This can help protect the privacy and confidentiality of the user and prevent any potential
discrimination or retaliation. Additionally, password protecting the evidence and restricting access to personnel related to the investigation can help preserve the
integrity and security of the evidence and prevent any unauthorized or accidental disclosure or modification.

NEW QUESTION 43
A security analyst noticed the following entry on a web server log:
Warning: fopen (http://127.0.0.1:16) :
failed to open stream:
Connection refused in /hj/var/www/showimage.php on line 7
Which of the following malicious activities was most likely attempted?

A. XSS
B. CSRF
C. SSRF
D. RCE

Answer: C

Explanation:
The malicious activity that was most likely attempted is SSRF (Server-Side Request Forgery). This is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerable web application to
make requests to other resources on behalf of the web server. In this case, the attacker tried to use the fopen function to access the local loopback address
(127.0.0.1) on port 16, which could be a service that is not intended to be exposed to the public. The connection was refused, indicating that the port was closed or
filtered. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2: Software and Application Security, page 66.

NEW QUESTION 48
During the log analysis phase, the following suspicious command is detected-

Which of the following is being attempted?

A. Buffer overflow
B. RCE
C. ICMP tunneling
D. Smurf attack

Answer: B

Explanation:
RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious
command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A
buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory
locations and corrupting the program’s execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be
blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply
and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack? Smurf
DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of
…3

NEW QUESTION 51
An organization would like to ensure its cloud infrastructure has a hardened configuration. A requirement is to create a server image that can be deployed with a
secure template. Which of the following is the best resource to ensure secure configuration?

A. CIS Benchmarks
B. PCI DSS
C. OWASP Top Ten
D. ISO 27001

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best resource to ensure secure configuration of cloud infrastructure is A. CIS Benchmarks. CIS Benchmarks are a set of prescriptive configuration
recommendations for various technologies, including cloud providers, operating systems, network devices, and server software. They are developed by a global
community of cybersecurity experts and help organizations protect their systems against threats more confidently1 PCI DSS, OWASP Top Ten, and ISO 27001
are also important standards for information security, but they are not focused on providing specific guidance for hardening cloud infrastructure. PCI DSS is a
compliance scheme for payment card transactions, OWASP Top Ten is a list of common web application security risks, and ISO 27001 is a framework for
establishing and maintaining an information security management system. These standards may have some relevance for cloud security, but they are not as
comprehensive and detailed as CIS Benchmarks

NEW QUESTION 55
A company that has a geographically diverse workforce and dynamic IPs wants to implement a vulnerability scanning method with reduced network traffic. Which
of the following would best meet this requirement?

A. External
B. Agent-based
C. Non-credentialed
D. Credentialed

Answer: B

Explanation:
Agent-based vulnerability scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report
the results to a central server or console. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can reduce network traffic, as the scans are performed locally and only the results are
transmitted over the network. Agent-based vulnerability scanning can also provide more accurate and up-to- date results, as the agents can scan continuously or
on-demand, regardless of the system or network status or location.

NEW QUESTION 58
Given the following CVSS string- CVSS:3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/3:U/C:K/I:K/A:H
Which of the following attributes correctly describes this vulnerability?

A. A user is required to exploit this vulnerability.

B. The vulnerability is network based.
C. The vulnerability does not affect confidentiality.
D. The complexity to exploit the vulnerability is high.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The vulnerability is network based is the correct attribute that describes this vulnerability, as it can be inferred from the CVSS string. CVSS stands for Common
Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that assigns numerical scores and ratings to vulnerabilities based on their characteristics and severity. The
CVSS string consists of several metrics that define different aspects of the vulnerability, such as the attack vector, the attack complexity, the privileges required,
the user interaction, the scope, and the impact on confidentiality, integrity and availability. The first metric in the CVSS string is the attack vector (AV), which
indicates how the vulnerability can be exploited. The value of AV in this case is N, which stands for network. This means that the vulnerability can be exploited
remotely over a network connection, without physical or logical access to the target system. Therefore, the vulnerability is network based. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://packitforwarding.com/index.php/2019/01/10/comptia-cysa-common-vulnerability-scoring-system-cvss/

NEW QUESTION 62
Each time a vulnerability assessment team shares the regular report with other teams, inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure
are discovered. Which of the following is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies?

A. Implementing credentialed scanning

B. Changing from a passive to an active scanning approach
C. Implementing a central place to manage IT assets
D. Performing agentless scanning

Answer: C

Explanation:
Implementing a central place to manage IT assets is the best solution to decrease the inconsistencies regarding versions and patches in the existing infrastructure.
A central place to manage IT assets, such as a configuration management database (CMDB), can help the vulnerability assessment team to have an accurate and
up-to-date inventory of all the hardware and software components in the network, as well as their relationships and dependencies. A CMDB can also track the
changes and updates made to the IT assets, and provide a single source of truth for the vulnerability assessment team and other teams to compare and verify the
versions and patches of the infrastructure12. Implementing credentialed scanning, changing from a passive to an active scanning approach, and performing
agentless scanning are all methods to improve the vulnerability scanning process, but they do not address the root cause of the inconsistencies, which is the lack
of a central place to manage IT assets3. References: What is a Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?, How to Use a CMDB to Improve Vulnerability
Management, Vulnerability Scanning Best Practices

NEW QUESTION 67
A SOC analyst identifies the following content while examining the output of a debugger command over a client-server application:
getconnection (database01, "alpha " , "AXTV. 127GdCx94GTd") ; Which of the following is the most likely vulnerability in this system?

