Mock T es t 4

CET Section

Subject Topic
C+M+P Complete Syllabus

Max. Marks: 180 Duration: 3 Hours

1. This paper consists of 180 questions with 3 parts of Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics

• Chemistry: (Q. No. 1 to 60) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
• Mathematics: (Q. No. 61 to 120) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct
answer carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.
• Physics: (Q. No. 121 to 180) Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer
carries 1 Mark. No Negative marks.

2. The OMR sheet for 200 questions is to be used

3. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited

4. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once entered, the
answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will automatically draw a penalty of
1 mark

5. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can be reported
to the coordinator after the exam

6. If the details in the OMR Sheet are not filled, If the OMR sheet is mutilated, torn, white Ink used,
the circles filled and scratched, then the OMR sheet will not be graded

All the best!!

Useful Data
At. Wt.:
N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207

Physical Constants:

h = 6.626  10−34 Js , N a = 6.022  1023 mol-1 , c = 2.998  108 m s-1 , me = 9.110−31 kg , R = 8.314 J mol-1 K -1
 CET Section

Chemistry
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
1. Hyper – conjugation is not possible in
(a) CH 3 − CH = CH 2 (b) CH 2 = CH 2
+
(c) CH 3 − C H − CH 3 (d) CH3 C C CH3
CH3 CH3

2. When hydrogen chloride gas is treated with propene in presence of benzoyl peroxide, it gives
(a) 2 − Chloropropane (b) Allyl chloride (c) no reaction (d) 1− Chloropropane
3. Which of the following compounds has highest boiling point?
(a) CH 3CH 2CH 2Cl (b) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2Cl

(c) CH 3CH ( CH 3 ) CH 2Cl (d) ( CH 3 )3 CCl

4. Which one of the following forms propane nitrile as the major product?
(a) ethyl bromide + alcoholic KCN (b) propyl bromide + alcoholic KCN
(c) propyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN (d) ethyl bromide + alcoholic AgCN

5. Among following ethers, which one will produce methyl alcohol on treatment hot concentrated HI ?

CH3
(a) CH3 C O CH3 (b) CH3 CH CH2 O CH3

CH3 CH3

(c) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 O CH3 (d) CH3 CH2 CH O CH3

6. CH3
Phenol when treated with excess of bromine water gives a white precipitate of
(a) 2, 4, 6 − tribromophenol (b) o − bromophenol

(c) p − bromophenol (d) bromobenzene

7. Vapours of an alcohol X when passed over hot reduced copper, produce an aldehyde, the alcohol is
(a) primary alcohol (b) secondary alcohol (c) tertiary alcohol (d) dihydric alcohol
8. Benzoquinone is produced by reaction of phenol with
(a) Na2Cr2O7 , H 2 SO4 (b) KMnO4 , H 2 SO4 (c) Na2CrO4 , HCl (d) K 2 MnO4 , H 2 SO4

9. Which of the following is the most reactive isomer?

(a) CH 3 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − CHO

O
(b) CH3 CH2 CH2 C CH3

O
(c) CH CH2 C CH2 CH3
3

O
(d) CH3 C CH CH3
CH3

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10. Identify the products ( X ) and (Y ) in the given reaction:

(CH3CO)2O Con H 2SO 4

X Y
Anh AlCl 3 Con HNO 3

(a) X : Acetophenone Y : m − Nitroacetophenone

(b) X : Toluene Y : p − Nitrotoluene

(c) X : Acetophenone Y : o and p Nitroacetophenone

(d) X : Benzaldehyde Y : m − Nitrobenzaldehyde

11. Which of the following compounds undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
(a) CH 3CHO (b) CH 3COCH 3 (c) C6 H 5CHO (d) C6 H 5CH 2CHO

12. Which of the following compounds would have the smallest value for pKa ?

(a) CHF2CH 2CH 2COOH (b) CH 3CH 2CF2COOH (c) CH 2 FCHFCH 2COOH (d) CH 3CF2CH 2COOH

13. Which of the following amines does not react with Hinsberg reagent?

(a) CH 3CH 2 − NH 2 (b) CH 3 − NH − CH 3 (c) ( CH 3 )3 N (d) CH 3CH 2CH 2 − NH 2

14. The action of nitrous acid on an aliphatic primary amine gives

(a) secondary amine (b) nitroalkanes (c) alcohol (d) alkyl nitrite
15. Which of the following orders is true regarding the basic nature of − NH 2 group?

