MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(1)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(2)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(3)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(4)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(5)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(6)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(7)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(8)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(9)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(10)
MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(11)
 MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(12)
 MSc(HS/2Yr)(Mathematics)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

(13)
 LL.M.
1. “Diarchy” was established in India by which of the following?
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935 (B) The Government of India Act, 1919
(C) The Indian Council Act, 1909 (D) The Indian Independence Act 1947
2. The Constitution of India recognizes International law under?
(A) Article 51 and 252 (B) Article 51 and 253
(C) Article 50 and 253 (D) Article 50 and 252
3. Article 25 of The Constitution of India guarantees Freedom of Religion, but it is subject
to.
(A) Public order, Morality and Health
(B) Public order, Morality, Health and Sovereignty and Integrity of India
(C) Public order, Morality, Health and other Fundamental rights
(D) Public order, Morality and Secularism
4. The remedial fundamental right, the back-bone of fundamental rights guaranteed under
Article 32 is available to?
(A) All natural persons, Indian citizens or non-citizens
(B) Indian citizens as well as foreign citizens
(C) All persons, natural or artificial, citizens as well as non-citizens
(D) Indian citizens as well as foreign citizens
5. “What cannot be done directly cannot be done indirectly”. This statement epitomizes the
doctrine of?
(A) Ancillary powers (B) Implied powers
(C) Colourable legislation (D) Pith and Substance
6. Dicey’ developed his theory of ‘Rule of law’ in which of his below mentioned work?
(A) Dicey’s Conflict of Laws (B) Why England maintains the Union
(C) Introduction to the Law of Constitution (D) Comparative Constitutionalism
7. Which among the below mentioned Articles of The Constitution of India deals with the
constitution of Administrative Tribunals?
(A) Article 338A (B) Article 338B (C) Article 329A (D) Article 323A
8. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) has the power to adjudicate disputes relating
to.
(A) Service matters of Central Government employees
(B) Service matters of State Government employees
(C) Service matters of employees of Public Sector Undertakings
(D) All of the above
9. “Administrative law is a law concerning the powers and procedures of administrative
agencies including especially the law governing judicial review of administrative action”.
This definition is given by?
(A) Ivor Jennings (B) H WR Wade (C) K C Davis (D) Cessare Becarria
10. Montesquieu propounded the theory of Separation of Power based on the model of which
among the below mentioned Country?
(A) United States of America (B) France
(C) India (D) United Kingdom
11. Under the ‘Employment Rights Act 1996’ the minimum period of notice that an employer
has to give an employee who has worked for him for less than two years is?
 (A) 1 week (B) 2 weeks (C) 1 month (D) 2 months
12. On which date The Central Civil Services Conduct Rules 1964, came into force?
(A) 31st March 1964 (B) 31st April 1964
th
(C) 30 November 1964 (D) 30th December 1964
13. Which of the following is not correct about the rule of Compassionate appointment?
(A) Compassionate appointment is given to the family members of the deceased
irrespective of their financial status.
(B) It is to mitigate the hardship caused to the family members after the death of earning
member of the family.
(C) Compassionate appointment cannot be granted as a matter of vested right.
(D) Compassionate appointment cannot be made in the absence of rules and regulation
issued by the government or a public authority.
14. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court directed closing down and demolition
of “Shrimp Industries” in coastal regulation zone and to implement the “Precautionary
Principle” and “The Polluter Pays Principle” ?
(A) S. Jagannath v. Union of India
(B) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum v. Union of India
(C) M.C. Mehta c. Union of India
(D) Church of God (Full Gospels) in India v. KKR Majestic Colony Welfare
Association
15. The Doctrine of ________ means that the absolute liability for harm to environment
extends not only to compensate the victims of pollution but also to the cost of restoring
the environmental degradation.
(A) Precautionary Principle (B) Public Trust
(C) Polluter Pays Principle (D) Public Nuisance
16. Which of the following Acts is popularly known as Umbrella Legislation?
(A) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
(B) The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
(C) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(D) The Factories Act, 1948
17. Which of the following is the First Charter of Human Rights?
(A) The Cyrus Cylinder (B) Bill of Rights
(C) The Constitution of Media (D) None of these
18. Which Article of The Universal Declaration of Human Rights provides that the right of
Nationality depends on one’s own wish?
(A) Article 10 (B) Article 15 (C) Article 20 (D) Article 30
19. How many Articles are there in The Universal Declaration of Human Rights?
(A) 30 (B) 35 (C) 40 (D) 45
20. The tenure of the Chairperson of NHRC (National Human Rights Commission) is?
(A) 3 years or upto 60 years of age (B) 3 years or upto 70 years of age
(C) 4 years or upto 50 years of age (D) 5 years or upto 65 years of age
21. Which among the below mentioned Codes, is included in the Schedule attached to The
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002?
(A) Civil Procedure Code 1908 (B) Criminal Procedure Code 1973
(C) Indian Penal Code 1860 (D) None of these
22. Removal of ornaments from body of one after causing death is an offence under which
section of IPC 1860?
(A) Section 378 (B) Section 404 (C) Section 420 (D) Section 390

23. Under which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that woman can be arrested
by police at any time and even in absence of lady constable if the arresting officer records
the proper reasons for such an arrest?
(A) R.D Nayak v. State of Gujarat, AIR 2004 SC 23
(B) State of Maharashtra v. Christian Community Welfare Council of India, AIR 2004
SC 7
(C) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Lalit Tandon, AIR 2004 SC 32
24. Kamaljit Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 2004 SC 69Sale of obscene objects to any person
under the age of ___ years is punishable under Section 293 IPC, 1860.
(A) 20 (B) 18 (C) 16 (D) 14
25. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale
proceeds, on appearance
(A) Within 6 months of attachment (B) Within 1 year of attachment
(C) Within 2 years of attachment (D) Within 3 years of attachment

26. The investigation under Section 160 of CrPc cannot require the attendance of a male, at
a place other than place of his residence who is
(A) Under the age of 15 years (B) Under the age of 16 years
(C) Under the age of 18 years (D) Under the age of 21 years

27. Under Section 161 of CrPC 1973, the investigating police officer has the power to
examine orally any person acquainted with the facts & circumstances of the case. The
expression “Any person acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case”?
(A) Includes an accused person (B) Does not include an accused person
(C) Refer to the prosecution witnesses only (D) Both (B) and (C) are correct

28. Statement recorded during investigation under Section 161 of CrPC 1973, can be used
during trial
(A) For corroborating the witnesses (B) For contradicting the witnesses
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

29. An accused was arrested for offence under Section 302 IPC on 01-01-2024, and
remanded to judicial/police custody on 02-01-2024, now for the purposes of Section
167(2) of CrPC 1973, in computing the period of ninety days
(A) The day of arrest i.e. 01-01-2024 and the day of remand i.e. 02-01-2024, both have
to be excluded and the 90th day shall fall on 02-04-2024
(B) The day of arrest i.e. 01-01-2024 only has to be excluded and shall be computed
w.e.f. 02-01-2024 when remanded, thus 90th day shall fall on 01-04-2024
(C) Neither 01-01-2024 i.e. the day of arrest nor 02-01-2024 i.e. the day of remand is
to be excluded, and the 90th day shall fall on 31-03-2024
(D) Either (A) or (C)
30. In which case it was held that, Identity of victim is not to be disclosed even in judgment
of court?
(A) Shashikant v. CBI, AIR 2007 SC 351
(B) Naveen Chandra v. State of Uttaranchal, AIR 2007 SC 363
 (C) Dinesh v. State of Rajasthan, AIR 2006 SC 1267
(D) None of the above
31. The presumption of continuation of life is contained under which section of Indian
Evidence Act 1872?
(A) Section 106 (B) Section 107 (C) Section 108 (D) Section 109
32. Husband and Wife are competent witnesses for or against each other as per Indian
Evidence Act 1872?
(A) In Civil proceedings only
(B) In Criminal proceedings only
(C) In both Civil and Criminal proceedings
(D) Neither in Civil nor in Criminal Proceedings
33. ‘A’ rings up the police station and informs the Duty Officer that he has murdered his wife
because she was not preparing food for him. The information is duly recorded by the
Duty officer. At the trial for having committed the offence of murder, the statement made
by ‘A’ would be
(A) Admissible only to the extent that ‘A’ was the informant
(B) Admissible to the extent that ‘A’ was the informant and was present in his house
and had knowledge of his wife having been murdered
(C) Admissible in evidence because when the statement was made ‘A’ was not in
custody of the police
(D) Inadmissible in evidence
34. ‘A’ filed an FIR giving details of the crime that he had committed. There were no
exculpatory statements in the FIR and gave all the details regarding the commission of
the crime. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The FIR is hit by Section 25 of The Indian Evidence Act 1872, and hence is
inadmissible as evidence. However, the fact that ‘A’ filed the FIR is admissible
under Section 8 of The Indian Evidence Act 1872
(B) Since the FIR is confessional in nature, the fact that ‘A’ filed the FIR is also not
admissible in evidence
(C) FIR including confession is admissible under The Indian Evidence Act 1872, as it
was voluntary and before arrest
(D) It is admissible under Section 32(3) of The Indian Evidence Act 1872
35. All offences under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act 1985, which
are punishable with imprisonment for a term of more than _____ years shall be triable
by the special court.
(A) One (B) Three (C) Five (D) Seven
36. Narcotic Commissioner under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
1985, is appointed by?
(A) Central Government (B) State Government
(C) Local governing body (D) Either (A) or (B)
37. During the Money Laundering process by which illegal funds are converted into
legitimate funds. This process essentially has three different stages. Which one of the
following is correct order of those stages?
(A) Placement — Layering -– Integration (B) Layering – Placement – Integration
(C) Integration – Layering – Placement (D) Either (A) or (B)
38. If the proceeds of crime involved in money laundering related to offence under Paragraph
2 of Part A of the Schedule (Offences under The Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic
Substances Act 1985), the maximum imprisonment under The Prevention of Money
Laundering Act 2002, may extend to?
(A) Three years (B) Five years (C) Seven years (D) Ten years
39. A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Special Judge under The Prevention
of Corruption Act 1998, unless he is or has been a?
(A) Sessions Judge
(B) An Additional Sessions Judge
(C) An Assistant Sessions Judge under the Code of Criminal Procedure 1973
(D) Either A, B or C
40. The trial of an offence under The Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, shall be held, as
far as practicable, on day to day basis and an endeavor shall be made to ensure that the
said trial is concluded within a period of?
(A) Six months (B) One year (C) Two years (D) Three years
41. Which of the following is a leading case on 'desertion'
(A) Kailashwati v. Ayodhya Prakash, (1977) P&H 642.
(B) Ashok Hurra v. Rupa, (1997) 4 SCC 226.
(C) Bipinchandra v. Prabahavati, AIR 1957 SC 176
(D) Bhagwat v. Bhagwat, AIR 1977 Bom 80
42. Which among the following recent rulings of the Supreme Court of India held that
Irretrievable Breakdown of Marriage as a ground of Divorce can be claimed under Article
142 of The Constitution of India?
(A) Prabha Tyagi v. Kamlesh Devi
(B) State of Jharkhand v. Shailendra Kumar Rai
(C) Shilpa Shailesh v. Varun Srinivasan
(D) Revanasidappa v. Mallikarjun
43. Mark the incorrect statement with respect to Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005
(A) by this amendment right by birth in the coparcenary property has been conferred in
favour of daughters
(B) the doctrine of survivorship in case of male coparceners has been abolished
(C) the pious obligation of a son to pay the debts of his father, grandfather or great
grandfather has been abolished
(D) None of the above
44. The land-mark case in which the Supreme Court held that if the father is wholly
indifferent to the matters of the minor, or is physically unable to take care of the minor
for any reason whatsoever, the father can be considered to be absent within the meaning
of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 is
(A) Rosy Jacob v. Jacob Chakramakkal, AIR 1973 SC 2090.
(B) Gita Hariharan v. Reserve Bank of India, AIR 1999 SC 1149.
(C) Vishwambhar v. Laxminarayana, AIR 2001 SC 2607.
(D) Manik Chand v. Ramchandra, AIR 1981 SC 519.
45. In which case court held that the minor children out the Muslim marriage shall be entitled
to maintenance under the CrPC after divorce
(A) Daniel Latifi vs. Union of Inia
 (B) Mohmmad Aslam khan vs. Khallilul Rahman
(C) Sarla Mudgil vs Union of India
(D) Noor Sabha Khatoon vs MD Quasim
46. Provision as regards to transfer of business from a transferor court to a transferee court
is envisaged under which section of code of civil procedure?
(A) 105 (B) 152 (C) 150 (D) 153A
47. Procedure in case of death of one of several plaintiffs or of sole plaintiff is envisaged
under which rule of Order XXII?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
48. Appeal from original decree falls under which part of the code of civil procedure?
(A) V (B) VI (C) VIII (D) VII
49. Which amongst the following rules of Order XIII-A lay down the ground for summary
judgment?
(A) Rule 4 (B) Rule 2 (C) Rule 1 (D) Rule 3
50. A judgment debtor is arrested in execution of a decree for the payment of money, and the
judgment debtor pays the amount of the decree and the costs of the arrest to the officer
arresting him, such officer:-
(A) Shall send the judgment debtor to the civil prison.
(B) Shall take judgment debtor to the court.
(C) Shall at once release him.
(D) Shall release him after taking security from him.
51. The provisions of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 have to be interpreted being
uninfluenced by Principles underlying under the 1940 Act. This observation was laid
down in:
(A) M.M.T.C. Ltd. v. Sterlite Industries (India) Ltd, AIR 1997 SC 605
(B) Sundaram Finance Ltd. v. N.E.P.C. India Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 565.
(C) Olympus Super Structures Pvt. Ltd. v. Meemz Vijay Khetan, AIR 1999 SC 2102.
(D) Orma Impex Pvt. Ltd. v. Nissuri Arb. Pte. Ltd., AIR 1999 SC 2871
52. The pendency of any arbitral ‘proceeding is not a pre—condition in exercise of Power
by court. The court may grant interim relief before or during arbitral proceedings or at
any time after making of the arbitral award before it is enforced. It was held in case of
(A) Om Prakash v. State of Uttar Pradesh, AIR 2010 Uttra 64
(B) Globe Co-generation Power Ltd. v. Shri Hirenyakeshi Sahkari Karkhana Niyamit,
AIR
2005 Kant
(C) MCD v. Pradeep Oil Mills Pvt. & quot; Ltd., AIR 2010 Del 119
(D) None of the above
53. Which of the following are not Arbitration Agreement?
(i) Where an agreement requires or permits an authority to decide a claim or dispute
without hearing.
(ii) Where an agreement requires the authority to act in the interests of only one of the
parties or provides that the decision of the Authority will not be final and binding
on the parties.
(iii) Where an agreement that if either party is not satisfied with the decision of the
Authority, he may file a civil suit seeking relief, it cannot be termed as an
arbitration agreement.
 (A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (i) and (iii) only (C) (ii) and (iii) only (D) (i),(ii) and (iii)
54. An arbitral award
(A) has to be in writing but need not be signed
(B) has to be in writing and signed by the members of the arbitral tribunal
(C) may be oral
(D) either A or B or C
55. In Which of the following judgments it was held that Indian Courts have no jurisdiction
over arbitral awards seated outside of India
(A) Standard Charted Bank v. HSBC
(B) Bharat Aluminium Co v. Kaiser Aluminium Technical Service
(C) Bhatia International v. Bulk Trading
(D) Sundram Finance Ltd v. NEPC India Ltd
56. According to section 6 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963, no suit under this section shall
be brought after the expiry of ___?
(A) Six months from the date of possession
(B) Two months from the date of dispossession
(C) Six months from the date of dispossession
(D) Ten months from the date of possession
57. Section 12 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with_______?
(A) Specific performance of part of contract
(B) Specific performance in respect of contracts
(C) Contracts not specifically enforceable
(D) Personal bars to relief
58. A person entitled to the possession of specific movable property may recover it in the
manner provided by_________________?
(A) Indian Evidence Act, 1872 (B) Code of Criminal Procedure Act, 1973
(C) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 (D) Transfer of Property Act, 1882
59. Which Section of the Specific Relief Act 1963 as amended in 2018 states that the Court
shall not grant injunctions in contracts involving "infrastructural project" as specified in
the Schedule where granting injunction would cause delay in the progress or completion
of such "infrastructure project"
(A) Section 20 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963
(B) Section 20A of The Specific Relief Act, 1963
(C) Section 21 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963
(D) Section 24 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963
60. Which section of The Specific Relief Act, 1963 as amended in 2018 deals with the
substituted performance?
(A) Section 22 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963
(B) Section 21 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963
(C) Section 24 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963
(D) Section 20 of The Specific Relief Act, 1963
61. A general offer open for world at large can be accepted
(A) By complying with the conditions of offer
(B) By sending communication of acceptance
(C) By tendering himself to comply the conditions
(D) None of the above
62. If an acceptance on phone is drowned by noise and is not heard by the proposer
 (A) A valid contract is concluded (B) There is a voidable contract
(C) The contract is void (D) No contract is concluded
63. A partnership firm consists of three partners ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’, and they owes ‘R’ a sum of
Rs. 15000/-. ‘A’ wants to retire and it is agreed amongst all the three partners and ‘R’ that
after retirement of ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ as continuing partners shall be liable for the dues of
‘R’. After the retirement of ‘A’, ‘R’ sues ‘A’ for recovery of Rs. 15000/-.
(A) ‘R’ has no right to sue ‘A’ as after the retirement of ‘A’ a new agreement came into
being between ‘R’ and the partnership form and ‘A’ stood discharged of his liability
towards ‘R’
(B) ‘R’ can sue the firm consisting of ‘B’ and ‘C’ along with ‘A’ as liability of all the
partners is joint and several
(C) ‘R’ has an option to sue the firm consisting of ‘B’ and ‘C’ or the retired partner ‘A’
(D) ‘R’ has a right to sue ‘A’ to the extent of Rs. 5000/- being the portion attributable to
‘A’
64. ‘X’, a Delhi merchant and native of Delhi entered into contract with ‘Y’, a Jabalpur
merchant for the purchase of 50 quintals of Sitaphal. In Delhi Sitaphal is a vegetable, while
in Jabalpur it is a fruit.
(A) The terms of contract are to be interpreted as per meaning of the proposer
(B) The terms of the contract have to be interpreted as per the meaning understood by the
acceptor
(C) The contract is void on account of mutual mistake as to the meaning of Sitaphal
(D) No concluded contract has come into being as there was no meeting of minds
65. Consider the following statements:
1- An agreement made without adequate consideration is void
2- A written, and registered agreement made on account of natural love and affection
between the close relatives is not valid without adequate consideration
Choose the correct option from options given below:
(A) Only 1 is correct (B) Only 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct (D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
66. ‘A’ becomes surety to ‘C’ for ‘B’s’ conduct as a manager of ‘C’s’ bank. Afterwards ‘B’
and ‘C’ contract, without ‘A’s’ permission that ‘B’ shall become liable for one-fourth of
the losses on overdraft. ‘B’ allows a customer to withdraw and the bank looses a sum of
money. To make good this loss ‘A’ is:
(A) Liable to the extent of three-fourth (B) Liable to the extent of one-fourth
(C) Wholly liable (D) Not liable
67. ‘Price’ under Section 2(10) of The Sales of Goods Act 1930, means?
(A) The money consideration
(B) The consideration given in the form of goods
(C) Partly money consideration and partly consideration in goods
(D) Either (A), (B), or (C)
68. Consider the following statements:
Statement I- If the buyer or his agent in that behalf obtains delivery of the goods before
their arrival at the appointed destination the transit is at an end
Statement II- If the goods are rejected by the buyer and the carrier or other bailee
continues in possession of them, the transit is deemed to be at an end, even
if seller has refused to receive them back
 In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
69. The rule in the Latin maxim nemo dat quod non habet under The Sales of Goods Act
1930, is contained under which Section?
(A) Section 26 (B) Section 27 (C) Section 28 (D) Section 29
70. Which of the following is a valid partnership?
(A) Partnership between two Hindu Joint Families
(B) Partnership between a Hindu Joint Family and a Partnership Firm
(C) Partnership between the Karta of a Joint Hindu Family in his representative
capacity and an individual coparcener of the same family
(D) All of the above
71. A minor, who has been admitted to the benefits of the partnership, under Section 30(5)
of The Indian Partnership Act 1932, on attaining majority has to exercise an option, to
stay or leave the firm, within?
(A) Three months on attaining majority(B) Six months on attaining majority
(C) One year on attaining majority (D) A reasonable time on attaining majority
72. A dormant partner is that partner:
(A) Who has never taken part in the conduct of the business as a partner but is liable
for the acts of the firm
(B) Who has taken part in the conduct of the business as partner and is not liable for
the act of the firm
(C) Who has never taken part in the conduct of the business as a partner and is not
liable for the act of the firm
(D) Who, due to his special status, has nothing to do with the loss of the business and
is entitled to profits only
73. The term ‘negotiable instrument’ is defined under which section of The Negotiable
Instrument Act 1881?
(A) Section 2(d) (B) Section 12 (C) Section 13 (D) Section 13A
74. Offence under The Negotiable Instrument Act are?
(A) Cognizable and Compoundable (B) Cognizable and Non Compoundable
(C) Non Cognizable and Compoundable(D) Non Cognizable and Non Compoundable
75. Sweat Equity share means equity shares issued by a company to its directors or employee:
(A) At a discount.
(B) For consideration, other than cash, for providing their know- how.
(C) For making available rights in the nature of intellectual property rights or value
addition.
(D) All of the above.
76. The shares or debentures or other interest of any member in a company shall be?
(A) Non-transferable immovable property (B) Transferable movable property
(C) Transferable immovable property (D) Non-transferable movable property
77. Which of the following shares can be issued at discount?
(A) Sweat Equity share (B) Preference share
 (C) Equity share (D) All of these
78. ………… is horizontal agreements:
(A) Tie in arrangements (B) Resale Price Maintenance
(C) Cartel (D) Exclusive Distribution
79. Which of the following as per the Competition Act, 2002 refers to any agreement which
restricts, or likely restrict, by any method the persons or classes of person to whom goods
are sold or from whom goods are bought?
(A) Refuse to deal (B) Exclusive distribution agreement
(C) Tie-in agreement (D) Exclusive distribution agreement
80. Bid Rigging in Competition Act:
(A) Anti-competitive bidding practice.
(B) Explained in Section 3(3).
(C) Bid rigging takes place when bidders collude and keep the bid amount at a pre-
determined level.
(D) All of the above
81. The Paris Convention for Protection of Industrial Property, 1883 dealt with the protection
of:
(A) Industrial patents (B) Industrial designs
(C) Trademarks (D) All of these
82. The WIPO Copyright Treaty (WCT) concluded in 1996 is a special agreement under the
Berne Convention that deals with:
(A) the protection of works and the rights of their authors in the digital environment.
(B) the protection of works and the rights of their patentees in the digital environment.
(C) Both A & B.
(D) None of the above.
83. Articles 1-21 of TRIPs Agreement, 1995 deals with:
(A) Copyright (B) Industrial designs (C) Trademarks (D) All of the above
84. Business computer software created by computer programmers using a programming
language is entitles for which protection in India:
(A) Copyright (B) Patent
(C) Neither Copyright nor patent (D) All of these
85. Which Geographical indication(s) is(are) registered in India in 2023-2024:
(A) Banaras Tirangi Barfi (B) Bareilly Cane & Bamboo Craft
(C) Both A & B (D) None of these
86. Which IPRs issues are posed by Artificial Intelligence:
(A) Ownership of creative work created by AI tool
(B) Infringement of IPRs by AI
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the Above
87. Where any rule, regulation, order, bylaws, notification or any other matter is published
in the Official Gazette as well as in Electronic Gazette then the date of publication shall
be deemed to be:
(A) the date of publication of Official Gazette
(B) the date of publication of Electronic Gazette
(C) the date of the Gazette which was first published in any form
 (D) none of the above
88. The Deputy Controllers of Certifying Authorities and Assistant Controllers of CA shall
perform the functions assigned to them by:
(A) The Central Government under the general superintendence and control of the
Controller
(B) The State Government under the general superintendence and control of the Controller
(C) The Controller of CA under his general superintendence and control
(D) None of the above
89. Presently, which Appellate Tribunal exercises the jurisdiction, powers and authority
conferred by the Information technology Act 2000
(A) The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal
(B) Cyber Appellate Tribunal
(C) National Company Law Appellate Tribunal
(D) None of the above
90. Which Section of the Information Technology Act 2000 as amended in 2008 deals with
compensation for failure to protect sensitive personal data:
(A) Section 43 (B) Section 43A (C) Section 44 (D) Section 44A
91. Under the Information Technology Act 2000 which cyber offence is punishable with
imprisonment which may extend to imprisonment for life:
(A) Cyber Terrorism
(B) Unauthorized access to a protected System
(C) Affecting Critical Information Infrastructure
(D) None of the Above
92. Which Section of the Information Technology Act 2000 deals with extraterritorial
jurisdiction
(A) Section 1 (B) Section 75 (C) Section 75A (D) None of these
93. Under Rule 4 of the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media
Ethics Code) Rules, 2023 which of the following are required to observe additional due
diligence:
(A) Social Media Intermediary (SMI)
(B) Significant Social Media Intermediary (SSMI)
(C) OTT Platforms
(D) All of the above

94. It means the right to information accessible under this Act which is held by or under the
control of any public authority and includes the right of:
(A) inspection of work, documents, records;
(B) taking notes, extracts, or certified copies of documents or records and taking
certified samples of material;
(C) obtaining information in the form of diskettes, floppies, tapes, video cassettes or in
any other electronic mode or through printouts where such information is stored in
a computer or in any other device;
(D) All of the Above
95. Under Section 4(1)(b) it is not duty of PA to publish the following important information
of the officers and employees:
(A) the monthly remuneration received by each of its officers and employees, including
the system of compensation as provided in its regulations
 (B) the budget allocated to each of its agency, indicating the particulars of all plans,
proposed expenditures and reports on disbursements made
(C) the manner of execution of subsidy programmes, including the amounts allocated
and the details of beneficiaries of such programmes
(D) Personal details of the officers and employees
96. Who must provide the reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to
reduce the same in writing:
(A) PIO (B) APIO (C) Both A & B (D) None of these
97. Online RTI applications cannot be filed by:
(A) Citizen of India (B) NRI (C) Foreigners (D) Both A & B
98. Is it compulsory to establish SIC under the RTI Act 2005:
(A) Yes (B) No
(C) Nothing is mentioned in the Act (D) None of these
99. The intelligence and security organisations are bound to disclose the following
information relating to:
(A) The allegations of corruption and (B) Human rights violations
(C) Both A & B (D) None of these
100. Which personal information is not to be disclosed by PIO unless the Central Public
Information Officer or the State Public Information Officer or the appellate authority, as
the case may be, is satisfied that the larger public interest justifies the disclosure of such
information:
(A) The disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest, or
(B) The disclosure of which would cause unwarranted invasion of the privacy of the
individual
(C) Both A & B
(D) None of the Above
x-x-x
 M.C.A.
1. Which of the following is not a possible Ordered Pair for a matrix with 6 elements?
(A) (2,3) (B) (3,2) (C) (1,6) (D) (3,1)

2. 10 years ago, a woman was thrice the age of her daughter. Two years later her
daughter’s age will be 30 more than the age of the mother. What are the present ages
of the woman and the daughter?
(A) 70 years, 40 years (B) 60 years, 40 years
(C) 55 years, 25 years (D) 45 years, 20 years

3. Find the principal solutions of the equation cos x = 1/2.

(A) π/6, 5π/6 (B) π/3, 5π/3 (C) π/3, 2π/3 (D) 2π/3, 5π/3

4. A pole stands vertically on the floor. From a point, it is 120 meters away from the foot
of the pole and the angle of elevation is 45° then find the height of the pole.
(A) 100 meters (B) 180 meters (C) 120 meters (D) 10 meters

5. Find the equation of circle which passes through (5, 9) and Center at (2, 5).
(A) x2+y2+4x-10y+4=0 (B) x2+y2-4x-10y+4=0
2 2
(C) x +y +4x+10y+4=0 (D) x2+y2+4x-10y-4=0

6. In How many ways can 5 girls and 3 boys be seated in a row such that no two boys are
together?
(A) 1440 (B) 14400 (C) 1410 (D) 1140
7. The slope of X and Y axis are
(A) 0 and Undefined (B) Undefined and 0
(C) Infinity (D) 0 and 0
8. The function f : R → R defined by f(x) = 3 – 4x is
(A) Onto (B) Not Onto (C) One-One (D) One-Two
9. Let A = {1, 2, 3} and consider the relation R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1,
3)}.
Then R is
(A) Reflexive but not Symmetric (B) Reflexive but not Transitive
(C) Symmetric and Transitive (D) Neither Symmetric, nor Transitive
10. What is the general formula for finding the magnitude of the cross product of two
vectors a and b with angle θ between them?
(A) |a|.|b| (B) |a|.|b| cos(θ) (C) |a|.|b| sin(θ) (D) |a|.|b|
tan(θ)
11. What is the representation of complementary event of event A?
(A) S-A (B) A-S (C) S (D) S+A
12. The slope of the tangent to the curve x = a sin t, y = a{cot t + log(tan 𝑡/2)} at the point
‘t’ is
(A) tan t (B) cot t (C) tan 𝑡/2 (D) cot t/2
13. Probability of getting composite number on dice is ___________
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 1/3 (D) 1

14. f(x, y) = sin(x) + cos(y) + xy2; x = cos(t); y = sin(t) Find df dt at t = π 2

(A) 2 (B) -2 (C) 1 (D) 0

15. The function f(x) = x + 4/𝑥 has

(A) A local maxima at x = 2 and local minima at x = -2
(B) Local minima at x = 2, and local maxima at x = -2
(C) Absolute maxima at x = 2 and absolute minima at x = -2
(D) Absolute minima at x = 2 and absolute maxima at x = -2
16. What will be the value of x + y + z if cos-1 x + cos-1 y + cos-1 z = 3π?
(A) -1/3 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) -3

17. Integrate 3x2(cosx3+8).

(A) sinx3−8x3+C (B) sinx3+8x3+C (C) –sinx3+8x3+C (D) sinx3−x3+C

18. Find ∫5cos2x / 1+sinx dx.

(A) -3(x+cos x)+C (B) 5(x+cos x)+C (C) 5(-x+sin x)+C (D) 5(x-
cos x)+C

19. What is the order of the differential equation given by dy/ dx + 4y=sinx?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0

20. If a matrix A is both Symmetric and Skew-Symmetric, then

(A) A is a diagonal matrix (B) A is a zero matrix
(C) A is a scalar matrix (D) A is a square matrix
21. The number of binary operations that can be defined on a set of 2 elements is
(A) 8 (B) 4 (C) 16 (D) 64
22. Roots of a quadratic equation are real when discriminant is ______________
(A) Zero (B) Greater than zero
(C) Less than zero (D) Greater than or equal to zero

23. Find the height of the cylinder of maximum volume that can be is scribed in a sphere
of radius A.
(A) 2𝑎/3 (B) 2𝑎/√3 (C) 𝑎/3 (D) 3𝑎/2

24. The area of a right-angled triangle of the given hypotenuse is maximum when the
triangle is
(A) Scalene (B) Equilateral (C) Isosceles (D) None of these

25. The equation of the normal to the curves y = sin x at (0, 0) is

(A) x = 0 (B) x + y = 0 (C) y = 0 (D) x–y=0
26. The radius of a cylinder is increasing at the rate of 3 m/s and its height is decreasing at
the rate of 4 m/s. The rate of change of volume when the radius is 4 m and height is 6
m, is
(A) 80π cu m/s (B) 144π cu m/s
(C) 80 cu m/s (D) 64 cu m/s
27. If the two lines with slope m1 and m2 are perpendicular then their slopes has relation
____
(A) m1 + m2 = 1 (B) m1 * m2 = 1 (C) m1 * m2 = -1 (D) m1 + m2 = -1
28. At which point does f(x) attain local minima if f(x) = 0∫x (t+1)(et – 1)(t – 2)(t + 4) dt?
(A) 0 (B) -1 (C) 1 (D) -4

29. What will be the range of the function f(x) = 2x3 – 9x2 – 24x + 5 which increases with
x?
(A) x > 4 (B) x> 4 or x < -1
(C) x< -1 (D) Can’t be determined

30. What is the order of the differential equation given by dy/ dx + 4y=sinx?
(A) 0.5 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 0

31. If the radius of a circle is increased three times then its area is increased:
(A) Three time (B) Six times(C) Nine times (D) Twelve times
32. What are total number of combinations of 9 things taken 3 at a time?
(A) 18 (B) 27 (C) 48 (D) 84
33. A card is drawn from a pack of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a king of a
black suit?
(A) 1/26 (B) 1/52 (C) 3/26 (D) 7/52
34. If the value of α + β = 900, and α : β = 2 : 1, then what is the ratio of cos α to cos β ?
(A) 1:3 (B) √3 : 1 (C) 1 : √3 (D) 3:1
35. If tan θ + cot θ = 2, then what is the value of tan100 θ + cot100 θ?
(A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4
36. 3, 5, 7, 9 is an Example of
(A) Arithmetic sequence (B) Geometric sequence
(C) Harmonic sequence (D) Fibonacci sequence
37. If cos A = 2/3, then what is the value of tan A?
(A) 0 (B) 1/2 (C) 5/2 (D) √5/2
38. If “a” is the first term and “r” is the common ratio, then the nth term of a G.P is:
(A) arn (B) arn-1 (C) (ar)n-1 (D) ar
39. If the nth term of an arithmetic progression is 3n-4, then the 10th term of an A.P is
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 22 (D) 26
40. Two people X and Y apply for a job in a company. The probability of the selection of
X is 2/5, and Y is 4/7. What is the probability that both of them get selected?
 (A) 1/6 (B) 27/35 (C) 8/35 (D) 3/35
41. Which variable type can have only two possible values?
(A) Integer (B) String (C) Double (D) Boolean
42. In a table in MYSQL database, an attribute A of datatype Varchar(20) has the value
“BHARAT”. The attribute B of datatype Char(20) has value “Meenakshi”. How many
characters are occupied by attribute A and attribute B?
(A) 20,6 (B) 6,20 (C) 9,6 (D) 6,9
43. Which of the following is NOT an Open-Source Software?
(A) Mozilla Firefox (B) Android
(C) Microsoft Office (D) Linux

44. The amount of time taken by a device to begin reading data is called
(A) Seek time (B) Read time (C) Access time (D) Write time
45. Currently, Which Programming Language is being mostly used in Data Science?
(A) C++ (B) Java (C) Python (D) Machine Learning
46. A formula in MS Excel =sum(D1:D10) will
(A) Add first 10 columns (B) Add first 10 columns of row 4
(C) Add first 10 rows of column 4 (D) Add first 10 rows

47. The Programming Technique where a function calls itself is known as

(A) Inline function (B) Encapsulation
(C) Recursion (D) Debugging

48. After hearing her ordeal, the school decides to publish a set of moral principles that
determines the appropriate behaviour of students while using the Internet.The school is
referring to__________
(A) Intellectual Property rights (B) Internet Privacy
(C) Computer Ethics (D) Cyber Ethics

49. Which of the following Option leads to Portability and Security of Java?
(A) Bytecode is executed by JVM
(B) The applet makes the Java code secure and portable
(C) Use of exception handling
(D) Dynamic binding between objects

50. You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add
60 new subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number
of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
(A) 255.240.0.0 (B) 255.248.0.0 (C) 255.252.0.0 (D) 255.254.0.0

51. Switching the CPU to another Process requires performing a State Save of the Current
Process and a State Store of a different Process. This task is known as a___
(A) Swapping (B) Context Switch (C) Demand Paging (D) Page fault
 52. Which out of the below are the two fundamental models of Inter Process
Communication?
1. Shared Memory
2. Message Passing
3. Independent Process
4. Cooperating Process
(A) 1,2 (B) 2,3 (C) 3,4 (D) 1,4
53. Which of the following Sorting Algorithms can be used to sort a Random Linked
List with Minimum Time Complexity?
(A) Insertion Sort (B) Quick Sort (C) Heap Sort (D) Merge Sort

54. What will be the output of the program?

#include<stdio.h>

int main()
{
int a[5] = {5, 1, 15, 20, 25};
int i, j, m;
i = ++a[1];
j = a[1]++;
m = a[i++];
printf("%d, %d, %d", i, j, m);
return0;
}
(A) 2, 1, 15 (B) 1, 2, 5 (C) 3, 2, 15 (D) 2, 3, 20
55. Find the SQL statement below that is equal to the following: SELECT NAME FROM
CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA';

(A) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA');

(B) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'VA';
(C) SELECT NAME IN CUSTOMER WHERE STATE = 'V';
(D) SELECT NAME FROM CUSTOMER WHERE STATE IN ('VA');
56. The new findings on the Virus caused panic among the scientists and management
________.
(A) like (B) likely (C) alike (D) dislike

57. Nuclear energy is __________ dangerous to be used widely.

(A) so (B) such (C) too (D) that
58. In spite of extensive research, formula for generating prime numbers is still a/an
(A) enigma (B) embargo (C) vicious (D) voracious
59. The Synonym for CEASE is:
(A) BEGIN (B) STOP (C) CREATE (D) DULL
 60. The Antonym for TERRIBLE would be
(A) Soothing (B) Frightening (C) Scaring (D) Delectable
61. Though he has lot of money, yet all his plans are built upon Sand. Which of the options
below are closest in meaning to the underlined text?
(A) Established on insecure foundations (B) Based on inexperience
(C) Resting on cheap material (D) Resting on immature ideas
62. A person who renounces the world and practices Self-Discipline in order to attain
salvation is called?
(A) Sceptic (B) Ascetic (C) Devotee (D)
Antiquarian
63. Find the Correctly Spelt Word
(A) Affedevit (B) Afidevit (C) Affidevit (D) Affidavit
64. Select the pair which has the same Relationship PAIN:SEDATIVE
(A) comfort : stimulant (B) grief : consolation
(C) trance : narcotic (D) ache : extraction
65. We waited for over an hour ____ the bus–stop. Fill the Correct Preposition.
(A) at (B) in (C) by (D) on

(Answer the Questions 66-68 on the basis of Below Paragraph)

There is a family of six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U. Their professions are Engineer,
Doctor, Teacher, Salesman, Manager and Lawyer. There are two married couples in the
family.
 The Manager is the grandfather of U, who is an Engineer
 R, the Salesman, is married to the lady Teacher
 Q is the mother of U and T.
 The Doctor, S is married to the Manager

