NEET 201 - : Solution
NEET 201 - : Solution
Test Code
Code-A
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Ans. (4)
Sol.
Ans. (1)
Q.3 The formation of the oxide ion, O2-(g), from oxygen atom requires frist an exothermic
and then an endothermic step as shown below:
→ ∆ ⊖
→ ∆ ⊖
Thus process of formation of O2- in gas phase is unfavourable even thought O2- is
isoelectronic with neon. it is due to the fact that,
(1) Oxygen is more electronegative
(2) addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion
(3) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas
configuration
(4) O- ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom
Ans. (3)
Q.4 The number of structural isomers possible from them olecular formula C3H9N is :
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5
Ans. (3)
Sol.
amine
constant for
will be:-
(1) K (2) K2 (3) K1/2 (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
′
when a reaction is multiplied by 1/2 then K' = (K)1/2
Q.6 Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an acidic buffer ?
(1) and (2) and
(3) and (4) and
Ans. (3)
Q.7 Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric
current?
(1) Ammonia, (2) Fructose,
(3) Acetic acide (4) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
Ans. (4)
Sol. Aqueous solution of HCl is the best conductor of electric current because HCl is
strong acid, so it dissociates completely into ions.
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Q.13 In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural ?
(1) (2)
(3)
(4) Dimond, silicon carbide
Ans. (2)
sp3 d2 hybridisation
Q.14 In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov's rule,
to give a product -1.chloro- 1.methylcyclohexane. The possible alkene is :-
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Q.15 Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which of the following compounds will
require the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Q.16 Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally
introduces which one of the following functional group ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
(i) No. of electron in ONF = 24
No. of electron in NO2- = 24 both are isoelectronic
(ii) OF2 is a fluoride of flourior because EN of fluorine is more than oxygen OF2 =
oxygen difluoride
(iii) Cl2O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid
∆
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Reason : Nucleophiles are electron rich species so act as lewis base.
Q.22 A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at :
(1) high temperatures and high pressures
(2) low temperatures and low pressures
(3) high temperatures and low pressures
(4) low temperatures and high pressures
Ans. (3)
Sol. Real gases show ideal gas behaviour at high tempratures and low pressures.
Ans. (3)
Sol.
due to presence of strong field ligand all unpaired electrons are paired
Q.24 The heat of combustion of carbon to CO2 is -393.5 kJ/mol. The heat released upon
formation of 35.2 g of CO2 from carbon and oxygen gas is:
(1) -630 kJ (2) -3.15 kJ (3) -315 kJ (4) +315 kJ
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Formation of CO2 from carbon and dioxygen gas can be represented as
→ ∆
(1 mole =44 g)
heat released on formation of 44 g CO2
=-393.5 kJ mol-1
= × =-315kJ
Ans. (2)
Sol. →
mole of mol
From above equation
1 mole MgCO3 gives 1 mole MgO
∴
×
Practical yield of MgO =8 g MgO
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
Q.28 The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and TI increases in the sequence:
(1) TI < In < Ga < Al (2) In < TI < Ga < Al
(3) Ga < In < Al < TI (4) Al < Ga < In < TI
Ans. (4)
Sol. Stability of +1 oxidation state due to inert pair effect Tl > In > Ga > Al
Q.29 Two possible stereo-structures of CH3CHOH.COOH, which are optically active, are
called :-
(1) Enantiomers (2) Mesomers
(3) Diastereomer (4) Atropisomers
Ans. (1)
Sol.
Ans. (2)
Q.31 The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of the metal M in the complex
[M(en)2(C2O4)]Cl (where en is ethylenediamine) is :-
(1) 7 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 6
Ans. (3)
Sol.
oxidation state of M=+3
Coordination number of M=6
Sum of oxidation state + coordination number =3+6=9
Q.32 Reaction of carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves
nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water. The reagent is :
(1) hydrocyanic acid
(2) sodium hydrogen sulphite
(3) a Grignard reagent
(4) hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution
Ans. (4)
Q.33 Which one of the following esters gets hydrolysed most easily under alkaline conditions
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. SN1 reaction gives racemic mixture with slight predominance of that isomer which
corresponds to inversion because SN1 also depends upon the degree of 'shielding' of the
front side of the reacting carbon.