A. Lack of input validation

B. SQL injection
C. Hard-coded credential
D. Buffer overflow attacks

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most likely vulnerability in this system is hard-coded credential. Hard-coded credential is a practice of embedding or storing a username, password, or other
sensitive information in the source code or configuration file of a system or application. Hard-coded credential can pose a serious security risk, as it can expose the
system or application to unauthorized access, data theft, or compromise if the credential is discovered or leaked by an attacker. Hard-coded credential can also
make it difficult to change or update the credential if needed, as it may require modifying the code or file and redeploying the system or application.

NEW QUESTION 70
Which of the following techniques can help a SOC team to reduce the number of alerts related to the internal security activities that the analysts have to triage?

A. Enrich the SIEM-ingested data to include all data required for triage.
B. Schedule a task to disable alerting when vulnerability scans are executing.
C. Filter all alarms in the SIEM with low severity.
D. Add a SOAR rule to drop irrelevant and duplicated notifications.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 72
A cybersecurity analyst notices unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with. Which of the following is the
best mitigation technique?

A. Geoblock the offending source country

B. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
C. Perform a historical trend analysis and look for similar scanning activity.
D. Block the specific IP address of the scans at the network firewall

Answer: A

Explanation:
Geoblocking is the best mitigation technique for unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with, as it can
prevent any potential attacks or data breaches from that country. Geoblocking is the practice of restricting access to websites or services based on geographic
location, usually by blocking IP addresses associated with a certain country or region. Geoblocking can help reduce the overall attack surface and protect against
malicious actors who may be trying to exploit vulnerabilities or steal information. The other options are not as effective as geoblocking, as they may not block all
the possible sources of the scanning activity, or they may not address the root cause of the problem. Official References:
? https://www.blumira.com/geoblocking/
? https://www.avg.com/en/signal/geo-blocking

NEW QUESTION 75
The security operations team is required to consolidate several threat intelligence feeds due to redundant tools and portals. Which of the following will best achieve
the goal and maximize results?

A. Single pane of glass

B. Single sign-on
C. Data enrichment
D. Deduplication

Answer: D

Explanation:
Deduplication is a process that involves removing any duplicate or redundant data or information from a data set or source. Deduplication can help consolidate
several
threat intelligence feeds by eliminating any overlapping or repeated indicators of compromise (IoCs), alerts, reports, or recommendations. Deduplication can also
help reduce the volume and complexity of threat intelligence data, as well as improve its quality, accuracy, or relevance.

NEW QUESTION 79
An analyst views the following log entries:

The organization has a partner vendor with hosts in the 216.122.5.x range. This partner vendor is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only
external vendor with authorized access. The organization prioritizes incident investigation according to the following hierarchy: unauthorized data disclosure is
more critical than denial of service attempts.
which are more important than ensuring vendor data access.
Based on the log files and the organization's priorities, which of the following hosts warrants additional investigation?

A. 121.19.30.221
B. 134.17.188.5
C. 202.180.1582
D. 216.122.5.5

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. 121.19.30.221.

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, the host that warrants additional investigation is 121.19.30.221, because it is the only host that accessed a
file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range.
The log files show the following information:
? The IP addresses of the hosts that accessed the web server
? The date and time of the access
? The file path of the requested resource
? The number of bytes transferred
The organization’s priorities are:
? Unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts
? Denial of service attempts are more important than ensuring vendor data access According to these priorities, the most serious threat to the organization is
unauthorized data disclosure, which occurs when sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, altered, or used by an individual
unauthorized to do so123. Therefore, the host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range poses the highest risk to
the organization.
The file that contains sensitive data is /reports/2023/financials.pdf, as indicated by its name and path. This file was accessed by two hosts: 121.19.30.221 and
216.122.5.5. However, only 121.19.30.221 is not from the partner vendor’s range, which is 216.122.5.x. Therefore, 121.19.30.221 is a potential unauthorized data
disclosure threat and warrants additional investigation.
The other hosts do not warrant additional investigation based on the log files and the organization’s priorities.
Host 134.17.188.5 accessed /index.html multiple times in a short period of time, which could indicate a denial of service attempt by flooding the web server with
requests45. However, denial of service attempts are less critical than unauthorized data disclosure according to the organization’s priorities, and there is no
evidence that this host succeeded in disrupting the web server’s normal operations.
Host 202.180.1582 accessed /images/logo.png once, which does not indicate any malicious activity or threat to the organization.
Host 216.122.5.5 accessed /reports/2023/financials.pdf once, which could indicate unauthorized data disclosure if it was not authorized to do so. However, this
host is from the partner vendor’s range, which is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access according to
the organization’s requirements. Therefore, based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, host 121.19.30.221 warrants additional investigation as it
poses the highest risk of unauthorized data disclosure to the organization.

NEW QUESTION 84
An organization was compromised, and the usernames and passwords of all em-ployees were leaked online. Which of the following best describes the remedia-
tion that could reduce the impact of this situation?

A. Multifactor authentication
B. Password changes
C. System hardening
D. Password encryption

Answer: A

Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity, such as a password, a
PIN, a fingerprint, or a one-time code. MFA can reduce the impact of a credential leak because even if the attackers have the usernames and passwords of the
employees, they would still need another factor to access the organization’s systems and resources. Password changes, system hardening, and password
encryption are also good security practices, but they do not address the immediate threat of compromised credentials.
References: CompTIA CySA+ Certification Exam Objectives, [What Is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)?]

NEW QUESTION 85
A security analyst receives an alert for suspicious activity on a company laptop An excerpt of the log is shown below:

Which of the following has most likely occurred?

A. An Office document with a malicious macro was opened.

B. A credential-stealing website was visited.
C. A phishing link in an email was clicked
D. A web browser vulnerability was exploited.