66. What is the profession of P?

(A) Lawyer (B) Teacher (C) Manager (D) Salesman

67. Who are the two Married Couples in the Family?

(A) PQ and SR (B) PS and RQ (C) PT and SR (D) PU and PT

68. How P is related to T?

(A) Father (B) Grandfather (C) Mother (D) Grandmother

69. What is the rate of discount if a bicycle whose price was Rs. 4,000, was sold for
Rs. 3,200?
(A) 14% (B) 16% (C) 18% (D) 20%
70. If 20% of a number is 40. Then 70% of the number is?
(A) 110 (B) 120 (C) 130 (D) 140
71. The ratio of 50m and 4km is:
(A) 1:20 (B) 1:25 (C) 1:40 (D) 1:80
72. Arun walked 20 m towards the South. Then he turned to his left and walked 15 m. He
again turned to his left and walked 20 m. Finally, he turned to his right and walked 10m.
How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?
(A) 15 m East (B) 15 m North (C) 25 m North (D) 25 m East
73. If AIRLINE is written as ENILRIA7, then RAILWAY will be written as -
(A) YAWLIAR7 (B) YAWLIAR8 (C) YAWILAR7 (D)
YAWILAR8
74. Which number is wrong in the series 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, 93?
(A) 6 (B) 31 (C) 56 (D) 93
75. Mohan is facing north-east. He turns 90 degrees in the anticlockwise direction then he
turns 135 degrees in the clockwise direction. Which direction is Mohan facing now?
(A) East (B) South (C) North (D) West
x-x-x
 Masters in Public Health
1. Incubation period for swine flu (H1N1 Type A Influenza) is
(A) 2-21 days (B) 1-4 days (C) 18-20 days (D) 2-3 weeks
2. World Mental Health Day is celebrated on
(A) 14th November (B) 1st December (C) 7th April (D) 10th October
3. Mode of transmission of all of the following is droplet infection except
(A) Measles (B) Influenza (C) Typhoid (D) Chickenpox
4. Vector for Dengue is
(A) Aedes mosquito (B) Mansonoides mosquito
(C) Anopheles mosquito (D) Culex mosquito
5. Which of the following is secreted by corpus luteum?
(A) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (B) Luteinizing Hormone
(C) Estrogen (D) Progesterone
6. The recommended level of fluorides in drinking water (in parts per million) is
(A) 0.2-0.5 ppm (B) 3-6 ppm (C) 0.5-0.8 ppm (D) 1.5-2.0 ppm
7. Deficiency of zinc is manifested as all except
(A) Growth failure (B) Impaired immune function
(C) Increased appetite (D) Delayed wound healing
8. Daily elemental calcium requirement for a geriatric female is
(A) 1200 mg (B) 300 mg (C) 2000 mg (D) 500 mg
9. Egg is regarded as the ‘reference protein’ because it has Net protein utilization (NPU)
of
(A) 20-25 (B) 30-40 (C) 55-65 (D) 96-100
10. Double fortified salt contains
(A) Zinc and Iodine (B) Iron and Iodine
(C) Copper and Iodine (D) Magnesium and Iodine
11. Breast Milk is essential for newborn as it has high amounts of:
(A) Docosahexaenoic acid (B) Linoleic acid
(C) Linolenic acid (D) Arachidonic acid
12. All of the following amino acids are essential amino acids except
(A) Leucine (B) Tyrosine (C) Tryptophan (D) Phenylalanine
13. Mottling is best seen on
(A) Lower molars (B) Upper molars (C) Upper incisors (D) Lower incisors
14. Milk borne diseases include all except
(A) Brucellosis (B) Tuberculosis (C) Q-fever (D) Chicken pox
15. Primordial intervention for coronary artery disease (CAD) includes
(A) Life style changes in high risk persons
(B) Coronary bypass
(C) Treatment for CAD
(D) Preserving lifestyle that prevents the emergence of risk factors
16. The study design used for investigation of a rare disease is
(A) Cohort study (B) Case-control study
(C) Cross-sectional study (D) Randomized controlled trial
17. Strength of association between a risk factor and a disease is measured by
(A) Absolute risk (B) p-value (C) Attributable risk (D) Relative risk
18. Case fatality rate represents
(A) Killing power of the disease with no time interval
(B) Infectivity
(C) Killing power of a disease within a time interval
(D) A ratio and not a proportion
19. Unit of study in Randomized controlled trial is
(A) Individual (B) Population (C) Patients (D) Community
20. Quarantine was originally introduced as protection against
(A) Malaria (B) AIDS (C) Tuberculosis (D) Plague
21. The time required for 50 % of cases to develop the disease following exposure is called
as
(A) Generation time (B) Median Incubation period
(C) Incubation Period (D) Serial Interval
22. Which of the following is an example of live attenuated vaccine
(A) Rabies Vaccine (B) Cholera Vaccine
(C) Japanese Encephalitis (D) BCG
23. Following is an example of recombinant protein vaccine
(A) Hepatitis B (B) Tetanus toxoid
(C) Pneumococcal Vaccine (D) None of these
24. Endemic disease is a disease
(A) Exhibits widespread occurrence over the world
(B) Constantly present in a given population group
(C) Prevalent among animals only
(D) Occurs in excess of normal expectancy
25. A result is called ‘statistically significant’ whenever
(A) The null hypothesis is true
(B) The p value is less or equal to significance level
(C) The p value is larger than the significance level
(D) The alternate hypothesis is true
26. Vaccine contraindicated in pregnancy is
(A) Rubella Vaccine (B) Diphtheria Vaccine
(C) Tetanus toxoid (D) Hepatitis B Vaccine
27. Daily allowance of free folate in pregnancy is
(A) 500 mcg (B) 150 mcg (C) 300 mcg (D) 400 mcg
28. The deficiency of the following causes megaloblastic anaemia:-
(A) Vitamin B12 (B) Vitamin C (C) Iron (D) None of these
29. Best test to detect Iron deficiency in community is
(A) Serum Iron (B) Serum Ferritin (C) Serum Transferrin (D) Haemoglobin
30. Iron and folic acid supplementation as per National Intensified Iron Plus initiative
(Anemia Mukt Bharat) is:
(A) 6-60 months age- 20 mg of elemental iron and 100 mcg of folic acid biweekly
(B) 10-19 years of age -100 mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid biweekly
(C) Women in reproductive age – 100mg of elemental iron and 500 mcg of folic acid
biweekly
(D) 6-60 months age- 20 mg of elemental iron and 100 mcg of folic acid once a month
31. Specificity of a screening test is the ability to
(A) Detect true negatives among healthy (B) Detect true positives among healthy
(C) Detect false negatives among healthy (D) Detect false positives among healthy
32. The following essential amino acid is deficient in the protein in pulses:-
(A) Lysine (B) Methionine (C) Isoleucine (D) Leucine
33. The most common type of cancer seen in Indian Women is:-
(A) Breast (B) Endometrium (C) Oral cavity (D) Cervix
34. Water soluble vitamins are:-
(A) Vitamin C & Vitamin B (B) Vitamin B & Vitamin D
(C) Vitamin C & Vitamin E (D) Vitamin D & Vitamin E
35. Median is
(A) Sum of measurements in a series divided by a number of measurements
(B) Middle value of the series arranged in an ascending or descending order
(C) Value which occurs most frequently in series
(D) None of the above
36. Normal IQ level is
(A) 50-69 (B) 35-49 (C) 70 and over (D) 110 and over
37. Ortho-toluidine test is used to determine
(A) Fluorides in water (B) Free and combined chlorine in water
(C) Nitrates in milk (D) Iodides in water
38. Most important sign/symptom to diagnose severe Pneumonia in a child aged 2 months
to 5 years is
(A) Slow breathing (B) Chest indrawing (C) Cough/Cold (D) Cyanosis
39. The leading cause of death in India is
(A) HIV/AIDS (B) Tuberculosis
(C) Neoplasms (D) Cardiovascular diseases
40. As per the health care system in India, following is the ‘First contact point’ between a
village community & the doctor
(A) Sub-centre (B) Primary Health Centre
(C) Community Health Centre (D) Medical Colleges and hospitals
41. Infant mortality rate includes all except:
(A) Early neonatal motility (B) Perinatal mortality
(C) Late neonatal mortality (D) Post neonatal mortality
42. Maternal Antibodies are considered to give
(A) Active immunity (B) Pre emptive immunity
(C) Prolong immunity (D) Passive immunity
43. Cerebrospinal fluid is considered to be the best clinical material in the diagnosis of
(A) Leptospira (B) Meningitis (C) Typhoid (D) Dengue
44. Nosocomial infection refers to
(A) Infection acquired from animals
(B) Infection acquired by a neonate from the mother
(C) Infection acquired in a hospital
(D) Infection acquired at farms
45. Which of the following is known as “Father of Public Health”
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Cholera (C) John Snow (D) Louis Pasteur
46. Which of the following is a positive mortality indicator?
(A) Proportional mortality rate (B) Duration of hospital stay
(C) Life Expectancy (D) Incidence & Prevalence
47. The physical quality of life index includes all except
(A) Literacy rate (B) Life expectancy at one year age
(C) Life expectancy at birth (D) Infant mortality rate
48. Surveillance for identifying missing cases of disease and supplementing notified cases
is called as
(A) Passive surveillance (B) Active surveillance
(C) Monitoring (D) Sentinel surveillance
49. The following is an example of specific protection mode of intervention.
(A) Giving crutches for walking to a child afflicted with poliomyelitis
(B) OPV (Oral Polio Vaccine) vaccination to a child
(C) Radical treatment to a patient coming to malaria clinic with fever and chills
(D) Salt restriction in a high risk non-communicable disease area
50. Tests of significance include all except
(A) Chi-square test (B) t test
(C) Z test (D) Standard deviation
51. ANOVA is used
(A) To compare means in 3 or more groups
(B) To compare means in 1 group before and after intervention
(C) To find correlation
(D) To compare means in 2 groups
52. Which scale is used for the measurement of the blood pressure for the patient
(A) Nominal scale (B) Ordinal scale (C) Interval scale (D) Likert scale
53. Which of the following indicator is the best to measure the burden of disease?
(A) Disability adjusted life years (B) Health adjusted life years
(C) Health adjusted life expectancy (D) Life expectancy
54. Every 5th person is selected from a population for an epidemiological study. This type
of sampling is known as
(A) Simple random sampling (B) Stratified random sampling
(C) Systematic random sampling (D) Cluster random sampling
55. Standard deviation is a measure of
(A) Central tendency (B) Chance (C) Dispersion (D) Normality
56. At the site of disaster, rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of the severity of their
injuries and likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention is called as:-
(A) Tagging (B) Mitigation (C) Triage (D) First Aid
57. Incineration is done for
(A) Waste sharps (B) Human anatomical waste
(C) Radiographic waste (D) Waste with high mercury content
58. The epidemiological triad is
(A) Agent, host, disease (B) Agent, environment, disease
(C) Host, disease, time (D) Agent, host, environment
59. The smallest bone in the body is found in
(A) Mandible (B) Lacrimal bone (C) Lumbar Vertebrae (D) Middle Ear
60. Most commonly used community drinking water sanitizer is
(A) Chlorine (B) Iodine (C) Ultraviolet light (D) Nitrates
61. What is the richest food source of omega 3 fatty acids?
(A) Soya bean (B) Sardines (C) Sunflower oil (D) Almonds
62. Prevalence refers to
(A) All new cases detected in a population at one point in time
(B) All old cases detected in a population at one point in time
(C) All old and new cases detected in a population at one point in time
(D) Number of deaths in a population at one point in time
63. What is herd immunity?
(A) The immune status of a population
(B) The immune status of shepherds
(C) The immune status of domestic animals
(D) The immune status of head of the household
64. All of the following vaccines are given at birth except
(A) BCG (B) OPV-O (C) Measles (D) Hepatitis B
65. Only class of immunoglobulins that cross the placenta is
(A) Ig A (B) Ig G (C) Ig M (D) Ig E
66. The End TB strategy developed by WHO envisions a world free of TB by the year
(A) 2025 (B) 2028 (C) 2035 (D) 2050
67. Which of the following trace element is required for the normal functioning of thyroid?
(A) Iron (B) Iodine (C) Calcium (D) Phosphorus
68. Mutation in a virus is caused due to change in its
(A) Cell size (B) Shape (C) Genetic material (D) Colour
69. The vision of “Janani Suraksha Yojana” is
(A) To provide affordable healthcare facilities to geriatric females
(B) To provide accidental death insurance to women
(C) To provide affordable housing to women
(D) To reduce infant mortality rate, maternal mortality rate and increase institutional child
births
70. The most appropriate test to determine the prevalence of Tuberculosis infection in a
community is
(A) Tuberculin test (B) Radiography
(C) Sputum examination (D) Clinical Examination
71. Which of the following type of Hepatitis has faeco-oral mode of transmission?
(A) Hepatitis D (B) Hepatitis C (C) Hepatitis B (D) Hepatitis A
72. First step to be taken to prevent and control cholera epidemic at community level is to
(A) Chemoprophylaxis with tetracycline (B) Vaccination to all
(C) Safe water and sanitation (D) Chelation therapy
73. Which of the following statements is correct regarding Dengue?
(A) Caused by bacteria (B) Incubation period is 1-2 days
(C) It is endemic in India (D) Can be treated with Aspirin
74. Body Mass Index is calculated as:-
(Weight in kilograms and Height in meter)
(A) (Weight)/(Height)2 (B) (Height)/(Weight)2
(C) (Weight)/(Height) (D) (Height)/(Weight)
75. An adult is considered obese if BMI is
(A) 18.50 – 24.99 (B) 25.00 – 29.99 (C) 15.00 – 17.99 (D) 30 – 39.99
x-x-x
 M.A.(Geography)
1. Which of the following is the highest pass?
(A) Banihal Pass (B) Bara Lacha La
(C) Bomdi La (D) Chang La
2. Which of the following is not a pass in the Greater Himalaya?
(A) Kunzum Pass (B) Lipu Lekh La (C) Khardung La (D) Mana Pass
3. Which is the highest motorable pass in the world?
(A) Umling La (B) Khardung La (C) Tanglang La (D) Tulung La
4. Interlocking spurs are
(A) Formed in the upper course of a river (B) A feature of deposition
(C) Formed through glacial action (D) Formed in the lower course of a river
5. Gorge is formed
(A) By wind erosion (B) By vertical erosion
(C) By glacial erosion (D) By lateral erosion
6. The youngest state of India is:
(A) Delhi (B) Telengana (C) Chhattisgarh (D) Jharkhand
7. A hypsometric curve plots relative area against:
(A) Relative height (B) Absolute height
(C) Relative humidity (D) Absolute humidity
8. Knowledge regarding the interior of the earth was gained through a study of:
(A) Ocean deposits (B) Earthquake waves
(C) Terrogeneous deposits (D) Sound Waves
9. Marble is formed when _________ gets metamorphosed.
(A) Gneiss (B) Coal (C) Limestone (D) Schist
10. Which one of the following is not a feature formed through glaciation?
(A) Arete (B) Yardang (C) Cirque (D) Eskers
11. Which process of chemical weathering causes rusting of iron?
(A) Carbonation (B) Oxidation (C) Dissilication (D) Hydration
12. Horse Latitudes occur at:
(A) 30 degree north and south of the equator
(B) 5 degree north of the equator
(C) 5 degree south of the equator
(D) 66 degree north and south of the equator
13. Black Soils are found among other states in:
(A) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Telengana
(B) Rajasthan, Punjab and Uttar Pradesh
(C) Bihar, Assam and West Bengal
(D) Kerala, Assam and West Bengal
14. The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone occurs at:
(A) 5°north to 5°south of the equator
(B) 15° north and south of the equator
(C) 30° South of equator
(D) 23.5° north to south of the equator
15. The only automobile free hill station in India is:
(A) Ootacumund in Palani
(B) Kodaikanal in Dindigul
(C) Matheran in Raigad
(D) Matheran in Karjat
16. Which of the following is not true of Salem
(A) It is a district of Tamil Nadu
(B) It has Coffee plantations
(C) It is a steel producing town
(D) It has spice plantations
17. Dudhsagar waterfall is situated on:
(A) Mandovi River in Goa
(B) Mandovi River in Karnataka
(C) Mapusa River in Goa
(D) Mapusa River in Karnataka
18. Almatti Dam is built over _________ river.
(A) Cauvery (B) Krishna (C) Tungabhadra (D) Periyar
19. Stanley Reservoir is also known as:
(A) Grand Anicut Dam (B) Kallanai Dam
(C) Mettur Dam (D) Aliyar Dam
20. Officially the first recorded statistics on transgenders were collected in:
(A) 2001 (B) 2011 (C) 2021 (D) 1991
21. The Indian state with the largest area under forests is:
(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Maharashtra
22. In India Tropical Rainforests are not found in:
(A) Maharashtra (B) Kerela (C) Uttarakhand (D) Nagaland
23. “Pays Concept” is associated with
(A) German school (B) French school (C) American school (D) Russian school
24. Which of the following latitudes passes through India?
(A) Equator (B) Arctic Circle
(C) Tropic of Capricorn (D) Tropic of Cancer
25. Which of the following forest types are found in the foothills of Himalayas?
(A) Deciduous (B) Temperate (C) Tundra (D) Alpine
26. The Cossacks were a martial race found in present day:
(A) Turkey (B) Ukraine (C) Italy (D) Iran
27. Which of the following is not a warm ocean current?
(A) North Atlantic Drift Current (B) Labrador Current
(C) Gulf Stream Current (D) Brazilian Current
28. Which one of the following longitudes determines the Indian standard time?
(A) 85.5 E (B) 86.5 E (C) 84.5 E (D) 82.5 E
29. Which of the following States was formed exclusively by the migrants in the 20th
Century?
(A) Maldives (B) Mauritius (C) Israel (D) Myanmar
30. The most productive fishing grounds of the world are found where:
(A) The continental shelf is broad
(B) Warm and cold ocean currents meet
(C) Rivers drain fresh water into the seas
(D) Cold and warm atmospheric currents meet
31. What is ‘Karaganda’?
(A) An animal (B) A mountain (C) A coalfield (D) An ocean deep
32. The Newfoundland fishing ground has resulted from the meeting of:
(A) Labrador and Gulf Stream Currents (B) Kurile and Japan Currents
(C) Beneguela and Agulhas Currents (D) None of the above
33. The most highly metamorphosed form of coal is:
(A) Bituminous (B) Lignite (C) Anthracite (D) Peat
34. According to which theory does the population increase geometrically?
(A) Optimum Population Theory (B) Malthusian Theory of Population
(C) Logistic Curve Theory (D) Theory of Demographic Transition
35. Bad-land Topography is the product of the combined action of
(A) Wind and Glacier (B) Wind and Water
(C) Water and Glacier (D) Water and Temperature
36. Doaba Cultural Region in Punjab lies between :
(A) Satluj and Beas (B) Beas and Ravi
(C) Satluj and Yamuna (D) Ravi and Chenab
37. Which one of the following is a Taiga Biome?
(A) Sub-Tropical Biome (B) Sub-Arctic Biome
(C) Savanna Biome (D) Sub-Sahara Biome
38. Diego Garcia is an American Naval Base in which of the following oceans?
(A) Atlantic (B) Pacific (C) Indian (D) Arctic
39. Demographic transition is a framework that explores the historical sequence of changes
in
(A) Fertility and mortality (B) Mortality and age-structure
(C) Mortality and migration (D) Age-structure and sex
40. The thermal power plant with the highest capacity in Punjab is:
(A) Talwandi Sabo Power Plant (B) Guru Gobind Singh Plant
(C) Goindwal Sahib Thermal Power Plant (D) Ropar Thermal Power Plant
41. Kirkuk, one of the most important oilfields in the world, is located in
(A) Iran (B) Iraq (C) Kuwait (D) Russia
42. The top three states in India in terms of Sugarcane production are:
(A) Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Karnataka (B)UttarPradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka
(C) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra
43. The ‘Valley of Kashmir’ lies between which of the following ranges?
(A) Pir-Panjal and Karakoram range (B) Pir-Panjal and Zaskar range
(C) Zaskar and Ladakh range (D) Sulaiman and Kirthar range
44. Per cent area under various means of Irrigation in India at State level is best represented
by
(A) Dot Method (B) Isopleth (C) Choropleth (D) Pie diagram
45. The concept of Lebensraum was propounded by
(A) Mackinder (B) Ratzel (C) Haushofer (D) Isaiah Bowman
46. Mand region in Punjab is associated with:
(A) River Beas (B) River Satluj (C) River Jhelum (D) River Ravi
47. Delta Kames are the outcome of
(A) Glacial erosion (B) Wind deposition (C) River deposition (D)Glacial deposition
48. Chhaj is the region lying between:
(A) Chenab and Ravi (B) Chenab and Jhelum
(C) Jhelum and Ravi (D) Satluj and Beas
49. The Savanna biome is a Grassland associated with
(A) Tropical wet-dry climate (B) Equatorial wet climate
(C) Tropical dry climate (D) Monsoon climate
50. Who was the first Geographer to ascertain the length of the equator?
(A) Eratosthenes (B) Herodotus (C) Anaximander (D) Thales
51. Which one of the following is not a renewable source of energy?
(A) Coal (B) Wind energy (C) Tidal Energy (D) Solar Energy
52. Which of the following steel plants is port based?
(A) Bhilai (B) Durgapur (C) Vishakhapatnam (D) Rourkela
53. Which of the following diagrams depicts the suitability of climate?
(A) Hythergraph (B) Climograph (C) Ergograph (D) Band graph
54. Which of the following is not a factor in influencing the South-west Monsoon?
(A) Sub-tropical easterly jet stream (B) Mascerene High
(C) El Nino (D) Sub-tropical westerly jet stream
55. Theories of spatial organization are based on the concept of:
(A) Positivism (B) Functionalism (C) Structuralism (D) Behaviouralism
56. Natural population growth is a function of
(A) Births (B) Deaths
(C) Fertility and mortality (D) Migration
57. The spatial distribution pattern of rural settlements can best be observed from
(A) Wall maps (B) Cadastral maps
(C) Geological maps (D) Topographical maps
58. Ratooning is a technique applied in the cultivation of:
(A) Cotton (B) Sugarcane (C) Tea (D) Coffee
59. Agriculture in Punjab may be described as:
(A) Subsistence Farming (B) Dryland Farming
(C) Commercial Farming (D) Mixed Farming
60. Lakshdweep is an example of:
(A) Coral Reef (B) Submerged Ridges
(C) Atoll (D) All of the above
61. A system which consists of data acquisition, data processing and data analysis is called
(A) Digital Image (B) Geographic Information System
(C) Remote Sensing System (D) Global Positioning System
62. “Harmattan” is a cool dry wind blowing in:
(A) Western Sahara (B) Rockies
(C) Alps (D) South-western Europe
63. Which of the following is formed as a result of river erosion?
(A) Hanging valley (B) V-shaped valley (C) Rift valley (D) Blind valley
64. Survey of India was set up in:
(A) 1767 (B) 1867 (C) 1776 (D) 1876
65. “Space is socially or culturally constructed” is the view under
(A) Logical positivism (B) Behaviouralism
(C) Post modernism (D) Structuralism
66. Mediterranean climate is characterized by
(A) Dry summer and Humid winter (B) Humid summer and Dry winter
(C) Dry summer and Dry winter (D) Humid summer with no winter
67. Population Density is usually shown by:
(A) Isopleth Map (B) Choropleth Map
(C) Dot Map (D) Pie Chart
68. Punjab during the period of Mahabharata was referred to as:
(A) Sapta-Sindhu (B) Hapta-Hendu (C) Panchnada (D) Sirhind
69. Which one of the following indicates the principle of transport in Central Place Theory?
(A) K3 (B) K4 (C) K7 (D) K9
70. Perennial Rivers on a topo-sheet are shown using:
(A) Colour Blue (B) Colour Black (C) Colour Grey (D) Dots
71. “Tibba” is a local name for sand dunes formed in:
(A) Eastern Rajasthan (B) South-western Punjab
(C) Western Rajasthan (D) North-east Punjab
72. The Rimland Theory was propounded by:
(A) Mackinder (B) Spykman (C) Ratzel (D) Bowman
73. Machu Picchu of Inca civilization is located in
(A) Argentina (B) Brazil (C) Columbia (D) Peru
74. At the onset of the S-W Monsoon:
(A) ITCZ shifts north of equator (B) ITCZ shifts south of equator
(C) ITCZ disappears (D) ITCZ remains stationary
75. The cold current flowing along the coast of Chile and Peru is known as
(A) Agulhas (B) EL-Nino (C) Humboldt (D) Canary
x-x-x
 Masters in Disaster Management
1. In which state of India is Tatipaka oil refinery located?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Maharashtra (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Odisha
2. In which year was Disaster Management Act passed by Government of India?
(A) 2001 (B) 2005 (C) 2010 (D) 2014
3. What is Atal Setu?
(A) Longest Tunnel (B) Longest sea Bridge in India
(C) Train (D) Road
4. Sendai Framework for Disaster Risk Reduction is for the period?
(A) 2015-2030 (B) 2020-2030 (C) 2020-2040 (D) 2010-2030
5. Gaza strip has coastline with
(A) Persian Gulf (B) Red Sea (C) Mediterranean sea (D) Black Sea
6. Tropic of Capricorn is in ________Hemisphere.
(A) Northern (B) Southern (C) Eastern (D) Western
7. If you are in Garo hills, you are in which state?
(A) West Bengal (B) Nagaland (C) Tripura (D) Meghalaya
8. Bermuda is a high pressure cell in
(A) North Atlantic (B) North Pacific (C) Indian Ocean (D) Arabian Sea
9. The word monsoon is derived from
(A) Persian (B) Arabic (C) Greek (D) Latin
10. Which of the following states has the longest coast line?
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala (C) Gujarat (D) Maharashtra
11. Gulf stream is a
(A) River (B) Warm Current (C) Cold current (D) Under current
12. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
(A) Katni : Madhya Pradesh (B) Khetri : Rajasthan
(C) Digboi : Assam (D) Koyali : Maharashtra
13. Eiffel tower is in
(A) France (B) Canada (C) Hungary (D) Poland
14. Which of the following is a non ferrous mineral?
(A) Iron ore (B) Manganese (C) Bauxite (D) Magnetite
15. Which of the following is a QUAD country?
(A) Iran (B) UK (C) Korea (D) Australia
16. Chabahar seaport is in
(A) Pakistan (B) Iran (C) India (D) Saudi Arabia
17. Which of the following nuclear power plants is incorrectly matched?
(A) Tarapur: Maharashtra (B) Rawatbhata: Rajasthan
(C) Kalpakkam: Tamil Badu (D) Narora: Gujarat
18. Manikaran in Himachal Pradesh has?
(A) Wind energy plant (B) Solar energy plant
(C) Geothermal energy plant (D) Ethanol energy plant
19. If you are going from Karaikal to Pondicherry, you are going towards
(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South
20. As per 2011 census, which of the following has the lowest density?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Mizoram
(C) Nagaland (D) Manipur
21. Where was the lowest per cent of Hindu population recorded in 2011 census?
(A) Nagaland (B) Mizoram (C) Meghalaya (D) Manipur
22. In the orographic precipitation, one of the following physical features plays the
dominant role:
(A) Ocean (B) Mountain (C) River (D) Desert
23. National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) is located in?
(A) New Delhi (B) Bhopal (C) Chandigarh (D) Ahmadabad
24. The point of the earth’s surface directly above the point where an earthquake occurs is
called the
(A) Focus (B) Fault (C) Geo-centre (D) Epicenter
25. Which of the following seismic waves produces rolling effect along the surface of the
earth?
(A) P (B) S (C) L (D) Rayleigh
26. Which of the following places is incorrectly matched?
(A) Dewas Gujarat
(B) Ganjam Odisha
(C) Ujjain Madhya Pradesh
(D) Badrinath Uttarakhand
27. The Chernobyl disaster of 1986 in Ukraine was a case of
(A) Epidemic (B) Pandemic (C) Nuclear Disaster (D) Natural Disaster
28. Biparjoy cyclone hit the coastal areas of
(A) Odisha (B) Kerala (C) Karnataka (D) Gujarat
29. India’s Aditya L1 mission is to study
(A) Moon (B) Sun (C) Mars (D) Earth
30. Find the median value of the following numbers:
31, 12, 45, 7, 57, 21, 23
(A) 12 (B) 21 (C) 23 (D) 45
31. Rickets is caused due to deficiency of
(A) Vitamin D (B) Vitamin A (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin E
32. Which among the following rivers is not part of Sapta Sindhu?
(A) Jhelum (B) Indus (C) Ravi (D) Ganga
33. Ornithologists deal with
(A) Plants (B) Birds (C) Fishes (D) Insects
34. Where is Ekta Nagar?
(A) Gujarat (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Jharkhand (D) Bihar
35. Which of the following is an antecedent river?
(A) Ganga (B) Yamuna (C) Indus (D) Krishna
36. COP 29 will be held in November 2024 in
(A) Japan (B) Azerbaijan (C) USA (D) UAE
37. Identify the left bank tributary of Yamuna?
(A) Betwa (B) Chambal (C) Ken (D) Hindon
38. Satish Dhawan Space Centre is located at
(A) Thumba (B) Hasan (C) Tombay (D) Sriharikota
39. At what temperature does Fahrenheit equal Celsius?
(A) -40 degree F (B) 32 degree F (C) 0 degree F (D) 45 degree F
40. The point where the moon lander of Chandryaan 3 touched down was named as
(A) Shiv Vihar (B) Shakti (C) Shiv Shakti (D) Mahadev
41. On a map with R F 1: 50,000, the map distance of 4cm is equal to ground distance of
(A) 1 km (B) 2km (C) 3 km (D) 4 km
42. Indian standard time uses the longitude _______ for time.
(A) 82°30'E (B) 82°30'W (C) 82°30'N (D) 82°30'S
43. Pandit Deen Dayal Upadhyaya is the new name of
(A) Nizamabad (B) Mughalsarai (C) Hoshangabad (D) Daultabad
44. Which one of the following is also called Great circle?
(A) Tropic of cancer (B) Tropic of Capricorn
(C) Equator (D) Arctic Circle
45. Bharat Madapam is located in
(A) Bhopal (B) Lucknow (C) Hyderabad (D) New Delhi
46. The mean of five numbers is 40. If one of the five numbers was 25 and it is changed to
35, what is the new mean?
(A) 41 (B) 42 (C) 43 (D) 44
47. Which of the following is the largest ocean?
(A) Pacific (B) Atlantic (C) India (C) Antarctica
48. Where are Houthis attacking ships?
(A) Persian Gulf (B) Red Sea (C) Baltic sea (D) China sea
49. Which of the following is a vestigial organ?
(A) Kidney (B) Nipples on males (C) Pancreas (D) Lever
50. Which of the following is a strait?
(A) Panama (B) Kra (C) Palk (D) Karelian
51. Which of the following is a weather monitoring satellite of India?
(A) Landsat (B) Cartosat (C) Resourcesat (D) INSAT 3D
52. Which one of the following is a satellite based global navigation system of European
Union?
(A) Navstar GPS (B) Beidou (C) GLONASS (D) Galileo
53. Which of the following rivers does not form Delta?
(A) Narmada (B) Ganga (C) Mahanadi (D) Krishna
54. In which year was article 370 abrogated?
(A) 2014 (B) 2015 (C) 2018 (D) 2019
55. Which one of the following is the hardest mineral?
(A) Gypsum (B) Diamond (C) Topaz (D) Quartz
56. Which one is the example of sedimentary rock?
(A) Granite (B) Basalt (C) Sandstone (D) Gabbro
57. The Kumbh mela is held at the same site after
(A) 4 years (B) 12 years (C) 15 years (D) 20 years
58. The Amini Island and the Canannore Island are divided by
(A) 8 dgeree channel (B) 9 degree channel
(C) 10 degree channel (D) 11 degree channel
59. Which one is a west flowing river?
(A) Mahi (B) Subarnrekha (C) Penner (D) Brahmni
60. In India, the National Emergency Contact Number is
(A) 1077 (B) 111 (C) 911 (D) 112
61. The longest duration of day in the northern hemisphere is on
(A) March 21 (B) June 21 (C) Sept 23 (D) Dec 22
62. Which one of the following rivers was once called Sorrow of Bengal?
(A) Son (B) Kosi (C) Damodar (D) Mahanadi
63. Isobars indicate
(A) Atmospheric pressure (B) Temperature
(C) SPM (D) Humidity
64. ITCZ is?
(A) Low pressure zone at equator (B) High pressure zone at equator
(C) Low pressure zone at pole (D) High pressure zone at pole
65. Which of the following is a satellite based regional navigation system of India?
(A) Transit NNSS (B) IRNSS (C) GPS (D) QZSS
66. Prime meridian passes through
(A) France (B) Germany (C) UK (D) USA
67. Where is the Headquarters of Survey of India located?
(A) Delhi (B) Varanasi (C) Dehradun (D) Hyderabad
68. A circular feature with a radius of 14 m has an area of
(A) 600 sq m (B) 616 sq m (C) 640 sq m (D) 680 sq m
69. After season Hemanta, follows
(A) Shishira (B) Vasanta (C) Sharada (D) Varsha
70. Calculate the range of the following numbers
9, 45, 25, 4, 65, 45
(A) 60 (B) 61 (C) 62 (D) 63
71. SIM stands for
(A) Subscriber Identity Module (B) Standard Indentify Mark
(C) Specific Information Machine (D) Subscriber Information manual
72. Which planet is closest to sun?
(A) Mercury (B) Venus (C) Earth (D) Mars
73. Lunar eclipse is a condition when
(A) Moon comes between earth and sun (B) Earth comes between moon and sun
(C) Sun comes between moon and earth (D) Rahu and Ketu come on earth
74. Leap year is after every
(A) 2 years (B) 4 years (C) 6 years (D) 8 years
75. Which constitutional amendment act is called Women’s Reservation Act 2023?
(A) 102 (B) 104 (C) 106 (D) 108
x-x-x
 M.Com.(Business Economics)
1. Which of the following best describes the opportunity cost?
(A) The cost of producing one additional unit of a good
(B) The value of the next best alternative forgone when a decision is made
(C) The total cost of production including fixed and variable costs
(D) The cost of raw materials and labor used in production
2. In a perfectly competitive market, firms are price takers because:
(A) They have market power to influence prices
(B) There are no barriers to entry or exit
(C) They produce differentiated products
(D) They face downward-sloping demand curves
3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a monopolistic competition market?
(A) Many sellers and buyers (B) Product differentiation
(C) Perfect information (D) Ease of entry and exit
4. The law of diminishing marginal returns states that:
(A)As more units of a variable input are added, total output increases at a decreasing
rate
(B) As more units of a variable input are added, total output decreases at an increasing rate
(C) As more units of a variable input are added, total output increases at a constant
rate
(D) As more units of a variable input are added, total output remains constant
5. In a market characterized by oligopoly, firms typically engage in:
(A) Price competition (B) Quantity competition
(C) Non-price competition (D) Collusive pricing
6. Which of the following is a measure of a firm's liquidity?
(A) Debt-to-equity ratio (B) Current ratio
(C) Return on investment (D) Price-to-earnings ratio
7. The consumer surplus is the difference between:
(A) The price consumers are willing to pay and the price they actually pay
(B) The total revenue of the firm and the total cost of production
(C) Marginal cost and average variable cost
(D) Total utility and marginal utility
8. In the long run, a firm in a perfectly competitive market will:
(A) Operate at the minimum point of its average total cost curve
(B) Earn economic profits
(C) Produce where marginal revenue equals marginal cost
(D) Shut down if it incurs losses greater than its fixed costs
9. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of price elasticity of demand?
(A) Availability of substitutes (B) Proportion of income spent on the good
(C) Time horizon (D) Total revenue earned by the firm
10. A production possibility frontier (PPF) illustrates:
(A) The maximum combination of goods that can be produced given available
resources and technology
 (B) The relationship between price and quantity demanded
(C) The relationship between price and quantity supplied
(D) The opportunity cost of production
11. An increase in supply combined with a decrease in demand will lead to:
(A) A decrease in equilibrium price and quantity
(B) An increase in equilibrium price and quantity
(C) A decrease in equilibrium price and an increase in equilibrium quantity
(D) An increase in equilibrium price and a decrease in equilibrium quantity
12. The goal of revenue maximization occurs when:
(A) Marginal revenue equals zero
(B) Marginal revenue equals marginal cost
(C) Average revenue equals marginal cost
(D) Total revenue is maximized
13. The multiplier effect refers to:
(A) The increase in consumer spending resulting from an initial increase in
investment
(B) The decrease in consumer spending resulting from an initial increase in
investment
(C) The decrease in investment resulting from an initial increase in consumer
spending
(D) The increase in investment resulting from an initial decrease in consumer
spending
14. The term "price ceiling" refers to:
(A) A legal maximum price set by the government
(B) A legal minimum price set by the government
(C) The equilibrium price in a perfectly competitive market
(D) The price level at which demand equals supply
15. In monopolistic competition, firms:
(A) Produce homogeneous products
(B) Face downward-sloping demand curves
(C) Earn economic profits in the long run
(D) Are price takers
16. If the cross-price elasticity of demand between two goods is negative, then the goods
are:
(A) Substitutes (B) Complements
(C) Normal goods (D) Inferior goods
17. A firm's marginal cost curve intersects the average total cost curve at the minimum
point
of the ATC curve when:
(A) Marginal cost equals zero (B) Marginal cost is rising
(C) Marginal cost is falling (D) Marginal cost equals average variable cost
18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a public good?
(A) Non-excludability
(B) Non-rivalry in consumption
(C) Excludability
(D) Difficulty of providing to one person without providing it to others
19. In the short run, a perfectly competitive firm will shut down if price is:
(A) Less than average total cost (B) Less than average variable cost
(C) Greater than marginal cost (D) Equal to average variable cost
20. The Herfindahl-Hirschman Index (HHI) is a measure of:
(A) Market concentration (B) Market elasticity
(C) Market equilibrium (D) Market inefficiency
21. Which of the following is a characteristic of a perfectly competitive market?
(A) Product differentiation (B) Many buyers and few sellers
(C) Barriers to entry (D) Price-setting power for individual firms
22. When marginal cost is less than average total cost, average total cost is:
(A) Increasing (B) Decreasing
(C) At its minimum point (D) Equal to marginal cost
23. The difference between explicit and implicit costs is that:
(A) Explicit costs involve monetary payments while implicit costs do not
(B) Explicit costs are incurred in the short run while implicit costs are incurred in
the long run
(C) Explicit costs are fixed while implicit costs are variable
(D) Explicit costs are opportunity costs while implicit costs are accounting costs
24. If a firm is experiencing economies of scale, its long-run average total cost curve will
be:
(A) U-shaped (B) Downward-sloping
(C) Upward-sloping (D) Constant
25. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a monopolist?
(A) Price-setting power (B) Barriers to entry
(C) A downward-sloping demand curve (D) Many close substitutes
26. The concept of "ceteris paribus" means:
(A) All other factors held constant (B) All factors changing simultaneously
(C) Only one factor changing at a time (D) None of these
27. A firm's short-run supply curve is equal to:
(A) Its marginal cost curve above the average variable cost curve
(B) Its marginal cost curve above the average total cost curve
(C) Its marginal cost curve above the average fixed cost curve
(D) Its average variable cost curve
28. The price elasticity of demand measures the:
(A) Responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in price
(B) Responsiveness of price to a change in quantity demanded
(C) Change in quantity demanded resulting from a change in income
(D) Change in demand resulting from a change in price

29. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of supply?

(A) Technology (B) Taxes and subsidies
(C) Consumer preferences (D) Input prices
30. Perfect price discrimination occurs when:
(A) Firms charge different prices for the same good based on the consumer's
willingness to pay
 (B) Firms charge a single price for the same good regardless of the consumer's
willingness to pay
(C) Firms charge different prices for different goods
(D) Firms charge the same price for the same good in all markets
31. In which market structure is there a mutual interdependence among firms?
(A) Perfect competition (B) Monopolistic competition
(C) Oligopoly (D) Monopoly
32. When a government imposes a tax on a good, it leads to:
(A) An increase in consumer surplus (B) A decrease in producer surplus
(C) A decrease in deadweight loss (D) An increase in equilibrium quantity
33. Which of the following is NOT a factor of production?
(A) Land (B) Money (C) Labor (D) Capital
34. A decrease in consumer income will lead to a(n):
(A) Increase in demand for inferior goods (B) Increase in demand for normal goods
(C) Decrease in demand for inferior goods (D) Decrease in demand for normal goods
35. Which of the following is a characteristic of a natural monopoly?
(A) Many firms producing identical products
(B) High fixed costs and low marginal costs
(C) Easy entry and exit of firms
(D) Differentiated products
36. A production function shows the relationship between:
(A) Total cost and total output (B) Total product and total cost
(C) Total product and variable input (D) Variable input and fixed input
37. The price elasticity of demand is generally:
(A) Negative (B) Positive (C) Zero (D) Greater than one
38. If a firm in a perfectly competitive market is earning economic profits in the short run,
what will happen in the long run?
(A) New firms will enter the market, driving down profits
(B) Existing firms will exit the market, driving up profits
(C) The firm will increase production to maximize profits
(D) The firm will continue to earn economic profits indefinitely
39. Which of the following is a characteristic of a command economy?
(A) Private ownership of resources
(B) Centralized decision-making by the government
(C) Free market allocation of resources
(D) Competition among firms
40. The law of demand states that:
(A) As price increases, quantity demanded decreases
(B) As price increases, quantity demanded increases
(C) As quantity demanded increases, price increases
(D) As quantity demanded decreases, price decreases
41. What is the total revenue if a firm sells 100 units of a product at a price of Rs.10 each?
(A) Rs.100 (B) Rs.1,000 (C) Rs.10 (D) Rs.1,000,000
42. If a company's total cost is Rs.500 and it produces 50 units, what is the average cost per
unit?
(A) Rs.10 (B) Rs.50 (C) Rs.500 (D) Rs.5
43. A firm's fixed costs are Rs.1,000, its variable costs are Rs.500, and it produces 100
units. What are its total costs?
(A) Rs.1,500 (B) Rs.50 (C) Rs.500 (D) Rs.10,000
44. If the price elasticity of demand for a product is -2, and the price increases by 10%,
what will happen to quantity demanded?
(A) It will decrease by 5% (B) It will decrease by 20%
(C) It will increase by 5% (D) It will increase by 20%
45. A company has an initial investment of Rs.10,000 and generates Rs.2,000 in profit per
year. What is the payback period?
(A) 5 years (B) 10 years (C) 2 years (D) 15 years
46. If a firm's total revenue is Rs.1,000 and its total cost is Rs.800, what is its profit?
(A) Rs.1,800 (B) Rs.200 (C) Rs.1,000 (D) Rs.800
47. The demand function for a product is Q=100-2P. If the price is Rs.20, what is the
quantity demanded?
(A) 40 units (B) 60 units (C) 20 units (D) 80 units
48. If a company's fixed costs are Rs.500 and its variable costs are Rs.10 per unit, how
many units does it need to sell to break even if the selling price is Rs.15 per unit?
(A) 25 units (B) 50 units (C) 100 units (D) 75 units
49. A firm's total variable cost is Rs.400 and it produces 50 units. What is the average
variable cost per unit?
(A) Rs.8 (B) Rs.40 (C) Rs.4 (D) Rs.400
50. If a company's marginal cost is Rs.20 and its average variable cost is Rs.15, what is its
average total cost?
(A) Rs.5 (B) Rs.15 (C) Rs.20 (D) Rs.35
51. The total utility obtained from consuming 5 units of a good is 100 unit. What is the
marginal utility of the 5th unit?
(A) 100 unit (B) 25 unit (C) 20 unit (D) 0 unit
52. A firm's total fixed costs are Rs.1,000, its total variable costs are Rs.500, and it produces
100 units. What is its average fixed cost?
(A) Rs.10 (B) Rs.5 (C) Rs.1,500 (D) Rs.15
53. The price elasticity of demand for a product is -0.5. If the price increases by 10%, what
will happen to total revenue?
(A) It will increase (B) It will decrease
(C) It will remain the same (D) It cannot be determined
54. If a company's revenue is Rs.1,000 and its variable costs are Rs.400, what is its
contribution margin?
 (A) Rs.600 (B) Rs.400 (C) Rs.1,000 (D) Rs.1,400
55. A company sells a product for Rs.20 each. If its variable cost per unit is Rs.10 and fixed
costs are Rs.500, how many units must it sell to earn a profit of Rs.1,000?
(A) 100 units (B) 150 units (C) 200 units (D) 250 units
56. If a firm's total revenue is Rs.1,000 and its total variable cost is Rs.600, what is its total
contribution margin?
(A) Rs.400 (B) Rs.600 (C) Rs.1,000 (D) Rs.1,600
57. The demand function for a product is Q=200-3P. If the price is Rs.30, what is the
quantity demanded?
(A) 40 units (B) 60 units (C) 70 units (D) 80 units
58. A firm produces 200 units at a total cost of Rs.1,000. What is its average cost per unit?
(A) Rs.5 (B) Rs.10 (C) Rs.15 (D) Rs.20
59. If a company's revenue is Rs.2,000 and its total costs are Rs.1,500, what is its profit
margin?
(A) 25% (B) 33.3% (C) 50% (D) 75%
60. The demand function for a product is Q = 500 - 2P. If the price is Rs.50, what is the
quantity demanded?
(A) 200 units (B) 250 units (C) 300 units (D) 400 units
61. If a company's fixed costs are Rs.1,000 and its average variable cost is Rs.5 per unit,
how many units does it need to sell to break even if the selling price is Rs.10 per unit?
(A) 100 units (B) 200 units (C) 300 units (D) 400 units
62. A firm's total revenue is Rs.2,000 and its total variable cost is Rs.1,500. What is its
contribution margin ratio?
(A) 25% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 75%
63. The elasticity of demand for a product is -1.5. If the price increases by 10%, what will
happen to quantity demanded?
(A) It will decrease by 10% (B) It will decrease by 15%
(C) It will increase by 10% (D) It will increase by 15%
64. A firm's total revenue is Rs.5,000 and its total cost is Rs.4,000. What is its profit?
(A) Rs.1,000 (B) Rs.5,000 (C) Rs.9,000 (D) Rs.4,000

65. If a company's variable costs are Rs.300 and its total costs are Rs.600, what is its
average fixed cost?
(A) Rs.300 (B) Rs.600 (C) Rs.150 (D) Rs.900

66. The demand function for a product is Q = 100 - P. If the price is Rs.20, what is the
quantity demanded?
(A) 80 units (B) 60 units (C) 40 units (D) 20 units

67. A firm produces 500 units at a total cost of Rs.2,500. What is its average cost per unit?
(A) Rs. 2.50 (B) Rs. 5 (C) Rs. 7.50 (D) Rs. 10
68. If a company's revenue is Rs.3,000 and its variable costs are Rs.1,000, what is its
contribution margin ratio?
(A) 33.3% (B) 66.7% (C) 75% (D) 25%

69. The elasticity of demand for a product is -0.8. If the price decreases by 20%, what will
happen to quantity demanded?
(A) It will decrease by 20% (B) It will decrease by 16%
(C) It will increase by 20% (D) It will increase by 16%

70. A firm's total revenue is Rs.10,000 and its total variable cost is Rs.7,000. What is its
contribution margin?
(A) Rs.3,000 (B) Rs.10,000 (C) Rs.17,000 (D) Rs.7,000

71. The demand function for a product is Q = 300 - 2P. If the price is Rs.40, what is the
quantity demanded?
(A) 40 units (B) 50 units (C) 60 units (D) 70 units

72. A firm produces 400 units at a total cost of Rs.3,000. What is its average variable cost
per unit?
(A) Rs.3 (B) Rs.5 (C) Rs.7.50 (D) Rs.10

73. If a company's revenue is Rs.4,000 and its total costs are Rs.3,500, what is its profit
margin?
(A) 12.5% (B) 20% (C) 14.3% (D) 87.5%

74. A firm's total revenue is Rs.6,000 and its total cost is Rs.4,000. What is its profit
margin?
(A) 50% (B) 100% (C) 150% (D) 200%

75. If a company's fixed costs are Rs.800 and its average variable cost is Rs.6 per unit, how
many units does it need to sell to break even if the selling price is Rs.10 per unit?
(A) 100 units (B) 150 units (C) 200 units (D) 250 units
x-x-x
 M.Com. (Master of Entrepreneurship and Family Business)
1. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The President
(C) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(D) The Parliament
2. How many Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 8 (D) 6
3. When was the National Emblem of India adopted?
(A) 26th January 1947 (B) 15th August 1947
th
(C) 25 February 1950 (D) 26th January 1950

4. The term of office for a member of the Rajya Sabha is

(A) 3 years (B) 5 years (C) 6 years (D) 7 years
5. Severe deficiency of Vitamin D results in __________.
(A) Scurvy (B) Rickets (C) Night blindness (D) Anaemia
6. Radioactivity was discovered by __________?
(A) Kelvin (B) Thomson (C) Rutherford (D) Bacquerel
7. CNG stands for?
(A) Converted Natural Gas (B) Conduced Natural Gas
(C) Conducted Natural Gas (D) Compressed Natural Gas

8. GPS is an abbreviation for?

(A) Global Poles System (B) Global Poly Siliconium Store
(C) Global Positioning System (D) Global Position Structure
9. Person with following blood group are considered to be universal recipient?
(A) A+ (B) B+ (C) AB+ (D) O+
10. In India, the Foreign Exchange Reserves are kept in the custody of which among the
following?
(A) Ministry of Finance (B) EXIM bank
(C) Reserve Bank of India (D) Selected Public Sector Banks
11. Which is the largest Wheat producing state?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Punjab (D) Haryana
12. Debenture holders of a company are its
(A) Shareholders (B) Creditors (C) Debtors (D) Directors
13. Out of all the 2-digit integers between 1 and 100, a 2-digit number has to be selected at
random. What is the probability that the selected number is not divisible by 7?
(A) 13/90 (B) 12/90 (C) 78/90 (D) 77/90
14. Complete the given series by finding the missing term 28, 33, 31, ?, 34, 39
(A) 34 (B) 35 (C) 36 (D) 37
15. Who was the first Indian to win the Nobel Prize in Literature?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(C) C V Raman (D) R. K. Narayan
16. Today is Varun's birthday. One year, from today he will be twice as old as he was 12
years ago. How old is Varun today?
(A) 20 years (B) 22 years (C) 25 years (D) 27 years
17. X is 3 years older to Y and 3 years younger to Z, while Y and P are twins. How many
years older is Z to P?
(A) 9 (B) 3 (C) 6 (D) 12
18. The total number of digits used in numbering the pages of a book having 366 pages is
(A) 732 (B) 990 (C) 1098 (D) 1305
19. Ayush was born two years after his father's marriage. His mother is five years younger
than his father but 20 years older than Ayush who is 10 years old. At what age did the father
get married?
(A) 23 years (B) 25 years (C) 33 years (D) 35 years
20. Find the HCF of 54, 288, 360
(A) 18 (B) 36 (C) 54 (D) 108
21. Excise duty is a tax levied on the
(A) Import of goods (B) Export of goods
(C) Production of goods (D) Use of Trade Mark and Patents
22. Which kind of power accounts for the largest share of power generation in India
(A) Hydro - electricity (B) Thermal
(C) Nuclear (D) Solar
23. Which among the following oil has largest share among India’s oil imports?
(A) Coconut Oil (B) Palm Oil (C) Mustard Oil (D) Sunflower Oil
24. Who wrote the book “Pride and Prejudice”?
(A) Jane Austen (B) Mark Twain
(C) Charles Dickens (D) Emily Bronte
25. Where are the headquarters of SBI located?
(A) New Delhi (B) Bangalore (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai
26. Who is known for inventing the light bulb?
(A) Thomas Edison (B) Isaac Newton
(C) Albert Einstein (D) Galileo Galilei
27. Who is the father of the White Revolution in India?
(A) Dr M.S.Swaminathan (B) Dr Verghese Kurien
(C) Dr R.S.Sodhi (D) Dr S. S. Johl
28. Who is the founder of LinkedIn?
(A) Reid Hoffman (B) Larry Page
(C) Elon Musk (D) Mark Zuckerberg
29. Which brand is known for its iconic “Just Do It” slogan?
(A) Adidas (B) Reebok (C) Puma (D) Nike
30. Who is the founder of Amazon?
(A) Mark Zuckerberg (B) Larry Page
(C) Elon Musk (D) Jeff Bezos
31. A number is increased by 20% twice and then decreased by 20%. Find the Percentage
change.
(A) 14.2% increased (B) 14.2% decreased
 (C) 15.2% increased (D) 15.2% decreased
32. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 25%. Find the percentage
change.
(A) 10% increase (B) 10% decrease (C) 20% increase (D) 20% decrease

33. Two friends Ram and Shyam started a company with Rs 20000 and Rs 30000,
respectively with profit to be shared in ratio of investments. If there was a profit of 12995
rupees at the end of the year, find the average monthly profit of Ram.
(A) 649.75 rupees (B) 1082.91 rupees (C) 431.16 rupees (D) 491.8 rupees
34. Anil and Harminder are partners in a firm. If they invest in the ratio 8 : 9 monthly and
Anil has invested 5000 per month, find the investment of Harminder after 5 years.
(A) 337000 rupees (B) 337500 rupees (C) 338000 rupees (D) 338500 rupees
35. 32 men can do a piece of work in 45 days. Find the amount of work done by 40 men in
20 days.
(A) 55.55% (B) 66.66% (C) 72.72% (D) 77.77%
36. A mixture contains milk and water in a ratio 5 : 9. When 5 liters of water is added the
ratio changes to 5 : 11. Find the quantity of milk in the initial mixture.
(A) 11 liters (B) 11.5 liters (C) 12 liters (D) 12.5 liters
37. If the seller sells half of his goods at 20% loss and the rest of his goods at 50% profit,
find the profit percentage on the entire transaction.
(A) 12% profit (B) 15% profit (C) 20% profit (D) 25% profit
38. A share is marked 40% more than its nominal value. If the selling price of the share is
63 rupees, find the nominal price of the share.
(A) 45 rupees (B) 48 rupees (C) 50 rupees (D) 52 rupees
39. The speed of two boats is 50 kmph and 45 kmph. Find the distance travelled by the
second boat while the time the first boat covers 125 km.
(A) 125 km (B) 112.5 km (C) 102.5 km (D) 87.5 km
40. Two cyclists start together to travel to a certain destination, one at the rate of 4 kmph
and the other at the rate of 5 kmph. Find the distance if the former arrives half an hour after the
latter.
(A) 2 km (B) 10m (C) 10000m (D) 1 km
41. The ratio between two numbers is 2:11. If the difference between the numbers is 81
find the smaller number.
(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 16 (D) 18
42. Rakesh walks to a town at 3.5 kmph, rest there for 45 minutes and ride back at 7.5
kmph. Find the distance to the town, if the total time spent by him is 6 hrs 37 min.
(A) 14 km (B) 7km (C) 5 km (D) 8 km
43. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have walked 20 km more.
The actual distance travelled by him is:
(A) 50 km (B) 56 km (C) 70 km (D) 80 km
44. A man reaches his office 30 min late, if he walks from his home at 3 km per hour and
reaches 40 min early if he walks at 4 km per hour. How far is his office from his house?
(A) 7 km (B) 14 km (C) 5 km (D) 3 km
45. The ratio between the speeds of two trains is 7 : 8. If the second train runs 400 km in 4
hours, then the speed of the first train is:
(A) 70 km/hr (B) 75 km/hr (C) 84 km/hr (D) 87.5 km/hr
46. In a certain code “SAND” is written as “UCPF”. How is “STONE” is written in that
code?
(A) SRLFE (B) UNSOP (C) UVQPG (D) UDLPQ
47. In a certain code “ENTER” is written as “FPWIW”. How is “SHIFT” written in that
code?
(A) SRLFE (B) JDKAL (C) UDQKA (D) TJLJY

48. In the India-Australia one-day match, due to rain, India needed 324 runs in 48 overs to
win. In initial 10 overs, the average scoring rate was 6, but in next 10 overs it increased to 8.5.
It then declined to 5.5 in next 10 overs and again rose to 7 in next 10 overs. To win the match
now what average is needed?
(A) 8.25 (B) 6.75 (C) 7.75 (D) 7.0
49. Knowing that Varinder’s expenditure for first 3 days is Rs. 100, Rs. 125 and Rs. 85,
what is his 4th day expenditure as his 4 days average expenditure Rs. 90?
(A) Rs. 220 (B) Rs. 60 (C) Rs. 50 (D) Rs. 90
50. A milkman had water and milk mixture in a can with water to milk ratio 5:7. He
accidently spills 9 liters of the mixture. He then fills the can with water equal in quantity to
spilled mixture. This makes the water to milk ratio 9:7. How much milk did the can initially
have?
(A) 21 liters (B) 24 liters (C) 16 liters (D) 20 liters
51. If Reena says, “Anjali's father Raman is the only son of my father-in-law Ramanand”,
then how is Piyu, who is the sister of Anjali, related to Ramanand?
(A) Wife (B) Sister (C) Grand-daughter (D) Daughter
52. Price of each article of type P, Q, and R is Rs. 300, Rs. 180 and Rs. 120 respectively.
Suresh buys articles of each type in the ratio 3:2:3 in Rs. 6480. How many articles of
type Q did he purchase?
(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 12 (D) 14
53. Select the antonym of “to pilfer”
(A) to castigate (B) to bestow (C) to filch (D) to purloin
54. Select the synonym of “Improvident”
(A) provident (B) extravagant (C) miserly (D) thrifty

55. Select the antonym of “Veracity”

(A) deceit (B) candor (C) probity (D) honor
56. Select the antonym of “Vibrant”
(A) drab (B) gaudy (C) jazzy (D) vivid
57. Rehana drives 6 km west from her home and turns left and drives 3 km and then turns
left again and drives 10 km. What is the shortest distance between her home and office?
(A) 4 km (B) 5 km (C) 9 km (D) 10 km
58. Introducing Rukmani, Vijay said, “She is the mother of the son of only brother of my
wife.” What is the relation of Rukmani’s husband with Vijay?
 (A) Brother-in-law (B) Father
(C) Father-in-law (D) Son
59. Six employees L, N, P, R, T and V are sitting around circular table facing towards centre
(not necessarily in the same order), V is second to the left of N. L is to the immediate
left of P. R is second to the left of P. P is third to the right of N. Who is sitting immediately
right of V?
(A) R (B) N (C) P (D) T
60. In a code language, EXPLAIN is written as XEALPNI. How will FACTORY be written
in that language?
(A) AFTCROY (B) CAFOTYR (C) AFOTCYR (D) AFTOCYR
61. Read the statements:
(i) All women are entrepreneurs. Some women are doctors.
Which of the following conclusions can be logically inferred from the above statements?
(A) All women are doctors (B) All doctors are entrepreneurs
(C) All entrepreneurs are women (D) Some entrepreneurs are doctors
62. The statistics of runs scored in a series by four batsmen are provided in the following
table.
Who is the most consistent batsman of these four?
Batsman Average Standard deviation
K 31.2 5.21
L 46.0 6.35
N 54.4 6.22
M 17.9 5.90
(A) K (B) L (C) M (D) N
63. Choose the most appropriate word from the options given below to complete the
following sentence.
Many ancient cultures attributed disease to supernatural causes. However, modern
science has largely helped ______ such notions.
(A) impel (B) dispel (C) propel (D) repel
64. Five team have to compete in a league, with every team playing every other team exactly
once, before going to the next round. How many matches will have to be held to
complete the league round of matches?
(A) 20 (B) 10 (C) 8 (D) 5
65. If the population of males below the poverty line for State Q is 2.4 million and that for
State is 6 million, then the total populations of states Q and T are in the ratio:
(A) 1:3 (B) 2:5 (C) 3:7 (D) 4:9
66. "In spite of being warned repeatedly, he failed to correct his______ behaviour." The
word that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) rational (B) reasonable (C) errant (D) good
67. An automobile travels from city A to city B and returns by the same route. The speed
of the vehicle during the onward and return journeys was constant at 60 km/h and 90 km/h.
respectively. What is the average speed in km/h for the entire journey?
 (A) 72 (B) 73 (C) 74 (D) 75
68. Fill in the blank with the correct idiom/phrase.
That boy from the town was a _______ in the sleepy village.
(A) dog out of herd (B) sheep from the heap
(C) fish out of water (D) bird from the flock
69. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out of the four options given below, to complete
the following sentence.
Apparent lifelessness _______ dormant life
(A) harbours (B) leads to (C) supports (D) affects
70. Tanya is older than Eric.
i) Cliff is older than Tanya.
ii) Eric is older than Cliff.
iii) If the first two statements are true, then the third statement is:
(A) True (B) False (C) Uncertain (D) Data insufficient
71. HTML in computer science stands for?
(A) HyperText Markup Language (B) HyperText Main Language
(C) HyperText Memory Language (D) HyperText Mandatory Language
72. Who wrote the book -“The Argumentative Indian”?
(A) Amartya Sen (B) Anita Desai (C) Arun Shourie (D) Arundhati Roy

For questions 73-75:

The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure
incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart and the answer the questions based
on it. Various Expenditures (in percentage) Incurred in Publishing a Book

73. If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost,
then what will be amount of royalty to be paid for these books?
(A) Rs. 19,450 (B) Rs. 21,200 (C) Rs. 22,950 (D) Rs. 26,150
74. The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is
Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the paper used in a single copy of the book?
(A) Rs. 36 (B) Rs. 37.50 (C) Rs. 42 (D) Rs. 44.25
75. If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to Rs. 82500,
then what should be the selling price of the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%?
(A) Rs. 187.50 (B) Rs. 191.50 (C) Rs. 175 (D) Rs. 180
x-x-x
 M.Com.(Honours)
1. What will be the current classification for ‘goodwill’ and ‘bill discounted but not
matured’, respectively?
(A) Intangible asset; current liability (B) Tangible asset; current liability
(C) Tangible asset; contingent liability (D) Intangible asset; contingent liability
2. A system in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amounts having become
due for payment or receipt is called
(A) Cash Concept (B) Accrual Concept
(C) Matching Concept (D) On-going Concept
3. Which of the following accounting equations is not correct?
(A) Assets - Liabilities = Equity (B) Assets - Equity = Liability
(C) Asset + Liability = Equity (D) Liability + Equity = Assets
4. Any written evidence in support of a business transaction is called
(A) Journal (B) Ledger (C) Ledger posting (D) Voucher
5. Which of the following practices is not in consonance with the convention of
conservatism?
(A) Creating provision for bad debts
(B) Creating provision for discount on creditors
(C) Creating provision for discount on debtors
(D) Creating provision for tax
6. Match the following.
LIST-1 LIST-II
A Capital is the difference between 1 Cost of goods sold from sales
B Gross profit is ascertained by 2 To find out cost of production
deducting
C Wages paid for erecting machines are 3 Assets and liabilities
D The manufacturing account is 4 Debited to machinery account
prepared
A B C D
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
7. What type of account is revaluation account?
(A) Personal account (B) Nominal account
(C) Real account (D) Representative Personal account
8. Which of the following are methods of calculating goodwill?
1. Average profit method
2. Super profit method
3. Log method
4. Sum of years digit method
5. Capitalisation of average profit method
6. Capitalisation of super profit method
7. FIFO method
 (A) 1, 2, 5 and 6 (B) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (C) 1, 2, 4 and 6 (D) 1, 2, 6 and 7
9. A and B are partners in a firm sharing profit and loss in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit C
into partnership for ¼th share and the new ratio 4 between A and B is 2:1. The sacrificing ratio
is
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 3:1 (D) 2:3
10. Read the following statements.
1. Financial statements are only interim reports.
2. Financial statements are prepared on the basis of realisable values.
3. The preparation of financial statements is not an ultimate aim.
4. Certain assumptions are necessary to prepare financial statements
Which of the following combinations consists of all true statements?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4 (C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4
11. Redeemable preference shares can be redeemed
(A) if they are paid not less than 50% of the nominal value of shares
(B) only if they are fully paid
(C) even if they are partly paid
(D) only if they are issued at premium
12. A contributory is
(A) Creditor (B) a shareholder
(C) a debentureholder (D) a convertible debentureholder
13. Which one of the following cost would not be termed as product costs?
(A) Administrative salaries (B) Direct labour
(C) Indirect material (D) Plant supervisor's salary
14. What is the effect of increase in fixed cost?
(A) Reduces profit volume ratio (B) Raises break-even point
(C) Increases margin of safety (D) Reduces contribution
15. Which of the following system applies when standardised goods are produced under a
series of operations?
(A) Job order costing (B) Process costing (C) Standard costing (D) Kaizen costing
16. ............ is the backbone of auditing.
(A) Accounting (B) Vouching (C) Revaluation (D) Reassessment
17. Which of the following activities is true about the cost variance under the Standard
Costing System?
(A) Cost variance is the difference between the standard cost and the actual cost
(B) Cost variance is the difference between the standard cost and the budgeted cost
(C) Cost variance is the difference between the standard cost and the marginal cost
(D) Cost variance is the difference between the actual cost and the marginal cost
18. As per the information given below, what is the correct material yield variance?
Standard input = 100 kg, Standard yield = 90 kg, Standard cost per kg of output = Rs.
20, Actual input = 200 kg, Actual yield = 182 kg, Actual cost per kg of output = Rs. 19
(A) Rs 40 (Favourable) (B) Rs 400 (Favourable)
(C) Rs 400 (Unfavourable) (D) Rs 38 (Favourable)
19. Which one of the following statements is true about estimated costs and standard costs?
 (A) Standard costs are based on scientific analysis and engineering studies while
estimated costs are based on historical basis.
(B) Standard cost emphasis is on “what cost will be” while estimated cost emphasis
is on “what cost should be”.
(C) Standard costs are more frequently revised compared to estimated cost.
(D) Estimated costs are more stable than standard costs.
20. Computation of overhead absorption rates should be based on:
(A) Maximum capacity (B) Practical capacity
(C) Idle capacity (D) Normal capacity
21. Which of the following statements accurately describes a trial balance?
(A) A trial balance is a financial statement that shows the financial position of a
business at a specific point in time.
(B) A trial balance is prepared to identify errors in recording financial transactions
before preparing financial statements.
(C) A trial balance is a summary of revenues and expenses for a specific accounting
period.
(D) A trial balance is prepared to calculate the net income of a business.

22. Recently, which trade association has launched a corporate governance charter for
startups?
(A) India Trade Promotion Organization (ITPO)
(B) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
(C) ASSOCHAM
(D) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI)
23. The term ‘quid pro quo’ is applied in relation to
(A) Legality of object (B) Capacity of parties (C) Free consent (D) Consideration

24. In a contract of sale of goods the seller is under no duty to reveal unflattering truths
about the goods sold. This doctrine is called as:
(A) Doctrine of indoor management (B) Caveat Emptor
(C) Unjust enrichment (D) Doctrine of ultra vires
25. A lien can be exercised by the unpaid seller only:
(A) When the ownership right relating to goods have transferred to the buyer.
(B) When the goods are still in possession of the un-paid seller.
(C) When the goods have been transported through the carrier made available by the
buyer.
(D) When the goods have delivered to the buyer.
26. A warranty is a stipulation __________________to the main purpose of the contract,
the breach of which gives rise to a claim for damages but not to a right to reject the goods and
treat the contract as repudiated.
(A) Not collateral (B) Collateral (C) Not essential (D) Essential
27. “Specific goods” means:
(A) Goods identified and agreed when actual sale is made
(B) Goods identified and agreed upon at the time a contract of sale is made
(C) Goods to be identified only when the buyer is making cash purchases
(D) Goods identified at the time a contract of sale is made
28. The ________ can be either private limited company or a public limited company,
where the capital is not divided into shares
(A) Company limited by shares (B) Company limited by guarantee
(C) One person company (D) Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)
29. As per Section 52 of the companies Act, 2013, the balance in the Security Premium
Account cannot be utilized for
(A) Payment of dividend (B) Writing off discount on issue of shares
(C) Issue of fully paid-up bonus share (D) Capital losses
30. As per Section 68 of the Indian Companies Act, a company may purchase its own shares
out of which of the following?
(a) Free Reserves
(b) Security Premium Account
(c) General reserve
(d) Proceeds of any other shares
(e) Proceeds of same kind of shares
(A) (a), (b), (c) and (e) only (B) (a), (b), and (d) only
(C) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only (D) (a), (c), (d) and (e) only
31. Preference share in India is issued by a company for a maximum period of:
(A) 10 years (B) 15 years (C) 20 years (D) Unlimited period
32. Which of the following does not form the part of the important information to be
incorporated in the Memorandum of Association as specified in the Companies Act,
2013?
(A) The name of the company and the state in which it is situated.
(B) The objects for which the company is proposed to be incorporated.
(C) The rules, regulations and bye-laws for the internal management of the
company.
(D) The liability of the members of the company, whether limited or unlimited.
33. Which among the following is a Progressive Tax?
(A) Customs duty (B) Development Surcharge
(C) Sales tax (D) Income tax
34. Doctrine of Ultra Vires has reference to __________clause.
(A) Object (B) Subscription (C) Liability (D) Situation
35. Identify the indirect taxes from the given options
(A) GST, corporate tax (B) Custom duty, corporate tax
(C) Income tax, GST (D) GST, custom duty
36. The idea of a nationwide GST in India was first proposed by which of the following?
(A) Basel Committee (B) The Kelkar Task Force
(C) Rekhi Committee (D) C. Rangarajan Committee
37. Which of the following goods are taxed under Goods and Services Tax (GST), India?
(A) CNG (B) Liquor (C) Petrol (D) Gold Jewellery
38. In pledge bailor is called __________.
(A) Pawnor (B) Pawnee (C) Receiver (D) Both A and B
39. A and B go into a shop, B says to the shopkeeper, let A have the goods and if he does
not pay you, I will “This is a________________.
(A) Contract of guarantee (B) Contract of indemnity
(C) Wagering agreement (D) Quasi contract
40. Which mortgage is commonly known as the “Equitable Mortgage”?
(A) English Mortgage (B) Mortgage by deposit of Title Deeds
(C) Usufructuary Mortgage (D) Anomalous Mortgage
41. In a software development company, programmers are assigned to different teams
based on their expertise - some work on front-end development, while others focus on back-
end development. Identify the principle of management demonstrated here.
(A) Unity of command (B) Division of work
(C) Stability of personnel (D) Unity of direction
42. A retail store manager ensures that each employee reports to only one supervisor to
avoid confusion. This is an example of implementing the principle of:
(A) Unity of command (B) Division of work
(C) Stability of personnel (D) Unity of direction
43. Gang plank is a term associated with which principle of Fayol?
(A) Equity (B) Order (C) Scalar Chain (D) Initiative
44. Which of the following is not a principle of management given by Henry Fayol?
(A) Non interference (B) Esprit de corps(C) Centralisation (D) Division of work
45. Which of the following states the principles of Scientific Management theory?
(A) Science, not rule of thumb, Harmony, Co‐operation, and personal efficiency level
(B) Leisure time, Work environment, Harmony among employees, and relation with
employer
(C) Working hour, Profit from work, Work‐specification, and leisure time benefit
(D) Routine work, Hierarchical structure, Motivation, and Punishment
46. Technical skills are largely required at
(A) Junior Middle level management (B) Top level management
(C) Senior Middle level management (D) Lower level
47. The management of X Ltd. Provided employment opportunity to rural area people.
Identify the organisation’s objective it is trying to achieve.
(A) Social objectives (B) Organizational objectives
(C) Personal objectives (D) More than one of the above
48. 'Doing the task with minimum cost" name the term associated with management
(A) Efficiency (B) Effective (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Management
49. What is a single-use plan?
(A) They are the plans aimed at achieving specific goals.
(B) These are the plans providing guidance for performing recurring activities.
(C) A plan designed for the entire organisation in mind
(D) More than one of the above
50. Management is considered to be an art because:
(A) The principles of management have universal validity
(B) The principles of management have universal application
(C) Different principles of management are brought into effect differently by different
managers
(D) It is not important for the practising managers to be a member of a professional association
51. According to Abraham Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which level of needs
encompasses the desire for self-esteem, achievement, and recognition?
(A) Physiological needs (B) Safety needs
(C) Belongingness and love needs (D) Esteem needs
52. The concept of "outsourcing" in management refers to:
(A) Delegating authority to external consultants for decision-making
(B) Offloading non-core functions or tasks to external vendors or service providers
(C) Centralizing decision-making authority within the organization
(D) Establishing strategic alliances with competitors to achieve mutual goals
53. Which of the following marketing orientations emphasizes creating products that meet
customer needs and wants while achieving organizational goals?
(A) Production orientation (B) Product orientation
(C) Selling orientation (D) Marketing orientation
54. In the context of market segmentation, which approach involves dividing the market
based on demographic factors such as age, gender, income, and occupation?
(A) Behavioral segmentation (B) Psychographic segmentation
(C) Geographic segmentation (D) Demographic segmentation
55. In the context of the marketing mix, which element involves selecting and managing
distribution channels to ensure products reach customers efficiently?
(A) Product (B) Place (C) Promotion (D) Price
56. Which control mechanism involves comparing performance data with those of industry
peers or competitors to identify best practices and areas for improvement?
(A) Benchmarking (B) Budgetary control
(C) Statistical process control (D) Balanced scorecard
57. According to McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y, which theory assumes that
employees are inherently lazy and require close supervision?
(A) Theory X (B) Theory Y
(C) Both Theory X and Y (D) None of Theory X and Y
58. Management by Objectives (MBO) is a management approach developed by:
(A) Frederick Winslow Taylor (B) Douglas McGregor
(C) Peter Drucker (D) Henri Fayol

59. What is strategy?

(A) A detailed plan for achieving short-term objectives
(B) A set of long-term goals for the organization
(C) A framework for making decisions that guide the organization's actions
(D) A tactical approach to managing day-to-day operations

60. Which of the following scenarios would not lead to a shift in the demand curve for
smartphones in a particular market?
(A) The government announces a significant increase in minimum wage, leading to
higher disposable income for a large portion of the population.
(B) A new technology emerges that makes tablets more affordable and equally
functional for everyday tasks like communication and entertainment.
(C) A popular smartphone manufacturer decides to offer a limited-time discount on
its latest model, reducing the price by 30%.
(D) Both income levels rise due to a booming economy, and at the same time, a
major competitor launches a cheaper line of smartphones.

