Science BQP 3 2023 - 24 QP
Science BQP 3 2023 - 24 QP
Series D4CBA/4
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Q.P. Code
31/4/3
amob Z§. narjmWu àíZ-nÌ H$moS> >H$mo CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$
Roll No. _wI-n¥ð >na Adí` {bIo§ &
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code
on the title page of the answer-book.
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SCIENCE
:3 : 80
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 80
ZmoQ> NOTE
(I) H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _o§ _w{ÐV (I) Please check that this question paper
contains 27 printed pages.
n¥ð> 27 h¢ &
(II) H¥$n`m Om±M H$a b| {H$ Bg àíZ-nÌ _| (II) Please check that this question paper
contains 39 questions.
>39 àíZ h¢ &
(III) àíZ-nÌ _| Xm{hZo hmW H$s Amoa {XE JE (III) Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of
the question paper should be written on
àíZ-nÌ H$moS >H$mo narjmWu CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$ the title page of the answer-book by the
_wI-n¥ð> na {bI| & candidate.
(IV) H¥$n`m àíZ H$m CÎma {bIZm ewê$ H$aZo go (IV) Please write down the serial number of
the question in the answer-book before
nhbo, CÎma-nwpñVH$m _| àíZ H$m H«$_m§H$ attempting it.
Adí` {bI| &
(V) Bg àíZ-nÌ 15 {_ZQ (V) 15 minute time has been allotted to read
this question paper. The question paper
>H$m g_` {X`m J`m h¡ & àíZ-nÌ H$m will be distributed at 10.15 a.m. From
10.15 ~Oo {H$`m OmEJm & 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will
10.15 ~Oo go 10.30 ~Oo VH$ N>mÌ Ho$db read the question paper only and will not
àíZ- write any answer on the answer-book
during this period.
do CÎma-nwpñVH$m na H$moB© CÎma Zht {bI|Jo &
14-31/4/3 1 P.T.O.
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions very carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper comprises 39 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into five sections A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) Section A Questions No. 1 to 20 are Multiple Choice Questions. Each
question carries 1 mark.
(iv) Section B Questions No. 21 to 26 are Very Short Answer type questions.
Each question carries 2 marks. Answer to these questions should be in the
range of 30 to 50 words.
(v) Section C Questions No. 27 to 33 are Short Answer type questions. Each
question carries 3 marks. Answer to these questions should in the range of
50 to 80 words.
(vi) Section D Questions No. 34 to 36 are Long Answer type questions. Each
question carries 5 marks. Answer to these questions should be in the range of
80 to 120 words.
(vii) Section E Questions No. 37 to 39 are of 3 source-based/case-based units of
assessment carrying 4 marks each with sub-parts.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
some sections. Only one of the alternatives has to be attempted in such
questions.
SECTION A
Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given for
each of the questions no. 1 to 20. There is no negative marking for incorrect
response. 20 1=20
2. The acid produced in our stomach during digestion and the base used to
neutralise the excess acid during indigestion respectively are :
(A) HCl, Mg(OH)2
(B) HCl, Ca(OH)2
(C) Amino acids, Ca(OH)2
(D) Lactic acid, Mg(OH)2
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3. A zygote is formed by the fusion of a male gamete and a female gamete.
The number of chromosomes in the zygote of a human is :
(A) 23 (B) 44
(C) 46 (D) 92
4. The part of seed which is a source of food during germination of seed is :
(A) Cotyledon (B) Radicle
(C) Plumule (D) Embryo
5. Zn + 2CH3COOH (CH3COO)2 Zn + H2
7. The metals which are found in both free state as well as combined state
are :
(A) Gold and platinum (B) Platinum and silver
(C) Copper and silver (D) Gold and silver
8. The part of the flower which attracts insects for pollination is/are :
(A) Stigma and style
(B) Sepals and petals
(C) Petals only
(D) Sepals only
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9. In human beings, when the process of digestion is completed, the
(i) proteins, (ii) carbohydrates, and (iii) fats are respectively finally
converted into :
(A) (i) Amino acids, (ii) glucose and (iii) fatty acids
(B) (i) Amino acids, (ii) glucose, (iii) fatty acids and glycerol
(C) (i) Glucose, (ii) fatty acids and glycerol, (iii) amino acids
(D) (i) Sugars, (ii) amino acids, (iii) fatty acids and glycerol
10. The number of single and double bonds present in a molecule of benzene
(C6H6) respectively, are :
(A) 6 and 6 (B) 9 and 3
(C) 3 and 9 (D) 3 and 3
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13. A rectangular loop ABCD carrying a current I is situated near a straight
conductor XY, such that the conductor is parallel to the side AB of the
loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I is established in
the conductor as shown, the conductor XY will
3 4
14. Absolute refractive index of glass and water is and respectively. If
2 3
the speed of light in glass is 2 108 m/s, the speed of light in water is :
9 5
(A) 108 m/s (B) 108 m/s
4 2
7 16
(C) 108 m/s (D) 108 m/s
3 9
15. When a beam of white light passes through a region having very fine
dust particles, the colour of light mainly scattered in that region is :
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16. Consider the following combinations of resistors :
For Questions number 17 to 20, two statements are given one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct
answer to these questions from the codes (A), (B), (C) and (D) as given
below.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
17. Assertion (A) : Oxygen is essential for all aerobic forms of life.
18. Assertion (A) : Magnetic field lines never intersect each other.
20. Assertion (A) : In the human heart ventricles have thicker muscular
walls than atria.