(a) O − Toluidine  aniline  O − nitroaniline (b) O − Toluidine  aniline  O − nitroaniline

(c) O − Toluidine  aniline  O − nitroaniline (d) O − Toluidine  aniline  O − nitroaniline

16. The anomeric carbon in D ( + ) glucose is

(a) C −1 carbon (b) C − 2 carbon (c) C − 5 carbon (d) C − 6 carbon

17. In fibrous proteins, polypeptide chains are held together by
(a) Vander Waal’s forces (b) electrostatic forces of attraction
(c) hydrogen bonds (d) covalent bonds
18. A unit in nucleic acid which contains base sugar – phosphate unit is called
(a) nucleotide (b) nucleoside (c) phosphotide (d) polypeptide
19. Which of the following complex has minimum magnitude of  0 ?
3− 3+ 3− 3+
(a) Cr ( CN )6  (b) Co ( NH 3 )6  (c) CoCl6  (d) Cr ( H 2O )6 

20. The two isomers X and Y with the formula Cr ( H 2O )5 ClBr2 were taken for experiment on depression in

freezing point. It was found that one mole of X gave depression corresponding to 2 moles of particles
and one mole of Y gave depression due to 3 moles of particles. The structural formula of X and Y

respectively are
Options:

(a) Cr ( H 2O )5 Cl  Br2 Cr ( H 2O ) Br2  Cl. H 2O

 4  (b) Cr ( H 2O )5 Cl  Br2 Cr ( H 2O ) Cl Br2  2 H 2O
 3 

(c) Cr ( H 2O )5 Br  BrCl Cr ( H 2O )4 Cl Br  Br. H 2O (d) Cr ( H 2O )4 Br2  Cl.H 2O Cr ( H 2O )5 Cl  Br2

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21. Platinum dissolves in aqua regia to form

(a) PtCl4 (b) H 2 PtCl6 (c) Pt ( NO3 )4 (d)  PtCl2 ( NO3 )2 

22. In Fe ( CO )5 the Fe  CO  bond results by the overlap between filled sp hybrid orbital of C − atom of

CO molecule and vacant

(a) d 2 sp3 hybrid orbitals of Fe (b) sp3 hybrid orbitals of Fe

(c) dsp3 hybrid orbitals of Fe (d) dsp 2 hybrid orbitals of Fe

23. The acidic, basic and amphoteric nature of Mn2O7 , V2O5 and CrO are respectively

(a) Acidic, acidic and basic (b) Basic, amphoteric and basic
(c) Acidic, amphoteric, basic (d) Acidic, basic, amphoteric
24. The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is mainly due to
(a) their ability to adopt variable oxidation state (b) their chemical reactivity
(c) their magnetic behavior (d) their unfilled d − orbitals
25. The titanium (atomic number 22) compound that does not exist as
(a) TiO (b) TiO2 (c) K 2TiF6 (d) K 2TiO4

26. For which one of the following metals, the standard potential E ( M 2+ / M ) value has a positive sign?
(a) Cu ( Z = 29 ) (b) Fe ( Z = 26 ) (c) Co ( Z = 27 ) (d) Ni ( Z = 28 )

27. Which of the following statement is wrong?

(a) In highest oxidation states, the transition metals show acidic character.
(b) Metals in highest oxidation states are more stable in oxides than in fluorides.

(c) Mn 3+ and Co3+ are oxidation agents in aqueous solution

(d) All elements of 3d series exhibit variable oxidation states.
28. The incorrect statement in respect to Chromyl chloride test is
(a) Formation of red vapours (b) Formation of lead chromate
(c) Formation of Chromyl chloride (d) Liberation of Chlorine
29. The species having tetrahedral shape is:
2− 2−
(a)  PdCl 4  (b)  Ni ( CN )4  (c)  Pd ( CN )4  (d)  NiCl 4 
2− 2−

30. According to crystal field theory, the M–L bond in a complex is

(a) Purely ionic (b) purely covalent
(c) purely co-ordinate (d) partially covalent

31. Activation energy ( E a ) and rate constant ( k1 and k2 ) for a chemical reaction at two different

temperatures T1 and T2 are related by:

k2 Ea  1 1  k2 E  1 1
(a) ln =  −  (b) ln =+ a − 
k1 2.303R  T1 T2  k1 R  T2 T1 

k2 E  1 1 k2 E a  1 1 
(c) ln =− a +  (d) ln =  − 
k1 R  T2 T1  k1 R  T1 T2 

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32. The cathode reaction in the dry cell will be

(a) Zn ( s ) → Zn +2 + 2e − (b) MnO 2 + NH 4+ + e − → MnO ( OH ) + NH 3

(c) Zn ( Hg ) + 2OH − → ZnO ( s ) + H 2 O + 2e − (d) MnO ( OH ) + NH 3 → MnO 2 + NH 4+ + 2e −

33. Which of the following aqueous solution has the highest freezing point?
(a) 0.01 M NaCl (b) 0.01 M Na 2SO 4 (c) 0.1 M Sucrose (d) 0.1 M NaCl

34. The rate of the reaction

CH 3COOC2 H 5 + NaOH → CH 3COONa + C2 H 5OH is given by the equation.

rate = k CH 3COOC2 H 5  NaOH 

The unit of rate constant is

(a) mol−2 L2 S −1 (b) mol L−1S 1 (c) L mol−1S −1 (d) S −1

35. The half-life of the first order reaction X → Y with the initial concentration of X to be 0.01mol L−1 and

initial rate to be 0.00352 mol L−1 min −1 will be

(a) 19.68 min (b) 1.968 min (c) 77.5 min (d) 7.7 min

36. For a reaction P + Q → 2 R + S , which of the following statements are incorrect?

(a) rate of disappearance of P = rate of appearance of S

(b) rate of disappearance of Q = 2  rate of appearance of R

(c) rate of disappearance of P = rate of appearance of R

1
(d) rate of disappearance of Q =  rate of appearance of R
2
37. What will be the rate equation for the reaction 2 X + Y → Z , if the order of the reaction is zero?

