CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.

1. The dimensional formula for stress is the same as that for

a. Force b. Pressure
c. Torque d. Work
2. The vector of magnitude A is rotated through an angle , then the change in that vector is:
a. 2A cos b. 2A sin
 
c. 2A cos2 d. 2A sin2
3. For what angle of projection with horizontal, the horizontal range of a projectile is equal to its
maximum vertical height?
a. tan-1 (1) b. tan -1 (2)
c. tan-1 (3) d. tan-1 (4)
4. A 600 kg rocket is set for a vertical firing. If the exhaust speed is 100 ms -1, the mass of the gas
ejected per second to supply the thrust needed to overcome the weight of rocket is:
a. 117.6 kg s-1 b. 58.6 kg s-1
c. 6 kg s -1 d. 76.4 kg s-1
5. A block of mass 2kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If a force of
2.8N is placed on the block parallel to the floor. The force of friction between the block and the
floor is:
a. 2.8N b. 8N
c. 2N d. zero
6. A bomb of 12kg explodes into two pieces of masses 4kg and 8kg. The velocity of 8kg mass is
6ms-2, the K.E. of other mass is:
a. 48J b. 32J
c. 24J d. 288J
7. The distance between two radii is 1.5m. The centre of gravity of the train is at height of 2m
from the ground. The maximum speed of the train on a circular path of radius 120 m is:
a. 10.5m/s b. 21m/s
c. 42m/s d. 84m/s
8. A helium balloon released on moon would
9.8
a. Climb with an acceleration 6 m/s2
9.8
b. Fall with acceleration 6 m/s2
c. Climb with an acceleration 9.8 × 6 m/s2
d. Remain stationary wherever left
9. A uniform metallic disc has its MI of I0 about its diameter. Then its MI about an axis through its
rim perpendicular to the plane will be:
3
a. 4I0 b. 2 I0
5
c. 6I0 d. 4 I0
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
10. The time period of a simple pendulum in stationary lift is T. When the lift accelerates upward
g
with an acceleration 2 , the time period becomes:
2 3
a. T b. 3 T c. 2 T d. Infinite
11. In a wide river, the velocity of water at the middle:
a. Increases with depth
b. Is same everywhere
c. Decreases with depth
d. Is zero
12. On four different days, the temperature is same. A man feels hottest when the relative
humidity is:
a. 99% b. 50% c. 30 % d. 10%
13. At room temperature, the rms speed of the molecules of a certain diatomic gas is found to be
1920 m/s. The gas is:
a. H2 b. F2 c. O2 d. Cl2
14. The solar cooker works on the same principle as that of:
a. Bolometer b. Pyrometer
c. Black body d. Green house
15. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to volume V2. The amount of work done by the gas is
greatest when the expansion is:
a. Isothermal b. Isobaric
c. Adiabatic d. Equal in all cases
16. The increase in the velocity of sound for 1C rise of temperature is (v0 = 332 m/s):
a. 0.16 m/s b. 0.61 m/s
c. 0.1 m/s d. 61 m/s

17. The frequency of a vibrating wire is n. If tension is doubled, density is halved and diameter
is doubled, then new frequency will be:
n
a. n b.
2
c. 2n d. 4n
18. By which process, radio waves can be detected but not light waves in a closed room?
a. Interference b. Reflection
c. Diffraction d. Refraction
 4
19. A beam of monochromatic blue light of wavelength 420 nm in air travels in water m = 3 . Its
 
