MEDICON DOCTORS ACADEMY

Weekend Test -19

Test : LONGTERM Date : 03-122023
Time : 3 Hrs Max Marks : 720

S.No. Subject : Topic Name

1 Botany: Principles of Inheritence and Variation
2 Zoology : Biodiversity and co
conservation
3 Physics : Potential
ential And Capacitence It
4 Chemistry: Solutions
Botany:
Part-A: (Answer
Answer All Questions
Questions)
1. Humans knew from as early as 8000––1000 BC that one of the causes of variation
ation was hidden in
1) sexual reproduction 2) asexual reproduction
3) vegetative propagation 4) none of these

2.. Which one from the following is the period for Mendel’s hybrid
hybridization
ization experiments?
1) 1840–1850 2) 1857–1869
3) 1870–1877 4) 1856–1863

3. Match Column-I with Column-II

II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. (Pg. 70, M)

4.. How many pairs of contrasting characters in pea plants were studied by Mendel in his experiments?
1) Six 2) Eight
3) Seven 4) Four

5.. Among the following, which one is not a dominating trait?

1) Axial position of flower 2) Green colour of pod
3) Violet colour of flower 4) Green colour of seed

6. A true-breeding line is one that

1) has undergone continuous selfpoll
selfpollination 2) shows stable trait inheritance
3) shows expressions of trait for several generations 4) all of these
7. Which technique was used by Mendel during his experiments on pea plant?
1) Artificial pollination 2) Cross pollination 3) Self-pollination 4) All of these

8. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following.

(I) During Mendel’s investigation, statistical analysis and mathematical logic were applied to problems in
Biology.
(II) Mendel investigated characters in the garden pea plant that were manifested as two opposing traits.
(III) Mendel conducted artificial pollination experiments using several true-breeding pea lines.
(IV) Mendel selected eight true-breeding pea plant varieties as pairs.
1) I and I I 2) III and IV 3) I, II and III 4) All of these

9. Assertion: Mendel used true-breeding pea lines for his experiments. Reason: A true-breeding line is one that
has undergone continuous selfpollination.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
4) Both assertion and reason are false.

10. The ‘factors’ of Mendel are today known as

1) genome 2) gene 3) DNA 4) allele

11. In homozygous condition, a particular gene has

1) different alleles on homologous chromosomes.
2) no alleles on homologous chromosomes.
3) same alleles on homologous chromosomes.
4) none of these

12. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the codes given below.

13. Choose the incorrect statement about Mendel’s monohybrid cross.

1) The recessive parental trait is expressed without any blending in F2 generation.
2) The alleles of parental pair segregate from each other and both alleles are transmitted to a gamete.
3) The segregation of alleles is a random process.
4) There is a 50% chance of a gamete containing either allele.

14. Based on his observations of monohybrid cross, Mendel proposed which law of inheritance?
1) Law of dominance 2) Law of segregation
3) Law of independent assortment 4) Both (1) and (2)
15. The genotypic ratio obtained in incomplete dominance is
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 : 1 4) 1 : 2 : 1

16. A person of AB blood group has IA and IB genes. It is an example of

1) pleiotropy 2) segregation 3) co-dominance 4) None of these

17. ABO blood grouping is a good example of

1) incomplete dominance 2) mutation 3) multiple alleles 4) pleiotropy

18. Choose the incorrect statement from the following about pleiotropy.
1) In pleiotropy, a single gene produces more than one effect.
2) Starch synthesis in pea seeds is controlled by one gene.
3) Pea seeds having BB genotypes, produce small starch grains.
4) bb homozygotes of pea produce wrinkled seeds.

19. The numbers of phenotypes and genotypes in F2 generation of a Mendelian dihybrid cross are
1) phenotypes 4: genotypes 16 2) phenotypes 4: genotypes 8
3) phenotypes 9: genotypes 4 4) phenotypes 4: genotypes 9

20. Assertion: The pink flower of dog plant show incomplete dominance. Reason: In pink flowers, both alleles
are expressed equally.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
4) Both assertion and reason are false.

21. Genes A and B are linked. The F1 heterozygote of a dihybrid cross involving these genes is crossed with
homozygous recessive parental type (aab2). What would be the ratio of offspring in the next generation?
1) 1: 1 2) 1: 1: 1: 1 3) 9: 3: 3: 1 4) 3: 1

22. Among the following, who noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the behavior of genes?
1) Walter Sutton 2) Theodore Boveri 3) Von Tschermak 4) Both (1) and (2)

23. Refer to the given figures (A–4) showing traits of pea plant studied by Mendel. Among these, choose the
dominant trait.