Q.35 The rate constant of the reaction A → B is 0.6 × 10-3 mole per second. If the
concentration of A is 5 M, then concentration of B after 20 minutes is :-
(1) 0.36 M (2) 0.72 M (3) 1.08 M (4) 3.60 M
Ans. (2)
Q.36 What is the pH of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1 M NaOH and
0.01 M HCl are mixed ?
(1) 7.0 (2) 1.04 (3) 12.65 (4) 2.0
Ans. (3)
Sol.
× × ×
pOH=- log(0.045)=1.35
∴ pH=14-pOH=14-1.35=12.65
Q.37 Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en)2Cl2] Cl will be : (en =
ethylenediamine)
Ans. (1)
(ii) In trans form plane of symmetry present, so trans form is optically inactive but cis
is optically active. Total number of stereoisomer = 2+1 =3
Q.38 The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI >
HBr > HCl. What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride ?
(1) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides
(2) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarises the HF
molecule
(3) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the
group.
(4) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules
Ans. (4)
Q.39 What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3
is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8% NaCl solution ?
(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16,Na = 23, Cl =35.5)
(1) 7 g (2) 14 g (3) 28 g (4) 3.5 g
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
Q.43 Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides ?
(I)
(II)
(IV)
(1) (IV) only (2) (III) and (IV) only
(3) (I), (III) and (IV) only (4) (I) and (IV) only
Ans. (3)
Sol. (I) and (IV) can be used due to presence of anhydrous ZnCl2 (III) gives alkyl
halide due to formation of more stable carbocation.
Ans. (2)
Q.45 In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the
reduction of cuprous oxide with :-
(1) copper(I) sulphide
(2) sulphur dioxide
(3) iron(II) sulphide
(4) carbon monoxide
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
Q.51 An association of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having
functional interactions is :
(1) Population (2) Ecological niche
(3) Biotic community (4) Ecosystem
Ans. (3)
Q.52 The oxygen evolved during photosynthesis comes from water molecules. Which one of
the following pairs of elements is involved in this reaction?
(1) Magnesium and Chlorine (2) Manganese and Chlorine
(3) Manganese and Potassium (4) Magnesium and Molybdenum
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Q.55 In mammalian eye, the 'fovea' is the center of the visual field, where :
(1) more rods than cones are found.
(2) high density of cones occur, but has no rods
(3) the optic nerve leaves the eye
(4) only rods are present
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Q.58 In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected ?
(1) Mutualism (2) Competition|
(3) Predation (4) Parasitism
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
Q.67 In which group of organisms the cells walls form two thin overlapping shells which fit
together ?
(1) Slime moulds (2) Chrysophytes
(3) Euglenoids (4) Dinoflagellates
Ans. (2)
Q.68 The DNA molecules to which the gene of interest is integrated for cloning is called :
(1) Carrier (2) Transformer (3) Vector (4) Template
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (3)
Saccharomyces Production of
(a) (i) immunosuppressive
cerevisiae agents
(b) Monascus purpureus (ii) Ripening of Swiss cheese
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
Q.78 The cutting of DNA at specific locations became possible with the discovery of :
(1) Ligases (2) Restriction enzymes
(3) Probes (4) Selectable markers
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
Q.81 The body cells in cockroach discharge their nitrogenous waste in the haemolymph
mainly in the form of :
(1) Calcium carbonate (2) Ammonia
(3) Potassium urate (4) Urea
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
Q.84 The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shield-shaped cotyledon known as :
(1) Coleoptile (2) Epiblast
(3) Coleorrhiza (4) Scutellum
Ans. (4)
Q.85 Among china rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber, onion and tulip, how
many plants have superior ovary?
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Three
Ans. (3)
Q.87 Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant where the incorporated gene is meant
for biosynthesis of :
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin C (4) Omega 3
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (2)
Q.93 Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human female?
(1) LH surge
(2) Decrease in estradiol
(3) Full development of Graafian follicle
(4) Release of secondary oocyte
Ans. (2)
Q.94 Body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities lined with food filtering flagellated
cells and indirect development are the characteristics of phylum :
(1) Protozoa (2) Coelenterata (3) Porifera (4) Mollusca
Ans. (2)
Q.95 Which one of the following hormones is not involved in sugar metabolism ?
(1) Glucagon (2) Cortisone (3) Aldosterone (4) Insulin
Ans. (3)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Q.99 A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after
metamorphosis return to the ocean is :
(1) Petromyzon (2) Eptatretus
(3) Myxine (4) Neomyxine
Ans. (1)
Q.100 The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissues are :
(1) Holdfast (2) Rhizoids (3) Fimbriae (4) Mesosomes
Ans. (3)
Q.101 If you suspect major deficiency of antibodies in a person, to which of the following
would you look for confirmatory evidence?