61. One of the essential conditions of "perfect competition" is

(A) Product differentiation
(B) Multiplicity of prices for identical products of at a point of time
(C) Many sellers and a few buyers
(D) Same price for the same goods at a point of time

62. What is social loafing in the context of group dynamics?

(A)The tendency for individuals to exert less effort when working in a group compared
to when working alone.
(B)The tendency for individuals to exert more effort when working in a group
compared to when working alone.
(C)The tendency for individuals to feel more motivated and engaged when working in
a group.
(D)The tendency for individuals to take on leadership roles in group settings.

63. What is the primary purpose of ‘crossing’ a check?

(A) To make it invalid
(B) To ensure it can only be deposited into a bank account
(C) To make it easier to cash at any bank
(D) To indicate the payee's name
64. Which of the following statements best describes the key feature of UPI highlighted in
the scenario?
 (A) UPI transactions require the use of physical cards and terminals.
(B) UPI allows for instant money transfers between bank accounts using a virtual
payment address (UPI ID).
(C) UPI transactions involve lengthy processing times, usually taking several
business days to complete.
(D) UPI can only be used for online purchases and cannot be used for person-to-
person transfers.

65. ‘Minimum Support Price’ (MSP) is recommended by which of the following

institutions?
(A) Food Corporation of India
(B) Food and Agriculture Organization
(C) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
(D) Ministry of Food and Agriculture

66. What does the term "legal tender" refer to in the context of currency?
(A) Currency that is accepted by all businesses and individuals without question.
(B) Currency that is recognized and guaranteed by the government as a medium for
settling financial obligations.
(C) Currency that is backed by physical assets such as gold or silver.
(D) Currency that is only valid for use within a specific geographic region.

67. Whose signature is typically found on currency notes in many countries?

(A) The President of the country
(B) The finance minister of the country
(C) The Secretary of the Treasury or equivalent position
(D) The Governor of the Central Bank
68. Which of the following is measured by the Lorenz curve?
(A) Illiteracy (B) Unemployment
(C) Population growth rate (D) Inequality of Income
69. Which of the following best describes a ‘Giffen good’?
(A) A good for which demand decreases as income increases.
(B) A good for which demand increases as income increases.
(C) A good for which there are no substitutes.
(D) A good for which demand increases when its price rises, and vice versa.
70. NABARD, a bank for agriculture finance and rural development was recommended by
the Committee under chairmanship of?
(A) M S Swaminathan committee (B) B. Sivaraman committee
(C) Tarapore committee (D) More than one of the above
71. India signed MoU for linking of India’s UPI with Instant Payment Platform of which
country?
(A) UAE (B) Australia (C) France (D) Brazil
72. Which institution notified the ‘Depositor Education and Awareness (DEA) Fund?
(A) NITI Aayog (B) RBI (C) SEBI (D) PFRDA
73. ‘Tokenisation’, which was seen in the news, is associated with:
(A) Cryptocurrency (B) Payment Security
 (C) Bio-technology (D) Artificial Intelligence
74. 'Golden Revolution' is related to ________.
(A) Precious minerals (B) Pulses
(C) Jute (D) Horticulture and Honey
75. Which of the following are Rabi crops only?
(A) Maize and peas (B) Barley and gram (C) Paddy and cotton (D)Wheat and jowar
76. An economy in which there is both the private sector and the Government, is known
as which of the following?
(A) Merged Economy (B) Outcrossed Economy
(C) Mixed Economy (D) More than one of the above
77. National income is also called as
(A) GNP at factor cost (B) GNP at market price
(C) NNP at factor cost (D) More than one of the above
78. Which image is on the back of 20 Rs. note of Mahatma Gandhi (New) series?
(A) Red Fort (B) Ellora Caves (C) Sanchi Stupa (D) Rani ki Vav
79. Whose signature is on the one rupee note?
(A) Reserve Bank Governor (B) Finance Secretary
(C) Finance Minister (D) Prime minister
80. In context with the Balance of Payments, the Merchandise exports, which refer to sale
of goods abroad belong to which among the following?
(A) Credit Entry in the Current Account (B) Debit Entry in the Current account
(C) Credit entry in the Capital Account (D) Debit entry in the Capital Account
81. Who brings out ‘Consumer Price Index Number’ for industrial workers?
(A) RBI (B) The Labour Bureau
(C) Commerce Department (D) NITI Aayog
82. What do we call the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to commercial
banks?
(A) Repo rate (B) Reverse repo rate (C) CRR (D) SLR
83. What is the name of tariff levied on imported goods to offset subsidies given to
producers of the goods in exporting country?
(A) Countervailing Duty (B) Anti-Dumping Duty
(C) Safeguard Duty (D) Protective Duty
84. According to Invest India report, India’s e-commerce market is expected to grow to
$325 billion by which year?
(A) 2025 (B) 2027 (C) 2030 (D) 2040
85. Who is the author of the book "Rich Dad Poor Dad"?
(A) Dave Ramsey (B) Robert T. Kiyosaki
(C) Suze Orman (D) Tony Robbins
x-x-x
 M.Com.(Business Innovation)

1. Which of the following has conferred with the Bharat Ratna in 2024?
(A) Dr. Manmohan Singh (B) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
(C) Arvind Kejriwal (D) Lal Krishna Advani
2. Which organization developed the lightest Bulletproof Jacket for protection against the
highest threat Level 6 of BIS?
(A) ISRO (B) DRDO (C) CSIR (D) HAL
3. Ken – Betwa link canal passes through which National Park?
(A) Bandavgarh National park (B) Kanha national park
(C) Panna national park (D) Pench national park
4. In January 2022, which country took over the G7 Presidency?
(A) Netherlands (B) Germany (C) Austria (D) France
5. Which of the following country is not a member of SAARC?
(A) Nepal (B) Maldives (C) China (D) Afghanistan
6. Who has been appointed the new Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog in 2022?
(A) Suman Bery (B) Pomila Jaspal (C) Manoj Soni (D) Vikram Singh Mehta
7. ‘Country Partnership Framework’ is associated with which institution?
(A) World Bank (B) IMF (C) WEF (D) ADB
8. Ariel, Umbriel, Titania, and Oberon are the four moons of which planet?
(A) Jupiter (B) Saturn (C) Uranus (D) Venus
9. What percentage of stake does HDFC Bank plan to divest in HDFC Education and
Development Services?
(A) 50% (B) 75% (C) 100% (D) 25%
10. Who has been appointed as the new chairperson of the Central Board of Secondary
Education (CBSE)?
(A) Nidhi Chhibber (B) Rajeev Kumar Mital
(C) Rahul Singh (D) A P Das Joshi
11. Balance sheets are prepared
(A) Annually (B) Daily (C) Monthly (D) Weekly
12. Auditing refers to
(A) Reporting the financial information (B) Examination of financial information
(C) Maintaining the ledger accounts (D) Preparation of financial statements
13. Current ratio =
(A) Current assets/Current liabilities (B) Debt/Equity
(C) Quick assets/Current liabilities (D) Current assets/Equity
14. In accounting, an economic event is referred to as
(A) Transaction (B) Bank statement (C) Cash (D) Exchange of money
15. Any written evidence in support of a business transaction is
(A) Journal (B) Ledger (C) Ledger posting (D) Voucher
16. The Unfavorable balance of profit and loss account should be
(A) Added to liabilities (B) Subtracted from current assets
(C) Subtracted from capital (D) Subtracted from liabilities
17. Commercial accounting is based on
(A) Single entry book keeping
(B) Double entry book keeping
(C) Both single and double entry book keeping
(D) Cash basis of book keeping
18. The main Purpose of Financial Accounting is?
(A) To Provide financial information to shareholders
(B) To maintain balance sheet
(C) To minimize taxes
(D) To keep track of liabilities
19. The account which increases equity is known as?
(A) Debit account (B) Credit account (C) Revenue (D) Treasury stock
20. The book Harry Potter written by
(A) J K Rowling (B) Terry (C) Louis Allan (D) Henry Fayol
21. Study of the movements of both the workers and the machine to eliminate wasteful
movement is
(A) Fatigue study (B) Time study (C) Motion study (D) Work-study
22. The first and foremost function of management is
(A) Planning (B) Organizing (C) Controlling (D) Coordination
23. When is World Cancer Day celebrated annually?
(A) April 4 (B) March 4 (C) January 4 (D) February 4
24. Which company has collaborated with Apple to deploy rooftop solar installations in
India?
(A) Tata Power (B) CleanMax
(C) Adani Green Energy (D) Suzlon Energy
25. Which of the following is represented by ‘Lorenz Curve’?
(A) Inflation (B) Income Distribution
(C) Employment (D) Deflation
26. The task of the Operation Manager is one of the?
(A) Controlling
(B) Planning
(C) Manage all activities involved in producing the goods
(D) Risk Management
27. OCF stands for with reference to accounting matrix?
(A) Operating control flow (B) On-going cash flow
(C) Operating cash flow (D) On-line cash flow
28. The point where the total cost equals the total Revenue is called the?
(A) Saturation point (B) The maximum point of level
(C) The minimum point of level (D) Break-even-point
29. TPM stands for?
(A) Total productive Maintenance (B) Team Productive maintenance
(C) Team Periodic maintenance (D) Team productive management
30. A branch set up merely for booking orders which are executed by head office is?
(A) Dependent branch (B) Independent branch
(C) Foreign branch (D) Local branch
31. East India Company is an example of
(A) Chartered Companies (B) Statutory Companies
(C) Registered Companies (D) OPC
32. ESOP stands for?
(A) Employees Share Option Plan (B) Employees Stock Option Process
(C) Employees Stock Option Plan (D) Employees Share Owner Plan
33. The National Development Council gets its administrative support from?
(A) Planning Commission (B) Finance Commission
(C) Administrative Reforms Commission (D) Sarkaria Commission
34. What does the term “Incentive” mean?
(A) It is the opposite of a trade-off
(B) It could either be a reward or a penalty
(C) It could be a reward but could not be a penalty
(D) It could be a penalty but could not be a reward
35. Macroeconomic issues include?
(A) The impact of government regulation on markets
(B) Total employment nationwide
(C) Studying what factors affect the price and quantity of automobiles
(D) Studying the regulation of wages and production costs in the software industry
36. What does RBC stand for in insurance business?
(A) Random Business Cycle (B) Rational Business Cycle
(C) Revolutionary Business Cycle (D) Risk Based Capital
37. Name the organization which publishes the Consumer Confidence Index
(A) SEBI (B) NABARD (C) State Bank of India (D) RBI
38. In order to control credit, Reserve Bank of India should:
(A) Increase CRR and decrease Bank rate (B) Decrease CRR and reduce Bank rate
(C) Increase CRR and increase Bank rate (D) Reduce CRR and increase Bank rate
39. Monetary policy is implemented by in India.
(A) The Ministry of Finance (B) Planning Commission
(C) The Parliament (D) Reserve Bank of India
40. Which among the following is a characteristic of underdevelopment?
(A) Vicious circle of poverty (B) Rising mass consumption
(C) Growth of industries (D) High rate of urbanization
41. Keynes believed that the equality between savings and investment is brought about by:
(A) Rate of interest (B) Changes in income
 (C) Availability of capital (D) Marginal efficiency of investment
42. Which of the following is known as long run average cost curve?
(A) Learning curve (B) Envelope curve (C) Equal product curve (D) Phillips curve
43. Which of the following is related to green revolution in India?
(A) Environment Protection (B) High Yielding Variety of Seeds
(C) Green House Effect (D) Calculation of Green GNP
44. When was the AGMARK Act implemented in India?
(A) 1937 (B) 1952 (C) 1947 (D) 1965
45. On what basis does the monopolist resort to price discrimination?
(A) Elasticity of supply (B) Elasticity of demand
(C) Law of demand (D) Law of supply
46. The supply of labour in the economy depends on
(A) Population (B) National Income (C) Per capita income (D) Natural resources
47. Contribution of agriculture to Gross National Product is approximately?
(A) 14% (B) 15% (C) 16.5% (D) 17.5%
48. The increase in oil seeds production was due to?
(A) White revolution (B) Yellow revolution
(C) Green revolution (D) Brown revolution
49. Which state is the biggest tea producer in the country?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Sikkim (C) Assam (D) West Bengal
50. Which among the following is a qualitative tool of monetary policy?
(A) Bank Rate (B) Credit Celling (C) Credit rationing (D) Cash Reserve Ratio
51. A series is given with one term wrong. Select that wrong term from the given
alternatives.
AD, EG, IJ, MM, QP, UP
(A) AD (B) IJ (C) MM (D) UP
52. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?)
in the following series.
100, 96, 88, 76, 60, ?
(A) 38 (B) 40 (C) 35 (D) 20
53. Cataract is related to ‘Eye’ in the same way as Meniere’s disease is related to
‘________’.
(A) Nose (B) Mouth (C) Teeth (D) Ear
54. Giridar was at a temple and was facing west. He turns 45° in the clockwise direction to
collect a token, then another 180° in clockwise direction. He then turned 45° in the anti-
clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) South-west (B) West (C) North-west (D) East
55. G, M, P, V, Z and D are six members of a family. Z is the son of V. M is the brother
of V. D and V are a married couple. P is the daughter of D. D is the sister of G. How is Z
related to P?
(A) Mother (B) Sister (C) Brother (D) Father
56. Shamita's birthday was on 15 March 2020, which was a Sunday. If her husband's
birthday was on 31 May 2020, on which day would it fall?
 (A) Friday (B) Sunday (C) Wednesday (D) Tuesday
57. Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question
mark (?) in the following series.
AURT, BWSV, CYTX, ?
(A) DZUY (B) DZUZ (C) DAUZ (D) DZUV
58. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known
facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
Some athletes are businessmen.
All businessmen are rich.
Conclusions:
I. Some athletes are rich.
II. No athlete is rich.
(A) Neither conclusion I nor II follows (B) Both conclusions I and II follow
(C) Only conclusion II follows (D) Only conclusion I follows
59. Select the option that indicates the correct arrangement of the following words as they
would appear in the English dictionary.
1. Calibrate
2. California
3. Caliphate
4. Calicut
5. Caliber
6. Caliper
(A) 1, 5, 4, 2, 6, 3 (B) 5, 1, 4, 2, 6, 3 (C) 4, 1, 5, 6, 3, 2 (D) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3, 6
60. The ratio of boys and girls in a school is 17 ∶ 12, and the total number of students in the
school is 1305. The number of boys in the school is:
(A) 650 (B) 765 (C) 750 (D) 700
61. Today is Tuesday. After 62 days it will be _______.
(A) Wednesday (B) Monday (C) Tuesday (D) Sunday
62. ‘Nephrologist’ is related to ‘Kidney’ in the same way as ‘Cardiologist’ is related to
‘______’
(A) Pancreas (B) Lungs (C) Heart (D) Gall bladder
63. Four numbers have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the number that is different.
(A) 198 (B) 146 (C) 378 (D) 326
64. Seven girls P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are sitting around a circular table facing the centre,
Q is third to the right of R. V is third to the right of P. T is to the immediate right of Q. S is to
the immediate left of R. U is sitting between R and P. Who is sitting between S and T?
(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) V
65. If the mirror image shows the time as 11 : 40 in the clock, then the actual time in the
clock is
(A) 12 : 20 (B) 11 : 40 (C) 11 : 20 (D) 12 : 40
66. In a code language, MAGIC is written as NZTRX. How will LAYER be written in that
language?
(A) OZBVH (B) NZBVQ (C) OZBVI (D) PZPVI
67. 'Entertainment' is related to 'Television' in the same way as 'Warmth' is related to
'________'.
(A) Temperature (B) Proximity (C) Woollens (D) Day
68. There are five boxes K, L, M, N and O, arranged one above the other. Box M is placed
above box N. Box O is placed below box K. Box N is placed above K. Box L is placed
below O. Which among the following is the bottom most box?
(A) O (B) L (C) K (D) M
69. Which letter cluster will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
GDMT, KZQP, OVUL, SRYH, ?
(A) VNCC (B) WOCE (C) WNBD (D) WNCD
70. Eight colleagues K, L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are seated in a circle facing the centre. N is
an immediate neighbor of both L and Q. P is an immediate neighbour of both K and R. O is
second to the right of K. Which of the following is definitely true about M's position?
(A) Second to the left of L (B) Exactly between K and O
(C) Exactly between Q and O (D) Exactly between O and P
71. A group of letters are given which are numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, and 10. Four
alternatives containing combinations of these numbers are given below. Select the
combination of numbers so that letters arranged accordingly, from a meaningful word.
L M U E R T G A Y L
2 1 4 3 6 5 8 7 10 9
(A) 27581013649 (B) 13579246810 (C) 12346107895 (D) 12345678910
72. In the following question, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in
some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose out the odd one.
(A) Quintal (B) Gallon (C) Kilogram (D) Ton

73. A is B's sister. C is B's mother. D is C's father. E is D's mother. Then, how is A
related to D?
(A) Grandfather (B) Grandmother (C) Daughter (D) Granddaughter
74. In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will
MEDICINE be written in that code language?
(A) MFEDJJOE (B) EOJDEJFM (C) MFEJDJOE (D) EOJDJEFM
75. Find the missing number in the series?
4, 18, ? , 100, 180, 294, 448
(A) 48 (B) 50 (C) 58 (D) 60
x-x-x
 MBA for Executives (MBAfEX)
1. Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court?
(A) Chief Justice of India (B) President
(C) Prime Minister (D) Council of Ministers
2. Which of the following is not a classical dance of India?
(A) Kathak (B) Sattriya (C) Manipuri (D) Bhangra
3. The world famous 'Khajuraho' sculptures are located in
(A) Gujarat (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Orissa (D) Maharashtra
4. The size, mass & density of which of the planets is very near to those of Earth?
(A) Mercury (B) Moon (C) Jupiter (D) Venus
5. Which gas is most abundant in Earth’s atmosphere?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Argon
6. Which mountain range separates India from China?
(A) Vindhya Range (B) Aravalli Range (C) Himalayas (D) Satpura Range
7. In India, which of the following statutory organisations is responsible for the protection
and promotion of human rights?
(A) National Human Rights Council (B) National Human Rights Commission
(C) National Human Rights Organisation (D) Indian Human Rights Council
8. The National Song of India was composed by
(A) Rabindranath Tagore (B) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(C) Iqbal (D) Jai Shankar Prasad
9. Who among the following invented the Email
(A) Ralph H. Baer (B) Vint Cerf (C) Steve Jobs (D) Shiva Ayyadurai
10. Gangotri national park is located in which state?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Kerala (C) Haryana (D) Uttarakhand
11. The constitution of India was adopted by the constituent assembly on:
(A) 26th January 1950 (B) 26th November 1949
(C) 26th January 1949 (D) 15th August 1947
12. Barsana Biogas Project is situated in which state?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Tamil Nadu
13. Which one is the largest tropical rain forest in the world?
(A) Bosawas (B) Amazon
(C) Southeast Asian rain forest (D) Daintree Rain forest
14. Who was known as Iron man of India?
(A) Govind Ballabh Pant (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose (D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
15. Which regulator established a dispute resolution mechanism for Limited Purpose Clearing
Corporation (LPCC)?
(A) RBI (B) SEBI (C) IBBI (D) IRDAI
16. Professor Amartya Sen is famous in which of the fields?
 (A) Biochemistry (B) Electronics (C) Economics (D) Geology
17. The largest share in India’s national income is from
(A) Service sector (B) Agriculture sector
(C) Manufacturing sector (D) Trade sector
18. Which price index is being used to measure inflation by the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Industrial cost and Price Index (B) GDP inflator
(C) Consumer Price Index (D) Purchasing power parity based index
19. What is the full form of SIP, in the context of Mutual Funds?
(A) Systematic Investment Plan (B) Systematic Insurance Plan
(C) Systematic Investment Policy (D) System Investment Plan
20. Which among the following matches of industrial production and their places are correct?
1. Brassware- Muradabad
2. Silk Sarees- Kanchipuram
3. Chikkan Embroidery- Lucknow
4. Sports Goods- Jalandhar
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :
(A) 1 & 2 (B) 1, 2 & 3 (C) 1, 3 & 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 & 4
21. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is defined as the value of all
(A) Final goods and service produced in an economy in a year
(B) Goods produced in an economy in a year
(C) Goods and services in an economy in a year
(D) Final goods produced in economy in an economy in a year
22. What is the tagline for "BMW"?
(A) The New Sign of Success (B) The Ultimate Driving Machine
(C) Better sound through research (D) Powered by Intellect, Driven by Values
23. "Sar utha ke jiyo" is the business tag line of -
(A) Bharti Axa (B) LIC (C) Max Insurance (D) HDFC Life
24. Match the brand or product name with their company slogans
a. You’re in good hands i. Toyota
b. Think Big ii. Ford
c. Let’s go places iii. Allstate

d. Belong Anywhere iv. IMAX

e. Go Further v. Airbnb

(A) a-i; b-v; c-ii; d-iv; e-iii (B) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-v; e-ii
(C) a-iv; b-v; c-ii; d-iii; e-i (D) a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-iii; e-v
25. Which pair is not correct?
(A) EXIM Bank- Financing for export-import
(B) RBI- Banker’s bank
(C) IDBI- industrial finance
(D) FCI- financial assistance to commercial institutions
26. Which of the following does not constitute the purpose of setting up SEBI?
 (A) To protect the interests of investors in securities
(B) To promote the development of the securities market
(C) To regulate the global securities market
(D) To deal with matters connected with fraudulent and unfair trade practices relating to
securities market

27. Amul is related to …

(A) Green Revolution (B) Pink Revolution (C) White Revolution (D) None of these
28. Where are the headquarters of Standard Chartered Bank situated?
(A) London (B) Mumbai (C) New York, USA (D) New Delhi
For questions 29 to 32: the financial profile of a company is as given below:
Rs. Million Year ended 31st Mar 2001 Year ended 31st Mar 2000
Gross Revenue 187.1 147.8
Gross Profit 10.8 3.9
Profit after Tax 8.8 3.1
Equity Capital 7.5 7.5
Reserves 18.4 20.0
EPS 117.33 41.33
Net Margin% 4.65 1.82
29. What is the % growth shown of total revenue in 2001 over 2000? (Figures shown in
parenthesis represent negative growth)
(A) 18% (B) 27% (C) 22% (D) 10%
30. The net margin in 2001 has shown an increase over 2000 of (Net margin is % of Gross
revenue)
(A) 3 m (B) 6 m (C) 0.6 m (D) 1.2 m
31. By how many percentage points has Gross Margin (Gross Profit as a % of Gross Revenue)
increased?
(A) 2.56 % (B) 3.82 % (C) 5.21 % (D) 3.13 %
32. What is the face value per share? (No. of shares = (Net profit/EPS), Face value = Equity/No.
of shares)
(A) Rs. 10 (B) Rs. 100 (C) Rs. 1000 (D) Rs 110
DIRECTIONS: (Questions 33-34): In each question below is given a statement followed by
two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be
true, then consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statement.
33. Statement: In a one day cricket match, the total runs made by a team were 200. Out of
these 160 runs were made by spinners.
Conclusions:
1. 80% of the team consists of spinners.
2. The opening batsmen were spinners.
Options
(A) Only conclusion I follows (B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either I or II follows (D) Neither I nor II follows
34. Statement: Population increase coupled with depleting resources is going to be the
scenario of many developing countries in days to come.
 Conclusions:
1. The population of developing countries will not continue to increase in future.
2. It will be very difficult for the governments of developing countries to provide its
people decent quality of life.
Options
(A) Only conclusion I follows (B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either I or II follows (D) Neither I nor II follows

DIRECTIONS: (Questions 35-36): Below in each of the questions are given two statements
I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent
causes. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the
statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship
between these two statements.
Mark answer
(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

35. Statements:
I. The staff of Airport Authorities called off the strike they were observing in protest
against privatization.
II. The staff of Airport Authorities went on strike anticipating a threat to their jobs.
Options
(A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

36. Statements:
I. Importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society.
II. There is an increasing awareness about health in the society particularly among middle
ages group of people.
Options
(A) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(B) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(C) Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
(D) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

37. Statements: Most CPUs are keyboards. No keyboard is a Mouse. All Mouses are CPU.
Conclusions:
I. Some keyboards are CPU
II. All CPU’s are Mouse
III. No Mouse is a keyboard
 IV. Some Mouse are keyboard
Options
(A) Only I follows (B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow (D) Only II follows

DIRECTIONS: (Questions 38-42): Study the following graph carefully and answer the
Questions given below:
The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches
of a publishing company during two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.
Sales of Books (in thousand numbers) from Six Branches - B1, B2, B3, B4, B5 and B6 of a
publishing Company in 2000 and 2001.
120
110
105
100 95 95 95
Saes (in thousand numbers)

85
80 80
80 75 75
70
65
60

40

20

0
B1 B2 B3 B4 B5 B6
BRANCHES

2000 2001

38. What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch
B4 for both years?
(A) 2:3 (B) 3:5 (C) 4:5 (D) 7:9
39. Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of branches B3
for both the years?
(A) 68.54% (B) 71.11% (C) 73.17% (D) 75.55%
40. What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales
of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?
(A) 75% (B) 77.5% (C) 82.5% (D) 87.5%
41. What is the average sales of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000?
(A) 73 (B) 80 (C) 83 (D) 88
42. Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand numbers)
is?
(A) 250 (B) 310 (C) 435 (D) 560
43. A man borrows Rs. 2550 to be paid back with compound interest at the rate of 4% per
annum by the end of 2 years in two equal yearly instalments. How much will each
instalment be?
(A) Rs. 1275 (B) Rs. 1283 (C) Rs. 1352 (D) Rs. 1377
44. An item was marked for Rs. 5000 but sold for Rs. 3500. What is the % loss on the
product?
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C) 30 (D) 20
45. If the circumference of a circle increases from 4π to 8π, what change occurs in its area?
(A) It is halved (B) It doubles (C) It triples (D) It quadruples
46. A man and his wife appear in an interview for two vacancies in the same post. The
probability of husband’s selection is (1/7) and the probability of wife’s selection is (1/5).
What is the probability that only one of them is selected?
(A) 4/5 (B) 2/7 (C) 8/15 (D) 4/7
For questions 47 to 50: the financial profile of a company is as given below:
Rs. Million Year ended 31st Mar 2001 Year ended 31st Mar 2000
Gross Revenue 187.1 147.8
Gross Profit 10.8 3.9
Profit after Tax 8.8 3.1
Equity Capital 7.5 7.5
Reserves 18.4 20.0
EPS 117.33 41.33
Net Margin% 4.65 1.82
47. What is the % growth shown of total revenue in 2001 over 2000? (Figures shown in
parenthesis represent negative growth)
(A) 18% (B) 27% (C) 22% (D) 10%
48. The net margin in 2001 has shown an increase over 2000 of (Net margin is % of Gross
revenue)
(A) 3 m (B) 6 m (C) 0.6 m (D) 1.2 m
49. By how many percentage points has Gross Margin (Gross Profit as a % of Gross Revenue)
increased?
(A) 2.56 % (B) 3.82 % (C) 5.21 % (D) 3.13 %
50. Profit earned by selling an article for Rs. 1060 is 20% more than the loss incurred by selling
the article for Rs. 950. At what price should the article be sold to earn 20% profit?
(A) Rs. 980 (B) Rs. 1080 (C) Rs. 1800 (D) None of these
51. The ratio of market prices of wheat and paddy is 2:3 and the ratio of quantities consumed
in a family is 5:4. Find the ratio of expenditure of wheat and paddy.
(A) 6:5 (B) 5:6 (C) 1:1 (D) 8:15
52. The greatest number of four digits which is divisible by 15, 25, 40, 75 is
(A) 600 (B) 9000 (C) 9600 (D) 9400
53. Which measure of central tendency includes the magnitude of scores?
(A) Mean (B) Mode (C) Median (D) Range
54. Sam borrowed some money from his friend at simple interest of 6% per annum. He returned
his friend Rs. 15600. After how much time did Sam return the money if he borrowed Rs.
12000?
(A) 8 years (B) 2.5 years (C) 5 years (D) 3.5 years
55. Vidhya lent Rs. 5000 to Kavya for 3 years at the rate of 5% per annum compound
interest. Calculate the amount that Vidhya will get after 3 years.
(A) 5789 (B) 5788.12 (C) 5788.13 (D) 5788
56. Any measure indicating the centre of a set of data, arranged in an increasing or decreasing
order of magnitude, is called a measure of:
(A) Skewness (B) Symmetry (C) Central tendency (D) Dispersion
57. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting on a wall facing east. C is just right of D. B is on endpoint
and E is his neighbour. G is sitting between E and F. D is third from the south end. D is
seated between which of the following pairs?
(A) CE (B) AC (C) CF (D) AF
58. M is N’s brother. S is D’s mother and M’s aunt. How is D related to M?
(A) Sister (B) Cousin (C) Aunt (D) Cannot be determined
59. Monday : April : : Friday : ?
(A) July (B) Saturday (C) August (D) Tuesday
60. Peacock : India :: Bear : ?
(A) Australia (B) America (C) Russia (D) England
61. CALANDER is coded in a code as CLANAEDR. Find the code for CIRCULAR under the
same rule.
(A) LACANDER (B) CRIUCALR (C) CLANADER (D) None of these
DIRECTIONS: (Questions 62-63): In each of following questions, arrange the words given
below in a meaningful sequence.
62. 1. Family 2. Community 3. Member 4. Locality 5. Country
Options:
(A) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5 (B) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 (C) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5 (D) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
63. 1. Poverty 2. Population 3. Death 4. Unemployment 5. Disease
(A) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1 (B) 3, 4, 2, 5, 1 (C) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
64. If + means -, - means x, ÷ means + and x means ÷, then 15 - 3 + 10 x 5 ÷ 5 = ?
(A) 5 (B) 22 (C) 48 (D) 52
65. Pointing to a man, Manisha said, “He is the youngest son of my father-in-law’s only son”.
How is Manisha related to this youngest son’s father?
(A) Daughter (B) Sister (C) Wife (D) Can’t be determined
66. What would come next in the following series of numbers?
1, 2, 10, 37, _
(A) 62 (B) 91 (C) 101 (D) None of these
67. Cube is related to square in the same way as Square is related to:
(A) Plane (B) Triangle (C) Line (D) Point
68. Find out the wrong number in the series
28, 84, 112, 196, 308, 504, 872
(A) 112 (B) 196 (C) 308 (D) 872
69. Pointing a photograph X said to his friend Y, "She is the only daughter of the father of my
mother." How X is related to the person of photograph?
(A) Nephew (B) Daughter (C) Son (D) Cannot be decided
70. A's son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B. How D is
related to A?
(A) Sister-in-law (B) Cousin (C) Daughter's-in-law (D) Sister
DIRECTIONS: (Questions 71-75): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below them.
PASSAGE
The Stone Age was a period of history which began in approximately 2 million B.C.
and lasted until 3000 B.C. Its name was derived from the stone tools and weapons that
modern scientists found. This period was divided into the paleolithic, Mesolithic and
Neolithic Ages. During the first period (2 million to 8000 B.C.), the first hatchet and use
of fore for heating and cooking were developed. As a result of the Ice Age, which evolved
about 1 million years into the paleolithic Age, People were forced to seek shelter in caves,
wear clothing and develop new tools. During the Mesolithic Age (8000 to 3000 B.C.),
people made crude pottery and the first fish hooks, took dogs hunting and developed the
bow and arrow which were used until the fourteenth country A.D. The Neolithic Age (6000
to 3000 B.C.) saw humankind domesticating sheep, goats, pigs and cattle, being less
nomadic than the previous eras, establishing settlements and creating governments.
71. Into how many periods was the Stone Age divided?
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
72. Which of the following was developed earliest?
(A) Fish hook (B) Bow and arrow (C) Hatchet (D) Pottery
73. The author states that the Stone Age was so named because.....
(A) It was very durable like stone
(B) The tools and weapons were made of stones
(C) There was little vegetation
(D) The people lived in stone caves
74. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?
(A) The Neolithic Age (B) The Stone Age
(C) The paleolithic Age (D) The Ice Age
75. Which of the following best describes the Mesolithic Age?
(A) People were inventive (B) People stayed indoors all the time
(C) People were warriors (D) People were crude
DIRECTIONS: (Questions 76-77): Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate
word/preposition/phrase.
76. The United Kingdom ……………………… England, Wales, Scotland and Northern
Ireland
(A) Comprises of (B) Comprises (C) Combines (D) Consists
77. The police fired on the mob when they ………………………….
(A) Turned violent (B) Fizzled out (C) Became abusive (D) Turned noisy

DIRECTIONS: (Questions 78-79): In the following questions, in the given sentences, a part
of the sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, four different ways of phrasing the
underlined part are indicated. Choose the best alternative.
78. His father won't be able to leave for Varanasi until they have arrived.
(A) until they arrive (B) until they will arrive
(C) until they will have arrived (D) No improvement
79. I would gladly accompany your sister if you had asked him.
(A) would have gladly accompanied (B) was to have gladly accompanied
(C) will gladly accompany (D) No improvement
80. One who speaks two languages:
(A) Bilingual (B) Polylingual (C) Polygamy (D) Oligarchy
81. Choose the word which is exact opposite of : OBEYING
(A) Ordering (B) Following (C) Refusing (D) Contradiction
82. Substitute one word for “ Study of the relationship between organism and their
Environment”
(A) Ecology (B) Astronomy (C) Ornithology (D) Geography
DIRECTIONS FOR (Q 83-84)
But I did not want to shoot the elephant. I watched him beating his bunch of grass
against his knees, with the preoccupied grandmotherly air that elephants have. It seemed
to me that it would be murder to shoot him. I had never shot an elephant and never wanted
to. (Somehow it always seems worse to kill large animal.) Besides, there was the beast's
owner to be considered. But I had got to act quickly. I turned to some experienced-looking
Burmans who had been there when we arrived, and asked them how the elephants had been
behaving. They all said the same thing; he took no notice of you if you left him alone, but
he might charge if you went too close to him.
83. The phrase 'Preoccupied grandmotherly air' signifies
(A) being totally unconcerned (B) pretending to be very busy
(C) a very superior attitude (D) calm, dignified and affectionate disposition

84. The author did not want to shoot the elephant because he
(A) was afraid of it
(B) did not have the experience of shooting big animals
(C) did not wish to kill animal which was not doing anybody any harm
(D) did not find the elephant to be ferocious

85. Match the following authors with their works:

A. SashiTharoor P. The Suitable Boy
B. Salman Rushdie Q. Sea of Poppies
C. Vikram Seth R. Inglorious Empire
D. Arundathi Roy S. Shalimar of the Clown
E. Amitav Gosh T. The ministry of Utmost Happiness
(A) ABCDE-RSPTQ (B) ABCDE-PQRST (C) ABCDE-TSPRQ (D) ABCDE-SRPTQ
 M.P.Ed. (Master of Physical Education)
1) Who won the first Dronacharya Award?
(A) Bhalchandra Bhaskar Bhagwat (Wrestling)
(B) Raghunandan Vasant Gokhle (Chess)
(C) Desh Prem Azad (Cricket)
(D) Gurcharan Singh (Cricket)

2) Who among the following has been awarded the Bharat Ratna Award?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Balbir Singh Senior
(C) Major Dhyan Chand (D) Pargat Singh

3) Which of the following formerly known as the National Adventure Awards?

(A) Mountaineering Award
(B) Adventure Award
(C) Tenzing Norgay National Adventure Award
(D) Mountaineering National Adventure Award

4) Which country has won Men’s Asian Hockey Champions Trophy 2023?
(A) South Korea (B) Malaysia
(C) India (D) Japan

5) Famous ‘PadmaShri Kaur Singh’ depict the life journey of sportsperson associated
with which of the following sports?
(A) Boxing (B) Netball
(C) Wrestling (D) Swimming

6) ‘The World Beneath His Feet’ is a Biography of which of the following sporting
personality?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar (B) Nawab Pataudi
(C) Pullela Gopichand (D) Ajit Wadekar

7) Sundararajan Kidambi is associated with which sports?

(A) Chess (B) Hockey
(C) Badminton (D) Roll ball

8) Neeraj Chopra wins gold medal in Men's Javelin at the World Athletics Championship
2023 held at Budapest, Hungary with a distance of:
(A) 87.17m (B) 88.17m
(C) 88.71m (D) 90.17m

9) Who has won the 2023 Ballon d'Or trophy?

(A) Lionel Messi (B) Cristiano Ronaldo
(C) Michel Platini (D) Johan Cruyff

10) In World Athletics Championships 2023, Indian men's 4x400m relay team finished at
a place:
 (A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 5 (D) 6

11) Which of the following is not a Cardiovascular Endurance test?

(A) Harvard step test (B) Yoyo Endurance test
(C) Cooper Run walk test (D) Kraus weber test

12) Which edition of Olympics going to be held at paris, 2024?

(A) XXXIII (B) XXXIV
(C) XXXV (D) XXXVI

13) Who was the first women Arjuna Award winner in basketball?
(A) Suman Malhan (B) Geethu Anna Jose
(C) Suman Sharma (D) Prashanti Singh

14) Who was the youngest recipient of the Khel Ratan Award?
(A) Virat Kohli (B) Abhinav Bindra
(C) Geet Sethi (D) Vishwanathan Anand

15) The quality of a research is judged by:

(A) Relevance of the research
(B) Methodology adopted for conducting the research
(C) Depth of research
(D) Experience of the researcher

16) A null hypothesis is:

(A) when there is no difference between the variables
(B) the same as research hypothesis
(C) subjective in nature
(D) when there is difference between the variables

17) When a research problem is related to heterogeneous population, the most suitable
sampling method is:
(A) Cluster Sampling (B) Stratified Sampling
(C) Convenient Sampling (D) Lottery Method

18) The use of particular method of teaching depends upon:

(A) Skill of a teacher (B) Gender of a teacher
(C) Age of a teacher (D) Strength of the students

19) Which of the following is not a principle of lesson plan?

(A) Age and gender (B) Progression
(C) Warming Up (D) Teacher’s experience
20) The first step in planning process is:
(A) Determination of objectives (B) Resource Mobilization
(C) Constraints identification (D) Evaluation of alternatives

21) Find the missing number in the following series:1, 3, 9, 15, 25,? , 49.
(A) 29 (B) 30
(C) 35 (D) 40

22) The term caddy associated with which of the following games?
(A) Billiards (B) Golf
(C) Bridge (D) Snooker

23) Who became the first Indian woman to win a javelin gold at the 2023 Asian Games?
(A) Annu Rani (B) Kiran Baliyan
(C) Nadeesha Dilhan (D) Gurmeet Kaur

24) Where did the Asian Wrestling Championships 2024 took place?
(A) India (B) Iran
(C) Japan (D) Bishkek, Kyrgyzstan

25) In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as ‘RFUVQNPC’. How is ‘PRINTER’

written in the same code?
(A) RFUOJSP (B) PFUOJSR
(C) PSJOUFP (D) DRSJOUFP

26) Who became the first-ever Indian to win a men's singles trophy at a World Table
Tennis (WTT) Feeder Series event in Beirut, Lebanon,2024?
(A) Sathiyan Gnanasekaran (B) Harmeet Desai
(C) Sharath Kamal (D) Manav Thakkar

27) Which city has been announced as the host of the 2027 World Athletics
Championships by the World Athletics Council?
(A) London (B) Tokyo
(C) Beijing (D) New Delhi

28) Which two teams compete for Raghuramaiah Trophy?

(A) Actors and politicians
(B) Members of Parliament from the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Cricketers and actors
(D) Veterans and current players
29) To which country did Union Sports Minister Anurag Singh Thakur hand over the
Chess Olympiad Torch to host the 45th edition of chess Olympiad?
(A) Greece (B) Hungary
(C) Russia (D) United States
30) Which one among the following phrases does not correspond to the meaning of
research as a process?
(A) Problem Solving (B) Trial and Error
(C) Systematic activity (D) Objective Observation

31) General motor ability test is propounded by:

(A) Harold M Barrow (B) Jhonson
(C) Mc. Donald (D) Rogers

32) Which part of the brain is in charge of the body temperature and hunger?
(A) Pons (B) Cerebellum
(C) Hypothalamus (D) Thalamus

33) Diarthrosesis a:
(A) Immovable joint (B) Freely moveable joint
(C) Slightly moveable joint (D) Non- moveable joint

34) The amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle is
called:
(A) Vital Capacity (B) Tidal volume
(C) Inspiratory reserve Volume (D) Expiratory Reserve Volume

35) In which year, the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) started the Target
Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)?
(A) 2013 (B) 2014
(C) 2015 (D) 2016

36) The music for the Olympic anthem was composed by:
(A) Spyridon-Filiskos Samaras (B) Carl Diem
(C) Pierre de Coubertin (D) Carl Jung

37) Who won women's singles in the Australian Open 2024?

(A) Zheng Qinwen (B) Aryna Sabalenka
(C) Naomi Osaka (D) Sofia Kenin

38) Which of the following instruments measures the wind speed?

(A) Stadiometer (B) Galvanometer
(C) Anemometer (D) Ammeter

39) Sebastian Coe (President) World athletics associated with which event:
(A) Athletics (Middle Distance (B) Athletics (High Jump)
Race)
(C) Athletics (Triple Jump Event) (D) Athletics (Long Jump Event)
40) In statistics, which one of the following is positional averages:
(A) Arithmetic Mean (B) Median
(C) Geometric mean (D) Harmonic Mean

41) Salivary amylase also known as:

(A) Ptyalin (B) Adrenal
(C) Pepsin (D) Renin

42) What is the mean of the given dataset: 5, 8, 12, 15 ?

(A) 7.5 (B) 10
(C) 11 (D) 15

43) The last event of first day in heptathlon is:

(A) 100 Hurdles (B) 800 m
(C) 200 meter (D) Shot put

44) Which of the following is a vector quantity?

(A) Distance (B) Speed
(C) Strength (D) Velocity

45) Which branch of biomechanics delas with the geometry of motion of objects?
(A) Isokinetic (B) Kinematics
(C) Kinetic (D) Anthropometry

46) The mascot for Paris Olympics 2024 is:

(A) Olympic Phryge
(B) Congcong, Lianlian, and Chenchen
(C) Binbin and Nini
(D) Olympic Hen

47) Jules Rimet Cup associated with:

(A) Football (B) Cricket
(C) Ice Hockey (D) Hockey

48) Sum of observations divided by its number is called:

(A) Median (B) Mode
(C) Standard deviation (D) Mean

49) Dommaraju Gukesh is associated with which game?

(A) Chess (B) Football
(C) Table tennis (D) Badminton

50) The teacher can develop honesty and other good virtues in students by:
(A) Giving lectures
(B) Giving Examples
(C) Giving an example of an honest student of the class
 (D) Giving his/her own example

51) Total number of medals won by India at 20th Asian Wrestling Championship 2024:
(A) 07 (B) 08
(C) 09 (D) 10

52) International Olympic day is observed on:

(A) 23 June (B) 06 April
(C) 07 April (D) 21 June

53) Rousseau had propounded which of the following philosophy?

(A) Pragmatism (B) Realism
(C) Naturalism (D) Idealism

54) Roland-Garros is also known as:

(A) US Open (B) French Open
(C) Wimbledon Open (D) Australian Open

55) Which plane divide the human body intoupper and lower halves?
(A) Frontal (B) Sagittal
(C) Horizontal (D) Vertical

56) In yoga, the term ‘kumbhaka’ is used for:

(A) Inhalation of breath (B) Exhalation of breath
(C) Holding of breath (D) Forceful exhalation of breath

57) ‘Right person at Right place’is known as:

(A) Staffing (B) Directing
(C) Controlling (D) Organization

58) ‘Biceps curl’ uses which class of lever?

(A) First class lever (B) Second class lever
(C) Third class lever (D) Fourth class lever

59) Circuit training method was developed by:

(A) R.E Morgan and G.T Anderson
(B) A.R Morgan and M.P Anderson
(C) James Morgan and James Naismith
(D) Johns Morgan and M. Naismith

60) In sports training, the double periodization consists of how many transition periods?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four

61) EPOC stands for:

(A) Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption
(B) Excess process-exercise oxygen consumption
 (C) Except post-exercise oxygen consumption
(D) Exercise post-excess oxygen consumption

62) Sleeping leg in athletics associated with which of the following event?
(A) High jump (B) Long jump
(C) Pole vault (D) Triple jump

63) Glenohumeral joint is also known as:

(A) Elbow joint (B) Knee joint
(C) Ankle Joint (D) Shoulder joint

64) In a single league fixture of nine teams, the total number of rounds to be played shall
be:
(A) Eight (B) Nine
(C) Ten (D) Seven

65) In which year the oath was taken for the first time in Olympics?
(A) 1920 (B) 1928
(C) 1932 (D) 1936

66) The term Hypoxia associated with:

(A) Lack of Oxygen (B) Lack of blood
(C) Decrease in temperature (D) Increase in temperature

67) In which year did the game of the basketball originate?

(A) 1891 (B) 1892
(C) 1893 (D) 1894

68) The branch of philosophy concerned with examining the nature of knowledge is:
(A) Logic (B) Metaphysics
(C) Epistemology (D) Axiology

69) The Greenfield International Stadium is in which of the following states?

(A) West Bengal (B) Delhi
(C) Kerala (D) Maharashtra

70) Total number of irregular bones found in human body are:

(A) 33 (B) 34
(C) 35 (D) 36

71) In 2000m Steeplechase the number of Water Jumps are:

(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8

72) Which of the following least concerned with the concept of motivation?
(A) Motive (B) Empathy
 (C) Need (D) Drive

73) Who was the father of scientific management?

(A) Max Weber (B) F.W. Taylor
(C) H. Fayol (D) H.W. Knooz

74) When did the University Grants Commission (UGC) came into existence?
(A) 28 December, 1953 (B) 28 December, 1963
(C) 28 December, 1973 (D) 28 December, 1983

75) Who is the current president of WADA?

(A) Witold Banka (B) Sir Craig Reedie
(C) Thomas Bach (D) Jacques Rogge
-*-*-*-
ROUGH WORK
 B.P.Ed. (Bachelor of Physical Education)
1) When YMCA college of Physical Education in India was established?
(A) 1919 (B) 1920
(C) 1921 (D) 1922

2) Which of the following is the scientific name of Vitamin B3?

(A) Riboflavin (B) Thiamine
(C) Niacin (D) Pantothenic Acid

3) What is the existing prize money of Arjuna Award?

(A) 7 lakhs (B) 10 lakhs
(C) 12 lakhs (D) 15 lakhs

4) Which city was the host of the ‘South Asian Youth Table Tennis Championship
2023’?
(A) Itanagar (B) Guwahati
(C) Kolkata (D) Bhubaneswar

5) Which country has won Men’s Junior Asia Cup hockey 2023?
(A) India (B) Pakistan
(C) Malaysia (D) South Korea

6) The amount of blood pumped from the heart with each beat is called:
(A) Cardiac output (B) Vital capacity
(C) Stroke volume (D) VO2

7) Which city was the host of the Special Olympics World Games 2023?
(A) Abu Dhabi (B) Berlin
(C) Los Angeles (D) Athens

8) 2023 Squash World Cup was held at:

(A) Osaka (B) Chennai
(C) Jakarta (D) Brunes Aries

9) Which country was the host of SAFF Championship, 2023?

(A) Shri Lanka (B) Bahrain
(C) India (D) Bangladesh

10) What is the name of the mascot for the 2023 FIFA Women’s World Cup?
(A) Tazuni (B) Tiger
(C) Nenya (D) Kappu

11) Which Indian state hosts the 7th edition of the men’s Asian Champions Trophy hockey
tournament?
(A) Goa (B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Maharashtra (D) Punjab

12) Who is set to become the first Indian woman to serve as a jury member at the Paris
Olympics?
(A) Dipa karmakar (B) Mary Kom
 (C) Pooja Rani (D) Bilquis Mir

13) Where was the first Formula-4 car racing event held in Kashmir?
(A) Banks of Dal lake (B) Zabarwan Hills
(C) Wular Lake (D) Pangong Tso

14) Who was the flag bearer of Indian Contingent during the closing ceremony for the
19th Asian Games held at Hangzhou, China from September 23 to October 8, 2023?
(A) PR Sreejesh (B) Lovlina Borgohain
(C) Harmanpreet Singh (D) Manpreet Singh

15) The Indian equestrian team won gold in Horse Riding at the Asian Games 2023 after
how many years?
(A) 09 (B) 17
(C) 31 (D) 41

16) Which team won the Ranji Trophy 2024?

(A) Mumbai (B) Vidarbha
(C) Karnataka (D) Saurashtra

17) Which 3 countries will host the 2026 FIFA World cup tournament?
(A) US, Mexico and Canada (B) US, Brazil, Mexico
(C) Brazil, Mexico, Colombia (D) Canada, Brazil, Mexico

18) The total number of bones in Axial Skeleton are:

(A) 79 (B) 80
(C) 82 (D) 85

19) The term ‘Genu valgum’ is associated with:

(A) Hunch back (B) Flat Foot
(C) Knock knees (D) Bow legs

20) ‘Hunch Back’ is also known as

(A) Rigid Spine Syndrome (B) Scoliosis
(C) Lordosis (D) Kyphosis

21) Which of the following joints can make greatest variety of movements?
(A) Wrist joint (B) Shoulder joint
(C) Knee joint (D) Neck joint

22) Which Indian athlete had secured a gold medal in the 3000m steeplechase event at the
Asian Games 2023 in Hangzhou, China?
(A) Dharambir Singh (B) Sandeep Kumar
(C) Abhishek Pal (D) Avinash Sable

23) Which Indian shooter won gold in the women’s 50m rifle 3 position event at the Asian
Games 2023 with a record score of 469.6 points?
(A) Rajeshwari Kumari (B) Sift Kaur Samra
(C) Manu Bhaker (D) Mehuli Ghosh
24) The law of acceleration is known as:
(A) Law of inertia (B) Law of momentum
(C) Law of action and reaction (D) Boyle's law

25) The term ‘half- nelson’ associated with which game?

(A) Softball (B) Judo
(C) Wrestling (D) Football

26) ‘K. D. Singh Babu Stadium’ is situated in which state:

(A) New Delhi (B) Punjab
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh

27) Who amongst the following was the father of sports psychology?
(A) B. F. Skinner (B) Coleman Griffth
(C) Sigmund Freud (D) Albert Bandura

28) The instrument used for estimation of body flexibility is :

(A) Stadiometer (B) Goniometer
(C) Skinfold caliper (D) Dynamometer

29) In which year SAI was established by the Government of India?

(A) 1980 (B) 1982
(C) 1983 (D) 1984

30) India finished their Asian Games 2023 campaign with a medal tally of:
(A) 27 gold medals, 39 silver medals and 43 bronze medals
(B) 28 gold medals, 38 silver medals and 41 bronze medals
(C) 28 gold medals, 39 silver medals and 40 bronze medals
(D) 28 gold medals, 36 silver medals and 43 bronze medals

31) Full form of CABPER:

(A) Central Advisory Board of Physical Education and Recreation
(B) Council Advisory Board of Physical Education and Recreation
(C) Central Advancement Board of Physical Education and Recreation
(D) Council Advancement Board of Physical Education and Recreation

32) Deficiency of ‘Vitamin A’ causes:

(A) Beri Beri (B) Scurvy
(C) Rickets (D) Night Blindness

33) Which of the following vitamins are water soluble?

(A) C and B complex (B) D and K complex
(C) A and D complex (D) E and K complex

34) What is the title of autobiography of Major Dhyan Chand?

(A) Goal (B) Ace Against odds
(C) Playing to win (D) A shot at history
35) White blood cells also known as:
(A) Leukocbites (B) Leukocytes
(C) Erythrocytes (D) Thrombocytes

36) Name the instrument that can measure Vital capacity:

(A) Sthethoscope (B) Dynamometer
(C) Spirometer (D) Ergometer

37) What is the name of the autobiography of Kapil Dev?

(A) Straight from the Heart (B) One life is not enough
(C) The test of my life (D) Playing it my way

38) Philosophy of pragmatism promoted by which of the following:

(A) John Dewey (B) Jean Jacques Rousseau
(C) B.F. Skinner (D) Aristotle

39) Total number of apparatuses in Men’s Artistic Gymnastics:

(A) 04 (B) 05
(C) 06 (D) 07

40) When was Indian Hockey Federation established?

(A) 1925 (B) 1926
(C) 1927 (D) 1928

41) Which edition of 2024 Azlan Shah Hockey Cup hosted by Malaysia?
(A) 28th (B) 29th
th
(C) 30 (D) 31st

42) The first Ancient Olympic Games were organized in:

(A) 850BC (B) 1000BC
(C) 776BC (D) 386AD

43) If CHAIR is coded as FKDLU then RAID will be coded as:

(A) UDLG (B) UDGL
(C) ULDG (D) ULKG

44) In your opinion, what is teaching?

(A) To give information
(B) Art of providing information and check homework only
(C) Art of imparting knowledge and inspire the learner to learn
(D) Comes to school daily

45) Teachers' Day or Shikshak Divas is celebrated annually on September 5 in India to

commemorate the birthday of:
(A) Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (B) Dr. Sarveh Radhakrishnan
(C) Dr. Sri Gopal Radhakrishnan (D) Dr. Srinivasan Radhakrishnan

46) Thomas cup is associated with which of the following game?

 (A) Ball badminton (B) Badminton
(C) Table tennis (D) Squash

47) Who is the current president of Athletics Federation of India?

(A) Anju Bobby George (B) Ashutosh Bhalla
(C) Anwar Amin Chelate (D) Adille J. Sumariwalla

48) In anatomical language, the calf muscle is known as:

(A) Gastrocnemius (B) Glutius maximus
(C) Trepizius (D) Triceps

49) What is the number of wisdom teeth in a person?

(A) Four (B) Two
(C) Six (D) Eight

50) Gum is to….. as Socket is to Eye.

(A) Tree (B) Paper
(C) Tooth (D) Stick

51) Find the missing numbers in the series 5, 6, 9, 14, 21, ?

(A) 30 (B) 31
(C) 32 (D) 33

52) What is the missing number in the series:

3, 8, 15, __, 35?
(A) 18 (B) 22
(C) 24 (D) 28

53) Mayank said, “My mother is the sister of Rajat’s brother.” What is Rajat’s relation
with Mayank?
(A) Cousin (B) Uncle
(C) Maternal uncle (D) Brother-in-law

54) Pointing to a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother.” How
is the woman related to the man?
(A) Aunt (B) Daughter
(C) Niece (D) Sister

55) Which of the following names does table tennis not bear?
(A) Ping pong (B) Gossima
(C) Tick tack (D) Whiff- whaff

56) In gymnastic, which of the following equipment is used only by women?

(A) Balancing beam (B) Vaulting horse
(C) Pommel horse (D) Horizontal bars

57) In archery, at which distance is the Olympic round always played?

(A) 30 m (B) 70 m
 (C) 80 m (D) 90 m

58) The sutures of the skull, also referred to as:

(A) Talus sutures (B) Cranial Sutures
(C) Calcaneus Sutures (D) Cuneiform sutures

59) What according to biologists, is the seat of life?

