Civil aeronautical act (Republic Act 9497: Prescribe the requirement for issuing pilot, F.I.

, ratings, flight
engineers, flight operations etc.
Parts of CAR
Part I: General policies, procedures and definitions
Part II: Personnel Licensing
Part III: Approved Training Organizations
Part IV: Aircraft Registration and Markings
Part V: Airworthiness
Part VI: Approved Maintenance Organizations
Part VII: Instrument and organizations
Part VIII: Operations
Part IX: Air Operator Certificate and Administration
Part X: Commercial Air Transport by Foreign air carriers with in Republic of Philippines
Part XI: Aerial Work and non certified aircraft operation limitations.
Class and Category of Aircraft

1. Category- Indicates a classification of aircraft such as airplane, helicopter, glider, etc.

2. Class - Indicated the difference in basic design of aircraft within a category, such as single
Engine land, multi Engine Sea
Category Class
With respect to certification of Airplane, Rotorcraft, glider, Single Engine Land
airmen lighter than air Single Engine Sea
Multi Engine Land
Multi Engine Sea
With respect to Certification Normal, Utility, Acrobatic Airplane, Rotorcraft, glider,
of a/c Balloon.

Flight Duty Time Limit (FDTL) : Maximum Time a Pilot May fly in given Duration
1. 1 day- 8hrs
2. 1 week- 30hrs
3. 1 month- 100hrs
4. 1 year- 1000hrs

Rest period for pilot

Each flight crewmember must have a minimum of eight hours of rest in any 24-hour period that includes
flight time. That calculation must be based on the actual conditions on the day of departure regardless of
whether the length of the flight is longer or shorter than the originally scheduled flight time.
Use of intoxicating liquor, narcotics or drugs
1. No person shall pilot an aircraft or act as a crew member of any aircraft under the influence of
this one
2. No pilot can operate flight with alcohol content more than 0.04% in blood.
3. Bottle to throttle time must be at least 8 hours.

Flight plan
1. It includes information relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight
 2. When to submit to flight plan- a flight plan to be provided with air traffic control service
shall be submitted at least (60) minutes before departure.
3. If submitted during flight, at a time which will ensure its receipt by the appropriate air
traffic services unit at least ten (10) minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach:

Content of flight plan

1. Aircraft identification- your airplane’s call sign (ex. RPC 833)

2. Flight Rules- I- IFR Y- if IFR first

V- VFR Z- if VFR first

3. Type of flight- S- Scheduled air transport service

N- Non scheduled air transport
G- General Aviation
M- Military
X- Other than any of the defined categories
4.Type of Aircraft- rated type of aircraft used for flight (ex. C172)

5. Wake turbulence Category- H- takeoff mass of more than 136,000kg

M- Takeoff mass of less than 136,000kg

But more than 7,000kg
L- Takeoff mass of less than 7000kg
6. Equipment- Radio Communication, Navigation and Approach aid equipment
S- Standard 2 way radio
O- VOR (very high frequency Omni directional range)
F- ADF (automatic direction finder)
C- Mode C transponder (Surveillance equipment)
7. Departure Aerodrome- departure airport, 4 letter code (ex. RPVM-Cebu)
8. Time- estimated time of desired departure; based on universal time coordination (UTC) minus (-) eight
hours from present time.
9. Cruising speed- K- kph N- Knots M- Mach number
10. Level - cruising altitude
11. Route – flight route you’re going to fly
12. Destination Aerodrome – desired airport to fly in or arrive at with four letter ICAO designator
13. Total EET – Estimated enroute time; total estimated flight time from departure to destination
aerodrome.
14. Alternate Aerodrome – alternate airport for arrival or fly in
15. Other information
16. Endurance – aircraft’s fuel time for flight. Endurance is defined as fuel on board of a/c in terms of
flight time.
17. P.O.B – persons on board (always in three digits for exam 004-for four persons)
18. Emergency Radio – 121. 5 ELT (Emergency Locater Transmitter)
19. Survival – Emergency and survival equipment on board
M- Maritime, J-Jungle survival, P – Polar survival, D-Desert survival

Aircraft lighting

Right of Way

Approaching Head on When two aircraft are approaching head – on or in – danger of

collision, each shall alter its heading to the right.