(a) rate = k  X Y  (b) rate = k

(c) rate = k  X   Y  (d) rate = k  X Y  

38. Which of the following is not an application of electrochemical series?

(a) to compare the relative oxidising and reducing power of substances
(b) to predict evolution of hydrogen gas on reaction of metal with acid
(c) to predict spontaneity of a redox reaction
(d) to calculate the amount of metal deposited on cathode
39. The reduction potential for the following half-cell reaction at 298 K ?

( given:  Ag +

= 0.1M and Ecell = +0.80 V )
(a) 0.741V (b) 0.80 V (c) −0.80 V (d) −0.741V

40. Henry’s law constant for molality of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27  105 mm Hg. The mole fraction

of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg is

Options:

(a) 1.78  10 −3 (b) 17.43 (c) 0.114 (d) 2.814

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41. What is the mole fraction of ethanol in the vapour phase, if the solution contains equimolar mixture of

ethanol and methanol? Given( Pethanol = 90 mm of Hg , Pmethanol = 46 mm of Hg )

Options:
(a) 0.34 (b) 0.5 (c) 0.66 (d) 0.8
42. Which of the following solution exhibits highest boiling point?
(a) 0.1m urea solution (b) 1m urea solution (c) 0.01m urea solution (d) 0.001m urea solution

43. Which of the following is more stronger acid than phenol?

(a) Ethanol (b) Phenylethanol (c) p − Nitrophenol (d) p − Cresol

44. The arrangement of following compounds:

(i) bromomethane (ii) bromoform (iii) chloromethane (iv) dibromomethane
(a) IV  III  I  II (b) I  II  III  IV (c) III  I  IV  II (d) II  III  I  IV
45. A compound ‘A’ when treated with HNO 3 (in presence of H 2SO 4 ) gives compound B, which is then

reduced with Sn and HCl to aniline. The compound ‘A’ is

(a) Toluene (b) Benzene (c) Ethane (d) Acetamide
46. Which is a pair of geometrical isomers?

(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
47. For the reaction, CO( g ) + Cl2( g ) COCl2( g ) the value of Kp / Kc is equal to

1
(a) 1.0 (b) RT (c) RT (d)
RT

48. The solubility product of MgF2 is 7.4 10−11 calculate the solubility of MgF2 in 0.1M NaF solution

(a) 7.4  10 −9 (b) 3.7  10 −9 (c) 3.7  10 −11 (d) 7.4  10 −11

49. A sample of pure compound contains 1.15 g of sodium, 3.1  10 22 atoms of carbon and 0.1 mole of oxygen

atom. Its empirical formula is

(a) Na2 CO3 (b) NaCO2 (c) Na2 CO (d) Na2 CO2

50. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible?

(a) n = 4, l = 1, m = 0, s = + 1 (b) n = 4, l = 3, m = 3, s = − 1
2 2

(c) n = 4, l = 1, m = +2, s = − 1 (d) n = 4, l = 0, m = 0, s = − 1

2 2
51. Which of the following element is expected to have highest electron affinity?

(a) 1S 2 2 S 2 2 P 6 3S 2 3P5 (b) 1S 2 2 S 2 2 P3 (c) 1S 2 2 S 2 2 P 4 (d) 1S 2 2 S 2 2 P5

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52. Which of the following compound has  = 0?

(a) CCl4 (b) CHCl3 (c) HF (d) NH 3

53. Which of the following relationships is true?

(a) Bond dissociation energy of O2 and O2− are same

(b) Bond dissociation energy of O2+ is higher that O2

(c) Bond dissociation energy of O2− and O22− are same

(d) Bond dissociation energy of O22− is higher than O2−

54. IUPAC name of the compound

H3C H
H
H
H Br
(a) Bromo butene (b) 1-Bromobut-2-ene (c) 1-Bromobut-3-ene (d) 2-Bromo-2-butene
55. What will be the heat of reaction for the following reaction? Will the reaction be exothermic or
endothermic?
Fe2O3 + 3H 2 → 2 Fe + 3H 2O

H f ( H 2O ) = −285.83 kJ mol−1

H f ( Fe2O3 ) = −824.2 kJ mol

(a) −824.2 kJ , exothermic (b) +33.3, kJ endothermic

(c) −33.3, kJ exothermic (d) +824.2 kJ, endothermic

56. Which of the following statements is not correct

(a) For a spontaneous process, G must be negative

(b) Enthalpy, entropy, free energy etc are state variables
(c) A spontaneous process is reversible in nature
(d) Total of all possible kinds of energy of a system is called internal energy

57. Oxidation number of Sulphur in peroxomonosulphuric acid ( H 2 SO5 ) is

(a) +4 (b) +2 (c) + 6 (d) −2

58. What is the reaction given below called?

H 2 O (l ) + H 2 O (l ) H 3 O + ( aq ) + OH − ( aq )