(1) Serum globulins (2) Fibrinogin in plasma
(3) Serum albumins (4) Haemocytes
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)
Q.104 In his classic experiments on pea plants, Mendel did not use :
(1) Flower position (2) Seed colour
(3) Pod length (4) Seed shape
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Q.113 Destruction of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord would result in loss of :-
(1) Integrating impulses (2) Sensory impulses
(3) voluntary motor impulses (4) Commissural impulses
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
Q.116 Identify the correct order of organisation of genetic material from largest to smallest :
(1) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(2) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(3) Genome, chromosomes, nucleotide, gene
(4) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
Ans. (4)
Q.117 Which one of the following hormones though synthesised elsewhere, is stored and
released by the master gland ?
(1) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(2) Antidiuretic hormone
(3) Luteinizing hormone
(4) Prolactin
Ans. (2)
Q.118 Read the different components from (a) to (d) in the list given below and tell the
correct order of the components with reference to their arrangement from outer side
to inner side in a woody dicot stem:
(a) Secondary cortex (b) Wood
(c) Secondary phloem (d) Phellem
The correct order is :
(1) (d), (c), (a), (b) (2) (c), (d), (b), (a)
(3) (a), (b), (d), (c) (4) (d), (a), (c), (b)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (2)
Q.121 Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sound; produced during each cardiac cycle. The
second sound is heard when :
(1) AV node receives signal from SA node
(2) AV valves open up
(3) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing of blood from atria
(4) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
Q.123 In the following human pedigree, the filled symbols represent the affected individuals.
Identify the type of given pedigree.
Ans. (4)
Ans. (1)
Q.125 Name the pulmonary disease in which alveolar surface area involved in gas exchange
is drastically reduced due to damage in the alveolar walls :
(1) Asthma (2) Pleurisy (3) Emphysema (4) Pneumonia
Ans. (3)
Q.126 Which the following are most suitable indicator of SO2 pollution in the environment
?
(1) Fungi (2) Lichens (3) Conifers (4) Algae
Ans. (2)
Ans. (3)
Ans. (3)
Q.129 A column of water within xylem vessels of tall trees does not break under its weight
because of :
(1) Positive root pressure
(2) Dissolved sugars in water
(3) Tensile strength of water
(4) Lignification of xylem vessels
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (1)
Q.133 Which of the following immunoglobulins does constitute the largest percentage in
human milk?
(1) IgG (2) IgD(3) IgM (4) IgA
Ans. (4)
Ans. (4)
Q.135 The UN conference of Parties on climate change in the year 2012 was held at :
(1) Warsaw (2) Durban (3) Doha (4) Lima
Ans. (3)
Q.136 In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series
to the longest wavelength in the Balmer series is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Q.137 The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the
spectrum does it belong?
(1) -rays (2) X-rays (3) Infra-red-rays (4) Ultraviolet rays
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
Sol. First current develops in direction of abcd but when electron moves away, then
magnetic field inside loop decreases & current changes its direction.
Q.139 The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine
holes, each of radius r. If the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the
ejection of the liquid through the holes is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Av = constant
⇒
Q.140 The Young's modulus of steel is twice that of brass. Two wires of same lenght and
of same area of cross section, one of steel and another of brass are suspended from
the same roof. If we want the lower ends of the wires to be at the same level, then
the weights added to the steel and brass wires must be in the ratio of :
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
Ans. (3)
Q.141 A potentiometer wire of length L and a resistance r are connected in series with a
battery of e.m.f. E0 and a resistance r1. An unknown e.m.f. E is balanced at a
length l of the potentiometer wire. The e.m.f. E will be given by :
≤ ≤
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. Potential gradient
∴
Q.142 A particle is executing a simple harmonic motion. Its maximum acceleration is a and
maximum velocity is b. Then, its time period of vibration will be :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (1)
Q.143 If vectors cos sin and cos sin are fcunctions of
time, then the value of t at which they are orthogonal to each other is :
(1) t=0 (2) (3) (4)
Q.144 A source of sound S emitting waves of frequency 100 Hz and an observer O are
located at some distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of 19.4
ms-1 at an angle of 60° with the source observer line as shown in the figure. The
observer is at rest. The apparent frequency observed by the observer (velocity of
sound in air 330 ms-1) is :-
Ans. (3)
Sol.