(A) A cell (B) A tissue
(C) An organ (D) A system

60) Mascot of the Khelo India Winter Games 2024 was:

(A) ‘Sheen-e She’ or Shan’, Polar Bear
(B) ‘Sheen-e She’ or Shan’, A Snow Leopard
(C) Appu, Indian elephant
(D) Sheera, Bengal Tiger

61) Major Dhyan Chand lifetime achievement award was started in the year:
(A) 2002 (B) 2003
(C) 2004 (D) 2005

62) Parkinson's disease closely associated with:

(A) Loss of neurons (B) Loss of Appetite
(C) Loss of muscle strength (D) Loss of sleep

63) The ancient Olympic games were held in the Honour of God:
(A) Apollo (B) Zeus
(C) Mars (D) Poseidon

64) Total number of points awarded to a team in case of ‘LONA’:

(A) 01 (B) 02
(C) 03 (D) 04

65) The exact distance run by an athlete in a Marathon Race is:

(A) 42,196 km (B) 42,169 km
(C) 42,195 km (D) 42,159 km

66) Width of the Arch in javelin throw event is:

(A) 5cm wide (B) 6cm wide
(C) 7cm wide (D) 8 cm wide

67) The last event of the first day of decathlon is:

(A) 100m (B) 400m
(C) Long jump (D) 1500m

68) The amount of blood pumped by the heart in one minute during rest in normal human
body is:
(A) 5-6 L/min (B) 7-8 L/min
 (C) 10-11 L/min (D) 12-13L/min

69) Number of bones in the thoracic region of vertebrae of human Skelton are:
(A) 5 (B) 7
(C) 12 (D) 10

70) The suicidal bags of cells are called:

(A) Lysosomes (B) Cytoplasm
(C) Mitochondria (D) Organelles

71) The major function of the ligaments in the body is to:

(A) Keep the body straight
(B) Hold the bones together at the joints
(C) Help the individual move fast
(D) Give strength to the skeleton

72) The role of tendon is to:

(A) connect muscle to bone (B) connect ligament to muscle
(C) connect bone to ligament (D) connect tissue to cell

73) Which of the following games was initially called ‘Mintonette’?

(A) Volleyball (B) Lawn tennis
(C) Basketball (D) Badminton

74) The Arjuna Award winner Dinesh Khanna is related to which of the following sports?
(A) Tennis (B) Kabaddi
(C) Badminton (D) Wrestling

75) Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) 2023 held from January 19-31, 2024 at Tamil
Nadu had included how many sports disciplines?
(A) 24 (B) 25
(C) 26 (D) 27
-*-*-*-
ROUGH WORK
 MSc(HS)(Biochemistry)
1. Which of the following makes water a liquid at room temperature?
(A) Noncovalent interactions (B) Hydrogen bonds between water
molecules
(C) Van der Waals forces of attraction (D) Covalent bonding

2. Which of the following mixture in aqueous solution of equimolar concentration acts as

a buffer solution?
(A) NH4 OH(excess) + HCl (B) HNO3 + NaOH
(C) CH3 COOH + NaOH(excess) (D) H2 SO4 + KOH

3. Which of the following is an imino acid?

(A) Serine (B) Alanine (C) Glycine (D) Proline
4. Which of the following is a 39-residue hormone of the anterior pituitary gland?
(A) Glucagon (B) Bradykinin (C) Corticotropin (D) Insulin
5. Which of the following statements is correct about column chromatography?
(A) Resolution improves as column length increases
(B) Mobile phase is a porous solid material kept in the column with appropriate
chemical characteristics
(C) Stationary phase is a buffered solution that percolates through the mobile
phase
(D) All proteins exit the column at a fast rate

6. The amino acid sequences of thousands of different proteins from many species have
been determined using principles first developed by?
(A) Watson and Crick (B) Edman
(C) Sanger (D) Mendel

7. Which of the following is abundantly found in collagen?

(A) Tryptophan (B) Alanine (C) Glycine (D) Serine
8. Which enzyme plays the role of a catalyst in CO2 fixation in C4 plants?
(A) Carbonic mutase (B) Carbonic reductase
(C) Carbonic dehydrogenase (D) Carbonic anhydrase

9. Which of the following catalyzes the reversible degradation of 2-phosphoglycerate to

phosphoenolpyruvate?
(A) Trypsin (B) Enolase (C) Chymotrypsin (D) Hexokinase
10. Which of the following enzyme catalyzes a reaction that introduces reduced nitrogen
into cellular metabolism?
(A) Bacterial dinitrogenase reductase (B) Phosphatase
(C) Bacterial glutamine synthase (D) Bacterial dinitrogenase oxidase

11. Which of the following is an example of epimers?

(A) Mannose &Glucose (B) Glucose & Ribose
(C) Galactose & Mannose (D) Glucose & Galactose

12. Anthrone method is preferred in the determination of ___________

(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (C) Vitamins (D) Fats
13. Fructose and Glucose can be distinguished by ___________
(A) Seliwanoff’s reagent (B) Benedict’s reagent
(C) Fehling’s reagent (D) Barfoed’s reagent

14. In which of the following forms, glucose is stored in plants?

(A) Glycogen (B) Starch (C) Dextrin (D) Cellulose
15. Which of the following are found in connective tissues?
(A) Glycosaminoglycans (B) Proteoglycans
(C) Glycoproteins (D) Glycolipids

16. Which of the following glycoprotein functions as a lubricant and protective agent?
(A) Collagens (B) Mucins (C) Transferrins (D) Immunoglobulins
17. Which of the following are the major component of chloroplast membrane of plants
and are absent from animal cells?
(A) Glycolipids (B) Phospholipids (C) Ether lipids (D) Triacylglycerols
18. Plasma membrane is permeable to __________
(A) ATP (B) Glucose (C) K+ (D) Urea
19. Arrangement of nucleotides in DNA can be seen using which of the following
instruments?
(A) Electron microscope (B) Light microscope
(C) X-Ray crystallography (D) Ultracentrifuge

20. Which of the following involves carrying genetic information from DNA for protein
synthesis?
(A) sn-RNA (B) r-RNA (C) m-RNA (D) t-RNA
21. Which of the following is true about Tm?
(A) The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the lower the Tm
(B) The higher the content of A = T base pairs, the higher the Tm
(C) It can be termed as renaturation temperature
(D) The higher the content of G ≡ C base pairs, the higher the Tm

22. What is the composition of nucleoside?

(A) a sugar + a phosphate (B) a base + a sugar
(C) a base + a phosphate (D) a base + a sugar + phosphate

23. The sugar-phosphate backbone is negatively charged. Which of these ions is used to
stabilize this charge?
(A) Cu2+ (B) Mg2+ (C) Na+ (D) K+
24. What is the purpose of Glutathione?
(A) Shielding cellular macromolecules from damage by reactive oxygen species
(B) Hormones which cause rise in blood pressure
(C) Artificial sweetener
(D) Antibiotic

25. Light produced by fireflies is the result of the protein ___________

(A) Coelenterazine (B) Oxyluciferin (C) Aequorin (D) Luciferin
26. Which biologically important peptide can be used as an artificial sweetener?
(A) Gramicidin (B) Oxytocin (C) Vasopressin (D) Aspartame
27. What is the function of SDS during electrophoresis?
(A) Increase concentration of the protein (B) To coagulate the proteins
(C) Identify the proteins (D) Denature the proteins
28. Which of the following parts of the mRNA determines the specificity of the amino
acid attached?
(A) Acceptor stem (B) Variable loop (C) ΨU loop (D) D loop
29. Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
(A) Methionine (B) Threonine (C) Lysine (D) Cysteine
30. Which of the following can be formed by hydroxylation of phenylalanine?
(A) Serine (B) Tyrosine (C) Tryptophan (D) Leucine
31. The branched chain amino acid is not _________
(A) Leucine (B) Isoleucine (C) Valine (D) Alanine
32. Intermediates of which of the following metabolic pathway have not been used in the
synthesis of amino acids?
(A) Glycolysis (B) Fatty acid biosynthesis
(C) Citric acid cycle (D) Pentose phosphate pathway
33. Name the type of cell in which synthesis of urea cycle takes place?
(A) Pancreatic cell (B) Hepatocyte
(C) Bowman’s gland cell (D) Urinary epithelium cell
34. What is the primary function of triglycerides?
(A) Structural integrity (B) Digestion and absorption
(C) Store fats (D) Hormone production
35. What is the function of HDL?
(A) Carry cholesterol from liver to cells (B) Carry cholesterol from tissues to
liver
(C) Carry cholesterol from tissues to kidney (D) Carry cholesterol from heart to
kidney
36. __________ combines with an enzyme to alter the catalytic activity.
(A) Inhibitor (B) Effector (C) Co-enzyme (D) Holoenzyme
37. Salvage pathway is used in the synthesis of ___________
(A) Amino acid (B) Carbohydrate (C) Nucleotide (D) Fatty acid
38. What is the final product of purine degradation in mammals?
(A) Guanine (B) Inosine (C) Uric acid (D) Hypoxanthine
39. Name the deficiency in which T and B lymphocyte do not develop properly?
(A) XLA (B) CVID (C) SCID (D) Multiple myeloma
40. What is Isopycnic condition during the extraction and purification of proteins?
(A) Separation occurs by difference in size
(B) Separation occurs by difference in density
(C) Separation occurs by difference in molecular weight
(D) Separation occurs by difference in concentration
41. Name the enzyme which degrades dsDNA after recognizing specific nucleotide
sequences?
 (A) RNase H (B) Restriction endonuclease
(C) DNA polymerase (D) Ligases

42. Which of the following ensure stable binding of RNA polymerase at the promoter
site?
(A) DNA photolyase (B) Sigma factor
(C) DNA glycosylase (D) RecA

43. Mark the one, which is NOT the transcription inhibitor in eukaryotes.
(A) Rifampicin (B) Acridine dye (C) Actinomycin D (D) Rho factor
44. Capping of RNA is necessary _______
(A) as it helps us distinguish 5’ from 3’ end
(B) as it has a rolling action and condenses the transcript as it is produced
(C) to protect the transcript from exonuclease
(D) to prevent the transcript from sticking to DNA

45. Which antibiotic inhibits transcription elongation?

(A) Rifampicin (B) Streptolydigin (C) Penicillin (D) Tetracyclin
46. In a stretch of DNA being transcribed, the region forward to the Elongation
is__________
(A) Positively supercoiled (B) Negatively supercoiled
(C) Uncoiled (D) Forms a secondary structure

47. Which of the following statements is true about uncompetitive inhibitors?

(A) They bind covalently at a site distinct from the substrate active site
(B) In the presence of a uncompetitive inhibitor, the Michaelis-Menten equation
becomes
V0=Vmax[S]Km+α′[S]
(C) They increase the measured Vmax
(D) Apparent Km also increases

48. The molecule which acts directly on an enzyme to lower its catalytic rate is
__________
(A) Repressor (B) Inhibitor (C) Modulator (D) Regulator
49. The catalytic efficiency of two distinct enzymes can be compared based on which of
the
following factor?
(A) Km (B) Product formation
(C) Size of the enzymes (D) pH of optimum value

50. What is the ratio of V0/Vmax when [S] = 10Km?

(A) ½ (B) 10/11 (C) 4/5 (D) 5/6
51. Chymotrypsin: Nucleophilic catalysis:: Carboxypeptidase A: __________
(A) General acid-base catalysis (B) Specific acid-base catalysis
(C) Electrophilic catalysis (D) Nucleophilic catalysis

52. Where does photosynthesis take place in C3 plants?

(A) C3 station (B) Arthroplasty
(C) Mesosomes (D) Mesophyll cells
53. Erythrocyte glucose transporter is an example of ____________
(A) Ion driven active transport (B) Facilitated diffusion
(C) Active transport (D) Simple diffusion

54. Semipermeable membrane allows ____________

(A) Solute to pass (B) Solution to pass
(C) Solvent to pass (D) Proteins to pass

55. HCO3– – Cl– transporter is an example of ____________

(A) Uniport (B) Antiport (C) Symport (D) Facilitated diffusion
56. In the pentose phosphate pathway, the major products are ____________
(A) Ribulose and NADPH (B) Ribulose and NADH
+
(C) Ribulose and NAD (D) Ribulose and ATP

57. The only membrane bound enzyme in the citric acid cycle is _________
(A) Succinate dehydrogenase (B) NADH dehydrogenase
(C) ATP synthase (D) Acyl co-A dehydrogenase

58. Complex 4 in mitochondrial electron transport chain is also called _________

(A) NADH dehydrogenase (B) Succinate dehydrogenase
(C) Cytochrome bc1 complex (D) Cytochrome oxidase

59. Gluconeogenesis involves the conversion of ____________

(A) Glucose to pyruvate (B) Pyruvate to glucose
(C) Phosphoenolpyruvate to glucose (D) Pyruvate to fructose

60. Glucagon is released from ___________

(A) Muscle (B) Pancreas (C) Kidneys (D) Epithelial tissues
61. Chemiosmotic hypothesis does not involve ____________
(A) Only proton transport is strictly regulated, other positively charged ions can
diffuse freely across the mitochondrial membrane
(B) ATPase activity is reversible
(C) Proton flow into the mitochondria depends on the presence of ADP and Pi
(D) Electron transport by the respiratory chain pumps protons out of the
mitochondria

62. β-pleated sheets are the examples of _________

(A) Primary structure (B) Secondary structure
(C) Tertiary structure (D) Quaternary structure
63. Which of the following is a function of B lymphocytes?
(A) Express large numbers of T cell receptors
(B) Produce and secrete antibodies
(C) Interact with infected host cells through receptors on T-cell surface
(D) Interact with macrophages and secrete cytokines
64. The antibody present in secretions like tears and saliva is ____________
(A) IgA (B) IgE (C) IgG (D) IgM

65. Contractile protein of a muscle is __________

(A) Troponin (B) Myosin (C) Tubulin (D) Tropomyosin

66. Which of the following is the correct equation of photosynthesis?

(A) 6CO2 + 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2
(B) 12H2O → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2
(C) 6CO2 + 6O2 → C6H12O6 + 12H2O
(D) 6CO2 → C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2
67. Which of the following histones bind to linker DNA?
(A) H1 (B) H2A (C) H2B (D) H3

68. The genetic code translated the language of ____________

(A) Proteins into that of RNA (B) Amino acids into that of RNA
(C) RNA into that of proteins (D) RNA into that of DNA
69. Which of the following inactivates the 60S subunit of eukaryotic ribosomes?
(A) Chloramphenicol (B) Cycloheximide
(C) Diphtheria toxin (D) Ricin
70. The eukaryotic mRNA binding to the ribosomes is facilitated by ____________
(A) T-RNA (B) Poly-A tail
(C) Shine Dalgarno sequence (D) 7-methyl guanosine cap
71. Which of the following reactions is required for proofreading during DNA replication
by DNA polymerase III?
(A) 5’ to 3’ exonuclease activity (B) 3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity
(C) 3’ to 5’ endonuclease activity (D) 5’ to 3’ endonuclease activity
72. Which enzyme is used to remove the primer from the Okazaki fragment?
(A) Endonuclease (B) RNase H (C) 5’ exonuclease (D) Polymerase

73. Which of the following does not take part in stabilizing the cloverleaf model of the
tRNA?
(A) Base stacking
(B) Base and sugar-phosphate backbone interaction
(C) Ionic bond
(D) Hydrogen bond
74. Vaccine to prevent Hepatitis is an example of _______.
(A) Subunit Vaccine (B) Killer Vaccine
(C) Toxoids Vaccine (D) Recombinant Vaccine
75. One of the following vitamins is synthesized by bacteria in the intestine
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin K (C) Vitamin D (D) Vitamin E
 MSc(HS)(Biophysics)
1. Percentage energy transferred from plants to herbivores is
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 50 (D) 80
2. The force per unit charge is known as
(A) Electric current (B) Electric potential (C) Electric field (D) Electric space
3. Which of the following factors does the intensity of light depend on?
(A) Frequency (B) Wavelength (C) Amplitude (D) Velocity
4. Maximum absorption of UV light at wavelength 280 nm by a protein is due to
(A) Aromatic amino acids (B) Aromatic amino acids and peptide bond
(C) Aliphatic amino acids (D) Aromatic and aliphatic amino acids
5. In non-dividing cells the chromosome remains in which form?
(A) Euchromatin (B) Heterochromatin (C) Supercoiled (D) Condensed
6. Prokaryotic organisms include
(A) Archaebacteria, eubacteria and protists (B) Archaebacteria and protists
(C) Eubacteria and protists (D) Eubacteria and Archaebacteria
7. Unicellular eukaryotes are grouped into
(A) Fungi and plantae (B) Fungi (C) Protists (D) Eubacteria
8. The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is a
(A) Population (B) Species (C) Gene (D) Phyllum
9. Which of the following does not represent a valid amino acid sequence
(A) EINSTEIN (B) CRICK (C) FARADAY (D) WATSON
10. Two 18-residue helical peptides A and B are enantiomers. They can be distinguished
by
(A) MALDI mass spectrum
(B) Hydrolysis followed by amino acid analysis
(C) Sequencing by Edman degradation
(D) Circular dichroism spectra
11. Which macromolecules would yield only one type of monomer after complete
hydrolysis?
(A) DNA (B) Glycogen (C) Lipoprotein (D) RNA
12. Chirality of DNA is due to
(A) The bases (B) Base stacking
(C) Hydrogen bonds between bases (D) Deoxyribose
13. Enzymes help to lower the activation energies of reactions by
(A) Covalent interactions with the substrates (B) Binding only with solvent molecules
(C) Changing reaction equilibria (D) Weak interactions with the substrates
14. Telomeric DNA does not contain
(A) G-rich sequences (B) Quadruplex (C) T and D loops (D) AT rich sequences
15. Human genome contains about
(A) 2 billion base pairs (B) 3 billion base pairs
(C) 4 billion base pairs (D) 5 billion base pairs
16. Which enzyme is involved in repair mechanism
(A) DNA polymerase (B) RNA polymerase
(C) Restriction endonuclease (D) Photolase
17. Which feature is not a characteristic of the animals
(A) Multicellular heterotrophs (B) Sexual reproduction
(C) Embryonic development (D) Presence of cell wall
18. In bacteria, the site of respiration is
(A) Golgi bodies (B) Cytoplasm
(C) Endoplasmic reticulum Microsomes (D) None of these
19. The shape of RBCs is
(A) Circular biconcave (B) Oval biconcave
(C) Circular biconvex (D) Oval biconvex
20. In human males, testosterone is produced mainly by the
(A) Leydig cells (B) Sertoli cells
(C) Seminiferous tubules (D) Epididymis
21. Which of the following will be found in an animal cell but not a bacterial cell?
(A) DNA (B) Cell wall
(C) Ribosomes (D) Endoplasmic reticulum
22. Cells absorb iron by the process of
(A) Phagocytosis (B) Pinocytosis (C) Endocytosis (D) Active transport
23. When DNA is denatured by heating and then allowed to renature, there will be
(A) An increase in absorbance at 595 nm (B) A decrease in absorbance at 260 nm
(C) An increase in absorbance at 260 nm (D) No change in absorbance at 260 nm
24. Among the following, which ions are not used in active transport
(A) Na+ (B) K+ (C) Ca+ (D) Cl-
25. A bioinformatics tool used to find sequence similarity in the subunits of haemoglobin
is
(A) FASTA (B) BLAST (C) HUMMER (D) PSI-BLAST
26. The antigen-processing cell in higher organisms is
(A) T-cell (B) Macrophage (C) Megakaryocyte (D) Eosinophil
27. Which alignment is used to predict whether two sequences are homologous or not?
(A) Local (B) Global (C) Pair-wise (D) Multiple
28. The technique used for observing 3-D structures is
(A) Scanning electron Microscopy (B) Transmission Electron Microscopy
(C) Confocal Microscopy (D) UV Microscopy
29. In sandwich ELISA the molecule captured is
(A) Antibody (B) Antigen (C) Enzyme (D) Nitrocellulose
30. Amongst the following which is global cycle
(A) Carbon (B) Sulphur (C) Boron (D) Nitrogen
31. At the time of origin of life, which of the following was absent in the atmosphere
(A) O2 (B) NH3 (C) CH4 (D) H2
32. On the molar scale, which of the following interactions in a nonpolar environment
provides the highest contribution to the biomolecule?
(A) Van der Waals interaction (B) Hydrogen bonding
(C) Salt bridge (D) Hydrophobic interaction
33. In which form of DNA, the number of base pairs per helical turn is 10.5
(A) A (B) B (C) X (D) Z
34. The bending of a beam of light when it passes obliquely from one medium to another
is known as _______.
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction (C) Dispersion (D) Deviation
35. The stress response is controlled primarily by the
(A) Kidneys (B) Adrenal glands (C) Hypothalamus (D) Thyroid gland
36. Ventricular hypertrophy will result in
(A) High Voltage electrocardiogram (B) Low Voltage electrocardiogram
(C) Isoelectric electrocardiogram (D) Decreased Heart Rate
37. Which of the following property is not related to water?
(A) High Dielectric constant (B) Dipolar nature
(C) Bond angle 109.5° (D) Low heat of vaporization
38. dsDNA is made radioactive in both its strands. It is allowed to replicate twice in non-
radioactive medium. The result would be
(A) all strands have radioactivity
(B) half of the strands have radioactivity
(C) three of the strands have radioactivity
(D) radioactivity is absent in all the cells
39. Nerve action potential does not depend upon
(A) Voltage gated sodium channels
(B) Voltage gated potassium channels
(C) Thickness of nerves
(D) Conductance of voltage gated channels
40. Degeneracy of genetic code implies that
(A) more than one code can code for one amino acid
(B) the codons degenerate after the synthesis of the polypeptide
(C) one code can code for more than one amino acid
(D) some codons degenerate as they are not involved in coding for any amino acid
41. The shine-dalgarno sequence is responsible for
(A) Binding of RNA polymerase to gene during transcription
(B) Binding of DNA polymerase to origin of replication during DNA replication
(C) Binding of ribosomes to mRNA during initiation of translation
(D) Binding of snurps during splicing
42. The melting temperature (tm) of DNA is:
(A) Directly proportional to the length of DNA
(B) Directly proportional to the GC content
(C) Not related to the base content
(D) Directly proportional to the AT content

43. In cellular respiration, which of the following processes occur only inside mitochondria
and not in the cytoplasm?
(A) Glycolysis and the pentose-phosphate pathway
(B) Glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
(C) Citric acid cycle and oxidative phosphorylation
(D) Glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation

44. On sequence analysis of a double stranded DNA, the results show the content of
cytosine, C was 20%. What is the amount of A and T put together?
(A) 20% (B) 30% (C) 50% (D) 60%
45. Ability of a membrane protein to span the lipid bilayer strictly depends on the presence
of
(A) Zinc finger domain (B) α helices
(C) Parallel β sheets (D) Antiparallel β sheets

46. Diabetic patients are advised low glycemic index diet. The reason for this is that
(A) They require less carbohydrates than healthy individuals
(B) They cannot assimilate ordinary carbohydrates
(C) They need to have slow, but sustained release of glucose in their blood stream
(D) They can tolerate lower, but not higher than normal blood sugar levels

47. Which of the following particles has the largest range in a given medium if their initial
energies are the same
(A) Alpha (B) Gamma (C) Positron (D) Electron
48. The acidity of normal rain water is due to
(A) SO2 (B) CO2 (C) NO2 (D) NO
49. The DNA fingerprinting process involves
(A) Chain terminators (B) Degenerate oligonucleotides
(C) VNTR loci (D) RFLPs
50. In agarose gel electrophoresis
(A) DNA migrates towards the negative electrode
(B) Supercoiled plasmids migrate slower than their nicked counterparts
(C) Larger molecules migrate faster than smaller molecules
(D) Ethidium bromide can be used to visualize DNA
51. Shotgun approach is used for the construction of
(A) cDNA library (B) genomic library (C) protein library(D) metabolic pathways
52. Innate immune responses are most effective against
(A) Antigens resembling self antigens
(B) Common epitopes on bacteria
(C) Genetically engineered antigens
(D) Viruses that have previously caused infection
53. Transfection refers to
(A) Synthesis of mRNA from a DNA template
(B) Synthesis of protein based on an mRNA sequence
(C) Introduction of foreign DNA into a cell
(D) The process by which a normal cell becomes malignant
54. A virion is a
(A) Naked, infectious piece of RNA (B) Complete, infectious virus particle
(C) Nucleic acid without a capsid (D) A naked, infectious piece of DNA
55. RNA as a genetic material, is found in
(A) Plasmodium (B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Schizosaccharomyces cerevisiae (D) Polio virus
56. Inflammation does not involve
(A) Cytokine production by macrophages
(B) Migration of leukocytes out of the circulation
(C) Pain and swelling at the site of infection
(D) Secretion of antibodies
57. Long term reflex actions such as cycling and swimming are controlled by
(A) Cerebellum (B) Spinal cord (C) Hypothalamus (D) Cerebrum
58. Most of the CO2 transported in the blood is
(A) Dissolved in plasma
(B) In carbamino compounds formed from plasma proteins
(C) Bound to Cl-
(D) In the form of HCO3-
59. The most abundant protein in human blood is
(A) Transferrin (B) Albumin (C) γ-globulin (D) Haemoglobin
60. The helical structure of DNA is determined by
(A) Electron diffraction measurement (B) Neutron diffraction measurement
(C) X-ray diffraction measurement (D) Diffraction of visible light
61. Which gas law states that each gas in a mixture exerts its own pressure as if all the other
gases were not present?
(A) Boyle’s law (B) Henry’s law (C) Dalton’s law (D) Haldane’s law
62. The gall bladder
(A) Produces bile (B) Is attached to the pancreas
(C) Stores and concentrates bile (D) Produces cholecystokinin
63. Radioactive iodine can be incorporated into
(A) Serine (B) Threonine (C) Tyrosine (D) Leucine
64. The neurons of a person with diabetes mellitus do not produce sufficient __________
(A) ATP (B) Fatty acids (C) Enzymes (D) Steroids
65. Most abundant protein in the human body is
(A) Actin (B) Collagen (C) Myosin (D) Immunoglobulin
66. DNA base stacking is identified by
(A) Hyperchromicity (B) Hypochromacity
(C) pH change (D) Temperature change
67. According to Beer-Lambert’s law, what will be the absorbance when I = I0/10
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 0.1 (D) 100
68. High energy bond present in ATP is
(A) Phosphoester bond (B) Ether bond
(C) Phosphoanhydride bond (D) Phosphodiester bond
69. The most abundant intracellular free nucleotide is
(A) ATP (B) FAD+ (C) NAD+ (D) NADP+
70. A radioisotope used to label proteins differentially from nucleic acids is
(A) 32P (B) 14C (C) 35S (D) 15N
71. Chargaff’s rules states that
(A) In RNA, A=U, and in DNA, A=T (B) G=C in both RNA and DNA
(C) A+T/G+C = 0 (D) A+G/T+C =1
72. Glucose and mannose are epimers. This means that
(A) They are mirror images of each other
(B) One is an aldose, the other a ketose
(C) They rotate plane polarized light in opposite directions
(D) They differ only in the configuration of one carbon atom
73. Hertz (Hz) is used to express
(A) Frequency (B) Power (C) Luminous intensity (D) Force
74. Which of the following compounds is not amphipathic
(A) Phosphatidylcholine (B) Cholesterol
(C) Oleic acid (D) Succinate
75. The lower value of Michaelis constant shows
(A) Greater affinity of the enzyme for the substrate
(B) Less affinity of the enzyme for the substrate
(C) Enzyme is allosteric
(D) Is not related to enzyme activity
x-x-x

(ROUGH WORK)
 MSc(HS)(Computer Science Specialisation in Data Science)
1. Comment on the following statement.
n = 1; printf("%d, %d", 3*n, n++);
(A) Output will be 3, 2 (B) Output will be 3, 1
(C) Output will be 6, 1 (D) Output is compiler dependent
2. Which of the following option is the correct representation of the following C
statement?
e = a * b + c / d * f;
(A) e = (a * (b +(c /(d * f)))); (B) e = ((a * b) + (c / (d * f)));
(C) e = ((a * b) + ((c / d)* f)); (D) e = (a * ((b + c) / d) * f);
3. In C++, a member function can always access the data in
(A) the class of which it is member (B) the object of which it is a member
(C) the public part of its class (D) the private part of its class
4. Which of the following cannot be passed to a function in C++ ?
(A) Constant (B) Structure (C) Array (D) Header file
5. Modules in C++ programs are
(A) functions (B) procedures (C) subroutines (D) mini-programs
6. Which is correct with respect to the size of the data types?
(A) char > int > float (B) int > char > float
(C) char < int < double (D) double > char > int
7. Which of the following sorting algorithms can be used to sort a random linked list with
minimum time complexity?
(A) Insertion Sort (B) Quick Sort (C) Heap Sort (D) Merge Sort
8. In the worst case, the number of comparisons needed to search a singly linked list of
length n for a given element is
(A) log 2n (B) n/2 (C) log 2n −1 (D) n
9. Let T be a binary search tree with 15 nodes. The minimum and maximum possible
heights of T are (Note: The height of a tree with a single node is 0.)
(A) 4 and 15 (B) 3 and 14 (C) 4 and 14 (D) 3 and 15
10. In a complete k-ary tree, every internal node has exactly k children or no child. The
number of leaves in such a tree with n internal nodes is
(A) nk (B) (n – 1) k + 1 (C) n(k – 1) + 1 (D) n(k – 1)
11. Which of the following is FALSE about a doubly linked list?
(A) We can navigate in both the directions
(B) It requires more space than a singly linked list
(C) The insertion and deletion of a node take a bit longer
(D) Implementing a doubly linked list is easier than singly linked list
12. What does the other nodes of an expression tree (except leaves) contain?
(A) Only operands (B) Only operators
(C) Both operands and operators (D) Expression
13. Which of the following traversal outputs the data in sorted order in a BST?
(A) Preorder (B) Inorder (C) Postorder (D) Level order
14. Which of the following is TRUE about linked list implementation of stack?
(A) In push operation, if new nodes are inserted at the beginning of linked list, then
in pop operation, nodes must be removed from end
(B) In push operation, if new nodes are inserted at the end, then in pop operation,
nodes must be removed from the beginning
(C) Both (A) and (B) are true
(D) None of the above
15. ++a*bc*+defg is a/an
(A) Postfix expression (B) Infix expression
(C) Prefix expression (D) Invalid expression
16. The average depth of a binary tree is given as
(A) 𝑂(𝑁) (B) 𝑂(𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑁) (C) 𝑂(𝑀 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑁) (D) 𝑂(√𝑁 )
17. What is the best time complexity of bubble sort?
(A) 𝑂(𝑁 ) (B) 𝑂(𝑁 log 𝑁) (C) 𝑂(𝑁) (D) 𝑂(𝑁 (log 𝑁 )
18. The travelling salesman problem can be solved in
(A) polynomial time using dynamic programming algorithm
(B) polynomial time using branch-and-bound algorithm
(C) exponential time using dynamic programming algorithm or branch-and-bound
algorithm
(D) polynomial time using backtracking algorithm
19. Consider a situation where swap operation is very costly. Which of the following
sorting algorithms should be preferred so that the number of swap operations is minimized in
general?
(A) Heap sort (B) Selection sort (C) Insertion sort (D) Merge sort
20. A semaphore is a shared integer variable
(A) that cannot drop below zero (B) that cannot be more than zero
(C) that cannot drop below one (D) that cannot be more than one
21. The technique in which the CPU generates physical addresses directly is known as
(A) Relocation register method (B) Real addressing
(C) Virtual addressing (D) None of the above
22. Message passing system allows processes to
(A) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data
(B) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data
(C) share data
(D) name the recipient or sender of the message

23. What is Inter process communication?

(A) Allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the
same address space
 (B) Allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using
the same address space
(C) Allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication
(D) None of the above
24. Which of the following is true for a Hash tree?
(A) Hashing is used for sequential access (B) Indexing is used for direct access
(C) Hash tree allows only sequential access (D) Hashing is used for direct access
25. In RDBMS, different classes of relations are created using ……………….. technique
to prevent modification anomalies.
(A) functional dependencies (B) data integrity
(C) referential integrity (D) normal forms
26. Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Every relation in 3NF is also in BCNF
(B) A relation R is in 3NF if every non-prime attribute of R is fully
functionally dependent on every key of R
(C) Every relation in BCNF is also in 3NF
(D) No relation can be in both BCNF and 3NF
27. In RDBMS, the constraint that no key attribute (column)may be NULL is referred to as
(A) referential integrity (B) multi-valued dependency
(C) entity integrity (D) functional dependency
28. Page information in memory is also called as Page Table. The essential contents in each
entry of a page table is/are
(A) page access information
(B) virtual page number
(C) page frame number
(D) both virtual page number and page frame number
29. Which one of the following is NOT shared by the threads of the same process?
(A) Stack (B) Address Space
(C) File Descriptor Table (D) Message Queue
30. What is the missing number in the following sequence?
2, 12, 60, 240, 720, 1440, ………., 0
(A) 2880 (B) 1440 (C) 720 (D) 0
31. What is the average of all multiples of 10 from 2 to 198?
(A) 90 (B) 100 (C) 110 (D) 120

32. If a fair coin is tossed four times. What is the probability that two heads and two tails
will result?
(A) (B) (C) (D)

33. What will be the next number?

3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, ……….
 (A) 21 (B) 19 (C) 25 (D) 23
34. A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side one unit. After it is built, one cubic block
is removed from every corner of the cube. The resulting surface area of the body (in square
units) after the removal is
(A) 56 (B) 64 (C) 72 (D) 96
35. Equivalence of automata states that
(A) two automata accept the same set of input strings
(B) two automata have same set of states
(C) two automata does not contain initial input symbols
(D) two automata share equal transition function
36. In the principle of mathematical induction, which of the following steps is mandatory?
(A) Induction hypothesis (B) Inductive reference
(C) Induction set assumption (D) Minimal set representation
37. How many prime numbers are between 1 to 30?
(A) 9 (B) 11 (C) 10 (D) 12
38. The brain of any computer system is
(A) ALU (B) Memory (C) CPU (D) Control unit
39. Which of the following is the 1's complement of 10011?
(A) 01110 (B) 01101 (C) 10000 (D) 01100
40. A computer program that converts assembly language to machine language is
(A) Compiler (B) Interpreter (C) Assembler (D) Comparator
41. A single packet on a data link is known as
(A) Path (B) Frame (C) Block (D) Group
42. The 2's complement of a binary no. 10010 is
(A) 01110 (B) 10110 (C) 01101 (D) 01111
43. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device
(A) Router (B) Bridge (C) Repeater (D) Modem
44. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?
(A) 127.0.0.1 (B) 255.0.0.0 (C) 255.255.0.0 (D) 255.255.255.0
45. Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation?
(A) modem (B) protocols (C) gateway (D) multiplexer
46. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring electronic mail
messages from one machine to another?
(A) FTP (B) SNMP (C) SMTP (D) RPC
47. The slowest transmission speeds are those of
(A) twisted-pair wire (B) coaxial cable
(C) fiber-optic cable (D) microwaves
48. What device separates a single network into two segments but lets the two segments
appear as one to higher protocols?
 (A) Switch (B) Bridge (C) Gateway (D) Router
49. A _____ is an outline of a process that keeps develop successful information systems
(A) System Development Life Cycle (B) CASE tool
(C) Phased Conversion (D) Success Factors
50. The _____ symbol is used in a flowchart to represent a step that gets information from
the user.
(A) Input/Output (B) Process (C) Selection/repetition (D) Start/Stop
51. If n(P) = 20 and n(Q) = 30 and n(P U Q) = 40 then n(P ∩ Q) is:
(A) 10 (B) 20 (C) 30 (D) 40
52. What is the Cartesian product of A = {1, 2} and B = {a, b}?
(A) {(1, a), (1, b), (2, a), (b, b)} (B) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (a, a), (b, b)}
(C) {(1, a), (2, a), (1, b), (2, b)} (D) {(1, 1), (a, a), (2, a), (1, b)}
53. Expression 𝑝 → 𝑞 is equivalent to
(A) ¬𝑝 ∧ 𝑞 (B) 𝑝 ∨ 𝑞 (C) 𝑝 ∨ ¬𝑞 (D) ¬𝑝 ∨ 𝑞
54. A → (A ∨ q) is a __________
(A) Tautology (B) Contradiction (C) Contingency (D) Not implication
55. A function is said to be ______________ if and only if f(a) = f(b) implies that a = b for
all a and b in the domain of f.
(A) One-to-many (B) One-to-one (C) Many-to-many (D) Many-to-one
56. The inverse of function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 + 2 is ____________
/
(A) 𝑓 (𝑦) = (𝑦 − 2) (B) 𝑓 (𝑦) = (𝑦 – 2)
(C) 𝑓 (𝑦) = (𝑦) (D) 𝑓 (𝑦) = (𝑦 – 2)
57. Which of the following is/are the universal logic gates?
(A) OR and NOR (B) AND (C) NAND and NOR (D) NOT
58. What is Floor function?
(A) It maps the real number to the greatest previous integer
(B) It maps the real number to the smallest previous integer
(C) It maps the real number to the smallest following integer
(D) Same decimal value
59. What is the value of Floor(8.4) + Ceil(9.9)?
(A) 17 (B) 19 (C) 20 (D) 18
60. Numerical techniques more commonly involve _______
(A) Elimination method (B) Reduction method
(C) Iterative method (D) Direct method
61. Which of the following is also known as the Newton Raphson method?
(A) Chord method (B) Tangent method
(C) Diameter method (D) Secant method
62. Cramer’s Rule fails for ___________
(A) Determinant = 0 (B) Determinant = non-real
 (C) Determinant < 0 (D) Determinant > 0
63. Rate of convergence of the Newton-Raphson method is generally __________
(A) Linear (B) Quadratic (C) Super-linear (D) Cubic
64. The Newton-Raphson method fails if __________
(A) 𝑓′′′(𝑥 ) = 0 (B) 𝑓′′(𝑥 ) = 0
(C) 𝑓(𝑥 ) = 0 (D) 𝑓′(𝑥 ) = 0
65. What is the order of the matrix with m rows and n columns?
(A) m + n (B) n × n (C) m × m (D) m × n
66. Who is known as the -Father of AI?
(A) Fisher Ada (B) Alan Turing (C) John McCarthy (D) Allen Newell
67. A technique that was developed to determine whether a machine could or could not
demonstrate the artificial intelligence known as the
(A) Boolean Algebra (B) Turing Test (C) Logarithm (D) Algorithm
68. The component of an Expert system is/ are
(A) Knowledge Base (B) Inference Engine
(C) User Interface (D) All of the above
69. Depth first search and Breadth first search are
(A) blind search (B) heuristic search
(C) tree heuristic search (D) binary search
70. Universal and existential generalization are part of
(A) Propositional logic (B) Predicate logic
(C) Simple logic (D) Compound logic
71. Binary search complexity is
(A) 𝑂(𝑁) (B) 𝑂(𝑁 ) (C) O(log 𝑁) (D) 𝑂(𝑁 log 𝑁)
72. malloc and calloc are
(A) java functions (B) data types in C
(C) data types in C++ (D) C functions
73. Which of the following can read and render HTML web pages?
(A) Server (B) Web browsers (C) bridges (D) hyper text logics
74. Full form of W3C is _____________
(A) World Wide Website Consortium (B) World Wide Web Community
(C) World Wide Websites Consortium (D) World Wide Web Consortium
75. A website is a _______ cookie.
(A) Volatile (B) Permanent (C) Transient (D) Server
x-x-x
 MSc(HS)(Physics/Medical Physics/Specialisation in Electronics)
1. A Spherometer is used for
(A) Measuring the radius of curvature of a spherical surface
(B) Distance of a star from the surface of the earth
(C) Road distance
(D) Depth of the ocean
2. Using a battery a 10 𝑝𝐹 capacitor is charged to 50𝑉 and then the battery is removed.
After that, a second uncharged capacitor is connected to the first capacitor in parallel. If the
final voltage across the second capacitor is 20𝑉 , its capacitance in 𝑝𝐹 is ?
(A) 30 𝑝𝐹 (B) 15 𝑝𝐹 (C) 10 𝑝𝐹 (D) 5 𝑝𝐹
3. The function 𝑒 is Taylor expanded about = 0 . The coefficient of 𝑥 is
(A) Zero (B) (C) − (D) −

4. The equation 𝑍 + 𝑍̅ = 4 in the complex plane (where 𝑍̅ is the complex conjugate of

𝑍) represents
(A) Ellipse (B) Circle of radius 4
(C) Circle of radius 2 (D) Hyperbola
5. Which of the following matrices is Hermitian as well as unitary?
0 𝑖 1 −𝑖 0 1+𝑖 0 −𝑖
(A) (B) (C) (D)
𝑖 0 𝑖 0 1−𝑖 0 𝑖 0
6. Let 𝑀 be a 2 × 2 matrix. Its trace is 6 and its determinant has value 8. Its eigenvalues
are
(A) 3 and 3 (B) 2 and 4 (C) 2 and 6 (D) -2 and -3
7. If the number 9.089 is rounded off to three significant figures, then what is the round
off error
(A) -0.001 (B) -0.002 (C) 0.002 (D) 0.003
8. The vectors 𝑎⃗ = 3𝚤̂ − 𝑘, 𝑏⃗ = 𝚤̂ + 2𝚥̂ are adjacent sides of a parallelogram, its area is
√
(A) (B) √14 (C) √41 (D) √7
9. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of hydrogen is about -3.4 eV.
Its kinetic energy in this state is
(A) -3.4 eV (B) -6.8 eV (C) 6.8 eV (D) 3.4 eV
10. The ratio of minimum wavelengths of Lyman and Balmer series will be
(A) 1.25 (B) 0.25 (C) 5 (D) 10
11. Which of the following transition in hydrogen atoms emit photons of highest
frequency?
(A) 𝑛 = 1 𝑡𝑜 𝑛 = 2 (B) 𝑛 = 2 𝑡𝑜 𝑛 = 6
(C) 𝑛 = 6 𝑡𝑜 𝑛 = 2 (D) 𝑛 = 2 𝑡𝑜 𝑛 = 1
12. A uranium reactor 𝑈 takes 30 days to use up 2 kg of fuel, each fission gives 185
MeV of usable energy, then power output is
(A) 32.23 MW (B) 22.28 MW (C) 58.46MW (D) 10.23 MW
13. When a 𝛾 − ray is scattered by an electron at rest, it is observed that
(A) The wavelength of scattered rays is less than original rays
(B) The wavelength of scattered rays is greater than original rays
(C) The wavelength of the scattered rays remain same as the original rays
(D) The wavelength of scattered rays is greater than original rays and depends on
the angle of scattering

14. The half life of 214Bi is 20 min. What fraction of a sample of 214Bi will remain after 2h
(A) (B) (C) (D)

15. Consider the fission process of decay 𝐴 → 𝐵 + 𝐶 + 3𝑛 If the approximate

binding energy per nucleon is 7 MeV for 𝐴, 8 MeV for 𝐵 and 8 MeV for 𝐶, what is the
energy released in the decay of one nucleus of A?
(A) 236 MeV (B) 233 MeV (C) 226 MeV (D) 212 MeV
16. In the nuclear shell model the spin and parity of 𝑁 is given by
(A) (B) (C) (D)

17. A 6 𝛺 and 12 Ω resistors are connected in parallel. This combination is connected in

series with a 10V battery and 6 Ω resistors. What is the potential difference between the
terminals of the 12 Ω resistors?
(A) 4 V (B) 16 V (C) 2 V (D) 8 V
18. If a star can convert all the 𝐻𝑒 nuclei completely into two oxygen nuclei, the energy
released per oxygen nucleus is [Mass of 𝐻𝑒 nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of oxygen
nucleus is 15.9994 amu]
(A) 7.6 MeV (B) 56.12 MeV (C) 10.24 MeV (D) 23.9 MeV
19. A photon and an electron have same energy , the ratio of their wavelengths is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

20. The experiments of Frank and Hertz showed that

(A) An atom has energy states having a continuous distribution
(B) Nothing can be said about the bond energy states of atom
(C) An atom has energy states, having discrete values
(D) Atom is an indivisible particle
21. A nucleus with mass number 220 initially emits α-particle. If the 𝑄 value of the reaction
is 5.5 MeV. Then, the kinetic energy of the α-particle is
(A) 4.4 MeV (B) 5.4 MeV (C) 5.6 MeV (D) 6.5 MeV
22. The ratio of electron and hole current in a semiconductor is and the ratio of drift
velocities of electrons and holes is , then the ratio of concentrations of electrons and
holes will be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
23. In an unbiased 𝑝 − 𝑛 junction, holes diffuse from the 𝑝 −region to 𝑛 −region because
(A) Free electrons in the 𝑛 − region attract them
 (B) They move across the junction by the potential difference
(C) Hole concentration in 𝑝 −region is more as compared to 𝑛 −region
(D) Free electron in 𝑛 −region repeal them
24. The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because
(A) Number density of free current carriers increases
(B) Relaxation time increases
(C) Both number density of carriers and relaxation time increase
(D) Number density of current carriers increase, relaxation time decreases but effect of
decrease in relaxation time is much less than increases in number density

25. Depletion layer contains

(A) Only immobile negative and positive ions
(B) Only free charge carrier
(C) Both free carrier and immobile ions
(D) Only immobile negative ions
26. If in a diode valve, the plate potential becomes double, then the plate current will be
(A) 2√2 times (B) 8 times (C) 3√3 times (D) 2 times
27. If control grid is made negative, then the plate current will
(A) Increase (B) Remain Constant
(C) Decrease (D) Cannot say from given data
28. The output of a two input OR gate is 1, if
(A) Both inputs are Zero (B) Either or both inputs are 1
(C) Only both inputs are 1 (D) Either input is zero
29. Eight mercury droplets having a radius of 1𝑚𝑚 and a charge of 0.066 𝑝𝐶 each merge
to have one droplet. Its potential is
(A) 2.4 V (B) 1.2 V (C) 3.6 V (D) 4.8 V
30. A 120 𝑊, 60 𝑉 bulb is to be operated at 120 𝑉 DC supply, For this a resistance of R is
connected in series with the bulb. The value of R is
(A) 60 Ω (B) 30 Ω (C) 90 Ω (D) 100 Ω
31. In a potentiometer experiment the balancing with a cell is at length 240 cm. On shunting
the cell with a resistance of 2𝛺, the balancing length becomes 120 cm. The internal
resistance of the cell is
(A) 4Ω (B) 2Ω (C) 1Ω (D) 0.5Ω
32. An 𝛼 −particle describes a circular path of radius 𝑟 in a magnetic field 𝐵. What will be
the radius of the circular path described by the proton of the same energy in the same magnetic
field?
(A) (B) 𝑟 (C) √2 (D) 2𝑟

33. The number of lattice points in a primitive cell is / are

(A) 1 (B) (C) 2 (D)

34. The nearest neighbor distance in the case of bcc structure is

 √ √
(A) (B) (C) (D)
√ √

35. Packing fraction of diamond cubic crystal structure is

(A) 60% (B) 20% (C) 34% (D) 15%
36. If 0.28 𝑛𝑚 is the interionic distance in a 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 crystal the lattice parameter is
(A) 0.28 𝑛𝑚 (B) 0.56 𝑛𝑚 (C) 0.14 𝑛𝑚 (D) 0.08𝑛𝑚
37. Which of the following metals crystallizes in 𝑓𝑐𝑐 structure
(A) Aluminium (B) Zinc (C) Sodium (D) CsCl
38. For a given lattice (spacing 𝑑), the wavelength of radiation which will be diffracted is
(A) Exactly equal to 2𝑑 (B) Exactly equal to 𝑑
(C) Greater than or equal to 2𝑑 (D) Less than or equal to 2𝑑
39. Primitive cell of a body centered cubic lattice is
(A) Rhombohedral (B) Simple Cubic (C) Hexagonal (D) Face centered cubic
40. An 0 − 10 𝐴 ammeter has a guaranteed accuracy of 1 per cent of full scale deflection.
The limiting error while reading 2.5 𝐴 is
(A) 1 % (B) 2 % (C) 4 % (D) 6 %
41. A 0.300 𝑉 voltmeter has an error of ± 2 % of full scale deflection. What would be the
range of readings if true voltage is 30 𝑉?
(A) 24 𝑉 − 36 𝑉 (B) 36 𝑉 − 24 𝑉 (C) 25 𝑉 − 37 𝑉 (D) 26 𝑉 − 36 𝑉
42. Keeping all the parameter same if the standard deviation is doubled, variance would be
(A) No effect (B) Doubled (C) Quadrupled (D) Halved
43. If all the individual measurements are equivalent, then mean deviation would be
(A) 100 (B) 0 (C) 4.2 (D) 1.2
44. In an instrument the pointer comes to rest quickly in the final position with oscillations,
then the damping is said to be
(A) Over (B) Critical (C) Under (D) Slightly less
45. The escape velocity from a planet having radius 𝑅 and fixed uniform density is
proportional to
(A) 𝑅 (B) 𝑅 (C) 𝑅 (D) 𝑅
46. A sphere of radius 𝑅 and mass 𝑀 rolls without slipping on a surface with speed 𝑣. The
ratio of translational KE and rotational KE is
(A) (B) (C) (D) 5

47. Consider the earth to be perfectly sphere and having uniform mass distribution. 𝑅 is the
radius of the earth and 𝑥 is the distance from the centre of the earth. The gravitational
intensity is largest (absolute value) when 𝑥 is
(A) Zero (B) In between zero and R
(C) Equal to R (D) Greater than R
48. A particle moving with velocity 𝑣 collides with another particle of the same mass which
is at rest. The velocity of center of mass after the collision is,
(A) 2 𝑣 (B) 𝑣 √2 (C) 𝑣 (D)
49. Consider a missile shot up from the surface of the earth in the vertically upward
direction with velocity 𝑣 equals to escape velocity. Taking the earth to be a spherically
symmetric object with radius 𝑅, at what distance from the centre of the earth will the speed of
the missile be ?
(A) 1.5 𝑅 (B) 2𝑅 (C) 3𝑅 (D) 4𝑅
50. Which one of the following is a non-conservative force?
(A) Electrostatic force (B) Gravitational force
(C) Viscous force (D) Inter-atomic force
51. Which of the following process is reversible?
(A) Transfer of heat by radiation (B) Electrical heating of a Nichrome wire
(C) Transfer of heat by conduction (D) Isothermal Compression
52. A sample of perfect gas is compressed isothermally to half its volume. If it is
compressed adiabatically to the same volume, the final pressure of the gas will be
(A) More
(B) Less
(C) Same
(D) More or less depending on the initial temperature of the gas
53. A sample of gas expands from volume 𝑉 to 𝑉 . The amount of work done by the gas
is greatest when the expansion is
(A) Adiabatic (B) Isobaric
(C) Isothermal (D) Equal in all three cases
54. A gas is compressed adiabatically till its temperature is doubled. The ratio of its final
volume to the initial volume will be
(A) (B) More than (C) Less than (D) Between 1 and 2

55. A steam engine whose source is at 400 𝐾, takes 200 𝑐𝑎𝑙 of heat and rejects 150 𝑐𝑎𝑙 to
the sink. What is the temperature of the sink?
(A) 800 𝐾 (B) 400 𝐾 (C) 300 𝐾 (D) 100 𝐾
56. A Carnot engine whose sink is at 300𝐾 has an efficiency of 40%. By how much should
the temperature of source be increased so as to increase its efficiency by 50 % of
original efficiency?
(A) 275 𝐾 (B) 325 𝐾 (C) 380 𝐾 (D) None of these
57. The temperature of the surface of the sun is approximated to 6000𝐾. If we take a big
lens and focus the sun rays and produce a temperature of 8000𝐾. This will violate
(A) Second Law (B) Third Law (C) Zeroth Law (D) First Law
58. In a cyclic process
(A) Work done is Zero
(B) Work done by the system is equal to the quantity of heat given to the system
(C) Work done does not depend on the quantity of heat given to the system
(D) The internal energy of the system increases
59. A system consists of 10 atoms and is at a temperature of 300𝐾. Assuming that there
is no interatomic energy in the system, its total internal energy is
 (A) 12.4 𝐾𝐽 (B) 12.4 𝐽 (C) 4.12𝐾𝐽 (D) 4.12 𝐽
60. 𝑇 − 𝑆 diagram for a Carnot cycle is
(A) Circle (B) Rectangle
(C) Ellipse (D) Quadrilateral type but not rectangle
61. Ratio of amplitude of two interfering waves is 2: 1, then ratio of amplitude of maxima
to minima is
(A) 4: 1 (B) 9: 1 (C) 3: 1 (D) 9: 4
62. Two waves of wavelengths 99 𝑐𝑚 and 100 𝑐𝑚 both travelling with velocity
396 𝑚𝑠 are made to interfere. The number of beats produced by them per second are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 8 (D) 4
63. With propagation of longitudinal waves through a medium, the quantity transmitted is
(A) Matter (B) Energy
(C) Energy and Matter (D) Energy, matter and momentum
64. The velocity of sound in air at NTP is 330 𝑚/𝑠 . What will be its value when
temperature is doubled and pressure is halved ?
(A) 300 (B) 165 (C) 330 √2 (D) 300 √2

65. A particle is executing SHM. Then, the graph of velocity as a function of displacement
is a/an
(A) Straight line (B) Circle (C) Ellipse (D) Hyperbola
66. The potential of a spherical conductor of radius 3𝑚 is 6𝑉. The potential at its centre is
(A) Zero (B) 2V (C) 6V (D) 18V
67. A charge 𝑄 is divided into two parts of 𝑞 and 𝑄 − 𝑞. If the Coulomb repulsion between
them when they are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of should be
(A) 2 (B) (C) 5 (D)