A) B 2) A 3) D 4) C
24. How many of the following statements about Double – helix structure of DNA is correct –
i) Two chains are coiled in right – handed fashion
ii) Pitch of helix is 3.6 nm
iii) There are roughly 10 bp in each turn
iv) Plane of one base pair stacks over the other
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4

25. Central dogma in molecular biology was proposed by ––

1) Crick 2) Watson 3) F. Meischar 4) Chragaff
26. Which is correct about thymine & uracil –
1) Uracil is 5-methyl thymine 2) Thymine is 5-methyl uracil
3) Uracil is 5-ethyl thymine 4) Thymine in 5-ethyl uracil

27. Histones are –

(1) Positive and acidic in eukaryotes 2) Positive and acidic in prokaryotes
3) Positive and basic in eukaryotes 4) Positive and basic in prokaryotes

28. Griffith observed that the mice died surprisingly the following combination of strains was used, which was
unusual- 1) S-strain heat killed 2) Heat killed S-strain
3) Heat killed R-strain + Live S-strain 4) Heat killed S-strain + Live R-strain

29. Prior to work of Avery, Macleod and McCarty, genetic material was thought to be-
1) Protein 2) DNA 3) RNA 4) None

30. Which enzyme inhibited the transformation-

1) Protease 2) RNase 3) DNase 4) Al

31. In the experiment performed for proving DNA as genetic material, the bacteriophages were grown on
medium containing-
1) radioactive sulfur 2) radioactive nitrogen
3) radioactive phosphorous 4) More than one option

32. A - Stability as a property of genetic material was very evident in Griffith's transforming principle R - Heat
can kill the bacteria and completely destroy the properties of genetic material
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation for A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation for R
3) A is true but R is false 4) Both A and R are false

33. The DNA replication model experimental proof was first shown in-
1) Human cells 2) E. coli 3) Plant cell 4) Vicia faba

34. The heavy DNA molecule containing heavy isotope of N is distinguished from normal DNA by-
1) UV rays 2) Ethidium bromide solution
3) Centrifugation is CsCl density gradient 4) PCR technique

35. In Meselson & Stahl expt a bacteria after dividing in 20 minutes had a hybrid DNA. What will be the ratio
of Hybrid to Light after 80 minutes?
1) 2 : 14 2) 14 : 2 3) 16 : 2 4) 2 : 16
Part-B: (Answer Any Ten Questions) :

36.Polymerization by DNA polymerase is in-

1) 3' → 5' direction only 2) 5' → 3' direction only
3) A and B both 4) Random

37. The template of replication fork with polarity 5' → 3' is ____ while 3' → 5' is ____.
1) continuous, continuous 2) continuous, discontinuous
3) discontinuous, continuous 4) discontinuous, discontinuous

38. Experiment on Vicia faba involved use of-

1) Radioactive uridine 2) Radioactive thymidine
3) Radioactive adenosine 4) Radioactive cytidine
39. What is function of deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate-
1) It act as substrate 2) Provide energy for polymerization
3) A and B both 4) It is product formed after polymerization

40. Polyploidy resulted by-

1) A failure in cell division after DNA replication
2) A failure in DNA replication after cell division
3) A failure in cell division before DNA replication
4) A and C both

41. Transcription unit primarily consist of-

1) 1 region 2) 2 regions 3) 3 regions 4) None of these

42. Promoter is located-

(i) 3' end (ii) 5' end (iii)upstream of structural gene (iv) downstream of structural gene
1) i, iii 2) ii, iii 3) i, iv 4) ii, iv

43. Choose the correct statement.

1) Monocistronic eukaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.
2) Polycistronic prokaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.
3) Monocistronic prokaryotic structural gene have interrupted coding sequence.
4) A and B both

44. Intron-
1) appear is mature or processed RNA
2) do not appear in mature or processed RNA
3) appear is prokaryotes
4) B and C both

45. Cistron is-

1) Segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide
2) Segment of RNA coding for a polypeptide
3) Segment of DNA that are non-coding sequence
4) Segment of RNA have not any coding sequence

46. How many polymerase required is bacteria for transcription of all type of RNA?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Five

47. Translation & transcription in eukaryote occur in

1) Cytoplasm & nucleus respectively 2) Nucleus & cytoplasm respectively
3) Cytosol 4) Nucleus

48. Which of following can be coupled in bacteria?

1) Replication & transcription 2) Transcription & translation
3) Replication & translation 4) None of these

49. Initiation factor and termination factor are-

1) Sigma and Rho factor respectively. 2) Rho and Sigma factor respectively.
3) Rho and Rho factor respectively. 4) Sigma and Sigma factor respectively.
50. Transcription of 18 s rRNA is done by ____ in eukaryote.
1) RNA pol. I 2) RNA pol. II 3) RNA pol. III 4) All of these

ZOOLOGY
Part-A: (Answer All Questions)
51. Term ‘Biodiversity’ popularized by
1) Robert hook 2) Ernst Haeckel 3) Edward Wilson 4) G. Tansley

52. Edward Wilson was a –

1) Mathematician 2) Sociobiologist 3) Psychologist 4) None of
the above

53. ‘Biodiversity’ was popularized

1) To describe the combined diversity 2) to describe individual diversity
3) To describe plant diversity 4) None of the above

54. Types of Biodiversity is/are-

1) Genetic diversity 2) Species diversity
3) Ecological diversity 4) All of these