≈
Q.145 An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54 kmh.-1. The radius of its wheels
is 0.45 m and the moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis of rotation is 3
kgm2. If the vehicle is brought to rest in 15s, the magnitude of average torque
transmitted by its brakes to wheel is :-
(1) 2.86 kg m2s-2
(2) 6.66 kg m2s-2
(3) 8.58 kg m2s-2
(4) 10.86 kg m2s-2
Ans. (2)
Q.146 A rectangular coil of length 0.12m and width 0.1m having 50 turns of wire is
suspended vertically in a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2. The coil
carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with
the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in stable equilibrium
will be :
(1) 0.12 Nm (2) 0.15 Nm (3) 0.20 Nm (4) 0.24 Nm
Ans. (3)
Sol.
Q.147 A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity 'C' distance of separation between plates is
'd' and potential difference 'V' is applied between the plates force of attraction
between the plates of the parallel plate air capacitor is :
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
∵ and ⇒
So
Q.148 Two vessels separately contain two ideal gases A and B at the same temperature, the
pressure of A being twice that of B. Under such conditions, the density of A is
found to be 1.5 times the density of B. The ratio of molecular weight of A and B is
:
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2
Ans. (3)
Q.149 A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the earth. The mass of the
satellite is very small compared to the mass of the earth. Then,
(1) the acceleration of S is always directed towards the centre of the earth.
(2) the angular momentum of S about the centre of the earth changes in direction,
Ans. (1)
Q.150 In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R =100 W and
an e.m.f of 3.5V. If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5 V, the
current in the circuit will be :
Ans. (2)
Sol.
Potential
difference on R = 3.5 - 0.5 = 3.0 volt Current in circuit I
Q.151 A remote - sensing satellite of earth revolves in a circular orbit at a height of 0.25 ×
106 m above the surface of earth. If earth's radius is 6.38 × 106 m and g=9.8 ms-2,
then the orbital speed of the satellite is :
(1) 6.67 km s-1 (2) 7.76 km s-1
-1
(3) 8.56 km s (4) 9.13 km s-1
Ans. (2)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
sin
cos
Q.153 A string is stretched between fixed points separated by 75.0 cm. It is observed to
have resonant frequencies of 420 Hz and 315 Hz. There are no other resonant
frequencies between these two. The lowest resonant frequencies for this string is :
(1) 105 Hz (2) 155 Hz (3) 205 Hz (4) 10.5 Hz
Ans. (1)
Sol. Two consecutive resonant frequencies for a string fixed at both ends will be
and ⇒
Which is the minimum resonant frequency
Q.154 Point masses m1 and m2 are placed at the opposite ends of a rigid rod of length L,
and negligible mass. The rod is to be set rotating about an axis perpendicular to it.
The position of point P on this rod through which the axis should pass so that the
work required to set the rod rotating with angular velocity w0 is minimum, is given
by :-
Ans. (1)
Sol.
The position of point P on rod through which the axis should pass so that the work
required to set the rod rotating with minimum angular velocity is their centre of
mass
so ⇒
Q.155 At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single-slit diffraction
pattern the phase difference between the Huygen's wavelet from the edge of the slit
and the wavelet from the mid point of the slit is :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Sol.
Ans. (2)
Q.157 Two particles A and B, move with constant velocities and . At the initial
moment their position vectors are
and
respectively. The condition for particle
A and B for their collision is :-
(1) (2)
(3)
(4)
×
×
Ans. (2)
Sol. For two particles to collide, the direction of the relative velocity of one with
respect to other should be directed towards the relative position of the other particle
I.e. → direction of relative position of 1 w.r.t. 2.
& → direction of velocity of 2 w.r.t. 1.
so for collision of A & B =
Q.158 A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then :-
(1) The helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
(2) The helium has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus.
(3) The helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus.
(4) The helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus
Ans. (2)
Sol. By COLM
Q.159 Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If and are
the conductivities of the metal wires respectively, the effective conductivity of the
combination is :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Sol.