wavelength in water is:
a. 280 nm b.560 nm c.315 nm d.400 nm
20. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of
lens. Then its focal length will:
a. Becomes Zero b. Becomes infinite
c. Remains unchanged
d. Becomes small but not zero
21. Resolving power of the human eye is nearly:
1 1
a. 342 b. 342 c.3420 d.3420
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
22. The luminous efficiency of a lamp is 5 lumen/watt and its luminous intensity is 30 Candela.
The power of the lamp is:
a. 6 watt b. 24 watt
c. 120 lumen d. 150 lumen
23. The frequency of radio waves is 15 MHz. What is its wavelength?
a. 20 m b. 15 m c. 5 m d.25 m
24. The sure test of electrification is
a. Attraction
b. Repulsion
c. Attraction and repulsion both
d. Neither attraction nor repulsion
25. The ratio of the work done by the battery and the energy stored in the capacitor is:
a. 1:1 b. 1:2 c.2:1 d.4:1
26. Energy stored in magnetic field of 2.5×10-3 T is:
a. 2.48 J b. 0.48 J
c. 3.48 J d. 4.48 J
27. A radioactive elements zXA emits a particle and changed into z-1XA. The particle emitted is
a. Positron b. Beta-particle
c. Neutron d. Gamma-particle
28. The most commonly used semi-conductors are
a. germanium and silicon
b. germanium and copper
c. silicon and glass
d. glass and ebonite
29. The mass of a photon at rest is:
a. zero b. 1.67×10-35 kg
c. 1 amu d. 9×10-31 kg
30. If the rest mass of a particle is m0, then its mass when it moves with velocity 0.8 c is
6 5
a. 5 m0 b. 3 m0
3
c. 2 m0 d. 2m0
31. The dimensional formula for torque is
a. [MLT-2] b. [ML2T-2]
c. [ML-1T-2] d. [ML-2T-2]
32. The dot product of vector is 3 times the magnitude of their cross product. Then angle
between these vectors will be
a. 30 b. 45
c. 60 d. 75
33. Frictional force is
a. Conservative
b. Non-conservative
c. Always constant in magnitude
d. Always zero
34. Two solid spheres of equal masses have radii R and 2R. Then ratio of their moment of inertia
about their tangents will be:
a. 1:1 b. 1:4 c. 1:2 d. 1:8
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
35. A second pendulum has time period
a. 1 sec b. 2 sec c. 0.5 sec d. 24 hr
36. A stone is released from a tower, its total mechanical energy during its fall:
a. Increases b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. First increase then becomes constant
37. The source and sink temperature of a Carnot engine are 400 K and 300 K respectively. What is
the efficiency of the engine?
a. 100% b.75% c.33.3% d.25%
38. The phenomenon of land and sea breeze is as a result of:
a. Conduction b. Convection
c. Radiation d. Evaporation
39. The self-inductance of a straight conductor is
a. Zero b. Infinity
c. Very large d. Very Small
40. Stationary waves transmit
a. Energy b. Mass
c. Momentum d. None
41. What will reduce the systematic errors when taking a measurement?
a. timing 20 oscillations, rather than a single oscillation, when finding the period of a pendulum
b. measuring the diameter of a wire at different points and taking the average
c. reducing the parallax effects by using a marker and a mirror when measuring the amplitude
of oscillation of a pendulum
d. adjusting the needle on a voltmeter so that it reads zero when there is no potential difference
across it
42. The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 60 cm. To obtain a magnification of 20 for
relaxed eye, the length of telescope should be:
a. 80 cm b. 40 cm
c. 63 cm d. 57 cm
43. If a unit charge is taken from one point to another over an equipotential surface, then
a. Work is done on the charge
b. Work is done by the charge
c. Work on the charge is constant
d. No work is done
44. 8 small drops of capacitance 'C' and radius 'r' combines to form a big drop of radius R, then the
capacitance of big drop will be:
a. 2 C b. 4 C c. 8 C d. 16 C
45. The emf of a source doing 5 J of work by 10 C charge is:
a. 0.5 V b. 2 V
c. 6 V d. 4 V
46. Area of hysteresis curve indicates
a. Retentivity b. Loss of energy per cycle
c. Coercivity d. All of the above
47. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor
1 1
a. 2 b. c. 2 d. 2
2
48. Radio activity is the phenomenon associated with the decay of
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
a. Decay of molecules
b. Decay of nuclei
c. Transmission and detection of radio waves
d. Decay of atomic electrons
49. The device which converts AC into DC is called
a. Rectifier b. Oscillator
c. Amplifier d. Modulator
50. According to Bohr's theory the relation between main quantum number n and radius (r) of
orbit is:
1
a. rn b. rn
1
c. rn2 d. r n2
51. CO is isoelectronic with
a. CN¯ b. O2
c. N ¯
3 d. Cu2+
52. An unknown gas (p) diffuses 4 times slower than hydrogen gas (H2) at the same temperature
and pressure. What will be the molecular mass of the gas (p)?
a. 32 b. 64 c. 8 d. 28
53. Which of the following is not an example of colligative property?
a. Freezing point depression
b. Osmotic pressure
c. Boiling point elevation
d. Vapour pressure
54. Chemical equations are balanced in accordance with
a. Avogadro's law
b. Law of gaseous volume
c. Law of constant proportion
d. Law of conservation of mass
55. The average KE per degree of freedom per molecule of an ideal gas is
a. KT b. ½ KT
c. 3/2 KT d. 2/3 KT
56. An element A (Z = 19) combines with another element B (Z = 9). The bond formed is:
a. Covalent bond b. Co-ordinate bond
c. Electrovalent bond d. Dative bond
57. In the following reaction:
P + NaOH + H2O  PH3 + NaH2PO2
a. P is oxidizing and NaOH is reducing agent
b. P is reducing and NaOH is oxidizing agent
c. P is both oxidizing and reducing agent
d. P is oxidizing and H2O is reducing agent
58. Increasing order of size is
a. Ca+2 < Cl¯ < S–2 < P–3
b. Ca+2 < S–2 < Cl¯ < P–3
c. P–3 < S–2 < Cl¯ < Ca+2
d. P–3 < Cl¯ < S–2 < Ca+2
59. Which of the following can act as a base according to the lewis concept?
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
a.Cl– b. Na+ c. H d. K
60. Calculate pH when [OH¯] = 4.8 × 10–3
a. 11.6 b. 2.4 c. 8.4 d. 1.2
61. Normality of 2M Sulphuric acid is:
a. 2 N b. 4 N c. N/2 d. N/4
62. Electrolysis of molten NaCl produces:
a. Na & H2 b. Cl2 & O2
c. Na & Cl2 b. Na & O2
63. If the concentration of reactant A is doubled, the rate of reaction increased by a factor of 2, the
order of reaction w.r.t. A is:
a. First b. Zero c. Second d. Third
64. What happens when ZnCl2 is treated with NaOH?
a. Black ppt is formed
b. No ppt is formed
c. White ppt is formed which is soluble in NaOH
d. White ppt is formed which is soluble in excess NaOH
65. Which of the following relation is correct?
a. 0 = RT lnK b. 0 = RT log K

c. – RT lnK d. 0 = RT log K

66. In the preparation of O2 from potassium chlorate, MnO2 acts as an:

a. Activator b. Catalyst
c. Oxidizing agent d.Dehydrating agent
67. The gas used in sterilizing water is
a. Sulphur dioxide b. Ozone
c. Nitric oxide d. Ammonia
68. In which of the following compound nitrogen have –1 oxidation state?
a. NH3 b. NH2OH
c. N2 d. N2O
69. The pale yellow-coloured gas is
a. Cl2 b. F2 c. Br2 d. I2
70. Silver is extracted from
a. Its sulphide b. Its oxide
c. It nitrate d. Its chloride
71. The conversion shows below may be described as which of the following types of reaction?
O OH