Answer: A

Explanation:
An Office document with a malicious macro was opened is the most likely explanation for the suspicious activity on the company laptop, as it reflects the common
technique of using macros to execute PowerShell commands that download and run malware. A macro is a piece of code that can automate tasks or perform
actions in an Office document, such as a Word file or an Excel spreadsheet. Macros can be useful and legitimate, but they can also be abused by threat actors to

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

deliver malware or perform malicious actions on the system. A malicious macro can be embedded in an Office document that is sent as an attachment in a
phishing email or hosted on a compromised website. When the user opens the document, they may be prompted to enable macros or content, which will trigger
the execution of the malicious code. The malicious macro can then use PowerShell, which is a scripting language and command-line shell that is built into
Windows, to perform various tasks, such as downloading and running malware from a remote URL, bypassing security controls, or establishing persistence on the
system. The log excerpt shows that PowerShell was used to download a string from a URL using the WebClient.DownloadString method, which is a common way
to fetch and execute malicious code from the internet. The log also shows that PowerShell was used to invoke an expression (iex) that contains obfuscated code,
which is another common way to evade detection and analysis. The other options are not as likely as an Office document with a malicious macro was opened, as
they do not match the evidence in the log excerpt. A credential-stealing website was visited is possible, but it does not explain why PowerShell was used to
download and execute code from a URL. A phishing link in an email was clicked is also possible, but it does not explain what happened after the link was clicked
or how PowerShell was involved. A web browser vulnerability was exploited is unlikely, as it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute
code from a URL.

NEW QUESTION 88
An incident response team is working with law enforcement to investigate an active web server compromise. The decision has been made to keep the server
running and to implement compensating controls for a period of time. The web service must be accessible from the internet via the reverse proxy and must
connect to a database server. Which of the following compensating controls will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements? (Select two).

A. Drop the tables on the database server to prevent data exfiltration.

B. Deploy EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities.
C. Stop the httpd service on the web server so that the adversary can not use web exploits
D. use micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers.
E. Comment out the HTTP account in the / etc/passwd file of the web server
F. Move the database from the database server to the web server.

Answer: BD

Explanation:
Deploying EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities and using micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the
web and database servers are two compensating controls that will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements. A compensating control is a
security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or an attack when the primary control is not feasible or effective. EDR stands for
Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a tool that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual response capabilities. EDR can
help contain the adversary by detecting and blocking their actions, such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, privilege escalation, or command execution. Micro
segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments based on policies and rules, and applies granular access controls to each segment.
Micro segmentation can help contain the adversary by isolating the web and database servers from other parts of the network, and limiting the traffic that can flow
between them. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 91
A security analyst is working on a server patch management policy that will allow the infrastructure team to be informed more quickly about new patches. Which of
the following would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly? (Select two).

A. Hostname
B. Missing KPI
C. CVE details
D. POC availability
E. loCs
F. npm identifier

Answer: CE

Explanation:
CVE details and IoCs are information that would most likely be required by the infrastructure team so that vulnerabilities can be remediated quickly. CVE details
provide the description, severity, impact, and solution of the vulnerabilities that affect the servers. IoCs are indicators of compromise that help identify and respond
to potential threats or attacks on the servers. ReferencesS: erver and Workstation Patch Management Policy, Section: Policy; Patch Management Policy: Why You
Need One in 2024, Section: What is a patch management policy?

NEW QUESTION 94
A security team is concerned about recent Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. Which of the following controls would best mitigate the attacks?

A. Block the attacks using firewall rules.

B. Deploy an IPS in the perimeter network.
C. Roll out a CDN.
D. Implement a load balancer.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Rolling out a CDN is the best control to mitigate the Layer 4 DDoS attacks against the company website. A CDN is a Content Delivery Network, which is a system
of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the web page, and the content delivery server. A CDN can
help protect against Layer 4 DDoS attacks, which are volumetric attacks that aim to exhaust the network bandwidth or resources of the target website by sending a
large amount of traffic, such as SYN floods, UDP floods, or ICMP floods. A CDN can mitigate these attacks by distributing the traffic across multiple servers,
caching the web content closer to the users, filtering out malicious or unwanted traffic, and providing scalability and redundancy for the website12. References:
How to Stop a DDoS Attack: Mitigation Steps for Each OSI Layer, Application layer DDoS attack | Cloudflare

NEW QUESTION 95
There are several reports of sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services. The company would like to improve its security posture against this
threat. Which of the following security controls would best support the company in this scenario?

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

A. Implement step-up authentication for administrators

B. Improve employee training and awareness
C. Increase password complexity standards
D. Deploy mobile device management

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best security control to implement against sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services is to improve employee training and awareness.
Employee training and awareness can help educate employees on the risks and consequences of using file sharing services for sensitive information, as well as
the policies and procedures for handling such information securely and appropriately. Employee training and awareness can also help foster a security culture and
encourage employees to report any incidents or violations of information security.

NEW QUESTION 99
Which of the following phases of the Cyber Kill Chain involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target?

A. Command and control

B. Actions on objectives
C. Exploitation
D. Delivery

Answer: A

Explanation:
Command and control (C2) is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited
target. C2 enables the adversary to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors,
botnets, or covert channels. C2 allows the adversary to maintain persistence, exfiltrate data, execute commands, deliver payloads, or spread to other systems or
networks.

NEW QUESTION 102

After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high.
The CISO refused the software request. Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select?

A. Avoid
B. Transfer
C. Accept
D. Mitigate

Answer: A

Explanation:
Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or
unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO
decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management.

NEW QUESTION 105

Which of the following would eliminate the need for different passwords for a variety or internal application?

A. CASB
B. SSO
C. PAM
D. MFA

Answer: B

Explanation:
Single Sign-On (SSO) allows users to log in with a single ID and password to access multiple applications. It eliminates the need for different passwords for
various internal applications, streamlining the authentication process.