55. The genetic variation shown in

1) Rouwolfia vomitoria 2) Rice
3) Mango 4) All of the above

56. Active chemical in Rauwolfia vomitoria

1) Terpine 2) Reserpine 3) Asprine 4) None of the above

57. Which one is correct about Genetic diversity

1) Genetic variation shown by Rauwolfia vomitoria
2) Genetic variation shown in western ghats.
3) India has less than 5000 genetically different strain of rice
4) India has 1,000 varieties of rice

58. India has more than…….. genetically different strains of rice, and ……varieties of Mango.
1) 50,000, 1,000 2) 1,000 & 50,000
3) 5,000, 1,000 4) 1,000 & 5,000

59. The diversity at the species level is c/a

1) Ecological diversity 2) Genetic diversity
3) Species diversity 4) None of these

60. The ……..Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than the ….. Ghats.
1) Eastern, Western 2) Western, Eastern
3) Western, Southern, 4) Eastern, Southern

61. Ecological diversity is in

1) Deserts 2) Rain forests, Mangroves
3) Coral reefs, Wetlands 4) All of the above
62. Biodiversity and its conservation is of
1) national concern 2) concern in some states of india
3) international concern 4) all of these

63. IUCN stands for-

1) International unity for conservation of Nature
2) Indian union for conservation of Nature
3) Italian union for conservation at Nature
4) International Union for conservation of Nature and Natural Resources

64. Robert may estimates the global species diversity at about

1) 7 billion 2) 70 million 3) 7 million 4) 70 billion

65. Most species rich taxonomic group are

1) Crustaceans 2) Insects 3) Molluscs 4) None of the above

66. In all available species more than 70% of all the species recorded are _____ which ______ camprise no
more than 22% of the total
1) Invertebrates, Plants 2) Plants, Animal
3) Animal, Plants 4) Plant, Invertebrates

67. Highest variation of species in plants is in-

1) Fungi 2) Mosses 3) Algae 4) Lichens

68. In vertebrates maximum No. of species found in 1) Birds 2) Mammals 3) Fishes 4) Reptiles

69. Problem behind no given figures about prokaryotes is

1) Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying microbial species
2) Many species are simply not culturable under laboratory conditions
3) Because prokaryotes are non-living
4) 1 & 2 both are correct

70. India has only …….. percent at the world’s land area. Its share of the global species diversity in an
impressive …. percent.
1) 2.4, 8.1 2) 8.1, 2.4 3) 4.1, 8.2 4) 8.4, 2.1

71. India is one of the ….mega diversity countries of the world.

1) 13 2) 14 3) 12 4) 11

72. How may plant species found in India roughly

1) 1,00,000 2) 45,000 3) 3,00,00 4) None of the above

73. According to May’s global estimate there are probably…..plant species & more than …..animal species.
1) 3,00,000 & 1,00,000 2) 30,000 & 10,000
3) 1,00,000 & 3,00,000 4) 10,000 & 30,000

74. Species diversity decreases as

1) We move away from the equator towards the poles
2) We move away from the poles towards equator
3) We move hill to plane area
4) None of the above
75. How many species of birds found in India?
1) 1500 2) 1400 3) 1200 4) 1700

76. Greatest biodiversity on earth is found in

1) Sundarbans 2) Amazon rain forest
3) Congo rain forest 4) None of the above

77. Amazon Rainforest situated in

1) North America 2) North India
3) South America 4) West America

78.

79. How many insect species waiting to be discovered & named.

1) 2 million 2) 20,000 3) 2,000 4) 2,00,000

80. Which one is wrong about species found in Amazon rainforest.

1) Reptiles-378 2) Fishes-3,000
3) Birds-1300 4) All of the above are correct

81. More……Energy available in tropics, which contributes to higher productivity

1) Solar 2) Thermal 3) Nuclear 4) None of the above

82. The relation b/w species richness & area for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a
1) Linear 2) Sigmoid
3) Rectangular Hyperbola 4) None of the above

83. Correct equation of species-Area relationship

1) log A = log S + Z log C 2) log S = log C + Z log A
3) log S = log Z + C log A 4) log S = log C – Z log A

84. In species area relationship equation, Z stands for-

1) Slope of the line 2) Regression coefficient
3) species richness 4) Both 1 & 2 are correct

85. Value of Z is 1) 20-30 2) 1 – 2 3) 0.1 – 0.2 4) None of the above

Part-B: (Answer Any Ten Questions) :

86. The value of Z in the entire continents
1) 0.8 – 1.8 2) 0.6 – 1.2 3) 0.1 - 0.2 4) None of the above

87. The value of Z for frugivorous birds & mammals in the tropical forests of different continents
1) 2. 15 2) 0.5 3) 1.15 4) 0.8

88. Concept of species-Area relationship given by

1) Robert Frost 2) Paul Ehrlich
3) Alexander hook 4) Alexander Von Humboldt

89. Alexander von Humboldt is a 1) German naturalist 2) Philosopher 3) Geographer 4) Both 1 & 3 are correct

90. According to Alexander species richness

1) Increased with increasing explored area, but only up to a limit
2) Decreased with increasing explored area, but only up to a limit
3) Increased with decreasing explored area, but there are no limitations
4) None of the above