a. Addition
b. Reduction
c. Substitution
d. Addition and reduction
72. Isomer of ethanol is:
a. Methanol b. Dimethyl ether
c. Dimethyl ether d. Acetaldehyde
73. A metallic carbide on reaction with water gives a hydrocarbon which readily burns in oxygen
and it gives +ve Tollens test, the hydrocarbon is:
a. Methane b. Ethane
c. Ethane d. Ethyne
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
74. Reaction of ethyl chloride with sodium leads to formation of
a. Ethane b. Propane
c. n-butane d. n-pentane
75. In cold countries ethylene glycol (or glycerol) is added to the water in automobile radiators
during winter
a. To reduce specific heat of water
b. To reduce the freezing point of water
c. Reduce viscosity of water
d. Make water better lubricant
76. General formula of ether is
a. R – CHO b. R – CO – R'
c. R – O – R' d. R – COOR'
77. Dry heating of calcium acetate gives
a. Acetaldehyde b. Ethane
c. Acetic acid d. Acetone
78. When acetamide reacts with Br2 in presence of NaOH, the compound formed is
a. CH3 NH2 b. CH3CN
c. CH3 CH2 OH d. CH3 CHO
79. Amino acids are produced by the hydrolysis of
a. Fats b. Proteins
c. Nucleic acids d.Carbohydrate
80. Which of the following is the monomer of natural rubber?
a. Glycol b.Terpenes
c. Ethylene d.Adipic acid
81. Radius of an atomic nucleus is in the order of:
a. 10–8 cm b.10–10 cm
c. 10–12 cm d. 10–15 cm
82. Which of the following has maximum average velocity at constant temperature?
a. CO b. SO3 c. Ne d. O2
83. The edge atom of a cube provides how many atoms to the unit cell?
a. 1/2 b. ¼ c. 1/8 d. 1
84. In most stable elements the no. of proton and neutron is:
a. Even-even b. Even-odd
c. Odd-even d. Odd-odd
85. Which of the following is a pseudo halide?
a. PO43¯ b. CN¯
c. HF d. CuCl3
86. According to Fajans rule, covalent bond is favored by:
a. Small cation & large anion
b. Large cation & small anion
c. Large cation & large anion
d. Small cation & small anion
87. Strongest reducing agent in solution is
a. Li b. Na c. K d. Cs
88. H3BO3 is
a. Monobasic and weak Lewis acid
b. Monobasic and strong Lewis acid
c. Tribasic and weak Bronsted acid
d. Monobasic and weak bronsted acid
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
89. If same amount of electricity is passed through copper voltameter and a silver voltameter. If the
amount of silver deposited is 2.5gms, the amount of copper deposited will be:
a. 7.292gm b. 0.7292 gm
c. 0.0729 gm d. 0.00729 gm
90. Among noble gases, only Xenon forms stable compound with fluorine while other don't form. This
is because of:
a. Low Ionization potential of Xenon
b. Large size of Xenon
c. Higher heat of vaporization
d. Higher vapour density
91. The chemical equilibrium of a reversible reaction is not influenced by:
a. Catalyst b. Pressure
c. Temperature d. Concentration
92. In monatomic gases, ratio of specific heat at constant pressure to that at constant volume is
4 5 5 7
a. 3 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
93. Atmospheric pollution is measured in:
a. mol l1 b. g l1 c. ppm d. gm
94. Zn displaces Cu because
a. Zinc has more negative reduction potential than copper
b. Copper has more reduction negative potential than Zinc
c. Zinc is more electronegative
d. Zinc is lower than hydrogen
95. Number of moles of sodium required to prepare 4.5 litres of 1.5M Na solution is:
a. 6.75 b. 0.33 c. 0.3 d. 67.5
96. IUPAC name of Urea is
a. Amino Amine
b. Amino Methanamide
c. 1,2 di-amino acid
d. 1,2 di-amino amine
97. Steel contains:
a. Fe + C + Mn b. Fe + C + Al
c. Fe + Mn d.Fe + Mn + Cr
98. Matte contains mainly
a. Fe b. Cu2S
c. Cu2S and FeS d.CuS and Fe2S3
99. Sodium is commercially obtained by the electrolysis of its fused sodium chloride. The process is
called
a. Castner process b.Down's process
c. Kellner process d.Solvay process
100. Compound X reacts with AgNO3 and gives white precipitate and also gives white precipitate
with H2SO4. The compound X is:
a. Ba(NO3)2 b. BaCl2
c. Pb(NO3)2 d. CuCl2
101. "Omnis cellula e cellula" was stated by
a. R.J.H Dutroche b.Rudolf Virchow
c. Robert Hooke d.Theodor Schwann
102. Spindle fiber is made up of:
a. Humulin b. Flagellin
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
c. Intermediate filamentd. Tubulin
103. In cancerous cells
a. mitosis takes place
b. meiosis takes place
c. both mitosis and meiosis takes place
d. cell division is uninhibited
104. Which of the following is the simplest amino acid?
a. glycine b. histidine
c. phenylalanine d. proline
105. The most mutable virus is
a. HIV
b. Chickenpox virus
c. Influenza virus
d. Dengue virus
106. Sexual reproduction does not occur in
a. Nostoc b.Riccia
c. Ulothrix d.Rhizopus
107. Dried leaf like lichen attached to substratum by rhizine is
a. fruticose b.foliose
c. crustose d.none
108. True alternation of generation is found in:
a. Spirogyra b.Mucor
c. Selaginella d.All of these
109. Which of the following phloem elements is/ are absent in monocotyledons?
a. companion cells
b. phloem parenchyma
c. sieve tubes
d. all of the above
110. Herbaceous stem of banana is pseudo stem formed by
a. sheathing leaf bases
b. vegetative bulbils
c. sucker d. corm
111. Multiparous cyme inflorescence axis is:
a. Calotropis b. Jasmine
c. Solanum d. Acacia
112. Atropa belladonna, a medicinal plant belongs to
a. Liliaceae b.Brassicaceae
c. Solanaceae d.Poaceae
113. Pollen grain is a:
a. Megaspore b. Microsporophyll
c. Microsporangium d. Microspore
114. Highest value of water potential is:
a. 1 b. 0 c. 10 d. 100
115. Which of the following is common between Aerobic and Anaerobic respiration?
a.TCA/Krebs cycle
b.ETS
c.Photo-oxidation
d.EMP cycle/Glycolysis
116. Energy begins in ecosystem by:
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
a. Producer
b. Primary consumer
c. Secondary consumer
d. Tertiary consumer
117. The rate at which light energy is converted into chemical energy of organic molecules by the
producers is:
a. Gross primary productivity
b. Net primary productivity
c. Net secondary productivity
d. Gross secondary productivity
118. Tea is a good stimulant due to presence of
a. Morphine b. Ephedrine
c. Nicotine d. Caffeine
119. The two strands of DNA helix are
a. Neutral
b. One is positive, other negative
c. Positive
d. Negative
120. Photosynthesis is fastest in:
a. Blue light
b. Sunlight/Intermittent light
c. Red light
d. Green light
121. Polymorphism is best found in:
a. Hydra b. Coral
c. Physalia d. Sponges
122. Which one is the larval stage of Leucosolenia?
a. Redia b. Amphibastula
c. Parenchymula d. Planula
123. Which of the following is a gastropod?
a. Clam b. Cuttle fish
c. Slug d. Mussel
124. Which one belongs to Dipnoi?
a. Lung fish b. Cat fish
c. Rat fish d. Star fish
