Important Topics you need to cover.

1)​ Electrostatics (16 Marks):

●​ Electric Charges and Fields: Study of electric charges, Coulomb's law, electric field,
and Gauss's theorem.
●​ Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance: Understanding electric potential, capacitors,
and their combinations.

2) Current Electricity (6 Marks):

●​ Exploration of electric current, Ohm's law, resistivity, and Kirchhoff's laws.

3) Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism (17 Marks):

●​ Moving Charges and Magnetism: Magnetic fields due to currents, Biot-Savart law,
and Ampere's law.
●​ Magnetism and Matter: Magnetic properties of materials, Earth's magnetic field, and
magnetic properties of matter.

4) Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents (9 Marks):

●​ Electromagnetic Induction: Faraday's laws, Lenz's law, and self and mutual induction.
●​ Alternating Currents: AC circuits, resonance, and power in AC circuits.

5) Electromagnetic Waves (4 Marks):

●​ Study of electromagnetic waves, their properties, and the electromagnetic spectrum.

6) Optics (14 Marks):

●​ Ray Optics and Optical Instruments: Reflection, refraction, lenses, and optical
instruments.
●​ Wave Optics: Interference, diffraction, and polarization.

7) Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter (5 Marks):

●​ Photoelectric effect, de Broglie hypothesis, and matter waves.

8) Atoms and Nuclei (7 Marks):

●​ Atoms: Bohr's model, hydrogen spectrum, and atomic structure.

●​ Nuclei: Radioactivity, nuclear reactions, and applications.

9) Electronic Devices (7 Marks):

●​ Semiconductors, diodes, transistors, and their applications.

PYQ’s for CBSE Class 12 Physics 2025 exam.

CH 1: ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS

Q1. What is the electric flux through a cube of side 1 cm which encloses an electric dipole?
(1 M)

Q2. (a) An electric dipole of dipole moment p consists of point charges +q and -q separated
by a distance of 2a apart. Deduce the expression for the electric field E due to the dipole at a
distance x from the centre of the dipole on its axial line in terms of the dipole moment p.
Hence show that in the limit x >> a,

(b) Given the electric field in the region x is 2E , find the net electric flux through the
cube and the charge enclosed by it. (5M)

Q3. (a) Explain, using suitable diagrams, the dierence in the behaviour of an (i)
conductor and (ii) dielectric in the presence of an external electric field. Define the
terms polarisation of a dielectric and write its relation with susceptibility.

(b) A thin metallic spherical shell of radius R carries a charge Q on its surface. A
point charge Q/2 is placed at its centre C and another charge +2Q is placed outside
the shell at a distance x from the centre as shown in the figure.

Find (i) the force on the charge at the centre of the shell and at point A and (ii) the
electric flux through the shell. (5M)
Q4. A point charge +Q is placed at point O as shown in the figure. Is the
potential dierence VA – VB positive, negative or zero? (1M)

Q5. How does the electric flux due to a point charge enclosed by a spherical
Gaussian surface get affected when its radius is increased? (1M)

Q6. A charge is distributed uniformly over a ring of radius ‘a’. Obtain an

expression for the electric intensity E at a point on the axis of the ring. Hence
show that for points at large distances from the ring, it behaves like a point
charge. (3M)

Q7. (a) Derive an expression for the electric field E due to a dipole of length ‘2a’ at
a point distant r from the centre of the dipole on the axial line.

(b) Draw a graph of E versus r for r >> a. (c) If this dipole were kept in a uniform
external electric field Eo, diagrammatically represent the position of the dipole in
stable and unstable equilibrium and write the expressions for the torque acting on
the dipole in both cases. (5M)

Q8. (a) Use Gauss’s theorem to find the electric field due to a uniformly charged
infinitely large plane thin sheet with surface charge density σ. (b) An infinitely large
thin plane sheet has a uniform surface charge density +σ. Obtain the expression for
the amount of work done in bringing a point charge q from infinity to a point, distant
r, in front of the charged plane sheet. (5M)

Q7. Define electric flux and write its SI unit. The electric field components in the
figure shown are Ex = ax, Ey = 0, Ez = 0 where a = 100 N/Cm. Calculate the charge
within the cube, assuming a = 0.1m. (3M)

Q9. Draw the pattern of electric field lines, when a point charge – Q is kept near an
uncharged conducting plate. (1M)

Q10. (a) Draw the equipotential surfaces corresponding to a uniform electric

field in the z-direction. (b) Derive an expression for the electric potential at any
point along the axial line of an electric dipole. (3M)

Q11. (a) Derive an expression for the electric field at any point on the equatorial line
of an electric dipole.

(b) Two identical point charges, q each, are kept 2m apart in the air. A third point
charge Q of unknown magnitude and sign is placed on the line joining the charges
such that the system remains in equilibrium. Find the position and nature of Q. (5M)

Q12. If the net electric flux through a closed surface is zero, then we can infer
(A) no net charge is enclosed by the surface.
(B) uniform electric field exists within the surface.
(C) electric potential varies from point to point inside the surface.
(D) charge is present inside the surface. (1M)

Q13. (a) Using Gauss law, derive expression for electric field due to a spherical
shell of uniform charge distribution σ and radius R at a point lying at a distance x
from the centre of shell, such that

(i) 0 < x < R, and (ii) x > R.

(b) An electric field is uniform and acts along + x direction in the region of positive x.
It is also uniform with the same magnitude but acts in – x direction in the region of
negative x. The value of the field is E = 200 N/C for x > 0 and E = – 200 N/C for x <
0. A right circular cylinder of length 20 cm and radius 5 cm has its centre at the
origin and its axis along the x-axis so that one flat face is at x = + 10 cm and the
other is at x = – 10 cm. Find : (i) The net outward flux through the cylinder. (ii) The
net charge present inside the cylinder. (5M)

Q14. An electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric field will

experience:

(A) Only a force

(B) Only a torque

(C) both force and torque

(D) Neither force nor torque

Q15. Let N1 be the number of electric field lines going out of an imaginary cube of
side that encloses an isolated point charge 2q and N2 be the corresponding
number for an imaginary sphere of radius that encloses an isolated point charge
3q. Then (N1/N2) is:

(A) 1/π

(B) 2/3

(C) 9/4

(D) π

Q16. Infinity resistance in a resistance box has:

(A) a resistance of 105 Ω

(B) a resistance of 107 Ω

(C) a resistance of ∞ resistance

(D) a gap only

Q17. A charge Q is placed at the centre of the line joining two charges q and q. The system
of the three charges will be in equilibrium if Q is:

(A) +q/3

(B) -q/3
(C) +q/4

(D) -q/4

Q18. Electric flux of an electric field E g through an area A is given by:

Q19. Two point charges + 16q and – 4q are located at x = 0 and x = L. The
location of the point on x-axis at which the resultant electric field due to these
charges is zero, is:

(A) 8 L

(B) 6 L

(C) 4 L

(D) 2 L

Q20. An electric dipole of dipole moment 4 × 10-5 C-m, kept in a uniform

electric field of 10-3 NC-1, experience a torque of 2 × 10-8 Nm. The angle
which the dipole makes with the electric field is:

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(C) 60°

(D) 90°

Q21. Three identical charges are placed on x-axis from left to right with adjacent
charges separated by a distance d. The magnitude of the force on a charge from
its nearest neighbour charge is F. Let 1 i be the unit vector along + x axis, then the
net force on each charge from left to right is :

(A)

(B)

(C)
(D)

Q22. Two students A and B calculate the charge flowing through a circuit. A
concludes that 300 C of charges flows in 1 minute. B concludes that 3.125 × 1019
electrons flow in 1 second. If the current measured in the circuit is 5A, then the
correct calculation is done by :

(A) A

(B) B

(C) both A and B

(D) neither A nor B

Q23. If a charge is moved against a coulomb force of an electric field, then the:
(A) intensity of the electric field

increases.