⇒ ⇒
Q.160 Light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on a metal with work function 2.28 eV. The
de Broglie wavelength of the emitted electron is :-
(1) ≤ × (2) ×
(3) × (4) ≥ ×
Ans. (4)
Sol. Energy of photon (E)
Work function = 2.28 eV
According to eienstein equation m ax
⇒ m ax ⇒ m ax
For electron ⇒ ≈
So ≥ ×
Q.161 4.0 g of a gas occupies 22.4 litres at NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at
constant volume is 5.0 JK.1 mol.1 . If the speed of sound in this gas at NTP is 952
ms.1, then the heat capacity at constant pressure is
(Take gas constant R= 8.3 JK-1 mol-1 )
(1) 8.5 JK-1 mol-1 (2) 8.0 JK-1 mol-1
-1 -1
(3) 7.5 JK mol (4) 7.0 JK-1 mol-1
Ans. (4)
Q.162 A series R-C circuit is connected to an alternating voltage source. Consider two
situations :-
(a) When capacitor is air filled.
(b) When capacitor is mica filled. Current through resistor is i and voltage across
capacitor is V then :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol. When capacitor is filled with mica then capacitance C increases so XC decreases
In case (b) XC ¯¯ so voltage across capacitor decreases. so Va > Vb
Q.163 A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the
angle of inclination with the horizontal reaches 30°, the box starts to slip and slides
4.0 m down the plank in 4.0s. The coefficients of static and kinetic friction between
the box and the plank will be, respectively :
Ans. (3)
Q.164 Two stones of masses m and 2 m are whirled in horizontal circles, the heavier one
in a radius and the lighter one in radius r. The tangential speed of lighter stone
is n times that of the value of heavier stone when they experience same centripetal
Ans. (2)
Sol. ⇒ ⇒ ⇒
Ans. (2)
Q.166 An ideal gas is compressed to half its initial volume by means of several processes.
Which of the process results in the maximum work done on the gas ?
(1) Isothermal (2) Adiabatic (3) Isobaric (4) Isochoric
Ans. (2)
Sol.
Q.167 A ball is thrown vertically downwards from a height of 20 m with an initial velocity
. It collides with the ground, loses 50 percent of its energy in collision and
rebounds to the same height. The initial velocity u0 is : (Take g = 10 ms-2)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Ans. (2)
Q.169 If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as V (x,y,z) = 6xy - y + 2yz, the
electric field (in N/C) at point (1,1,0) is :
(1)
(2)
(3) (4)
Ans. (3)
Sol.
at point (1,1,0)
Q.170 Two slits in Youngs experiment have widths in the ratio 1 : 25. The ratio of
Ans. (2)
m ax
Sol. ⇒
m in
Q.171 The heart of a man pumps 5 litres of blood through the arteries per minute at a
pressure of 150 mm of mercury. If the density of mercury be 13.6 × 103 kg/m3 and
g = 10m/s2 then the power of heart in watt is:
(1) 1.50 (2) 1.70 (3) 2.35 (4) 3.0
Ans. (2)
Q.172 A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field, B,
moving at right angles to the field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the
particles is equal and the kinetic energy acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the energy
acquired by the alpha particle will be :-
(1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV (3) 0.5 MeV (4) 1.5 Mev
Ans. (2)
Sol. ∵ ∴
⇒
⇒
Q.173 The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage gain of 150 is Vi = 2 cos
Ans. (2)
Sol. ∝
∝
∝
taking comparision on both size
⇒
Q.175 A circuit contains an ammeter, a battery of 30 V and a resistance 40.8 ohm all
connected in series. If the ammeter has a coil of resistance 480 ohm and a shunt of
20 ohm, the reading in the ammeter will be :-
(1) 1 A (2) 0.5 A (3) 0.25 A (4) 2A
Ans. (2)
Sol.
Q.176 Water rises to height 'h' in capillary tube. If the length of capillary tube above the
surface of water is made less than 'h', then -
(1) water does not rise at all.
(2) water rises upto the tip of capillary tube and then starts overflowing like a
fountain.
(3) water rises upto the top of capillary tube and stays there without overflowing.
(4) water rises upto a point a little below the top and stays there.
Ans. (3)
Ans. (1)
Sol.
Magnification of telescope,
Here ⇒
⇒ Therefore M =
Ans. (3)
Sol.
fractional change
∆
∆ ∆
∵ ≈ ∆
× × =0.020
Ans. (2)
Sol.
⇒
⇒ ⇒
Q.180 A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right
angled prism. The refractive index of the material of the prism for the above red,
green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44 and 1.47, respectively.
Ans. (2)
Sol.
sin sin