NEW QUESTION 109

A vulnerability scan of a web server that is exposed to the internet was recently completed. A security analyst is reviewing the resulting vector strings:
Vulnerability 1: CVSS: 3.0/AV:N/AC: L/PR: N/UI : N/S: U/C: H/I : L/A:L Vulnerability 2: CVSS: 3.0/AV: L/AC: H/PR:N/UI : N/S: U/C: L/I : L/A: H Vulnerability 3:
CVSS: 3.0/AV:A/AC: H/PR: L/UI : R/S: U/C: L/I : H/A:L Vulnerability 4: CVSS: 3.0/AV: P/AC: L/PR: H/UI : N/S: U/C: H/I:N/A:L
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first?

A. Vulnerability 1
B. Vulnerability 2
C. Vulnerability 3
D. Vulnerability 4

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 110

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) wants to disable a functionality on a business- critical web application that is vulnerable to RCE in order to maintain the
minimum risk level with minimal increased cost.
Which of the following risk treatments best describes what the CISO is looking for?

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

A. Transfer
B. Mitigate
C. Accept
D. Avoid

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 112

A SOC manager receives a phone call from an upset customer. The customer received a vulnerability report two hours ago: but the report did not have a follow-up
remediation response from an analyst. Which of the following documents should the SOC manager review to ensure the team is meeting the appropriate
contractual obligations for the customer?

A. SLA
B. MOU
C. NDA
D. Limitation of liability

Answer: A

Explanation:
SLA stands for service level agreement, which is a contract or document that defines the expectations and obligations between a service provider and a customer
regarding the quality, availability, performance, or scope of a service. An SLA may also specify the metrics, penalties, or remedies for measuring or ensuring
compliance with the agreed service levels. An SLA can help the SOC manager review if the team is meeting the appropriate contractual obligations for the
customer, such as response time, resolution time, reporting frequency, or communication channels.

NEW QUESTION 114

An analyst has received an IPS event notification from the SIEM stating an IP address, which is known to be malicious, has attempted to exploit a zero-day
vulnerability on several web servers. The exploit contained the following snippet:
/wp-json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout?sc=wp_insert_user&role=administrator
Which of the following controls would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet?

A. Limit user creation to administrators only.

B. Limit layout creation to administrators only.
C. Set the directory trx_addons to read only for all users.
D. Set the directory v2 to read only for all users.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Limiting user creation to administrators only would work best to mitigate the attack represented by this snippet. The snippet shows an attempt to exploit a zero-day
vulnerability in the ThemeREX Addons WordPress plugin, which allows remote code execution by invoking arbitrary PHP functions via the REST-API endpoint
/wp- json/trx_addons/V2/get/sc_layout. In this case, the attacker tries to use the wp_insert_user function to create a new administrator account on the WordPress
site12. Limiting user creation to administrators only would prevent the attacker from succeeding, as they would need to provide valid administrator credentials to
create a new user. This can be done by using a plugin or a code snippet that restricts user registration to administrators34. Limiting layout creation to
administrators only, setting the directory trx_addons to read only for all users, and setting the directory v2 to read only for all users are not effective controls to
mitigate the attack, as they do not address the core of the vulnerability, which is the lack of input validation and sanitization on the REST-API endpoint. Moreover,
setting directories to read only may affect the functionality of the plugin or the WordPress site56. References: Zero-Day Vulnerability in ThemeREX Addons Now
Patched - Wordfence, Mitigating Zero Day Attacks With a Detection, Prevention … - Spiceworks, How to Restrict WordPress User Registration to Specific Email …,
How to Limit WordPress User Registration to Specific Domains, WordPress File Permissions: A Guide to Securing Your Website, WordPress File Permissions:
What is the Ideal Setting?

NEW QUESTION 116

A security analyst discovers an LFI vulnerability that can be exploited to extract credentials from the underlying host. Which of the following patterns can the
security analyst use to search the web server
logs for evidence of exploitation of that particular vulnerability?

A. /etc/ shadow
B. curl localhost
C. ; printenv
D. cat /proc/self/

Answer: A

Explanation:
/etc/shadow is the pattern that the security analyst can use to search the web server logs for evidence of exploitation of the LFI vulnerability that can be exploited
to extract credentials from the underlying host. LFI stands for Local File Inclusion, which is a vulnerability that allows an attacker to include local files on the web
server into the output of a web application. LFI can be exploited to extract sensitive information from the web server, such as configuration files, passwords, or
source code. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores the encrypted passwords of all users on a Linux system. If an attacker can exploit the LFI vulnerability to
include this file into the web application output, they can obtain the credentials of the users on the web server. Therefore, the security analyst can look for
/etc/shadow in the request line of the web server logs to see if any attacker has attempted or succeeded in exploiting the LFI vulnerability. Official References:
? https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered

NEW QUESTION 117

A security analyst is reviewing a packet capture in Wireshark that contains an FTP session from a potentially compromised machine. The analyst sets the following
display filter: ftp. The analyst can see there are several RETR requests with 226 Transfer complete responses, but the packet list pane is not showing the packets
containing the file transfer itself. Which of the following can the analyst perform to see the entire contents of the downloaded files?