(B) intensity of the electric field

decreases

(C) work is done by the electric field

(D) work is done by the external source

ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND

CAPACITANCE
Q1. Define capacitative reactance. Write its S.I. units. (1M)

Q2. Two capacitors of unknown capacitances C1 and C2 are connected first in

series and then in parallel across a battery of 100 V. If the energy stored in the
two combinations are 0.045 J and 0.25 J respectively, determine the value of C1
and C2. Also, calculate the charge on each capacitor in a parallel combination.
(3M)

Q3. Two parallel plate capacitors X and Y have the same area of plates and the
same separation between them. X has air between the plates while Y contains
a dielectric medium of εo = 4.
(i) Calculate the capacitance of each capacitor if the equivalent capacitance of
the the combination is 4 µF. (ii) Calculate the potential dierence between the
plates of X and Y. (iii) Estimate the ratio of electrostatic energy stored in X and
Y. (3M)

Q4. Predict the polarity of the capacitor in the situation described below : (1M)

Q5. Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are connected to a battery of V
volts with switch S closed. The switch is now opened and the free space between
the plates of the capacitors is filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K. Find
the ratio of the total electrostatic energy stored in both capacitors before and after
the introduction of the dielectric. (3M)

Q6. Two point charges q and –q are located at points (0, 0, –a) and (0, 0, a)
respectively. (a) Find the electrostatic potential at (0, 0, z) and (x, y, 0) (b) How
much work is done in moving a small test charge from the point (5, 0, 0) to (–7, 0, 0)
along the x-axis? (c) How would your answer change if the path of the test charge
between the same points is not along the x-axis but along any other random path?
(d) If the above point charges are now placed in the same positions in a uniform
external electric field E, what would be the potential energy of the charging system
in its orientation of unstable equilibrium?
Justify your answer in each case. (5M)

Q7. A capacitor of capacitance C1 is charged to a potential V1 while another

capacitor of capacitance C2 is charged to a potential dierence V2. The capacitors
are now disconnected from their respective charging batteries and connected in
parallel to each other. (a) Find the total energy stored in the two capacitors before
they are connected. (b) Find the total energy stored in the parallel combination of
the two capacitors. (c) Explain the reason for the dierence of energy in parallel
combination in comparison to the total energy before they are connected. (5M)

Q8. (a) Describe briefly the process of transferring the charge between the two
plates of a parallel plate capacitor when connected to a battery. Derive an
expression for the energy stored in a capacitor. (b) A parallel plate capacitor is
charged by a battery to a potential dierence V. It is disconnected from the battery
and then connected to another uncharged capacitor of the same capacitance.

Calculate the ratio of the energy stored in the combination to the initial energy on
the single capacitor. (5M)

Q9. An electric dipole consisting of charges + q and – q separated by a

distance L is in stable equilibrium in a uniform electric field E. The electrostatic
potential energy of the dipole is

(A) qLE

(B) zero

(C) – qLE

(D) – 2 qEL (1M)

Q10. The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is completely filled
in two ways. In the first case, it is filled with a slab of dielectric constant K. In the
second case, it is filled with two slabs of equal thickness and dielectric constants K1
and K2 respectively as shown in the figure. The capacitance of the capacitor is
same in the two cases. Obtain the relationship between K, K1 and K2. (2M)

Q11. (a) Find the expression for the potential energy of a system of two point
charges q1 and q2 located at r1 and r2, respectively in an external electric field
E.
(b) Draw equipotential surfaces due to an isolated point charge (– q) and depict
the electric field lines.

(c) Three point charges + 1 μC, – 1 μC and + 2 μC are initially infinite distance
apart.

Calculate the work done in assembling these charges at the vertices of an

equilateral triangle of side 10 cm. (5M)

Q12. A capacitor and an inductor are connected in two dierent ac circuits with a
glowing in each circuit. The bulb glows more brightly when:

(A) the number of turns in the inductor is increased

(B) the separation between the plates of the capacitor is increased

(C) an iron rod is introduced into the inductor

(D) a dielectric is introduced into the gap between the plates of the
capacitor

Q13. The electric potential at a point on the axis of a short electric dipole, at a
distance x from the mid -point of dipole is proportional to:

(A) 1/x^4

(B) 1/x^1/2

(C) 1/x^3

(D) 1/x^2

Q14. Let F1 be the magnitude of the force between two small spheres, charged to a
constant potential in free space and F2 be the magnitude of the force between them
in a medium of dielectric constant k. Then (F1 / F2) is:

(A) 1/k

(B) k

(C) k^2

(D) 1/k^2

Q15. A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire,
heat ‘H’ is developed in it. If another wire of the same material, double the radius
and twice the length as compared to original wire is used then the heat developed
in it will be-

(i) H/2
(ii) H

(iii) 2H

(iv) 4H

Q16. In the given network all capacitors used are identical and each one is of
capacitance C. Which of the following is the equivalent capacitance between the
points A and B?

(A) 6C

(B) (5/2) C

(C) (3/2) C

(D) (5/6) C

Q17. A charge Q is located at the centre of a circle of radius r. The work done
in moving a test charge q0 from point A to point B (at opposite ends of diameter
AB) so as to complete a semicircle is [k = 1/4πɛo]:

(A) (kqoQ)/r

(B) (kqoQ)/r^2

(C) kqoQr

(D) Zero

CURRENT ELECTRICITY
Q1. Graph showing the variation of current versus voltage for a material GaAs is
shown in the figure. Identify the region of (i) negative resistance (ii) where Ohm's
law is obeyed. (1M)
Q2. Use Kirchho's rules to obtain conditions for the balance condition in a
Wheatstone bridge. (2M)

Q3. A cell of emf 'E' and internal resistance 'r' is connected across a variable load
resistor R. Draw the plots of the terminal voltage V versus (i) R and (ii) the current
I.
It is found that when R = 4Ω, the current is 1 A and when R is increased to 9Ω, the
current reduces to 0.5 A. Find the values of the emf E and internal resistance r.
(3M)

Q4. Two cells of emf 1.5 V and 2.0 V having internal resistances 0.2 Ω and 0.3 Ω
respectively are connected in parallel. Calculate the emf and internal resistance
of the equivalent cell. (2M)

Q5. (i) Define the term drift velocity. (ii) On the basis of electron drift, derive an
expression for the resistivity of a conductor in terms of the number density of free
electrons and relaxation time. On what factors does the resistivity of a conductor
depend? (iii) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making
standard resistors ? (5M)

Q6. (i) State the principle of working of a potentiometer. (ii) In the following
potentiometer circuit AB is a uniform wire of length 1 m and resistance 10 Ω.
Calculate the potential gradient along the wire and balance length AO ( = l). (5M)

Q7. Nichrome and copper wires of the same length and same radius are
connected in series. Current I is passed through them. Which wire gets heated up
more? Justify your answer. (1M)

Q8. (a) The potential dierence applied across a given resistor is altered so that the
heat produced per second increases by a factor of 9. By what factor does the
applied potential dierence change?

(b) In the figure shown, an ammeter A and a resistor of 4Ω are connected to the
terminals of the source. The emf of the source is 12 V having an internal resistance
of 2Ω. Calculate the voltmeter and ammeter readings. (3M)
Q9. (a) Write the principle and working of a metre bridge. (b) In a metre bridge, the
balance point is found at a distance L1 with resistances R and S as shown in the
figure.An unknown resistance X is now connected in parallel to the resistance S and
the balance point is found at a distance of L2. Obtain a formula for X in terms of L1,
L2 and S.

Q10. Two cells of emfs ε1 & ε2 and internal resistances r1 & r2 respectively
are connected in parallel. Obtain expressions for the equivalent. (i)
resistance and (ii) emf of the combination. (3M)
Q2. Using Kirchhoff’s rules, calculate the potential difference between Band D in the circuit
diagram as shown in the figure. (3M)

Q11. How does the mobility of electrons in a conductor change, if the potential difference
applied across the conductor is doubled, keeping the length and temperature of the
conductor constant? (1M)

Q12. Two bulbs are rated (P1, V) and (P2, V). If they are connected
(i) in series and (ii) in parallel across a supply V, find the power dissipated in the two
combinations in terms of P1 and P2. (2M)

Q13. Using Kirchhoff’s rules, calculate the current through the 40 Ω and 20Ω resistors in the
following circuit : (3M)

Q14. What is the end error in a metre bridge? How is it overcome? The resistances in the
two arms of the metre bridge are R = 5 Ω and S respectively. When the resistance S is
shunted with equal resistance, the new balance length is found to be 1.5 L1, where L1 is the
initial balancing length. Calculate the value of S. (3M)

Q15. A potentiometer can measure emf of a cell because

(A) the sensitivity of potentiometer is large.