(a) hydrolysis of water (b) hydration of water

(c) disproportionation of water (d) auto – protolysis of water
59. The No. of electrons present in 18 mL of water is

(a) 6.02  10 25 (b) 6.02  10 23 (c) 6.02  10 24 (d) None of these

60. The scientific notation of 0.0000000540 is

(a) 5.40  10 −7 (b) 5.40  10 −8 (c) 54.0  10 −7 (d) 54.0  10 −8

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Mathematics
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60

( ) −5 + 3i
2
61. The value of z 2 + 5 z + z ( z + 5) when z = is
2
(a) 42 (b) 49 (c) 53 (d) 60
62. If 5  x  8 , then

(a) ( x − 5 )( x − 8 )  0 (b) ( x − 5 )( x − 8 )  0 (c) ( x − 5 )( x − 8 )  0 (d) ( x − 5 )( x − 8 )  0

4 5 
63. If cos ( +  ) = and sin ( −  ) = , where 0   ,   , then tan 2 is equal to
5 13 4
25 56 19 20
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 33 12 7
21
64. If sin  = and  lies in the second quadrant, then the value of sec + tan  is
29

2 5 2 5
(a) (b) (c) − (d) −
5 2 5 2

   3 
65. tan  +   tan  +   is equal to
4   4 

(a) −2 (b) −1 (c) 1 (d) None of these

     2  7 
66. The value of 1 + cos 1 + cos 1 + cos 1 + cos  is
 6  3  3  6 
3 3 3 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 8 4 2

67. If tan  = cosec 2 − sin 2 , then the value of tan 2  is equal to

9+4 5
(a) 2 − 5 (b) −2 + 5 (c) (d) None of these
2− 5
4 3
68. If the sum of an infinite geometric series is and its 1st term is , then its common ratio is
3 4
7 9 1 7
(a) (b) (c) (d)
16 16 9 9
69. If C (12, 4 ) + C (12, 5 ) = C ( n, 5 ) , then n is equal to

(a) 11 (b) 13 (c) 12 (d) None of these

70. The straight lines x + y = 0 , 3 x + y − 4 = 0 , x + 3 y − 4 = 0 form a triangle which is

(a) isosceles (b) equilateral (c) right angled (d) None of these

71. The parabolas x 2 = 4 y and y 2 = 4 x intersect

(a) in a unique point (b) on the line y = x (c) on the line x + y = 0 (d) none of these

72. Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

(a) Mean (b) Variance (c) Mean deviation (d) Range

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73. A man speaks truth in 75% cases. He throws a dice and reports that it is a six. The probability that it is
actually a six is

3 1 3
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
8 5 24
74. A team of 8 married couples attend a party at which four persons are chosen for a prize. The chance
that the selected persons are of the same sex is
8
C4 2 8 C4
(a) (b)
16 16
C4 C4

16
C1 14 C1 12 C1 10 C1
(c) (d) None of these
16
C4

 A 1 B 1
75. For two events A and B , if P ( A ) = P   = and P   = ,then
B 4  A 2

 A  3
(a) A and B are independent events (b) P   =
B 4

 B  1
(c) P   = (d) All of these
 A 2
1 1
76. If A and B are two independent events such that P ( A ) = and P ( B ) = , then P (neither A nor B )is
2 3
equal to
2 1 5 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3 6 6 3
77. Three numbers are chosen at random from 1 to 20 . The probability that they are consecutive is
Options:

3 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
190 60 57

x2 − x + 1
78. The domain of the function f ( x ) = is
x2 + x + 1
(a) R − −1 (b) R − 0, − 1 (c) R (d) None of these

1
79. The range of the function f ( x ) = x + , x  0 is
x

(a)  2,  ) (b) ( −, − 2  (c) ( −, − 2   2,  ) (d) None of these

1   1 
80. If f ( x ) = 1 − , then f  f    is
x   x 
1 1 x 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
x 1+ x x −1 x −1

81. If f ( x ) = x 2 + 3x and A =  x  R : f ( x ) = f ( 2 x ) then A is

(a) 0, − 1 (b) 1, − 4 (c) 0, 1, − 1 (d) None of these

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2 x − 3, x  2
82. If f ( x ) =  then f ( 2 ) is equal to
 x, x  2
1
(a) 2 f ( 2 ) (b) f (1) (c) − f ( 2 ) (d) f ( 2)
2

83. The vector 2iˆ + ˆj − kˆ is perpendicular to iˆ − 4 ˆj −  kˆ, if  is equal to

(a) 0 (b) −1 (c) 2 (d) − 3

84. If â and b̂ are two unit vectors inclined at an angle 60 to each other, then which one of the following is
correct?

(a) a + b  1 (b) a + b  1 (c) a − b  1 (d) a − b  1

85. The area of the parallelogram, whose diagonals are given by the vectors 3iˆ + ˆj − 2kˆ and iˆ − 3 ˆj + 4kˆ , is

(a) 10 3 (b) 5 3 (c) 8 (d) 4

86. A line makes the same angle  with each of the X and Z − axes . If it makes the angle  and Y − axies

such that sin 2  = 3sin 2  , then cos 2  equals

(a) 3 / 5 (b) 1 / 5 (c) 2 / 5 (d) 2 / 3

x −1 y −1 z − 3 x −2 y −3 z −4
87. The lines = = and = = are
1 2 0 0 0 1
(a) parallel (b) coincident (c) skew (d) perpendicular
88. The angle between the lines x = 1, y = 2 and y = −1, z = 0 is