91. Find out A and B and also select the correct answer

a = species richness, b = Area 2) a = area, b = species richness

3) a = Area, b = Regression coefficient 4) none of these

92. In species-area relationship equation

1) S = species richness 2) A = area
3) C = Y – intercept 4) All of these

93. Which one is correct about a stable community?

1) Should not show too much variation in productivity from year to year
2) It must be either resistant or resilient on surface disturbance
3) It must also be resistant to invasions by alien species
4) All of these are correct

94. Find out correct option about David Tilman’s long term ecosystem experiments
1) Plots with more species showed less year-to-year va riation in total biomass
2) Plots with more species show too much variation in productivity
3) Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity
4) Both 1 & 3 are correct
95. ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’ is given by
1) Alexander von Humboldt 2) Paul Ehrlich
3) Tilman 4) Robert hook
96. Paul Ehrlich is a
1) Stanford ecologist 2) Stanford psychologist
3) Stanford micrologist 4) Stanford geologist
97. In Rivet popper hypothesis, rivets depict as
1) Ecosystem 2) Extinct species
3) Species 4) Plants

98. According to Ehrlich’s rivet popper hypothesis loss of rivets on the wings affects in ecosystem as-
1) Loss of key species that drive major ecosystem function
2) Proper functioning of ecosystem
3) Species to become extinct
4) None of these

99. According to rivet popper hypothesis, which one is not correct

1) Rivet – species 2) Airplane – Ecosystem
3) Rivets to take home – species to become extinct 4) All of these are correct

100. The colonization of tropical pacific islands by humans is said to have led to the extinction of more than
______ of native birds
1) 2000 species 2) 1200 species 3) 20000 species 4) 200 species

PHYSICS
Part-A: (Answer All Questions)

101.A particle A has charge q and a particle B has charge  4q with each of them having the same mass m .
vA
When allowed to fall from rest through the same electric potential difference, the ratio of their speed will
vB
become
(1) 2 :1 (2) 1:2
(3) 1:4 (4) 4 :1

102.A particle of mass m and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released. The
kinetic energy attained by the particle after moving a distance y is
(1) qEy 2 (2) qE 2 y
(3) qEy (4) q 2 Ey

103.The ratio of momenta of an electron and an -particle which are accelerated from rest by a potential
difference of 100 volt is
2m e
(1)1 (2)
m

me me
(3) (4)
m 2m 

104.The displacement of a charge Q in the electric field E  e 1ˆi  e 2 ˆj  e 3 kˆ is rˆ  aˆi  bˆj . The work done is

(1) Q(ae1  be 2 ) (2) Q (ae 1 )2  (be 2 )2

(3) Q(e 1  e 2 ) a 2  b 2 (4) Q( e 12  e 22 ) (a  b )

105.Electric potential at any point is V  5 x  3 y  15 z , then the magnitude of the electric field is
(1) 3 2 (2) 4 2
 (3) 5 2 (4) 7
106.Point charge q1  2 C and q 2  1 C are kept at points x 0 and x 6 respectively. Electrical potential will
be zero at points

(1) x  2 and x  9 (2) x  1 and x  5

(3) x  4 and x  12 (4) x  2 and x  2
107.An electric dipole has the magnitude of its charge as q and its dipole moment is p. It is placed in a uniform
electric field E. If its dipole moment is along the direction of the field, the force on it and its potential
energy are respectively
(1) 2q  E and minimum (2) q  E and p  E
(3) Zero and minimum (4) q  E and maximum
108.A spherical conductor of radius 2m is charged to a potential of 120 V. It is now placed inside another
hollow spherical conductor of radius 6m. Calculate the potential to which the bigger sphere would be raised

(1) 20 V (2) 60 V
(3) 80 V (4) 40 V
109.In the rectangle, shown below, the two corners have charges q1  5 C and q 2  2 .0 C . The work done in
moving a charge 3 .0 C from B to A is (take 1 / 4  0  10 10 N - m 2 / C 2 )

A
q1

5 cm
q2
B 15 cm

(1) 2.8 J (2) 3.5 J

(3) 4.5 J (4) 5.5 J
110.Work done in moving a positive charge on an equipotential surface is
(1)Finite, positive but not zero (2) Finite, negative but not zero
(3) Zero (4) Infinite
111.Four charges Q,  Q,  Q,  Q are placed at the corners of a square taken in order. At the centre of the square

(1) E  0, V  0 (2) E  0, V  0

(3) E  0, V  0 (4) E  0, V  0

112.Electric charges q, q,  2 q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l . The magnitude of
electric dipole moment of the system is
(1) ql (2) 2 ql

(3) 3 ql (4) 4 ql

113.Two infinite plane parallel sheets separated by a distance d have equal and opposite uniform charge
densities  . Electric field at a point between the sheets is

(1) Zero (2)
0

(3) (4)Depends upon the location of the point
2 0
114. In moving from A to B along an electric field line, the electric field does 6 . 4  10 19 J of work on an
electron. If 1 ,  2 are equipotential surfaces, then the potential difference (VC  VA ) is
B

E
A C

1
(1) – 4V (2) 4V 2

(3) Zero (4) 64 V

115. In a charged capacitor, the energy resides

(1) The positive charges
(2) Both the positive and negative charges
(3) The field between the plates
(4) Around the edge of the capacitor plates