(B) no current is drawn from the cell at balance.
(C) no current flows in the wire of potentiometer at balance.
(D) internal resistance of cell is neglected. (1M)

Q16. Two resistors R1 and R2 of 4 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel across a battery. The
ratio of power dissipated in them, P1 : P2 will be

(A) 4 : 9
(B) 3 : 2
(C) 9 : 4
(D) 2 : 3 (1M)

Q17. Explain the principle of working of a meter bridge. Draw the circuit diagram for
determination of an unknown resistance using it. (2M)

Q18. (a) Two cells of emf E1 and E2 have their internal resistances r1 and r2, respectively.
Deduce an expression for the equivalent emf and internal resistance of their parallel
combination when connected across an external resistance R. Assume that the two cells are
supporting each other.
(b) In case the two cells are identical, each of emf E = 5 V and
internal resistance r = 2 Ω, calculate the voltage across the external resistance R = 10 Ω.
(3M)

Q19. In the circuit given below P ≠ R and the reading of the galvanometer is
same with Switch S open or closed. Then:
(A) IQ = IR
(B) IR =IG
(C) IP = IG
(D) IQ = IG

Q20. Two wires A and B, of the same material having length in the ratio 1: 2 and diameter in
the ratio 2: 3 are connected in series with a battery. The ratio of the potential differences
(VA/VB) across the two wires respectively is:

(A) 1/3
(B) 3/4
(C) 4/5
(D) 9/8

Q21. A battery of 15 V and negligible internal resistance is connected across a 50 Ω resistor.

The amount of energy dissipated as heat in the resistor in one minute is:

(A) 122 J
(B) 270 J
(C) 420 J
(D) 720 J

Q22. In a potentiometer experiment, the balancing length with a cell is 120 cm. When the
cell is shunted by a 1 Ω resistance, the balancing length becomes 40 cm. The internal
resistance of the cell is:

(A) 10 Ω
(B) 7 Ω
(C) 3 Ω
(D) 2 Ω

Q23. The resistance of two wires having same length and same area of cross section are 2Ω
and 8Ω respectively. If the resistivity of 2Ω wire is 2.65 × 10-8 Ω–m then the resistivity of 8Ω
wire is :

(A) 10.60 × 10-8 Ω-m

(B) 8.32 × 10-8 Ω-m
(C) 7.61 × 10-8 Ωm
(D) 5.45 × 10-8Ωm

Q24. The given figure shows I – V graph of a copper wire whose length and area of
cross-section are L and A respectively. The slope of this curve becomes :
(A) less if the length of the wire is increased
(B) more if the length of the wire is increased
(C) more if a wire of steel of same dimension is used
(D) more if the temperature of wire is increased

Q25. When a potential difference V is applied across a conductor at

temperature T, the drift velocity of the electrons is proportional to :

(A) T
(B) √T
(C) V
(D) √V

Q26. Two charged spheres A and B having their radii in the ratio 1: 2 are connected together
with a conducting wire. The ratio of their surface charge densities [σA/σB] will be.

(A) 1/2
(B) 2
(C) 1/4
(D) 4

Q27. A battery is a combination of two or more cells. In the following figure,

a single batter is represented in which two cells of emf Ɛ1 and Ɛ2, and internal resistance r1
and r2 respectively are connected.

Answer the following questions:

(i) The equivalent emf of this combination is :
(ii) For terminal B to be negative :

(iii) The current in the internal circuit is:

(iv) The equivalent internal resistance of the combination is:

MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM

Q1. State the principle and working of a galvanometer. A galvanometer of resistance G is
converted into a voltmeter to measure up to V volts by connecting a resistance R1 in series
with the coil. If a resistance R2 is connected in series with it, then it can measure up to V/2
volts. Find the resistance, in terms of R1 and R2, required to be connected to convert it into
a voltmeter that can read up to 2 V. Also find the resistance G of the galvanometer in terms
of R1 and R2. (3M)

Q2. (a) State Ampere's circuital law. Use this law to obtain the expression for the magnetic
field inside an air-cored toroid of average radius 'r' having 'n' turns per unit length and
carrying a steady current I. (b) An observer to the left of a solenoid of N turns each of cross
section area 'A' and observes that a steady current in it flows in the clockwise direction.
Depict the magnetic field lines due to the solenoid specifying its polarity and show that it acts
as a bar magnet of magnetic moment m = NIA. (5M)

Q3. Write the underlying principle of a moving coil galvanometer. (1M)

Q4. (a) Write the expression for the magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving with
velocity ν in the presence of magnetic field B.

(b) A neutron, an electron and an alpha particle moving with equal

velocities enter a uniform magnetic field going into the plane of the paper as shown. Trace
their paths in the field and justify your answer. (3M)

Q5. Two long straight parallel conductors carry steady current I1 and I2 separated by a
distance d. If the currents are flowing in the same direction, show how the magnetic field set
up in one produces an attractive force on the other. Obtain the expression for this force.
Hence define one ampere. (3M)

Q6. Find the condition under which the charged particles moving with different speeds in the
presence of electric and magnetic field vectors can be used to select charged particles of a
particular speed. (2M)

Q7. (a) State Biot – Savart law and express this law in vector form.

(b) Two identical circular coils, P and Q each of radius R, carrying currents 1A and √3A
respectively, are placed concentrically and perpendicular to each other lying in the XY and
YZ planes. Find the magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field at the centre of the
coils. (3M)

Q8. Two protons of equal kinetic energies enter a region of the uniform magnetic field. The
first proton enters normal to the field direction while the second enters at 30° to the field
direction. Name the trajectories followed by them. (1M)

Q9. An electron falls through a distance of 1.5 cm in a uniform electric field of magnitude 2.0
× 10^4 N/C.

Calculate the time it takes to fall through this distance starting from rest. If the direction of the
field is reversed (fig. b) keeping its magnitude unchanged, calculate the time taken by a
proton to fall through this distance starting from rest. (3M)

Q10. (a) Define the SI unit of current in terms of the force between two parallel
current-carrying conductors.

(b) Two long straight parallel conductors carrying steady currents Ia and Ib along the same
direction are separated by a distance d. How does one explain the force of attraction
between them? If a third conductor carrying a current Ic in the opposite direction is placed
just in the middle of these conductors, find the resultant force acting on the third conductor.
(3M)

Q11. (a) State Biot – Savart law and express it in vector form.

(b) Using Biot – Savart law, obtain the expression for the magnetic field due to a circular coil
of radius r, carrying a current I at a point on its axis distant x from the centre of the coil. (3M)

Q12. An α-particle and a proton of the same kinetic energy are in turn allowed to pass
through a magnetic field B, acting normally to the direction of motion of the particles.
Calculate the ratio of radii of the circular paths described by them. (2M)

Q13. (a) Derive the expression for the torque acting on a current-carrying loop placed in a
magnetic field.

(b) Explain the significance of a radial magnetic field when a current-carrying coil is kept in it
(3M)

Q14. The magnetic dipole moment of a current carrying coil does not depend upon

(A) number of turns of the coil.

(B) cross-sectional area of the coil.
(C) current flowing in the coil.
(D) material of the turns of the coil. (1M)

Q15. Write the mathematical form of Ampere-Maxwell circuital law. (1M)

Q16. Two long straight parallel wires A and B separated by a distance d, carry equal current
I flowing in same direction as shown in the figure. (2M)

(a) Find the magnetic field at a point P situated between them at a

distance x from one wire.

(b) Show graphically the variation of the

magnetic field with distance x for 0 < x < d.

Q17. (a) Write an expression of magnetic moment associated with a

current (I) carrying circular coil of radius r having N turns.