Converging When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same

level, the aircraft on its right, shall give way.
Overtaking The aircraft being overtaken has the right of way and the aircraft
being overtaken, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal
flight, shall keep out the way of the other aircraft.

Emergency Landing An aircraft that is aware that another is compelled to land shall
give way.

Flying in VMC condition

VFR flight procedure
 VFR flight are not applicable on these following VFR minimum safe altitude
conditions

a) when the ceiling is less than 450 meters a) Over congested areas of cities, town or
b) when the ground visibility is less than 8000 m, settlements or over an open-air assembly of person
or 5000 m for special VFR at a height less than 300m. (1000ft) above the
c) between sunrise and sunset highest obstacle within a radius of 600m (2000ft)
d) above flight level 200 from the aircraft
e) at transonic and subsonic speed b) Elsewhere at a height less than 150 meters
(500ft) above the ground or water.

Fuel requirement
Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.
(a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering
wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of
intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed—
(1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or
(2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

(b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and
forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended
landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.

Light Gun Signals

Review 1- General

1. The maximum flying time a pilot can log within 100 hours
a period of 30 days

2. 2. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining Owner or operator of that aircraft.

an aircraft in an airworthy condition
3. The applicant for a CPL (A) shall be not less 18 years old
than (PCAR’s Part 2.3.3.3)

4. The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed 150 hours
not less than 200 hours of flight time, or _____
if completed during an Authority-approved
training course provided for in an Approved
Training Organization under Part 3 (PCAR’s
Part 2.3.3.3)

20 hours
5. The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed
in airplane not less than _____ number of cross
country flight time as pilot-in-command
including a cross country flight totaling not less
than 300 nautical miles in the course of which
full-stop landings at two (2) different
aerodromes

6. The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed 25 hours of dual instruction from an authorized
in airplane not less than instructor. These 25 hours may include 5 hours
completed in a flight simulator or flight
procedures trainer.

7. The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-
in airplane not less than 200 hours of cross- command including a cross country flight
country flight time as pilot-in-command totaling not less than 540 km (300 MM) in the
including a cross country flight totaling not less course of which full-stop landings at two
than (PCAR’s Part 2.3.3.3) different aerodromes shall be made

8. A CPL (A) applicant shall have completed not 200 hours

less than _____ of flight time or 150 hours of
flight time if he has satisfactorily completed a
course of approved training
9. For instrument approach operations, no person 50 feet
may use an autopilot at an altitude above the
terrain that is less then ____ feet below the
MDH or DH.(Part 8.8.4.6)

10.For enroute operations, no person may use an 500 feet

autopilot at an altitude above the terrain that is
less than (Part 8.8.4.6)

11.Who is directly responsible and has the final Pilot in command

authority as to the operation of the aircraft

12.Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft Pilot in command

is in condition for save flight

13.The holder of commercial pilot license shall a. to act as pilot-in-command in commercial

have the privilages to air transportation in any aircraft having a
a. gross weight not exceeding 5,700
kilograms (12,500 lbs.)

b. to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft

engaged in operations other than commercial
air transportation.