116. The insulated spheres of radii R1 and R2 having charges Q1 and Q 2 respectively are connected to each
other. There is
(1) No change in the energy of the system
(2) An increase in the energy of the system
(3) Always a decrease in the energy of the system
(4) A decrease in the energy of the system unless Q1 R2  Q2 R1

117. A light bulb, a capacitor and a battery are connected together as shown here, with switch S
initially open. When the switch S is closed, which one of the following is true

(1) The bulb will light up for an instant when the capacitor starts charging
(2) The bulb will light up when the capacitor is fully charged
(3) The bulb will not light up at all
(4) The bulb will light up and go off at regular intervals

118. The capacity of a condenser in which a dielectric of dielectric constant 5 has been used, is C . If
the dielectric is replaced by another with dielectric constant 20, the capacity will become
(1) C (2) 4 C (3) C (4) 2 C
4 2

119. If there are n capacitors in parallel connected to Vvolt source, then the energy stored is equal to
(1) CV (2) 1 nCV 2 (3) CV 2 (4) 1 CV 2
2 2n

120. The electric field between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor when connected to a certain battery
is E 0 . If the space between the plates of the capacitor is filled by introducing a material of dielectric constant
K without disturbing the battery connections, the field between the plates shall be
(1) KE0 (2) E 0
E0
(3) (4) None of the above
K
121. Four plates of equal area A are separated by equal distances d and are arranged as shown in the figure.
The equivalent capacity is

A B

2 0 A 3 0 A 3 0 A 0 A
(1) (2) (3) (4)
d d d d
122. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with three
different dielectric materials having dielectric constants k 1 ,k 2 and k 3 as shown. If a single
dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its
dielectric constant k is given by A/2 A/2
K1 K2 d/2
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1)    (2)   d
k k 1 k 2 2k 3 k k 1  k 2 2k 3
K3
k1k 2
(3) k  2k 3 (4) k  k1  k 2  2k 3
k1  k 2 A
A = Area of plates
123. A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q 1 and Q 2 and they are placed at a distance R from each
other. The maximum force of repulsion between them will occur, when
(1) Q 2  Q , Q 1  Q  Q (2) Q 2  Q , Q 1  Q  2 Q
R R 4 3
Q 3Q Q Q
(3) Q 2  , Q1  (4) Q1  , Q 2 
4 4 2 2

124. Three charges 4 q, Q and q are in a straight line in the position of 0, l/2 and l respectively. The
resultant force on q will be zero, if Q 
q
(1) – q (2)  2q (3)  (4) 4q
2

125. The number of electrons in 1.6 C charge will be

(1) 10 19 (2) 10 20 (3) 1 . 1  10 19 (4) 1.1  102

126. Two spheres A and B of radius 4 cm and 6 cm are given charges of 80 c and 40  c respectively. If
they are connected by a fine wire, the amount of charge flowing from one to the other is
(1) 20 C from A to B (2) 16 C from A to B
(3) 32 C from B to A (4) 32 C from A to B

127. Two point charges Q and – 3Q are placed at some distance apart. If the electric field at the
location of Q is E then at the locality of 3 Q , it is
(1)  E (2) E / 3 (3) 3 E (4)  E / 3
128. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of each side is ' a' . Work done in
removing a charge – Q from its centre to infinity is
2Q 2 2Q 2 Q2
(1) 0 (2) (3) (4)
4  0 a  0 a 2 0 a
129. At a certain distance from a point charge the electric field is 500 V / m and the potential is 3000 V .
What is this distance
(1) 6 m (2) 12 m (3) 36 m (4) 144 m
130. The ratio of momenta of an electron and an -particle which are accelerated from rest by a
potential difference of 100 volt is
2m e me me
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
m m 2m 

131. As shown in the figure, charges  q and q are placed at the vertices B and C of an isosceles
triangle. The potential at the vertex A is
1 2q
(1) . A
4 0 a 2  b 2
(2) Zero a
1 q
(3) . b b
4 0 a2  b 2 B C
+q –q
1 (q)
(4) .
4 0 a2  b 2

132. Three charges Q,  q and  q are placed at the vertices of a right-angled isosceles triangle as shown. The
net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is equal to
q Q
(1)
1 2
2q
(2)
2 2
(3) 2 q
+q +q
(4) q a

133. Figure shows three points A, B and C in a region of uniform electric field E . The line AB is
perpendicular and BC is parallel to the field lines. Then which of the following holds good. Where
VA , VB and VC represent the electric potential at points A, B and C respectively

A
(1) V A  VB  VC
(2) VA  VB  VC C
B
(3) VA  VB  VC
(4) 𝑽𝑨 ≠ 𝑽𝑩 ≠ 𝑽𝑪

134. Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as shown in figure. The electric field at point P is
2 Z
(1) k̂
o  Z = 3a
2
(2)  k̂ P
o 2 Z=a
4
(3) k̂ x
o
4  Z = a
(4)  k̂
o
135. The potential at a point due to an electric dipole will be maximum and minimum when the angles
between the axis of the dipole and the line joining the point to the dipole are respectively
(1) 90 o and 180 o (2) 0 o and 90 o (3) 90 o and 0 o (4) 0 o and 180 o
Part-B: (Answer Any Ten Questions) :