(b) Consider the above mentioned coil placed in YZ plane with its centre at the origin. Derive
expression for the value of magnetic field due to it at point (x, 0, 0). (3M)

Q18. (a) Define current sensitivity of a galvanometer. Write its expression.

(b) A galvanometer has resistance G and shows full scale deflection for current Ig. (i) How
can it be converted into an ammeter to measure current up to Io (Io > Ig)? (ii) What is the
effective resistance of this ammeter? (3M)

Q19. (a) Derive the expression for the torque acting on the rectangular current carrying coil
of a galvanometer. Why is the magnetic field made radial?

(b) An α-particle is accelerated through a potential difference of

10 kV and moves along x-axis. It enters in a region of uniform magnetic field B = 2 x 10^–3 T
acting along y-axis. Find the radius of its path. (Take mass of α-particle = 6·4 x 10^–27 kg ).
(5M)

Q20. Two moving coil galvanometers G1 and G2 have the following

particulars respectively: N1=30, A1 = 3.6 x 10-3 m2, B1= 0.25 T N2= 42, A2 = 1.8x 10-3, m2,
B2 = 0.50 T The spring constant is same for both the galvanometers. The ratio of current
sensitivities of G1 and G2 is

(A) 5 : 7
(B) 7 : 5
(C) 1:4
(D) 1 : 1

Q21. A current I is flowing through the loop as shown in the figure (MA = R, MB = I 2R). The
magnetic field at the centre of the loop is μoI/R times:

(A) 5/16, into the plane of the paper

(B) 5/16, out of the plane of the paper
(C) 7/16, out of the plane of the paper
(D) 7/16, into the plane of the paper

Q22. A long straight wire in the horizontal plane carries a current of 15 A in north to south
direction. The magnitude and direction of magnetic field at a point 2.5 m east of the wire
respectively are:

(A) 1.2 μT, vertically upward

(B) 1.2 μT, vertically downward
(C) 0.6 μT, vertically upward
(D) 0.6 μT, vertically downward

Q23. An electron is projected with velocity v along the axis of a current carrying long
solenoid. Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) The path of the electron will be circular about the axis.
(B) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.
(C) The path of the electron will be helical.
(D) The electron will continue to move with the same velocity v along the axis of the
solenoid.

Q24. If the speed v of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field B perpendicular to B is

halved, then the radius of its path will:

(A) not change

(B) become two times
(C) become one- fourth
(D) become half

Q25. Which one of the following is not affected by the presence of a

magnetic field?

(A) A current carrying conductor

(B) A moving charge
(C) A stationary charge
(D) A rectangular current loop with its parallel to the field

Q26. In a certain region field E and magnetic field B are perpendicular to each other. An
electron enters the region perpendicular to the direction of both E and B moves undeflected.
The speed of the electron is :

Q27. A test charge of 1.6 × 10^-19 C is moving with a velocity v = (4i + 3k) m/s in a magnetic
field B(3k + 4i) T. The force on this test charge is :

(A) 24j N
(B) 24i N
(C) 24k N
(D) 0

Q28. Assertion (A): A bar magnet experiences a torque when placed in a magnetic field.

Reason (R): A bar magnet exerts a torque on itself due to its own
magnetic field.

Q29. Assertion (A): When a charged particle moves with velocity v in a magnetic field B
(v⊥B), the force on the particle does no work.

Reason (R): The magnetic force is perpendicular to the velocity of the particle.

Q30. Two identical thick wires and two identical thin wires, all of the same material and the
same length form a square in three different ways P, Q and R as shown. Due to the current
in these loops the magnetic field at the centre of the loop will be zero in case of:

(A) P and R only

(B) Q and R only
(C) P and Q only
(D) P, Q and R

Q31. A circular current carrying coil produces a magnetic field Bo at its centre. The coil is
rewound so as to have three turns and the same current is passed through it. The new
magnetic field at the centre is:
(A) 3 Bo
(B) Bo/3
(C) Bo/9
(D) 9 Bo

Q32. A long solenoid carrying current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the
number of turns in the solenoid is halved and current in it is doubled, the new magnetic field
will be:

(A) B/2
(B) B
(C) 2B
(D) 4B

Q33. A current carrying square loop is suspended in a uniform magnetic field acting in the
plane of the loop. If the force on one arm of the loop is F, the net force on the remaining
three arms of the loop will be.

(A) 3F
(B) -3F
(C) F
(D) -F
MAGNETISM AND MATTER
Q1. Write two properties of a material suitable for making (a) a permanent magnet, and (b)
an electromagnet. (2M)

Q2. (a) State Gauss’s law for magnetism. Explain its significance. (b) Write the four
important properties of the magnetic field lines due to a bar magnet. (3M)

Q3. Write three points of differences between para-, dia- and

ferromagnetic materials, giving one example for each. (3M)

Q4. The magnetic field and angle of dip at a place on the earth are 0·3 G and 30°,
respectively. The value of vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field at the place is
___________. (1M)

Q5. The vertical component of earth's magnetic field at a place is (1/√3) times the horizontal
J3 component. The angle of dip at that place is:
(A) 0°
(B) 30°
(C) 45°
(D) 60°

ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Q1. (a) Define mutual inductance and write its S.I. unit.

(b) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long co-axial solenoids of the
same length wound one over the other.

(c) In an experiment, two coils c1 and c2 are placed close to each other. Find out the
expression for the emf induced in coil c1 due to a change in the current through coil c2. (5M)

Q2. (i) Define mutual inductance. (ii) A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5
H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5s, what is the change of flux linkage
with the other coil? (3M)

Q3. Define mutual inductance between a pair of coils. Derive an

expression for the mutual inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of the same length
wound one over the other. (3M)

Q4. Define the self-inductance of a coil. Obtain the expression for the energy stored in an
inductor L connected across a source of emf. (3M)

Q5. (a) Draw a labelled diagram of an ac generator. Obtain the expression for the emf
induced in the rotating coil of N turns each of cross-sectional area A, in the presence of a
magnetic field B.

(b) A horizontal conducting rod 10 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed
of 5·0 ms–1 at right angles to the horizontal component of the Earth’s magnetic field, 0·3 x
10^–4 Wb m^–2.

Find the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the rod. (5M)
Q6. A rectangular frame of wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field directed outwards,
normal to the paper. AB is connected to a spring which is stretched to A’B’ and then released
at time t = 0. Explain qualitatively how induced e.m.f. in the coil would vary with time.
(Neglect damping of oscillations of spring). (2M)

Q7. (a) Define the term magnetic susceptibility and write its relation in terms of relative
magnetic permeability.

(b) Two magnetic materials A and B have relative magnetic permeabilities of 0.96 and 500.
Identify the magnetic materials A and B.

Q8. (a) Define mutual inductance and write its S.I. unit. (b) A square loop of side ‘a’ carrying
a current I2 is kept at distance x from an infinitely long straight wire carrying a current I1 as
shown in the figure. Obtain the expression for the resultant force acting on the loop. (3M)

Q9. Laminated iron sheets are used to minimize ___________ currents in the core of a
transformer. (1M)

Q10. The number of turns of a solenoid are doubled without changing its length and area of
cross-section. The self-inductance of the solenoid will become ___________ times. (1M)

Q11. A conducting rod PQ of length 20 cm and resistance 0·1 rests on two smooth parallel
rails of negligible resistance AA’ and CC’. It can slide on the rails and the arrangement is
positioned between the poles of a permanent magnet producing uniform magnetic field B =
0·4 T. The rails, the rod and the magnetic field are in three mutually perpendicular directions
as shown in the figure. If the ends A and C of the rails are short-circuited, find the (i) external
force required to move the rod with uniform velocity v = 10 cm/s, and (ii) power required to
do so. (3M)
Q12. Lenz's law is the consequence of the law of conservation of:

(A) energy
(B) charge
(C) mass
(D) momentum

Q13. The emf induced in a 10 H inductor in which current changes from 11A to 2 A in
9x10-1s is:
(A) 10 to the power 4 V
(B) 10 to the power 3 V
(C) 10 to the 2 v
(D) 10 v

Q14. A metal plate is getting heated. Which one of following statements is incorrect?
(A) It is placed in a space-varying magnetic field that does not vary with time.
(B) A direct current is passing through the plate.
(C) An alternating current is passing through the plate.
(D) It is placed in a time-varying magnetic field.

