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IMAT 2024
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Reading skills and knowledge acquired during studies

1. Who is the author of the famous novel To the Lighthouse?

A) Emily Dickinson
B) Virginia Wolf
C) Mary Shelley
D) Agatha Christie
E) Jane Austen

2. Based on historical records, we can say that many ancient societies devised symbols
to represent numbers and solutions to mathematical problems. Although thinkers began
to take the first steps towards mathematics early on, it can be asserted that only with
Greek civilisation did this discipline acquire the abstract and general characteristics that
render it distinct and render it a unique science. It is noteworthy that mathematics
evolved into an abstract and general science at a deliberate pace. Documents from
pre-Greek civilisations indicate that solutions to mathematical problems were confined to
specific, tangible cases. These documents convey the impression that mathematical
concepts were communicated sporadically and non-methodically (occasionally even
fortuitously), and were treated as useful information geared towards practical outcomes.
MANARA, LUCCHINI Momenti del pensiero matematico - Mursia
Which of the following CANNOT be inferred from the text?
A) Symbols representing numbers had already been adopted in antiquity.
B) The evolution of mathematics has been an extremely slow process.
C) In antiquity, mathematical notions were not communicated in a methodical manner.
D) Since antiquity, mathematics has been characterized by abstractness and generality.
E) In antiquity, mathematical notions were geared towards practical outcomes.

3. The Hundred Years' War was principally a conflict between which of the following
kingdoms?
A) The Kingdom of France and the Kingdom of England
B) The Kingdom of England and the Kingdom of Portugal
C) The Kingdom of Aragon and the Kingdom of France
D) The Kingdom of Castile and the Kingdom of Portugal
E) The Kingdom of Aragon and The Kingdom of Castile

4. In which of the following is the verb passive?

A) In the Iliad, Homer sings the deeds of the Pelide Achilles.
B) In the Gallic Wars, Julius Caesar described in detail his military campaign to conquer Gaul.
C) The deeds of Aeneas were sung by Virgil.
D) In one of his works, Plato associates solid forms to the four elements: octahedron to air,
tetrahedron to fire, cube to earth, and icosahedron to water.
E) Many students read Greek tragedies in high school.
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Logical reasoning and problem-solving

5. The following table shows the results of a test:

To pass the test, a mark of higher than 5 is needed. What percentage of the candidates passed
the test?
A) 20%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 24%
E) 25%

6. Shelly is one of 1500 participants in a Latin contest. 12% of the participants will receive
as a prize either a silver-plated or gold-plated pen. If the number of silver-plated pens is
twice the number of gold-plated ones, what is the probability that Shelly will receive a
gold-plated one?
A) 67%
B) 4%
C) 33%
D) 6%
E) 8%

7. Two consecutive discounts of 10% and 20% are equal to a single discount of:
A) 18%
B) 25%
C) 28%
D) 30%
E) 15%

8. Stacie builds a cube using 343 blocks of wood. She decides to paint the cube green.
How many of the wooden blocks will have at least one side painted green?
A) 105
B) 125
C) 238
D) 218
E) 245
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9. “When he takes the train, Marco always arrives at work on time.”

Which of the following statements can be deduced from the preceding proposition?
A) Marco arrived late; therefore he did not take the train.
B) Marco took his car; therefore he arrived on time.
C) Marco did not take the train; therefore he arrived late.
D) Marco arrived on time; therefore he missed the train.
E) Marco arrived late; therefore he took the train.

Biology

10. Which process occurs within mitochondria?

A) Photosynthesis
B) The formation of microbodies
C) Cellular respiration
D) Glycolysis
E) The methylation of sugars

11. What is a hydrogen bond?

A) It is a bond between a hydrogen atom and another strongly electronegative atom (such as
oxygen or nitrogen) which is present in another molecule.
B) It is a bond between hydrogen and ionised atoms (such as phosphorus).
C) It is the bond which occurs between hydrogen and oxygen within a water molecule.
D) It is a strong bond which allows bonding between non-polar molecules.
E) It is a covalent bond between hydrogen and oxygen.

