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Chemistry Model Examination

The document is an examination paper for Grade 12 Chemistry students at Adama Science and Technology University, consisting of 80 multiple choice questions. Students are instructed to answer all questions and provide their answers in capital letters on the answer sheet. The exam covers various topics in chemistry, including atomic theory, chemical bonding, reaction rates, and thermodynamics.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
56 views17 pages

Chemistry Model Examination

The document is an examination paper for Grade 12 Chemistry students at Adama Science and Technology University, consisting of 80 multiple choice questions. Students are instructed to answer all questions and provide their answers in capital letters on the answer sheet. The exam covers various topics in chemistry, including atomic theory, chemical bonding, reaction rates, and thermodynamics.

Uploaded by

yomidebela
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Adama Science and Technology University (ASTU) Special High School Model Grade 12

Chemistry Examinations, 2016 E.C.


Time allowed: 2:30 hrs

Name ______________________________________________
Class Room No. ______________

General Instructions:
1. Switch off your mobiles.
2. This examination paper contains Chemistry subject model examination for Grade 12
students.
3. Make sure the model examination contains a total of 80 multiple choice type questions.
4. Answer all questions. Choose the correct answer from the given alternatives and place
your answer in CAPITAL LETTERS in the space provided in ANSWER SHEET.
ANSWER SHEET
Name ______________________________I.D. No. ____________ Group _____

1 11 21 31 41 51 61 71
2 12 22 32 42 52 62 72
3 13 23 33 43 53 63 73
4 14 24 34 44 54 64 74
5 15 25 35 45 55 65 75
6 16 26 36 46 56 66 76
7 17 27 37 47 57 67 77
8 18 28 38 48 58 68 78
9 19 29 39 49 59 69 79
10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80
1. Among the following which property are intensive physical properties?
A. Mass C. Length
B. Volume D. Density
2. What is the complete definition of chemistry? It deals:
A. A bout matters and any changes associated these matters.
B. About the composition and transformation of compounds
C. About the composition and transformation of substances
D. About the composition and transformation of materials
3. According to Modern Atomic Theory which statement is not correct?
A. Compounds are formed by the combination of different atoms.
B. A chemical reaction involves only the combination, separation, or rearrangement of
atoms.
C. The existence of isotopes was clearly described
D. All the atoms of a given element have the same neutron and proton numbers.
4. The correct increasing chronological order of atomic theory is:
A) Thomson’s→Dalton’s → Rutherford’s→ Bohr’s→Mechanical
B) Dalton’s → Thomson’s→ Rutherford’s→ Bohr’s→Mechanical
C) Rutherford’s→Thomson’s→Dalton’s → Bohr’s→Mechanical
D) Bohr’s→Rutherford’s→Thomson’s→Dalton’s → Mechanical
5. Which one of the following element has the highest ionization energy?
A. Oxygen C. Nitrogen
B. Carbon D. Boron
6. The average atomic mass in amu of an element X and Z which has two naturally occurring
isotopes ( a% of & 50.2% of 107.62 Z is:
A) 104.67 C) 109.45
B) 107.65 D) 106.78
7. Nucleolus was discovered by:
A. James Chadwick C. Ernest Marsden
B. Joseph John Thomson D. Ernest Rutherford
8. Based on the given periodic table below