Q15. Assertion (A): Induced emf in two coils made of wire of the same length and the same
thickness, one of copper and another of aluminium is same. The current in copper coil is
more than the aluminium coil.

Reason (R): Resistance of aluminium coil is more than that of copper coil.

Q16. The magnetic flux linked with a coil is given by φ = 5t^2 + 3t + 16, where is φ in webers
and t in seconds. The induced emf in the coil at t = 5 s will be:

(A) 53 V
(B) 43 V
(C) 10V
(D) 6V

ALTERNATING CURRENT
Q1. An inductor L of inductance XL is connected in series with a bulb B and an ac source.
How would the brightness of the bulb change when (i) the number of turns in the inductor is
reduced, (ii) an iron rod is inserted in the inductor and (iii) a capacitor of reactance XC = XL
is inserted in series in the circuit. Justify your answer in each case. (3M)
Q2. A group of students while coming from the school noticed a box marked "Danger H.T.
2200 V" at a substation in the main street. They did not understand the utility of such a high
voltage, while they argued, the supply was only 220 V. They asked their teacher this
question the next day. The teacher thought it to be an important question and therefore
explained it to the whole class.
Answer the following questions:
(i) What device is used to bring the high voltage down to the low voltage of a.c. current and
what is the principle of its working? (ii) Is it possible to use this device for bringing down the
high d.c. voltage to the low voltage? Explain. (iii) Write the values displayed by the students
and the teacher. (5M)

Q3. Define the ‘quality factor’ of resonance in a series LCR circuit. What is its SI unit? (1M)

Q4. An a.c. source of voltage V = V0 sin ωt is connected to a series

combination of L, C and R. Use the phasor diagram to obtain expressions for the impedance
of the circuit and phase angle between voltage and current.
(i) Find the condition when the current will be in phase with the voltage. What is the circuit in
this condition called?
(ii) In a series LR circuit XL = R and the power factor of the circuit is P1. When a capacitor
with capacitance C such that XL = XC is put in series, the power factor becomes P2.
Calculate P1/P2 (5M)

Q5. A device ‘X’ is connected to an ac source V = V0sin ωt. The variation of voltage, current
and power in one cycle is shown in the following graph:

(a) Identify the device ‘X’.

(b) Which of the curves A, B and C represent the voltage, current and power consumed in
the circuit? Justify your answer.
(c) How does its impedance vary with the frequency of the ac source? Show graphically.
(d) Obtain an expression for the current in the circuitand its phase relation with ac voltage.
(5M)

Q6. (a) Draw graphs showing the variations of inductive reactance and capacitive reactance
with the frequency of the applied ac source.
(b) Draw the phasor diagram for a series RC circuit connected to an ac source. (c) An
alternating voltage of 220 V is applied across device X, and a current of 0.25 A flows, which
lags behind the applied voltage in phase by π/2 radian. If the same voltage is applied across
another device Y, the same current flows but now it is in phase with the applied voltage.
(i) Name the devices X and Y. (ii) Calculate the current flowing in the circuit when the same
voltage is applied across the series combination of X and Y. (5M)

Q7. (a) State the principle of working of a transformer. (b) Define efficiency of a transformer.
(c) State any two factors that reduce the efficiency of a transformer. (d) Calculate the current
drawn by the primary of a 90% efficient transformer which steps down 220 V to 22 V, if the
output resistance is 440 Ω. (5M)
Q8. (a) In a series LCR circuit connected across an ac source of variable frequency, obtain
the expression for its impedance and draw a plot showing its variation with the frequency of
an ac source.

(b) What is the phase difference between the voltages across the inductor and the capacitor
at resonance in the LCR circuit?

(c) When an inductor is connected to a 200 V dc voltage, a current of 1A flows through it.
When the same inductor is connected to a 200 V, 50 Hz ac source, only 0.5 A current flows.
Explain, why? Also, calculate the self-inductance of the inductor. (5M)

Q9. (a) Draw the diagram of a device which is used to decrease high ac voltage into a low ac
voltage and state its working principle. Write four sources of energy loss in this device.

(b) A small town with a demand of 1200 kW of electric power at 220 V is situated 20 km
away from an electric plant generating power at 440 V. The resistance of the two wire line
carrying power is 0.5 Ω per km. The town gets the power from the line through a 4000-220 V
step-down transformer at a substation in the town. Estimate the line power loss in the form of
heat. (5M)

Q10. A resistance R and a capacitor C are connected in series to a source V = V0 sin ωt.
Find : (a) The peak value of the voltage across the (i) resistance and (ii) capacitor.

(b) The phase difference between the applied voltage and current. Which of them is ahead?
(3M)

Q11. With the help of a labelled diagram, explain the working of a step-up transformer. Give
reasons to explain the following : (i) The core of the transformer is laminated. (ii) Thick
copper wire is used in windings. (2M)

Q12. A pure inductor of 318 mH and a pure resistor of 75 Ω are connected in series to an ac
source Of 50 Hz. The voltage across 75 Ω resistor is found to be 150 V. The source voltage
is:

(A) 150 V
(B) 175 V
(C) 220 V
(D) 250 V

Q13. In an ac circuit the applied voltage and resultant current are E = E0sin ⍵t and I = Io
sin(⍵t + π/2 ) respectively. The average power consumed in the circuit is:

(A) EoIo
(B) (EoIo)/2
(C) (EoIo)/√2
(D) Zero

Q14. In a series LCR circuit, at resonance the current is equal to :

Q15. The frequency of an ac source for which a 10 μF capacitor has a reactance of 1000Ω is
:

(A) 1000/π Hz
(B) 50 Hz
(C) 50/π Hz
(D) 100/π Hz

Q16. Assertion (A): In a series LCR circuit connected to an ac source, resonance can take
place. Reason (R): At resonance XL = XC.

Q17. Assertion (A): A transformer is used to increase or decrease ac

voltage only. Reason (R): A transformer works on the basis of mutual induction.

Q8. Which one of the following statements is true?

(A) An inductor has infinite resistance in a dc circuit.

(B) A inductor and a capacitor both cannot conduct in a dc circuit.
(C) A capacitor can conduct in a dc circuit but not an inductor.
(D) An inductor can conduct in a dc circuit but not a capacitor.

ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
Q1. How are side bands produced ? (1M)

Q2. Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is (a) suitable for
radar systems used in aircraft navigation. (b) used to treat muscular strain. (c)
used as a diagnostic tool in medicine. Write in brief, how these waves can be
produced. (3M)

Q3. Draw a block diagram of a detector for AM signal and show, using
necessary processes and the waveforms, how the original message signal is
detected from the input AM wave. (3M)

Q4. Why are microwaves considered suitable for radar systems used in aircraft
navigation? (1M)

Q5. How are em waves produced by oscillating charges? Draw a sketch of

linearly polarized em waves propagating in the Z-direction. Indicate the
directions of the oscillating electric and magnetic fields. (3M)
Q6. Write Maxwell’s generalisation of Ampere’s Circuital Law. Show that in the
process of charging a capacitor, the current produced within the plates of the
capacitor is

where Φe is the electric flux produced during the charging of the capacitor
plates. (3M)

Q7. Do electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum? (1M)

Q8. Identify the electromagnetic waves whose wavelengths vary as:

Write one use for each. (2M)

Q8. Write the range of frequencies of electromagnetic waves which propagate

through sky wave mode. (1M)

Q9. (a) Give one use of electromagnetic radiations obtained in nuclear

disintegrations. (b) Give one example each to illustrate the situation where there is (i)
displacement current but no conduction current and (ii) only conduction current but no
displacement current. (2M)

Q10. Mrs Rajlakshmi had a sudden fall and was thereafter unable to stand
straight. She was in great pain. Her daughter Rita took her to the doctor. The
doctor took a photograph of Mrs Rajlakshmi’s bones and found that she had
suffered a fracture. He advised her to rest and take the required treatment.