(a) 30 (b) 60 (c) 90 (d) 0

89. Lt
(1 + x )8 − 1 is equal to
x →0 (1 + x )2 − 1

(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) 4 (d) 2

cot 2 x
90. Lt is equal to

x → tan  − x 

 
4
4 
(a) 0 (b) −2 (c) 2 (d) None of these

91. Lt x  x  is equal to
x →0

(a) 0 or 1 (b) 0 or −1 (c) 0 (d) does not exist

d  −1  x  
 x a − x + a sin    is equal to
2 2 2
92.
dx   a 

1
(a) a2 − x2 (b) 2 a 2 − x 2 (c) (d) None of these
a2 − x2

d   x  x − 2  
34
93. log e    equals
dx    x + 2  
  

x2 − 1 x2 + 1  x2 − 1 
(a) (b) 1 (c) (d) e x  
x2 − 4 x2 − 4  x2 − 4 
 

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94. If y = log ( )
x + x − a , then
dy
dx
is equal to

1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
x + x−a 2 x x−a x x−a

d2y
95. If x = a ( cos  +  sin  ) , y = a ( sin  −  cos  ) , then =
dx 2

sec3  sec2  sec2 

(a) (b) (c) a cos 2  (d)
a  a

 3x − 4 for 0  x  2
96. Let F ( x ) =  . If F ( x ) is continuous at x = 2 , then  =
2 x +  for 2  x  3
(a) −2 (b) −1 (c) 0 (d) 2

97. The function f ( x ) =  x  is

(a) derivable for all x (b) continuous for all x

(c) a constant function (d) discontinuous only for integral x

98. The function f ( x ) = x 2 − 2 x is increasing in the interval

(a) x  −1 (b) x  −1 (c) x  1 (d) x  1

99. The smallest value of the polynomial x3 − 18 x 2 + 96 x in the interval  0, 9 is

(a) 126 (b) 0 (c) 135 (d) 160

100. If f ( x ) = kx − cos x is monotonically increasing for all x  R ,then

(a) k  1 (b) k  1 (c) k  −1 (d) None of these

101. Let x, y be two variables and x  0, xy = 1 , then minimum value of x + y is

1 1
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 2 (d) 3
2 3
102. The graph of the inequality 2 x + 3 y  6 is

(a) half plane that contains the origin

(b) half plane not containing the origin excluding the points on the line 2 x + 3 y = 6

(c) whole XOY -plane excluding the points on the line 2 x + 3 y = 6

(d) none of these

  
103. If P =  : sin  − cos = 2cos and Q =  : sin  + cos = 2sin are two sets. Then, 
(a) P  Q and Q − P   (b) Q  P (c) P  Q (d) P = Q

1
104.  dx is equal to
1− x

(a) 1 − x (b) −2 1 − x (c) 2 1 − x (d) None of these

1 − tan 2 x
105.  dx is equal to
1 + tan 2 x
sin 2 x sin 2 x
(a) sin 2x (b) (c) − (d) None of these
2 2

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1
106.  dx is equal to
e + e− x
x

(
(a) log e x + e− x + C ) (
(b) log e2 x + 1 + C )
(c) tan −1 e x + C ( ) (d) None of these

107.  ( x − 1) e− x dx is equal to

(a) xe − x + C (b) − xe − x + C (c) ( x − 1) e− x + C (d) None of these

 2
dx
108.  1 + tan n x
is equal to
0

 
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) (d)
2 4
 2
cos x
109. If  4 − sin 2 x
dx =  log 3 then  is equal to
0

1 1 1
(a) (b) − (c) (d) None of these
4 4 2
1
1
110.  dx is equal to
0 x +12

(a) 2 (b) 2 +1 (c)

1
2
log ( 2 +1 ) (d) log ( )
2 +1

1
x+2
111. The integral  x+2
dx is equal to
−1

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 0 (d) −1

2
 dy   dy 
112. Which of the following functions is a solution of the differential equation   − x   + y = 0 ?
 
dx  dx 

(a) y = 2 x 2 − 4 (b) y = 2 x − 4 (c) y = 2 x (d) y = 2

dy 1+ y
113. Integrating factor of the differential equation +y= is
dx x

x ex
(a) x
(b) (c) xe x (d) e x
e x

114. If  = tan −1 x then sin 2 is equal to

2x 2x 1 − x2
(a) (b) (c) (d) None of these
1 + x2 1 − x2 1 + x2
3 1
115. If sin −1 x + sin −1 y + sin −1 z = , then the value of x9 + y9 + z 9 − 9 9 9 is
2 x y z