125. Cerebral Malaria is caused due to
a. P. malariae b.P. ovale
c. P. falciparum d. P. vivax
126. Excretory organs of earthworm is
a. Green gland b.Flame cell
c. Organ of Bojanus d.Nephridia
127. Most of the drugs are metabolized in
a. Liver b.Kidney
c. Pancreas d.Small intestine
128. Nitrogen and sulphur containing vitamins is:
a. Retinol b. Thiamine
c. Ascorbic acid d.Tocopherol
129. Carbonic anhydrase enzyme is required for the transformation of:
a.O2 b.CO2
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
c.Hormones d.Minerals
130. Which of the following is considered as a good lipid?
a. Low Density Lipid
b. Very Low Density Lipid
c. High Density Lipid
d. Intermediate Low Density Lipid
131. Adrenaline directly affects on:
a. SA Node
b. Alpha–cells of Langerhans
c. Dorsal root of spinal cord
d. Epithelial cells of stomach
132. Left kidney lies above than the right kidney in
a. Frog b. Rabbit
c. Man d.All mammals
133. Cranial nerves carrying parasympathetic outflow are
a. V, VI, VII, VIII b. II, V, VII, XII
c. III, VII, IX, X d. I, II, III, IV
134. Scala vestibule is connected with
a. Fenestra rotundus
b. Fenestra ovalis
c. Scala media d. Eustachian tube
135. Tuberculosis (TB) in man is caused by the microbe called:
a. Mycobacterium b. Salmonella
c. Virus d.Plasmodium
136. Glenoid cavity is found in
a. Radius b. Ulna
c. Pelvic girdle d.Pectoral girdle
137. Both ectoderm and endoderm contribute the development of
a. Thyroid b. Pancreas
c. Adrenal (medulla and cortex respectively)
d. Pituitary
138. Decreases of ADH causes
a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Both a and b
d. Acromegaly
139. Myelination is performed by:
a. Oligodendrocyte in PNS
b. Schwann cells in PNS
c. Oligodendrocyte in CNS
d. Both b & c
140. Struggle for existence is one of the postulates of:
a. Hugo de Vries b. Lamarck
c. Charles Darwin d.Weismann
141. Non-transfer of pollen from anther to stigma of the same flower due to mechanical barriers is
a. Heterostyly b.Cleistogamy
c. Herkogamy d.Dichogamy
142. The pollen grains are shed at
a. one celled stage b.2-3 celled stage
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
c. 3 celled stage d.4 celled stage
143. Max amount of solute present in the phloem sap is
a. K+ ions b.Starch
c. Sucrose d.Glucose
144. The plant which perform CAM metabolism is
a. Oak b.Cactus
c. Fern d.Maize
145. Sequence of cytochrome is
a. Cyt a, b, c, a3 b.Cyt b, c, a, a3
c. Cyt b, a, a3, c d.Cyt b, c, a3, a
146. Which one is natural growth inhibitor?
a. NAA b. ABA
c. IAA d. GA
147. Habitat together with functions of a species constitute its:
a. ecological niche b.trophic level
b. topography d.boundary
148. Relation in which one species of ants sends its workers raid nest to another species of ants to
live in that nest is an example of:
a. Commensalism b.Antibiosis
c. Exploration d.Ammensalism
149. Tissue culture technique require
a. Complete sterilization b.pH 5 to 6
c. 18ºC to 25ºC d.all of these
150. Rejection of transplanted organ is due to
a. T-cells b. B-cells
c. Eosinophils d.Neutrophils
151. Precystic stage of Entamoeba is called:
a. Magna form b.Minuta form
c. Feeding trophozoite
d. Growing trophozoite
152. Penetrants and stenoteles are names of nematocysts in phylum coelenterata, of these:
a. Penetrants are smaller
b. Penetrates are larger
c. Both are same
d. Stenoteles are not found in Hydra
153. Johnston's organs are present in
a. Abdomen of housefly
b. Head of cockroach
c. Antenna of mosquito
d. Antenna of cockroach
154. Foot is displaced to near the mouth and is divided into arms in:
a. Neopilina b. Pila
c. Chiton d. Sepia
155. Frogs and toads belongs to order
a. Apoda b. Anura
c. Stegocephalia d. Urodela
156. Diagnostic period of Plasmodium is:
a. Gametogony in mosquito
b. Sporogony in mosquito
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
c. Schizogony in liver
d. Schizogony in RBC
157. In earthworm, neurons are:
a. Motor b. Sensory
c. Adjustor d. All
158. In frog pancreas secrete
a. 3 digestive enzymes and 3 hormones
b. 3 digestive enzymes and 2 hormones
c. 3 digestive enzymes and 1 hormone
d. None
159. Rabbit belongs to the order
a. Rodentia b.Artiodactyla
c. Lagomorpha d.Perissodactyla
160. Which of the following clotting factors is not formed by liver?
a. II b. VI c. IX d. X
161. Duct of Santorini is associated with
a. Liver b. Pancreas
c. Trachea d.Salivary glands
162. Vitamin A is often called as
a. Retinol b. Retinal
c. Retinoic acid d. Retinoids
163. Highest rate of impulse generation is found in:
a. SA Node b. AV Node
c. Bundle of His d. Purkinje system
164. Polyuria is seen in:
a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Diabetes insipidus
c. Recovery from acute nephritis
d. All of the above
165. Beta cells & pyramidal cells are characteristic of
a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum
c. Pons varolii d. Crura cerebri
166. Human ovary is connected to the uterus by the
a. Mesovarium b.Ovarian ligament
c. Infundibulum d.Interstitial cells
167. Which type of deafness can be treated by a cochlear implant?
a. Sensorineural b. Presbyacusis
c. Otosclerosis d. Conductive
168. Confirmatory test for TB is
a. Mantoux test b.X-ray chest
c. Sputum test d.Bronchoscopy
169. Which one is tarsal bone?
a. Scaphazoid b.Ulnare
c. Intermedium d.Cuboid
170. In which of the vertebra of rabbit, the neural spine is long and directed backwards?
a. Thoracic b.Cervical
c. Lumbar d.Sacral
171. The pituitary gland in human body is attached to the
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
a. Pineal stalk of diencephalon
b. Infundibulum of diencephalon
c. Optic lobe
d. Olfactory lobe
172. Which hormone can increase blood sugar level, volume of blood in vessel and rate of heat beat?
a. FSH b.Adrenaline
c. Insulin d.All of these
173. Blood brain barrier is formed by:
a. Astrocyte b.Schwann cell
c. Macrophages d.Ependymal cells
174. Webbed adaptation for which mode of life?
a. Aerial b.Terrestrial
c. Aquatic d.Scansorial
175. Australopithecus is:
a. Southern ape b.Western ape
c. Eastern ape d.Northern ape
176. Cro-Magnon man was discovered by:
a. Eugene and Dubois b.Fulhrot
c. Leakey d.Mac-Gregor
177. Grey crescent is present:
a. At the site of entry of sperm
b. Opposite to sperm entrance
c. Just side to the sperm entrance
d. Nowhere
178. Sclerotome forms the:
a. Axial skeleton
b.Appendicular skeleton
c. Cartilage d.Ligaments
179. Which of the following lipid is considered as a "good lipid"?
a. Very Low Density Lipid (VLDL)
b. Low Density Lipid (LDL)
c. High Density Lipid (HDL)
d. Intermediate Low Density Lipid (ILDL)
180. Hodgkin's disease is related to
a. Carcinoma of Lymphoid tissue
b. Epithelial tissue
c. Pituitary gland
d. Nervous tissue