Which of the following is generally correct about the given trends of the elements?
A) Electronegativity increases from A to B
B) Ionization energy decreases from A to B
C) Electron affinity increases from B to A
D) Atomic radius increases from C to A
9. Which of the following characteristics does not explain the gaseous state of matters?
A) Gaseous state of matter has less dense than condensed state of matter
B) The pressure applied on gases and the density of gases has direct proportionality
C) The amount of gases does not affected by pressure and volume
D) The gases are uniformly occupy the volume of their container
10. The deterioration of tier resulted by the increased pressure and temperature proportionally at
fixed volume is stated by _______gas law.
A. Charle’s law
B. Avogadro’s law
C. Gay-Lussac’s law
D. Boyles law
11. What volume of 2.7 M H2 SO 4 is required to completely neutralize 67.5 mL of 2 M NaOH
solution?
A. 33.8 mL C. 75 mL
B. 25 mL D. 67.5 mL
12. The device used to measure the pressure of gases other than the atmosphere is known
as
A. Barometer
B. Thermometer
C. Manometer
D. Viscometer
13. What is the condensed electronic configuration of 50 Sn2+ and 50 Sn4+ , respectively?
A. [Kr] 4s2 4d10 5p2 &[Kr]4s2 4d8 5p2
B. [Kr] 4s2 4d10 & [Kr]4d10
C. [Kr] 4s2 4d10 & [Kr]4s2 4d8
D. [Kr] 4d10 5p2 & [Kr]4d8 5p2
14. On moving down a given group of the periodic table, nuclear charge progressively
increases, but effective nuclear charge remains nearly constant. What is the reason for
effective nuclear charge remains nearly constant?
A. Due to shielding effect
B. Increasing atomic mass number
C. Increasing number of periods
D. Decreasing electronegative value
15. What is the possible values of ml for the principal quantum number, n = 3?
A. -2 to +2 C. -3 to +3
B. 0,-1,0,1, -2,-1,0,1,2 D. 0, -1,0,1, -2,-1,0,1,2, -3,-2,-1
16. What is geometry or shape of iodine trichloride (ICl3 )?
A. Trigonal planar
B. T-Shape
C. Trigonal bipyramidal
D. Square planar
17. Which one of the following is true about NH3 ?
A. SP hybridized orbital with linear geometry
B. SP3 hybridized orbital with trigonal pyramidal geometry
C. SP2 hybridized orbital with trigonal geometry
D. SP3 hybridized orbital with tetrahedral geometry
18. What type of bonding formed from electrons shared by one of the reacting species only?
A. Ionic boding
B. Covalent bonding
C. Metallic boding
D. Coordinate covalent bonding
19. Which of the following are non-polar covalent compounds?
A. HCN C. H2 O
B. NH3 D. CO2
20. All of the following are false accept’
A) Two bonds comprise a double bond
B) A triple bond consists of one bond and two bonds
C) Bonds formed from s atomic orbitals are sometimes bonds
D) A bond consists of two pairs of electrons
21. The energy required to completely separate a mole of a solid ionic compound into its gaseous
ions is .
A. lattice energy C. ionization energy
B. bond energy D. sublimation energy
22. Which of the following is the highest lattice energy?
A. CsF C. LiF
B. RbF D. FrF
23. What is the possible chemical formula for magnesium (II) oxalate?
A. MgC2 O4 C. Mg2 (C2 O4 )2
B. Mg2 C2 O4 D. Mg(C2 O4 )2
24. Which of the given elements will have the electronic configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d5
A) Neon atoms C) Chromium atoms
B) Magnesium ion D) Potassium atom
25. Why noble gases do not usually form chemical compounds? This is because
A. They have very stable nuclei.
B. They already have filled valence shell electrons.
C. The bonds between their atoms are very strong.
D. They are not have electron sharing nature at all.
26. Which one of the following single displacement reaction is correct?
A. Ag (s) + 2HCl(aq) 2AgCl(s) + H2 (g)
B. Ag (s) + 2HCl(aq) 2AgCl(s) + H2 (g)
C. Zn (s) + 2HCl(aq) ZnCl2 (s) + H2 (g)
D. Au (s) + 2HCl(aq) 2AuCl(s) + H2 (g)
27. Which of the following is correctly arranged in increasing order of bond polarity?
A. OH < HF< NH < SCl C. HF < NH < OH < SCl
B. NH < OH < HF < SCl D. SCl< NH< OH<HF
28. When a reaction: is reacted in acidic medium, which
alternative is its correct balanced equation?
A)
B)
C)
D)
29. 12.3 g of Lithium reacts with 33.6 g nitrogen gas to form lithium nitride product (MWt of
N2 = 28 g/mol, Li = 7 g/mol). What is the coefficient of Li after balancing the chemical
equation?
A. 3 C. 8
B. 6 D. 2
30. Based on the question number 23 what is the limiting reactant?
A. Li B. N 2
31. How many mass in gram of lithium nitride will be produced?
A. 15.5 C. 84
B. 20.5 D. 8
32. How many mass in gram of reactants left as excess?
A. 10.5 C. 20.5
B. 8 D. 84
33. Indicate the order of the reaction with respect to each reactant A, B, and C, respectively
Exp. [ A]/mol dm-3 [B]/mol dm-3 [C]/mol dm-3 Rate / mol dm-3
1 0.1 0.1 0.1 6.2x10-4
2 0.1 0.2 0.1 1.2 x 10-3
3 0.1 0.1 0.2 6.2 x 10-4
4 0.2 0.1 0.2 2.5 x 10-3