136. A cylinder of radius R and length L is placed in a uniform electric field E parallel to the cylinder
axis. The total flux for the surface of the cylinder is given by
 (1) 2R 2 E (2) R 2 / E (3) (R 2  R ) / E (4) Zero

137. A charge q is placed at the centre of a cube. Then the flux passing through one face of cube will
be
q q q q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
0 2 0 40 6 0
138. A molecule with a dipole moment p is placed in an electric field of strength E. Initially the dipole
is aligned parallel to the field. If the dipole is to be rotated to be anti-parallel to the field, the work
required to be done by an external agency is
(1) – 2pE (2) – pE (3) pE (4) 2pE

139. Intensity of an electric field E due to a dipole, depends on distance r as

(1) E  14 (2) E  13 (3) E  12 (4) E
1
r r r r

140. Charges q, 2q, 3q and 4q are placed at the corners A, B, C and D of a square as shown in the
following figure. The direction of electric field at the centre of the square is along
D C
4q 3q

q 2q
A B
(1) AB (2) CB (3) BD (4) AC

141. Electric potential at any point is V   5 x  3 y  15 z , then the magnitude of the electric field is
(1) 3 2 (2) 4 2 (3) 5 2 (4) 7

142. A hollow conducting sphere of radius R has a charge ( Q ) on its surface. What is the electric
R
potential within the sphere at a distance r from its centre
3
1 Q 1 Q 1 Q
(1) Zero (2) (3) (4)
4  0 r 4  0 R 4 0 r 2

143. An electron enters in an electric field with its velocity in the direction of the electric lines of force.
Then
(1) The path of the electron will be a circle (2) The path of the electron will be a parabola
(3) The velocity of the electron will decrease (4) The velocity of the electron will increase

144. Two positive point charges of 12 C and 8 C are 10cm apart. The work done in bringing them 4
cm closer is
(1) 5.8 J (2) 5.8 eV (3) 13 J (4) 13 eV

145. Two metal spheres of radii R1 and R2 are charged to the same potential. The ratio of charges on the
spheres is

(1) R1 : R 2 (2) R1 : R 2 (3) R 12 : R 22 (4) R 13 : R 23

146. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has potential V at a point distant 5 cm from its centre,
then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the centre will be
1 2 3
(1) V (2) V (3) V (4) 3V
3 3 2

147. Eight drops of mercury of equal radii possessing equal charges combine to form a big drop. Then the
capacitance of bigger drop compared to each individual small drop is
(1) 8 times (2) 4 times
(3) 2 times (4) 32 times
148. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the
capacitor are moved further apart by means of insulating handles, then
(1) The charge on the capacitor increases
(2) The voltage across the plates decreases
(3) The capacitance increases
(4) The electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor increases
149.The expression for the capacity of the capacitor formed by compound dielectric placed between the plates
of a parallel plate capacitor as shown in figure, will be (area of plate  A )
0 A
(1) *
 d1 d 2 d 3 
 
K  K  K  d1 d3
 1 2 3 

0 A
(2)
 d1  d 2  d 3 
 
K K K  K1 K2 K3
 1 2 3 
 0 A ( K1 K 2 K 3 )
(3)
d1 d 2 d 3
d2
 AK 1 AK 2 AK 3 
(4)  0    

 d1 d2 d3 
150.Four plates of equal area A are separated by equal distances d and are arranged as shown in the figure. The
equivalent capacity is

A B

2 0 A 3 0 A
(1) * (2)
d d
3 0 A 0 A
(3) (4)
d d
(4) 10 F *

Chemistry
Part-A: (Answer All Questions)
151 1 kg of NaOH solution contains 4 g of NaOH. The approximate concentration of the solution is
(1) About 0.1 N (2) Decinormal
(3) 0.1 molal (4) 0.1 molar
152 If 𝛂 is the degree of dissociation of 𝐍𝐚𝟐 𝐒𝐎𝟒 the van’t Hoff factor (i) used for calculating the molecular
mass is
(1) 𝟏−𝟐𝛂 (2) 𝟏+𝟐𝛂
(3) 𝟏−𝛂 (4) 𝟏+ 𝛂

153 Which of the following solutions has the highest normality?

(1) 6 g of𝐍𝐚𝐎𝐇/100 𝐦𝐋 (2) 𝟎. 𝟓 𝐌 𝐇𝟐 𝐒𝐎𝟒
(3) N phosphoric acid (4) 8 g of KOH/L

154 The molar freezing point constant for water is 𝟏. 𝟖𝟔℃ 𝐦𝐨𝐥 𝟏 . If 342 g of cane sugar (𝐂𝟏𝟐 𝐇𝟐𝟐 𝐎𝟏𝟏 ) is
dissolved in 1000 g of water, the solution will freeze at
(1) −𝟏. 𝟖𝟔℃ (2) −𝟐. 𝟖𝟔℃
(3) +𝟏. 𝟖𝟔℃ (4) +𝟐. 𝟖𝟔℃