(a) Name the electromagnetic radiation used to take photographs of the bones.
(b)How is this radiation produced?
(c) Mention the range of the wavelength of this electromagnetic radiation.
(d) Write two values displayed by Rita. (4M)

Q11. On what factors does the range of coverage in ground wave propagation
depend? (1M)

Q12. (a) Identify the part of the electromagnetic spectrum used in

(i) radar and
(ii)eye surgery. Write their frequency range.

(b) Prove that the average energy

density of the oscillating electric field is equal to that of the oscillating
magnetic field. (3M)

Q13. (a) Write the expression for the speed of light in a material medium of
relative permittivity εr and relative magnetic permeability εr.

(b) Write the wavelength range and name of the electromagnetic waves which
are used in (i) radar systems for aircraft navigation, and (ii) Earth satellites to
observe the growth of the crops. (3M)

RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS

Q1. A concave lens of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in a medium of refractive
index 1.65. What is the nature of the lens? (1M)

Q2. Use the mirror equation to show that an object placed between f and 2f of
a concave mirror produces a real image beyond 2f. (2M)

Q3.(i) A giant refracting telescope has an objective lens with a focal length of 15
m. If an eyepiece of focal length 1.0 cm is used, what is the angular
magnification of the telescope?
(ii) If this telescope is used to view the moon, what is the diameter of the image
of the moon formed by the objective lens? The diameter of the moon is 3.48 ×
106 m and the radius of the lunar orbit is 3.8 x 108 m. (3M)

Q4. A point object 'O' is kept in a medium of refractive index n1 in front of a

convex spherical surface of radius of curvature R which separates the second
medium of refractive index n2 from the first one, as shown in the figure. Draw
the ray diagram showing the image formation and deduce the relationship
between the object distance and the image distance in terms of n1, n2 and R.

(b) When the image formed above acts as a virtual object for a concave
spherical, surface separating the medium n2 from n1 (n2>n1), draw this ray
diagram and write the similar (similar to (a)) relation. Hence obtain the
expression for the lens maker's formula. (5M)

Q5. (a) Calculate the distance of an object of height h from a concave mirror of
radius of curvature 20 cm, so as to obtain a real image of magnification 2. Find
the location of the image also. (b) Using the mirror formula, explain why a
convex mirror always produces a virtual image. (3M)

Q6. Draw a schematic ray diagram of a reflecting telescope showing how rays
coming from a distant object are received at the eye-piece. Write two important advantages
over a refracting telescope. (3M)

Q7. (i) Plot a graph to show the variation of the angle of deviation as a function
of the angle of incidence for light passing through a prism. Derive an
expression for the refractive index of the prism in terms of the angle of
minimum deviation and the angle of the prism.

(ii) What is the dispersion of light? What is its cause? (iii) A ray of light incident normally on
one face of a right isosceles prism is totally reflected as shown in fig. What must be the
minimum value of the refractive index of glass? Give relevant calculations. (5M)
Q8. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism vary, if the
incident violet light is replaced by red light? Give reason. (1M)

Q9. (a) Monochromatic light of wavelength 589 nm is incident from the air on a
water surface. If μ for water is 1·33, find the wavelength, frequency and speed of
the refracted light.

(b) A double convex lens is made of a glass of refractive index 1·55, with both
faces of the same radius of curvature. Find the radius of curvature required, if
the focal length is 20 cm. (3M)

Q10. (a) Draw a ray diagram depicting the formation of the image by an
astronomical telescope in normal adjustment. (b) You are given the following
three lenses. Which two lenses will you use as an eyepiece and as an objective
to construct an astronomical telescope? Give reason. (3M)

Q11. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show the image formation by a combination of
two thin convex lenses in contact. Obtain the expression for the power of this
combination in terms of the focal lengths of the lenses. (b) A ray of light passing from the air
through an equilateral glass prism undergoes minimum deviation when the angle of
incidence is 3/4th of the angle of the prism. Calculate the speed of light in the prism. (5M)

Q12. Define the power of a lens. Write its S.I. unit. (1M)

Q13. (a) With the help of a ray diagram, show how a concave mirror is used to
obtain an erect and magnified image of an object. (b) Using the above ray
diagram, obtain the mirror formula and the expression for linear magnification. (3M)

Q14. Calculate the radius of curvature of an equi-concave lens of refractive index 1.5, when
it is kept in a medium of refractive index 1.4, to have a power of –5D. (2M)

Q15. An equilateral glass prism has a refractive index of 1.6 in air. Calculate the
angle of minimum deviation of the prism, when kept in a medium of refractive
index 4√2/5. (2M)

Q16. Define the term, “refractive index” of a medium. Verify Snell’s law of
refraction when a plane wavefront is propagating from a denser to a rarer
medium. (3M)

Q17. Draw a labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in the near-point adjustment
position. A giant refracting telescope at an observatory has an objective lens of focal length
15 m and an eyepiece of focal length 1.0 cm. If this telescope is used to view the Moon, find
the diameter of the image of the Moon formed by the objective lens. The diameter of the
Moon is 3.48 × 10^6 m and the radius of the lunar orbit is 3.8 × 10^8m. (3M)

Q18. (a) Under what conditions is the phenomenon of total internal reflection of light
observed? Obtain the relation between the critical angle of incidence and the refractive index
of the medium. (b) Three lenses of focal lengths +10 cm, –10 cm and +30 cm are arranged
coaxially as in the figure given below. Find the
position of the final image formed by the combination. (5M)

Q19. Larger aperture of objective lens in an astronomical telescope

(A) increases the resolving power of telescope.

(B) decreases the brightness of the image.
(C) increases the size of the image.
(D) decreases the length of the telescope. (1M)

Q20. A biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1·47 is immersed in a liquid.
It becomes invisible and behaves as a plane glass plate. The refractive index of
the liquid is
(A) 1·47
(B) 1·62
(C) 1·33
(D) 1·51. (1M)

Q21. For a glass prism, the angle of minimum deviation will be smallest for the
light of
(A) red colour.
(B) blue colour.
(C) yellow colour.
(D) green colour. (1M)

Q22. A ray of light on passing through an equilateral glass prism, suffers a minimum
deviation equal to the angle of the prism. The value of refractive
index of the material of the prism is ___________. (1M)

Q23. Using lens maker’s formula, derive the thin lens formula 1/f = 1/v - 1/u for a
biconvex lens. (2M)

Q24. (a) Draw the ray diagram of an astronomical telescope when the final image is formed
at infinity. Write the expression for the resolving power of the
telescope.
(b) An astronomical telescope has an objective lens of focal length 20 m and
eyepiece of focal length 1 cm.
(i) Find the angular magnification of the telescope.
(ii) If this telescope is used to view the Moon, find the diameter of the image
formed by the objective lens. Given the diameter of the Moon is 3·5 x 10^6 m and
radius of lunar orbit is 3·8 x 10^8 m. (5M)

Q25. (a) An object is placed in front of a concave mirror. It is observed that a virtual image is
formed. Draw the ray diagram to show the image formation and hence derive the mirror
equation 1/f = 1/u + 1/v.

(b) An object is placed 30 cm in front of a plano-convex lens with its spherical

surface of radius of curvature 20 cm. If the refractive index of the material of
the lens is 1·5, find the position and nature of the image formed. (5M)

WAVE OPTICS
Q1. Find an expression for the intensity of transmitted light when a polaroid
sheet is rotated between two crossed polaroids. In which position of the
polaroid sheet will the transmitted intensity be maximum? (2M)
Q2. Answer the following questions:

(a) In a double slit experiment using light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width
of the fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1o. Find the spacing between the two
slits.

(b) Light of wavelength 5000 Å. propagating in the air gets partly reflected from the
surface of the water. How will the wavelengths and frequencies of the reflected and
refracted light be affected? (3M)

Q3. (a) Using Huygens's construction of secondary wavelets explain how a

diffraction pattern is obtained on a screen due to a narrow slit on which a
monochromatic beam of light is incident normally.

(b) Show that the angular width of the first diraction fringe is half that of the
central fringe.