A. 2 way communication is maintained

14.No Pilot-in-command may allow an airplane to between aircraft’s intercommunication with
be refueled when passengers are embarking, on Ground Crew Refueling aircraft and
board or disembarking unless Qualified personal on board
B. Attended by Qualified Personal ready to
Initiate and Direct Evacuation by most
practical and expeditious means available
15.An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been An inspection schedule, specifying the intervals
on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of in hours or days when routine and detailed
time in service. Under which condition may that inspections will be performed and including
aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without instructions for exceeding an inspection interval
new inspection by not more than 10 hours while en-route and
for changing an inspection interval because of
service experience;

16.How does a pilot indicate a desire for light gun Rock the wings
signal in case of radio failure during the day

17.PCAR’s Part 2 refers to Personnel Licensing

18.PCAR’s Part 5 refers to Airworthiness

19.For aircraft engaged in commercial air transport 60 years old or below

operations requiring more than one pilot as
flight crew members, the AOC holder may use
one pilot up to age 65 provided that the other
pilot is less than

20.- No pilot can engage in commercial - Above 60 Year of age

International Operations on Philippines
registered a/c if
- Cannot act PIC or Co-pilot in Domestic - Above 67
operations if Note Medical Every Six months
21.The holder of a pilot license, when acting as - in full with this flight time towards the total
pilot-in-command under supervision, shall be flight time required for a higher grade of
entitled to be credited pilot license

22. IFR Operations Currency Within Past Six Calendar months

- Six hours of IFR time including atleast
Three hours in flight on Category of a/c.
- Six Instrument Approaches
- Instrument competency check
23.The Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines DGCA / Director General of Civil Aviation
(CAAP) is headed by

24.The training required for flight crew members Cross Crew Qualification (CCQ) training.
qualifying on another type of aircraft type or
variant with the same or essentially the same
cockpit
25.If an alternate minima are not published, and if Ceiling 800 Feet and visibility 2 SM for non-
there is no prohibition against using the airport precision
as an IFR flight planning alternate, each PIC
shall ensure that the meteorological conditions
at that alternate at the ETA will be at or above

26.To act as a crew member, a person must not 8 hours

have consumed alcohol in the preceding

27.The supplemental oxygen supply requirements All required cabin crew members
for non-pressurized aircraft if the entire flight above 13,000 ft = constant use.
time at pressure altitudes above 13,000 feet and 10.000 ft -13,000 ft more than 30 mins = Needs
for any period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure to be used.
altitudes above 10,000 feet but not exceeding
13,000 feet (Part IS: 7.8.12)

28.The creation of Civil Aviation Authority of the Republic Act 9497 (RA 9497)
Philippines was based on what law

29.In aircraft converging rules, which statement is (1) When aircraft of the same category are
correct converging at approximately the same
altitude (except head-on, or neariy so), the
aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-
way.
(2) If the converging aircraft are of different
categories-
(i) A balloon has the right-of-way over any
other category of aircraft;
(ii) A glider has the right-of-way over an
airship, and power driven heavier than
air aircraft; and
(iii) An airship has the right-of-way over a
power driven heavier than air aircraft.

30.The minimum flight visibility for special VFR is The flight visibility is at least 5 km 1,000ft
above and 500ft below clouds
31.To act as a crew member, a person must not 8 hours
have consumed alcohol in the preceding

32.The applicant for instrument rating (airplane) PPL license

shall hold at least a

Search and rescue

33.The primary purpose of filling a flight plan is
 for

34.The pilot in command of an aircraft operated Passing each designated reporting point, to
under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar include time and altitude.
contact, shall report by radio as soon as possible
when

35.For pilot under IFR operations, No person may Logged at least six hours of instrument flight
act as a pilot under IFR, nor in IMC, unless he time including at least three hours in flight in the
or she has, within the past six calendar months category of aircraft: and completed at least six
(PCAR’s Part 8.4.1.10) instrument approaches.

36.An aircraft being overtaken should expect to be The right

passed on

37.What is the next higher appropriate cruise 6500

altitude or flight level from 5,000 feet MSL for a
VFR flight along an airway whose magnetic
course is 1800

CAAP
38.Republic Act 9497 is also known as

10 days

36. If an emergency situation, which endangers

the safety of the aircraft or persons, necessitates the
taking of action, which involves a violation of
regulations or procedures by any crewmember, the
pilot-in-command shall submit a report on any such
violation to the CAAP within:

37. Which statement is true regarding right of way An aircraft which is being overtaken by another
for taxiing aircraft in the maneuvering area of aircraft has the right of way
an aerodrome for one aircraft overtaking the
other?
38. The primary purpose of filing a plan is for: Search and rescue.