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

A. Change the display filter to f c

B. acciv
C. pore
D. Change the display filter to tcg.port=20
E. Change the display filter to f cp-daca and follow the TCP streams
F. Navigate to the File menu and select FTP from the Export objects option

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best way to see the entire contents of the downloaded files in Wireshark is to change the display filter to ftp-data and follow the TCP streams. FTP-data is a
protocol that is used to transfer files between an FTP client and server using TCP port 20. By filtering for ftp-data packets and following the TCP streams, the
analyst can see the actual file data that was transferred during the FTP session

NEW QUESTION 120

A cryptocurrency service company is primarily concerned with ensuring the accuracy of the data on one of its systems. A security analyst has been tasked with
prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation for the system. The analyst will use the following CVSSv3.1 impact metrics for prioritization:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability 2 has the highest impact metrics, specifically the highest attack vector (AV) and attack complexity (AC) values. This means that the vulnerability is
more likely to be exploited and more difficult to remediate.
References:
? CVSS v3.1 Specification Document, section 2.1.1 and 2.1.2
? The CVSS v3 Vulnerability Scoring System, section 3.1 and 3.2

NEW QUESTION 124

A security analyst is reviewing the findings of the latest vulnerability report for a company's web application. The web application accepts files for a Bash script to
be processed if the files match a given hash. The analyst is able to submit files to the system due to a hash collision. Which of the following should the analyst
suggest to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure?

A. Deploy a WAF to the front of the application.

B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
C. Deploy an antivirus application on the hosting system.
D. Replace the MD5 with digital signatures.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.
The vulnerability that the security analyst is able to exploit is a hash collision, which is a situation where two different files produce the same hash value. Hash
collisions can allow an attacker to bypass the integrity or authentication checks that rely on hash values, and submit malicious files to the system. The web
application uses MD5, which is a hashing algorithm that is known to be vulnerable to hash collisions. Therefore, the analyst should suggest replacing the current
MD5 with SHA-256, which is a more secure and collision- resistant hashing algorithm.
The other options are not the best suggestions to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure. Deploying a WAF (web
application firewall) to the front of the application (A) may help protect the web application from some common attacks, but it may not prevent hash collisions or
detect malicious files. Deploying an antivirus application on the hosting system © may help scan and remove malicious files from the system, but it may not prevent
hash collisions or block malicious files from being submitted. Replacing the MD5 with digital signatures (D) may help verify the authenticity and integrity of the files,
but it may require significant changes to the current script and infrastructure, as digital signatures involve public-key cryptography and certificate authorities.

NEW QUESTION 127

Which Of the following techniques would be best to provide the necessary assurance for embedded software that drives centrifugal pumps at a power Plant?

A. Containerization
B. Manual code reviews
C. Static and dynamic analysis
D. Formal methods

Answer: D

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Explanation:
According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, the best technique to provide the necessary assurance for embedded software that
drives centrifugal pumps at a power plant is formal methods. Formal methods are a rigorous and mathematical approach to software development and verification,
which can ensure the correctness and reliability of critical software systems. Formal methods can be used to specify, design, implement, and verify embedded
software using formal languages, logics, and tools1.
Containerization, manual code reviews, and static and dynamic analysis are also useful techniques for software assurance, but they are not as rigorous or
comprehensive as formal methods. Containerization is a method of isolating and packaging software applications with their dependencies, which can improve
security, portability, and scalability. Manual code reviews are a process of examining the source code of a software program by human reviewers, which can help
identify errors, vulnerabilities, and compliance issues. Static and dynamic analysis are techniques of testing and evaluating software without executing it (static) or
while executing it (dynamic), which can help detect bugs, defects, and performance issues1.

NEW QUESTION 128

A company is in the process of implementing a vulnerability management program, and there are concerns about granting the security team access to sensitive
data. Which of the following scanning methods can be implemented to reduce the access to systems while providing the most accurate vulnerability scan results?

A. Credentialed network scanning

B. Passive scanning
C. Agent-based scanning
D. Dynamic scanning

Answer: C

Explanation:
Agent-based scanning is a method that involves installing software agents on the target systems or networks that can perform local scans and report the results to
a central server or console. Agent-based scanning can reduce the access to systems, as the agents do not require any credentials or permissions to scan the local
system or network. Agent-based scanning can also provide the most accurate vulnerability scan results, as the agents can scan continuously or on-demand,
regardless of the system or network status or location.

NEW QUESTION 131

A company's user accounts have been compromised. Users are also reporting that the company's internal portal is sometimes only accessible through HTTP,
other times; it is accessible through HTTPS. Which of the following most likely describes the observed activity?

A. There is an issue with the SSL certificate causinq port 443 to become unavailable for HTTPS access
B. An on-path attack is being performed by someone with internal access that forces users into port 80
C. The web server cannot handle an increasing amount of HTTPS requests so it forwards users to port 80
D. An error was caused by BGP due to new rules applied over the company's internal routers

Answer: B

Explanation:
An on-path attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack where an attacker intercepts and modifies network traffic between two parties. In this case, someone with
internal access may be performing an on-path attack by forcing users into port 80, which is used for HTTP communication, instead of port 443, which is used for
HTTPS communication. This would allow the attacker to compromise the user accounts and access the company’s internal portal.

NEW QUESTION 134

A security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM. The analyst no longer had to jump between
tools. Which of
the following best describes what the security program did?

A. Data enrichment
B. Security control plane
C. Threat feed combination
D. Single pane of glass

Answer: D

Explanation:
A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single
pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and
systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security
program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security
operations. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity- exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack

NEW QUESTION 135

Which of the following would an organization use to develop a business continuity plan?

A. A diagram of all systems and interdependent applications

B. A repository for all the software used by the organization
C. A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership
D. A configuration management database in print at an off-site location

Answer: C

Explanation:
A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership is the best option to use to develop a business continuity plan. A business continuity plan (BCP)
is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function
quickly in the event of a disaster1. A BCP should include a business impact analysis, which identifies the critical systems and processes that are essential for the
continuity of the business operations, and the potential impacts of their disruption2. The executive leadership should be involved in defining the critical systems
and their priorities, as they have the strategic vision and authority to make decisions that affect the whole organization3. A diagram of all systems and

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

interdependent applications, a repository for all the software used by the organization, and a configuration management database in print at an off-site location are
all useful tools for documenting and managing the IT infrastructure, but they are not sufficient to develop a comprehensive BCP that covers all aspects of the
business continuity4. References: What Is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), and How Does It Work?, Business continuity plan (BCP) in 8 steps, with templates,
Business continuity planning | Business Queensland, Understanding the Essentials of a Business Continuity Plan

NEW QUESTION 138

Which of the following makes STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines?