68. In a solenoid, If number of turns is doubled, then self-inductance will become

(A) Half (B) Double (C) times (D) Quadruple

69. An electric generator is based on

(A) Faraday law of electromagnetic Induction
(B) Motion of charged particles in electromagnetic field
(C) Newton’s laws of motion
(D) Fission of Uranium by slow neutrons
70. Which quantity is increased in step-down transformer?
(A) Current (B) Voltage (C) Power (D) Frequency
71. The dimensions of Planck’s constant is same as that of
(A) Coefficient of viscosity (B) Linear momentum
(C) Work (D) Angular momentum
72. Pascal-second has the dimensions of
(A) Force (B) Energy
 (C) Coefficient of Viscosity (D) Frequency
73. How many revolutions does an electron complete in one second in the first orbit of
hydrogen atom?
(A) 6.57 × 10 (B) 100 (C) 1000 (D) 130
74. LED has a voltage drop of 2 𝑉 across it, and passes a current of 10 𝑚𝐴. When it
operates with a 6 𝑉 battery through a limiting registor 𝑅. The Value of 𝑅 is
(A) 40 𝐾𝛺 (B) 4 𝐾𝛺 (C) 200 𝛺 (D) 400𝛺
75. Which one of the following is a set of magic numbers?
(A) 1, 2, 8, 16, 20, 28 (B) 2, 8, 10, 20, 28, 25
(C) 8, 28, 32, 100, 126 (D) 2,8,20, 28, 50, 82, 126
x-x-x
 MSc(2Yr)(Bioinformatics/System Bio. & Bio.Informatics)
1. Glycolipids in plasma membrane are usually located at:
(A) Outer leaflet of plasma membrane
(B) Inner leaflet of plasma membrane
(C) Evenly distributed in both inner and outer leaves of plasma membrane
(D) Cannot be predicted, it varies according to cell types
2. Bacterial fimbriae present on the outer cell surface are used for:
(A) Cellular activity (B) Sexual reproduction
(C) Cell wall synthesis (D) Adherence to surfaces
3. Which of the following events in a biological membrane would not be energetically
favourable and therefore not occur spontaneously?
(A) The rotation of membrane proteins
(B) The rotation of phospholipids
(C) The lateral movement of phospholipids
(D) The flip-flop of phospholipids to opposite leaflet
4. Which of the following in NOT found in mitochondrial matrix?
(A) Double-stranded DNA (B) Single-stranded DNA
(C) RNA (D) Ribosome
5. Which of the following types of cells would you expect to contain a high density of
cytoplasmic intermediate filaments?
(A) Amoeba (B) Sperm (C) Epithelial cells (D) Plant cells
6. Which DNA polymerase removes RNA primers in DNA synthesis?
(A) Polymerase I (B) Polymerase II (C) Polymerase III (D) None of these
7. All of the following pertain to mitosis EXCEPT:
(A) New cells receive one copy of each parent cell chromosome
(B) Preceded by DNA replication
(C) Results in gamete production
(D) Process of nuclear division
8. The cell theory is not applicable to:
(A) Bacteria (B) Algae (C) Virus (D) Fungi
9. Name the coenzyme of riboflavin (B2)?
(A) NAD or NADP (B) FAD and FMN
(C) Coenzyme A (D) Thiamine pyrophosphate
10. A small amount of lethal mutation is always present in the population due to
(A) Positive selection (B) Negative selection
(C) Frequency-dependent selection (D) Mutation-selection balance
11. Semi conservative replication of DNA was first demonstrated in
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Streptococcus pneumonae
(C) Salmonella typhimuriam (D) Drosophila melanogaster
12. Telomeres are usually rich in which nucleotide?
 (A) Adenine (B) Guanine (C) Thymine (D) Cytosine
13. In the study of one experiment it was found that the value of Tm for DNA is = 50° C.
If the cell has 30% GC at the above Tm, then what will be value of 'Tm' if the GC% increases
to 70%?
(A) Remains same (B) Increases (C) Decreases (D) Cannot be compared
14. Which of the following increases gene expression as much as 200-fold?
(A) TATA box (B) Insulator (C) Enhancer (D) CAAT box
15. In Jacob- Monod model, operator prevents binding of
(A) Repressor (B) Expresser (C) Operon (D) Telomere
16. Mutations at promoter block initiation of
(A) Translation (B) Replication (C) Transcription (D) Polymerization
17. Which of the following bacterial operon is not controlled by attenuation?
(A) Arabinose (B) Tryptophan (C) Leucine (D) Histidine
18. In case of thymine dimer which type of ring compound is formed?
(A) Cyclohexane (B) Cyclobutane (C) Cyclopropane (D) Cycloheptane
19. By which process mis-incorporated base can change into a permanent mutation?
(A) Replication (B) Transcription (C) Translation (D) Transposition
20. In the following compound which is one of the intercalating agents?
(A) Ethidium (B) 5-bromouracil (C) Purine (D) Clastrogen
21. It is required to distinguish between the cells that have taken up the vector and that have
not. It is done by using:
(A) Multiple cloning site (B) Origin of replication
(C) High copy number (D) Selectable marker
22. Which of the statement is true for pBR322?
(A) It contains only an ampicillin resistance gene
(B) It contains both ampicillin resistant and tetracycline resistant gene
(C) The cloning site is present only in the ampicillin resistant gene
(D) It is a natural vector
23. The phenomenon of not allowing the recombinants to escape into the environment is
termed as:
(A) Blocking (B) Termination (C) Disablement (D) Inactivation
24. Transformation efficiency is defined as:
(A) ratio of transformed colonies by microgram of sample DNA that is to be inserted
(B) ratio of transformed colonies by amount of sample DNA that is to be inserted
(C) ratio of transformed colonies by microgram of plasmid DNA
(D) ratio of transformed colonies by amount of plasmid DNA
25. The various steps for construction of libraries are
i. Fragmentation of DNA
ii. Isolation of genomic DNA
 iii. Amplification
iv. Ligation and introduction to the host
v. Vector preparation
The correct order of construction of libraries is (In the order of starting to ending):
(A) i)-ii)-iii)-iv)-v) (B) ii)-i)-v)-iv)-iii) (C) ii)-v)-i)-iv)-iii) (D) v)-ii)-i)-iii)-iv)
26. Polysomes are
(A) Aggregation of ribosomes
(B) Aggregation of lysosomes
(C) mRNA molecules to which many ribosomes are attached simultaneously
(D) All of these
27. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a good antigen.
(A) Large in size (B) Foreignness
(C) Highly complex (D) Reproduce only by binary fission
28. Stem cells are present in
(A) Unicellular organisms (B) Multicellular organisms
(C) Non-living things (D) Viruses
29. Major Histocompatibility Complex is a tight cluster of linked
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (C) Genes (D) Lipid molecules
30. What is the ELISA test intended to measure?
(A) Antibody to HIV only
(B) Antigen to HIV only
(C) Presence of free, circulating virus in the patient
(D) Antibodies directed against HLA molecules
31. In Rocket Immunodiffusion the length of the rocket is
(A) proportional to the amount of antibody placed in each well
(B) inversely proportional to the amount of antibody placed in each well
(C) inversely proportional to the amount of antigen placed in each well
(D) proportional to the amount of antigen placed in each well
32. In a developing embryo, stem cells can differentiate into
(A) Ectoderm (B) Endoderm (C) Mesoderm (D) All of these
33. Which of the following cells has a high affinity receptor for IgE?
(A) Dendritic cell (B) Mast cells (C) Eosinophils (D) Basophils
34. Adult stem cells are described as
(A) Somatic (B) Syngenic (C) Specialised (D) Differentiated

35. Which of these is the most important aspect of planning and designing
a good sequencing experiment?
(A) Careful choice of sample(s) and control(s)
(B) Effective data analysis
(C) Robust and precise experimental methods
(D) All of the above
36. Once the sequences are obtained from your Next Generation Sequencing experiment
what is the first thing you should do?
(A) Perform a bioinformatics analysis of your data
(B) Check your data using a different method
(C) Publish your results
(D) Further investigate the sequences of interest
37. Assembly of two subunits 60 S and 40S of the ribosome is
(A) 100S (B) 70S (C) 80S (D) 90S
38. Which of these projects would be best suited for Next Generation Sequencing?
(A) To determine if a tumour sample contains a common missense mutation
(B) To find the transcriptome of a tumour sample
(C) To genotype ten genomic DNA samples for a known single nucleotide polymorphism
(D) All of the above
39. What will heterozygous single nucleotide substitution look like on your chromatogram?
(A) Two peaks of equal height at the same position
(B) One peak twice the height of those around it
(C) Two peaks in the same position, one twice the height of the other
(D) Three peaks of equal height at the same position
40. The first published completed gene sequence was of
(A) M 13 phage (B) T 4 phage (C) Phi X 174 (D) Lambda phage
41. Which of the following drugs has been recently reported to be responsible for the
decline of the population of Vultures?
(A) Chloroquine (B) Penicillin (C) Aspirin (D) Diclofenac sodium
42. The blue baby pollution disease is due to the excessive presence of which of the
following in drinking water?
(A) Arsenic (B) Nitrate (C) Fluoride (D) Chloride
43. The disease caused by swelling of the membrane over spinal cord and brain is
(A) Sclerosis (B) Paralysis (C) Leukemia (D) Meningitis
44. The biofertilizer used for the paddy crops is
(A) Rhizobium (B) Blue-green algae (C) Azetobacter Species (D) Urea
45. Sunshine Vitamin is
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin C (D) Vitamin B
46. Coconut water, is technically
(A) Endosperm (B) Soft drink (C) Water (D) Pericarp
47. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Methane (C) Carbon monoxide (D) Nitrous oxide
48. You need to use a first generation sequencing method for de novo sequencing, which
template should give optimum results for this project?
(A) Genomic DNA (B) PCR product
(C) Plasmid DNA (D) Bacterial artificial chromosome
49. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder?
(A) Haemophilia (B) Xerophthalmia (C) Colour blindness (D) Down's syndrome
50. Green tea is dietary source of antioxidant, called as:
(A) Hesperidin (B) Catechins (C) Curcuminoids (D) Selenium
51. Which of the following is a sequence alignment tool provided by NCBI
(A) Chime (B) BLAST (C) FASTA (D) Clustal W
52. Application of bioinformatics include
(A) Data storage and management
(B) Drug designing
(C) Understand relationships between organisms
(D) All of the above
53. The computational methodology that tries to find the best matching between two
molecule, a receptor and ligand is called
(A) Molecular matching (B) Molecular docking
(C) Molecular fitting (D) Molecule affinity checking
54. Literature databases include
(A) MEDLINE and PubMED (B) MEDLINE and PDB
(C) PubMED and PDB (D) MEDLINE and PDS
55. Which of them is a protein sequence database
(A) DDBJ (B) EMBL (C) GenBank (D) PIR
56. Bioinformatics' is also be regarded as part of the
(A) Computational biology (B) Computational biotechnology
(C) Computer biology (D) Computer knowledge
57. Which of them is a sequence alignment tool
(A) BLAST (B) PRINT (C) PROSITE (D) PIR
58. C is what kind of language
(A) An assembly language (B) A third generation high level language
(C) A machine language (D) Future language

59. Which among following is commonly used language in Android applications

(A) C (B) Php (C) C++ (D) Java
60. Full form of URL is
(A) Uniform Resource Locator (B) Uniform Resource Link
(C) Uniform Registered Link (D) Unified Resource Link
61. Which among following is odd
(A) CD/DVD (B) Floopy Disks (C) SD Disk (D) BIOS
62. What is the meaning of base class in C++
(A) Another class got inherit from this class (B) It inherit other class
(C) It has a pointer variable (D) It is the first class declared
63. Which among following is secondary storage device
(A) Hard Disk (B) RAM (C) Diode (D) Semi Conductor
64. Step wise method for solving problems in computer science is called
(A) Flowchart (B) Sequential design (C) Procedure (D) Algorithm
65. Where is RAM located
(A) Expansion Board (B) External Drive (C) Mother Board (D) All of these
66. Which among the following is the fastest computer of the world developed by China
(A) AKA-1000 (B) TERA-1 (C) Tianhe-1 (D) Tianhe-2
67. The sum of the deviations about the mean is always
(A) Zero (B) Positive
(C) Negative (D) Total standard deviation
68. Data must be arranged either in ascending or descending order, if some wants to
compute
(A) Median (B) Mode (C) Mean (D) Standard Deviation
69. The weights of students in a college/school is a
(A) Continuous various (B) Discrete variable
(C) Quantitative variable (D) None of these
70. The mean of a distribution is 14 and the standard deviation is 5. What is the value of
the coefficient of variation
(A) 35.7 (B) 60.4 (C) 27.8 (D) 48.0
71. What least value should be replaced by * in 223*431 so the number become divisible
by 9?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6
72. Which have maximum number of isotopes
(A) Bromine (B) Aluminium (C) Polonium (D) Carbon
73. Water drops are spherical because of
(A) Viscosity (B) Density (C) Polarity (D) Surface tension
74. The most electronegative element among the following is
(A) Sodium (B) Bromine (C) Fluorine (D) Oxygen
75. The correct IUPAC name for the following structure is
CH3CH2CHCH2CH CH2
OH
(A) 5-hexen-3-ol (B) 1-hexen-4-ol (C) 3-hydroxy-5-hexene (D) Isohexen-3-ol
x-x-x
 MSc(2Yr)(Environment Science)
1. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Methane (C) Nitrous oxide (D) Oxygen
2. What is the anthropogenic source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
(A) Industrial processes (B) Deforestation
(C) Volcanic eruptions (D) Hot springs
3. A Ramsar site is
(A) Ocean (B) Wetland
(C) Mountain (D) Volcanic hot springs
4. Wetland farming is carried out for which of the following crops:
(A) Cotton (B) Rice (C) Bajra (D) Tea
5. Which of the following is not a renewable energy source?
(A) Geothermal (B) Biofuel (C) Nuclear power (D) Tidal energy
6. The Montreal Protocol is aimed at protecting the ozone layer by phasing out the
production of:
(A) Ozone depleting substances (B) Green house gases
(C) Dust particles (D) Volatile Organic Compounds
7. What is one of the causes of coral bleaching?
(A) Increase in turtle population (B) Ocean acidification
(C) Expansion of mangrove forests (D) Overfishing
8. The tropical grassland in Africa with tall grasses scattered with shrubs and stunted trees
are called:
(A) Savannas (B) Pampas (C) Steppes (D) Prairies
9. Which of the following is an example of eutrophic lakes:
(A) Tso Moriri (B) Pangong Lake (C) Dal lake (D) Bog lakes
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of eutrophication?
(A) Increase in sulphur levels (B) Increase in dissolved oxygen levels
(C) Formation of algal blooms (D) Decline in algal blooms
11. Which of the following pollutants is classified as a Persistent Organic Pollutant (POP)?
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) DDT (Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane)
(C) Sulphur dioxide (D) Nitrogen dioxide
12. Most important Wild life in Kaziranga National Park is
(A) Grey hornbill (B) Black buck (C) One horned Rhino (D) Chinkara
13. Which of the following is NOT a method for carbon sequestration?
(A) Afforestation (B) Ocean fertilization
(C) Carbon capture and storage (D) Carbon trading
14. Which of the following animals is endemic to Western ghats:
(A) Snow leopard (B) Nilgiri tahr (C) Hangul (D) Bengal Tiger
15. Crop preservation of plant seeds and pollen is done at very low temperature of -196oC
by using
(A) Ice (B) Liquid Nitrogen (C) Carbon tetrachloride (D) Ammonia
16. The concept of "ecological footprint" measures:
(A) The impact of human activities on ecosystems
(B) The number of animal species in a given habitat
(C) The number of plant species in a given habitat
(D) The rate of species extinction
17. Which of the following is responsible for Minamata disease?
(A) Silver (B) Mercury (C) Lead (D) Cadmium
18. To meet the “Net Zero” goals, committed countries must cut their Green House Gases
emissions to________ by 2030 to keep warming below 1.5°C.
(A) One fourth (B) One half (C) One third (D) Zero
19. Oil in water suffocates the fishes by interacting with their:
(A) Gills (B) Scales (C) Eyes (D) Fins
20. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of a “Keystone species”?
(A) High reproductive rate
(B) Minimal ecological impact irrespective of its abundance
(C) High ecological impact irrespective of its abundance
(D) Limited geographic distribution
21. Permafrost thawing in polar regions has resulted in which of the following?
(A) Reduced solar radiation (B) Increased volcanic activity
(C) Increase in greenhouse gas emissions (D) Expansion of ice sheets
22. Which of the following NGOs is associated with the “Chipko Movement”
(A) Kalpvriksha (B) Srishti
(C) Dasholi Gram Swarajya Mandal (D) Green peace
23. What is the primary mechanism responsible for the formation of "brown clouds" in the
atmosphere?
(A) Volcanic ash emissions (B) Industrial soot and aerosols
(C) Agricultural runoff (D) Methane emissions from wetlands
24. Which of the following is a characteristic of a Type I survivorship curve?
(A) High juvenile mortality rate
(B) Constant mortality rate throughout life
(C) Short lifespan with high mortality rate in early life
(D) Long lifespan with low mortality rate in early life
25. Expanding population trend is predicted for the coming years when the population
pyramid is
(A) Bell shaped (B) Urn shaped (C) Triangular (D) Oval
26. Which of the following is a key factor contributing to the spread of Emerging Infectious
Diseases (EIDs) among wildlife populations?
 (A) Wild life trading (B) Decreased Ocean temperature
(C) Reduced human-wildlife interaction (D) Decrease in habitat encroachment
27. What is the primary cause of the phenomenon known as "biomagnification" of any
substance in food chains?
(A) High reproductive rates of top predators
(B) Accumulation/increase through successive trophic levels
(C) Increased genetic diversity within populations
(D) Enhanced competition for resources among species
28. Which of the following best describes the concept of "trophic cascade" in ecological
systems?
(A) Predators directly regulate prey populations, leading to changes in lower trophic
levels
(B) Invasive species outcompete native species, leading to ecosystem collapse
(C) Mutualistic relationships between species enhance ecosystem stability
(D) Decomposers break down organic matter, releasing nutrients for plant uptake
29. CEDAW deals with
(A) Human rights for freedom of speech (B) Discrimination against women
(C) Value education and awareness (D) Environment education
30. Symbol of India's “Eco Mark” is
(A) Earthern mug (B) Earthern Pitcher (C) Earthern saucer (D) Earthern Lamp
31. A significant environmental concern associated with mining activities include?
(A) Sodium chloride bearing minerals (B) Hydrogen peroxide bearing minerals
(C) Sulphur bearing minerals (D) Phosphorus bearing minerals
32. The process of photocatalysis, often used for environmental remediation, involves the
use of which semiconductor material to degrade organic pollutants under light irradiation?
(A) Radon (B) Titanium dioxide
(C) Carbon dioxide (D) Sulphur dioxide
33. Which of the following is responsible for the biological transformation of mercury into
methylmercuryin aquatic ecosystems?
(A) Aerobic bacteria (B) Anaerobic bacteria (C) Aquatic plants (D) Fish
34. Which of the following is NOT a primary color in additive color mixing?
(A) Red (B) Green (C) Yellow (D) Blue
35. What is the SI unit of electric current?
(A) Ampere (B) Volt (C) Ohm (D) Watt
36. Which of the following is a vector quantity?
(A) pH (B) Mass (C) Force (D) Temperature
37. What is the atomic number of Boron?
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7
38. What is the size of nanoparticles?
(A) 10-9cm (B) 10-9 cm2 (C) 10-9 m (D) 10-9 nm
39. If a car travels at an average speed of 60 kilometers per hour, how many kilometers will
it travel in 3 hours?
(A) 120 km (B) 150 km (C) 180 km (D) 200 km
40. A rectangular garden has a length of 12 meters and a width of 8 meters. What is the
area of the garden in square meters?
(A) 80 sq. meters (B) 96 sq. meters (C) 104 sq. meters (D) 120 sq. meters
41. Which of the following represents the correct Pythagoras theorem?
(A) a3 + b3 = c3 (B) a2 + b2 = c2 (C) a + b = c (D) a + b = c2
42. If the ratio of boys to girls in a class is 5:3, and there are 25 boys, how many girls are
there?
(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 15 (D) 46
43. A train travels at a speed of 83 kilometers per hour. How long will it take to travel
249 kilometers?
(A) 2.5 hours (B) 3.0 hours (C) 3.5 hours (D) 4.0 hours
44. Which statistical measure is most appropriate for summarizing the central tendency of
a skewed distribution?
(A) Mean (B) Median (C) Mode (D) Range
45. In hypothesis testing, what does a p-value less than the significance level indicate?
(A) Fail to reject the null hypothesis
(B) Reject the null hypothesis
(C) Insufficient evidence to make a conclusion
(D) Accept the alternative hypothesis
46. When would you use a chi-square test of independence?
(A) When comparing means of two independent groups
(B) When comparing means of two dependent groups
(C) When examining the relationship between two categorical variables
(D) When examining the relationship between two continuous variables
47. What is the term used to describe a substance that cannot be decomposed into simpler
substances by chemical means?
(A) Element (B) Compound (C) Mixture (D) Composite
48. Total entropy of a system either increases or remains constant. Which of the following
thermodynamics law states this?
(A) Zeroth law of thermodynamics (B) First law of thermodynamics
(C) Second law of thermodynamics (D) Third law of thermodynamics
49. _______ is an organelle that helps the sperm to penetrate the ovum.
(A) Acrosome (B) Zona pellucida (C) Megalis (D) Amnion
50. What does ANOVA stand for?
(A) Analysis of values and averages (B) Analysis of variance
(C) Analysis of variability (D) Analysis of non ordinal values
51. Theoretically, it is possible to make an object invisible, if the refractive index of the
object equals the refractive index of :
(A) Mirror (B) Glass (C) Water (D) Air
52. “World Environment day” is celebrated on which date and month every year?
(A) 5 June (B) 5 July (C) 5 February (D) 5 December
53. A population that exhibits birth rates that are identical to the death rate implies
(A) Initial growth (B) Plateau phase
(C) Acceleration Phase (D) Negative growth phase
54. Synthesis of ATP by ATP synthase is called:
(A) Oxidative photophosphorylation (B) Glycogenolysis
(C) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (D) Glycolysis
55. What is the name of the graph that is drawn, when the pressure is kept constant?
(A) Isothermic (B) Adiabatic (C) Isochoric (D) Isobaric
56. Opening and closing of pores in a plant is a function performed by
(A) Stomata (B) Chlorophyll (C) Chloroplast (D) Guard cells
57. Which isotope of Uranium is used in fission reactors:
(A) U-234 (B) U-235 (C) U-236 (D) U-237
58. Eco-toxicology is the study of
(A) Chemical interactions of organism and environment
(B) Physical interactions of organism and environment
(C) Thermal interactions of organism and environment
(D) Biological interactions of organism and environment
59. Which of the following is a non-point source of water pollution?
(A) Underground coal mines (B) Oil wells
(C) Thermal power plant (D) Agriculture runoff
60. What is the principle on which the UV-Visible spectrophotometer works?
(A) Stewart’s law (B) Kirchhoff's law
(C) Beer Lambert law (D) Bernoulli's principle
61. What is Aestivation?
(A) Winter sleep
(B) Summer sleep
(C) Adaptation of animals to escape from predators
(D) Synonym of hibernation
62. Which of the following gases has maximum solubility in water?
(A) Carbon monoxide (B) Oxygen (C) Carbon dioxide (D) Nitrogen
63. Which is the following is not a type of a chemical bond?
(A) Magnetic bond (B) Covalent bond (C) Ionic bond (D) Co-ordinate bond
64. Which of the following is the weakest acid:
(A) Acetic acid (B) Hydrochloric acid
(C) Sulphuric acid (D) Nitric acid
65. The International Day for Biological Diversity (IDB) is celebrated annually on
(A) March 20 (B) May 22 (C) June 5 (D) July 28
66. The final stable community in ecological succession is
(A) Climax (B) Pioneer (C) Sere (D) Carnivores
67. The trace gas which is produced in rice paddy and is associated with global warming:
(A) Chlorine (B) H2S (C) CH4 (D) Fluorocarbon
68. Which forest has the maximum diversity?
(A) Temperate deciduous forest (B) Coniferous forest
(C) Tropical rain forest (D) Deciduous forest
69. Which schedule of The Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 (WPA) in India, prohibits the
cultivation and planting of specified endemic plants
(A) Schedule I (B) Schedule II (C) Schedule V (D) Schedule VI
70. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation
(A) National park (B) Sanctuary (C) Botanical garden (D) Biosphere reserve
71. Red data book contains data of:
(A) All plant species (B) All animal species
(C) Threatened species (D) Economically important species
72. Escherichia coli used as an indicator organism to determine pollution of water with:
(A) Industrial effluents (B) Heavy metals
(C) Pollen of aquatic plants (D) Faecal matter
73. Which one of the following diseases is caused by bacteria:
(A) Rabies (B) Small pox (C) Measles (D) Tuberculosis
74. COP-30 will take place in:
(A) United Arab Emirates (B) Azerbaijan
(C) Brazil (D) Egypt
75. “Quarantine” refers to the practice that
(A) Restricts the movement of people who suffer from a contagious disease
(B) Restricts the movement of people who may have been exposed to a contagious
disease
(C) Allows the movement of disease-free people
(D) Restricts the movement of diseased kids
x-x-x
 MSc(2Yr)(Human Genomics)
1. One Dalton is:
(A) 1.66 x 10-24 g (B) 1.66 x 10-25 g (C) 1.66 x 10-26 g (D) 1.66 x 10-27 g
2. A bacterium flagellum can be thought as a
(A) A mechanical drill (B) A magnetic drill
(C) A magnetic motor (D) An electric motor
3. A vibrio bacterium is
(A) Like a curved sphere (B) Like a curved rod
(C) Like a curved circle (D) Like a curved rectangle
4. Gram staining depends upon differences in
(A) Structure of cell membrane of bacteria
(B) Structure of nuclear membrane of bacteria
(C) Structure of cell wall of bacteria
(D) Structure of genomic DNA of bacteria
5. E.coli is
(A) Facultative anaerobe (B) Obligatory anaerobe
(C) Obligatory aerobe (D) Poisoned by oxygen
6. Euglena is a
(A) Fresh water organism without chloroplasts
(B) Sea water unicellular organism with chloroplasts
(C) Fresh water unicellular organism with chloroplasts
(D) Sea water organism without chloroplasts
7. Neurospora is a
(A) Fungi (B) Bacteria (C) Virus (D) Protozoa
8. Most primitive multicellular organisms are
(A) Platyhelminthes (B) Porifera (C) Annelida (D) Protozoa
9. Xylem and phloem are like
(A) Circulatory system of plants (B) Respiratory system of plants
(C) Endocrine system of plants (D) Nervous system of plants
10. If the pH inside the cell is 7.0, how many H+ ions are present?
(A) 10-14 M (B) 107 M (C) 10 -7 M (D) 10-8 M
11. In a chemical bond, bond length denotes
(A) Distances between the nuclei of two atoms
(B) Distances between electrons of two atoms
(C) Distances between two protons of two atoms
(D) Distances between two neutrons of two atoms
12. Bacteriophage is a
(A) Bacterium (B) A bacterium which kills viruses
(C) A virus which kills bacteria (D) A virus which kills other viruses
13. Modern eukaryotic cells evolved from
(A) A symbiotic relationship with aerobic bacteria
 (B) A parasitic relationship with aerobic bacteria
(C) No relationship with aerobic bacteria
(D) Empty space
14. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is a model
(A) Prokaryotic organism (B) Eukaryotic organism
(C) Eubacteria (D) Fungi
15. Haploid cells possess
(A) Single copy of genome (B) Double copy of genome
(C) No genome (D) Four copies of genome
16. Water molecules are held together by
(A) Covalent bonds (B) Spring bonds
(C) Hydrogen bonds (D) Van der Waal’s bond
17. Oxidation in a sense is
(A) Removal of electrons from an atom (B) Addition of electrons to an atom
(C) Removal of protons from an atom (D) Addition of protons to an atom
18. A reaction which is thermodynamically ‘downhill’ is
(A) Energetically impossible (B) Needs external energy
(C) Energetically unfavourable (D) Energetically favourable
19. At a constant temperature, molecular motion in a solution is
(A) Guided (B) Directed (C) Random (D) Specific
20. ΔG stands for
(A) Free energy of a reaction (B) Enthalpy of a reaction
(C) Entropy change of a reaction (D) Free energy change of a reaction
21. The most commonly used energy currency used in a cell is
(A) ATP (B) ADP (C) GTP (D) GDP
22. Inside a cell the ATP/ADP ratio is usually
(A) Low (B) Fluctuates (C) High (D) Very low
23. Two amino acids are joined tighter to form a
(A) Nucleotide bond (B) Peptide bond
(C) Amino bond (D) Acid bond
24. Biotin is an example of
(A) Enzyme (B) RNA (C) Inhibitor (D) Coenzyme
25. Rhodopsin is a
(A) Signal receptor protein (B) Enzyme
(C) Cofactor (D) Transport protein

26. Allosteric enzymes have

(A) One binding site only (B) Two binding sites only
(C) No binding sites (D) Two or more binding sites
27. Myosin can be called as
 (A) Molecular motor (B) Molecular conductor
(C) Molecular insulator (D) Molecular scissor
28. E. coli swims by rotating its
(A) Cilia (B) Cytoplasm (C) Flagella (D) Nucleus
29. In organ transplantation, the donor and recipient
(A) HLA alleles are matched (B) Chromsomes are matched
(C) Ribosomes are matched (D) HLP alleles are matched
30. In humans antibody diversity is generated by
(A) Gene deletions (B) Gene substitution
(C) Gene rearrangements (D) Gene amplification
31. In humans colour vision is because of
(A) Three distinct receptors for blue, green and yellow light in cone cells
(B) Three distinct receptors for blue, green and yellow light in rod cells
(C) Three distinct receptors for blue, green and red light in cone cells
(D) Three distinct receptors for blue, green and red light in rod cells
32. Interleukins are an important class of
(A) Enzymes (B) Cytokines (C) Hormones (D) Receptors
33. Macrophages and neutrophils are key players of
(A) Adaptive immune response
(B) Physical barrier
(C) Innate immune response
(D) Both innate and adaptive immune response
34. B-cells and T- cells arise from:
(A) Lymphoid progenitor (B) Myeloid progenitor
(C) Embryonic stem cells (D) Pluripotent stem cells
35. Interferons inhibit
(A) Bacterial replication (B) Viral replication
(C) Replication of any cell type (D) Translation
36. How many classes of immunoglobins are present?
(A) 6 (B) 4 (C) 10 (D) 5
37. pBR322 is a
(A) Plasmid cloning vector (B) Cosmid cloning vector
(C) Phage cloning vector (D) Expression vector

38. qPCR stands for

(A) Quality PCR (B) Qualifying PCR
(C) Quantitative PCR (D) Questionable PCR
39. Type II restriction endonucleases require
(A) GTP for their function (B) ATP for their function
(C) CTP for their function (D) Do not require GTP, ATP or CTP
40. Bacterial Artificial Chromosmes are used in
 (A) Protein expression (B) Protein sequencing
(C) Genome sequencing projects (D) Genome editing
41. A DNA library is
(A) A collection of DNA clones
(B) A collection of DNA samples
(C) A collection of DNA from different species
(D) A collection of DNA from bacterial species
42. DNA microarrays reveal
(A) Protein expression pattern (B) Protein expression quantity
(C) RNA expression pattern (D) Translation efficiency
43. A single strand of DNA is
(A) Double helical strand (B) Double helix
(C) Single helix (D) Single helix double stranded
44. Pribnow box is name for
(A) Promoter site for transcription (B) Promoter site for translation
(C) A box for DNA sample collection (D) A box for RNA sample collection
45. Transfer RNA molecules are also called as:
(A) Promoter molecules in protein synthesis
(B) Chelate molecules in protein synthesis
(C) Adaptor molecules in protein synthesis
(D) Terminator molecules in protein synthesis
46. Total number of codons in universal genetic code is
(A) 62 (B) 64 (C) 61 (D) 66
47. Genetic code is
(A) Triplet, universal, overlapping and degenerate
(B) Triplet, nearly universal, overlapping and degenerate
(C) Triplet, nearly universal, non- overlapping and degenerate
(D) Triplet, nearly universal, non-overlapping and punctuated
48. In the evolutionary history of life, identify the most likely order in which the following
entities arose:
(A) Plasma membrane < RNA < chloroplasts < nucleus
(B) Nucleus < plasma membrane < RNA < chloroplasts
(C) RNA < plasma membrane < nucleus < chloroplasts
(D) Chloroplasts < RNA < plasma membrane < nucleus
49. Tetracycline inhibits
(A) Eukaryotic protein synthesis (B) Prokaryotic protein synthesis
(C) Eukaryotic replication (D) Prokaryotic replication
50. Embryonic stem cells can generate
(A) Any cell types (B) Most cell types
(C) Few cell types (D) Almost all cell types
51. Uterine cervix cancer in humans is caused by
(A) HIV (B) Adenovirus (C) Papilloma virus (D) E. coli
52. Major proteins of extracellular matrix of animals are
 (A) Myosin (B) Collagens (C) Keratins (D) Elastin
53. Caspases are
(A) Proteases involved in apoptosis (B) Ligases involved in apoptosis
(C) Endonucleases involved in apoptosis (D) Exonucleases involved in apoptosis
54. Most cells in our body are in
(A) S phase of cell cycle (B) G1 phase of cell cycle
(C) G0 phase of cell cycle (D) M phase of cell cycle
55. Cyclins are proteins which regulate
(A) Cell cycle (B) Cellular replication
(C) Cellular transcription (D) Cellular transport
56. Neutrophils move towards a source of bacterial infection using
(A) Electrochemical gradient (B) Chemotaxis
(C) Magnetic gradient (D) Slat concentration gradient
57. Calcium ions play an important role in
(A) Muscle contraction (B) Muscle regeneration
(C) Muscle degradation (D) Muscle dystrophy
58. Circadian clocks are
(A) Instruments to measure time
(B) Instruments to measure rotation of earth
(C) Instruments to measure rotation of moon
(D) Internal oscillators present in animals regulating diurnal rhythms
59. Nitric oxide is
(A) A gas which acts as a signalling molecules in animals and plants
(B) A gas and has nothing to do with signalling in animals and plants
(C) A gas which acts as a signalling molecule in bacteria
(D) A gas which acts as a signalling molecule in protozoa
60. Chloroplast and mitochondrial DNA
(A) Both contains no genes
(B) Both contain few genes
(C) Only mitochondrial DNA contain few genes
(D) Only chloroplast DNA contain few genes
61. SNARES mediate
(A) Membrane transport (B) Membrane polarization
(C) Membrane fusion (D) Membrane disintegration
62. Scramblase is a
(A) Phospholipid translocator protein (B) Membrane disrupting protein
(C) Membrane fusion protein (D) Protein involved in endocytosis
63. Peroxisomes
(A) Have a genome (B) Lacks a genome
(C) Have a small genome (D) Have a large genome
64. Patch clamp technique is used for studying
(A) G proteins (B) Motor proteins (C) Ion channels (D) Contractile proteins
65. Aquaporins
(A) Conduct water across the membrane along the gradient
(B) Conduct ions across the membrane along the gradient
(C) Conducts ion across the membrane against the gradient
(D) Conducts water across the membrane against the gradient
66. What would be the probability that the five children in a family are all boys?
(A) 1/64 (B) 1/32 (C) 1/16 (D) 1/25
67. What is the best definition of a heterozygote?
(A) An individual with two dominant alleles
(B) An individual with two identical alleles
(C) An individual with two different alleles
(D) An individual with a mutant allele
68. If a mitotic cell contains 24 pairs of chromosomes just after completion of telophase,
how many chromatids were present at metaphase?
(A) 12 (B) 24 (C) 48 (D) 96
69. To which carbon of the pentose sugar is the phosphate group attached in nucleotides?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
70. Which enzyme catalyses the unwinding of DNA?
(A) Helicase (B) Unwindase (C) Topoisomerase (D) Endonuclease
71. Which of the following processes involves the transfer of naked fragments of DNA
between bacteria?
(A) Conjugation (B) Transduction (C) Transformation (D) Vectoring
72. What is added to the 3' end of newly transcribed eukaryotic mRNA?
(A) A poly G tail (B) A poly A tail (C) A stop codon (D) A poly C tail
73. Which types of RNA characteristically contains modified bases?
(A) mRNA (B) tRNA (C) siRNA (D) rRNA
74. What is the name for a DNA or RNA sequence that is repeated nearby in reverse
complementary orientation?
(A) Tandem repeat (B) Transposon (C) Palindrome (D) Cylindrome

75. On what does natural selection act?

(A) Phenotype
(B) Genotype
(C) A population’s gene pool
(D) Homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK
 MSc(2Yr)(Nuclear Medicine)
1. Photons does not possess
(A) Energy (B) Momentum (C) Rest mass (D) Frequency
2. Which of the following is an imino acid?
(A) Cysteine (B) Proline (C) Histidine (D) Glycine
3. The UV rays of sunlight are responsible for vitamin D formation in skin from
(A) Cholestrol (B) Ergestrol (C) Cholecalciferol (D) Calciferol
4. The enzyme where catalysis involves transfer of electrons are named as
(A) Isomerases (B) Transfereases (C) Oxidoreductases (D) Lyases
5. What is the wavelength range for UV spectrum of light?
(A) 10nm to 400 nm (B) 400 nm to 700 nm

(C) 700nm to 900nm (D) 900 nm to 1mm

6. The Schroedinger wave equation is a
(A) Non- linear differential equation (B) Second order equation in time

(C) Linear differential equation (D) First order equation in space

7. When an electron in an atom goes from a lower to a higher orbit, its
(A) Kinetic energy (KE) increases, potential energy (PE) decreases
(B) KE decreases, PE increases
(C) Both KE and PE increases
(D) Both KE and PE decreases
8. The number of waves, contained in unit length of the medium is called
(A) Wavelength (B) Wave number (C) Frequency (D) Amplitude

9. The energy equivalent to mass defect is called :

(A) Binding Energy (B) Enthalpy (C) Internal energy (D) External energy
10. The shortest wavelength visible to human eye is
(A) Violet (B) Green (C) Red (D) White
11. Certain radioactive elements emits __________ from its nucleus
(A) X-rays (B) Infrared rays (C) Gamma rays (D) Ultraviolet rays
12. The radioisotope of importance for its application in management of thyroid disorders is
(A) 14C (B) 131I (C) 137Cs (D) 3H
13. Beta particle has almost ________ times more penetration than that of an alpha particle
(A) 10 (B) 100 (C) 1000 (D) 2
14. The first successful vaccine was discovered for
(A) Tuberculosis(B) Whooping Cough (C) Small pox (D) Hepatitis B
15. The most predominant immunoglobulins in our body are
(A) IgA (B) IgE (C) IgM (D) IgG

16. Which among the following is an artificially produced radioisotope?

(A) 89Sr (B) 235U (C) 230Th (D) 40K
17. 6C
14
and 7N15 are examples of
(A) Isobars (B) Isotones (C) Isotopes (D) Isomers
18. A linear relationship is obtained between the number of radioactive nuclei and time when it
is plotted:
(A) on a log-log graph (B) on a linear-linear graph

(C) on a log-linear graph (D) on a square-linear graph

19. The stationary phase in chromatography can be ____________________, coated on the
surface of a solid phase
(A) Gaseous only (B) Liquid only (C) Solid or liquid (D) Liquid or gas
20. The biggest source of natural background radiation is
(A) Terrestrial (40K) (B) Airborne (Radon)

(C) Terrestrial (14C) (D) Cosmic radiations

21. Bending movement wherein the angle between two bones decreases
(A) Flexion (B) Extention (C) Abduction (D) Adduction

22. The synthesis of haemoglobin requires

(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D (C) Vitamin E (D) Vitamin B12
23. The nature of pancreatic juice is
(A) Strongly Acidic (B) Weakly acidic (C) Weakly Alkaline (D) Neutral
24. Which imaging modality works without ionising radiation?
(A) MRI (B) Nuclear Imaging

(C) Computed tomography (D) Plain radiography

25. Which of the following is not a personal monitoring device
(A) Thermoluminiscent dosimeter (B) Pocket dosimeter

(C) Film badge (D) Dose rate meter

26. When a radioactive element emits gamma ray, the atomic number of the nucleus
(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) Does not change (D) Depends upon the energy of the gamma ray
27. When placed in electric field, which of the following will not change its direction?
(A) Alpha particle (B) Positron (C) Electron (D) Gamma ray
28. Which amongst the following is the most radioresistant cell?
(A) Lymphocyte (B) Spermatocyte (C) Neuron (D) Hepatocyte
29. Half life of 60Co is
(A) 6.6 years (B) 3.8 years (C) 5.3 years (D) 1.2 years
30. Which of the following the non-radioactive form of iodine
(A) I-127 (B) I-131 (C) I-123 (D) I-125
31. Radiation weighting factor (wR) for beta radiation is:
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 10
32. 1 Sievert is equal to
 (A) 1 Rem (B) 10 Rem (C) 100 Rem (D) 1000 Rem
33. Which of the following is the unit of radiation exposure
(A) Rad (B) Roentgen (C) Curie (D) Gray
99m
34. Tc and 99Tc are examples of
(A) Isotones (B) Isomers (C) Isobars (D) Isomers
131
35. I emits
(A) Beta rays (B) Gamma rays

(C) Alpha rays (D) Both beta and gamma rays

36. C-14 is radioactive. The activity and daughter products are
(A) α active and Be-10 (B) β active and B-14

(C) γ active and C-14 (D) β active and N-14

37. Which of the following cells are implicated in immunity against cancers?
(A) Natural killer cells (B) Neutrophils
(C) Helper cells (D) T lymphocytes

38. The linear energy transfer is maximum in case of

(A) 1 Kev gamma ray (B) 1 Kev beta particle

(C) 1 Kev alpha particle (D) 1 Kev protons

39. In a radioactive decay, which part of the atom gives out energy
(A) Nucleus (B) Electron (C) Protons (D) Orbital Shells
40. Which of the following are examples of stochastic effect of radiation
(A) Cancer and hereditary effect (B) Cataract and cancer

(C) Skin erythema and Cataract (D) NVD syndrome and hereditary effect
41. The minimum nuclear energy required for positron decay is
(A) 1.04 Mev (B) 1.40 Mev (C) 1.20 Mev (D) 1.02 Mev
42. Graves disease is associated with
(A) Insufficiency of thyroid hormones (B) Excess of thyroid hormones

(C) Insufficiency of corticosteroids (D) Excess of growth hormones

43. The first human hormone produced by recombinant DNA technology
(A) Estrogen (B) Testosterone (C) Thyroxin (D) Insulin
44. The solution eluted from a 99Mo-99mTc generator is
(A) Sodium molybdate (B) sodium pertechnatate

(C) Alumina molybdate (D) alumina pertecnatate

45. Heavy nuclei have
(A) More protons than neutrons (B) More neutrons than protons

(C) More neutrons than electrons (D) More protons than electrons
46. A radiopharmaceutical with a 6 hours physical half-life and 3 hours biological half-life has
an effective half-life of
(A) 2 hours (B) 3 hours (C) 4 hours (D) 9 hours
47. In which year, Dolly the first mammalian clone was born?
(A) 1995 (B) 1996 (C) 1997 (D) 1998
48. Which of the following is not commonly used in carcinogenic models?
(A) Rats (B) Mice (C) Hamster (D) Sheep
49. A short length of DNA molecule has 80 thymine and 80 guanine bases. The total number
of nucleotide in the DNA fragment is
(A) 160 (B) 40 (C) 320 (D) 640
50. During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzyme polymerizes the okazaki
fragments?
(A) DNA polymerase I (B) DNA polymerase II

(C) DNA polymerase III (D) RNA polymerase I

51. Pernicious anaemia is due to:
(A) poor absorption of vitamin B12 (B) deficiency of vitamin C

(C) deficiency of vitamin B2 (D) poor absorption of iron

52. When an ion or solute is moved against a concentration gradient using energy, the process
is called:
(A) Diffusion (B) Passive Transport (C) Active transport (D) Regulated diffusion
53. Protein complex immunoprecipitation (Co-IP) involves the purification of
(A) Antigen (B) Antibody

(C) Protiens (D) Antigen-antibody complex

54. Out of the following processes, which one occurs in mitochondria?
(A) Glycolysis (B) Gluconeogenesis

(C) Pentose-phosphate pathway (D) Citric acid cycle

55. Chirality of DNA is due to
(A) The bases (B) Base stacking

(C) Hydrogen bonds between bases (D) Deoxyribose

56. Which of the following shall produce least biological effects upon interaction?
(A) Beta particles (B) Neutrons

(C) X-rays used for diagnosis (D) Alpha particles

57. The probability of photoelectric interaction is directly proportional to which power of
atomic number of the absorbing material?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
58. α-D-(+)-glucose and β-D-(+)-glucose are
(A) conformers (B) epimers (C) anomers (D) enantiomers
59. 0.450 moles of NaCl are dissolved in 95.0 mL of water. Calculate the molarity of the NaCl
solution.
(A) 0.0047 M (B) 0.21 M (C) 2.1 M (D) 4.7 M
60. Blood coagulation requires which of the following?
(A) Zinc (B) Selenium (C) Potassium (D) Calcium
61. One Gray as expressed in J/kg, is equal to
(A) 0.1 (B) 1.0 (C) 10 (D) 100
62. SI unit of radioactivity is
(A) Ci (B) Bq (C) Roentgen (D) Rad
63. The worn out red blood cells are stored in
(A) Bone Marrow (B) Myocytes (C) Spleen (D) Liver
64. Standard deviation is the square root of
(A) Variance (B) Mode (C) Standard Error (D) Median
65. Positron and negatron differ on the basis of
(A) Origin (B) Mass (C) Charge (D) Ionization
66. Liquid scintillation counter shall not be useful for counting which of the following
radioactive sample
(A) 99mTc (B) 14C (C) 3H (D) 32P
67. Cyclotron was invented by
(A) Blumgart (B) Perrie Curie (C) Paul Harper (D) Ernest Lawrence
68. Which of the following is both beta and gamma emitter?
(A) 99mTc (B) 123I (C) 131I (D) 201Tl
69. Which of the following organelle is called suicidal bag?
(A) Mitochondria (B) Lysosomes (C) Golgi complex (D) Endoplasmic Reticulum
70. Who was the first woman to win Nobel prize
(A) Marie Curie (B) Irene-Joliot Curie (C) Dorothy Hodgkin (D) Ada Yonath
71. Which gas has the highest solubility in blood?
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen

(C) Nitrogen (D) Both Carbon dioxide and Oxygen

72. Paper chromatography separates molecules based upon which property
(A) Polarity (B) Molecular Weight

(C) Shape (D) Viscosity

73. Which of the following bonds does not help in stabilising tertiary structure of protein
(A) Ionic bond (B) Peptide bond (C) Hydrogen bond (D) Disulphide bond
74. Which enzyme catalyzes the formation of phosphodiester linkage between two immediate
neighbour nucleotides of a DNA strand?
(A) DNA polymerase I (B) DNA Polymerase III
(C) DNA Ligase (D) DNA Gyrase
75. Signal splitting in NMR arises from
(A) Shielding effect (B) Spin-spin decoupling
(C) Spin-spin coupling (D) Deshielding effect
x-x-x
 MSc(2Yr)(Microbial Biotechnology)
1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of bacteria?
(A) Nucleus (B) Cell wall (C) Ribosomes (D) Flagella
2. What is the primary function of plasmids in bacteria?
(A) Reproduction (B) Protein synthesis
(C) Genetic transfer (D) Energy production
3. Which of the following introduced the use of slant culturing as a means of culture
preservation?
(A) Robert Koch (B) Joseph Lister (C) Louis Pasteur (D) John Tyndall
4. Which of the following enzymes in algae is involved in the biological production of
hydrogen by photolysis of water
(A) Nitrogenase (B) Phophoenol pyruvate
(C) Zymase (D) Hydro lyase
5. Which microbial process is used to produce alcoholic beverages?
(A) Fermentation (B) Photosynthesis
(C) Oxidative phosphorylation (D) Glycolysis
6. The process of introducing naked DNA into bacterial cells is known as:
(A) Transformation (B) Transduction (C) Conjugation (D) Replication
7. Which of the following is used commercially for sterilization of disposable plastic
items?
(A) Ethylene oxide (B) Autoclave (C) Glutaraldehyde (D) Ethyl Alcohol
8. What is the distinguishing feature of Fungi?
(A) Contain peptidoglycan in cell wall (B) Are prokaryotic
(C) Susceptible to griseofulvin (D) Have no nuclear membranes
9. Which of the following is an example of a bacterial exotoxin?
(A) Lipopolysaccharide (LPS) (B) Tetanus toxin
(C) Endotoxin (D) Peptidoglycan
10. Which microbial process is responsible for the production of antibiotics?
(A) Conjugation (B) Transduction (C) Fermentation (D) Photosynthesis
11. Which enzyme is used to cut DNA at specific sequences in genetic engineering?
(A) DNA polymerase (B) RNA polymerase
(C) Ligase (D) Restriction enzyme
12. What is the function of a vector in recombinant DNA technology?
(A) To amplify DNA (B) To cut DNA at specific sequences
(C) To introduce DNA into host cells (D) To replicate DNA
13. Which of the following is not a method of sterilization?
(A) Autoclaving (B) Filtration (C) Pasteurization (D) Refrigeration
14. What is the genetic material of viruses?
(A) RNA or DNA (B) Lipids (C) Proteins (D) Carbohydrates
15. What is the role of normal microflora in the human body?
(A) To cause disease (B) To protect against disease
(C) To produce hormones (D) To aid in energy generation

16. Which of the following techniques allows the visualization of specific DNA
sequences on a gel?
(A) Western blotting (B) Southern blotting
(C) Northern blotting (D) Eastern blotting
17. Which group of microorganisms is generally responsible for causing food spoilage?
(A) Bacteria (B) Viruses (C) Fungi (D) Algae

18. What is the role of nitrogen-fixing bacteria in agriculture?

(A) They convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form usable by plants.
(B) They convert nitrogen in the soil to a gaseous form.
(C) They degrade organic matter in the soil.
(D) They produce antibiotics to protect plants from pathogens.
19. Which of the following is not a method for controlling microbial growth?
(A) Antibiotics (B) Pasteurization (C) Fermentation (D) UV radiation
20. What is the primary function of bacterial endospores?
(A) Reproduction (B) Genetic exchange
(C) Survival in harsh conditions (D) Nutrient storage
21. Which of the following is not a component of a typical bacterial cell?
(A) Mitochondria (B) Ribosome (C) Cell membrane (D) Cytoplasm
22. Which of the following drugs inhibits cell wall synthesis in bacteria?
(A) Tetracycline (B) Streptomycin (C) Penicillin (D) Chloramphenicol
23. Which of the following is an application of algae in the food industry?
(A) Production of antibiotics (B) Production of biofuels
(C) Production of food colorants (D) Production of enzymes
24. The classification system proposed by Carl Woese is based on:
(A) Morphology (B) Cell wall structure
(C) Nucleic acid sequences (D) Mode of reproduction
25. Which of the following is not a method for microbial identification?
(A) PCR (B) ELISA (C) Gram staining (D) Fermentation
26. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus?
(A) Malaria (B) Influenza (C) Measles (D) Chickenpox
27. What is the primary function of Taq polymerase in PCR?
(A) DNA synthesis (B) RNA synthesis
(C) DNA amplification (D) DNA digestion

28. Which of the following is not a method for genetic modification of plants?
(A) Agrobacterium-mediated transformation (B) Particle bombardment
 (C) RNA interference (D) Sanger sequencing
29. A gene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is called as
(A) Structural gene (B) Operator gene
(C) Regulator gene (D) Promoter gene
30. Which of the following is a method for quantifying microbial biomass?
(A) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) (B) Flow cytometry
(C) Southern blotting (D) Northern blotting
31. What is the primary role of bioremediation in environmental microbiology?
(A) To enhance soil fertility
(B) To remove pollutants from the environment
(C) To produce antibiotics
(D) To promote plant growth
32. Which of the following is a characteristic of extremophiles?
(A) They thrive in moderate temperature ranges.
(B) They cannot survive in extreme environments.
(C) They are sensitive to pH changes.
(D) They thrive in extreme conditions.
33. Which of the following bacterial structures is involved in conjugation?
(A) Flagella (B) Pili (C) Capsule (D) Plasmid
34. What is the primary function of CRISPR-Cas9 in genetic engineering?
(A) DNA amplification (B) Gene editing
(C) Protein synthesis (D) RNA interference
35. Which of the following is an example of a Gram-positive bacterium?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Staphylococcus aureus
(C) Salmonella typhimurium (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
36. What is the role of luciferase in bioluminescent bacteria?
(A) DNA synthesis (B) ATP synthesis
(C) Light production (D) Nitrogen fixation
37. Which of the following is a characteristic of bacterial biofilms?
(A) Rapid growth rate (B) Single-layered structure
(C) Susceptibility to antibiotics (D) Resistance to environmental stress
38. Which of the following is a method for studying microbial communities in soil?
(A) Metagenomics (B) Southern blotting
(C) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) (D) Western blotting
39. What is the primary function of microbial fuel cells?
(A) To produce antibiotics (B) To generate electricity
(C) To degrade pollutants (D) To synthesize biomolecules
40. Which of the following is an example of a symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacterium?
(A) Escherichia coli (B) Bacillus subtilis
(C) Rhizobium leguminosarum (D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
41. What is the primary function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?
 (A) Synthesizing RNA from DNA (B) Synthesizing DNA from RNA
(C) Breaking down RNA (D) Breaking down DNA
42. Which of the following is not an application of genetic engineering?
(A) Production of synthetic fibers (B) Development of new vaccines
(C) Creation of transgenic animals (D) Gene therapy
43. What is the primary function of nitrogenase in procaryotes?
(A) Nitrogen assimilation (B) Nitrogen fixation
(C) Nitrogen denitrification (D) Nitrogen nitrification
44. Which of the following is a characteristic of halophilic microorganisms?
(A) Optimal growth in acidic conditions
(B) Optimal growth in alkaline conditions
(C) Optimal growth in high salt concentrations
(D) Optimal growth in low oxygen environments
45. What is the function of a transposon in microbial genetics?
(A) DNA amplification (B) Relocating genes
(C) DNA repair (D) Genetic recombination
46. Which of the following is a method for quantifying microbial diversity?
(A) 16S rRNA sequencing (B) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
(C) DNA microarrays (D) Southern blotting
47. What is the primary function of restriction enzymes in molecular biology?
(A) DNA synthesis (B) DNA amplification
(C) DNA cleavage (D) DNA ligation
48. Which of the following is not a characteristic of archaebacteria?
(A) Presence of peptidoglycan in the cell wall
(B) Extremophiles
(C) Unique lipid composition in the cell membrane
(D) Methanogenesis
49. What is the role of CRISPR in microbial immunity?
(A) To degrade foreign DNA (B) To amplify DNA
(C) To regulate gene expression (D) To provide resistance to viral infection
50. Which of the following is a method for studying microbial gene expression?
(A) Microscopy (B) PCR (C) DNA microarrays (D) Flow cytometry
51. What is the function of a lytic phage in microbial ecology?
(A) To infect bacterial cells and integrate into the host genome
(B) To infect bacterial cells and lyse them
(C) To exchange genetic material with bacterial cells
(D) To promote bacterial conjugation
52. What is the purpose of site-directed mutagenesis?
(A) To introduce random mutations in DNA (B) To create specific mutations in DNA
(C) To produce multiple copies of DNA (D) To amplify DNA fragments

53. What is the function of storage polysaccharides?

(A) Provide structure to the cell (B) Act as a short-term energy source
 (C) Act as a long-term energy source (D) Catalyze biochemical reactions
54. Which of the following is not a type of lipid?
(A) Triacylglycerols (B) Phosphoglycerides
(C) Proteoglycans (D) Sphingolipids
55. What was the first antibiotic discovered and by whom?
(A) Penicillin, Alexander Fleming (B) Tetracycline, Benjamin Duggar
(C) Streptomycin, Selman Waksman (D) Chloramphenicol, David Gottlieb
56. A fermentation process produces 200 g/L of biomass and consumes 40 g/L of substrate.
What is the yield coefficient of biomass on the substrate?
(A) 1 g/g (B) 2 g/g (C) 4 g/g (D) 5 g/g
57. The process of anaerobic digestion in sewage treatment produces:
(A) Methane gas and carbon dioxide (B) Oxygen and nitrogen gas
(C) Hydrogen gas and oxygen gas (D) Carbon monoxide and nitrogen gas
58. What is the purpose of primary treatment in sewage treatment?
(A) To remove suspended solids and particulate organic matter
(B) To remove dissolved pollutants
(C) To disinfect the wastewater
(D) To remove nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus
59. Which of the following is a common disinfection method used in sewage treatment?
(A) Activated sludge (B) Trickling filter
(C) Chlorination (D) Anaerobic digestion
60. What is the specific activity of an amylase preparation, 0.5 ml of which hydrolyzes 50
µmol of substrate per minute at 37°C and pH 7.0, when the total protein concentration
in the preparation is 2 mg/mL?
(A) 25 IU/mg (B) 50 IU/mg (C) 100 IU/mg (D) 200 IU/mg
61. Which of the following is not a type of photosynthetic pigment?
(A) Chlorophyll a (B) Chlorophyll b
(C) Bacteriochlorophyll (D) Phycoerythrin
62. Which metabolic pathway is responsible for fixing carbon dioxide during
photosynthesis in bacteria?
(A) Calvin cycle (B) Glycolysis
(C) Krebs cycle (D) Electron transport chain

63. Which of the following is not a biologically important nucleotide?

(A) Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) (B) Cytidine monophosphate (CMP)
(C) Guanosine diphosphate (GDP) (D) Uracil pentaphosphate (UPP)
64. What does the "D value" represent in food preservation?
(A) Time required for a 10-fold reduction in microorganisms
(B) Temperature increase required for microbial inactivation
(C) pH value at which microorganisms are inactivated
(D) Pressure required for microbial inactivation
65. What is the significance of Km in Michaelis-Menten kinetics?
(A) It represents the rate constant of the enzyme-substrate complex formation
(B) It represents the substrate concentration at half-maximal velocity
(C) It represents the maximum velocity of the reaction
(D) It represents the dissociation constant of the enzyme-substrate complex
66. What is the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety?
(A) An international agreement on the use of biotechnology
(B) A treaty on global trade
(C) A legal framework for intellectual property protection
(D) A treaty on biosafety
67. What are Good Laboratory Practices (GLP) and Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP)?
(A) Standards for maintaining laboratory and manufacturing quality and safety
(B) Standards for patent filing
(C) Standards for intellectual property protection
(D) Standards for ethical conduct in research
68. What is the Budapest Treaty?
(A) An international agreement on biosafety
(B) A treaty on patent cooperation
(C) A legal framework for intellectual property protection
(D) A treaty on global trade
69. What are the two types of vitamins?
(A) Fat-soluble and water-soluble
(B) Carbohydrate-soluble and protein-soluble
(C) Lipid-soluble and nucleic acid-soluble
(D) Amino acid-soluble and enzyme-soluble
70. Which of the following is not a type of microbial culture?
(A) Batch culture (B) Fed-batch culture
(C) Continuous culture (D) Perfusion culture
71. Which measure of precision is calculated by dividing the standard deviation by the
square root of the sample size?
(A) Standard error (B) Confidence interval
(C) Coefficient of determination (D) Coefficient of variation
72. Which measure is used to determine the strength and direction of a linear relationship
between two variables?
(A) Correlation coefficient (B) Coefficient of determination
(C) Covariance (D) Standard error
73. What is the critical region in hypothesis testing?
(A) The region where the test statistic falls
(B) The region where the null hypothesis is true
(C) The region where the alternative hypothesis is true
(D) The region where the test statistic is significant
74. Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?
 (A) Skewness (B) Kurtosis (C) Standard deviation (D) Median
75. Which of the following tests is used to determine whether two groups of data have the
same mean?
(A) F-test (B) Z-test (C) T-test (D) Chi-square test
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK
 MSc(2Yr)(Forensic Science)
Q. 1-20: GENERAL SCIENCE Q. 21-45: PHYSICS Q. 46-70: CHEMISTRY
Q. 71-95: BIOLOGY Q. 96-120: FORENSIC SCIENCE
NOTE: General Science section is compulsory. Select any two sections out of
Chemistry, Biology, Physics and Forensic Science.

