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EVIDENCE
CLJ 5 Professor: Mark Vencent P. Jacutin, LPT, MSMAED, J.D.
I. MULTIPLE CHOICE: Choose the best letter that corresponds to
your answer. Write the letters only. (2pts. each)
1. To prove that Alicia stabbed her husband Santiago, Magno testified
that he heard Rico running down the street, shouting excitedly, “Sinaksak daw ni Alicia ang asawa niya!” Is Rico’s statement as narrated by Magno admissible? A. No, since the startling event had passed. B. Yes, as part of the res gestae. C. No, since the excited statement is itself hearsay. D. Yes, as an independently relevant statement. 2. To prove the identity of the assailant in a crime of homicide, a police officer testified that, Andy, who did not testify in court, pointed a finger at the accused in a police lineup. Is the police officer’s testimony regarding Andy’s identification of the accused admissible evidence? A. Yes, since it is based on his personal knowledge of Andy’s identification of the accused. B. Yes, since it constitutes an independently relevant statement. C. No, since the police had the accused identified without warning him of his rights. D. No, since the testimony is hearsay. 3. Which of the following is NOT REQUIRED of declaration against interest as an exception to the hearsay rule? A. The declarant had no motive to falsify and believed such declaration to be true. B. The declarant is dead or unable to testify. C. The declaration relates to a fact against the interest of the declarant. D. At the time he made said declaration he was unaware that the same was contrary to his aforesaid interest. 4. Character evidence is admissible A. In criminal cases, the accused may prove his good moral character if pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged. B. In criminal cases, the prosecution may prove the bad moral character of the accused to prove his criminal predisposition. C. In criminal cases, the bad moral character of the offended party may not be proved. D. When it is evidence of the good character of a witness even prior to impeachment. 5. Henry testified that a month after the robbery Asiong, one of the accused, told him that Carlos was one of those who committed the crime with him. Is Henry’s testimony regarding what Asiong told him admissible in evidence against Carlos? A. No, since it is hearsay. B. No, since Asiong did not make the statement during the conspiracy. C. Yes, since it constitutes admission against co-conspirator. D. Yes, since it part of the res gestate. 6. To prove that payment of a debt, Bong testified that he heard Darence say, as the latter was handing over money to Ana, that it was payment of debt. Is Bong’s testimony admissible in evidence? A. Yes, since what Darence said and did is an independently relevant statement. B. No, since what Darence said and did was not in response to a startling occurrence. C. No, since Bong’s testimony of what Darence said and did is hearsay. D. Yes, since Darence’s statement and action, subject of Bong’s testimony, constitutes a verbal act. 7. Considering the qualifications required of a would-be witness, who among the following is INCOMPETENT to testify? A. A person under the influence of drugs when the event he is asked to testify on took place. B. A person convicted of perjury who will testify as an attesting witness to a will. C. A deaf and dumb. D. A mental retardate. 8. Which of the following is TRUE regarding Parol evidence? A. All writings shall trigger the application of the parol evidence rule. B. Parol evidence shall apply to written as well as to oral agreements. C. The writing that embodies the agreement of the parties shall be in a particular form. D. Parol evidence rule applies to wills. 9. All but one of the following erroneously describes the Requisites of Act or Declaration about Pedigree. A. Declarant dead or unable to testify B. Made ante litem motam C. Declarant is not related to the person whose pedigree is in question D. Relationship between declarant and person whose pedigree is in question showed by evidence other than the declaration 10. The declaration of a dying person may be admissible in evidence for several purposes such as being offered as a dying declaration, a statement part of res gestae and or a dying declaration against interest. In such case, it is considered as an example of? A. Curative admissibility B. Circumstantial evidence C. Multiple admissibility D. Corroborative evidence 11. Object evidence are those addressed to the senses of the court. They can be categorized as follows except one: A. Unique objects or objects that have readily identifiable marks B. Tangible and unique objects which appeals indirectly to the senses of the court C. Objects that are made unique D. Objects with no identifying marks and cannot be marked 12. When the subject of the inquiry is the contents of a document, the best evidence admissible is the original document itself. This however is not an absolute rule. All but one of the following are the exceptions to the best evidence rule. A. When the original is a public record in the custody of a public officer or is recorded in a public office B. When the original is in the custody or under the control of the party against whom the evidence is offered, and the latter produce it after reasonable notice C. When the original has been lost, or destroyed or cannot be produced in court, without bad faith on the part of the offeror D. When the original consists of numerous accounts or other documents which cannot be examined in court without great loss of time and the fact sought to be established from them is only the general result of the whole 13. Section 42 of Rule 130 of the Revised Rules of Court defines verbal act as? A. Statements accompanying an equivocal act material to the issue and giving it legal significance B. A statement that concerns a startling event, made by the declarant when the declarant is still under stress from the startling event C. A statement describing or explaining an event or condition made while the declarant perceived the event or condition, or immediately thereafter, except when made under circumstances indicating a lack of trustworthiness D. An act made by a person in response to a startling or shocking event or condition. It is an unplanned reaction to a “starling event”. 