155 Which of the following associated with isotonic solutions is not correct?
(1) They will have the same osmotic pressure
(2) They will have the same vapour pressure
(3) They have same weight concentrations
(4) Osmosis does not take place when the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable membrane

156 Which of the following is the expression of Raoult’s law?

(𝐩 =vapour pressure of pure solvent, 𝐩𝐬 =vapour pressure of the solution)
𝐩 𝐩𝐬 𝐧 𝐩𝐬 𝐩 𝐍
(1) = (2) =
𝐩 𝐧 𝐍 𝐩 𝐍 𝐧
𝐩 𝐩𝐬 𝐍 𝐩𝐬 𝐩 𝐍 𝐧
(3) = (4) =
𝐩𝐬 𝐍 𝐧 𝐩𝐬 𝐍

157 The vapour pressure will be lowest of

(1) 0.1 M sugar solution (2) 0.1 M KCl solution
(3) 0.1 M𝐂𝐮(𝐍𝐎𝟑 )𝟐 solution (4) 0.1 M𝐀𝐠𝐍𝐎𝟑 soution

158 20 g of hydrogen is present in a 5 L vessel. The molar concentration of hydrogen is

(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4

159 Normality of 2 M sulphuric acid is

(1) 2N (2) 4N
𝐍 𝐍
(3) (4)
𝟐 𝟒

160 The vant’s Hoff factor for 0.1 M 𝐁𝐚(𝐍𝐎𝟑 )𝟐 solution is 2.74. The degree of dissociation is
(1) 91.3% (2) 87%
(3) 100% (4) 74%

161 For dilute solution Raoult’s law states that

(1) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of solute
 (2) The lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
(3) The vapour pressure of the solution is equal to mole fraction of the solvent
(4) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to amount of solute in solution

162 When a non-volatile solute is dissolved in a solvent, the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to
(1) Mole fraction of solute
(2) Mole fraction of solvent
(3) Concentration of the solute in gram per litre
(4) Concentration of the solute in gram per 100 mL
163 The statement “the relative lowering of the vapour pressure is equal to th ratio ot moles of the solute to
the total number of the moles in the solution” refers to
(1) Hess’s law (2) Dalton’s law
(3) Raoult’s law (4) Charles’law

164 Isotonic solution have the same

(1) Normality (2) Density
(3) Molar concentration (4) None of these

165 An ideal solution is that which

(1) Obey Raoult’s law
(2) Shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(3) Shows negaitive deviation from Raoult’s law
(4) Has no connection with Raoult’s law

166.Colligative properties of a solution depends upon

(1) Nature of both solvent and solute
(2) Nature of solute only
(3) Number of solvent particles
(4) The number of solute particles

167 Relative lowering of vapour pressure of a dilute solution is 0.2. What is the mole fraction of the non-
volatile solute ?
(1) 0.8 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.2

168 When attraction between 𝐀 − 𝐁 is more than that of 𝐀 − 𝐀 and 𝐁 − 𝐁, the solution will
show…..deviation from Raoult’s law
(1) Positive (2) Negative
(3) No (4) Cannot predicted

169 Lowering of vapour pressure is highest for

(1) 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐌 𝐁𝐚𝐂𝐥𝟐 (2) 0.1 M glucose
(3) 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐌 𝐌𝐠𝐒𝐎𝟒 (4) Urea
170 The movement of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane is called
(1) Electrolysis (2) Electrophoresis
(3) Osmosis (4) Cataphoresis

171 The osmatic pressure of a 5% (wt./vol) solution of cane sugar at 𝟏𝟓𝟎℃ is

(1) 3.078 atm (2) 4.078 atm
(3) 5.078 atm (4) 2.45 atm

172 Osmotic pressure of a solution at a given temperature

(1) Increases with concentration (2) Decreases with concentration
(3) Remains same (4) Initially increases and then decreases

173 Van’t Hoff factor of aq 𝐊 𝟐 𝐒𝐎𝟒 at infinite dillution has value equal to
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) Between 2 and 3

174 The molecular weight of 𝐍𝐚𝐂𝐥 determined by studying freezing point depression of its 0.5% aqueous
solution is 30. The apparent degree of dissociation of NaCl is
(1) 0.60 (2) 0.50
(3) 0.30 (4) 0.95

175 Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is independent of the solute and the solvent.
(2) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is a colligative property.
(3) Vapour pressure of a solution is lower than the vapour pressure of the solvent.
(4) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to the original pressure.