A. XML
B. URL
C. OVAL
D. TAXII

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. XML.
STIX and OpenloC are two standards for representing and exchanging cyber threat intelligence (CTI) information. STIX stands for Structured Threat Information
Expression and OpenloC stands for Open Location and Identity Coordinates. Both standards use XML as the underlying data format to encode the information in a
structured and machine- readable way. XML stands for Extensible Markup Language and it is a widely used standard for defining and exchanging data on the web.
XML uses tags, attributes, and elements to describe the structure and meaning of the data. XML is also human-readable, as it uses plain text and follows a
hierarchical and nested structure.
XML is not the only format that can be used to make STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines, but it is the most common and widely
supported one. Other formats that can be used include JSON, CSV, or PDF, depending on the use case and the preferences of the information producers and
consumers. However, XML has some advantages over other formats, such as:
? XML is more expressive and flexible than JSON or CSV, as it can define complex data types, schemas, namespaces, and validation rules.
? XML is more standardized and interoperable than PDF, as it can be easily parsed, transformed, validated, and queried by various tools and languages.
? XML is more compatible with existing CTI standards and tools than other formats, as it is the basis for STIX 1.x, TAXII 1.x, MAEC, CybOX, OVAL, and others.
References:
? 1 Introduction to STIX - GitHub Pages
? 2 5 Best Threat Intelligence Feeds in 2023 (Free & Paid Tools) - Comparitech
? 3 What Are STIX/TAXII Standards? - Anomali Resources
? 4 What is STIX/TAXII? | Cloudflare
? 5 Sample Use | TAXII Project Documentation - GitHub Pages
? 6 Trying to retrieve xml data with taxii - Stack Overflow
? 7 CISA AIS TAXII Server Connection Guide
? 8 CISA AIS TAXII Server Connection Guide v2.0 | CISA

NEW QUESTION 141

Which of the following can be used to learn more about TTPs used by cybercriminals?

A. ZenMAP
B. MITRE ATT&CK
C. National Institute of Standards and Technology
D. theHarvester

Answer: B

Explanation:
MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for the
development of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, in government, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help
security professionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensive framework of TTPs.
References: MITRE ATT&CK, Getting Started with ATT&CK, MITRE ATT&CK | MITRE

NEW QUESTION 143

An analyst wants to ensure that users only leverage web-based software that has been pre-approved by the organization. Which of the following should be
deployed?

A. Blocklisting
B. Allowlisting
C. Graylisting
D. Webhooks

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Allowlisting.
Allowlisting is a technique that allows only pre-approved web-based software to run on a system or network, while blocking all other software. Allowlisting can help
prevent unauthorized or malicious software from compromising the security of an organization. Allowlisting can be implemented using various methods, such as
application control, browser extensions, firewall rules, or proxy servers12.
The other options are not the best techniques to ensure that users only leverage web- based software that has been pre-approved by the organization. Blocklisting
(A) is a technique that blocks specific web-based software from running on a system or network, while allowing all other software. Blocklisting can be ineffective or
inefficient, as it requires constant updates and may not catch all malicious software. Graylisting © is a technique that temporarily rejects or delays incoming
messages from unknown or suspicious sources, until they are verified as legitimate. Graylisting is mainly used for email filtering, not for
web-based software control. Webhooks (D) are a technique that allows web-based software to send or receive data from other web-based software in real time,
based on certain events or triggers. Webhooks are not related to web-based software control, but rather to web-based software integration.

NEW QUESTION 148

While a security analyst for an organization was reviewing logs from web servers. the analyst found several successful attempts to downgrade HTTPS sessions to

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

use cipher modes of operation susceptible to padding oracle attacks. Which of the following combinations of configuration changes should the organization make
to remediate this issue? (Select two).

A. Configure the server to prefer TLS 1.3.

B. Remove cipher suites that use CBC.
C. Configure the server to prefer ephemeral modes for key exchange.
D. Require client browsers to present a user certificate for mutual authentication.
E. Configure the server to require HSTS.
F. Remove cipher suites that use GCM.