14. For the testimony or deposition at a former proceeding as contemplated in Section 47 of the Rules of Court to apply, the following except one must be satisfied. A. The witness is dead or unable to testify B. The former case involved the same subject as that in the present case, with the same cause of action C. The issue being testified to by the witness in the former trial is the same issue involved in the present case D. The adverse party had an opportunity to cross-examine the witness in the former case. 15. All but one of the following pertains to the disqualification of witness by privileged communication in an attorney-client relationship A. The privileged is extended to communications made for the purpose of securing the services of counsel even if the counsel later refuses the professional relationship B. The privileged shall apply only in the course of actual professional employment C. The communication may be oral or written but is deemed to extend to other forms of conduct like physical demonstration as long as they are intended to be confidential D. It is commonly acknowledged that the privilege does not extend to communications where the client’s purpose is the furtherance of a future intended crime or fraud 16. The Rules of Court provides that character evidence is admissible in all but one of the following instances A. When it is evidence of the good character of a witness even prior to impeachment B. In criminal cases, the accused may prove his good moral character if pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged C. In criminal cases, the bad moral character of the offended party may not proved D. In criminal cases, the prosecution may prove the bad moral character of the accused to prove his criminal predisposition 17. All but one of the following erroneously describes the Requisites of Entries in the course of business A. Entrant is deceased or unable to testify B. Entrant must have been in a position to know the facts therein stated C. Entries made by entrant in his professional capacity outside the performance of a duty D. Entries were made in the ordinary or regular course of business 18. The following are requisites for Marital Privilege EXCEPT ONE A. Valid marital relation must have existed B. Privilege is claimed with respect to a communication made by one spouse to another during the marriage C. Communication was not made in confidence D. Communication was made in confidence 19. The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily included therein, may be given in evidence against him is called A. Admission B. Testimony C. Evidence D. Confession 20. The opinion of a witness for which proper basis is given, may be received in evidence EXCEPT ONE A. The identity of a person about whom he has adequate knowledge B. A handwriting with which he has sufficient familiarity C. The mental sanity of a person with whom he is sufficiently acquainted D. The emotional sanity of a person with whom he is sufficiently acquainted 21. That a person is__________ of crime or wrong. A. innocents B. innocent C. committing D. guilty 22-23. That _________ act was done with __________ intent. A. a bad B. an lawful C. an unlawful D. a serious 24. That evidence willfully _________ would be adverse if produced. A. suppresses B. acted C. committed D. suppressed 25. That private _________ have been fair and regular. A. complaint B. transactions C. respondent D. obligations 26. That a person acting in a __________ was regularly appointed or elected to it. A. public office B. private office C. capacity D. case 27. That a person intends the ordinary_________ of his or her voluntary act. A. motive B. life C. action D. consequences 28. That a _____ delivered by one to another belonged to the latter. A. document B. evidence C. thing D. order 29. Burden of proof is the duty of a party to ____________ on the facts in issue necessary to establish his or her claim or defense by the amount of evidence required by law. A. present documents B. present evidence C. present witness D. present in court 30. Burden of evidence is the duty of a party to ___________ sufficient to establish or rebut a fact in issue to establish a prima facie case. A. present documents B. present evidence C. present witness D. present in court 31. ________________ doubt does not mean such a degree of proof as, excluding possibility of error, produces absolute certainty. A. Extrajudicial confession B. Circumstantial evidence C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Preponderance of evidence 32. ________________ made by an accused shall not be sufficient ground for conviction, unless corroborated by evidence of corpus delicti. A. Extrajudicial confession B. Circumstantial evidence C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Preponderance of evidence E. Substantial evidence 33. The court may consider all the facts and circumstances of the case, the witnesses' manner of testifying, their intelligence, their means and opportunity of knowing the facts to which they are testifying, the nature of the facts to which they testify, the probability or improbability of their testimony, their interest or want of interest, and also their personal credibility so far as the same may legitimately appear upon the trial. A. Extrajudicial confession B. Circumstantial evidence C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Preponderance of evidence E. Substantial evidence 34. __________________is sufficient for conviction if: (a) There is more than one circumstance; (b) The facts from which the inferences are derived are proven; and (c) The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond reasonable doubt. A. Extrajudicial confession B. Circumstantial evidence C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Preponderance of evidence E. Substantial evidence 35. In cases filed before administrative or quasi-judicial bodies, a fact may be deemed established if it is supported by____________, or that amount of relevant evidence which a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to justify a conclusion. A. Extrajudicial confession B. Circumstantial evidence C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Preponderance of evidence E. Substantial evidence 36. Onus probandi means A. burden of proof B. burden of evidence C. guilty mind D. evil act 37. mens rea means A. burden of proof B. burden of evidence C. guilty mind D. evil act 38. actus reus means A. burden of proof B. burden of evidence C. guilty mind D. evil act 39. prima facie means A. burden of proof B. burden of evidence C. guilty mind D. at first sight 40. Moral certainty only is required, or that degree of proof which produces conviction in an unprejudiced mind. A. Extrajudicial confession B. Circumstantial evidence C. Proof beyond reasonable doubt D. Preponderance of evidence E. Substantial evidence. 41. Res gestae means A. ultimate fact B. things done C. evidentiary fact D. at first sight 42. Factum probandum means A. ultimate fact B. things done C. evidentiary fact D. at first sight 43. Factum probans means A. ultimate fact B. things done C. evidentiary fact D. at first 44. EXCEPT ONE are the Kinds of Privileged Communications. A. Marital privilege B. Attorney-client C Doctor-patient D. Priest-member 45. EXCEPT ONE are Exceptions to Hearsay Rule A. Dying declaration B Declaration against interest C. Onus Probandi D. Res gestae 46-50. In 50 words, share your thoughts on how important Evidence as a subject in Criminology.