39. If not equipped with required position lights, an At sunset

aircraft must terminate flight…..
40. _______ of cross country flight time as pilot-in- 30 hours
command including one flight of not less
than 300 nautical miles in the course of
which not less than three full stop landings at
different point shall have been made.

41. Who among the following persons is required Pilot in Command

by CAAP to file a flight plan?

42. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a receives an amended clearance or less an
pilot may not deviate from that clearance, emergency.
unless the pilot…..

43. Aerial photography is prohibited in the CAAP

Philippines without proper authorization
from…..

44. All flights of civil aircraft over the Manila The current regulation and policies
Flight Information Region and landing at
Philippine aerodrome shall be carried out in
accordance with……….

45. If weather conditions are such that it requires 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
designating an alternate airport on your IFR
flight plan, you should plan to carry enough
fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended
landing, fly from that airport to the alternate
airport, fly thereafter…
46. An applicant for CPL shall be a qualified a qualified citizen of a foreign country granting
person who is a citizen of the Philippines or: similar rights and privileges to citizens of the
Philippines; subject, however to existing treaty or
treaties, and agreements entered into by the
Philippines government with foreign countries, and
subject
47. Pilot regulation pertaining to blood alcohol and alcohol level in the blood is below 0.04% and that
rest period before a pilot is eligible to fly an at least eight (8) hours passes between bottle and
aircraft….. throttle.

48 . A CPL applicant shall have completed not 200 hours

less than ______ of flight time or 150 hours
of flight time if he has satisfactorily
completed a course of approved training.

49. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not 5 take-offs and landings.
pilot an aircraft carrying passengers during
the period from one hour after sunset to one
hour before sunrise unless he has made at
least __________ to full stop during such
period within the preceeding 90

50 . Sunset or sunrise, which requires sun to be civil sunset or sunrise.

below the earth horizon by 3 degrees, is
called……

51 . Regulations which refer to "Commercial for compensation or hire engages in the carriage by
Operations" relate to that person aircraft in air commerce of persons or property,
who…. other than as an air carrier

52. Air traffic services in the Philippines are Military and private aerodromes
provided by the Civil Aviation Authority of
the Philippines, administrated by the Chief,
Air Traffic Service with the exception of…
53. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot be familiar with the runway lengths at
in command must become familiar with all airports of intended use, and the
available information concerning that flight. alternatives available, if the flight cannot
In addition, the pilot must….. be completed.

54 . A CPL applicant shall have established his First class medical

medical fitness on the basis of compliance
with the following medical requirements:

55. How many hours of instrument time of which Ten

not more than five hours may be instrument
ground are required for CPL?

56. The minimum age for obtaining a commercial 18 years old.

pilot's license is…..

57. Aircraft flights under VFR condition shall have horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000 ft.
visibility and distance from cloud of:

58. How does a pilot indicate a desire for flight gun Rock wings.
signal in case of radio failure during the day?
59. Which is true with respect to operating near not authorized, when operated so closed to another
other aircraft in flight? They are…. aircraft then can create a collision hazard.

60. Which of the following are considered aircraft Single-engine land, multiengine-land, single-engine
class rating? sea, and multi engine.

61. A pilot performing a published instrument receiving a radar vector to final approach course or
approach is not authorized to perform a fix.
procedure turn when…..

62. What flight time may a pilot log as second in All flight time, while acting as second in command
command? aircraft requiring more than one pilot.

63. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give
a multiengine airplane approaching from the way; the single engine airplane is to the right.
left. Which pilot should give way?

64. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not 90 days

pilot an aircraft carrying passengers unless
within the preceeding __________ he had
made at least 5 take-offs and landing to a full
stop in aircraft at the same category, class
and type of aircraft to be flown.
65. A holder commercial pilot license shall have Private pilot.
the privileges to exercise all the privilege of
a__________.