GENERAL SCIENCE:
1. Radioactive element generally present in humans is
(A) Patassium-40 (B) Cobalt-60 (C) Iodine-131 (D) Plutonium-238
2. Sebum and sweat is related to
(A) Pituitary (B) Skin (C) Liver (D) GIT
3. Which of the following disease is not caused by virus?
(A) AIDS (B) Chickenpox (C) Tuberculosis (D) Herpes
4. Phenomenon explaining spreading of ink in water is
(A) Dipole movement (B) Osmosis (C) Solute kinetics (D) Diffusion
5. Malaria control suggests spraying oil on stagnant water. Why?
(A) Mosquito larva cannot breath (B) Malaria parasites are killed by oil layer
(C) Surface tension of water changes (D) Mosquito eggs are rumpled
6. What is the fear of snakes called?
(A) Arachnop (B) Ophidiophobia (C) Nyctophobia (D) Ablutophobia
7. Which of the following is the effective extinguisher for all confined fires?
(A) CO2 (B) NO2 (C) SO2 (D) N2O
8. What is white vitriol?
(A) Ferrous carbonate (B) Ferrous nitrate (C) Ferrous sulphate (D) Ferrous acetate
9. Fuel efficiency is expressed as
(A) Calorimetric value (B) Octane value (C) Calorific value (D) Fuel specific value
10. Which of the following term Supermoon is also known as......
(A) Perigee-syzygy Moon (B) Perigee Moon (C) Blue Moon (D) Pink Moon
11. Which of the following is not an organic acid
(A) Citric acid (B) Acetic acid (C) Boric acid (D) Valeric acid
12. In which year the Information Technology Act (IT Act) came into effect, in India?
(A) 2001 (B) 2011 (C) 2000 (D) 2010
13. How many bones does a new born baby have?
(A) 310 (B) 206 (C) 306 (D) 300
14. Digestion of protein takes place in which part of body?
(A) Liver (B) Small Intestine (C) Pancreas (D) Stomach
15. Which mirrors is generally used as rear-view mirror in vehicles?
(A) Concave mirror (B) Convex mirror
(C) Plain mirror (D) Combination of plane and convex mirror
16. Which element occurs abundantly in Universe?
(A) Argon (B) Ozon (C) Hydrogen (D) Oxygen
17. Which of the factor results in spherical shape of raindrops?
(A) Surface tension (B) Friction of air
(C) Falling from height (D) Viscosity factor
18. Who was discovered the Rh factor?
(A) De Cadello (B) Sterli (C) Mendel (D) Karl Landsteiner
19. Sodium metal is very reactive. In which of the following is used for its preservation?
(A) Alcohol (B) Kerosene (C) Water (D) Acetone
20. The chemical compound RDX is used as which of the following?
(A) Phase catalyst (B) Dating material
(C) Explosive (D) Nuclear fusion enhancer

PHYSICS:
21. When is a body said to be in motion?
(A) When its position changes (B) When its temperature changes
(C) When its solubility changes (D) When its state changes
22. Which of the following are the features of a vector quantity?
(A) It has magnitude (B) It has direction
(C) It has both magnitude and direction (D) It doesn’t have magnitude and direction
23. What is the SI unit of velocity?
(A) m/s (B) Km/s (C) m/min (D) km/min
24. The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) on Earth is how many times to that on the
moon?
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 9
25. A force of 200N is applied to an object of area 5m2. How much is the pressure exerted?
(A) 10 Pa (B) 20 Pa (C) 40 Pa (D) 80 Pa
26. What is the relative density of water?
(A) 0.24 (B) 092 (C) 1 (D) 1.26
27. A wire having a resistance of 1 ohm is cut into three equal parts. These parts are joined in
parallel. What will be the resistance of combination?
(A) 3 ohm (B) 1 ohm (C) 9 ohm (D) 12 ohm
28. Which of the following is not true for magnetic field lines?
(A) The magnetic field lines of a magnet (or a solenoid) form continuous closed loops.
(B) The tangent to the field line at a given point represents the direction of the net magnetic
field B at that point.
(C) The larger the number of field lines crossing per unit area, the stronger is the
magnitude
of the magnetic field B.
(D) The magnetic field lines frequently intersect each other

29. How much work is done by a force of 20N in moving an object through a distance of 2m
in the direction of force?
(A) 10J (B) 20J (C) 30J (D) 40J
30. A man travels a distance of 2.5m towards the east, then 4.0m towards the south, and finally
5m towards the east. What is the total distance travelled?
 (A) 11.5m (B) 10m (C) 22.5m (D) 11m
31. For uniform motion, average velocity is same as?
(A) Acceleration (B) Velocity (C) Speed (D) Centrifugal force
32. Momentum is defined in which law of motion?
(A) First (B) Second (C) Third (D) Zero
33. What is the kinetic energy of a 1.5 ton bus moving at 40 km/h?
(A) 1200000 J (B) 2400000 J (C) 120000 J (D) 240000 J
34. Force in linear motion translate to which quantity for rotational motion?
(A) Work (B) Power (C) Torque (D) Moment of inertia
35. Which of the following is the minimum speed required for an object to reach infinity?
(A) Gravitational speed (B) Infinite speed
(C) Escape Speed (D) Momentum speed
36. What is the average velocity of the electron in drift?
(A) 2V (B) Nv (C) 0 (D) v1+v2+v3….+vn/n
37. Which of the following is true for Lorentz Force?
(A) It doesn’t depends on q, v and B (charge of the particle, the velocity and the magnetic
field). Force on a negative charge is opposite to that on a positive charge.
(B) The magnetic force is infinite if charge is not moving.
(C) The magnetic force is a dot product of velocity and magnetic field.
(D) It depends on q, v and B (charge of the particle, the velocity and the magnetic field).
Force on a negative charge is opposite to that on a positive charge.
38. The amount of solar energy received per second by one square meter of the near earth
space at an average distance between sun and Earth is called?
(A) Solar Constant (B) Solar Flare (C) Solar Quantum (D) Solar Energy
39. ‘The right side of an object becomes left side in the image in a plane mirror and left side
becomes right side’. What is this phenomenon?
(A) Inverted image (B) Lateral Inversion (C) Virtual Image (D) Axial Inversion
40. The idea of Quantum nature of light has emerged in an attempt to explain
(A) Interference (B) Diffraction
(C) Polarization (D) Radiation spectrum of black body
41. What is the longest wavelength of light visible to human eye?
(A) 400 nm (B) 700 nm (C) 600 nm (D) 350 nm
42. What will be the effective resistance of three resistances 2, 4 and 6, connected in
parallel?
(A) 12/11  (B) 11/12  (C) 12  (D) 15 
43. An object has been thrown vertically upward, with a speed of 15 m/s. How high will it go,
before it starts to fall back?
(A) +11.4 m (B) +9.8 m/s2 (C) -11.4 m (D) -9.8 m/s2
44. Oil floating on water looks coloured. The approximate thickness of oil for such effect to
be visible is :-
(A) 100 A0 (B) 1mm (C) 1cm (D) 1000 A0
45. Refractive index of a material is 1.25. What is the speed of light in that material (speed of
light in vaccum is 3 x 108 ms-1)?
(A) 2 × 108 ms-1 (B) 2.5 × 108 ms-1 (C) 2.4 × 108 ms-1 (D) 20 × 108 ms-1

CHEMISTRY:
46. Which of the following is not true according to Pauli’s exclusion principle?
(A) Four quantum numbers are needed to define the energy of an electron in an atom.
(B) No two electrons in one atom can have all four quantum numbers the same.
(C) The maximum number of electrons which can be contained in each main energy level
can never be calculated.
(D) Each orbital may hold up to two electrons, provided they have opposite spins.
47. Which of the following is example of stochiometric defects?
(A) Schottky defects (B) Metal excess defect
(C) Metal deficiency defect (D) All of these
48. With which group ethers form oxonium compounds?
(A) Organic acids (B) Inorganic acids (C) Alcohols (D) Aldehydes
49. Which of the following compound have the most reactive carbonyl group.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

50. What is mechanical equilibrium between the two gases?

(A) Pressure between two gases stored in separate container that share a common a
movable
wall is equal and wall has no tendency to move further
(B) Pressure between two gases stored in separate container that are separated by fix wall
and both the gases apply equal pressure to the wall
(C) Pressure exerted by the atmosphere to container is equal to the pressure exerted by the
gas stored in the container
(D) None of the above
51. Which of the following depicts the total kinetic and potential energy of the constituents
(the atoms, ions, or molecules) of the system?
(A) Total energy (B) Heat energy (C) Internal Energy (D) Kinetic energy
52. What is the most stable state of an element at the specified temperature and 1 bar pressure
is known as?
(A) Ideal state (B) Standard state (C) Reference state (D) Isolated state
53. Which is the first thiazine dye synthesized?
(A) Methylene blue (B) Crystal violet (C) Congo red (D) Lauth’s blue
54. Which of the following process requires lowest heat of hydrogenation?
(A) Cylclohexyne to cyclohexene (B) Benzene to cyclohexene
(C) Benzene to cylclohexane (D) Benzene to cyclohexyne
55. Arrange the compounds given below according to increasing solubility in water: Ethanol:
Methanol: Propanol: Butanol
(A) Ethanol < Methanol < Propanol <Butanol
(B) Butanol< Ethanol < Methanol < Propanol
(C) Ethanol < Propanol < Methanol <Butanol
 (D) Butanol< Propanol < Methanol < Ethanol
56. Which of the following is/ are the conditions for resonance?
i. The positions of the nuclei in each structure must be the same or nearly the same
ii. The number of unpaired electrons in each structure must be same
iii. Each structure must have about the same internal energy
(A) Only i. (B) Only i. and ii. (C) Only i. and iii. (D) All i., ii, and iii.
57. What is the order of reactivity of the addition of halogen acid with olefins?
(A) Hydrogen iodide > hydrogen bromide > hydrogen chloride > hydrogen fluoride
(B) Hydrogen iodide > hydrogen fluoride > hydrogen bromide > hydrogen chloride
(C) Hydrogen iodide > hydrogen chloride > hydrogen bromide > hydrogen fluoride
(D) Hydrogen bromide > Hydrogen iodide > hydrogen chloride > hydrogen fluoride
58. The temperature at which the resistance of metal drops sharply is known as?
(A) Superconductor temperature (B) Critical temperature
(C) Supercritical temperature (D) Meissner temperature
59. Which of the following doesn’t affect the ionization energy?
(A) The size of the atom
(B) The charge on the atom
(C) How effectively the inner electron shells screen the nuclear charge
(D) The type of electron involved (s. p, d or f)
60. Which of the statement is true according to Dalton’s law of partial pressure?
(A) Total vapour pressure over the solution can be related to the mole fraction of any one
component
(B) Partial pressure over the solution can be related to the mole fraction of any one component
(C) Total vapour pressure over the solution can be related to the mole fraction to total
components of the system
(D) Total vapour pressure over the solution varies exponentially with the mole fraction of
component lesser in amount
61. Which of the following is not true about order of reaction?
(A) The sum of powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate law expression is called
the order of that chemical reaction
(B) The powers of the concentration of the reactant components represents the order with
respect
to the reactants
(C) The powers of the concentration of the reactant components indicates how sensitive the
rate
is to the change in concentration of the components
(D) The difference of powers of the concentration of the reactants in the rate law expression is
called the order of that chemical reaction

62. Which of the following is the rate determining step in a reaction?

(A) Complexation step (B) Slowest step
(C) Fastest step (D) Intermediate forming step
63. Which of the following metal has the lowest melting point?
(A) Manganese (B) Technetium (C) Rhenium (D) Osmium
64. Which of the following is an example of stereoisomerism?
(A) Coordination isomerism (B) Ionisation isomerism
 (C) Geometrical isomerism (D) Linkage isomerism
65. Two monosaccharides are joined by which types of linkage to form disaccharides?
(A) π- π linkage (B) Wan-der wall linkage
(C) Glycosidic linkage (D) Covalent linkage
66. Which trend holds good for boiling point of amines?
(A) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary (B) Tertiary > Primary > Secondary
(C) Primary > Tertiary > Secondary (D) Secondary > Primary > Tertiary
67. Which of the following is correct order of basicity of amines in the gaseous phase?
(A) tertiary amine > secondary amine > primary amine > NH3
(B) tertiary amine > primary amine > secondary amine > NH3
(C) NH3> primary amine > secondary amine > tertiary amine.
(D) NH3> tertiary amine > secondary amine > primary amine.
68. In which of the following crystals all tetrahedral voids are occupied?
(A) NaCl (B) ZnS (C) CaF2 (D) KCl
69. Which of the following is not the limitation of the octet theory?
(A) It does not account for the shape of molecules
(B) In molecules with an odd number of electrons, the octet rule is not satisfied for all the
atoms
(C) The incomplete octet of the central atom
(D) It explained the relative stability of the molecules
70. What is the oxidation number of carbon in C3O2?
(A) 4/3 (B) C1-2, C2-0, C3-2 (C) C1-1, C2-0, C3-3 (D) C1-0, C2-4, C3-0

BIOLOGY:
71. Which mode of nutrition is followed by green plants?
(A) Autotrophic (B) Heterotrophic (C) Parasitic (D) Saprotrophic
72. Which of the following correctly describes the process of carrying food from the leaves to
other parts of a plant?
(A) Transpiration (B) Respiration (C) Transportation (D) Translocation
73. What are the main methods of reproduction in living organisms?
(A) Sexual reproduction (B) Asexual reproduction
(C) Both A and B (D) None of these
74. Which part of the human sperm carries the genes?
(A) Tail (B) Nuclei (C) Middle piece (D) Cell membrane
75. Evidence for evolution is not provided by which of the sources?
(A) Carbon dating (B) Homologous organs
(C) Fossils (D) Analogous organs
76. Who plays the role of converting organic material to inorganic forms in an ecosystem?
(A) Decomposers (B) Producers (C) Consumers (D) None of these
77. Which is the primary organism in a food chain?
(A) Herbivore (B) Carnivore (C) Parasite (D) Photosynthetic
78. The 10% law for energy transfer in food chains was given in which year?
(A) 1942 (B) 2019 (C) 2004 (D) 1806
79. Which of the following are not a part of the rainwater harvesting model?
(A) Soil (B) Coal (C) Gravel (D) Sand
80. Which of the following stains can be used for preparing a temporary mount of leaf?
(A) Safranin (B) Glycerine (C) Iodine (D) Water
81. Which among the following are commonly used insecticides?
(A) Malathion (B) Lindane (C) Thiodane (D) Grubs
82. How is nectar converted to honey?
(A) Sucrose of nectar is converted to dextrose
(B) Sucrose of nectar is converted to levulose
(C) Sucrose of nectar is converted to dextrose and levulose
(D) Sucrose of nectar is converted to maltose
83. Which of the following indicates the correct measurement of cells?
(A) 1 mm = 1000 cm (B) 1 nm = 100 mm (C) 1 m = 1000 mm (D) 1 mm = 0.1 m
84. Which is the largest cell structure in cells?
(A) Nucleus (B) Ribosome (C) Plastid (D) Mitochondria
85. What is the main function of parenchyma tissue?
(A) Increase girth (B) Growth of roots (C) Food storage (D) RBCs production
86. Which of the following nomenclature does not belong to Panther?
(A) Animalia (B) Carnivora (C) Plantae (D) Panthera
87. Which of the following is not a morphological part of hair?
(A) Root (B) Shoot (C) Shaft (D) Tip
88. What are the other names for blood platelets?
(A) Corpuscles (B) Erythrocytes (C) Discs (D) Leukocytes
89. Which peptide is found in foetal blood?
(A) Y peptide (B) Z peptide (C) A peptide (D) B peptide
90. Where can the presence of barr bodies be seen?
(A) Males (B) Females (C) Both (D) None of these
91. In which of the medical conditions does melanin synthesis from tyrosine get defective?
(A) Albinism (B) Homocystinuria (C) Phenylketonuria (D) Alkaptonuria
92. Which of the following is not a part of the Golgi stack?
(A) cis cistern (B) cis Golgi network (C) medial cistern (D) trans cisterna
93. Which is the simplest amino acid?
(A) Proline (B) Lysine (C) Glycine (D) Alanine
94. In lichens, the fungal partner is also known as what?
(A) Phycobiont (B) Mycobiont (C) Photobiont (D) Symbiont
95. A plant cell that is placed in an isotonic solution will
(A) Gain more water (B) Lose water (C) Remain as such (D) Inflate
FORENSIC SCIENCE:
96. Which of the flowing is the branch of forensic science dealing with the study of insects in
criminal investigation?
(A) Forensic Entomology (B) Forensic Toxicology
 (C) Forensic Anthropology (D) Forensic Odontology
97. The movement of the evidence is maintained through which of the following?
(A) Crime scene report (B) Chain of custody
(C) Packaging and Labeling (D) Collection and Preservation
98. TLC stands for
(A) Thin Liquid Chromatography (B) Thin Layer Chromatography
(C) Thick Liquid Chromatography (D) Thick Layer Chromatography
99. Which of the following defines the overwriting of a sample of writing or printing with
another writing instrument?
(A) Erasure (B) Addition (C) Substitution (D) Obliteration
100. AFIS stands for
(A) Automated Fingerprint Identification System
(B) Automatic Forensic Identification System
(C) Automated fingerprint Identification Scanner
(D) Automated Fingerprint Identification Software
101. Cherry red blood is indication of which of the following poison?
(A) Opium (B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Cascabela thevetia (D) Ricinus communis
102. Which of the following is not a type of primer?
(A) Rim-fire Primer (B) Centre-fire Primer
(C) Shotgun Primer (D) Rimless Primer
103. What is the scientific study of the fingerprints called?
(A) Poroscopy (B) Immunoscopy (C) Dactyloscopy (D) Spectroscopy
104. Emetics are agents that produces
(A) Sweating (B) Vomiting (C) Palpitations (D) Unconsciousness
105. A group of armed people conjointly robs a person. Which of the following the group is
said to have committed?
(A) Robbery (B) Theft (C) Dacoity (D) Extortion
106. The right order of the stages involved in crime scene examination are
(A) Securing, Sketching, Searching and Documentation of crime scene
(B) Securing, Searching, Sketching and Documentation of crime scene
(C) Securing, Scanning, Collecting evidences and Searching of crime scene
(D) Securing, Searching, Collecting evidences and Documentation of crime scene
107. Which of the following is not a used method for Dental age estimation?
(A) Boyde’s Method (B) Gustafson’s method
(C) Radiographic method (D) Mandibular method
108. The type of forgery in which the forger selects a model signature or writing and tries to
copy the design of letters and other broad features depending upon his skill, practice and
competency is known as
(A) Simulated Forgery (B) Traced Forgery
(C) Forgery by impersonation (D) Simple Hand Forgery
109. DNA is compacted by higher levels of folding of the nucleosomes into which type of
fibers?
 (A) Chromatin fibers (B) Gametes (C) Nulliploid (D) Centromeres
110. The intentional sending of large volumes of messages to a target address is known as
(A) E-mail Spamming (B) E-mail Spoofing
(C) E-mail Hacking (D) E-mail Bombing
111. Which of the following is an example of ‘Animal Fiber’?
(A) Flax (B) Cotton (C) Wool (D) Asbestos
112. A depression at the muzzle end of the shotgun produced in order to decrease splattering of
pellets and increase their range is known as
(A) Choke (B) Action (C) Chamber (D) Bore
113. Which of the following depict the deposition of unburnt or semi-burnt powder particles
under the skin?
(A) Charring (B) Blackening (C) Singeing (D) Tattooing
114. Which of the following are not the characteristic features of Abrasion rings?
(A) Reddish brown colored area (B) Flattened and abraded epidermis
(C) Present on entrance holes (D) Presence of exit hole
115. The outer layer of the human hair shaft is called as
(A) Cortex (B) Cuticle (C) Epidermis (D) Medulla
116. What do we call the separation of the two strands of the DNA molecule?
(A) Annealing (B) Replication (C) Denaturing (D) Degradation
117. A type of mechanical trauma in which the body is deprived of oxygen is defined as
(A) Asphyxia (B) Hematoma (C) Exsanguination (D) Contusion
118. Rigor mortis is associated with which of the following?
(A) Post-mortem lividity (B) Stiffening of the body after death
(C) Paleness of the body (D) Pooling of blood in lower extremities
119. Which of the following can be used for testing presence of saliva in given sample?
(A) Immunochromatographic Assays (B) Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy
(C) Gas Chromatography (D) Mass Spectroscopy
120. What is full form of ELISA?
(A) Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay
(B) Eriochrome-Linked Immunosorbent Assay
(C) Enzyme-Linked Instant Assay
(D) Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Array
x-x-x
 MSc(HS/2Yr)(Biotechnology)
1. In BLAST alignment e-value is indicative of
(A) alignment because of chance (B) scoring matrix
(C) score (D) absolute score
2. Cis regulatory elements in genomes
(A) code for genes (B) regulate distant genes
(C) regulate neighbouring genes (D) code for essential genes
3. In humans the Alu repeat elements are
(A) repetitive elements in mitochondria only (B) class of retroelements termed SINE’s
(C) microsatellites (D) present only in telomeres
4. Rosalind Franklin is famous for her work on
(A) enzymes (B) RNA
(C) structure of DNA (D) cloning
5. Genome sequencing by synthesis refers to
(A) Sanger sequencing (B) Next generation sequencing
(C) Classical sequencing (D) Slow sequencing technique
6. t-RNA has a structure which usually terminates with the following nucleotides
(A) CCA at 3’end (B) CCA at 5’end
(C) TGA at 3’end (D) GGA at 3’end
7. Genetically modified brinjal is
(A) pesticide tolerant (B) herbicide tolerant
(C) cold resistant (D) modified with crystal protein gene
8. Barbara McClintock is best remembered for her work on
(A) structure of RNA (B) maize genetics
(C) human genome (D) statistics
9. Geiger counter is an instrument used for measuring
(A) Light intensity (B) UV rays
(C) Ionizing radiations (D) Electronic transitions
10. Nucleolus region in the nucleus consists of
(A) r-RNA genes and a distinct membrane (B) r-RNA genes and no membrane
(C) t-RNA genes (D) genes for membrane proteins
11. DNA exists as distinct chromosomes in
(A) all phases of cell cycle (B) M phase of cell cycle
(C) resting phase of cell cycle (D) non-dividing cell
12. Usually the histone bodies in Nucleosomes are
(A) H2A, H2B, H3A, H3B (B) H2A, H2B, H3, H5
(C) Octamer of H2A, H2B, H3, H4 (D) Octamer of H2A, H2B, H3A, H3B

13. In size exclusion chromatography

(A) large molecules are eluted first (B) small molecules are eluted first
(C) molecules are eluted based on charge (D) hydrophobic interactions occur
14. The acronym iPSCs is best described for stem cells obtained from
(A) embryo
(B) Non-reprogrammed, non-embryonic sources
(C) re-programmed adult cells
(D) plant cells
15. The most important reason for carbohydrates structure diversity is because
(A) the building blocks are complex sugars
(B) they have protein interactions
(C) of many stereoisomers and variable linkages
(D) of geometrical isomerism
16. The domains in proteins refers to
(A) quaternary structures in proteins (B) primary structures in proteins
(C) secondary structure of proteins (D) functional elements of protein
17. One Newton force is that force which can
(A) change velocity of 1Kg mass by 1m/s (B) change velocity of 1g mass by 1m/s
(C) accelerate 1Kg mass by 1m/s2 (D) accelerate 1g mass by 1m/s2
18. Mendelian genetics is different from the Morgan studies mainly in
(A) law of segregation (B) law of dominance
(C) structure of DNA (D) Recombination frequency
19. Edward Jenner is credited for the development of
(A) rabies vaccine (B) snake anti venom
(C) small pox vaccine (D) vaccine against mycobacterium
20. The pH of 0.1N HCl will be
(A) 2.0 (B) 3.0 (C) 4.0 (D) 1.0
21. Dr. Hargobind Khorana got his Nobel prize for
(A) Interpretation of genetic code (B) DNA duplex
(C) DNA replication (D) Translation in genes
22. Streptomyces species is a
(A) fungi (B) gram negative bacteria
(C) genus from Actinobacteria (D) mould
23. Carl Woese is best remembered for his contributions to
(A) tree of life (B) understanding of prokaryotes
(C) understanding of eukaryotes (D) understanding bacterial cell division
24. Deybe Huckel theory takes into account the
(A) mass of solutes (B) activity coefficient of solutes
(C) volume of solutes (D) solvent nature
25. In DNA damage the suicide enzymes repair
(A) cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers (B) DNA alkylation
(C) abasic DNA (D) DNA lesions
26. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is observed with
(A) Gram positive staining (B) Gram negative staining
 (C) Ziehle-Neelson staining (D) Tryphan blue staining
27. The peptidyl transferase centre in ribosomes is found in the
(A) small subunit (B) large subunit
(C) interface of two subunits (D) at the m-RNA
28. Adalimumab is a
(A) gene therapy (B) ribozyme
(C) monoclonal antibody active against TNF (D) prodrug
29. Fas-Fas ligand mediated apoptosis in cells belongs to the
(A) extrinsic pathway (B) Intrinsic pathway
(C) necrotic pathway (D) mitochondrial pathway
30. Lysozyme an important enzyme in body fluids belongs to the class
(A) oxidoreductase (B) hydrolase
(C) transferase (D) isomerase
31. Hanes-Woolf plot in enzymology is a plot between
(A) substrate concentration and reaction velocity
(B) reaction velocity and Michaelis Menten constant
(C) ratio of initial substrate concentration and reaction velocity against [S]
(D) ratio of initial substrate concentration and reaction velocity against Vmax
32. Isozymes have
(A) similar function but different structures (B) different function but similar structure
(C) are metallozymes (D) a redox centre
33. Kcat in enzyme kinetics calculates
(A) [S] (substrate concentration) (B) the enzyme turnover number
(C) Km (Micaelis menten constant) (D) Km and T (reaction time)
34. Site directed mutagenesis in protein engineering can be best achieved through
(A) PCR of existing clone in a vector using designed primers
(B) by using transposons
(C) by mutations
(D) by biochemical methods

35. In action potential pulse along muscle or nerve cells the sequence of events is
(A) refractory period, depolarization, repolarization
(B) repolarization, depolarization, refractory period
(C) refractory period, repolarization, depolarization
(D) depolarization, repolarization, refractory period
36. Sigma factors in E. coli transcription are specifically important because they
(A) are involved in m-RNA synthesis (B) are important in promoter recognition
(C) speed up transcription rate (D) help in RNA recognition
37. Cryptochromes in plants are
(A) blue light receptors (B) green light receptors
(C) phytohormones (D) secondary metabolites
38. Nicotine is a
(A) true alkaloid (B) pseudo alkaloid
(C) protoalkaloid (D) terpene
39. Holandric genes are
(A) passed by mother to son (B) passed by mother to daughter
(C) passed equally to daughters and sons (D) passed by father to son only
40. The relative centrifugal force (RCF) in a centrifuge is calculated by considering
(A) radius of rotor only (B) revolutions per minute only
(C) Both radius and revolutions per minute (D) speed of centrifuge
41. One angstrom is equal to how many nanometers
(A) 0.1 (B) 1 (C) 10 (D) .01
42. In chromatography the resolving power increases as the
(A) number of theoretical plates increases (B) retention time decreases
(C) peak height increases (D) as particle size increases
43. In SDS PAGE the stacking gel has
(A) low pH and high resistance to flow (B) high pH and low resistance to flow
(C) low pH and low resistance to flow (D) high resolving power
44. The temperature of 273 Kelvin is equivalent to
(A) 100 Fahrenheit (B) 31.73 Fahrenheit
(C) 50 Fahrenheit (D) -180 Celsius
45. Protoplast fusion is an important technique for
(A) plant growth regulation
(B) understanding impact of soil on plant growth
(C) somatic hybridization
(D) plant sterility
46. Pseudomonas spp are useful too because of their role in
(A) detergents (B) enzymology
(C) food technology (D) bioremediation
47. Insulin is biologically active when it is a
(A) hexamer (B) monomer
(C) dimer (D) tetramer
48. RTS/S vaccine is approved for use against
(A) measles (B) tuberculosis
(C) chikunguniya (D) malaria
49. Freund’s incomplete adjuvant is composed of
(A) alum
(B) antigen in water, miner oil emulsion
(C) antigen in water, miner oil emulsion and active Mycobacterium
(D) antigen in water, miner oil emulsion and inactive Mycobacterium
50. Kohler and Milstein are best remembered for their work on
(A) T cells (B) regulatory cells
(C) erythrocytes (D) hybridoma technology
51. Granzymes in immunology are
(A) cysteine proteases (B) serine proteases
(C) secondary metabolites (D) secretory cells
52. GMO Roundup ready soyabean are
(A) glyphosate resistant plants (B) insect resistant plants
(C) cold resistant plants (D) plants with high sugar content
53. Toll like receptors on macrophages are activated by
(A) T cells (B) B cells
(C) Helper cells (D) pathogen associated molecular patterns
54. The phenotypic ratio of RrYyCc x RrYyCc cross in mendelian inheritance is
(A) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:3 (B) 27:9:9:9:1:1:1:1
(C) 9:3:3:3:3:3:3:3 (D) 27:9:9:9:3:3:3:1
55. What is the percent of carrier population If a frequency of an allele is 0.01?
(A) 2% (B) 1% (C) 5% (D) 4%
56. Polytene chromosomes are
(A) mutated genetic material
(B) mitochondrial genome
(C) extranuclear genetic material
(D) large chromosomes with many DNA strands
57. Down syndrome is caused
(A) DNA mutation in chromosome 10 (B) by trisomy 21
(C) DNA deletion (D) DNA excision
58. Insulin glargine is a long acting insulin mainly because of
(A) it being a nano formulation (B) Zinc sequestration
(C) molecular shape distribution (D) micro precipitation on injection
59. Codon degeneracy leads to
(A) genome stability (B) t-RNA instability
(C) codon bias (D) genome instability
60. In gene mapping a distance of one centimorgan between two genes denotes
(A) a distance of one micrometer between the two genes
(B) a distance of one nanometer between the two genes
(C) recombination frequency of 1% between them during crossing over
(D) the two genes are on same chromosome and next to each other
61. In semi conservative DNA replication
(A) parent strands remain intact
(B) parent strands are destroyed
(C) parent strands form duplex stands with daughter strands
(D) DNA is retained
62. Anergy in immunobiology is important for
(A) gene silencing (B) active immune response
(C) tolerance against self proteins (D) gene expression
63. Louis Pasteur is credited for the development of
 (A) Small pox vaccine (B) Snake anti venom
(C) Anthrax vaccine (D) Vaccine against typhoid
64. The intrinsic transcription termination utilizes
(A) Rho proteins
(B) GC rich m RNA having a stem loop structure
(C) Termination enzymes
(D) RNA polymerase deactivators
65. Cystic fibrosis is an
(A) autosomal recessive disorder (B) autosomal dominant disorder
(C) sex linked recessive disorder (D) sex linked dominant disorder
66. Dolly the sheep was cloned at
(A) Harvard university (B) Cornell university
(C) Roslin institute (D) Sanger institute
67. The forward primer for the sequence 5’atgcgttaattccgct3’ in double stranded DNA is
(A) 5’ tacgaa3’ (B) 3’ tacgaa5’ (C) 3’atgcggg5’ (D) 5’atgcgtt3’
68. Venkatraman Ramakrishna got the nobel prize for
(A) solving the crystal structure of 30S subunit of ribsomes
(B) solving the structure of chromatin
(C) solving the structure of antibiotics
(D) understanding chromosomal aberrations
69. The termination codons are able to stop translation because
(A) they interact with RNA (B) they interact with elongation factors
(C) they are recognized by release factors (D) the ribosome is inactivated by them
70. Transfer messenger RNA (tm RNA) is important in prokaryotic translation because
(A) it has proof reading activity (B) in initiates translation
(C) it rescues stalled protein biosynthesis (D) it speeds up translation
71. Palatase is a
(A) lipase enzyme (B) protease enzyme
(C) peptidase enzyme (D) glycosyl hydrolase
72. For 4 bases in a sequence of 100 nucleotides the number of possible sequences is
(A) 4100 (B) 1004 (C) 400 (D) 4
73. Human genome sequencing could be completed rapidly because of
(A) sanger sequencing (B) cloning vectors
(C) shot gun technique (D) restriction enzymes
74. The specific information repository for solved 3-D protein structures is
(A) protein data bank (B) NCBI
(C) EBI (D) KEGG
75. The WHO listed official name for currently infectious coronavius is
(A) SARS-CoV-2 (B) Covid-19
(C) SARS-COVID-19 (D) SARS-19
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK
 MSc(HS/2Yr)(Botany)
1. Virus envelope is known as
(A) Capsid (B) Virion (C) Core (D) Nucleoprotein
2. Which one of the following is wrongly matched?
(A) Spirogyra- Motile gametes (B) Sargassum- Chlorophyll
(C) Basidiomycetes- Puffballs (D) Nostoc- Water blooms
3. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopetris, and Ginkgo?
(A) Presence of archegonia (B) Well-developed vascular tissues
(C) Independent gametophyte (D) Independent sporophyte
4. Hardest wood in the world is obtained from
(A) Hardwickia binata (B) Tectona grandis
(C) Erythrina suberosa (D) Krugiodendron ferrum
5. The first natural cytokinin of plants is
(A) Zeatin (B) Kinetin (C) Ribosylzeatin (D) None of these
6. One scientist cultured Cladophora in suspension of Azotobactor and illuminated the
culture by splitting light through a prism. He observed that bacteria accumulated mainly
in the region of
(A) Violet and green light (B) Indigo and green light
(C) Orange and yellow light (D) Blue and red light
7. The correct sequence of organelle during photorespiration is
(A) Chloroplast-Golgi-mitochondria
(B) Chloroplast- rough endoplasmic reticulum- dictyosome
(C) Chloroplast-peroxisome- mitochondria
(D) Chloroplast-vacuole-peroxisome
8. Which of the following statement is not true?
(A) Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
(B) Homology indicates common ancestry
(C) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
(D) Analogous structures are result of convergent evolution
9. Which of the following ecological pyramids is generally inverted?
(A) Pyramid of energy (B) Pyramid of biomass in a forest
(C) Pyramid of biomass in sea (D) Pyramid of number in grassland
10. Cycocel is the inhibitor of
(A) Auxin translocation (B) Gibberellins biosynthesis
(C) Gibberellins translocation (D) Ethylene biosynthesis
11. The number of Barr bodies in a female cell is always
(A) One less than X chromosomes (B) Equal to X chromosomes
(C) One more than X chromosome (D) Two less than X chromosomes
12. A population of a species invades a new area. Which of the following conditions will
lead to adaptive radiation?
(A) Area with large number of habitats having very low food supply
(B) Area with a single type of vacant habitat
(C) Area with many type of vacant habitats
(D) Area with many habitates occupied by a large number of species
13. Which statement is wrong about Kreb cycle?
(A) There are three points in the cycle where NAD+ is reduced to NADH+H+
(B) There is one point in the cycle where FAD+ is reduced to FADH2
(C) During conversion of succinyl Co-A to succinic acid, a molecule of GTP is
synthesised
(D) The cycle starts with condensation of acetyl group (acetyl-Co-A) with pyruvic acid
to yield citric acid
14. Photorespiration is favoured by
(A) High O2 and low CO2 (B) Low light and high O2
(C) Low temperature and high O2 (D) Low O2 and high CO2
15. Which of the following plant has properties of a drug and narcotic?
(A) Digitalis purpurea (B) Claviceps purpurea
(C) Cinchona calisaya (D) Papaver somniferum
16. Coffee has been cultivated for
(A) At least 4000 years (B) At least 2000 years
(C) Less than 2000 years (D) Since the times of Columbus
17. In which one of these the elaters are present along with mature spores in the capsule.
(A) Riccia (B) Marchantia (C) Anthoceros (D) Sellaginella
18. Lichens are well known combination of an fungus and algae. Where fungus has
(A) A saprophytic relationship with algae (B) A symbiotic relationship with algae
(C) An epiphytic relationship with algae (D) A parasitic relationship with algae
19. Somatic hybridization leads to direct production of
(A) Haploids (B) Diploids (C) Aneuploids (D) Allopolyploids
20. Cytochrome is made up of
(A) Metalloflavo protein (B) Fe containing porphyrin pigment
(C) Glycoprotein (D) Lipid
21. A very efficient converter of solar energy with net productivity of 2-4 kg/m2 or more
is the crop of
(A) Wheat (B) Sugarcane (C) Rice (D) Bajra
22. Which of the following is not a feature of active transport of solutes in plants?
(A) Occurs against concentration gradient (B) Non-selective
(C) Occurs through membranes (D) Requires ATP
23. Digitalis purpurea is used in treatment of
(A) Nervous disorders (B) Circulatory disorders
(C) Digestive disorders (D) Bronchial disorders
24. Select one of the following pairs of important features distinguishing Gnetum from
cycas and Pinus and showing affinities with angiosperm.
(A) Perianth and two integuments
(B) Embryo development and apical meristem
(C) Absence of resin duct and leaf venation
(D) Presence of vessel elements and absence of archegonia
25. The antherozoids of Funaria are
(A) Aciliated (B) Biflagellated (C) Multicillliated (D) Monociliated
26. Which of these have antiseptic properties?
(A) Curcuma longa (B) Solanum tuberosum
(C) Capsicum annuum (D) Coriandrium sativum
27. The translocation of organic solutes in sieve tube members is supported by
(A) p-proteins (B) Mass flow involving a carrier and ATP
(C) Cytoplasmic streaming (D) Root pressure and transpiration pull
28. Respiratory quotient (RQ) of fatty acid is
(A) > 1 (B) <1 (C) 1 (D) 0
29. In the leaves of C4 plants malic acid formation during co2 fixation occurs in the cell of
(A) Mesophyll (B) Bundle sheath (C) Phloem (D) Parenchyma
30. Which of the following statement is wrong?
(A) Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageenanpp from brown algae
(B) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment
(C) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(D) Laminaria and sargassum are used as food
31. Oldest textile fibre known as Flax is obtained from plant known as
(A) Linum usitatissimum (B) Boehmeria nivea
(C) Corchorus capsularis (D) Musa textilis
32. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through calvin cycle requires
(A) 1ATP and 2NADPH2 (B) 2ATP and 2NADPH2
(C) 3ATP and 2NADPH2 (D) 2ATP and 1NADPH2

33. The term ecosystem was coined by

(A) A G Tansley (B) E Haeckel (C) E Warming (D) E P Odum
34. Phycoerythrin is a major pigment in
(A) Green algae (B) Red algae (C) Brown algae (D) Blue-green algae
35. The Latin name of Jute
 (A) Crotolaris juncea (B) Corchorus capsularis
(C) Cannabis sativa (D) Ceiba pentandra

36. Identify the pair of heterosporous pteridophytes among which the following
(A) Selaginella and Salvinia (B) Psilotum and Salvinia
(C) Equisetum and Salvinia (D) Lycopodium and Selaginella

37. If turgidity of a cell surrounded by water increase, the wall pressure will
(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Fluctuate (D) Remain unchanged
38. In glycolysis, during oxidation electrons are removed by
(A) ATP (B) Glyceraldehydes-3- phosphate
+
(C) NAD (D) Molecular oxygen
39. Which of the following is responsible for peat?
(A) Marchantia (B) Riccia (C) Funaria (D) Sphagnum
40. Chlorophyll- a molecule at its carbon atom 3 of the pyrrole ring-II has one of the
following
(A) Aldehyde group (B) Methyl group (C) Carboxyl group (D) Magnesium

41. Which of the following is not an anti-auxin

(A) TIBA (B) 4 Cholorophenoxy isobutyric acid
(C) Tryptamine (D) 2, 4-dicholoroanisole

42. In the prothallus of a vascular cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs mature at different
time. As a result
(A) There is high degree of sterility
(B) One can conclude that the plant is apomictic
(C) Self- fertilisation is prevented
(D) There is no change in success rate of fertilisation

43. CO2 joins the photosynthetic pathway in

(A) PS-1 (B) PS-II (C) Light reaction (D) Dark reaction
44. Gymnosperm are also called soft wood spermatophytes because they lack
(A) Cambium (B) Phloem fibres
(C) Thick- walled tracheids (D) Xylem vessels
45. In a moss the sporophyte
(A) Produces gametes that give rise to the gametophyte
(B) Arises from a spore produced from the gametophyte
(C) Manufactures food for itself as well as for the gametophyte
(D) Is partially parasitic on the gametophyte
46. The tropane alkaloids are obtained from member of family
(A) Convolvulaceae (B) Solanaceae (C) Apocynaceae (D) Cactaceae
47. Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity during aerobic respiration requires
(A) Ca (B) Fe (C) Co (D) Mg
48. Which of the following is an essential oil?
(A) Mustard oil (B) Sesame oil (C) Olive oil (D) Clove oil
49. Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is an advanced feature because it shows
(A) Physiologically differentiated sex organs
(B) Different size of motile sex organs
(C) Morphologically different sex organs
(D) Same size of motile sex organ
50. Puffs in polytene chromosome are the site of
(A) Protein synthesis (B) DNA synthesis
(C) RNA synthesis (D) All of these
51. If by radiation all nitrogenous enzyme are inactivated, then there will be no
(A) Fixation of nitrogen in legumes
(B) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
(C) Conversion from nitrate to nitrite in legumes
(D) Conversion from ammonium to nitrate in soil
52. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(A) Biomass decrease from first to fourth tropical level.
(B) Number of individuals decrease from first to fourth tropical level.
(C) Energy content gradually decreases from first to fourth tropical level.
(D) Energy content gradually increases from first to fourth tropical level.
53. The plant group that produces spores and embryo but lacks vascular tissues and seeds
are
(A) Pteridophyta (B) Rhodophyta (C) Bryophyta (D) Phaeophyta
54. Which of the following is a macronutrient?
(A) Mo (B) Mg (C) Mn (D) Zn
55. Myrobalanus are obtained from fruits of genus
(A) Terminalia (B) Cassia (C) Caesalpinia (D) Quercus

56. Which of the following is essential for the conversion of pyruvic acid into acetyl Co-
A?
(A) Lipoic acid (B) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(C) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (D) All of these
57. Which one of the following is not an application of in- vitro haploid plant production?
(A) Mutation research (B) Gametoclonal variation
(C) Hybrid sorting (D) Single cell proteins
58. CAM plants help in
 (A) Water conservation (B) Secondary growth
(C) Disease resistance (D) Reproduction
59. Select the correct statement.
(A) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are gymnosperms
(B) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
(C) The leaves of gymnosperms are not well adapted to extremes of climate
(D) Gymnosperm is both homosporous and heterosporous
60. Ferula asafoetida a common resin used in medicines and perfumery is
(A) Gum resin (B) Oleoresin (C) Hard resin (D) Copal
61. Terminal cytochrrome of respiratory chain which dontes electrons to oxygen is
(A) cyt-b (B) cyt-c (C) cyt- a1 (D) cyt-a3
62. Which one of following has maximum genetic biodiversity in India?
(A) Rice (B) Maize (C) Mango (D) Banana
63. The variations among the plants with gametic chromosome number is popularly
described as
(A) Somaclonal variations (B) Gametoclonal variations
(C) Inter specific variations (D) Intra specific variations
64. Cannabis sativum yields
(A) Charas (B) Opium (C) Cociane (D) Brown sugar
65. Root pressure develops due to
(A) Active absorption (B) Low osmotic potential in soil
(C) Passive absorption (D) Increase in transpiration
66. Which of the following plant is the source of Gum Arabic is
(A) Acacia auriculiformis (B) Acacia senegal
(C) Acacia fistula (D) Acacia nilotica
67. Replacement of purine by a pyrimidine during DNA replication is called as
(A) Transition (B) Transversion (C) Translocation (D) Translation

68. Which of the following statement is incorrect about gymnosperm?

(A) They are heterosporous
(B) Male and female gametophytes are free-living
(C) Most of them have narrow leaves with thick cuticle
(D) Their seeds are not covered
69. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration?
(A) It is a characteristic of C3 plants (B) It is occurs in chloroplast
(C) It occur in day time only (D) It is a characteristic of c4- plants
70. Which of the following is a living fossil?
(A) Pinus longifolia (B) Dalbergia sisso
 (C) Mirabilis jalapa (D) Ginkgo biloba
71. The Indian rhinoceros is a natural inhabitant of which one of the Indian states?
(A) Uttrakhand (B) Utter Pradesh (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Assam
72. In angiosperm, functional megaspore develops into
(A) Embryo sac (B) Ovule (C) Endosperm (D) Pollen sac
73. Gynobasic styles are characteristic feature of the family?
(A) Malvaceae (B) Solanceae (C) Asclepiadaceae (D) Lamiaceae
74. Male gametophyte with least number of cells is present in
(A) Pteris (B) Funaria (C) Lilium (D) Pinus
75. Which of these active principal is pyschoactive in nature
(A) Quinine (B) Morphine (C) Ephedrine (D) Digitoxin
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK
 MSc(HS/2Yr)(Chemistry)
1. Naturally occurring organometallic compound is:
(A) Chlorophyll (B) Hemoglobin
(C) Vitamin B12 enzyme (D) Myoglobin

2. Which of the following metals are involved in the nitrogenase enzyme?

(A) Mo and Fe (B) Fe and Mg
(C) Zn and Mo (D) Fe and K

3. In the electrolytic refining for Aluminium extraction the electrolyte used is:
(A) Fluorides of Al, Na (B) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution
(C) An aqueous solution of Al2(SO4)3 (D) Molten Al2O3

4. Which among the following is most reactive?

(A) Cl2 (B) Br2 (C) I2 (D) ICl
5. Phenolphthalein does not act as an indicator for the titration between:
(A) KOH and H2SO4 (B) NaOH and CH3COOH
(C) Oxalic acid and KMnO4 (D) Ba(OH)2 and HCl

6. The type of isomerism shown by [Co(en)2(NCS)2]Cl and [Co(en)2(NCS)CI]NCS

is:
(A) Coordination (B) Ionization
(C) Linkage (D) Hydration

7. HOMO in CO is:
(A) π bonding (B) π anti-bonding
(C) σ bonding (D) σ anti-bonding
8. Ziegler Natta catalyst is an organometallic compound containing
(A) Iron (B) Titanium (C) Rhodium (D) Zinc
9. In the calcium fluoride structure, the coordination number of the cations and the
anions are respectively:
(A) 6 and 6 (B) 8 and 4 (C) 4 and 4 (D) 4 and 8
10. Which answer is correct for CO2 and SO2 both?
(A) K2Cr2O7 paper green (B) Blue litmus paper red
(C) Lime water milky (D) No effect on lime water
11. Which of the following explains the sequence of filling the electrons in different
shells?
(A) Hund’s rule (B) Octert rule
(C) Aufbau’s principle (D) Stark effect
12. Nesseler’s reagent is:
(A) K2HgI4 (B) K2HgI4 + KOH (C) K2HgI2 + KOH (D) K2HgI4 + Hg
13. The order of acidity in boron trihalides is
(A) BF3.> BI3>BBr3 (B) BI3> BBr3>BF3
(C) BF3>BBr3> BI3 (D) BBr3>BF3>BI3
14. The reaction between SbF5 and two equivalent of HF leads to formation of:
(A) H2SbF3 + 2F2 (B) HSbF2 + 3F2
(C) SbF3 + H2 + 2F2 (D) [SbF6]-[H2F]+
15. Which element is produced by -decay of neptunium-239?
(A) Th (B) Cm (C) No (D) Pu
16. The behaviour of the urea in water, liquid NH3 and anhydrous H2SO4 respectively
is:-
(A) Acid, base, non-electrolyte (B) Non electrolyte, acid, base
(C) Non electrolyte, base, acid (D) Base, acid, non-electrolyte
17. The separation of lanthanides in ion exchange method is based on:
(A) Basicity of lanthanides (B) Oxidation state of the ion
(C) Solubility of their nitrates (D) Size of the ions
18. Which of the following is an acidic oxide?
(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO3 (C) CrO2 (D) Cr2O
19. Which of the following does not form clathrates?
(A) Helium (B) Argon (C) Krypton (D) Xenon
20. Which of the following belongs to C3v point group?
(A) SO3 (B) BBr3 (C) NH3 (D) AlCl3
21. The effective nuclear charge for a 3d electron in Sc is:
(A) 2.3 (B) 3.9 (C) 3.0 (D) 1.0
22. Which of the following have two bridging CO groups?
(A) Co2(CO)8 (B) Os2(CO)9
(C) Fe2(CO)9 (D) Mn2(CO)10
23. The nature of H+ ion is:
(A) Hard acid (B) Soft acid (C) Hard base (D) Border line acid
24. During the change of NO+ to NO, the electron is added in a:
(A)  Orbital (B)  Orbital (C) * Orbital (D) * Orbital
25. The compound which exhibits Jahn-Teller distortion is:
(A) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Mn(H2O)6]3+
(C) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (D) [Fe(CN)6]
26. Singlet and triplet carbenes can be distinguished by reaction with:

(A) 1-Butyne (B) 2-Butyne (C) cis-2-Butene (D) n-Butane

27. Photochemical chlorination of 2-methyl butane results in formation of:
(A) (+) - 2-Chloro-2-methyl butane (B) (-) - 2-Chloro-2-methyl butane
(C) racemic- 2-Chloro-2-methyl butane (D) meso- 2-Chloro-2-methyl butane
28. Assign R / S configuration at C-2 and C-3 in the following compound:
 (A) 2S , 3 R (B) 2S , 3 S (C) 2R , 3 R (D) 2R , 3 S
29. The major product in acid catalyzed dehydration of 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol is:
(A) 2,3- Dimethyl-1-butene (B) 2,3- Dimethyl-2-butene
(C) 2,2- Dimethyl-1-butene (D) 3,3- Dimethyl-3-butene
30. Hydration of 1- methylcyclopentene via oxymercuration- demercuration results in
formation of
(A) 2 – Methylcyclopentane -1 - ol (B) Cyclohexanol
(C) Cyclohexanone (D) 1 – Methylcyclopentane -1 -ol
31. Hydroboration oxidation of 1- butyne results in formation of:
(A) Enantiomer (B) 2-Butanone (C) n-Butanal (D) n- Butanol
32. Reaction of benzene with iso- butene in presence of conc. H3PO4 to give:
(A) n– Butyl benzene (B) sec- Butyl benzene
(C) tert.-Butyl benzene (D) iso-Butyl benzene
33. In nitration of benzene with a mixture of Conc. HNO3 and Conc. H2SO4 , HNO3
act as:
(A) Acid (B) Oxidizing agent
(C) Base (D) Reducing agent
34. Which of following compound is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution
through SN2 type of mechanism?
Cl
(A) CH3CH2Cl (B)

Cl
(C) CH3 (D) (CH3)3CCH2Cl
35. Photochemical chlorination of n-propyl benzene results in formation of:

36. Which is the best reagent for synthesis of acid chloride from carboxylic acid?
(A) SOCl2 (B) PCl3 (C) PCl5 (D) POCl3
37. Which bromoacid is required for synthesis of alanine via Gabriel-phthalimide
reaction?
(A) 2-Bromopropionic acid (B) 3-Bromopropionic acid
(C) Bromo acetic acid (D) 3-Bromobutyric acid
38. Pyridine is less basic than triethylamine because:
(A) Pyridine is aromatic
(B) lone pair is in SP2 hybridized orbital
(C) lone pair is in SP3 hybridized orbital
(D) Nitrogen is in ring system
39. Reaction of glycerol with oxalic acid at 260°C results in formation of :
(A) Formic acid (B) Glycerol oxylate
(C) Allyl alcohol (D) Acrolein
40. The product X in the following reaction is:

(A) Salicylic acid (B) o-Hydroxy acetophenone

(C) Acetyl salicylic acid (D) p-Hydroxy acetophenone
41. The best reagent for the reduction of acid chlorides to aldehydes is:
(A) LiAlH4 (B) B2H6 (C) NaBH4 (D) [(CH)3CO]3AlHLi
42. Baeyer-Villiger oxidation of acetophenone results in formation of:
(A) Phenyl acetate (B) Methyl benzoate
(C) 2-Methyl benzaldehyde (D) 2-Hydroxy acetophenone
43. The increasing order of reactivity (least reactive first) of following carboxylic acid
derivatives towards acyl nucleophilic substitution is:
I. RCOCl II. (RCO)2O III. RCOOR IV. RCONH2
(A) I.< III.< II.< IV. (B) IV.< II.< III.< I.
(C) IV.< III.< II.< I. (D) IV.< I.< II.< III.
44. In UV spectroscopy decrease in absorption intensity is known as:
(A) Bathochromic shift (B) Hypsochromic shift
(C) Hyperchromic shift (D) Hypochromic shift
45. In NMR spectroscopy aromatic protons are deshielded due to:
(A) Inductive effect (B) Anisotropic effect
(C) Hydrogen bonding (D) Vander Waals effect
46. Why acid halides exhibits C=O absorption at higher wave number (1800 cm-1) as
compared to aliphatic ketones (1720cm-1)?
(A) Increase in bond order (B) Mesomeric effect
(C) Inductive effect (D) Hyperconjugation
47. α-D(+)-Glucopyranose is differ from β-D(+)-Glucopyranose due to:
 (A) Different configuration at C-1 (B) Ring size
(C) Different configuration at C-3 (D) Different configuration at C-4
48. Which reagent is used for the N-terminal amino acid determination in proteins?
(A) 2, 4- Dinitro phenylhydrazine (B) Phenylisothiocynate
(C) Hydrazine (D) Lithium aluminum hydride
49. Base catalyzed condensation of two molecules of esters is known as:
(A) Aldol condensation (B) Claisen condensation
(C) Knoevenagel condensation (D) Perkin condensation
50. Reaction of CH3MgBr (2eq.) with ethyl formate and subsequent hydrolysis results
in formation of:
(A) 2- Propanol (B) 1- Propanol
(C) 2- Propanone (D) Methyl formate

51. For the function f(x,y) that satisfies the reciprocity relation = , which of
the following is true.
(A) f (x,y) is not differentiable (B) f (x,y) is a constant function
(C) f (x,y) is an odd function (D) f (x,y) is an Harmonic function
52. The inversion temperature is the temperature at which:
(A) The Joule-Thomson coefficient of a gas becomes zero.
(B) The specific heat capacity of a gas changes.
(C) A gas changes from being cooling upon expansion to heating upon expansion.
(D) A gas changes from being ideal to non-ideal.