A. 2, 1, 1 C. 1, 1, 1
B. 2, 1, 0 D. 2, 2, 1
34. What will be the rate constant of the above data (Question No. 31)?
A. 6.2x10-4
B. 1.2x10-1
C. 6.2x10-1
D. 2.5x10-1
35. If the rate constant for the first order reaction is 1.2 x 10 -7 s-1 , then what will be the value for
the half life time?
A. 5.8 x 106 s C. 7.8 x 104 s
B. 6.8 x 105 s D. 1.2 x 103 s

36. An unknown gas defuses 1.66 times more rapidly than CO 2 . What is the molar mass of the
unknown gas?
A. 34 C. 64
B. 45 D. 16
37. Consider the following reaction:
Ca(s) + 2H2 O(l)  Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g) (Molar mass of Ca= 40.08 g/mol)
At a certain temperature, 2.50 g Ca reacts completely in 30.0 seconds. The rate of
consumption of Ca is
A. 0.00208 mol/min
B. 0.125 mol/min
C. 0.0833 mol/min
D. 5.00 mol/min
38. Half life time (t1/2 ) is directly proportional to the initial concentration of the reactant in
A. 3rd order reaction
B. 1st order reaction
C. 2nd order reaction
D. 0 order reaction
39. Consider the following reaction:
CaCO 3 (s) + 2HCl(aq)  CO 2 (g) + CaCl2 (aq) + H2 O(l) + heat
In which of the following will both of the described procedures cause an increase in the rate
at which products are formed?
A. Increase [HCl] and decrease pressure.
B. Increase [HCl] and decrease temperature.
C. Increase [HCl] and increase temperature.
D. Grind up the CaCO 3 and decrease temperature
40. Consider the following reaction at equilibrium.
2CO 2 (g) ⇋ 2CO (g) + O 2 (g), Ho = -514 kJ
Le Chatelier's principle predicts that the equilibrium partial pressure of CO (g) can be
maximized by carrying out the reaction __________.
A) At high temperature and high pressure
B) at low temperature and low pressure
C) At high temperature and low pressure
D) at low temperature and high pressure
41. The average kinetic energy of colliding particles can be increased by
A. Adding a catalyst.
B. Increasing temperature
C. Increasing pressure.
D. Increasing reactant concentration.
42. Which one of the following is true about 0th Law of thermodynamics for two systems at
equilibrium?
A. No more difference in temperature between species.
B. No more difference in pressure between species.
C. No more difference in volume between species.
D. No more difference in concentration between species.
43. What can you say about the reaction and the sign of change in Enthalpy if the Enthalpy of
the products is greater than that of the reactants?
A. The reaction is endothermic and positive
B. The reaction is reversible
C. The reaction is exothermic
D. The reaction is irreversible
44. When K c >> 1 for a chemical reaction:
A. The equilibrium would be achieved rapidly
B. The equilibrium would be achieved slowly.
C. Reactants would be much more stable than products.
D. Product concentration would be much greater than reactant concentrations at equilibrium
45. Identify the incorrect statement regarding chemical equilibrium:
A. All chemical reactions are, in principle, reversible.
B. Equilibrium is achieved when the forward reaction rate equals the reverse reaction rate
C. Equilibrium is achieved when the concentration of species become constant.
D. Equilibrium is achieved when the reactant and product concentrations become equal.
46. Which of the following changes can affect the value of the equilibrium constant?
A. Introducing a catalyst
B. Changing the concentrations of species
C. Changing the temperature inside the reaction vessel
D. Changing the initial concentrations of species
47. Which of the following reactions represent hetrogeneous catalysis?
A. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
B. ( ) ( ) ( )
C. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
D. ( ) ( ) ( )
48. The acid strength of HCN<CH3 COOH<HF< HNO3 < HCOOH. Which of the following
statement is correct?
A. CN- is the weakest base
B. HCOO- is the strongest base
C. CN- is the strongest base
D. The order of strength of conjugate base is CN-< CH3 COO -> F- > NO 2 -> HCOO -
49. Which one of the following is not amphiprotic species?
A. H2 O
B. HCO 3
C. NH4 +
D. HS-
50. The true statement for the following reaction is