12. In eukaryotic cells, Krebs cycle reactions occur:

A) In the mitochondrial matrix
B) On the internal membrane of the mitochondria
C) In the large ribosomal subunit
D) Close to the plasma membrane
E) In the cytoplasm

13. What kind of monosaccharide is glucose?

A) Pentose
B) Nonose
C) Tetrose
D) Triose
E) Hexose

14. Which pentose sugar is present in RNA nucleotides?

A) Lactose
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B) Ribose
C) Fructose
D) Glucose
E) Glycerol

15. What are carrier proteins?

A) They are proteins that phosphorylate enzymes in the plasma membrane.
B) They are proteins that break down phospholipids in the plasma membrane.
C) They are the proteins that transfer molecules and ions across the plasma membrane.
D) They are proteins that transport tRNA in the nucleolus.
E) They are proteins that transport mRNA in the nucleus.

16. What is the cell’s energy currency?

A) Creatine
B) ATP
C) NADPH
D) NADH
E) FADH2

17. Which kind of reaction is ATP hydrolysis?

A) Condensation
B) Lipolysis
C) Exergonic
D) Endergonic
E) Oxidation-reduction

18. The presence of intercellular compartmentalisation is a characteristic of which

organisms?
A) Of eukaryotes
B) Of prokaryotes
C) Of viruses
D) Of bacteria
E) Only of algae

19. Which intracellular structure is composed of microtubules?

A) The endoplasmic reticulum
B) The nucleus
C) The centriole
D) The Golgi apparatus
E) The nucleolus
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20. Mitochondria have:

A) An outer membrane consisting of a phospholipid monolayer
B) A very selective membrane in which no proteins are present
C) An outer membrane, an intermediate membrane, and a very selective inner membrane
D) An outer membrane and a very selective inner membrane
E) Only a very selective outer membrane

21. What is an anticodon?

A) A terminal triplet of rRNA that binds a specific amino acid
B) A sequence of three mRNA nucleotides corresponding to a DNA codon
C) A part of the DNA that codes for a specific amino acid
D) The sequence of three nucleotides found on the tRNA corresponding to a codon on the
mRNA.
E) A sequence of three nucleotides transcribed from the mRNA and translated by rRNA

22. What are ribosomes made of?

A) DNA and lipids
B) RNA, DNA, and proteins
C) RNA and DNA
D) RNA and proteins
E) DNA and proteins

23. The cell membrane consists of:

A) A double phospholipid layer with hydrophobic tails facing inward and the presence of integral
and peripheral proteins
B) Cholesterol and phospholipid molecules enclosing a protein layer
C) A double layer of triglycerides and cholesterol
D) A glycoprotein layer containing phospholipids and cholesterol
E) A layer of fatty acids and globular proteins containing phospholipids and cholesterol

24. In protein synthesis, what is translation?

A) It is the process in which DNA is read and the corresponding mRNA produced.
B) It is the process of pairing between DNA codons and tRNA anticodons.
C) It is the process of transcribing the mRNA sequence into a corresponding DNA molecule.
D) It is the process by which mRNA is read and converted into a specific sequence of amino
acids.
E) It is the process of specific recognition of rRNA by amino acids.

25. What are the principal components of the cytoskeleton?

A) Microtubules, microfilaments, and intermediate filaments
B) Collagen fibres and reticular fibres
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C) Actin, myosin, and dynein

D) Microtubules, myosin, and filamin
E) Microtubules, dynein, and myosin

26. The term “allele” defines:

A) A set of coding DNA triplets for a specific amino acid
B) One of several alternative forms of a gene
C) The phenotypic manifestation of a given gene
D) A hereditary trait only found in haploid cells
E) A coding DNA base for a specific amino acid

27. In a heterozygous condition, an allele can certainly express itself when:

A) Multiple
B) Recessive
C) Dominant
D) Mutated
E) Associated

28. What are mutations?

A) Alterations in the genetic information of a cell
B) Alteration in the active transport system of biological membranes
C) Alteration in the energy metabolism of a cell
D) Alterations in enzyme functionality during zygote formation
E) Alterations in the mechanism of cell division.