66. Required flight crewmember's seatbelts must be while the crewmembers are at their stations
fastened:

67. A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on
the right-of-way? the right.

68. On an instrument approach where a DH or aircraft is continuously in a position from which a

MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate descent to a normal landing, on the intended
below, or continue the approach unless runway, can be made.
the…….

69. An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on
aircraft has the right-of-way? the right.

70. What altimeter setting is required when 29.92" Hg.

operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
71. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an Owner or operator of that aircraft.
aircraft in an airworthy condition?

72 . The holder of a commercial pilot license shall a. to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air
have the privilege to…… transportation in any aircraft having a gross weight
not exceeding 5,700 kilograms (12,500 lbs.)
. b. to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft
engaged in operations other than commercial air
transportation

73. Name the two aircraft documents required for Aircraft Registration and Airworthiness.
all aircraft in operations.

74. Which is true with respect to formation flights? not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
Formation flights are….

75. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated passing each designated reporting point, to include
under IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar time and altitude.
contact, shall report by radio as soon as
possible when….

76. Who is responsible for determining if an The pilot in command.

aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
77. Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness owner or operator of that aircraft.
Directive is the responsibility of the……

78. Whenever a distress call and/or message is plot the position of the craft in distress if given.
intercepted on radiotelephony or radio
telegraph by a pilot-in command of an
aircraft, other than a search aircraft, he
shall….

79. In the manner of compliance, what is the basic Mandatory for CAR and optional for ATC.
difference between ATC procedure and
CAR?

80. Commercial pilots are required to have a valid acting as pilot in command
and appropriate pilot certificate their personal
possession when…..

81. When are flight plans filed? 60 minutes before ETD.

82. VFR cruising altitudes are required to be more than 3,000 ft. AGL, based on magnetic
maintained when flying…… course.
83. Flight plan shall be kept for a period of…… 6 months after the date of filling.