53. A reaction is found to have a half-life period of 10 minutes when the initial
concentration of the reactant is 0.1 M. What is the half-life period if the initial
(A) 20 minutes (B) 5 minutes (C) 40 minutes (D) 2.5 minutes
54. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for an adiabatic reversible process?
(A) No heat exchange with the surroundings
(B) Slow and continuous changes
(C) Absence of friction and other dissipative effects
(D) Constant pressure throughout the process

55. The slope of the plot of ΔH versus temperature (T) is given by

(A) ΔCp (B) ΔCv (C) ΔH (D) ΔS
56. Which of the following best describes the molecular arrangement in a nematic
liquid crystal phase?
(A) Random orientation with no long-range order
(B) Random orientation with short-range order
(C) Parallel alignment of molecules with long-range order
(D) Helical alignment of molecules

57. Which type of colloid is used to enhance the solubility of poorly soluble drugs?
(A) Micelles (B) Hydrogels (C) Aerosols (D) Suspensions
58. Which of the following will cause the greatest depression in freezing point of a
solution?
(A) 1 mole of glucose (B) 1 mole of sodium chloride
(C) 1 mole of calcium chloride (D) 1 mole of urea
59. The thermodynamic derivation of the law of mass action is based on:
(A) First law of thermodynamics (B) Second law of thermodynamics
(C) Third law of thermodynamics (D) Combined gas law
60. In the Carnot cycle, the heat absorbed during the isothermal expansion is:
(A) Zero
(B) Maximum
(C) Minimum
(D) Equal to the heat rejected during the isothermal compression
61. The Helmholtz free energy (A) is a measure of:
(A) Energy available to do work at constant volume and temperature
(B) Energy available to do work at constant pressure and temperature
(C) Energy available to do work at constant volume and entropy
(D) Energy available to do work at constant pressure and entropy
62. The eutectic point on a phase diagram represents:
(A) The maximum solubility of solute in the solvent
(B) The minimum melting point of the alloy
(C) The lowest temperature at which the liquid phase exists
(D) The composition at which the alloy melts at the lowest temperature

63. For the electronic transition [Co(NH3)6]3+ →[Co(NH3)6]2+ which of the following
statements is true?
(A) It is an allowed transition
(B) It is a forbidden transition
(C) It involves a change in spin multiplicity
(D) It violates the Laporte selection rule

64. Which of the following is a limitation of Raman spectroscopy compared to Infrared

(IR) spectroscopy?
(A) Raman is sensitive to polar bonds
(B) Raman can be used in aqueous solutions
(C) Raman provides information on the electronic structure
(D) Raman requires vacuum conditions

65. Which of the following molecules is expected to show strong rotational transitions
in the microwave region?
(A) O2 (B) CO2 (C) H2 (D) HBr
66. Which of the following molecules is an example of a non-rigid rotor?
(A) O2 (B) CO2 (C) H2 (D) CH2Cl2
67. Which of the following statements is true regarding the Born-Oppenheimer
potential energy surface?
(A) It represents the kinetic energy of electrons
(B) It represents the total energy of the molecule
(C) It represents the potential energy of the nuclei as a function of nuclear positions
(D) It represents the potential energy of the electrons
68. Which of the following is a physical interpretation of the normalization condition
for a wave function?
(A) Total energy of the system
(B) Total momentum of the system
(C) Total probability of finding the particle
(D) Total kinetic energy of the particle
69. Which metal is most likely to displace hydrogen gas from an acid based on the
electrochemical series?
(A) Ag (B) Cu (C) Zn (D) Pt
70. The Law of Rationality of Indices is particularly useful in:
(A) Organic chemistry (B) Electrochemistry
(C) Physical chemistry (D) Stoichiometry
71. Which type of photochemical reaction is likely to have a quantum yield greater than
1?
(A) Unimolecular reaction (B) Bimolecular reaction
(C) Chain reaction (D) Enzymatic reactions
72. What factor affects the spacing between atomic planes in a crystal according to
Bragg's Law?
(A) The type of atoms in the crystal (B) The temperature of the crystal
(C) The lattice constant of the crystal (D) The number of electrons in the crystal
73. Specific conductance is directly proportional to:
(A) Temperature (B) Concentration (C) Volume (D) Pressure
74. In the context of the Nernst distribution law, what does the partition coefficient (K)
represent?
(A) The solubility of the solute in each solvent
(B) The ratio of concentrations of the solute in the two solvents
(C) The molar mass of the solute
(D) None of these
75. Which of the following processes on the Jablonski diagram involves a change in
electron spin and can lead to phosphorescence?
(A) Internal conversion (B) Intersystem crossing
(C) Fluorescence (D) Absorption
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK
 MSc(HS/2Yr)(Zoology)
1. The arrangement of three minute bony (ear) ossicles across the cavity from tympanic
membrane to oval window is:
(A) Stapes, incus, malleus (B) Incus, malleus, stapes
(C) Malleus, stapes, incus (D) Malleus, incus, stapes
2. Taste buds (or taste receptors) are
(A) Surface epithelial cells (B) Specialised nerve endings
(C) Telereceptors (D) Modified epithelial cells
3. Broca’s area of speech lies at
(A) Superior frontal gyrus (B) Inferior frontal gyrus
(C) Posterior frontal gyrus (D) Superior temporal gyrus
4. In Pavlov’s classical dog experiment: is not a correct statement
(A) Introduction of food into dog’s mouth: unconditioned stimulation
(B) Reflex salivation: unconditioned reflex
(C) Ringing of bell alone: conditioned stimulus
(D) Flow of saliva in response to ringing
5. Maximum production of HCG occurs during
(A) Ist trimester (B) 2nd trimester
rd
(C) 3 trimester (D) First stage of implantation
6. Which kind of cleavage is shown in mammals?
(A) Holoblastic rotational (B) Meroblastic rotational
(C) Holoblastic radial (D) Meroblastic radial
7. Adrenarche is
(A) Onset of menses
(B) Cessation of menses
(C) Onset of increase in adrenal androgen secretion
(D) Increased secretion of adrenal androgen stimulating hormone
8. Which cells in islets of pancreas secrete Somatostatin?
(A) Delta cells (B) PP cells (C) Alpha cells (D) Beta cells
9. Which suture separates the parietal and temporal bones of the skull from the occipital
bone?
(A) Squamosal suture (B) Saggital suture
(C) Coronal suture (D) Lambdoidal suture
10. The largest sesamoid bone in human body is known as
(A) Pisiform bone (B) Hyoid (C) Palatine (D) Patella
11. Which of the following hormone is derived from tyrosine and tryptophan?
(A) Epinephrine (B) Insulin (C) Cortisol (D) Glucagon
12. Which type of uterus is found in whales?
(A) Duplex uterus (B) Bipartite uterus (C) Bicornuate uterus (D) Simplex uterus
13. Antibody titre refers to the:
 (A) Absolute amount of specific antibody
(B) Affinity of specific antibody
(C) Avidity of specific antibody
(D) Highest dilution of antibody still able to give a positive result in a test system
14. Which of the following is the correct classification of Balanoglossus?
(A) Chordata; Hemichordata; Enteropneusta
(B) Chordata; Vertebrata; Enteropneusta
(C) Chordata; Hemichordata; Pterobranchia
(D) Chordata; Cephalochordata; Enteropneusta
15. Scientific name of grass carp
(A) Ctenopharyngodon idella (B) Labeo rohita
(C) Hypophthalmichthys molitrix (D) Labeo bata
16. In which organ the biotransformation of arachidonates occur the fastest?
(A) Skin (B) Liver (C) Lungs (D) Heart
17. Which of the following eicosanoids is a potent inhibitor of platelet aggregation?
(A) PGE2 (B) PGI2 (C) PGF2α (D) TXA2
18. The prostaglandins, prostacyclin, and thromboxanes are synthesized by the cyclic
pathway involving the
(A) Cyclooxygenase (B) Lipo-oxygenase (C) Phospholipase (D) Aldolase
19. When two or more harmful species mutually advertise themselves as harmful
(A) Warning mimicry (B) Mullerian mimicry
(C) Batesian mimicry (D) Automimicry
20. Limbless lizard is
(A) Iguana (B) Phrynosoma (C) Heloderma (D) Ophisaurus
21. Which of the following group represents the flightless birds?
(A) Struthioniformes (B) Passeriformesc (C) Strigiformes (D) Archaeornithes
22. What is the primary mechanism underlying cellular differentiation?
(A) Cell division (B) Gene expression (C) Morphogenesis (D) DNA replication
23. Volkmann's canal connects
(A) Osteocyte with matrix (B) Different bone
(C) Haversian canal with matrix (D) One Haversian canal with the another
24. The human vertebral column consists of thoracic vertebrae
(A) 12 (B) 14 (C) 16 (D) 10
25. Neurohormone that originate from neurons in the brain and diffuse through the
bloodstream
(A) ADH (B) GH (C) LH (D) GRH
26. The PR interval in E.C.G. is measured by finding the interval between the
(A) Beginning of the P wave and beginning of the R wave
(B) Beginning of the P wave and beginning of the QRS complex
 (C) End of the P wave and beginning of the QRS complex
(D) End of the P wave and end of the QRS complex
27. Name an autosomal dominant disorder of multisystem hamartomatosis characterized
by classic triad of seizures, mental retardation and adenoma sebaceum
(A) Epiloia (B) Huntington’s disease
(C) Albinism (D) Sickle cell anemia
28. Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease caused by mutations in a gene called
(A) Transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)
(B) Fibrillin-1(FBN1)
(C) Beta-globin (HBB)
(D) BRCA1 (Breast Cancer gene 1)
29. Name the square diagram that is used to predict the genotypes of a particular cross or
breeding experiment
(A) Bateson Square (B) Mendel Square (C) Punnett Square (D) Mendel’s Square
30. Chromosomes can be stained with
(A) Feulgen stain (B) Acetocarmine stain
(C) Aniline blue (D) Safranin stain
31. Which codon codes for valine but also for formylated-methionine as starting codon for
protein synthesis?
(A) UGA (B) UFU (C) GUG (D) AGU
32. In population genetics, the founder effect is type of
(A) Natural selection (B) Genetic Drift (C) Saltation (D) Selection
33. CBD stands for ________
(A) Conservation of Bio-diversity (B) Convention on Biological Diversity
(C) Conference on Bio-diversity (D) Colloquium on Bio-diversity
34. Which Ramsar site in Rajasthan is an Important Bird Area (IBA) bestowed in 2004 by
the Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) and Bird Life International, UK?
(A) Bhoj wetland (B) Sultanpur National Park
(C) Renuka Lake (D) Sambhar Lake
35. Normal secondary humoral responses predominantly produce
(A) IgG (B) IgM (C) IgA (D) IgD
36. What is tracer in radioimmunoassay?
(A) Radioactive antigen (B) Unlabeled antigen
(C) Radiolabeled antibodies (D) Monoclonal antibodies

37. Member of order Crocodilia having very long and slender snout is
(A) Alligator (B) Crocodylus (C) Gavialis (D) Caimen

38. Which cytokines are involved in Th1 response suitable for intracellular microbes?
(A) IFN-gamma, TNF-α, IL-2 (B) IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
(C) IL-17A, IL-17F, IL-22 (D) TGF-beta, IL-10
39. Autoimmune disease of neuromuscular junction
(A) Myasthenia gravis (B) Multiple sclerosis
(C) Goodpasture’s syndrome (D) Reiter's syndrome

40. Which pathogen and vector causes American trypanosomiasis

(A) Trypanosoma cruzi spread by triatomine bugs
(B) Trypanosoma brucei spread by tse tse fly
(C) T. evansi spread by hematophagous flies
(D) T. equiperdum spread by hematophagous flies

41. The Nobel Prize in Medicine 2016 was awarded to

(A) for discovery novel therapies against filariasis and malaria
(B) for discoveries of mechanisms for autophagy
(C) for work on circadian clocks
(D) for work on nucleoside base modification of mRNA

42. Egg capsule, often called a mermaid's purse is made by

(A) Butterfish (B) Chinese paradise fish
(C) Some sharks and skates (D) Gouramies
43. Name of the first transgenic fish FDA approved for commercial production, sale and
human
(A) GloFish (B) Japanese rice fish
(C) Aqua Advantage Salmon (D) Rainbow trout

44. Which of the following should not be used for vermicomposting?

(A) Fruits (B) Citric Fruits (C) Egg Shell (D) Grains
45. Complement fixation is activated by
(A) IgM Only
(B) IgG only
(C) both IgM and IgG
(D) all five classes of antibodies activate complements
46. In clotting mechanism via intrinsic and extrinsic pathway, the key reaction is
(A) Formation of thrombin (B) Formation of fibrin
(C) Formation of prothrombin activator (D) Activating factor X
47. Membrane curvature induced by proximity of which anionic phospholipids can initiate
endocytosis
(A) Phosphatidylserine (PS) (B) Phosphatidylinositol (PI)
(C) Phosphatidylcholine (PC) (D) Phosphatidylethanolamine (PE)

48. Glycophorin A and glycophorin B act as receptors on the surface of which protozoan
parasite
(A) Trypanosoma cruzi (B) Toxoplasma gondii
(C) Plasmodium falciparum (D) Leishmania donovani
49. Tautonym is an informal taxonomic designation used for animals referring to
(A) same name for genus and species(B) same name for species and subspecies
(C) trinomial nomenclature (D) the name of the author for the species

50. Individuals occupying a particular habitat and adapted to it phenotypically but not
genotypically are known as
(A) Ecophenes (B) Ecotypes (C) Ecospecies (D) Coenospecies

51. Type of molars and premolars characterized by low crowns, and crescent-shaped cusps
when viewed from above (crown view) are
(A) Selenodont (B) Lophodont (C) Bunodont (D) Pleurodont
52. The Indian Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in
(A) 1972 (B) 1971 (C) 2010 (D) 1982
53. During the conversion of glucose to pyruvate, two NADH molecules are generated.
Which of the following steps generates NADH?
(A) Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1-6-bisphosphate
(B) Conversion of glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate to 1-3-bisphosphoglycerate
(C) Conversion of 3-phosphoglycerate to 2-phosphoglycerate
(D) Conversion of phosphoenolpyruvate to pyruvate
54. Sarcomere refers to the portion of myofibril between
(A) A and H band (B) Z line and A band
(C) Two adjacent Z lines (D) A and I band
55. Rho factor is a bacterial helicase involved in:
(A) Termination of transcription (B) Initiation of transcription
(C) Initiation of DNA replication (D) Termination of translation
56. What is Haldane effect?
(A) Loading of CO2 to the blood causes unloading of O2
(B) Binding of CO2 to haemoglobin displaces O2
(C) Decrease in O2 affinity of haemoglobin when pH of blood falls
(D) Loading of O2 to blood causes unloading of CO2
57. The preoptic area/anterior hypothalamic (PO/AH) neurons are the centre for responses
to:
(A) Rising body temperature (B) Falling body temperature
(C) Increased heat production (D) Decreased heat loss
58. Which is the dense, bottom layer of water in a thermally-stratified lake?
(A) Epilimnion (B) Hypolimnion (C) Metalimnion (D) Thermocline
59. Chloragogen cells of earthworms are
(A) Present in coelomic fluid and are similar to liver in vertebrates
(B) Present in coelomic fluid and are similar to kidneys in vertebrates
(C) Present in epidermis and are similar to kidneys in vertebrates
(D) Present in intestinal lumen and are similar to liver in vertebrates
60. Which checkpoint ensures that all chromosomes are properly attached to the spindle
fibers before cell division proceeds?
(A) G1 checkpoint (B) S checkpoint (C) M checkpoint (D) G2 checkpoint
61. Which of the following is a major reason of Hemophilia A:
(A) X-linked recessive disorder (B) X-linked dominant disorder
(C) Y-linked recessive disorder (D) Autosomal defect
62. The morphology of tunicates and lancelets suggest that chordate pharyngeal slits
appear to have functioned first as
(A) suspension-feeding devices (B) components of the jaw
(C) gill slits for respiration (D) portions of the inner ear
63. Capping of m-RNA during eukaryotic m-RNA processing involves the addition of
which nucleotide at the 5’ end of the RNA?
(A) Methylated adenine (B) Methylated guanine
(C) Selenocysteine (D) Formlymethionine
64. Piping is a noise which is produced by
(A) Drones (B) Workers (C) Larvae (D) Virgin queen
65. In the cAMP pathway, the G protein stimulates
(A) phospholipase C (B) adenylyl cyclase
(C) the endoplasmic reticulum (D) calmodulin
66. Red hair is a recessive trait in humans. In a randomly mating population in Hardy-
Weinberg equilibrium, approximately 9% of individuals are red-haired. What is the
frequency of heterozygotes
(A) 81% (B) 49% (C) 42% (D) 18%
67. Which of the following is order of horse?
(A) Perissodactyla (B) Artiodactyla (C) Pholidota (D) Cingulata
68. Patau’s syndrome occurs due to
(A) trisomy of 13th chromosome (B) trisomy of 18th chromosome
(C) trisomy of 21st chromosome (D) trisomy of 22nd chromosome
69. Ductus caroticus is
(A) The part of lateral dorsal aorta between 3rd& 4thaortic arches
(B) The pulmocutaneous arch connection with lateral dorsal aortae
(C) The part of lateral dorsal aorta between 4th& 5th aortic arches
(D) The part of lateral dorsal aorta between 2nd& 3rd aortic arches
70. Tn10 is a __________transposon.
(A) Composite (B) Insertion sequence
(C) Non-composite (D) Retroposon
71. uvrABCD is an example of which of the following type of DNA repair mechanism:
(A) Mismatch repair (B) Nucleotide excision
(C) SOS repair (D) Photoreactivation
72. Which is the part of stomach in ruminants have gastric glands and is true stomach?
 (A) Rumen (B) Reticulum (C) Abomasum (D) Omasum
73. Tuatara belongs to which of the following orders:
(A) Rhynchocephalia (B) Squamata (C) Testudines (D) Crocodilia
74. Enzyme that plays a critical role in gluconeogenesis from pyruvate is
(A) Phosphofructokinase (B) Hexokinase
(C) Pyruvate kinase (D) Pyruvate carboxylase
75. Which desert is the largest dinosaur fossil reservoir in the world?
(A) Sahara Desert (B) Kalahari Desert
(C) Atacama Desert (D) Mongolian Gobi Desert
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK
 MSc(HS)(Geology)
1. Which of the following in NOT related to subduction?
(A) Trench (B) For-arc basin
(C) Extensional back-arc basin (D) Peripheral foreland basin
2. Which one of the following agents is responsible for the formation of Yardang?
(A) Wind (B) Glacier (C) River (D) Sea
3. Which one of the following is formed in glacial environment?
(A) Dreikanter (B) Drumlin (C) Dolin (D) Ventifact
4. Which one of the following is NOT a mass-wasting process?
(A) Avalanche (B) Sand storm (C) Landslide (D) Lahars
5. The formation of trench is associated with
(A) Convergent plate boundary (B) Divergent plate boundary
(C) Transform fault (D) Passive margin
6. Which one of the following is a high-pressure polymorph of silica?
(A) Tridymite (B) Cristobalite (C) Allanite (D) Stishovite
7. Which one of the following minerals shows the highest order of interference colours?
(A) Kyanite (B) Biotite (C) Andalusite (D) Calcite
8. Which one of the following minerals is a Cyclosilicate?
(A) Actinolite (B) Enstatite (C) Tourmaline (D) Microcline
9. The Si:O in case of Sorosilicate is:
(A) 2:5 (B) 2:7 (C) 2:1 (D) 2:3
10. Which one of the following minerals shows the highest birefringence?
(A) Andradite (B) Pyrope (C) Grossular (D) Pistacite
11. Which one of the following elements is impoverished in mantle?
(A) Mg (B) Ni (C) Fe (D) Th
12. Which one of the following is enriched in crust?
(A) Ti (B) Rb (C) Nb (D) Ni
13. Which one of the following has a high distribution coefficient for HREE?
(A) Garnet (B) Augite (C) Apatite (D) Allanite
14. Which of the following elements gets camouflaged in zircon?
(A) Ho (B) Y (C) Hf (D) Yb
15. Which one of the following radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?
(A) 149Sm (B) 145Sm (C) 146Sm (D) 147Sm
16. The Eu anomaly is an indication of
(A) Garnet in source residue (B) Plagioclase in source residue
(C) Titanite in source residue (D) Augite in source residue
17. The highly fractionated LREE pattern of a rock may indicate presence of
(A) Bronzite (B) Aegerine (C) Allanite (D) Augite
18. According to V rule the vertical beds
(A) Vee upstream (B) Vee downstream
(C) Do not vee (D) Do not have straight outcrop
19. An angle between any line and its horizontal projection measured in a vertical plane is
called
(A) Dip (B) Pitch (C) Rake (D) Plunge
20. Which folds are formed when layer parallel forces are applied?
(A) Parallel folds (B) Similar Folds
(C) Buckled folds (D) Isoclinal folds
21. The horizontal component of the dip separation measured in a vertical section that is
perpendicular to the strike of the fault is called
(A) Dip slip (B) Horizontal slip (C) Throw (D) Heave
22. Which one of the following rocks is most suitable to determine attitude of secondary
foliation?
(A) Arkose (B) Marble (C) Arenite (D) Phyllite
23. Which one of the following textures is characterised by large dendritic plates of olivine
and pyroxene?
(A) Rapakivi (B) Spherulitic (C) Symplectite (D) Spinifex
24. Which one of the following mineral pairs crystallize late during the cooling of mafic
melt?
(A) Forsterite and Fayalite (B) Quartz and Biotite
(C) Augite and Quartz (D) Biotite and Anorthite
25. An per the IUGS classification, an igneous rock comprising 45% olivine, 50%
orthopyroxene and 5% clinopyroxene is
(A) Troctolite (B) Lherzolite (C) Harzburgite (D) Wehrlite
26. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(A) Plagioclase is the common phenocrysts in MORB
(B) Olivine is the common phenocryst in OIT
(C) Plagioclase is the common phenocryst in OIA
(D) Plagioclase is the common phenocryst in CFB
27. High vesicular basalt is known as
(A) Pumice (B) Scoria
(C) Amygdaloidal basalt (D) Obsidian
28. Miarolitic cavities are common in
(A) Catazonal plutons (B) Mesozonal plutons
(C) Epizonal plutons (D) Diapir
29. The outer part of the metamorphic contact aureole is characterised by
(A) Hornstone (B) Hornfels (C) Granofels (D) Spotted schist
30. A metamorphic rock consisting of talc-kyanite is known as
(A) Whiteschist (B) Blueschist (C) Greenschist (D) Greenstone
31. Which one of the following textures is NOT typical for pre-kinematic crystals?
(A) Pressure shadow (B) Helicitic folds
(C) Microboudinage (D) Deformation twins
32. Metabasites in low-pressure granulites lack
(A) Orthopyroxene (B) Plagioclase (C) Garnet (D) Quartz
33. Bastite is formed when serpentine replaces
 (A) Acmite (B) Augite (C) Actinolite (D) Enstatite
34. Which is the correct sequence of appearance of minerals with increasing grade of
Barrovian-type metamorphism?
(A) Annite-Almandine-Staurolite-Fibrolite
(B) Annite-Almandine- Fibrolite-Staurolite
(C) Almandine -Annite-Staurolite-Fibrolite
(D) Annite-Almandine- Fibrolite-Staurolite
35. Which one of the following mineral assemblages is typical of contact metamorphism?
(A) Kyanite-Staurolite (B) Andalusite-Cordierite
(C) Cordierite-Staurolite (D) Andaluite-Kyanite
36. The beginning of prehnite-pumpellyite facies is marked by the disappearance of
(A) Lawsonite (B) Laumonite (C) Lepidolite (D) Lazurite
37. The sediment pattern during transgression is
(A) Retrogradational (B) Progradational
(C) Aggradational (D) None of these
38. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Fringing reefs create an extensive back reef lagoon area of shallow, low energy
sea
(B) Fringing reefs lack an extensive back reef lagoon area
(C) Barrier reefs lack an extensive back reef lagoon area
(D) Barrier reefs create an extensive back reef lagoon area of deep, high energy sea
39. Which of the following sedimentary features/structures is formed by diagensis?
(A) Stylolite (B) Coprolite (C) Cast (D) Mud cracks
40. Which one of the following is NOT formed in deep marine environment?
(A) Calcareous ooze (B) Radiolarian chert
(C) Olistoliths (D) Biostromes
41. Fine-grained siliciclastic rock that contains <33% clay-sized constituents is called
(A) Sandstone (B) Siltstone (C) Claystone (D) Mudstone
42. Sinistral coiling is shown by
(A) Conus (B) Murex (C) Cypraea (D) Physa

43. Pygidium feature corresponds to the taxa

(A) Trilobita (B) Anthozoa (C) Brachiopoda (D) Cephalopoda
44. Loxodonta is a
(A) Snake (B) Elephant (C) Horse (D) Giraffe
45. Exogyra belongs to the phylum
(A) Brachiopoda (B) Cephalopoda (C) Pelecepoda (D) Gastropoda
46. Textularia is found in
(A) Inner shelf (B) Outer shelf (C) Benthic zone (D) Abyssal zone
47. Which one of the following formations contains Glossopteris?
(A) Lameta (B) Bagh (C) Lathi (D) Raniganj
48. Which one of the following stratigraphic units forms part of the Khetri Copper Belt?
(A) Alwar Group (B) Kumbhalgarh Group
 (C) Gogunda Group (D) Raialo Group
49. The correct stratigraphic order of the Jurassic succession of Kachchh is
(A) Umia-Katrol- Patcham-Chari (B) Umia-Katrol-Chari-Patcham
(C) Patcham-Chari- Umia-Katrol (D) Patcham-Chari-Katrol-Umia
50. Tommotian marks the beginning of
(A) Early Devonian (B) Early Ordovician (C) Early Cambrian (D) Early Silurian
51. The rocks of Kopili Formation are exposed in _____________ basin.
(A) Cauvery (B) Assam (C) Bengal (D) Kachchh
52. Vampalle Formation belongs to
(A) Kaimur Group (B) Semri Group (C) Papaghani Group (D) Rewa Group
53. Bhukia is famous for ___________ ore.
(A) Gold (B) Copper (C) Lead (D) Uranium
54. The Mangampeta barite deposits are associated with
(A) Nallamalai Group (B) Cheyair Group
(C) Mansar Formation (D) Maton Formation
55. Which one of the following is chemogenic in origin?
(A) Rampur-Agucha Pb-Zn deposit (B) Banded iron formations
(C) Malanjkhand copper deposit (D) Sargipalli Pb deposit
56. Which one of the following minerals is used for the manufacture of Plaster of Paris?
(A) Feldspar (B) Gypsum (C) Talc (D) Serpentine
57. Which one of the following economic deposits occurs in Agnigundala?
(A) Uranium (B) Copper (C) Zinc (D) Aluminium
58. Which one of the following is not a Pb-bearing mineral?
(A) Anglesite (B) Cerrusite (C) Chalcocite (D) Galena
59. What oil shale contains ankerite as one of the principal non kerogen constituents?
(A) Cannel shale (B) Carbonate-rich oil shale
(C) Silica-rich oil shale (D) Sapropel
60. Which is the lowest rank coal?
(A) Peat (B) Lignite (C) Bituminous (D) Anthracite
61. Which one of the following ore deposits is commonly hosted by limestone and
dolomite?
(A) Zn-Pb (B) Ni (C) Cu (D) Rare earth elements
62. Which one of the following ore deposits commonly occur in ultramafic rocks?
(A) Manganese (B) Bauxite (C) Iron (D) Chromite
63. Which one of the following dams retards flow downstream and helps in flood control?
(A) Earthen dam (B) Coffer dam (C) Detention dam (D) Storage dam
64. Which one of the following folds can be used to deduce larger structures?
(A) Overturned fold (B) Drag fold (C) Chevron fold (D) Fan fold
65. The cause of acid mine drainage is
(A) Weathering of limestone and sandstone (B) Weathering of shale and sandstone
(C) Dissolution of sulfide minerals (D) Acidic rain water
66. The distance measured vertically from the pump centerline to the water level in storage
is called
(A) Static discharge head (B) Static suction head
(C) Dynamic head (D) None of these
67. Which one of the following natural inorganic constituents, when dissolved in ground
water at higher concentration (900 mg/L), has a laxative effect?
(A) Nitrate (B) Sulphate (C) Bicarbonate (D) Carbonate
68. Which of the following types lack centre of symmetry?
(A) Beryl type (B) Tourmaline type (C) Galena type (D) Pyrite type
69. The water entrapped within the interstices of sedimentary rocks is known as
(A) Capillary water (B) Connate water (C) Meteoric water (D) Juvenile water
70. Which one of the following contributes the most towards the Greenhouse effect on the
Earth?
(A) CO2 (B) CO (C) H2O (D) CH4
71. Which one of the following logs is used to determine the amount of free fluid in the
sediments?
(A) Nuclear magnetic resonance logs (B) Electro magnetic resonance logs
(C) Neutrons logs (D) Induction logs
72. Which of the following seismic body waves are released during an earthquake?
(A) P and S waves (B) P and Rayleigh waves
(C) S and Rayleigh waves (D) P, S and Rayleigh waves
73. Which one of the following is responsible for the deviation in the geographical locations
of the magnetic poles from the geomagnetic poles of the Earth's magnetic field?
(A) Ionospheric currents (B) Non-dipole component
(C) External magnetic field (D) None of the above
74. Electromagnetic method is best suited for exploring
(A) Peat (B) Oil
(C) Anthracite (D) Massive sulphide deposit
75. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) Spatial, Spectral, Visual and Temporal are the parameters that characterise a remote
sensor
(B) Spatial, Visual, Spectral, and Radiometric are the parameters that characterise a
remote sensor
(C) Spatial, Spectral, Temporal and Radiometric are the parameters that characterise a
remote sensor
(D) Spatial, Spectral, Absorption and Temporal are the parameters that characterise a
remote sensor
 Master in Geo-informatics
1. Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) headquarters is located at:
(A) Kisan Bhawan, Chandigarh (B) Antariksh Bhavan, Bangaluru
(C) CGO building, Kolkata (D) Mausam Bhavan, Lodhi Road, New Delhi

2. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) is situated at:

(A) Indore, Madhya Pradesh (B) Thumba, Kerala
(C) Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh (D) Jodhpur, Rajasthan
3. GPS-aided GEO augmented navigation (GAGAN) is a regional satellite-based
augmentation system developed by:
(A) India (B) China (C) South Korea (D) Vietnam
4. The term IRNSS refers to:
(A) Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
(B) International Rural Navigation and Satellite System
(C) Indian Rural Nodal Service System
(D) International Railway Navigation Service System
5. The wavelength of Visible part of the electromagnetic spectrum varies between:
(A) Below 0.2 micrometers (B) 0.4-0.7 micrometers
(C) 5-8 micrometers (D) Above 15 micrometers

6. Which of the following waves of electromagnetic spectrum has the longest wavelength?
(A) Gamma rays (B) Shortwave Infrared
(C) Thermal Infrared (D) Radio waves

7. The first space based Indian mission to study the Sun is known as:
(A) Aditya-L1 (B) Varun-C4 (C) Chandra-A2 (D) Aditya-D1

8. Which one of the following is not an Indian satellite system?

(A) IRS-P6 (B) IRS-ID (C) INSAT-IA (D) GEOEYE-1

9. Which of the following is a not a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS)?

(A) GPS (B) ASTER (C) Galileo (D) GLONASS

10. The GIS refers to:

(A) General Intelligent Survey (B) Global Internet System
(C) Geophysical Information Standard(D) Geographic information systems

11. The geophysical tool that uses radar pulses to scan and capture images of the subsurface
areas is commonly known as:
(A) Ground-penetrating radar (B) Ground-scanning system
(C) Geometric survey system (D) Geometric-planning radar
12. Which of the followings is representing three type of vector data?
(A) Point, Image and Polygon (B) Point, Line, and Image
(C) Point, Line, and Polygon (D) Line, Polygon and Image

13. The term ‘Metadata’ means”

(A) Meteorological Data (B) Data about Minerals
(C) Memory Data (D) Data about Data

14. The term ‘Geodatabase’ in GIS refers to:

(A) Spatial Database (B) Graphical Database
(C) Geometric Database (D) General Database

15. Which of the following is not a dedicated GIS software?

(A) ArcGIS (B) QGIS (C) MapInfo (D) Adobe Photoshop

16. Which of the following rivers of India flows westward to Arabian Sea?
(A) Krishna (B) Narmada (C) Mahanadi (D) Godavari

17. The smallest state of India in terms of total geographical area is:
(A) Meghalaya (B) Tripura (C) Himachal Pradesh (D) Goa

18. Which of the following is not a part of the Union Territory of Puducherry?
(A) Daman & Diu (B) Karaikal (C) Yanam (D) Mahe

19. Sawai Madhopur sanctuary is located in which India State:

(A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Jharkhand (C) Rajasthan (D) Gujarat

20. Sardar Sarovar Dam in Gujarat is situated on which river?

(A) Narmada River (B) Tapi River (C) Banas River (D) Luni River

21. The Deccan Plateau is primarily made up of extrusive igneous rock known as:
(A) Marble (B) Sandstone (C) Basalt (D) Limestone

22. The Nathu La Pass connects India with which neighbouring country?
(A) China’s Tibet Autonomous Region(B) Federal Democratic Republic of Nepal

(C) Bhutan (D) Myanmar

23. The deepest point in the Indian Ocean is located in:

(A) Mariana Trench (B) Java Trench
(C) Diamantina Trench (D) Sandwich Trench

24. Which of the following states shares its border with maximum number of Indian states?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Telangana
25. The Khasi, The Garo, and The Jaintia hills are located in:
(A) Sikkim (B) Tripura (C) Meghalaya (D) Arunachal Pradesh

26. The primary aim of ‘Make in India’ initiative of the Government of India is to promote:
(A) Tourism Sector (B) Education Sector
(C) Manufacturing Sector (D) Healthcare sector
27. The ‘cleanest city’ of India in 2024 as per the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
is:
(A) Indore, Madhya Pradesh (B) Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra
(C) Surat, Gujarat (D) Mysore, Karnataka

28. Mr. Rishi Sunak of the Conservative Party is the Prime Minister of:
(A) The United States of America (B) France
(C) Ireland (D) The United Kingdom

29. Which country hosted the G20 Summit in 2023?

(A) Italy (B) Argentina (C) India (D) Japan
30. Pangong Tso lake is the world’s highest saltwater lake situated in:
(A) Solukhumbu, Nepal (B) Thimpu, Bhutan
(C) Shan Hill, Myanmar (D) Ladakh, India

31. The famous sculpture garden known as ‘Rock Garden’ located in Chandigarh is named
after:
(A) Shri Nek Chand (B) Shri Udham Singh
(C) Shri Kirpal Chand (D) Shri Sobha Singh

32. In the US Open Tennis Tournament 2023, Men’s Singles title was won by:
(A) Daniil Medvedev (B) Carlos Alcaraz
(C) Novak Djokovic (D) Casper Ruud

33. Which cricket player hold the record for highest centuries in first class Test, ODI and
T20I matches combined?
(A) RT Ponting (B) Virat Kohli (C) KC Sangakkara (D) SR Tendulkar

34. Who wrote the book ‘Pranab, My Father: A Daughter Remembers’ published in 2024.
(A) Sonali Mukherjee (B) Sharmistha Mukherjee
(C) Shobha Dey (D) Sucharita Sen

35. The current Vice President of India is:

(A) Shri Ram Nath Kovind (B) Shri M. Venkaia Naidu
(C) Shri Jagdeep Dhankhar (D) Mallikarjun Kharge
36. The horizontal distance of slope surface is measured by an instrument
(A) Altimeter (B) Barometer (C) Clinometer (D) Hygrometer

37. The area between two longitudes is called

(A) Graticule (B) Gore (C) Zone (D) Prime meridian

38. A Line on a map joining areas of equal height is called:

(A) Contour (B) Isobar (C) Isotherm (D) Isohaline

39. The term Geoid refers to:

(A) the equipotential surface of the Earth's salinity
(B) the equidistance surface of the Earth's density
(C) the equidistance surface of the Earth's gravity
(D) the equipotential surface of the Earth's gravity

40. The details of information represented on a map depends on:

(A) Projection of the Map (B) Map Scale
(C) Conventional signs (D) All of the above

41. The Latitude of the EQUATOR is:

(A) 10° (B) 0° (C) 23° (D) 90°

42. The study and practice of map making is called as:

(A) Pedagogy (B) Geometry (C) Cartography (D) Calligraphy

43. An Arc crossing all meridians at same angle and having a constant bearing is known
as:
(A) Rhumb Line (B) Great Circle (C) Plumb Line (D) Transversal Line

44. The term cadastral is derived from the ______________ word CADESTRE.
(A) Greeks (B) British (C) German (D) French

45. Which of the following map projections is commonly used for marine navigation and
preserves constant compass bearings as straight lines?
(A) Mercator projection (B) Robinson projection
(C) Lambert Conformal Conic projection (D) Azimuthal Equidistant projection
46. Yardangs are the creation of erosion by ______________ processes.
(A) Fluvial (B) Aeolian (C) Karst (D) Glacial

47. The Bay of Fundy is located along the coast of which country?
(A) Australia (B) Norway (C) Chile (D) Canada

48. Which one is the correct sequence of landforms from continental land to ocean floor?
(A) Continental slope, sea plain, ocean deeps, continental shelf
 (B) Continental shelf, Continental slope, Sea plain, Ocean deeps

(C) Ocean deeps, Sea plain, Continental slope, Continental shelf

(D) Continental slope Continental shelf, Sea plain, Ocean deeps

49. Which one of the following groups of landforms are erosional features?
(A) Stalagmites, Natural levees, Stacks, Talus
(B) Corrie, Yardang, Gorge, Arete
(C) Natural Bridges, Beaches, Eskers, Star dunes
(D) Flood plain, Moraine, Calderas, ‘U’ shaped Valley
50. An ‘Oxbow Lake’ is:
(A) A lake formed at the base of Glacier
(B) A water pond formed at the base of a waterfall
(C) A natural depression formed by meteorite impact
(D) A cut off river meander filled with stagnant water
51. The discipline of Seismology studies:
(A) Processes of Soil Formation (B) Natural Oil and Gas Formation Process

(C) Earthquakes (D) Volcanism

52. The largest ocean in terms of area is:

(A) Atlantic Ocean (B) Arctic Ocean (C) Pacific Ocean (D) Indian Ocean

53. Which of the following disaster can be caused by a purely natural process?
(A) Cyber-attack (B) Tsunami
(C) Nuclear Reactor Explosion (D) Industrial pollution

54. A large bowl-shaped depression formed when a volcano erupts and collapse is called:
(A) Caldera (B) Tarn (C) Fumarole (D) Vent

55. __________ known as the Father of Plate Tectonics gave the theory of Continental
Drift.
(A) Charles Darwin (B) Charles Lyell
(C) Alfred Lothar Wegener (D) John Tuzo Wilson

56. Change of temperature with a change in the altitude of an air parcel without gaining or
losing any heat to the surrounding environment is known as:
(A) Adiabatic Lapse Rate (B) Normal Lapse Rate

(C) Dew point (D) Environmental Lapse Rate

57. How many major climatic groups are in the Koppen Climate Classification system?
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9
58. What instrument is used for measuring the amount of water vapor in the air?
(A) Barometer (B) Hygrometer (C) Anemometer (D) Thermometer
59. The analysis of tree ring growth patterns to determine past climate variations is called
as:
(A) Pollen Analysis (B) Isotope Stratigraphy

(C) Ice Coring (D) Dendrochronology

60. Nitrogen accounts for _______________ per cent of the dry air by volume
(A) 89.08 (B) 77.08 (C) 78.08 (D) 88.08
61. The 3-R approach in environmental management and conservation includes:
(A) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle (B) Redistribution, Recycle, Remove
(C) Reconstruction, Removal, Reuse (D) Reduce, Remove, Redistribute
62. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(A) Natural Gas (B) Solar Energy (C) Geothermal Energy (D) Wind Energy

63. Which of the following is a potent ‘greenhouse gas’ that causes global warming?
(A) Argon (B) Hydrogen (C) Oxygen (D) Methane

64. _____________ is a primary producer in an ecosystem?

(A) Grasshopper (B) Termite (C) Phytoplankton (D) Snail

65. A transitional zone between two different ecosystems is known as:

(A) Biosphere (B) Ecotone (C) Biome (D) Ecosphere
66. Concept of ‘Human Ecology’ in Geography was introduced by:
(A) E.C. Semple (B) Carl O. Sauer (C) Hettner (D) H. Barrows
67. According to Malthus, the population of a country grows:
(A) Geometrically (B) Arithmetically (C) At constant rate (D) Harmonically
68. The shifting cultivation practiced by the Bodo tribes in Assam is locally known as?
(A) Jhum (B) Rabi (C) Zaid (D) Barani
69. Who is the author of the book 'Nature of Geography'?
(A) Isaiah Bowman (B) Rudolph Kjellen (C) F. Ratzel (D) Richard Hartshorne
70. Concept of ‘Primate City’ was given by Mark Jefferson in the year __________.
(A) 1929 (B) 1938 (C) 1939 (D) 1940
71. The smallest unit of data in a computer is ___________.
(A) Gigabyte (B) Terabyte (C) Bit (D) Megabyte
72. _____________ is not an antivirus software.
(A) Norton (B) Kaspersky (C) Microsoft Excel (D) McAfee
73. RAM in a computer system stands for:
(A) Random-Access Memory (B) Random-Auto Memory

(C) Readable-Access Memory (D) Readable-Auto Memory

74. Which of the following is an OTT (Over-the-top) media platform?
(A) Swiggy (B) Netflix (C) Zomato (D) Uber Eats
75. The command Ctrl+P is used to __________ the document.
(A) Print (B) Save (C) Copy (D) Delete

x-x-x
 M.A. (Economics)
1. If x-axis represents commodity x1 and commodity x2 is represented on y axis and the budget
line is given by equation p1x1+p2x2=m, where, p1 and p2 are prices of x1 and x2
respectively, then the slope of budget line will be:
(A) -p2/p1 (B) -p1/p2 (C) -p2/m (D) -m/p2
2. The opportunity cost of a good is defined as
(A) The time lost in finding the replacement of a good
(B) The economic cost of an action measured in terms of the benefit foregone by not
pursuing the best alternative course of action
(C) The expenditure on the good incurred
(D) The loss of interest in using savings
3. ‘Economies of scale’ are said to exist when
(A) the firm is too small and too specialised
(B) a firm's decision to hire additional inputs does not result in an increase in the price of
inputs
(C) the firm is too large and too diversified
(D) the long-run cost of producing a unit of output falls as the output increases
4. Consider the linear demand curve D(p)=20-2p. When the price changes from 2 to 3 what
is the associated change in consumer surplus?
(A) 13 (B) 14 (C) 15 (D) 16
5. One difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition is that:
(A) Firms in monopolistic competition have some degree of market power.
(B) In perfect competition, the products are slightly differentiated between firms.
(C) There are a smaller number of firms in perfectly competitive industries.
(D) There are a larger number of firms in monopolistic competition.
6. For an inferior good, income consumption curve will be
(A) Horizontal (B) Vertical (C) Upward sloping (D) Backward bending
7. In an economy of two individuals A and B and two commodities X and Y, general
equilibrium of production and exchange occurs when
(A) MRTXY = (PX/ PY ) (B) MRSXY for A and B = (PX/ PY)
(C) MRS AXY = MRS BXY (D) MRTXY = MRS AXY = MRS BXY

8. Which of the following statements are true for a Cobb Douglas Production Function that is
represented as: Q = A 𝐿 𝐾
(A) If α+β = 1, Returns to scale are constant (B) If α+β > 1, Returns to scale are constant
(C) If α+β < 1, Returns to scale are decreasing (D) None of these
9. Which of the following gives measures of price elasticity of demand?
(A) (∆ Qx /∆ Px) *(Px /Qx) (B) (∆ Px ∆ Qx) *(PxQx)
(C) (∆ Qx ∆ Px) * (Qx /Px) (D) (∆ Px ∆ Qx)
10. Which of the statements is incorrect regarding cost curves
(A) Average fixed cost always declines with output
 (B) Marginal cost curve lies below the average cost curve when the average costs are
increasing
(C) Marginal costs must equal average costs at the point of minimum average costs
(D) The area under the marginal cost curve measures the variable costs
11. According to Keynes's Liquidity Preference Theory, households demand money for
(A) Transitionary Purpose (B) Speculative Purpose
(C) Precautionary Purpose (D) All of the above
12. If the Keynesian consumption function C= 10 + 0.8Y, if income is Rs 1000, the value of
Multiplier is:
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 1.25 (D) None of these
13. The difference between Gross investment and net investment is
(A) Depreciation (B) Acceleration (C) Deceleration (D) Capital Investment
14. Which of the following comes under GDP?
(A) Illegal Drug Sale (B) Housework
(C) An off from work (D) Consulting Services
15. If inflation is at 3% and the Nominal Interest rate is at 8%. What is the real rate of interest?
(A) 1% (B) 11% (C) 5% (D) None of these
16. If the price rate doubles then:
(A) The quantity demanded of money falls by half
(B) The value of money has been reduced by half
(C) Nominal income is unaffected
(D) None of the above
17. Stagflation occurs when the economy experiences:
(A) Rising prices and rising outputs
(B) Rising prices and falling outputs
(C) Falling prices and rising outputs
(D) Falling prices and falling outputs
18. The negative relationship between inflation and unemployment is explained using:
(A) The Aggregate Supply Curve (B) The Battle of the Mark-ups
(C) The Phillips Curve (D) Okun's Law
19. Tobin Q stands for:
(A) Ratio of Market Value of Assets to Replacement Cost of Assets
(B) Ratio of Replacement Cost to the Market Value of assets
(C) None of the above
(D) Both are correct
20. "Full employment" refers to the situation when there is:
(A) 100% employment of the labour force (B) 0% unemployment rate
(C) No cyclical unemployment (D) No frictional or structural unemployment
21. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The NITI AAYOG replaced the Planning Commission
(B) The NITI AAYOG formulates Five-Year plans instead of the Planning Commission
 (C) The NITI AAYOG is headed by the Union Finance Minister
(D) The NITI AAYOG prepares the Economic Survey of India
22. Which of the following is not a part of Land Reform Legislation in India?
(A) Abolition of intermediaries (B) Ceiling on Land Holdings
(C) Fragmentation of land holdings (D) Security of tenure
23. With which Five Year Plan has the Mahalanobis Model been associated?
(A) 1stFive Year Plan(B) 2ndFive Year Plan (C) 3rdFive Year Plan (D) 4thFive Year Plan
24. Which of the following statements is correct?
(A) The Finance Commission devises the formulae for the vertical devolution of Finances
(B) The Finance Commission devises formulae for the horizontal & vertical devolution of
Finances
(C) The Finance Commission sets the tax rates under the GST Regime
(D) The Prime Minister is the chairperson of the Finance Commission
25. What type of unemployment is most prevalent in Indian Agriculture?
(A) Structural Unemployment (B) Cyclical Unemployment
(C) Frictional Unemployment (D) Disguised Unemployment
26. Which of the following was not a part of the Structural Adjustment Program of 1991?
(A) Devaluation of Rupee (B) Fiscal Consolidation
(C) Trade Restrictions (D) Privatisation
27. Poverty Line Measurement in India takes into account which of the following?
(A) Nutritional Requirements (B) Income tax paid
(C) Imported food grains (D) Expenditure on education
28. Which of the following statements about the Consumer Protection Act in India correct?
(A) The Consumer Protection Act was passed in 1991
(B) The Act seeks to provide simple and quick redressal of consumer grievances
(C) The Act does not specify the definition of a consumer
(D) The Act seeks to provide grievance redressal to sellers in case of unfair trade practices
29. Which of the following are not associated with the Competition Act, 2002?
(A) Setting up of the Competition Commission of India
(B) Regulation of Combinations
(C) Abuse of Dominant Position
(D) Abuse of Incumbent Position
30. Which of the following is not a feature of India’s Trade Policy post the 1991 Crisis?
(A) Focus on Direct Export Subsidies
(B) Shift from import substitution to Export promotion
(C) Minimise Quantitative Restrictions
(D) Reduction in Tariff Rates
31 Which of the following was not included in Millennium Development Goals of UN given
in the year 2000?
(A) Eradication of extreme poverty and hunger
(B) Reduce child mortality
 (C) Combat Tuberculosis
(D) Ensure environmental sustainability
32. Consider the following statements
(i) Multidimensional poverty index was introduced in 2010
(ii) It uses different factors to determine poverty beyond income-based lists
(iii) It has replaced Human Poverty Index
(iv) It reflects deprivations in very rudimentary services and core human functioning for
people
Which of above statement is/are correct?
(A) i and ii (B) all are correct (C) only iii (D) ii and iv
33. The Solow residual is
(A) The difference between the rate of growth of productivity and the rate of growth of
inputs.
(B) The difference between the rate of growth of output and the rate of growth of savings.
(C) The difference between the rate of growth of output and the rate of growth of inputs.
(D) The difference between the golden rule level of consumption and the steady state level
of consumption.

34. Which of the following strategies will be used in Smart City Project to improve
infrastructure in the identified smart cities?
(i) Retrofitting
(ii) Redevelopment
(iii) Greenfield development
(A) i and ii only (B) i and iii only (C) ii and iii only (D) All of these
35. Which Five-year plan emphasised on ‘inclusive and sustainable’ development?
(A) 9th (B) 10th (C) 11th (D) 12th
36. Which one of the following factor is stressed by Schumpeter in his theory of economic
growth?
(A) Innovations (B) Laissez-faire (C) Population growth (D) Surplus value
37. Which of the following is not a method to calculate Gross Domestic Product?
(A) Diminishing cost method (B) Expenditure method
(C) Product method (D) None of the above
38. Vicious circle of poverty operates from which of the following aspects of the economy?
(A) Demand side (B) Marginal cost Side
(C) Supply Side (D) Both Demand and Supply side
39. In Harrod Domar model, if growth rate of income is 7 percent and the capital output ratio
is 3 percent, the saving rate must be
(A) 21 percent (B) 2.33 percent (C) 0.42 percent (D) 4 percent
40. Amartya Sen got Nobel Prize in which year?
(A) 1996 (B) 1997 (C) 1998 (D) 1999
41. Partial derivatives of the first order partial derivatives are known as
(A) Simple derivative (B) Total derivative
(C) Second order partial derivative (D) Total differential
42. If Y= ea+bx, then dy/dx is
(A) (a+bx)x (B) ea+bx (C) ea+bx .a (D) ea+bx .b
43. A diagonal matrix in which all diagonal elements are the same is said to be a
(A) Square matrix (B) Identity matrix (C) Scalar matrix (D) Null matrix
44. A-1 exists if and only if
(A) |𝐴| = 0 (B) |𝐴| is not equal to 0
(C) |𝐴| = 1 (D) |𝐴| is not equal to 1
4 5 0 −2
45. If A = ,B= then B+A is
−1 0 3 1
4 3 3 1 4 3 2 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 1 2 4 3 1 4 1
46. For a positively skewed distribution
(A) Mean > median > mode (B) Mode >median > mean
(C) Median > mode > mean (D) Mode > mean > median
47. For a symmetrical bell shaped distribution approximately______ of the observations lie in
the range: mean - 2×S.D and mean + 2×S.D
(A) 68% (B) 95% (C) 98% (D) 99%
48. The coefficients of variation for two distributions are C.V (A) = 28.905 and C.V (B) =
23.53 respectively. It can be concluded that
(A) A is more consistent (B) B is more variable
(C) B is more consistent (D) A is less variable than B
49. P01 × P10 = 1 represents
(A) Time reversal test (B) Factor reversal test
(C) Circular test (D) Consistency test
50. As per method of least squares ∑(Y- Ye)2 is ______ where Y is observed time series value
and Ye is the corresponding trend value.
(A) Maximum (B) Less than zero (C) Minimum (D) More than zero
51. Which of the following is not an assumption of OLS?
(A) The parameter should be linear in nature
(B) There is a perfect relationship between explanatory variables
(C) The mean of the error term is always zero
(D) None of the above
52. E (Ui,Uj) = 0, when i≠j is termed as,
(A) Heteroscedasticity (B) Multi-collinearity
(C) No Auto-Correlation (D) Homoscedasticity
53. The problem of heteroscedasticity was expressed as…..
(A) E(Ui2) = σi2; i=1,2,3,…,n (B) E(Ui2) = σ2
(C) E(Ui2) = 0 (D) E(Ui) = 0
54. In a two-variable regression, Y is the dependent variable and X is the independent variable.
The correlation coefficient between Y and X is 0.7. For this, which of the following is
correct?
 (A) 7% of variations in Y are explained by X
(B) 49% of variations in Y are explained by X
(C) 0.7% of variations in Y are explained by X
(D) 70% of variations in Y are explained by X
55. Park Test is used for what purpose?
(A) Detecting Heteroscedasticity (B) Detecting Autocorrelation
(C) Detecting Multi-collinearity (D) None of these
56. If the value of Durbin-Watson’s d-statistic is 2, the value of Coefficient of autocorrelation
is…..
(A) One (B) Zero (C) Two (D) More than Two
57. Given regression co-efficient b= 2 and standard error of 0.5, the value of t ratio is:
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2.5
58. In a semi-log model of type log Yi = βXi the co-efficient β stands for the :
(A) Slope (B) Slope and Elasticity
(C) Elasticity (D) Growth rate
59. One of the assumptions of CLRM is that the number of observations in the sample must be
greater than the number of:
(A) Regressor (B) Regressands
(C) Dependent variable (D) Dependent and independent variable
60. A time series sample data is considered stationary if the following characteristics of the
series are time-invariant:
(A) Mean (B) Variance (C) Covariance (D) All of these
61. The Industrial Location Model was introduced by:
(A) Bains (B) Marx Weber
(C) Williamson (D) None of these
62. A firm operating at that scale in existing conditions of techniques and organizing capacity
in which it has the lowest average cost of production per unit is called
(A) Optimum firm (B) Equilibrium (C) Average (D) None of these
63. What role does agriculture typically play in many developing nations?
(A) Primary contributor to GDP and employment
(B) Negligible impact on national income and employment
(C) Leading sector in terms of technological innovation
(D) Source of government revenue through agricultural exports
64. Which of the following is not a characteristic of traditional agriculture as per Mellor?
(A) Low productivity
(B) High Farm size
(C) Land and Labour are the primary inputs
(D) Low income
65. The _____ is a summary in which, in principle, all the transactions of the residents of a
nation with the residents of all other nations are recorded during a particular period of time,
usually a calendar year.
 (A) Balance of trade(B) Current account (C) Capital account (D) Balance of payment
66. Which of the following is not member of ASEAN
(A) Indonesia (B) Vietnam (C) Cambodia (D) China
67. Consider the following:
1. Fall in Consumer Spending
2. Reduced Government revenues
3. Increased Tax Compliance
4. Increase of Foreign Investment in India
Which of the above is the most likely outcome when taxes are reduced by the government?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3, and 4
68. Internal Debt comprises
(A) Loans raised in the open market
(B) Compensation and other bonds
(C) Non-interest bearing rupee securities issued to international financial institutions
(D) All of the above
69. Which of the following statements is true about the Central Bank?
(A) It regulates the entire banking system in the country
(B) It is under the ownership of the central government of the country
(C) It is apex bank of India
(D) All of the above
70. M3 and M4 also known as:
(A) Narrow money (B) Broad Money
(C) Flat Money (D) Legal Money
71. AMB, CLB, BKC, DJC, ___?
(A) CID (B) CJD (C) EIF (D) EID
72. If A is B’s son’s only daughter’s mother, what is the A to B?
(A) Daughter (B) Wife (C) Mother (D) Daughter-in-law
73. Which one of the following is not a synonym of ‘kind’?
(A) Indifferent (B) Courteous (C) Considerate (D) Helpful
74. Fill in the blank: 2, 4, 8, _, 32, 64.
(A) 12 (B) 16 (C) 20 (D) 30
75. Cup is to coffee as bowl is to
(A) Spoon (B) Dish (C) Fork (D) Soup
x-x-x
 Master of Social Work
1. The National game of India is ____________
(A) Hockey (B) Football (C) Cricket (D) Wrestling
2. _______ is known as the Iron Man of India
(A) Bhagat Singh (B) Lala Lajpat Rai
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
3. A non-profit company can be registered with the Companies Act, 2013under
(A) Section 4 (B) Section 8 (C) Section 25 (D) Section 112
4. ____________ Communicators are active listeners and check on others feelings
(A) Great (B) Smart (C) Assertive (D) Aggressive
5. In an agrarian society family system was
(A) Matriarchal (B) Patriarchal (C) Polyandrous (D) Polygamy
6. Personality of an individual is greatly influenced by the ____ a person strongly believes
in
(A) Values (B) Opinions (C) Mindset (D) Judgement
7. In which method of water purification is Alum used?
(A) Sterilisation (B) Precipitation (C) Pinking (D) Clarification
8. The blood vessels which connect small Arteries & Veins are called ________
(A) Blood cells (B) Fibres (C) Nerves (D) Capillaries
9. Skin of a Human body is an example of __________________________
(A) Nervous system Organs (B) Respiratory organs
(C) Excretory organs (D) Digestive organs
10. Minimum number of members required to form Section 8 company is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 7
11. Total number of seats in Lok Sabha are
(A) 545 (B) 543 (C) 530 (D) 532
12. Deforestation does not
(A) Disturb the balance of gases in the atmosphere
(B) Causes global warming
(C) Reduce rainfall
(D) Prevent soil erosion
13. Rainwater harvesting method which is most suited for towns and cities is ______
(A) Ground Catchment system (B) Roof Catchment System
(C) Sub surface Dyke (D) Surface Run off system
14. Which amendment of the constitution provided local bodies a constitutional status and
developed planning responsibilities?
(A) 71st amendment (B) 72nd amendment
(C) 73rd amendment (D) 74th amendment
15. National Commission for scheduled Castes was set up under which Article of the
Constitution?
 (A) Article 338 (B) Article 338 A (C) Article 340 (D) Article 350 B
16. Who postulated the ‘self’ as ‘ideal self’ and ‘real self’?
(A) Carl Rogers (B) Abraham Maslow (C) Henry Foyal (D) Frederic Herzberg
17. First Human Development Report was published in
(A) 1970 (B) 1980 (C) 1990 (D) 2000
18. Which of the following is not a defence mechanism?
(A) Sublimation (B) Rationalisation (C) Projection (D) Confrontation
19. The second stage of scientific or experimental method is?
(A) Classification (B) Recording (C) Observation (D) Prediction
20. Reserve Bank of India was created in the year _______
(A) 1935 (B) 1950 (C) 1947 (D) 1965
21. Resource deterioration is also known as
(A) Depletion (B) Degradation (C) Pollution (D) Decline
22. The mean is
(A) the average value (B) the middle value
(C) the most frequently occurring value (D) ratio of the first and last value
23. In terms of Area India is the __________ largest country in the world
(A) Fourth (B) Sixth (C) Seventh (D) Tenth
24. The Aryan worshippers referred to River Indus as the ---------.
(A) Sindhu (B) Jhelum (C) Brahmaputra (D) Satluj
25. International Yoga Day is celebrated on
(A) 18th of June (B) 21st of June (C) 23rd of June (D) 25th of June
26. National Rail Museum is located in
(A) New Delhi (B) Mumbai (C) Kolkata (D) Chennai
27. Period of First Five Year Plan was from
(A) 1947-1952 (B) 1951-1956 (C) 1961-1966 (D) 1969-1974
28. Which is the Capital of Nagaland State/UT
(A) Kohima (B) Makochung (C) Dimapur (D) Imphal
29. The total number of High Courts in India is ________
(A) 30 (B) 29 (C) 21 (D) 25
30. In Tibet, Brahmaputra River is known by the name of
(A) Yellow (B) Tsangpo (C) Teesta (D) Shyok
31. ____ city is also known as the ‘City of Joy’
(A) Bengaluru (B) Srinagar (C) Kolkata (D) Varanasi
32. The oldest social security legislation in India is
(A) The Workmen’s Compensation Act (B) Provident Fund Act
(C) Maternity Benefit Act (D) Payment of Gratuity Act
33. Blood Donation Day of the World falls on?
 (A) 14th June (B) 16th May (C) 1st Dec (D 10th Jan
34. World AIDS day falls on?
(A) 1st November (B) 2nd February (C) 1st December (D) 5th December
35. The Wildlife (Protection) Act, came in which year in India?
(A) 1965 (B) 1972 (C) 1981 (D) 1992
36. World Human Rights Day Falls on?
(A) 10th December (B) 1st December (C) 5th December (D) 2nd December
37. World Cancer Day falls on?
(A) 4th February (B) 3rd March (C) 1st November (D) 2nd February
38. World Stroke Day falls on?
(A) 29th October (B) 27th September (C) 8th June (D) 10th March
39. Headquarters of UNHCR are in?
(A) Hague (B) Geneva (C) New York (D) Turin
40. _____ is known as the Diamond City of the World
(A) Surat (B) Kolkata (C) Nairobi (D) Porbander
41. The oldest Trade Union of India is
(A) AITUC (B) INTUC (C) BMS (D) CITU
42. Which is celebrated as the World Heart Day?
(A) 29th September (B) 29th August (C) 29th January (D) 29th June
43. _____ is the largest fruit that can be grown on a tree
(A) Mango (B) Apple (C) Pineapple (D) Jackfruit
44. A Codified Law is known as
(A) Crime (B) Theory (C) Deviant Act (D) Status
45. MSW is not concerned with
(A) Treatment of patients (B) Caring of patients
(C) Home conditions of patients (D) Financial assistance to the patients
46. Maintenance & Welfare of Parents & Senior Citizens Act,2007 is an initiative of
(A) Ministry of Social Welfare
(B) Ministry of Law and Justice
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