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

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 1 sin   
116. The value of det A where A =  − sin  1 sin   lies in the interval
 −1 − sin  1 

(a) 1, 2 (b)  0, 2 (c) (1, 2 ) (d) None of these

117. If A is a square matrix such that A3 = I then A−1 is equal to

(a) I (b) A (c) A2 (d) None of these

1 0
118. If A =  n
 , then for all natural numbers n , A is equal to
1 1 

n 0 1 0 1 0 
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d) None of these
1 1  n 1 1 n 

a h g
119. If A =  x y z  B =  h
, b f  and C =  x y z  , then ABC is
t

 g f c 

(a) not defined (b) a 3  3 matrix (c) a 11 matrix (d) none of these

120. The number of terms in the expansion of ( a + b + c ) is

10

(a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 55 (d) 66

Physics
Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 1 mark. No negative
mark. 60 x 1 = 60
121. The mean radius of earth is R , its angular speed on its own axis is  and the acceleration due to gravity
at earth’s surface is g . What will be the radius of the orbit of a satellite?

( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
1/3 1/3 1/3 1/3
(a) R 2 g /  2 (b) Rg /  2 (c) R 2 2 / g (d) R 2 g / 

122. If two equal and opposite deforming forces are applied parallel to the cross-sectional area of the cylinder
as shown in the figure, there is a relative displacement between the opposite faces of the cylinder.
The ratio of x to L is known as x
(a) Longitudinal strain F
(b) Volumetric strain  L
(c) Shearing strain
(d) Poisson’s ratio
F

123. The centre of mass of triangle system shown in figure has coordinates, if three y
equal masses placed at three vertices of the triangle
h b b h
(a) x = ,y= (b) x = , y =
2 2 2 2 h

b h h b
(c) x = , y = (d) x = ,y=
3 3 3 3
x
b

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124. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold(density = 19.5 kg/ m ) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous liquid (density
3

= 1.5kg/ m3 ), find the terminal speed of a sphere of silver (density = 10.5 kg/ m3 ) of the same size in the

same viscous liquid

(a) 0.4 m/s (b) 0.133 m/s (c) 0.1m/s (d) 0.2 m/s

125. A body initial at 80C cools to 64°C in 5 minutes and to 52°C in10 minutes. The tempearture of the

body after 15 minutes will be

(a) 42.7°C (b) 35C (c) 47°C (d) 40C
126. Four mole of hydrogen, two mole of helium and one mole of water vapour form an ideal gas mixture.
What is the molar specific heat at constant pressure of mixture? ( C v for water vapour = 3R )

16 7 23
(a) R (b) R (c) R (d) R
7 16 7
127. In Carnot engine efficiency is 40% at hot reservoir temperature T . For efficiency 50% what will be
temperature of hot reservoir?

T 2T 6T
(a) (b) (c) 6T (d)
5 5 5
128. A body of mass 0.01kg executes simple harmonic motion about x = 0

under the influence of a force as shown in figure. The time period of SHM F ( N)

is
80
(a) 1.05s 0.2
x (m)
−0.2
(b) 0.52 s
−80
(c) 0.25s

(d) 0.03s

129. Speed of sound in mercury at a certain temperature is 1450 m s −1 . If the density of mercury is

13.6  103 kg m −3 , then the bulk modulus for mercury is

(a) 2.86  1010 N m −3 (b) 3.86  1010 N m −3 (c) 4.86  1010 N m −3 (d) 5.86  1010 N m −3

130. Two identical conducting spheres carrying different charges attract each other with a force F when
placed in air medium at a distance ' d ' apart. The sphere are brought into contact and then taken to
their original positions. Now the two spheres repel each other with a force whose magnitude is equal to
that of the initial attractive force. The ratio between initial charges on the spheres is

( )
(a) − 3 + 8 only ( )
(b) −3 + 8 only

( ) (
(c) − 3 + 8 or −3 + 8 ) (d) + 3

131. The S.I. unit of electric flux is

(a) Weber (b) Newton per coulomb
(c) Volt  metre (d) Joule per coulomb

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132. A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance C . When it is half filled with a dielectric of dielectric
constant 5, the percentage increase in the capacitance will be
(a) 400% (b) 66.6% (c) 33.3% (d) 200%
133. Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side ' a ' as shown in the following
figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
A
+Q

−Q +Q
B a C

(
(a) Q 2 / 4 0 a 2 ) (
(b) −Q 2 / 4 0 a 2 ) (c) Zero (
(d) Q 2 / 2 0 a 2 )
134. Each corner of a cube of side l has a negative charge, − q. The electrostatic potential energy of a charge

q at the centre of the cube is

4q 2 3q 2 4q 2 4q 2
(a) − (b) (c) (d) −
2 0l 4 0l 2 0l 3 0l

135. The electric potential at a point ( x, y ) in the x − y plane is given by V = − kxy. The magnitude of field

intensity at a distance r from the origin varies as (directly proportional)

1 1
(a) r 2 (b) r (c) (d)
r r2
136. An electric dipole is kept in a non-uniform electric field. It experiences
(a) A force and a torque (b) A force but not a torque
(c) A torque but no force (d) Neither a force nor a torque
Sol: A force and a torque
Ans: (a)
137. The spatial distribution of electric field due to charges ( A, B ) is shown in figure. Which one of the

following statement is correct?