Additional Questions

1. Except when cleared by an ATC 1500 feet or less than 5 KM Visibility

unit, a VFR flight cannot enter or
leave a Control Zone when cloud
base is lower than
2. Action should be taken when , Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
during an IFR flight in VMC,
pilot suffer radio failure
3. For a controlled flight before 60 minutes before departure
departure , a flight plan must be
filed at least
4. A controlled flight is required to 5%
inform the concerned ATC unit
when the average TAS at cruising
level deviates or is expected to
deviate compared to that given
TAS in the Flight Plan by at least
plus or minus:
5. What is the rule concerning level 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the
or height the aircraft should estimated position of the aircraft
maintain when flying IFR outside
controlled airspace unless
otherwise directed?
6. If the track on an instrument Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled
departure is published, the pilot is airspace
expected to:
7. When the Captain cannot comply He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable,
with an ATC clearance: he/she will accept that clearance
8. . An aircraft is allowed to
descend below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures
b. The aircraft receives radar vectors
c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and
surrounding terrain and is able to maintain visual contact
9. What is required for an IFR flight light plan required and PIC must notify of any changes
in advisory airspace? regardless if wanting advisory service or not
10. . What are the VMC limits for The same as Class D
Class B airspace?
11. . A precision Approach An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and
Procedure is defined as: glide path information provided by an ILS or a PAR
12. An instrument approach is made 5
up of a number of segments. How
many of them are there?
13. . An aircraft flying over the sea 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with
between 4500ft and 9000ft visibility of 5km
AMSL and outside CAS. To
continue under VFR the
meteorological conditions must
remain:
14. A DISTRESS message differs There is grave and imminent danger which requires
from an URGENCY message immediate assistance
because:
15. SSR Codes 7500 Hijack
7600 Communication failure
7700 Emergency
0000 Transponder failure
2000 Crossing FIR/No Code Assign
16. Highest Priority to land A/c in Emergency
17. You see a double white cross in a Glider flying in Progress
signal square, what does this
mean?
18. What action should be taken if Initiate a missed approach
contact is lost with the runway
during a circling approach?
19. The longitudinal separation 5 minutes
minimum based on time between
aircrafts at the same FL, where
there is enough coverage for
navigation aids and the
preceeding aircraft has a higher
true airspeed of 20kts minimum
is:
20. The transition from IFR to VFR On the Captain's initiative
is done:
21. Pilots are not allowed to use the If asked by ATC
indent function on their SSR,
unless
22.
23.
24. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) . For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at
cannot be used for flights other least 10 consecutive days
than those executed frequently on
the same days of the following
weeks and:
25. Operationally significant AIRAC(Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control)
changes to AIP shall be published procedures
in accordance with
26. . Which action shall be taken by The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
an aircraft in the traffic pattern of
an aerodrome experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties
which compel it to land without
requiring immediate assistance?
27. When the aircraft carries Unless otherwise directed by ATC
serviceable Mode C transponder,
the pilot shall continuously
operate this mode:
28. The Vertical Separation 1000 feet (300m)
Minimum (VSM) for flights in
accordance with IFR within
controlled airspace below FL290
is:
29. What minimum ground visibility 1500m
is required to enable a SVFR
flight to take off from an
aerodrome in a CTR?
30. If so equipped, when should an At all times on the ground when the engines are running
aircraft display the anti-collision
light?
31. What radius from a terminal 25NM
VOR is MSA provided?
32. The loading limitations shall All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass
include: distribution and floor landing
33. A marshaller crosses his/her Remove chocks
hands in front of the face, palms
outward and then moves the arms
outwards. What does the signal
indicate?
34. Aircraft A flies in VMC with an Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
ATC clearance within a control
area. Aircraft B without ATC
clearance approaches at roughly
the same height on a converging
heading. Who has the right of
way?
35. When a state renders valid a Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
license issued by another
Contracting State, as an
alternative to issuance of its own
license, the validity shall:
36. The International Civil Aviation Standards and recommended international practices for
Organisation (ICAO) establishes: contracting member states
37. Which of the following is an ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards
obligation of being an ICAO detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention
 contracting state?
38. . You have been intercepted in Breaking turn up and left
the airspace of a foreign
contracting state. What is the
signal for 'clear to proceed' from
the intercepting aircraft?
39. What is the minimum vertical 2000ft
separation between IFR flights
flying in the same direction
below FL 290?
40. . During a straight departure, the Within 15° of runway centre-line
initial track is to be
41. When given instructions to set a Read back mode and code
mode/code, a pilot shall
42. The transition of altitude to flight At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in
level and vice versa is made: the descent
43. . A type rating is applicable to: An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation
44. If no ICAO identifier has been ZZZZ
attributed to an aerodrome, what
should be entered in Box 16 of
the Flight Plan?
45. When an aircraft subjected to ach State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each
unlawful interference has landed State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State
in a Contracting State, it shall whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO
notify by the most expeditious
means of the State of Registry
and the State of the Operator of
the landing and, in addition, shall
similarly transmit all other
relevant information to:
46. When an aircraft subjected to Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each
unlawful interference has landed State whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State
in a Contracting State, it shall whose citizens were known to be on board and ICAO
notify by the most expeditious
means of the State of Registry
and the State of the Operator of
the landing and, in addition, shall
similarly transmit all other
relevant information to:
47. The MSA provides 300m 25NM
obstacle clearance within how
many miles radius of the
navigation facility at the
aerodrome?
48. When an air carrier airplane with 4
a seating capacity of 187 has 137
passengers on board, what is the
minimum number of flight
attendants required
49. Which is true with respect to not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
 formation flights? Formation
flights are....
50. On an instrument approach where aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to
a DH or MDA is applicable, the a normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.
pilot may not operate below, or
continue the approach unless
the.......
51. A pilot flying a single-engine The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the
airplane observes a multiengine single engine airplane is to the right.
airplane approaching from the
left. Which pilot should give
way?
52. Flight plan shall be kept for a 6 months after the date of filling
period of......
53. Whenever a distress call and/or plot the position of the craft in distress if given.
message is intercepted on
radiotelephony or radio
telegraph by a pilot-in command
of an aircraft, other than a search
aircraft, he
shall....
54. pilot performing a published receiving a radar vector to final approach course or fix.
instrument approach is not
authorized to perform a
procedure turn when.....
55. How does a pilot indicate a desire Rock wings
for flight gun signal in case of
radio failure during
the day?
56. Before beginning any flight under be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended
IFR, the pilot in command must use, and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be
become familiar with all completed.
available information concerning
that flight. In addition, the pilot
must.....
57. How many hours of instrument 10
time of which not more than five
hours may be instrument ground
are required for CPL?
58. Regulations which refer to for compensation or hire engages in the carriage by aircraft
"Commercial Operations" relate in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air
to that person carrier
who....
59. VFR cruising altitudes are more than 3,000 ft. AGL, based on magnetic course.
required to be maintained when
flying......
60. Commercial pilots are required to acting as pilot in command
have a valid and appropriate pilot
certificate their
personal possession when.....
61. The holder of a commercial pilot
license shall have the privilege a. to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air
to...... transportation in any aircraft having a gross weight not
exceeding 5,700 kilograms (12,500 lbs.)
b. to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft engaged in
operations other than commercial air transportation.
62. Name the two aircraft documents . Aircraft Registration and Airworthiness.
required for all aircraft in
operations.
63. When are flight plans filed? 60 minutes before ETD.
64. Assuring compliance with an Owner or operator of that aircraft.
Airworthiness Directive is the
responsibility of the......
65. . An airplane is overtaking a . Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
helicopter. Which aircraft has the
right-of-way?
66. A holder of a commercial pilot 90 days
license shall not pilot an aircraft
carrying passengers unless within
the preceeding __________ he
had made at least 5 take-offs and
landing to a full stop in aircraft at
the same category, class and type
of aircraft to be flown.
67. . Air traffic services in the Military and private aerodromes
Philippines are provided by the
Civil Aviation Authority of the
Philippines, administrated by the
Chief, Air Traffic Service with
the exception of...
68. Which is true with respect to not authorized, when operated so closed to another aircraft
operating near other aircraft in then can create a collision hazard.
flight? They are....
69. In the manner of compliance, Mandatory for CAR and optional for ATC.
what is the basic difference
between ATC procedure and
CAR?
70. If an emergency situation, which 10 days
endangers the safety of the
aircraft or persons, necessitates
the taking of action, which
involves a violation of
regulations or procedures by any
crewmember, the pilot-in-
command shall submit a report
on any such violation to the
CAAP within:
71. ______ of cross country flight Thirty hours
time as pilot-in-command
including one flight of not less
 than 300 nautical miles in the
course of which not less than
three full stop landings at
different point shall have been
made.
72. The pilot in command of an passing each designated reporting point, to include time and
aircraft operated under IFR, in altitude.
controlled airspace, not in radar
contact, shall report by radio as
soon as possible when....
73. What altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.
required when operating an
aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?
74. Airplane A is overtaking Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
airplane B. Which airplane has
the right-of-way?
75. A holder commercial pilot license a. Private pilot.
shall have the privileges to
exercise all the privilege of
a__________.
76. 2. What flight time may a pilot All flight time, while acting as second in command aircraft
log as second in command? requiring more than one pilot.
77. A holder of a commercial pilot . 5 take-offs and landings.
license shall not pilot an aircraft
carrying passengers during the
period from one hour after sunset
to one hour before sunrise unless
he has made at least __________
to full stop during such period
within the preceeding 90
78. No person may act as a pilot under at least 6 HRS instrument flight and completed at least 6
IFR nor in IMC unless he or she has instrument approaches within the past 6 calendar months
logged
If weather conditions are such that it 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
requires designating an alternate airport
on your IFR flight plan, you should plan
to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first
airport of intended landing, fly from that
airport to the alternate airport, fly
thereafter...
78. Aircraft flights under VFR . horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000 ft.
condition shall have visibility and
distance from cloud of:
79. After an ATC clearance has been receives an amended clearance or less an emergency.
obtained, a pilot may not deviate
from that clearance, unless the
pilot.....
80. Sunset or sunrise, which requires civil sunset or sunrise.
sun to be below the earth horizon
by 3 degrees, is called......
 81. Which statement is true regarding An aircraft which is being overtaken by another aircraft has
right of way for taxiing aircraft in the right of way
the manuevering area of an
aerodrome for one aircraft
overtaking the other?
82. If not equipped with required at sunset.
position lights, an aircraft must
terminate flight.....
83. The holder of a pilot licence, 50% of the copilot flight time towards the total flight time
when acting as copilot of an required for a higher grade of a pilot license
aircraft required to be operated
with a copilot, shall be entitled to
be credit with not more than:

84. Unless otherwise prescribed, 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the
what is the rule regarding level to estimated position of the aircraft
be maintained by an aircraft
flying IFR outside controlled
airspace?
86 A VFR flight when flying inside an 8km at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL 1500m horizontal
ATS airspace classified as C has to and 300m vertical from clouds
maintain the following minima of flight
visibility and distance from clouds

87. VMC minima for VFR 8km visibility, and clear of clouds
flights in Class B airspace,
above 3050m (10000ft)
AMSL, are

88. Aerodrome Alternate A Take-off alternate is an aerodrome at which an aircraft

would be able to land should this become necessary shortly
after take-off and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of
departure.
An En-route alternate is an aerodrome at which an aircraft
would be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes
necessary while en route.
A Destination alternate is an aerodrome at which an aircraft
would be able to land should it become either impossible or
inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.

90. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the
the rule regarding level to be maintained estimated position of the aircraft
by an aircraft flying IFR outside
controlled airspace?

91. A VFR flight when flying inside an

ATS airspace classified as C has to 8km at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL 1500m horizontal
maintain the following minima of flight and 300m vertical from clouds
visibility and distance from clouds
 92. VMC minima for VFR flights in 8km visibility, and clear of clouds
Class B airspace, above 3050m (10000ft)
AMSL, are

Sterile Cockpit: "sterile cockpit rule," these regulations specifically prohibit crew member performance of
non-essential duties or activities while the aircraft is involved in taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other flight
operations conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, except cruise flight.

- Fire in cabin in flight is reportable event to CAAP

Oxygen Requirement
The PIC shall require all passengers to use oxygen continuously at 13,000 feet
cabin pressure altitudes above
The PIC shall ensure that all flight crew members, when engaged in Exceeding 10,000 ft for a period in excess
performing duties essential to the safe operation of an aircraft in flight, of 30 minutes and whenever the cabin
use breathing oxygen continuously at cabin altitudes altitude exceeds 13,000 ft.

All flight crew members of pressurized aircrafts operating above an 376 hPa
altitude where the atmospheric pressure is less……………. than shall
have available at the flight duty station a quick donning type of oxygen
mask which will readily supply oxygen upon demand.

A flight to be operated at flight altitudes at which the atmospheric (1) all crew members and 10 per cent of
pressure in personnel compartments will be less than 700 hPa shall not the passengers for any period in excess of
be commenced unless sufficient stored breathing oxygen is carried to 30 minutes that the pressure in
supply: compartments occupied by them will be
between 700 hPa and 620 hPa; and
(2) the crew and passengers for any period
that the atmospheric pressure in
compartments occupied by them will be
less than 620 hPa.

One pilot at the controls of a pressurized aircraft in flight shall wear at flight levels above 350 and for
and use an oxygen mask; for general aviation, commercial air transport, at flight levels
above 250 if there is no other pilot at their
 duty station

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use quick- 5 seconds

donning oxygen mask within