Ag + 2NH3 Ag(NH3)2
A. Ag+ is Brønsted-Lowry acid
B. Ag+ is Lewis acid
C. NH3 is Brønsted-Lowry Base
D. NH3 is Arrhenius base
51. Which of the following mixture is an example of a buffer solution?
A. C6 H8 O7 and Na3 C6 H5 O 7
B. KCl and HCl
C. NH4 NO3 and HNO 3
D. NaCl and NaOH
52. A specific buffer solution contains an equal concentration of X− and HX. The Kb for X− is
10-10 . What is the pH of the buffer solution?
A. 2 C. 4.
B. 3 D. 5
53. An equivalence point is:
A. It is the point at which the pressure of titrant equals the pressure of titrand
B. It is the point at which the pH of titrant equals the pH of titrand
C. It is the point at which the volume of titrant equals the volume of titrand
D. It is the point at which the quantity of titrant equals the quantity of titrand
54. A concentration cell consists of two Ag/ Ag+ half-cells. In half-cell A, electrode A dips into
0.010 M AgNO 3 ; in half-cell B, electrode B dips into 4.0 x 10-4 M AgNO 3 . What is the cell
potential at 298.15 K and which electrode has a positive charge, respectively?
A. 0.0828 V and electrode B
B. 0.0828 V and electrode A
C. 0.0328 V and electrode B
D. 0.0228 V and electrode A
55. The following chemical reaction is balanced by using half-cell reaction method, which one
is the oxidizing agent?
C2 H6 O + MnO 4 - →Mn2+ + C2 H4 O2
A. MnO 4 -
B. C2 H6 O
C. Mn2+
D. C2 H4 O2
56. What happens to the concentration of CuSO4 after electrolysis using inert electrodes?
A. Increases C. Remain the same
B. Decreases D. B and C
57. The mass of copper deposited by the electrolysis of CuSO4 solution placed in series with a
silver nitrate solution, when 0.208 g of Ag is being deposited is?
A. 0.032
B. 0.061
C. 0.042
D. 0.082
58. Which of the following is correct way of writing cell notation for Daniel cell in which the
two electrodes are immersed in 2M electrolyte solutions?
A. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
B. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
C. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
D. ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
59. Consider the following two half-cell reactions:
Sn2+ +2e → Sn, Eo = -0.140 V
Pb2+ + 2e → Pb, Eo = -0.126 V
Which of the two species reduce easily?
A. Sn2+ C. Both reduce equally
B. Pb2+ D. None
60. In a galvanic cell the generation of electricity takes place_______________
A. spontaneously C. gradually
B. non-spontaneously D. slowly
61. Which of the following does not belong to chemical industry?
A. Food processing industries
B. Beverages industries
C. Textiles industries
D. Lignt, heat, and sound industries
62. Among the list of electromagnetic radiations, which one has the highest wave number in an
electromagnetic spectrum?
A. Ultraviolet
B. Visible
C. Infrared
D. Microwave
63. If 2 moles of butane gas (C 4 H10 ) are combusted with excess of oxygen gas in the air:
( ) ( ) ( ) ()
What is the number of moles of water formed in the product side?
A. 10 moles C. 2.6 moles
B. 5 moles D. 2 moles
64. Fruits have pleasant odor due to the constituent of
A. Ester C. Ether
B. Ketone D. Carboxylic acid
65. What is correct IUPAC name for the following molecule?
CH3 -CH2 -CH=CH-CHBr-CH2 -OH
A. 2-Brom-3-hexen-1-ol C. 2-Bromohexenol
B. 5-Bromo-3-hexen-6-ol D. 2-Brom-4-hexen-1-ol
66. Consider the following structure of warfarin.