176 If liquids A and B form an ideal solution, the

(1) Enthalpy of mixing is zero
(2) Entropy of mixing is zero
(3) Free energy of mixing is zero
(4) Free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero

177 In a mixture of A and B, components show negative deviation when

(1) A—B interaction is stronger than A—A and B—B interaction
(2) A—B interaction is weaker than A—A and B—B interaction
(3) △ 𝐕𝐦𝐢𝐱 > 𝟎,△ 𝐒𝐦𝐢𝐱 > 𝟎
(4) △ 𝐕𝐦𝐢𝐱 = 𝟎,△ 𝐒𝐦𝐢𝐱 > 𝟎

178 Maximum lowering of vapour pressure is observed in the case of

(1) 0.1 M glucose (2) 0.1 M𝐁𝐚𝐜𝐂𝐥𝟐
(3) 0.1 M𝐌𝐠𝐒𝐎𝟒 (4) 0.1 NaCl
179 The sum of mole fractions of A, B and C in an aqueous solution containing 0.2 moles of each A, B and
C is
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.2
(3) 1.0 (4) 1.2

180 An aqueous solution of methanol in water has vapour pressure

(1) Less than that of water (2) More than that of water
(3) Equal to that of water (4) Equal to that of methanol

181 Choose the correct statement.

When concentration of a salt solution is increased
(1) Boiling point increases while vapour pressure decreases.
(2) Boiling point decreases while vapour pressure increases.
(3) Freezing point decreases while vapour pressure increases.
(4) Freezing point increases while vapour pressure decreases.

182 The vapour pressure of a liquid in a closed container depends upon

(1) Amount of liquid (2) Surface area of the container
(3) Temperature (4) None of the above

183 Pressure cooker reduces cooking time for food because

(1) Boiling point of water involved in cooking is increased
(2) Heat is more evenly distributed in the cooking space
(3) The higher pressure inside the cooker crushes the food material
(4) Cooking involves chemical changes helped by a rise in temperature

184 The azeotropic mixture of water (b. pt.𝟏𝟎𝟎℃) and 𝐇𝐂𝐥 (b.pt. 𝟖𝟓℃) boils at 𝟏𝟎𝟖. 𝟓℃.When this
mixture is distilled it is possible to obtain
(1) Pure HCl (2) Pure water
(3) Pure water as well as HCl (4) Neither HCl nor 𝐇𝟐 𝐎 in their pure states

185 Which of the following mixture does not show positive deviation from the Raoult’s law?
(1) Benzene + acetone (2) Acetone + ethanol
(3) Acetone + chloroform (4) Water + ethanol

Part-B: (Answer Any Ten Questions) :

186 For determination of molecular weights, Raoult’s law is applicable only to
(1) Dilute solutions of electrolytes
(2) Concentration solution of electrolytes
(3) Dilute solutions of non electrolytes
(4) Concentration solution of non electrolytes

187 An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point lower than either when it
(1) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
 (2) Shows a positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(3) Shows no deviation from Raoult’s law
(4) Is saturated
188 If 0.1 M solutions of each electrolyte are taken and if all electrolytes are completely dissociated, then
whose boiling point will be highest ?
(1) Glucose (2) KCl
(3) 𝐁𝐚𝐂𝐥𝟐 (4) 𝐊 𝟐 [𝐅𝐞(𝐂𝐍)𝟔 ]

189 The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 10 g glucose (𝐩𝟏 ), 10 g urea (p ) and 10 g
sucrose (p ) are dissolved in 250 mL of water is
(1) p >p >p (2) p >p >p
(3) p >p >p (4) p >p >p

190 The solubility of a gas increases in a liquid with

(1) Decrease in temperature
(2) Increases in temperature
(3) Reduction of gas pressure
(4) Amount of liquid taken

191 A solution of two liquids boils at a temperature more than the boiling point of either them. Hence, the
binary solution shows
(1) Negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(2) Positive deviation from Raoult’s law
(3) No deviation from Raoult’s law
(4) Positive or negative deviation from Raoult’s law depending upon the composition

192 Which of the following is a colligative property?

(1) Boiling point (2) Freezing point
(3) Osmotic pressure (4) Vapour pressure

193 Increasing the temperature of an aqueous solution will cause

(1) Decrease in molarity (2) Decrease in molarity
(3) Decrease in mole fraction (4) Decrease in % w/w

194 The order of osmotic pressure of isomolar solution of BaCl , NaCl and sucrose is
(1) BaCl >NaCl>sucrose (2) NaCl> BaCl > sucrose
(3) Sucrose>NaCl> BaCl (4) BaCl >sucrose>NaCl

195 Van’t Hoff factor more than unity indicates that the solute in solution has
(1) Dissociated (2) Associated
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Cannot say anything

196 Which of the following is true when components forming an ideal solution are mixed?
(1) ΔH = ΔV = 0 (2) ΔH < 𝛥V
 (3) ΔH = ΔV = 1 (4) ΔH > 𝛥V

197 The osmotic pressure of 0.2 molar solution of urea at 27℃ (R=0.082 L atm mol K )is
(1) 4.92 atm (2) 1 atm
(3) 0.2 atm (4) 27 atm

198 Molarity is expressed as

(1) L/mol (2) Mol/L
(3) Mol/1000 g (4) g/L

199 Which is correct about Henry’s law?

(1) There should not be any chemical interaction between the gas and liquid
(2) The gas in contact with the liquid should behave as an ideal gas
(3) The pressure applied should be high
(4) All of the above

200 Azeotropic mixture are

(1) Constant temperature boiling mixture
(2) Those which boils at different temperatures
(3) Mixture of two solids
(4) None of the above