1811. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).
Problem Figures: Answer Figures:
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (1) (2) (3) (4) (5)
A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4
182.
Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part.

(X) (1) (2) (3) (4)

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4
183.
he average weight of 8 person's increases by 2.5 kg when a new person comes in place of one of
them weighing 65 kg. What might be the weight of the new person?
A. 76 kg

B. 76.5 kg

C. 85 kg

D. Data inadequate
184.
A vendor bought toffees at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must he sell to gain 20%?
A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6
185.
A, B and C can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can A do
the work if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 12 days

B. 15 days

C. 16 days
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
D. 18 days
186.
Seats for Mathematics, Physics and Biology in a school are in the ratio 5 : 7 : 8. There is a proposal
to increase these seats by 40%, 50% and 75% respectively. What will be the ratio of increased
seats?
A. 2 : 3 : 4

B. 6 : 7 : 8

C. 6 : 8 : 9

D. None of these
187. Find the odd man out.

6, 9, 15, 21, 24, 28, 30

A. 28

B. 21

C. 24

D. 30
188.
Look at this series: 53, 53, 40, 40, 27, 27, ... What number should come next?
A. 12

B. 14

C. 27

D. 53
189.
Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

A. 18

B. 20

C. 24

D. 27
190.
Count the number of triangles and squares in the given figure.
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.

A. 36 triangles, 7 squares

B. 38 triangles, 9 squares

C. 40 triangles, 7 squares

D. 42 triangles, 9 squares
191.
Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
A. winter

B. bear

C. dream

D. sleep
192.
Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 4 only
193.
Statements: In a one day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of these 160
runs were made by spinners.
Conclusions:
I. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
II. The opening batsmen were spinners.
A. Only conclusion I follows

B. Only conclusion II follows

C. Either I or II follows

D. Neither I nor II follows

 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.

194.
Which word does NOT belong with the others?
A. Unimportant

B. Trivial

C. Insignificant

D. Familiar
195.
Which of the following diagrams indicates the best relation between Profit, Dividend and Bonus ?

A.

B.

C.

D.

196.
Two bus tickets from city A to B and three tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 77 but three tickets from
city A to B and two tickets from city A to C cost Rs. 73. What are the fares for cities B and C from A ?
A. Rs. 4, Rs. 23

B. Rs. 13, Rs. 17

C. Rs. 15, Rs. 14

D. Rs. 17, Rs. 13

197.
At a dinner party every two guests used a bowl of rice between them, every three guests used a
bowl of dal between them and every four used a bowl of meat between them. There were
altogether 65 dishes. How many guests were present at the party?
A. 60

B. 65

C. 90

D. None of these
198.
Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4
199.
Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted
into each other would form a complete square.

A. 124

B. 345

C. 123

D. 135
200. Find the missing number:

2 8 9
3 2 4
3 6 ?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4

Answers
1. (b)
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
The dimensions of stress and pressure are same.
The dimensions of angular momentum and Planck's constant are same.
2. (d)
  
= A then | a - b | = 2A sin
2
     
| a | = | b | = A then | a + b | = 2A cos
2
3. (d)
1
Hmax = 4 Rmax tan
1
Hmax = 4 Hmax tan
 = tan-1 (4)
4. (c)
vdm
Thrust F = dt = mg
dm mg
= dt = v
600 × 10
= 1000 = 6 kgs-1
5. (a)
Limiting frictional force = s mg= 0.4 × 2 × 10 = 8 N
 Applied force < Limiting frictional force, the block does not move
Force of frictional = applied force
6. (d)
m1 = 4kg, m2 = 8kg, v2 = 6m/sec
v1 = ?,
m1v1 + m2v2 = 0
or, 4v1 = - 6 × 8
48
or, v1 = - 4 = -12 m/s
1
K.E1 = 2 m1v12
1
= 2 × 4 × (12)2 = 288J
7. (b)
gra
vmax = h
e 1.5
where, a = 2 = 2 = 0.75
gra 10×120×0.75
vmax = h = 2 = 21m/s
8. (b)
gearth
On moon, there is no atmosphere and gmoon =
6
9. (c)
MR2
MI of disc about its diameter, I0 = 4
 MR2 = 4I0 ............. (i)
MI about an axis through its rim I' = ICM + MR2
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
MR2
= 2 + MR2
3MR2
= 2
3×4I0
= 2 = 6I0
10. (b)
g 3g l 1
g' = g + 2 = 2 T = 2 g 
g
T2 g g 2
T1 = g' = 3g
 
= 3
2
2
T2 = 3T
11. (c)
12. (a)
As humidity increases, a man feels more hot.
13. (a)
3RT 3RT 3×8.3×103×300
Vrms = M  M = v2 = (1920)2 = 2g
i. e. H2
14. (c)
15. (b)
Work done is maximum in isobaric expansion.
16. (b)
1
Vt Tt 273 + t  t 2
Vo = To =  Vt = Vo 1 + 273
 273   
t t
= Vo 1 + 2×273 = Vo + Vo 546
   
t
Vt - Vo = Vo 546 = 0.61 m/s
 
17. (a)
1  T 
n=
2 r2
n =
n' T'  r 2   
 T  r' '
n'
or, n = [2×(1/2)2 ×2] = 1
 n' = n
18. (c)
19. (c)
c
v=

o
or, m =

420
 m = (4/3) = 315 nm
20. (b)
fl g - 1
fa = g - l × l
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
As g = l
 fl = 
21. (d)
Resolving power of human eye = 1 minute
1 º 1 
= 60 = 60 × 180
 
1 1
= 3436  3420 radian
22. (b)
 4I 4×30
 =P = P 5= P
 P = 24W
23. (a)
c 3×108 3×102 300
 = f = 15×106 = 15 = 15 = 20 m
24. (b)
25. (c)
1
W = CV2; U = 2 CV2
W
 U =2:1
26. (a)
B2 (2.5 ×10-3)2
E= = = 2. 48J
2o 2 × 4 × 10-7
27. (a)
Positron decay
A A 0
zX ––– z-1Y + +1e (positron)
-decay
A A 0
zX –––z+1Y + -1e
28. (a)
29. (a)
30. (b)
m0 m0 5
m= = = m0
1 - v2/c2 1 - (0.8)2 3
31. (b)
Torque () = Fr = [MLT-2-][L] = [ML2T-2]
32. (a)
abcos = 3 ab sin
1
or, tan  =
3
 = 30
33. (b)
Frictional force is a non-conservative force while the force of gravitation is a conservative force. Most of the
forces in nature are conservative forces.
34. (b)
2
MI = 5 MR2  R2
MI1  R 2 1
MI2 = 2R = 4
35. (b)
The time period of a second pendulum is 2 seconds.
36. (c)
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
During the fall of stone
Mechanical energy = KE + PE = constant
37. (d)
T2 300
 = 1 T = 1– 400 × 100%
1  
3
= 1– 4 ×100%
 
1
= 4 × 100%
= 25 %
38. (b)
Land and sea breeze are due to convection.
39. (a)