A B

(a) A is + ve and B − ve, A  B (b) A is − ve and B + ve, A = B

(c) Both are +ve but A  B (d) Both are −ve but A  B

138. Constantan wire is used for making standard resistance, because it has
(a) High melting point (b) Low specific resistance
(c) High specific resistance (d) Negligible temperature coefficient of resistance

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139. Two resistors of 6 and 9 are connected in series to a 120V source. The power consumed by 6

resistor is
(a) 384 W (b) 616 W (c) 1500 W (d) 1800 W

140. A 100 watt bulb working on 200 volt has resistance R and a bulb 200 watt bulb working on 100 volt has
resistance S then R / S is

1 1
(a) (b) (c) 8 (d) 4
8 4
141. Which of the adjoining graphs represents ohmic resistance

V
V
(a) (b)

I I

V V
(c) (d)

I I

142. Two wires A and B of the same material, having radii in the ratio 1: 2 and curry current in the ratio 4 :1.
The ratio of drift speed of electrons in A and B is
(a) 16 :1 (b) 1:16 (c) 1: 4 (d) 4 :1
143. When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length is drawn through a series of dies to reduce its diameter
to half its original value, its resistance will become
(a) Two times (b) Four times (c) Eight times (d) Sixteen times
144. A charged particle of mass m and charge q travels in a circular path of radius r that is perpendicular to

a magnetic field B . The time taken by the particle to complete one revolution is

2 qB 2 m 2 mq 2 q 2 B
(a) (b) (c) (d)
m qB B m

145. A charge moving with velocity v in X − direction is subjected to a magnetic field in negative X −
direction. As a result, the charge will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path Y − Z plane
(c) retard along X − axis (d) move along a helical path around X − axis
146. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 100 gives a full scale deflection, when a current of 1mA is

passed through it. The value of the resistance, which can convert this galvanometer into ammeter giving
a full scale deflection for a current of 10A, is
(a) 0.1  (b) 3  (c) 0.01  (d) 2 

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147. At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12A will the magnetic field be equal to

3  10−5 Wb m −2 ?

(a) 8  10−2 m (b) 12  10−2 m (c) 18  10−2 m (d) 24  10−2 m

148. Current I is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns is N , then magnetic moment of the coil in
M equal to

(a) NIA (b) NI / A (c) NI / A (d) N 2 AI

149. A coil in the shape of equilateral triangle of side 0.2 m is suspended from the vertex such that it is
hanging in a vertical plane between the pole-pieces of a permanent magnet producing a horizontal

magnetic field of 5  10−2 tesla. The couple acting on the coil when a current of 0.1A is passed through it

and the magnetic field is parallel to its plane will be

(a) 3.28  10−7 Nm (b) 5.28  10−7 Nm (c) 8.66  10−7 Nm (d) 1.23  10−7 Nm
150. Magnetic field intensity is defined as
(a) Magnetic moment per unit volume
(b) Magnetic force acting on a unit magnetic pole
(c) Number of lines of force crossing per unit area
(d) Number of lines of force crossing per unit volume
151. A short-circuited coil is placed in a time-varying magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated due to the
current induced in the coil. If the number of turns were to be quadrupled and the wire radius halved, the
electrical power dissipated would be
(a) halved (b) the same (c) doubled (d) quadrupled

152. A copper wire of length 40 cm, diameter 2 mm and resistivity 1.7  10−8 m forms a square frame. If a

uniform magnetic field B exists in a direction perpendicular to the plane of square frame and it changes
dB
at a steady rate = 0.02 T s −1 , then find the current induced in the frame.
dt

(a) 9.3  10−2 A (b) 9.3  10−1 A (c) 3.3  10−2 A (d) 19.3  10−2 A

 200   10−3 
153. An inductance of   mH, a capacitance of   F and a resistance of 10 are connected in series
     
 
with an a.c. source 220V 50Hz. The phase angle of the circuit is

   
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6 4 2 3

154. A resistor 30, inductor of reactance 10 and capacitor of reactance 10 are connected in series to an

a.c. voltage source e = 300 2 sin (t ) . The current in the circuit is

30
(a) 10 2 A (b) 10 A (c) 30 11 A (d) A
11

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155. A 220 volts input is supplied to a transformer. The output circuit draws a current of 2.0 A at 440 volts.