29. Translation is a process which:

A) Leads to the synthesis of polypeptide chains from mRNA
B) Is very similar to transcription
C) Leads to the synthesis of RNA from DNA
D) Occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells
E) Is exclusively eukaryotic

30. If the sequence CCGTTATTGA is found on a strand of DNA helix, what sequence will
be found on the complementary strand?
A) GGACATCCCT
B) CGCACCTCCT
C) AGTTATTGCC
D) GGCAATAACT
E) GGCAATTAAT
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31. Replication is the process through which:

A) RNA is used as a template to synthesise new RNA molecules
B) DNA is used as a template to synthesise new DNA molecules
C) DNA is used as a template to synthesise new RNA molecules
D) Daughter cells are formed from a mother cell
E) RNA is used as a template to synthesise proteins

32. The prokaryotic operon is:

A) A DNA sequence element without any type of regulatory function
B) A functional unit composed of a group of adjacent genes, co-ordinately controlled, and of
DNA sequences with regulatory functions.
C) A group of adjacent genes independent from each other
D) An RNA complex that is involved in the replication of DNA
E) A protein complex that catalyses the process of protein synthesis.

Chemistry

33. A mixture of 0.3 mol of N₂, 0.5 mol of CO₂, and 0.4 mol of O₂ exerts a pressure of 2.4
atm on the walls of the vessel that contains it. What is the pressure exerted by the
nitrogen?
A) 0.75 atm
B) 0.5 atm
C) 0.3 atm
D) 0.8 atm
E) 0.6 atm

34. A gas, confined in a rigid cylinder and maintained at a temperature of −3 °C exerts a

pressure of 9 atm. What pressure would the same gas exert if it were heated to 27 °C?
A) 8.1 atm
B) −81 atm
C) 12.5 atm
D) 10 atm
E) 9.6 atm

35. Which of the following compounds forms a hydroxide when reacting with water?
A) SO₃
B) SiO₂
C) Cl₂O
D) N₂O₃
E) BaO
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36. Given the theoretical reaction yield of 4 FeS₂ + 11 O₂ → 2 Fe₂O₃ + 8 SO₂, which of the
following statements is correct?
A) From 2 mol of FeS₂ and 11 mol of O₂, 1 mol of Fe₂O₃ can be obtained.
B) From 10 mol of O₂ and 1 mol of FeS₂, 3 mol of SO₂ can be obtained.
C) To obtain 1 mol of Fe₂O₃, 2 mol of FeS₂ and 5 mol of O₂ are necessary.
D) To obtain 1 mol of Fe₂O₃ and 6 mol of SO₂, 2 mol of FeS₂ and 9 mol of O₂ are necessary.
E) From 4 mol of O₂ and 11 mol of FeS₂, 8 mol of SO₂ can be obtained.

37. How many mL of water must be added to 15 mL of a 0.25 M solution of H₂SO₄ to

obtain a 0.05 M solution?
A) 50 mL
B) 30 mL
C) 120 mL
D) 75 mL
E) 60 mL

38. How many Na⁺ ion moles can be found in 250 mL of a 1.2 M solution of Na₂SO₄?
A) 1.8
B) 0.4
C) 0.6
D) 1.2
E) 0.3

39. In the reaction NH₃ + BF₃ ⇄ NH₃BF₃, the ammonia behaves as a:

A) Lewis base
B) Brönsted acid
C) Arrhenius base
D) Brönsted base
E) Lewis acid

40. Zinc nitrate, nitrogen dioxide, and water are obtained from the reaction of metallic
zinc and nitric acid in an aqueous solution. What is the reducing species?
A) Zn²⁺(aq)
B) H⁺(aq)
C) Zn(NO₃)₂(aq)
D) HNO₃(aq)
E) Zn(s)

41. Which of the following compounds contains the most hydrogen atoms?
A) Cyclohexane
B) 2-Hexanol
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C) 1,2-Dimethylcyclobutane
D) 2,3-Dimethylpentane
E) 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene

42. A carbon-oxygen double bond is NOT present in which of the following molecules?
A) Methyl acetate
B) Acetaldehyde
C) Acetone
D) Dimethyl ether
E) Acetic acid