40. (d)
Stationary waves do not transmit mass, energy and momentum.
41. (d)
Systematic error also called Repetitive error occurs due to defective machines and incorrect experiment
apparatus.
Systematic errors can be eliminated by using correctly calibrated instrument and eliminate any zero or parallax
errors.
Systematic errors cannot be reduced by taking average of the data.
Random errors can be reduced statistically by taking average of the data.
42. (c)
L = fo + fe
Given, fo = 60 cm,
fo
M = f = 20
e
60 60
or, 20 = f  fe = 20 = 3 cm
e
 L = fo + fe = 60 +3 = 63 cm
43. (d)
The work done in moving a charge over an equipotential surface is zero.
44. (a)
C' = n1/3 C = 81/3 C
1
= (2)3×3 C = 2C
45. (a)
W = Eq
W
E= q
5
= 10 = 0.5 V
46. (b)
The area of hysteresis gives the loss of energy per cycle.
47. (b)
h h 1
= p = 
2mk 2
48. (b)
Radioactive decay is a nuclear phenomenon.
49. (a)
Rectifier converts AC into DC while oscillator converts DC into AC.
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
50. (c)
n2
r = 0.53 × Z Å
51. (a)
Isoelectronic species have the same no. of electrons.
No. of electrons in CO = 6 + 8 = 14 and CN¯ = 6 + 8 = 14.
So they are isoelectronic.
52. (a)
1 1
r 
d m
rP 1 MH 1
=
rH 4 , MP = 4
MH 1
or, M = 16
P
or, MP = 16 × MH = 16 × 2 = 32
53. (d)
Lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property but vapour pressure itself is not a colligative property.
54. (d)
Mass of reactant = mass of product
Law of conservation of mass
55. (b)

56. (c)
 Element A (Z = 19) = K, Element B(Z = 9) = F
 Compound formed between A and B is KF, i.e. electrovalent compound.
57. (c)
0 –3 +1
 P + NaOH ⇋ P H3 + NaH2PO2
 P is both oxidized and reduced
 The type of redox reaction in which same substrate acts as oxidizing and reducing agent simultaneously is
called disproportionation reaction
58. (a)
Greater is the effective nuclear charge smaller will be the size of the atom.
i.e. +ve ion < neutral atom < –ve ion
i.e. Ca+2 < Cl¯ < S2¯ < P3¯
59. (a)
 Lewis bases are:
 All anions of Cl–, F–, CN–
 Molecules with lone pair of electrons e.g. NH3, PH3, H2O and ROH
 Lewis acids are:
 All anions e.g. Fe+2, Ca+2, H+, Na+
 Compounds with incomplete octet
e.g. FeCl3, AlCl3, BF3
60. (a)
pOH = –log[OH¯]
= – log[4.8 × 10–3]
= 3 – log 4.8
= 3 – 0.68 = 2.32
pH = 14 – pOH
= 14 – 2.32 = 11.68
61. (b)
Normality = Molarity × 2
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
62. (c)
· Electrolysis of molten NaCl gives Na & Cl2 (Down's process).
63. (a)
R = K[A]x  x = order of reaction
R1 K[A1]x
R2 = K[A2]x
R1  A1 x
2R1 = 2A1
1 1x
2 = 2
x = 1 (first order reaction)
64. (d)
When ZnCl2 is treated with NaOH white ppt of Zn(OH)2 is formed which is soluble in excess of NaOH forming
sodium Zincate.
65. (c)
 G = – RT lnK
G0 = – RT lnK
G0 = –2.303 RT log K
G = – nFEcell
66. (b)
MnO2 acts as catalyst in the preparation of O2 from potassium chlorate
67. (b)
Uses of ozone
 Strong sterilizing agent for air and water
 Use for detecting the position of double bonds in unsaturated compounds
 Mild bleaching agent for bleaching wax and delicate febrics
68. (b)
In NH2OH, let O.N. of N be 'x'
x + 2 × (+1) + (-2) + (+1) = 0
 x = –1.
69. (b)
F2 – pale yellow, Cl2-green-yellow
Br2-dark yellow, I2-violet
70. (a)
Ag is mainly extracted from silver glance (Ag2S).
71. (d)
 Here carbonyl compound is reduced to alcohol by addition of proton.
 Carbonyl compound shows nucleophilic addition rxn.
 In chlorination, Cl+ ion acts as electrophile.
 Williamson's synthesis is nucleophilic substitution rxn which takes place by SN2 mechanism.
72. (a)
 Dimethyl ether (CH3–O –CH3) and ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH) are functional isomers.
73. (d)
Alkynes give Tollens test due to presence of acid H–atom in it.
74. (c)
Na,ether C2H5-C2H5
C2H5 –I+Na+I – C2H5
n-butane
75. (b)
Glycerol is used as an anti-freezing agent in a automobile radiators.
76. (c)
77. (d)
O
||
 CH3 – C – CH3 + CaCO3
(CH3COO)2Ca


(HCOO)2Ca HCHO + CaCO3
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.

78. (a)
CH3 CONH2+ Br2+ NaOHCH3NH2 + Na2CO3 + Na Br + H2O
79. (b)
80. (b)
Natural rubber is a polymer of isoprene. It is a structural unit in terpenes.
81. (c)
82. (c)
2RT
Vav = M
1
Vav 
M
Since molecular weight of Ne is lowest among the given species, it has maximum average velocity.
83. (b)
An atom on an edge is shared between four unit cells.
In corner: shared with 8 unit cells (1/8)
In side: shared with 2 unit cells (1/2)
84. (a)
Even – even – most stable and odd – odd – most unstable.
85. (b)
The univalent negative radicals like CN¯, SCN¯, OCN¯, show a resemblance to the halide in their physical and
chemical properties so they are called pseudohalide.
86. (a)
Large Anion: Covalent C(k)aracter [@LACK]
87. (a)
Li is the strongest reducing agents in solution
88. (a)
Central atom i.e. Boron (B) in Boric acid (H3BO3) is electron deficient so it is Mono-basic and weak Lewis acid.
89. (b)
From Faradays 2nd law
Cu deposited Eq.Wt. of Cu
Ag deposited = Eq. Wt. of Ag
31.5
Wt. of Cu deposited = 108 × 2.5
= 0.7292gm
90. (a)
 Inert gases have high value of ionization enthalpies than other elements of the same period.
 However, these values decreases from He to Xe, due to which the paired electrons of valence shell can become
unpaired and the electrons are shifted to d-orbitals under suitable conditions.
91. (a)
Chemical equilibrium of the reversible reaction is influenced by temperature, pressure and concentration of
reactant but independent of catalyst.
92. (b)
For mono atomic gas
5 3
Cp = 2 R, Cv = 2 R
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
Cp
 = Cv
(5/2)R
= (3/2)R
5
=3
93. (c)
 Air quality measurements are commonly reported in terms of:
■ Micrograms per cubic meter (g/m3)
■ parts per million (ppm) or parts per billion (ppb).
94. (a)
 Elements having more negative (lower) reduction potential could displace the element having less negative
(higher) reduction potential in the electrochemical series.
Example:
Zn displaces Cu from CuSO4 because Zinc has lower reduction potential i.e. negative reduction potential than
copper.
Zn + CuSO4  ZnSO4 + Cu
i.e. Zn + Cu++(aq)  Zn++ (aq) + Cu
95. (a)
no.of moles
Molarity (M) = volume in litres
No. of moles = M  V
= 4.5  1.5 = 6.75 moles
96. (b)