If the efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn by the primary windings of the
transformer is
(a) 3.6 A (b) 2.8 A (c) 2.5 A (d) 5.0 A

156. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by E x = 0;

( ) ( )
E y = 2.5 N C−1 cos  2 106 rad m −1 t −  10−2 rad s −1 x  ;
 
E z = 0. The wave is

(a) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 100m

(b) moving along x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 200m

(c) moving along −x direction with frequency 106 Hz and wave length 200m

(d) moving along y direction with frequency 2  106 Hz and wave length 200m

157. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5 ) lens has optical power of −5D in air. Its optical power in a liquid
medium with refractive index 1.6 will be
(a) −1D (b) 1D (c) −25 D (d) 25 D

158. For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refractive angle, the prism must be
made of a material whose refractive index

(a) lies between 2 and 1 (b) lies between 2 and 2

(c) is less than 1 (d) is greater than 2
159. When light travels from one medium to the other of which the refractive index is different, then which of
the following will change?
(a) Frequency, wavelength and velocity (b) Frequency and wavelength
(c) Frequency and velocity (d) Wavelength and velocity
160. Total internal reflection can take place only if
(a) Light goes from optically rarer medium (smaller refractive index) to optically denser medium
(b) Light goes from optically denser medium to rarer medium
(c) The refractive indices of the two media are close to different
(d) The refractive indices of the two media are widely different
161. By Huygen’s wave theory of light, we cannot explain the phenomenon of
(a) Interference (b) Diffraction (c) Photoelectric effect (d) Polarisation
162. If two coherent sources are vibrating in phase then we have constructive interference at any point P
whenever the path difference is

 1 n  1
(a)  n +   (b) (c)  n −   (d) n
 2 2  2
163. Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is

9mW. The number of photons arriving per second on the average at a target irradiated by this beam is

(a) 3  1016 (b) 9  1015 (c) 3  1019 (d) 9  1017

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164. A proton accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V, has de-Broglie wavelength 0 . The

de-Broglie wavelength of an  − particle, accelerated through 800 V is

0 0 0 0
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 4 8
165. The Rutherford  − particle experiment shows that most of the  − particles pass through almost
unscattered while some are scattered through large angles. What information does it give about the
structure of the atom?
(a) Atom is hollow
(b) The whole mass of the atom is concentrated a small centre called nucleus
(c) Nucleus is positively charged
(d) All the above
166. An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state n to the ground state. The wavelength so
emitted illuminates a photosensitive material having work function 2.75 eV. If the stopping potential of

the photoelectron is 10 V, the value of n is

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2

167. According to Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom
(a) the linear velocity of the electron is quantised
(b) the angular velocity of the electron is quantised
(c) the linear momentum of the electron is quantised
(d) the angular momentum of the electron is quantised
168. Nuclear force exists between
(a) Neutron-neutron (b) Proton-proton (c) Neutron-proton (d) all of these
169. A nucleus splits into two nuclear parts which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 :1. What will be the
ratio of their nuclear radius?

(a) 21/3 :1 (b) 1: 21/3 (c) 31/2 :1 (d) 1: 31/2

170. The mass of a 37 Li nucleus is 0.042 u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding

energy per nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is nearly

(a) 46 MeV (b) 5.6 MeV (c) 3.9 MeV (d) 23 MeV

171. In order to prepare a p − type semiconductor, pure silicon can be doped with

(a) Phosphorus (b) Aluminium (c) Antimony (d) Germanium

172. The resistivity of a semiconductor at room temperature is in between

(a) 10−2 to 10−5  cm (b) 10−3 to 106  cm (c) 106 to 108  cm (d) 1010 to 1012  cm

173. When an impurity is doped into an intrinsic semiconductor, the conductivity of the semiconductor
(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remain the same (d) Become zero

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174. The magnetic field d B due to a small current element d at a distance r and element carrying current i
is,

  d r    d r    d r    d r 
(a) d B = 0 i   (b) d B = 0 i 2   (c) d B = 0 i 2  2  (d) d B = 0 i  3 
4  r  4  r  4  r  4  r 
175. If E , m, J and G represent energy, mass, angular momentum and gravitational constant respectively, then

the dimensional formula of EJ 2 / m5G 2 is same as that os

(a) angle (b) length (c) mass (d) time
176. A man throws a ball downwards from the roof of a tower of height 400 m . At the same time another ball

is thrown upwards with velocity of 50 m s −1 from the surface of the tower, then at which height form the

surface of the tower they will meet?

(a) 100 m (b) 320 m (c) 80 m (d) 240 m

177. An object is projected with a velocity of 20 m/s making an angle of 45 with horizontal. The equation for

the trajectory is h = Ax − Bx 2 where h is height, x is horizontal distance, A and B are constants. The ratio

(
A : B is g = 10ms −2 )
(a) 1: 5 (b) 5 :1 (c) 1: 40 (d) 40 :1
178. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction
between the block and the cart is  . The acceleration  of the cart that will prevent the block from

falling satisfies


C m

mg g g g
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
 m  
179. A bullet of mass m moving horizontally with a velocity v strikes a block of wood of mass M and gets
embedded in the block. The block is suspended from the ceiling by a massless string. The height to
which block rises is
2 2 2 2
v2  m  v2  M + m  v2  m  v2  M 
(a)   (b)   (c)   (d)  
2g  M + m  2g  m  2g  M  2g  m 

180. The angular momentum of a system of particle is conserved

(a) When no external force acts upon the system
(b) When no external torque acts upon the system
(c) When no external impulse acts upon the system
(d) When axis of rotation remains same

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