Answer: AB

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Configure the server to prefer TLS 1.3 and B. Remove cipher suites that use CBC.
A padding oracle attack is a type of attack that exploits the padding validation of a cryptographic message to decrypt the ciphertext without knowing the key. A
padding oracle is a system that responds to queries about whether a message has a valid padding or not, such as a web server that returns different error
messages for invalid padding or invalid MAC. A padding oracle attack can be applied to the CBC mode of operation, where the attacker can manipulate the
ciphertext blocks and use the oracle’s responses to recover the plaintext12.
To remediate this issue, the organization should make the following configuration changes:
? Configure the server to prefer TLS 1.3. TLS 1.3 is the latest version of the Transport Layer Security protocol, which provides secure communication between
clients and servers. TLS 1.3 has several security improvements over previous versions, such as:
? Remove cipher suites that use CBC. Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that specify how TLS connections are secured. Cipher suites
that use CBC mode are vulnerable to padding oracle attacks, as well as other attacks such as BEAST and Lucky 13. Therefore, they should be removed from the
server’s configuration and replaced with cipher suites that use more secure modes of operation, such as GCM or CCM78.
The other options are not effective or necessary to remediate this issue.
Option C is not effective because configuring the server to prefer ephemeral modes for key exchange does not prevent padding oracle attacks. Ephemeral modes
for key exchange are methods that generate temporary and random keys for each session, such as Diffie- Hellman or Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman. Ephemeral
modes provide forward secrecy, which means that compromising the long-term keys does not affect the security of past sessions. However, ephemeral modes do
not protect against padding oracle attacks, which exploit the padding validation of the ciphertext rather than the key exchange9.
Option D is not necessary because requiring client browsers to present a user certificate for mutual authentication does not prevent padding oracle attacks. Mutual
authentication is a process that verifies the identity of both parties in a communication, such as using certificates or passwords. Mutual authentication enhances
security by preventing impersonation or spoofing attacks. However, mutual authentication does not protect against padding oracle attacks, which exploit the
padding validation of the ciphertext rather than the authentication.
Option E is not necessary because configuring the server to require HSTS does not prevent padding oracle attacks. HSTS stands for HTTP Strict Transport
Security and it is a mechanism that forces browsers to use HTTPS connections instead of HTTP connections when communicating with a web server. HSTS
enhances security by preventing downgrade or man-in-the-middle attacks that try to intercept or modify HTTP traffic. However, HSTS does not protect against
padding oracle attacks, which exploit the padding validation of HTTPS traffic rather than the protocol.
Option F is not effective because removing cipher suites that use GCM does not prevent padding oracle attacks. GCM stands for Galois/Counter Mode and it is a
mode of operation that provides both encryption and authentication for block ciphers, such as AES. GCM is more secure and efficient than CBC mode, as it
prevents various types of attacks, such as padding oracle, BEAST, Lucky 13, and IV reuse attacks. Therefore, removing cipher suites that use GCM would reduce
security rather than enhance it .
References:
? 1 Padding oracle attack - Wikipedia
? 2 flast101/padding-oracle-attack-explained - GitHub
? 3 A Cryptographic Analysis of the TLS 1.3 Handshake Protocol | Journal of Cryptology
? 4 Which block cipher mode of operation does TLS 1.3 use? - Cryptography Stack Exchange
? 5 The Essentials of Using an Ephemeral Key Under TLS 1.3
? 6 Guidelines for the Selection, Configuration, and Use of … - NIST
? 7 CBC decryption vulnerability - .NET | Microsoft Learn
? 8 The Padding Oracle Attack | Robert Heaton
? 9 What is Ephemeral Diffie-Hellman? | Cloudflare
? [10] What is Mutual TLS? How mTLS Authentication Works | Cloudflare
? [11] What is HSTS? HTTP Strict Transport Security Explained | Cloudflare
? [12] Galois/Counter Mode - Wikipedia
? [13] AES-GCM and its IV/nonce value - Cryptography Stack Exchange

NEW QUESTION 150

A systems administrator notices unfamiliar directory names on a production server. The administrator reviews the directory listings and files, and then concludes
the server has been
compromised. Which of the following steps should the administrator take next?

A. Inform the internal incident response team.

B. Follow the company's incident response plan.
C. Review the lessons learned for the best approach.
D. Determine when the access started.

Answer: B

Explanation:
An incident response plan is a set of predefined procedures and guidelines that an organization follows when faced with a security breach or attack. An incident
response plan helps to ensure that the organization can quickly and effectively contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from the incident, as well as prevent or
minimize the damage and impact to the business operations, reputation, and customers. An incident response plan also defines the roles and responsibilities of
the incident response team, the communication channels and protocols, the escalation and reporting procedures, and the tools and resources available for the
incident response.
By following the company’s incident response plan, the administrator can ensure that they are following the best practices and standards for handling a security
incident, and that they are coordinating and collaborating with the relevant stakeholders and authorities. Following the company’s incident response plan can also
help to avoid or reduce any legal, regulatory, or contractual liabilities or penalties that may arise from the incident.
The other options are not as effective or appropriate as following the company’s incident response plan. Informing the internal incident response team (A) is a
good step, but it should be done according to the company’s incident response plan, which may specify who, when, how, and what to report. Reviewing the
lessons learned for the best approach © is a good step, but it should be done after the incident has been resolved and closed, not during the active response
phase. Determining when the access started (D) is a good step, but it should be done as part of the analysis phase of the incident response plan, not before
following the plan.

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

NEW QUESTION 153

The vulnerability analyst reviews threat intelligence regarding emerging vulnerabilities affecting workstations that are used within the company:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should the analyst be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email?

A. Vulnerability A
B. Vulnerability B
C. Vulnerability C
D. Vulnerability D

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vulnerability B is the vulnerability that the analyst should be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email.
Vulnerability B is a remote code execution vulnerability in Microsoft Outlook that allows an attacker to run arbitrary code on the target system by sending a
specially crafted email message. This vulnerability is very dangerous, as it does not require any user interaction or attachment opening to trigger the exploit. The
attacker only needs to send an email to the victim’s Outlook account, and the code will execute automatically when Outlook connects to the Exchange server. This
vulnerability has a high severity rating of 9.8 out of 10, and it affects all supported versions of Outlook. Therefore, the analyst should prioritize patching this
vulnerability as soon as possible to prevent potential compromise of the workstations.

NEW QUESTION 158

Due to reports of unauthorized activity that was occurring on the internal network, an analyst is performing a network discovery. The analyst runs an Nmap scan
against a corporate network to evaluate which devices were operating in the environment. Given the following output:

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Which of the following choices should the analyst look at first?