47. Phulkari embroidery is from?

(A) Punjab (B) Jharkhand (C) Kerala (D) Kashmir
48. Main Goal of Sociological study is “
(A) Social Reform (B) Social Construction
(C) Social Reconstruction (D) Study society in its existing form
49. Which Indian was awarded Nobel Prize for Economics
(A) Mother Teresa (B) Amratya Sen
 (C) K.V. Raman (D) HargobindKhurana
50. ______ is the unit of Power
(A) Volt (B) Newton (C) Joule (D) Watt
51. In 1928, Penicillin was invented by ________?
(A) Alexander Fleming (B) Marie Curie
(C) Political (D) Faith
52. NHS was founded in UK in the year?
(A) 1947 (B) 1946 (C) 1945 (D) 1948
53. Motivation gives problem solving a
(A) Direction (B) Set (C) Need (D) Guidance
54. The book ‘ Social Diagnosis’ was written by
(A) Mary Richmond (B) Joseph Luft (C) Perelman (D) Ross
55. The First Hindi Newspaper published in India was
(A) Bengal Patrika (B) Uddand Martand
(C) Anand Bazar Patrika (D) Hindu
56. The study of Fungi is known as ______
(A) Pomology (B) Phycology (C) Mycology (D) Paleobotany
57. World Elder’s Day falls on?
(A) 1st October (B) 10th October (C) 1st September (D) 2nd November
58. Apartheid refers to
(A) Social Discrimination (B) Political Discrimination
(C) Racial Discrimination (D) Spatial Discrimination
59. Data available in records or already gathered by others is called
(A) Secondary data (B) Primary data (C) Tertiary data (D) Array of data
60. Who founded the Satyasodhak Samaj?
(A) Jyotiba Phule (B) Mahadev Gobind Ranade
(C) Atmaram Pandurang (D) Annie Besant
61. Assam produces the largest amount of ______ in India
(A) Wheat (B) Jute (C) Rice (D) Bamboo

62. Domestic Workers Act was enacted in the year

(A) 1998 (B) 2002 (C) 2006 (D) 2008
63. Hindu Marriage Act was enacted in
(A) 1953 (B) 1954 (C) 1955 (D) 1956
64. ____ is used as an antiseptic
(A) Boric Acid (B) Carbonic Acid (C) Phosphoric Acid (D) Nitric Acid
65. Developing societies are
(A) Industrialised societies (B) Never changing societies
(C) Transitional societies (D) Unorganised societies
66. An NGO is registered under
(A) Indian Penal Code (B) Society’s Registration Act
(C) Industrial Tribunal Act (D) ESI Act
67. Which one of the following is not a quality of a Counsellor?
(A) Listener (B) Observer (C) Empathy (D) Prejudiced
68. Sustainable development ‘s main concern centres around
(A) Poverty alleviation (B) Removal of illiteracy
(C) Reduction of Infant Mortality Rate (D) Well being of incoming generations
69. ___ was a famous Cartoonist of India
(A) Raghu Rai (B) R K Laxman
(C) Raghunath Mohapatra (D) R K Narayan
70. Social Welfare requires
(A) Specialised knowledge (B) Bookish
(C) Particular knowledge (D) Group knowledge
71. The unorganised workers Social Security Act was enacted in the year
(A) 2006 (B) 2007 (C) 2008 (D) 2009
72. Which Article provides for free and compulsory education for children
(A) Article 45 (B) Article 46 (C) Article 47 (D) Article 48
73. _______ is the brightest planet as seen from Earth
(A) Jupiter (B) Mercury (C) Mars (D) Venus

74. Indian Air Force came into being on

(A) 15th August 1947 (B) 15th January 1950
(C) 8th October 1932 (D) 2nd October 1948
75. Social problems are treated with Social reform and
(A) Social legislations (B) Social Work
(C) Social Science (D) Social Service
x-x-x
 M.Sc. Statistics
1. Let A and B be finite sets. Then the number of elements in A\B is
(A) 𝑛(𝐵)
(B) 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
(C) 𝑛(𝐴) + 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
(D) 𝑛(𝐴) − 𝑛(𝐴 ∩ 𝐵)
2. Suppose list A contains 30 students in a mathematics class and list B contains the 35
students in an English class, and suppose there are 20 names on both the lists. Then find
the number of students on exactly one of the two lists.
(A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 30 (D) 45
3. Let A and B be two sets, then (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵 ) ∪ (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) is equal to
(A) 𝐴
(B) 𝐴
(C) 𝐵
(D) A-B
4. A coin is tossed until a head appears, or until it has been tossed 3 times. Given that the
head does not occur on the first toss, find the probability that the coin is tossed 3 times.
(A) 1/2 (B) 1/4 (C) 3/4 (D) 2/3
5. Let Q and R be two events such that 𝑃(𝑄 ∩ 𝑅) = 1/3, 𝑃(𝑄 ∪ 𝑅) = 5/6 and
𝑃(𝑄 )=1/2. Then
(A) Q and R are mutually exclusive (B) P(Q)=P(R)
(C) Q and R are independent (D) P(Q) ≤ P(R)
6. Three different numbers are selected at random from the set A={1,2,3,....,10}. The
probability that the product of two of the numbers is equal to the third number is
(A) 3/7 (B) 1/40 (C) 1/9 (D) 1/4
7. Two tickets are selected at random out of 50 tickets numbered 1,2,3,...,50. The chance
that the sum of numbers is odd is
(A) 25/49 (B) 25/9 (C) 24/49 (D) 3/4
8. A box contains 2 white socks and 2 blue socks. Two socks are drawn at random. Find
the probability that they are a match (same colour).
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 3/4
9. A single card is drawn from an ordinary deck S of 52 cards. Find the probability that
the card red face card.
(A) 3/4 (B) 1/6 (C) 3/26 (D) 6/13
10. Suppose P(E)=p. The odds that E occurs is defined to be the ratio 𝐩: (𝟏 − 𝐩). Find p
of the odds that E occurs are a to b.
(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. Let A and B be two events with P(A)=1/3, P(B)=1/4, and P(A ∪ B) = 1/2, then find
P(A|B).
 (A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 1/4 (D) 3/4
12. A husband and a wife appear in an interview for two vacancies for the same post. The
probability of husband’s selection is 1/7 and that of wife’s selection is 1/5. What is the
probability that none of them will be selected?
(A) 20/35 (B) 21/35 (C) 2/7 (D) 24/35
13. Let X be a continuous random variable with the following distribution
if 0 ≤ x ≤ 8
𝑓(x) =
0 otherwise
Find 𝑃(2 ≤ 𝑋 ≤ 5).
(A) 1/8 (B) 2/8 (C) 3/8 (D) 5/8
14. The variance of the probability distribution given below is _______
X -3 -2 -1 0 1 2 3

P(x) 1/7 1/7 1/7 1/7 1/7 1/7 1/7

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 6

15. If X and Y are independent variables with var(X)=2, var(Y)=5, then var(3X-Y) is
(A) 10 (B) 23 (C) 11 (D) 13
16. Let X be a random variable with E(X)=10 and var(X)=9. Then the lower bound to
P(4<X<16) will be
(A) 0.25 (B) 0.50 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.90
17. A fair coin is tossed 400 times. Then the probability that the number of heads which
occurs differs from 200 by more than 10 will be _________.
(A) 0.293 (B) 0.310 (C) 0.124 (D) 0.351
18. Team A has probability p=0.4 of winning each time it plays. Suppose A plays 4 games.
Find the probability that A wins at least one game.
(A) 544/625 (B) 324/625 (C) 221/625 (D) 111/625
19. Let Z be the standard normal random variable. Find P(−0.81 ≤ 𝑍 ≤ 1.13) given that
Φ(1.13) = 0.370, Φ(0.81) = 0.291.
(A) 0.111 (B) 0.234 (C) 0.661 (D) 0.561
20. Let X be a binomially distributed random variable B(n,p) with E(X)=2 and var(X)=4/3.
Find values of n and p.
(A) n = 5, p = 1/3 (B) n = 5, p = 2/3
(C) n = 6, p = 2/3 (D) n = 6, p = 1/3
21. The point of inflexion of Normal curve are given by
(A) 𝜇 ± 3 𝜎 (B) 𝜇 ± 2 𝜎
(C) ±𝜎 (D) 𝜇 ± 𝜎

22. For the Poisson distribution with parameter 𝜆 find the standard deviation
(A) 𝜆 (B) √𝜆 (C) 2𝜆 (D) √2𝜆
23. For Binomial distribution B(n,p), the mean 𝜇 and variance 𝜎 are
(A) 𝜇 = 𝑛𝑝, 𝜎 = 𝑛𝑝𝑞 (B) 𝜇 = 𝑛𝑞, 𝜎 = 𝑛𝑝
(C) 𝜇 = 𝑝, 𝜎 = 𝑛𝑝𝑞 (D) 𝜇 = 𝑞, 𝜎 = 𝑛𝑝𝑞
24. The mean and standard deviation on an examination are 74 and 12 respectively. Find
the score in standard units of the student receiving 92 score.
(A) 1.5 (B) 1.0 (C) 0.75 (D) -0.75
25. A fair die is tossed 180 times. Determine the probability that the face 6 will appear
between 29 to 32 times inclusive (Given that Φ(0.3) = 0.1179, Φ(0.5) = 0.1915.
(A) 0.3499 (B) 0.2134 (C) 0.3094 (D) 0.0736
26. A coin is weighted so that the head is three times as likely to appear as tail. Find
P(Head).
(A) 1/4 (B) 3/4 (C) 2/3 (D) 2/5
27. A point is chosen at random inside a circle. Find the probability that the point is closer
to the centre of the circle than to its circumference.
(A) 2/3 (B) 1/4 (C) 3/4 (D) 1/3
28. Find P(B|A) if A is a subset of B given that P(A)>0.
(A) 1 (B) 0.5 (C) 0.4 (D) 0.6
29. Let W be the subspace of 𝑅 given by W={(x,y,z,t): x+z+t=0, y+z+t=0}. Then the
dimension of W is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
30. If dim(V/W)=8 and dim(W)=3. Then, dim(V) is
(A) 11 (B) 5 (C) 10 (D) 4
31. The dimension of the vector space of all 3 × 3 real symmetric matrices is
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 4
32. Let 𝑇: 𝑅 → 𝑅 be a linear transformation given by 𝑇(𝑥, 𝑦) = (𝑥 + 𝑦, 𝑥 − 𝑦, 𝑦). Then
rank of T is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 0 (D) 1
33. The transition matrix P from the standard ordered basis to the ordered basis {(1,1),(-
1,0)} is
0 1 1 −1 1 0 0 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
−1 1 1 0 −1 0 −1 0
34. The number of onto transformation from 𝑅 to 𝑅 is
(A) 1 (B) 0 (C) 3 (D) 4

35. Let the characteristic equation of a matrix M be 𝑥 − 𝑥 − 1 = 0. Then

(A) 𝑀 does not exist
(B) 𝑀 exists but cannot be determined from the data
(C) 𝑀 = 𝑀 − 1
(D) 𝑀 = 𝑀 + 1
36. A system of linear equations 𝑥 + 2𝑦 − 𝑧 = 11, 3𝑥 + 𝑦 − 2𝑧 = 10, 𝑥 − 3𝑦 = 5 has
(A) No solution (B) Exactly one solution
(C) Exactly three solutions (D) Infinitely many solutions
37. Let A be a square matrix of order n, then nullity of A is
(A) n − rank(A)
(B) rank(A) − n
(C) n + rank(A)
(D) rank(A)
38. Let A be a symmetric matrix. Then
(A) Adj(A) is a non-symmetric matrix (B) Adj(A) is a symmetric matrix
(C) Adj(A) does not exist (D) Adj(A)=Identity matrix

39. The sequence {𝑥 }, where 𝑥 = 𝑛 , converges to

(A) 0 (B) ½ (C) 1 (D) -1
40. Every Cauchy sequence of real numbers, is
(A) Divergent (B) Convergent
(C) Limit does not exist (D) None of these
41. The series ∑ 1/(𝑛 log 𝑛 (log 𝑛) converges, if
(A) 𝑝 < 1 (B) 𝑝 ≤ 1
(C) 𝑝 = 1 (D) 𝑝 > 1
42. The series 1 + 𝑟 + 𝑟 + 𝑟 + …. is oscillatory, if
(A) 𝑟 < 1
(B) 𝑟 > 1
(C) 𝑟 = 1
(D) 𝑟 = −1

43. Find lim !

.
→∞
(A) 1 (B) -1 (C) 0 (D) Limit does not
exist
44. Let 𝑓: 𝑅 → 𝑅 be given by 𝑓(𝑥) = [𝑥] the greatest integer less than or equal to 𝑥. Then
(A) The points at which f is not continuous is countable
(B) The points at which f is not continuous is R
(C) 𝑓 is strictly decreasing
(D) 𝑓 is strictly increasing
45. The value of ‘c’ in Rolle’s theorem, where – < 𝑐 < and 𝑓(𝑥) = cos 𝑥 is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 𝜋/2
(C) 𝜋/3
(D) 𝜋/4

46. The function 𝑓(𝑥) = |𝑥 + 2| is not differentiable at a point

(A) 𝑥 = 2
(B) 𝑥 = −2
(C) 𝑥 = 1
 (D) 𝑥 = −1
47. Which of the following functions is not uniformly continuous in [2, ∞)?
(A) 𝑒
(B) 1/x
(C) 1/𝑥
(D) sin 𝑥
48. In which interval the polynomial 2𝑥 − 15𝑥 + 36𝑥 + 1 is decreasing
(A) (2,3)
(B) [2, ∞)
(C) [3, ∞)
(D) (1,3)
49. The function F(x) is continuous on the closed interval [a,b], then
(A) F(x) is constant on [a,b] (B) F(x) is unbounded
(C) F(x) is differentiable on (a,b) (D) F(x) is bounded on [a,b]
50. The derivative of a differentiable odd function is
(A) Odd function (B) Constant function
(C) Even function (D) Neither even nor odd function
51. The perimeter of the curve 𝑟 = 2 cos 𝜃 is ________.
(A) 𝜋
(B) 𝜋/2
(C) 2 𝜋
(D) 4 𝜋

52. ∫ (sin 𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 is equal to

(A) −1
(B) 0
(C) 𝜋
(D) −𝜋
53. The area bounded by the curves 𝑥 = 𝑦 and 𝑦 = 𝑥 is given by
(A) 3 (B) 1/3 (C) 1 (D) 4
∞ ∞
54. The value of the integral ∫ ∫ 𝑒 𝑒 𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑦 is
(A) 𝜋/4
(B) 𝜋
(C) 𝜋/3
(D) 0
55. One of the integrating factor of the differential equation (𝑦 − 3𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑦 + (𝑥 − 𝑥𝑦)𝑑𝑥 =
0 is:
(A) 1/𝑥 𝑦
(B) 𝑥/𝑦
(C) 1/𝑥 𝑦
(D) 1/𝑥𝑦
56. The general solution of the differential equation 𝑥 𝑦 ′′ − 5𝑦 ′ + 9𝑦 = 0 is
(A) (𝑐 + 𝑐 𝑥)𝑒
(B) (𝑐 + 𝑐 ln 𝑥)𝑥
(C) (𝑐 + 𝑐 𝑥)𝑥
(D) 𝑥 𝑒
57. The Wronskian of the function 𝑓(𝑥) = 𝑥 and 𝑔(𝑥) = 𝑥|𝑥| is zero for
(A) all x
(B) x > 0
(C) x < 0
(D) x = 0
58. If 𝑒 , 𝑥𝑒 are solutions of 𝑦 ′′ + 𝑎𝑦 ′ + 𝑏𝑦 = 0, then
(A) 𝑎 = 2, 𝑏 = 1
(B) 𝑎 = 0, 𝑏 = 1
(C) 𝑎 = 1, 𝑏 = 1
(D) 𝑎 = −1, 𝑏 = 0
59. The general solution of 𝑦 𝑦 ′′ − (𝑦 ′ ) = 0 is
(A) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑒
(B) 𝑦 = 𝑐 𝑒
(C) 𝑦 = (𝑐 − 𝑥)𝑒
(D) 𝑦 = (𝑐 + 𝑐 𝑥)𝑒
60. Let 𝑦 = 𝑥 sin 𝑥 be one of the solutions of an 𝑛 ℎ order linear differential equation with
constant coefficients. Then the minimum value of n is
(A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6
61. The solution of = 𝑦 , 𝑦(0) = 1, exists for all
(A) 𝑥 ∈ (−∞, 1)
(B) 𝑥 ∈ (0, 1)
(C) 𝑥 ∈ (−∞, ∞)
(D) 𝑥 ∈ [1, ∞)
62. If 𝑦 is an integrating factor of the differential equation 2𝑥𝑦 𝑑𝑥 − (3𝑥 − 𝑦 )𝑑𝑦 = 0,
then the value of ‘a’ is
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) -4 (D) 1

63. The differential equation representing all circles centred at (1,0) is

(A) 𝑥 − 𝑦 =1
(B) 𝑥 + 𝑦 =1
(C) 𝑦 + 𝑥 =1
(D) 𝑦 − 𝑥 =1

64. The locus of the point ‘z’ satisfying the condition arg = is a
 (A) Parabola (B) Circle
(C) Pair of straight lines (D) Ellipse
65. If |𝑧 + 4| ≤ 3, then |𝑧 + 1| ≤ _________.
(A) 5 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7
66. If 𝑧 = 𝑟 𝑒 , then |𝑒 | is equal to
(A) 𝑒
(B) 𝑟𝑒
(C) 𝑒
(D) 𝑟𝑒
67. Let 𝑧 be any non-zero complex number. Then arg(𝑧) + arg(𝑧̅ ) is equal to
(A) 𝜋
(B) –𝜋
(C) 0
(D) 𝜋/2
68. Let 𝑧 be a purely imaginary number such that 𝐼𝑚(𝑧) < 0. Then arg(𝑧) is equal to
(A) 𝜋
(B) 𝜋/2
(C) 0
(D) – 𝜋/2

69. If 𝑧 − = 2, then the maximum value of |z| is equal to

(A) 3
(B) √5+1
(C) 2
(D) 2 + √2
70. The conjugate of a complex number is . Then the complex number is
(A) −
(B)
(C) −
(D)
1 𝜔 𝜔
71. If 1, 𝜔, 𝜔 are the cube roots of unity, then the value of Δ = 𝜔 𝜔 1 is equal
𝜔 1 𝜔
to
(A) 𝜔
(B) 0
(C) 1
(D) 𝜔

72. If 𝑧 = 𝑥 + 𝑖 𝑦 and 𝜔 = , then |𝜔| = 1 implies that in the complex plane

(A) 𝑧 lies on the imaginary axis
 (B) 𝑧 lies on the real axis
(C) 𝑧 lies on the unit circle
(D) 𝑧 = 1 + 2𝑖
73. Find the value of sinh(𝑥 + 𝑦) sinh(𝑥 − 𝑦) = __________________________ .
(A) 2 sinh(𝑥) sinh(𝑦)
(B) 2 cosh 𝑥 cosh 𝑦
(C) sinh 𝑥 + sinh 𝑦
(D) sinh 𝑥 − sinh 𝑦
74. The value of 𝑒 is equal to
(A) 𝑖
(B) – 𝑖
(C) −1
(D) 1
75. The value of cos(2𝑥) is equal to _______________
(A) cos 𝑥 − sin 𝑥
(B) 2 cos 𝑥
(C) 2 sin 𝑥
(D) cos 𝑥 + sin 𝑥
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK
 MSc(2Yr)(Stem Cell & Tissue Engineering)
1. Which of the following is not a component of nucleolus
(A) rRNA (B) mRNA (C) proteins (D) DNA
2. Which of the following is the final acceptor of electrons in electron transport chain?

(A) Oxygen (B) NAD+ (C) FAD+ (D) NADP+

3. In meiosis, the chromosome number is reduced to haploid state during
(A) metaphase -2 (B) metaphase -1 (C) anaphase -2 (D) anaphase -1
4. The two strands of the DNA molecule are held together with the help of
(A) Hydrogen bonds (B) Covalent bonds
(C) Phosphodiester bonds (D) Glycosidic bonds
5. Which of the following is a histamine producing cell
(A) Eosinophil (B) Basophil (C) Neutrophil (D) Monocytes
6. Which of the following is found in fat tissue of higher organisms?
(A) Cardiac muscle cell (B) Adipocytes
(C) Kupffer cell (D) Skeletal muscle cells
7. FoF1-ATP synthase is located in
(A) Lysosome (B) Golgi apparatus
(C) Mitochondria (D) Endoplasmic Reticulum
8. Which of the following is a micromineral?
(A) Magnesium (B) Sodium (C) Calcium (D) Manganese
9. The mixture of aminoacids is generally separated by
(A) Spectrophotometry (B) Paper Chromatography
(C) Autoradiography (D) PAGE
10. Which of these dyes is used to visualize DNA bands in agarose gel
(A) Bromophenol Blue (B) Ethidium Bromide
(C) Xylene cyanol (D) Coomassie brilliant blue
11. The glycosidic bond is present in
(A) Polysaccharides (B) Fatty acids (C) Lipids (D) Proteins
12. The secondary and tertiary structure of polypeptide is denatured with the help of
_______
(A) BSA (B) β-Mercaptoethanol (BME)
(C) Dithiothretol (DTT) (D) Sodium Dodecyl Sulfate (SDS)
13. Patient with blood group B, can receive the blood from donor with blood group
(A) A, B (B) AB, A (C) B, O (D) A, O
14. The granulocyte that has a multilobed nucleus is
(A) Neutrophil (B) Eosinophil (C) Basophil (D) B cell
15. The immune system cells that specifically kill the tumor cells are known as
(A) Tc cells (B) Mast cells (C) TH cells (D) B cells
16. The simple kidney like structures of earthworms are called
(A) Nephridia (B) Malpighian tubules
(C) Kidneys (D) Nephrostome
17. _______ are the cells of the stomach actively engaged in HCl secretion.
 (A) Gastrin cells (B) Mucous cells (C) Chief cells (D) Parietal cells
18. Which enzyme cuts the internal phosphodiester bonds of linear double stranded DNA
non- specifically?
(A) DNA polymerase I (B) DNase I
(C) Exonuclease III (D) Restriction endonucleases (Type II)
19. This is the branched polymer of glucose
(A) Starch (B) Fucose (C) Cellulose (D) Amylose
20. The detergent such as sodium dodecyl sulfate (SDS) is used for the following process
(A) For imparting positive charge on the proteins
(B) For imparting neutral charge on the proteins
(C) For imparting negative charge on the proteins
(D) For imparting secondary structure in proteins
21. The deficiency of water soluble Vitamin B1 leads to the following disease
(A) Rickets (B) Night blindness (C) Anemia (D) Beriberi
22. The tissue which has thick and thin bands is
(A) Smooth muscle (B) Liver (C) Skeletal muscle (D) Kidney
23. The cells that surround, support and protect neurons are called
(A) Nerves (B) Schwan cells (C) Dendritic cells (D) Glial cells
24. The hairpin loops are found in which of the following molecule?
(A) RNA (B) Lipids (C) Protein (D) Carbohydrate
25. Which of the following statements is not true for hemoglobin molecule
(A) It has porphyrin ring structure
(B) It has iron as the central ion
(C) It is a biological pigment
(D) It can bind and transport up to three oxygen molecules
26. The wavelength at which the DNA molecules show highest absorbance is
(A) 200nm (B) 240nm (C) 260nm (D) 280nm
27. The CD8 molecule is present on the surface of which cells?
(A) Macrophages (B) TH cells (C) Target cells (D) Tc cells
28. The concentration of the stock solution of NaCl is 1M. How much volume of this 1M
solution is required to prepare 1.5ml of 10mM solution of NaCl?
(A) 15ml (B) 15µl (C) 150µl (D) 0.15µl
29. Which of the following antibody is found in saliva?
(A) IgG (B) IgD (C) IgE (D) IgA
30. Ammonium sulphate precipitation is commonly used for the purification of
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Proteins (C) Lipids (D) Nucleic acid
31. All of the following molecules are pyrimidines except
(A) Thymine (B) Cytosine (C) Uracil (D) Adenine
32. The temperature at which the two strands of the DNA molecule separate from each
other is called
(A) Melting temperature (B) Boiling temperature
(C) CT value (D) Annealing temperature
33. The protein synthesis termination occurs at all of the following codons of the mRNA
molecule except
(A) UAA (B) AUG (C) UAG (D) UGA
34. Studying the expression of a particular gene can be followed by assaying for the
corresponding protein by
(A) Dot Blot (B) Southern Blot (C) Northern Blot (D) Western Blot
35. Which of the following polysaccharide contains β-1,4 linkage
(A) Glycogen (B) Amylose (C) Cellulose (D) Amylopectin
36. Which of the following protein is present in lysosomes?
(A) Hydrolase (B) Actin
(C) Succinate dehydrogenase (D) Lactate dehydrogenase
37. Innate immunity involves all except?
(A) Anatomical barriers (B) Phagocytic mechanisms
(C) Antibody production (D) Inflammatory mechanisms
38. During the growth of animal cells it is important to keep cells in which phase of the
growth curve?
(A) Lag Phase (B) Log Phase (C) Stationary Phase (D) Decline Phase
39. In Cell cycle DNA is replicated during which phase?
(A) S phase (B) M phase (C) G2 phase (D) G1 phase
40. In respect of the eukaryotic phospholipid bilayer membrane which of the following
statement is true?
(A) The extrinsic proteins are found in the interior of the membrane
(B) The intrinsic proteins are found spanning both leaflets of the membrane
(C) Cholesterol is not present
(D) The polar head groups of the lipids are oriented towards the interior of the membrane
41. MHC class II molecules present antigenic peptide to
(A) B cells (B) NK cells (C) Dendritic cells (D) T cells
42. The first N-terminal aminoacyl residue added during eukaryotic protein synthesis is
(A) Glycine (B) Methionine (C) Alanine (D) Phenylalanine
43. Which of the following is frequently used as a model system in Developmental
Biology?
(A) Caenorhabditis elegans (B) Honey bee
(C) Jelly fish (D) House fly
44. The 30S initiation complex formed during prokaryotic protein synthesis, contains this
component
(A) Eukaryotic Initiation factor 2 (eIF2) (B) Elongation factor 2 (EF2)
(C) tRNA (D) Initiation factor 2 (IF2)
45. During initiation of eukaryotic protein synthesis, the eukaryotic Initiation Factor 3
(eIF3) binds to
(A) 60S subunit of ribosome (B) 40S subunit of ribosome
(C) 30S subunit of ribosome (D) 50S subunit of ribosome
46. The mutation that occurs in the reading frame of a gene in the DNA molecule which
converts codon into a stop codon, is known as
(A) semiconservative mutation (B) suppressor mutation
(C) sense mutation (D) non - sense mutation
47. The phosphorylation of proteins is carried out by the group of enzymes known as
 (A) Phosphatases (B) Hydrolases (C) Kinases (D) Lipases
48. The pH of lysosomes is
(A) Acidic (B) Basic (C) Neutral (D) Zwitterionic
49. Myelin sheath is present around
(A) Muscle cells (B) Myosin (C) Cilia and flagella (D) Neurons
50. During DNA synthesis in E. coli, the leading strand of the nascent DNA molecule is
synthesized by which enzyme?
(A) DNA polymerase I (B) DNA polymerase II
(C) DNA polymerase III (D) DNA ligase
51. Stem cells can be used in the treatment of Diabetes disease as they can be differentiated
into
(A) smooth muscles (B) skeletal muscles
(C) neurons (D) β cells of the pancreas
52. All of the followings are the inactive form of the enzyme except
(A) Trypsin (B) Trypsinogen
(C) Chymotrypsinogen (D) Pepsinogen
53. All of the following are the phospholipids that are present in the eukaryotic plasma
membrane except
(A) Cholesterol (B) Phosphatidylcholine (PC)
(C) Phosphatidyl inositol (PI) (D) Phosphatidylserine (PS)
54. The ability of the immune system to mount immune response against self –antigens is
called?
(A) Immune tolerance (B) Humoral immunity
(C) Autoimmunity (D) Hypersenstivity
55. Enzyme that causes hydrolysis of lipid molecules is called
(A) Restriction Endonuclease (B) Ligase
(C) Lipase (D) DNase I
56. The cells present in the cartilage tissue are called
(A) osteocytes (B) hepatocytes (C) chondrocytes (D) villi
57. BCG vaccine is used for immunization against
(A) Tetanus (B) Kala-azar (C) Hepatitis (D) Tuberculosis
58. The plasmid DNA isolated from bacteria is run in the agarose gel electrophoresis. The
closed circular plasmid DNA runs _______ nicked circular plasmid DNA.
(A) slower than (B) faster than
(C) at the same place as (D) very close to the
59. Which of the following glycosaminoglycan chain is not sulfated
(A) Hyaluronan (B) Chondroitin (C) Dermatan (D) Keratan
60. The peptide bond is present in
(A) Polysaccharides (B) RNA (C) Nucleic acids (D) Proteins

61. Tetanus is caused by

(A) Clostridium tetani (B) Clostridium diphthereae
(C) Pseudomonas tetani (D) Pseudomonas pneumoneae
62. The peptidoglycan layer is composed of
(A) Glycoproteins (B) Only peptides
(C) Only carohydrates (D) Glycoaminoglycans and peptides
63. The transport of molecules across the membrane from its higher concentration side to
the lower concentration side with the help of a transporter is called facilitated transport. It
requires _______.
(A) ATP (B) GTP (C) no ATP (D) CTP
64. Which of the following is a micronutrient?
(A) Phosphorus (B) Cobalt (C) Calcium (D) Potassium
65. The most accepted Fluid-mosaic model for the membrane was proposed by
(A) Danielli Robertson (B) Singer and Nicolson
(C) Davson (D) Robertson
66. Asthma in certain persons may be caused due to
(A) eating of some seasonal vegetables
(B) inhalation of certain air-borne pollens
(C) exposure to cold temperature
(D) absence of CO2 in the air due to increased rate of photosynthesis
67. HIV mainly infects
(A) Cytotoxic T Lymphocytes (B) Helper T Lymphocytes
(C) NK cells (D) Killer lymphocytes
68. Coenzymes are generally
(A) proteins (B) vitamins (C) sugars (D) lipids
69. Digestive enzymes are
(A) ligases (B) dehydrogenases (C) hydrolases (D) isomerases
70. Middle piece of sperm contains
(A) golgi complex (B) mitochondria (C) centrioles (D) ribosomes
71. The sinusoids are found in which organ?
(A) Kidney (B) Liver (C) Stomach (D) Skeletal Muscle
72. Which of the following is the chief energy food in a cell?
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Lipids (C) Proteins (D) Nucleotides
73. Polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) are precursors of local hormones like
(A) Prostaglandins (B) Triglycerides (C) Phospholipids (D) Phosphatidic acid
74. This exerts a protective effect against the development of atherosclerosis
(A) LDL (B) HDL (C) VLDL (D) Cholesterol
75. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of
(A) White blood cells (B) Red Blood Cells
(C) Platelets (D) Megakaryocytes
x-x-x
 MSc(2Yr)(Instrumentation)
1. Solution of which of the following will have maximum pH value?
(A) NaCl (B) Na2Co3 (C) NH4Cl (D) NaHCO3
2. Which of the following is the lightest gas?
(A) Nitrogen (B) Helium (C) Oxygen (D) Hydrogen
3. Strongest bond is
(A) C - C (B) C – H (C) C –N (D) C – O
4. Longest bond is
(A) C – C (B) C = C (C) C ≡ C (D) All are equal
5. All galvanic cells do not contain
(A) A Cathode (B) An Anode (C) Ions (D) A porous plate
6. Faradays law of electrolysis are related to the
(A) Atomic number of the reaction (B) Atomic number of the anions
(C) Equivalent weight of the electrolyte (D) Speed of the cations
7. Which particles act as a current carrier in a metallic conductor
(A) Only Electrons (B) Only Ions
(C) Electrons and Defect Electrons (D) Electrons and Ion
8. If an atom losses one or more electrons it becomes
(A) Electrically Neutral (B) Electrically Positive
(C) Insulator (D) A Neutral Ion
9. Static electricity is produced by
(A) Chemical Reaction (B) Friction
(C) Induction (D) Both Friction And Induction
10. One coulombs of electricity is equal to
(A) 6×1012 Electrons (B) 6×1010 Electrons
(C) 6×1015 Electrons (D) 6×1018 Electrons
11. Mica or ceramic condenser is a type of
(A) Fixed Condenser (B) Variable Condenser
(C) Electrolytic Condenser (D) Fixed Resistance
12. A dielectric material must be
(A) Insulated (B) Good conductor (C) Register (D) None of these
13. Which is the unit and symbol of resistance
(A) Unit: Ampere (A); Symbol: I (B) Unit: Ohm (Ώ); Symbol:R
(C) Unit: Ohm (Ώ); Symbol: V (D) Unit: Ohm (Ώ); Symbol:I
14. The metre which measures voltage is known as
(A) Avo Meter (B) Ampere Meter (C) Voltmeter (D) Multimeter
15. Which of the flowing materials has a negative temperature co-efficient
(A) Aluminium (B) Iron (C) Carbon (D) Nichrome
16. Unit of electrical energy is
 (A) Watt (W) (B) Kilo-watt (kW)
(C) Kilo-Watt-hour (kWh) (D) Joule (J)
17. What is the unit and symbol for magnetic flux
(A) Unit: Tesla (T); Symbol: B (B) Unit: Maxwell (M); Symbol: Θ
(C) Unit: Tesla (T); Symbol: Θ (D) Unit: Weber (Wb); Symbol: φ
18. Which is the symbol and unit for inductance
(A) Symbol: Rm; Unit: Weber (Wb) (B) Symbol: XL; Unit:Henry (H)
(C) Symbol: L; Unit: Gauss (G) (D) Symbol: L; Unit:Henry (H)
19. An inductor stores energy in
(A) Electrostatic Field (B) Electromagnetic Field
(C) Magnetic Field (D) Core
20. Admittance is the reciprocal of
(A) Impedance (B) Reactance (C) Susceptance (D) Inductance
21. In a RLC series circuit, during resonance, the impedance will be
(A) Zero (B) Minimum (C) Maximum (D) None of these
22. Instrument used for separation of isotopes are known as
(A) Mass Spectrograph (B) Atomic Spectrograph
(C) Molecular Spectrograph (D) All of Above
23. An alloy of copper and zinc is called
(A) Brass (B) Bronze (C) Gunmetal (D) Semiconductor
24. A PN junction is
(A) Rectifier (B) An Amplifier (C) An Insulator (D) Ammeter
25. The material used for photoconductive cell is
(A) ZnS (B) PbS (C) CdS (D) Iron
26. The material which is not a semiconductor is
(A) Selenium (B) Gallium-Arsenide (C) Silica (D) Carborundum
27. The forbidden energy gap of germanium is
(A) 0.3 electron volt (B) 3.5 electron volt (C) 0.7 electron volt (D) 1.12 electron volt
28. Why is the air gap between starter and armature of an electric motor kept as small as
possible
(A) to get stronger magnetic field (B) to make the rotation easier
(C) to reach a higher speed of rotation (D) to improve the air circulation
29. The efficiency of a DC machine is of the order of
(A) 90% (B) 75% (C) 60% (D) 99%
30. The efficiency of a motor is generally expressed as
(A) (Input-loss)/ Input (B) Input/output
(C) Output/ (output + loss) (D) Output only
31. Transformer works on
(A) AC (B) DC (C) AC and DC both (D) Pulsating DC
32. Transformer works on the principle of
(A) Self-induction only
(B) Mutual induction only
(C) Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction
(D) Self and mutual induction both
33. The metre used for measuring potential difference of a circuit is called
(A) Voltmeter (B) Ammeter (C) Energy Meter (D) Ohm Meter
34. The essential requirement of measuring instrument is
(A) Deflecting Torque (B) Controlling Torque
(C) Damping Torque (D) All The Above
35. The commonly used type of single-phase energy metre is
(A) Dynamometer type (B) Electrostatic type
(C) Induction type (D) Moving coil type
36. Hysteresis in an instrument means
(A) The repeatability of the instrument
(B) The reliability of the instrument
(C) The change in same reading when input is first increased and then decreased
(D) The inaccuracy due to change in temperature
37. Inductance is measured by
(A) Wein bridge (B) Schering bridge
(C) Maxwell bridge (D) Hay bridge
38. Which bridge is used to determine frequency
(A) Anderson bridge (B) De-Sauty’s bridge
(C) Wien bridge (D) Can’t be measured
39. A CRO uses
(A) Electromagnetic focusing (B) Electrostatic focusing
(C) Both focusing techniques (D) No focusing technique
40. The error of an instrument is normally given as a percentage of
(A) Measured value (B) Full scale value
(C) Mean value (D) RMS value
41. Which of the following devices cannot be used to measure pressure
(A) LVDT (B) Strain Gauge (C) Pyrometer (D) Pirani Gauge
42. Pirani gauge is used to measure
(A) Very high pressure (B) Very low pressure
(C) Atmospheric pressure (D) All of these
43. In a feedback system the transit response
(A) Decays at a constant rate (B) Gets magnified
(C) Decay is slowly (D) Decays more quickly
44. The frequency and time domain are related through
(A) Laplace transform (B) Fourier integral
(C) Laplace transform of Fourier integral (D) Laplace transform and Fourier integral
45. The second order system in standard form has a characteristic equation s2+2ζωns+ωn=0.
In the system if ζ=1, the system is
(A) Underdamped (B) Absolutely damped
(C) Critically Damped (D) Overdamped
46. The transfer function of a proportional controller is of the type
(A) KC (B) Ts (C) 1/Ts (D) 1/(Ts+1)
47. Thyristors are basically
(A) SCRs (B) Traics
(C) Both SCR and Traics (D) All PNPN devices
48. An SCR is a
(A) Three-layer 3 terminal device (B) Three-layer 4 terminal device
(C) Four-layer 3 terminal device (D) Have no terminals
49. Which of the following devices is a three-layer device
(A) SCS (B) SUS (C) Triac (D) Diac
50. The liberation of electrons from the surface of a substance is called the
(A) Bombardment of electrons (B) Electronic emission
(C) Moment of free electrons (D) Ions emission
51. The work function of metal is generally expressed in
(A) Joules (B) Volts (C) Electrons (D) Electron volts
52. The semiconductors are replacing electron tubes because they are
(A) Light in weight
(B) Smaller in size
(C) Longer in life and greater in the goodness
(D) All of these
53. The majority charge carriers in N-type semiconductors are
(A) Holes (B) Electrons (C) Neutrons (D) Impurities
54. The donor type of impurity is
(A) Phosphorus (B) Aluminium (C) Boron (D) Iron
55. In full wave rectifier diodes conduct for
(A) One half cycle (B) Full cycle
(C) Alternate half cycle (D) Do not operate

56. The number of diode's required in a bridge rectifier circuit is

(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
57. The arrow in a transistor symbol indicates the direction of current in
(A) Base (B) Collector (C) Emitter (D) Battery
58. The quartz crystal has
(A) High Q (B) Low Q (C) Medium Q (D) Porous structure
59. Rectifier converts
(A) DC to AC (B) Increases voltage
(C) Converts AC to DC (D) Limits the current
60. How many digits in Binary notations are required for decimal number 17?
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 7 (D) 5
61. The 2’s compliment of the number 0,0001 is
(A) 1,1100 (B) 0,1101 (C) 1,1101 (D) 0,1100
62. Schmitt trigger can be used as a
(A) Comparator (B) Square wave generator
(C) Flip flop (D) All of these
63. A ring counter is same as
(A) Up down counter (B) Parallel counter
(C) Shift register (D) Latch
64. Which of the following flip flops is used as Latch
(A) JK flip flop (B) D flip flop (C) T flip flop (D) All of these
65. The output of a JK flip flop toggles when
(A) J=1, K=0 (B) J=0, K=1 (C) J=1, K=1 (D) J=0, K=0
66. Which of the following can be used as inverter
(A) AND Gate (B) OR Gate (C) NOR Gate (D) None of these
67. Which of the following logic is the fastest
(A) TTL (B) ECL (C) CMOS (D) LSI
68. In the small-scale integration (SSI) chip contains
(A) Less than 5 gates (B) Less than 12 gates
(C) Less than 100 gates (D) Less than 500 gates
69. A + B= Y is the Boolean expression of
(A) OR gate (B) NOR gate (C) AND gate (D) NAND gate
70. Decade counter requires
(A) 2 flip flops (B) 3 flip flops (C) 4 flip flops (D) 100 flip flops
71. The centre processing unit of a small computer system, including ALU and control
functions on a single LSI chip is called
(A) Hardware (B) Memory (C) Microprocessor (D) Peripheral device
72. A device in which computer information and data are stored and relieved at a later time
is called
(A) Hardware (B) Memory (C) Microprocessor (D) Peripheral device
73. A program structure that allows the repeated operation of a particular sequence of
instructions until a specified termination is reached is called
(A) Sub routine (B) Machine (C) Module (D) Loop
74. A block of successive memory locations that is accessible on a last-in first-out (LIFO)
basis is called
 (A) Accumulator (B) Register (C) Program counter (D) Stack
75. Microprocessor contains
(A) Most of the control and arithmetic logic functions of a computer
(B) Most of the RAM
(C) Most of the ROM
(D) Peripheral drivers
x-x-x
ROUGH WORK
 M.Tech (Instrumentation)
1. What is an electric current?
(A) The power that moves electrons
(B) The random movement of electrons in a conductor
(C) The pressure difference between two poles
(D) Movement of free electrons predominantly in one direction
2. How can one calculate the quantity of charge flowing through a conductor in time t
when a current I flows through it?
(A) Q=Ixt (B) Q=I/t (C) Q=VxIxt (D) Q= (VxI)/t
3. What is the unit of charge?
(A) Volt-ampere (VA) (B) Henry (H) (C) Farad (F) (D) Coulomb (C)
4. In a single-phase AC motor condenser is used
(A) For splitting the phase (B) Minimising the radio interference
(C) Minimising the losses (D) Minimising the current
5. In AC inductive circuit condenser is used
(A) For decreasing the power factor (B) For improving the power factor
(C) For keeping the power factor constant (D) Does not affect power factor
6. The electromotive force is
(A) The torque produced by a motor
(B) The force experienced by electro magnet
(C) The force with which current carrying conductors attract or repel each other
(D) The voltage produced by a voltage source
7. In a parallel plate capacitor dielectric slab is introduced the potential difference the
plates will
(A) Decrease (B) Remain the same (C) Increases (D) Becomes zero
8. Which medium has the highest value of dielectric strength
(A) Mica (B) Porcelain (C) Quartz (D) Glass
9. A variable capacitor is one whose capacitance
(A) Changes with time (B) Changes with temperature
(C) Changes with voltage (D) Can be changed
10. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) A ceramic capacitor must be connected in correct polarity
(B) Electrolytic capacitor must be connected in correct polarity
(C) Mica capacitors are available in capacitance values of 1 to 10 µF
(D) Air capacitors have black band to indicate the outside foil
11. In a resistor if there is no colour band for tolerance it implies that tolerance is
(A) ±10Ώ (B) ±10% (C) ±20% (D) Infinite
12. With the increase in temperature the insulating property of insulator
(A) Weakens (B) Gains (C) Remains same (D) Rapidly increases
13. In a pure inductive circuit, the current will
(A) Lag the voltage by 90 degree (B) Lead the voltage by 90 degree
(C) Remains in phase (D) Makes same angle with the voltage
14. With the increase of frequency capacitive reactance of the circuit
(A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Remain same (D) None of these
15. As the resistance of circuit is increased the Q factor
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remain same (D) Becomes Infinite
16. The effective value of AC is obtained by multiplying
(A) 0.707 by maximum value (B) 0.707 by average value
(C) 0.636 by maximum value (D) 0.636 by average value
17. Which of the following process is based upon the chemical effect of electric current?
(A) Soft soldering with solder iron (B) Hard soldering with a flame
(C) Electroplating (D) Electric welding
18. In which of the following voltage sources is the voltage produced by chemical
transformation?
(A) In a D.C. Generator (B) In a photo element
(C) In 3 phase alternators (D) In a zinc carbon element
19. A network is said to be nonlinear if it does not satisfy
(A) Superposition condition
(B) Homogeneity condition
(C) Both superposition and homogeneity conditions
(D) Associative condition
20. An inductor at t=0 with initial condition act as
(A) Short circuit (B) Open circuit (C) Current source (D) Voltage source

21. An inductor at t=0 with initial current I0 act as a

(A) Short circuit (B) Open circuit (C) Current source (D) Voltage source
22. A passive network has
(A) No EMF source
(B) No current source
(C) Neither EMF source nor current source
(D) None of these
23. Millman's theorem yields
(A) equivalent voltage source (B) equivalent admittance
(C) equivalent resistance (D) equivalent impedance
24. The Laplace transform of a ramp function is
(A) s (B) 1/s2 (C) 1/s (D) 0.5
25. Regarding Norton’s equivalent which of the following is not correct
(A) Norton's equivalent is the voltage equivalent of network
 (B) Norton’s equivalent is the current equivalent of network
(C) Norton’s equivalent resistance is the same as Thevenin resistance
(D) the load is connected in parallel to the Norton’s equivalent resistance and
Norton’s equivalent source

26. The value of current at resonance in a series RLC circuit is affected by the value of
(A) R (B) L (C) C (D) R, L and C
27. For a prototype high pass filter the series element is
(A) Resistive
(B) Inductive
(C) Capacitive
(D) Combination of inductance and capacitance
28. An ideal voltage source should be have
(A) Zero source resistance (B) Infinite source resistance
(C) Large value of emf (D) Another supporting voltage source
29. Kirchhoff’s voltage law states that
(A) The total voltage drop in a series circuit is always finite
(B) The sum of emf and voltage drop in a closed loop is zero
(C) The sum of emf in a series circuit is zero
(D) None of these
30. In Graphite, bonding is
(A) Coordinate (B) Metallic (C) Ionic (D) Covalent
31. In Germanium, bonding is
(A) Covalent (B) Metallic (C) Ionic (D) All of these
32. Eddy current in a core can be minimised by
(A) Decreasing the flux density (B) Laminating the core
(C) Reducing core volume (D) Decreasing the number of turns
33. In annealing process of heat treatment cooling of steel is carried out in
(A) Air (B) Oil
(C) Water in the furnace itself (D) The furnace itself
34. Stainless steels are alloys of
(A) Iron and nickel (B) Iron, chromium and nickel
(C) Iron, chromium and molybdenum (D) Iron and zinc
35. An example of piezoelectric material is
(A) Corundum (B) Pure iron (C) Quartz (D) Stainless steel
36. Which of the following is a good conductor of heat and electricity?
(A) Metals (B) Ceramics (C) Polymer (D) None of these
37. What is the type of atomic bonding found in CH4?
(A) Ionic (B) Covalent (C) Van Dar waals (D) None of these
38. The nature of atomic bond found in diamond is
(A) Ionic (B) Covalent (C) Metallic (D) Loosely bonded
39. It is possible to obtain P type or N type semiconductor from a single compound by
adding Ge that compound is
(A) InSb (B) GaP (C) GaAs (D) Boron
40. Fermi level is
(A) The highest occupied level at 0 degree
(B) The highest available level at 0 degree
(C) The highest velocity of electron of 0 degree
(D) There is no such term exist
41. Electric power is transferred from one coil to the other coil in a transformer
(A) Electrically (B) Electromagnetically
(C) Magnetically (D) Physically
42. Which is the common method of cooling a power transformer
(A) Air cooling (B) Air blast cooling (C) Oil cooling (D) Natural cooling
43. What is the typical use of an auto transformer
(A) Isolating transformer (B) Toy transformer
(C) Control transformer (D) Variable transformer
44. Efficiency in transformer is maximum at
(A) Full load (B) Half the full load
(C) One third the full load (D) No load
45. No load test on a transformer is carried out to determine
(A) Copper loss (B) Full load current
(C) Magnetizing current (D) Efficiency of the transformer
46. The main purpose of performing open circuit test at rated voltage is to measure
(A) Copper loss (B) Core loss (C) Total loss (D) Insulation resistance
47. The rotor of a three-phase induction motor always runs at
(A) Synchronous speed (B) Less than synchronous speed
(C) More than synchronous speed (D) Pulsating D.C. supply
48. The ratio of no-load current to full load current offer 3 phase induction motor is about
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.2 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.8
49. Which of the following is not a part of a squirrel case induction motor?
(A) Rotor (B) Stator (C) Carbon brushes (D) Shaft
50. The metre used for measuring electrical energy of consumer is called
(A) watt meter (B) ampere hour meter (C) kWh metre (D) Avometer

51. The deflecting torque can be produced by

(A) Gravity control (B) Spring control (C) Air friction (D) Magnetically
52. Electrostatic effect is used for producing deflecting torque in
(A) Wattmeter (B) Voltmeter (C) Ammeter (D) Energy meter
53. Moving iron instruments are
(A) Attraction type (B) Repulsion type
(C) Attraction and repulsion type (D) Dynamometer type
54. Moving coil instruments are
(A) Permanent magnet type (B) Dynamometer type
(C) Induction type (D) Permanent magnet and dynamometer type
55. Megger is used for measuring
(A) Lower resistance (B) Higher resistance
(C) Medium resistance (D) Very low resistance
56. Multimeter can be used for measuring
(A) Alternating current quantities (B) DC quantities
(C) AC and DC quantities both (D) Pulsating DC quantities
57. A CRO can display
(A) AC signals (B) DC signals
(C) Both AC and DC signals (D) Time-invariant signals
58. VTVM provides more accurate reading in high resistance circuit as compared to
voltmeter because of its
(A) High V/ohm ratings (B) High ohms/V ratings
(C) Low meter resistance (D) High resolution
59. Inductance is measured in terms of capacitance and resistance by
(A) Schering bridge (B) Anderson bridge
(C) Maxwell-Wein bridge (D) Wein bridge
60. Schering bridge can be used to measure
(A) capacitance and its power factor (B) Q of the coil
(C) inductance and its Q value (D) very small resistance
61. A digital voltmeter has 4 1/2-digit display. The 1V range can read up to
(A) 9999 (B) 9.999 (C) 1.9999 (D) 19999
62. Creeping in energy meter can be prevented by providing
(A) one whole on the disc (B) two holes on opposite side of the disc
(C) extra voltage coil in the metre (D) use plastic dis
63. Lissajious are used to measure
(A) voltage and frequency (B) frequency and phase shift
(C) frequency and amplitude distortion (D) amplitude and flux

64. Wein bridge is useful for measuring

(A) very high frequency (B) no frequency
(C) medium frequency (D) high frequency
65. The second order system in standard form has a characteristic equation s2+2ζωos+ωo=0.
In the system if ζ>1, the system is
(A) Underdamped (B) Absolutely damped
 (C) Critically Damped (D) Overdamped
66. The type-0 system has
(A) Net pole at the origin (B) No pole at the origin
(C) Simple pole at the origin (D) Two poles at the origin
67. A temperature control system is known as
(A) Process control system (B) Servo mechanism
(C) Cascade control system (D) Interacting system
68. A position control system is a
(A) Automatic regulating system (B) Process control system
(C) Servomechanism (D) Stochastic control system
69. The output impedance of an ideal operational amplifier is
(A) Zero (B) Infinite (C) Few kilo ohms (D) Few ohms
70. Which of the following is a sequential circuit
(A) AND GATE (B) NAND GATE
(C) Bistable multivibrator (D) XOR GATE
71. A byte is
(A) A group of 2 bits (B) A group of 4 bits (C) A group of 8 bits (D) Group of 16 bits
72. A programmer counter is a storage register for
(A) Location of data in memory
(B) Location of instruction in memory
(C) Binary code for the operation to be performed
(D) Address of the next instruction to be executed
73. A central processing unit of a computer contains
(A) Control and arithmetic logic unit (B) Control and RAM
(C) Control, clock, RAM and ROM (D) Control alu clock RAM and ROM
74. A program that translates symbolized instructions into their binary equivalents is called
(A) Loader (B) Assembler (C) Linker (D) Autoloader
75. Address usually is
(A) Alphabetical (B) Numerical (C) Alphanumerical (D) Of 8 bits only
x-x-x