43. Various units of measurement can be used to express the value of pressure. Which of
the following values of pressure does NOT correspond to 1 atm?
A) 760 mmHg
B) 1013.25 kPa
C) 760 torr
D) 1013 millibar
E) 101325 Pa

44. Given that the relative atomic mass of nitrogen is 14 u, how many nitrogen atoms are
present in 0.7 g of gaseous nitrogen?
A) 3.01×10²²
B) 1.51×10²²
C) 2.01×10
D) 6.02×10²²
E) 3.01×10²³

45. Carbon and oxygen can react at high temperatures to form CO₂. Assuming that the
relative atomic mass of the carbon is 12 u, the relative atomic mass of the oxygen is 16 u
and the yield of the reaction is 100%, what happens when 9 g of carbon reacts with 36 g
of oxygen?
A) 18 g of oxygen remain.
B) 45 g of CO₂ are produced.
C) 33 g of CO₂ are produced.
D) 9 g of oxygen remain.
E) 4 g of oxygen remain.

46. How much water needs to be added to 1 mL of an HCl solution with a pH of 2 to

obtain a solution with a pH of 4?
A) 99 mL
B) 2 mL
C) 1 mL
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D) 24 mL
E) 49 mL

47. According to the Brønsted−Lowry theory:

A) A base is a compound which can donate OH⁻ ions.
B) The conjugate acid is the product of the bonding of the base with an OH⁻ ion.
C) An acid is a substance which can provide a pair of electrons.
D) A strong acid forms a conjugate with a weak base.
E) The conjugate base is formed by an acid that has acquired an OH⁻ ion.

Physics and Maths

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53. Given a cylinder with a base radius of 5 cm and a height of 7 cm, what is its volume?

A) 245π cm^3

B) 175π cm^3

C) 70π cm^3

D) 105π cm^3

E) This cannot be calculated with these data

54. In a right triangle, let a and b represent the legs and c the hypotenuse. If α is the angle
opposite a, which of the following relations is true?
A) a = c sin(α)
B) a = b cos(α)
C) a = c cos(α)
D) c = a sin(α)
E) c = a cos(α)
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55. A boat is moving in a uniform straight motion at a certain speed v. If a braking force
of 210 N is applied for a distance of 5 m, how much power is developed by the braking
force?
A) 420 W
B) 8.4 W
C) 210 W
D) 1050 W
E) 105 W

56. An ideal gas is in a container placed on a thermostat at temperature T and occupies

volume V at pressure P. If the volume occupied by the gas is tripled while keeping the
temperature constant, its pressure …
A) becomes 3P
B) becomes P/3
C) becomes P/2
D) does not change
E) changes, depending on T

57. In a conductor, when a current of 10A flows, 2922W are dissipated. What is the
resistance value of the conductor?
A) 29.22 Ω
B) 2.922 Ω
C) 2922 Ω
D) 292.2 Ω
E) 29220 Ω

58. An electron in motion with a constant velocity v enters a uniform magnetic field B
perpendicularly. Given that me, e, v represent the mass, charge, and magnitude of the
electron’s velocity respectively, which of the following statements is false?
A) The electron continues to move with a constant velocity v.
B) The motion of the electron is uniformly circular with a frequency eB / 2πme.
C) The trajectory of the electron is a circle with a radius of mev / eB.
D) The motion of the electron is uniformly circular with a period of 2πme / eB.
E) The motion of the electron is circular with constant angular velocity.

59. A point particle moves along a given x-axis with the law of motion x(t) = 4 cos(ωt)
where x is in metres, t in seconds and ω = 2π rad/s. The velocity of the point particle at
the instant t=1/2s equals:
A) 0 m/s
B) approximately 25.1 m/s
C) approximately 4.2 m/s
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D) approximately −4 m/s
E) approximately 8.5 m/s

60. A pendulum rod moves from the vertical position. Which of the following statements
is false?
A) The pendulum stops after reaching a certain height and then swings back.
B) In the presence of friction, oscillatory motion is damped.
C) In the absence of friction, the motion is simple harmonic oscillation.
D) In the absence of friction, the pendulum tends to come to a stop after a certain time.
E) The pendulum describes a circular arc during its motion.

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