A. wh4dc-748gy.lan (192.168.86.152)
B. lan (192.168.86.22)
C. imaging.lan (192.168.86.150)
D. xlaptop.lan (192.168.86.249)
E. p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56)

Answer: E

Explanation:
The analyst should look at p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) first, as this is the most suspicious device on the network. P4wnP1 ALOA is a tool that can be used
to create a malicious USB device that can perform various attacks, such as keystroke injection, network sniffing, man-in-the-middle, or backdoor creation. The
presence of a device with this name on the network could indicate that an attacker has plugged in a malicious USB device to a system and gained access to the
network. Official References: https://github.com/mame82/P4wnP1_aloa

NEW QUESTION 161

A SOC analyst recommends adding a layer of defense for all endpoints that will better protect against external threats regardless of the device's operating system.
Which of the following best meets this
requirement?

A. SIEM

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

B. CASB
C. SOAR
D. EDR

Answer: D

Explanation:
EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a layer of defense that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual
response capabilities. EDR can protect against external threats regardless of the device’s operating system, as it can detect and respond to attacks based on
behavioral analysis and threat intelligence. EDR is also one of the tools that CompTIA CySA+ covers in its exam objectives. Official References:
? https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
? https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your- questions-answered
? https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/cysa-plus-ia-levels/

NEW QUESTION 166

A small company does no! have enough staff to effectively segregate duties to prevent error and fraud in payroll management. The Chief Information Security
Officer (CISO) decides to maintain and review logs and audit trails to mitigate risk. Which of the following did the CISO implement?

A. Corrective controls
B. Compensating controls
C. Operational controls
D. Administrative controls

Answer: B

Explanation:
Compensating controls are alternative controls that provide a similar level of protection as the original controls, but are used when the original controls are not
feasible or cost-effective. In this case, the CISO implemented compensating controls by reviewing logs and audit trails to mitigate the risk of error and fraud in
payroll management, since segregating duties was not possible due to the small staff size

NEW QUESTION 169

Which of the following most accurately describes the Cyber Kill Chain methodology?

A. It is used to correlate events to ascertain the TTPs of an attacker.

B. It is used to ascertain lateral movements of an attacker, enabling the process to be stopped.
C. It provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion andthe actions to take at each stage
D. It outlines a clear path for determining the relationships between the attacker, the technology used, and the target

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Cyber Kill Chain methodology provides a clear model of how an attacker generally operates during an intrusion and the actions to take at each stage. It is
divided into seven stages: reconnaissance, weaponization, delivery, exploitation, installation, command and control, and actions on objectives. It helps network
defenders understand and prevent cyberattacks by identifying the attacker’s objectives and tactics. References: The Cyber Kill Chain: The Seven Steps of a
Cyberattack

NEW QUESTION 170

An incident response team receives an alert to start an investigation of an internet outage. The outage is preventing all users in multiple locations from accessing
external SaaS resources. The team determines the organization was impacted by a DDoS attack. Which of the following logs should the team review first?

A. CDN
B. Vulnerability scanner
C. DNS
D. Web server

Answer: C

Explanation:
A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to overwhelm a target’s network or server with a large volume of traffic from
multiple sources. A common technique for launching a DDoS attack is to compromise DNS servers, which are responsible for resolving domain names into IP
addresses. By flooding DNS servers with malicious requests, attackers can disrupt the normal functioning of the internet and prevent users from accessing
external SaaS resources. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack/

NEW QUESTION 174

SIMULATION
Approximately 100 employees at your company have received a Phishing email. AS a security analyst. you have been tasked with handling this Situation.

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Review the information provided and determine the following:

* 1. HOW many employees Clicked on the link in the Phishing email?
* 2. on how many workstations was the malware installed?
* 3. what is the executable file name of the malware?

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
* 1. How many employees clicked on the link in the phishing email?
According to the email server logs, 25 employees clicked on the link in the phishing email.
* 2. On how many workstations was the malware installed?
According to the file server logs, the malware was installed on 15 workstations.
* 3. What is the executable file name of the malware?
The executable file name of the malware is svchost.EXE. Answers
? 1. 25
? 2. 15
? 3. svchost.EXE

NEW QUESTION 177

A company is concerned with finding sensitive file storage locations that are open to the public. The current internal cloud network is flat. Which of the following is
the best solution to secure the network?

A. Implement segmentation with ACLs.

B. Configure logging and monitoring to the SIEM.
C. Deploy MFA to cloud storage locations.
D. Roll out an IDS.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Implementing segmentation with ACLs is the best solution to secure the network. Segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks, or
segments, based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Segmentation can help improve the network performance, scalability, and manageability,
as well as enhance the network security by isolating the sensitive or critical data and systems from the rest of the network. ACLs are Access Control Lists, which
are rules or policies that specify which users, devices, or applications can access a network segment or resource, and which actions they can perform. ACLs can
help enforce the principle of least privilege, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access to the network segments or resources12. Configuring logging and
monitoring to the SIEM, deploying MFA to cloud storage locations, and rolling out an IDS are all good security practices, but they are not the best solution to
secure the network. Logging and monitoring to the SIEM can help detect and analyze the network events and incidents, but they do not prevent them. MFA can
help authenticate the users who access the cloud storage locations, but it does not protect the network from attacks or breaches. IDS can help identify and alert
the network intrusions, but it does not block them34 . References: Network Segmentation: What It Is and How to Do It Right, What is an Access Control List
(ACL)? | IBM, What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is Multifactor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security, [What is an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)? | IBM]

NEW QUESTION 180

......

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

 We recommend you to try the PREMIUM CS0-003 Dumps From Exambible
https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/ (150 Q&As)

Relate Links

100% Pass Your CS0-003 Exam with Exambible Prep Materials

https://www.exambible.com/CS0-003-exam/

Contact us

We are proud of our high-quality customer service, which serves you around the clock 24/7.

Viste - https://www.exambible.com/

Your Partner of IT Exam visit - https://www.exambible.com

Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)