How many sigma and pie bonds are there in the above structure, respectively?
A. 41 & 9 C. 39 & 9
B. 37 & 9 D. 36 & 9
67. A hydrocarbon with general formula Cn H2n is known as
A. Alkane
B. Alkene
C. Cycloalkane
D. Monohydric alcohol
68. For alkanes of the same carbon number, branched-chain isomers have lower boiling points
than the straight-chain (normal) alkanes. This is because branching increases:
A. The surface area of the alkane decreases
B. The surface area of the alkane increases
C. The strength of the intermolecular force increases
D. The strength of the intermolecular force remains constant
69. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than alcohols of the similar size. This is
because:
A. Branching increases, surface area decreases
B. Branching increases, surface area increases
C. Branching increases, the strength of the intermolecular force increases
D. Branching increases, the strength of the intermolecular force remains constant
70. Which one of the following represents the general formula of monohydric carboxylic acids?
A. Cn H2n-1 COOH
B. Cn H2n O2
C. Cn H2n COOH
D. Cn H2n+1 OH
71. Which of the following is not the importance of ammonia?
A. A cleaning agent
B. Antimicrobial agent
C. A raw material for the production of nitrogen fertilizers
D. As an acid media
72. Which of the following fertilizer is prepared from reactions of ammonia and nitric acid
is________
A. Urea
B. ammonium phosphate
C. Ammonium nitrate
D. Diammonium phosphate
73. What is the name of the following structure?

A. Carbofuran
B. Malathion
C. Permethrin
D. Endosufan
74. Which one of the following tells about sodium carbonate manufacturing process?
A. Harber
B. Contact
C. Solvay
D. Harber Oswald
75. The following polymer formed is an example of ______.

A. Homopolyemer
B. Copolymer
C. Natural Polymer
D. A and B
76. Nylon 66 (nylon) is a copolymer and is prepared reaction of 1, 6-diaminohexane
(hexamethylene diamine) and 1,6-hexanedioic acid (adipic acid). This polymer is prepared
by ________type of reaction.
A. Addition polymerization
B. Elimination polymerization
C. Condensation polymerization
D. A and C
77. Which of the following substance is not among water pollutant?
A. Domestic sewage
B. Solid waste
C. Sulphur dioxide
D. Fertilizers
78. Which of the following gases is not among Greenhouse gases?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Oxygen
C. Methane
D. Nitrous oxide
79. N2 + O2 →2NO
2NO + O 2 →2NO 2
NO2 →NO + O
O + O2 →O3
The above reactions describe the chemical process that forms:
A. Photochemical smog
B. Industrial smog’
C. Acid precipitation
D. Ozone
80. When does contaminant termed as pollutant?
A. It exerts indetrimental effects on human health receptor
B. Always contaminant is termed as pollutant
C. It put forth indetrimental effects on human health receptor
D. It exerts detrimental effects on human health receptor

Prepared by:
Dr. Hizkeal Tsade
Prof. Aman Dekebo

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