Reason (R) : Ventricles have to pump the blood into various organs.
SECTION B
21. (a) We need to water the soil in plants on a regular basis. But it
ultimately reaches the leaves of the plant. Explain how this takes
place. 2
OR
(b) Name the type of nutrition exhibited by Amoeba. Explain how food
is taken in and digested by this organism. 2
22. When a soap is dissolved in water, the soap molecules form structures.
What are these structures called ? Draw a labelled diagram of these
structures. 2
23. (a) 1 gram of solid sodium chloride was taken in a clean and dry test
tube and concentrated sulphuric acid was added to it.
(i) Name the gas evolved in the reaction.
(ii) What will be observed when this gas is tested with (I) dry,
and (II) wet blue litmus paper ? Write your conclusion about
the nature (acidic/basic) of this gas. 2
OR
(b) Some metals react with acids to produce salt and hydrogen gas.
Illustrate it with an example. How will you test the presence of
this gas ? 2
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24. Explain how equal genetic contribution of male and female parents is
ensured in the progeny. 2
25. What would have been the colour of the sky, if the Earth had no
atmosphere ? Give reason to justify your answer. 2
26. Calculate the resistance of a copper wire of length 1000 m and area of
cross-section 2 mm2. Resistivity of copper is 1·6 10 8 m. 2
SECTION C
27. Define the term power of accommodation of human eye. What happens to
the image distance in the eye when we increase the distance of an object
from the eye ? Name and explain the role of the part of human eye
responsible for it in this case. 3
28. Write chemical equations for the following reactions, giving the
conditions for the reaction in each case : 3
(a) Reaction of ethanol with ethanoic acid
(b) Reaction of an ester with a base (NaOH)
(c) Formation of ethene from ethanol
(i) Are these plants exactly the same as tall plants of the parent
generation ? Write their gene combination.
31. Write the common name and the chemical name of the compound
CaSO4 . 1 H2O. Write the method of its preparation. Give chemical
2
1
equation for the reaction, when water reacts with CaSO4 . H2O. 3
2
32. (a) Explain with the help of a labelled diagram, the process of
reproduction in Hydra by budding. Name the cells used for
reproduction in this process. 3
OR
(b) List two roles of each of the following in human reproductive
system : 3
(i) Seminal vesicles and prostate gland
(ii) Oviduct
(iii) Testis
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SECTION D
34. (a) (i) Define a reflex arc. Why have reflex arcs evolved in
animals ? Trace the sequence of events which occur, when
you suddenly touch a hot object.
OR
35. (a) What is a chemical reaction ? Describe one activity each to show
that a chemical change has occurred in which (i) change of colour,
and (ii) change in temperature has taken place. 5
OR
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(b) (i) Define a decomposition reaction. How can we say that
OR
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SECTION E
(a) Find the value of total resistance between the points A and B. 1
(c) (i) Calculate the current drawn from the battery, when the key
is closed. 2
OR
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38. Three metal samples of magnesium, aluminium and iron were taken and
rubbed with sand paper. These samples were then put separately in test
suspended in each test tube so that their bulbs dipped in the acid. The
repeated with dilute nitric acid and the observations were recorded.
(a) When activity was done with dilute hydrochloric acid, then in
which one of the test tubes was the rate of formation of bubbles the
(b) Which metal did not react with dilute hydrochloric acid ? Give
reason. 1
(c) (i) Why is hydrogen gas not evolved when a metal reacts with
reaction. 2
OR
(c) (ii) Name the type of reaction on the basis of which reactivity of
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39. Kidneys are vital organs for survival. Several factors like infections,
injury or restricted blood flow to kidneys reduce the activity of kidneys.
This leads to accumulation of poisonous wastes in the body, which can
even lead to death. In case of kidney failure, an artificial kidney can be
used. An artificial kidney is a device to remove waste products from the
blood through dialysis.
(a) (i) Name the artery that brings oxygenated blood to the
kidney.
(b) In human excretory system name the organ which stores urine. Is
this organ under hormonal control or nervous control ? 1
(c) (i) List two major steps involved in the formation of urine and
state in brief their functions. 2
OR
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