97. (a)
Fe + C + Mn
98. (c)
During smelting process of manufacture of Cu from copper pyrite ore, copper sulphide containing traces of FeS
is called copper matte.
Colloidal gold salts are used in Rheumatiod arthritis (a joint disease).
99. (d)
In Down's process iron vessels acts as cathode and graphite rod acts as anode.
100. (b)
 BaCl2 + AgNO3  Ba(NO3)2 + AgCl
(white)
 BaCl2 + H2SO4  BaSO4 + HCl
(white)
101. (b)
 Virchow proposed: Theory of cell lineage.
Theory of cell lineage states or ''omnis cellula – e-cellulae" (all living cells are arises from pre -existing cells)
102. (d)
Spindle fibres (97% tubulin protein and 3% RNA) are extra - nuclear and occupy the middle of the cells. Polar
ends of spindle are negatively charged.
103. (d)
 Cancer is basically due to differential gene expression.
 Cancerous cells keep dividing and give rise to mass of cell called tumor.
104. (a)
 Glycine is the simplest (no asymmetrical carbon) amino acid and Tryptophan is the most complex (contains
indole ring).
105. (a)
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
No vaccine could be developed against HIV because it has high mutagenic rate arose during reverse
transcription. It has no polymerase for the repairing of its mutated DNA.
106. (a)
Nostoc is blue green algae also called as cyanobacteria.
107. (b)
Foliose lichen are flat, leaf like, well-branched or lobed thalli attached to the substratum at few points by means
of rhizines.
108. (c)
Selaginella is a Pteridophyte.
109.b
Phloem parenchyma is usually absent in monocot and few dicots like Ranunculus.
110. (a)
111. (a)
Multiparous or Polychasial Cyme: The main axis as usual ends in a flower and gives off number of lateral
branches, each terminating in a flower E.g. Calotropis, Hamelia, etc.
112. (c)
Atropa belladonna contains an alkaloid Atropine (medicine used for eye testing, belladonna plaster)
113. (d)
 Pollen grain is best defined as partially developed male gametophyte.
 Pollen grain with pollen tube is fully developed male gametophyte.
114. (b)
Water potential of pure water is zero and addition of solute in it decreases its water potential (i.e. negative
value).
115. (d)
Glycolysis is the common metabolic pathway for both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
116. (a)
The ultimate source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy.
117. (a)
Net primary productivity or NPP is gross primary productivity minus the rate of energy loss to metabolism and
maintenance.
118. (d)
Caffeine is a good stimulant present in tea, coffee and cold beverages.
119. (b)
The two strands of DNA are complementary and antiparallel.
Two strands of DNA are joined to each other by Hydrogen bond (H-bond).
120. (b)
Rate of Photosynthesis is maximum in white light than in red light and blue light.
i.e. white light  red light  blue light > Green light
Photosynthesis is greater in intermittent light than continuous light
121. (c)
Physalia exhibit a remarkable example of polymorphism and division of labour.
122. (c)
Redia is the larva of Flatworm, Amphibastula is larva of Sycon, Planula is larva of Hydra whereas Parenchymula is
larva of Leucosolenia.
123. (c)
Gastropods:
Doris (Sea lemon) Turbinella (Shankha)
Limax (Slug) Pila (Apple snail)
Aplysia (Sea hare) Patella (Limpet)
Cyprea (Cowda) Helix (Garden snail)
124. (a)
Lung fishes: Lepidosiren (Latin American lung fish), Neoceratodus (Australian lung fish), Protopterus (African
lung fish).
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
125. (c)
P. vivax causes Benign Tertian Malaria, P. falciparum causes Malignant tertian malaria or Cerebral Malaria
whereas P. malariae causes Benign Quartan malaria.
126. (d)
Nephridia are the excretory organs of Annelids.
127. (a)
Liver is the major site for metabolism of drugs.
128. (b)
Vitamin B1 is called thiamine.
129. (b)
Carbonic anhydrase is present inside the RBC which converts CO2 into H2CO3 in presence of water in the
tissues and converts H2CO3 into H2O and CO2 in the alveoli.
130. (c)
High density lipids are considered as good lipid or good cholesterol and low density are considered as bad
lipids as they cause atherosclerotic plaques.
131. (a)
Adrenaline increases heart rate by enhancing the pacemaker activity of SA node.
132. (c)
In rabbit, right kidney lies above than the left kidney.
133. (c)
Cranial nerves III (Oculomotor), VII (Facial), IX (Glossopharyngeal) & X (Vagus) are Parasympathetic nerves.
Parasympathetic has cranio-sacral outflow.
Sympathetic has thoraco-lumbar outflow.
134. (b)
135. (a)
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
An Acid-fast bacillus (AFB)
Rod shaped, non-capsulated, non-sporulating, non motile.
Aerobic intracellular bacterium; therefore more commonly invades lungs where oxygen concentration is
high.
136.d
Scapula is a triangular with glenoid cavity at the apex.
137. (c)
Adrenal gland:
Cortex: Outer layer; develops from mesoderm
Medulla: Develops from Ectoderm
138. (a)
Antidiuretic Hormone/ Vasopressin/ Pitressin (ADH)
Promotes retention of water by acting in the distal tubules and collecting ducts of kidney
Deficiency: Diabetes insipidus (dilution of urine)
139. (d)140. (c)
 Darwin's theory of Natural selection is based upon the following six fundamental propositions:
▪ Over-production
▪ Struggle for existence
▪ Variation & Heredity
▪ Natural Selection (Darwin) or Survival of the fittest (Spencer)
▪ Changing environment necessitates structural modifications
▪ Origin of Species
141. (c)Herkogamy–flowers have natural barrier between anther and sigma. E.g. Calotropis
Pollen grains are stored in a sac like structure called pollinium in Calotropis
142. (b)
Pollen grains of Cycas are shed at 3 celled stage [1 prothalial cell].
Pollen grains shed at 4-celled stage in pinus and 2-celled stage in angiosperm.
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
143. (c)144. (b)
Common in succulents and xerophytic plants
CAM occurs in fleshy green leaves
No Krantz anatomy