(c) Explain why the maxima at = θ = (n+1/2) λ/a become weaker and weaker with
increasing n (5M)

Q4. State Brewster’s law. The value of the Brewster angle for a transparent
medium is dierent for the light of dierent colours. Give reason. (2M)

Q5. (i) In Young’s double slit experiment, deduce the condition for (a) constructive,
and (b) destructive interference at a point on the screen. Draw a graph showing
the variation of intensity in the interference pattern against position ‘x’ on the
screen. (ii) Compare the interference pattern observed in Young’s double-slit
experiment with the single-slit diraction pattern, pointing out three distinguishing
features. (5M)

Q6. Draw the intensity pattern for single-slit diraction and double-slit interference.
Hence, state two dierences between interference and diraction patterns. (2M)

Q7. Unpolarised light is passed through a polaroid P1. When this polarised
beam passes through another polaroid P2 and if the pass axis of P2 makes
angle θ with the pass axis of P1, then write the expression for the polarised
beam passing through P2. Draw a plot showing the variation of intensity when
θ varies from 0 to 2π. (2M)

Q8. (a) Define wavefront. Use Huygens’ principle to verify the laws of refraction. (b)
How is linearly polarised light obtained by the process of scattering of light? Find the
Brewster angle for air – the glass interface, when the refractive index of glass = 1·5.
(5M)

Q9. Draw a graph showing the intensity distribution of fringes due to diraction at a
single slit. (1M)

Q10. (a) When an unpolarized light of intensity Io is passed through a polaroid,

what is the intensity of the linearly polarized light? Does it depend on the
orientation of the polaroid? Explain your answer. (b) A plane-polarized beam of
light is passed through a polaroid. Show graphically the variation of the intensity of
the transmitted light with the angle of rotation of the polaroid in complete one
rotation. (3M)

Q11. (i) Write two points to distinguish between interference and diraction fringes.
(ii) In Young’s double-slit experiment, fringes are obtained on a screen placed a
certain distance away from the slits. If the screen is moved by 5 cm towards the
slits, the fringe width changes by 30 µm. Given that the slits are 1 mm apart,
calculate the wavelength of the light used. (3M)

Q12. What is the speed of light in a denser medium with a polarising angle of
30°? (1M)

Q13. Define the term wavefront. Using Huygen’s wave theory, verify the law of
reflection. (3M)

Q14. (a) Describe any two characteristic features which distinguish between
interference and diraction phenomena. Derive the expression for the intensity at a
point of the interference pattern in Young’s double-slit experiment.

(b) In the diraction due to a single slit experiment, the aperture of the slit is 3 mm. If
monochromatic light of wavelength 620 nm is incident normally on the slit, calculate
the separation between the first-order minima and the 3rd-order maxima on one side
of the screen. The distance between the slit and the screen is 1.5 m. (5M)

Q15. Define wavefront of a travelling wave. Using Huygens principle, obtain the
law of refraction at a plane interface when light passes from a denser to rarer
medium. (2M)

Q16. What is the effect on the interference fringes in Young’s double slit
experiment due to each of the following operations? Justify your answers. (a)
The screen is moved away from the plane of the slits. (b) The separation
between slits is increased. (c) The source slit is moved closer to the plane of
double slit. (3M)

DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION

AND MATTER
Q1. A proton and an a-particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Determine the
ratio of (i) their accelerating potentials and (ii) their speeds. (2M)

Q2. Write Einstein's Photoelectric equation and mention which important

features in the photoelectric eect can be explained with the help of this
equation.

The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons gets doubled when the
wavelength of light incident on the surface changes from λ1 to λ2. Derive the
expressions for the threshold wavelength λ0 and work function for the metal
surface. (3M)

Q3. Plot a graph showing the variation of de-Broglie wavelength λ versus 1/√V,
where V is the accelerating potential for two particles A and B carrying the same
charge but of masses m1, m2 (m1>m2). Which one of the two represents a
particle of smaller mass and why? (2M)

Q4. Write three characteristic features in the photoelectric effect which cannot be
explained on the basis of the wave theory of light, but can be explained only using
Einstein’s equation. (3M)

Q5. Name the phenomenon which shows the quantum nature

of electromagnetic radiation. (1M)

Q6. Using a photon picture of light, show how Einstein’s photoelectric equation can
be established. Write two features of the photoelectric effect which cannot be
explained by the wave theory. (3M)

Q7. An electron is accelerated through a potential dierence V. Write the

expression for its final speed if it was initially at rest. (1M)

Q8. Find the frequency of light which ejects electrons from a metal surface, fully
stopped by a retarding potential of 3.3 V. If photoelectric emission begins in this
metal at a frequency of 8 × 10^14 Hz, calculate the work function (in eV) for this
metal. (2M)

Q9. Monochromatic light of frequency 6.0 × 10^14 Hz is produced by a laser. The

power emitted is 2.0 × 10^–3 W. Calculate the (i) energy of a photon in the light
beam and (ii) the number of photons emitted on average by the source. (2M)

Q10. State Einstein’s photoelectric equation explaining the symbols used.

Light of frequency v is incident on a photosensitive surface. A graph of the square

of the maximum speed of the electrons (v^2 max ) vs. v is obtained as shown in the
figure. Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation, obtain expressions for

(i) Planck’s constant

(ii) the work function of the given photosensitive material in terms of

parameters l, n and mass of the electron m. (3M)

Q11. Define the term “threshold frequency”, in the context of photoelectric

emission. (1M)

Q12. Why is the wave theory of electromagnetic radiation not able to explain the
photoelectric effect? How does a photon picture resolve this problem? (2M)

Q13. Plot a graph showing the variation of de Broglie wavelength (λ) associated
with a charged particle of mass m, versus 1/√ V, where V is the potential dierence
through which the particle is accelerated. How does this graph give us information
regarding the magnitude of the charge of the particle? (2M)

Q14. Photons of energies 1 eV and 2 eV are successively incident on a metallic

surface of work function 0·5 eV. The ratio of kinetic energy of most energetic
photoelectrons in the two cases will be

(A) 1 : 2

(B) 1 : 1

(C) 1 : 3

(D) 1 : 4. (1M)

Q15. A proton and an electron have equal speeds. Find the ratio of de Broglie
wavelengths associated with them. (1M)

Q16. The variation of the stopping potential (Vo) with the frequency (v) of the light
incident on two different photosensitive surfaces M1 and M2 is shown in the figure.
Identify the surface which has greater value of the work function. (1M)

Q17. (a) Write two main observations of photoelectric effect experiment which
could only be explained by Einstein’s photoelectric equation.

(b) Draw a graph showing variation of photocurrent with the anode potential of a
photocell. (2M)

Q18. The speed acquired by a free electron when accelerated from rest through a
potential difference of 100 V is :

(A) 6 × 106 ms-1

(B) 3 × 106 ms-1
(C) 4 × 105 ms-1
(D) 2 × 103 ms-1

ATOMS
Q1. Show that the radius of the orbit in a hydrogen atom varies as n2, where n is
the principal quantum number of the atom. (2M)

Q2. In the study of the Geiger-Marsdon experiment on the scattering of particles

by a thin foil of gold, draw the trajectory of -particles in the Coulomb field of the
target nucleus. Explain briefly how one gets the information on the size of the
nucleus from this study.