First stable compound is Oxaloacetic acid (4C) or malic acid (4C).
145. (b)
In ETS, electron passes through NAD  FMN (in route I) or FAD (in route II)  Fe-S protein complex 
Coenzyme Q or Ubiquinone (UbQ)  cytochrome b  Fe-S protein  cyt c1  Cyt c  cyt a  cyt a3  O2
146. (b)
Is a powerful natural growth inhibitor
Dormant Stress hormone
Precursor of Abscisic Acid is carotenoids.
Popularly called Anti-gibberellic hormone
147. (a)
 Ecological Niche of an organism includes the function of an organism (feeding activities, interactions,
movements) in a community along with the physical space it occupies. It means the place of an organism in the
biotic environment to its relation to food, enemies, habits & abiotic factors.
148. (c)
149. (d)
Tissue culture requires all of the above conditions.
150. (a)
The principal function of the MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) is to present antigen to T cells to
discriminate between self (our cells and tissues) and nonself (the invaders or modified self) and hence, can
reject transplantation.
MHC class I presents antigen to cytotoxic T cells (CD8+ cells)
MHC class II presents to helper T cells (CD4+ cells)
151. (b)
It has two forms: Magna (pathogenic) & minuta (non-pathogenic).
Magna is found in mucosa and submucosa of intestine forming ulcers and minuta is found in the lumen of
intestine.
152. (c)
 Types of nematocysts
Penetrant or stenotele: Largest; paralyzing
Volvent or desmoneme: Grasping; smallest
Large glutinant or Holotrichous isorhiza
Small glutinant or Atrichous isorhiza
153. (c)
 Pedicel of antenna bears proprioreceptor called Johnston's organ; sensitive to CO2 and sound.
154. (d)
Cephalopoda: Most developed non-chordates with exclusive learning behaviour
Sepia (Cuttle fish)
Octopus (Devil fish)
Nautilus (Pearly nautilus)
Architeuthis (Giant squid)
Loligo (Squid)
155. (b)
Apoda: Legs absent
E.g. Ichthyophis, Uraeotyphlus
Urodela (caudata): Tail present in both larva and adults.
E.g. Necturus, Salamandra, Amblystoma
Anura (Salientia): Gills and tail present in larval stage but adults lack tail.
E.g. Frog & toad: Rana, Bufo, Hyla, Rhacophorus, Alytes
156. (d)
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
Malarial parasites can be obtained in large numbers in blood from a person when temperature rises with rigor.
Malaria is diagnosed by thick and thin smear.
157. (d)
All the nerves are of mixed type i.e. contain both afferent (sensory) and efferent (motor) nerve fibres and
adjustors.
158. (b)
In frog, pancreas: Second largest gland, yellowish in color.
Pancreas secretes 3 enzymes (Trypsinogen, Amylopsin, Steapsin) and 2 hormones (Insulin, Glucagon)
159. (c)
160. (b)
Factors I, II, V, VII, VIII, IX, X, XI and XII are formed in liver, which are responsible for blood clotting.
Most of the yolk is synthesized in the liver.
161. (b)
The main pancreatic duct (Duct of Wirsung) opens into the hepatopancreatic ampulla i.e. ampulla of Vater. An
accessory pancreatic duct known as duct of Santorini is present that directly opens into the duodenum.
162. (a)
163. (a)
The highest rate of impulse generation is found in SA Node and minimum in Purkinje system.
164. (d)
165. (a)
166. (b)
Each ovary is attached to the dorsal body wall by mesovarium (a fold of dorsal peritoneum) and to the uterus
by an ovarian ligament.
Ovarian ligament is homologous to gubernaculum of testes of male.
167. (a)
A cochlear implant is an electronic device that stimulates the nerves of the cochlea which have been damaged.
168. (c)
Sputum Smear microscopy by using Ziehl–Neelson (ZN) staining  demonstration of AFB - confirmatory test
for TB
Tuberculin test/Mantoux test: Most common test for TB
169. (d)
Tarsal bones: 7 bones in 3 rows
Tallus
Calcaneum  Heel bone
Navicular
Medial Cuneiform
Intermediate Cuneiform
Lateral Cuneiform
Cuboid
170. (a)
171. (b)
Pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamus by a short stalk known as infundibulum containing arteries,
veins and nerve fibres for the communication with the hypothalamus.
172. (b)
The main function of adrenaline is to regulate systolic and diastolic blood pressure.
Adrenaline is secreted by adrenal medulla.
Removal of adrenal cortex leads to death.
173. (a)
Astrocytes form the Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB) as a specialized immunity for brain.
174. (c)
Presence of webbed feet (e.g. ducks), limbs are developed into flipper or paddles in which there is loss of various
joint is a secondary aquatic adaptation.
175. (a)
 CEE Model Set with Solutions in Help For Medical Entrance App.
Australopithecus (Southern ape/ First man ape/ Near man)
Cranial capacity: 400 - 600cc
Ancestor of man who first stood erect
Discovered by Lucy and Raymond Dart
176. (d)
Cro-Magnon man (Homo sapiens fossilis)
Discovered in France by Mac Gregor
Artist, made coloured cave, paintings, sculptures, etc.
Most recent ancestor of modern man
Cranial capacity = 1600 - 1650 cc.
177. (b)
Upper Animal Pole: Pigmented; contains cytoplasm
Lower Vegetal Pole: Non-pigmented; contains yolk
Grey Crescent: Opposite to the point of sperm entry
178. (a)
Along with formation of neural tube, a long median rod-like (sclerotome) thickening appears just below neural
tube in chordamesoderm that separates from the mesodermal plate. This is known as Notochord. It forms the
axial skeleton.
179. (c)
High density lipid is considered as good lipid [@H for Hero] while the low density and very low density lipid
are considered as bad lipid [@V for Villan].
180. (a)
Hodgkin's disease is a type of lymphoma.
In Hodgkin's lymphoma, -lymphocytes start to multiply in a abnormal way and begin to collect in certain
parts of lymphatic system such as lymph nodes.
The most common symptom of Hodgkin's lymphoma is a painless swelling in a lymph node usually in neck,
armpit or groin.
181.(d) 182.(a) 183.(c) 184.(c) 185.(b)
186.(a) 187.(a) 188.(b) 189.(c) 190.(c) 191.(d) 192.(c) 193.(d) 194.(d)
195.(b)
196.(b)
197.(a)
198.(a)
199.(d)
200.(c)