From the relation R = R0 A^(1/3), where R0 is constant and A is the mass number
of the nucleus, show that nuclear matter density is independent of A. (3M)

Q3. State Bohr’s quantisation condition for defining stationary orbits. How does de
Broglie's hypothesis explain the stationary orbits? (ii) Find the relation between
the three wavelengths λ1, λ2 and λ3 from the energy level diagram shown below.
(3M)

Q4. A 12·5 eV electron beam is used to excite a gaseous hydrogen atom at room
temperature. Determine the wavelengths and the corresponding series of the lines
emitted. (2M)
Q5. Calculate the ratio of the frequencies of the radiation emitted due to the
transition of the electron in a hydrogen atom from its (i) second permitted
energy level to the first level and (ii) highest permitted energy level to the
second permitted level. (2M)

Q6. Define the term “Intensity” in the photon picture of electromagnetic

radiation. (1M)

Q7. State Bohr’s quantisation condition of angular momentum. Calculate the

shortest wavelength of the Bracket series and state to which part of the
electromagnetic spectrum does it belong. (2M)

Q8. Calculate the orbital period of the electron in the first excited state of the
hydrogen atom. (2M)

Q9. Which of the following statements is not correct according to Rutherford

model?
(A) Most of the space inside an atom is empty.
(B) The electrons revolve around the nucleus under the influence of coulomb
force acting on them.
(C) Most part of the mass of the atom and its positive charge are concentrated at
its centre.
(D) The stability of atom was established by the model. (1M)

Q10. According to Bohr’s atomic model, the circumference of the electron orbit is
always an ___________ multiple of de Broglie wavelength. (1M)

Q11. Using Bohr’s atomic model, derive the expression for the radius of nth orbit of
the revolving electron in a hydrogen atom. (2M)

NUCLEI
Q1. Distinguish between nuclear fission and fusion. Show how in both these
processes energy is released.

Calculate the energy release in MeV in the deuterium-tritium fusion reaction :

 (3M)

Q2. A nucleus with mass number A = 240 and BE/A = 7.6 MeV breaks into two
fragments each of A = 120 with BE/A = 8.5 MeV. Calculate the released energy.
(2M)

Q3. Calculate the energy in the fusion reaction : (2M)

Q3. Asha’s mother read an article in the newspaper about a disaster that took place
at Chernobyl. She could not understand much from the article and asked a few
questions from Asha regarding the article. Asha tried to answer her mother’s
questions based on what she learnt in Class XII Physics. (a) What was the
installation at Chernobyl where the disaster took place? What, according to you,
was the cause of this disaster? (b) Explain the process of release of energy in the
installation at Chernobyl. (c) What, according to you, were the values displayed by
Asha and her mother? (4M)

Q4. (a) Draw a plot showing the variation of the potential energy of a pair of
nucleons as a function of their separation. Mark the regions where the nuclear
force is (i) attractive and (ii) repulsive. (b) In the nuclear reaction

determine the values of a and b. (3M)

Q5. Define the term ‘decay constant’ of a radioactive sample. The rate of
disintegration of a given radioactive nucleus is 10000 disintegrations/s and
5,000 disintegrations/s after 20 hr. and 30 hr. respectively from start. Calculate
the half-life and initial number of nuclei at t = 0. (3M)

Q6. In β-decay, the parent and daughter nuclei have the same number of
_____________. (1M)

Q7.

Q8. Define the term ‘Half-life’ of a radioactive substance. Two different

radioactive substances have half-lives T1 and T2 and number of undecayed
atoms at an instant, N1 and N2, respectively. Find the ratio of their activities at
that instant. (2M)

Q9.

The binding energies per nucleon of the parent nucleus, the daughter nucleus
and α-particle are 7·8 MeV, 7·835 MeV and 7·07 MeV, respectively. Assuming
the daughter nucleus to be formed in the unexcited state and neglecting its
share in the energy of the reaction, find the speed of the emitted α-particle.
(Mass of α-particle = 6·68 x 10^–27 kg)

SEMICONDUCTORS
Q1. Distinguish between 'intrinsic' and 'extrinsic' semiconductors. (2M)

Q2. With what considerations in view, a photodiode is fabricated? State its

working with the help of a suitable diagram. Even though the current in the
forward bias is known to be more than in the reverse bias, yet the photodiode
works in reverse bias. What is the reason? (3M)

Q3. Draw a circuit diagram of a transistor amplifier in CE configuration.

Define the terms: (i) Input resistance and (ii) Current amplification factor. How
are these determined using typical input and output characteristics? (3M)

Q4. (i) Write the functions of three segments of a transistor. (ii) Draw the circuit
diagram for studying the input and output characteristics of the n-p-n transistor in
a common emitter configuration. Using the circuit, explain how input, and output
characteristics are obtained. (3M)

Q5. Meeta’s father was driving her to school. At the trac signal, she noticed that
each trac light was made of many tiny lights instead of a single bulb. When Meeta
asked this question to her father, he explained the reason for this.

Answer the following questions based on the above information:

(i) What were the values displayed by Meeta and her father?

(ii) What answer did Meeta’s father give?

(iii) What are the tiny lights in trac signals called and how do these operate ? (5M)

Q6. (a) In the following diagram, is the junction diode forward-biased or

reverse-biased?

(b) Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier and state how it works. (3M)

Q7. (a) Write the functions of the three segments of a transistor. (b) The figure
shows the input waveforms A and B for the ‘AND’ gate. Draw the output
waveform and write the truth table for this logic gate.

Q9. (a) Write the truth table for the combination of the gates shown in the figure

(b) Explain briefly how a photodiode operates. (3M)

Q10. Draw a labelled circuit diagram of an n-p-n germanium transistor in a
common emitter configuration. Explain briefly, how this transistor is used as a
voltage amplifier. (3M)
Q11. (a) Explain with the help of a suitable diagram, the two processes which
occur during the formation of a p-n junction diode. Hence define the terms (i)
depletion region and (ii) potential barrier.
(b) Draw a circuit diagram of a p-n junction diode under forward bias and explain
its working. (5M)
Q12. (a) Three photo diodes D1, D2 and D3 are made of semiconductors having
band gaps of 2.5 eV, 2 eV and 3 eV respectively. Which of them will not be able
to detect light of wavelength 600 nm?
(b) Why photodiodes are required to operate in reverse bias? Explain. (3M)
Q13. (a) Describe briefly the functions of the three segments of the n-p-n
transistor. (b) Draw the circuit arrangement for studying the output
characteristics of the n-p-n transistor in CE configuration. Explain how the output
characteristics are obtained. (3M)
Q14. Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier and explain its working.
Also, give the input and output waveforms. (3M)
Q15. How does an increase in doping concentration affect the width of depletion
layer of a p-n junction diode? (1M)

Q16. Why cannot we use Si and Ge in fabrication of visible LEDs? (1M)

Q17. Explain the terms ‘depletion layer’ and ‘potential barrier’ in a p-n junction
diode. How are the (a) width of depletion layer, and (b) value of potential barrier
affected when the p-n junction is forward biased? (2M)

Q18. (a) Draw circuit diagram and explain the working of a zener diode as a dc
voltage regulator with the help of its I-V characteristic.

(b) What is the purpose of heavy doping of p- and n-sides of a zener diode?
(3M)

COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS

Q1. Explain the terms (i) Attenuation and (ii) Demodulation used in
Communication Systems. (2M)

Q2. (a) Explain any two factors which justify the need of modulating a
low-frequency signal. (b) Write two advantages of frequency modulation over
amplitude modulation. (3M)

Q3. (a) How is amplitude modulation achieved? (b) The frequencies of two side
bands in an AM wave are 640 kHz and 660 kHz respectively. Find the frequencies
of the carrier and modulating signal. What is the bandwidth required for amplitude
modulation? (3M)

Q4. Draw a block diagram of a generalised communication system. Write the

functions of each of the following : (a) Transmitter (b) Channel (c) Receiver (3M)

Q5. (a) Describe briefly three factors which justify the need for modulation of audio
frequency signals over long distances in communication. (b) Draw the waveforms of
(i) a carrier wave, (ii) a modulating signal and (iii) amplitude modulated wave. (5M)

Q6. In the sky wave mode of propagation, why is the frequency range of
transmitting signals restricted to less than 30 MHz? (1M)
Q7. Why a signal transmitted from a TV tower cannot be received beyond a certain
distance? Write the expression for the optimum separation between the receiving
and the transmitting antenna. (2M)

Q8. (a) If A and B represent the maximum and minimum amplitudes of an amplitude
modulated wave, write the expression for the modulation index in terms of A & B.

(b) A message signal of frequency 20 kHz and peak voltage 10 V is used to

modulate a carrier of frequency 2 MHz and peak voltage of 15 V. Calculate the
modulation index. Why the modulation index is generally kept at less than one?
(3M)