SAMARTH BATCH [TARGET - 720]

CLASS-XII AND XII PASS

TEST-11_[COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST]

TIME : 180 Min Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions CODE: SAMARTH2025PV00011

1. When you are directed to attempt the Test Paper, fill in the particulars in the given OMR Sheet carefully
with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 180 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer).
3. This paper is divided into 3 Parts consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany and Zoology).
4. The paper will consist of 45 questions each in Physics, Chemistry and 90 questions in Biology.
5. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
6. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on OMR Sheet.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any
electronic device etc., except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the OMR Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall.
10. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the OMR Sheet.
11. Students are instructed to Mark Answer / Bubble Answers in from Question No. 1 to 180 as per Question
Paper Series only in OMR
Important :- In OMR Question No. 181 to 200 has to be left blank.

Name of the Candidate : …………….………………………………………………………………………………………

Form Number : ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE: NOIDA | LAJPAT NAGAR | KALU SARAI | PUNJABI BAGH | NSP | JANAKPURI | PREET VIHAR | DWARKA | FARIDABAD |
MALVIYA NAGAR | GURUGRAM | GHAZIABAD
 SUBJECT : PHYSICS

1. Which of the following is smallest unit :- 5. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the
(1) Light year (2) Angstrom figure. To have the resultant force only along the
Y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum
(3) Fermi (4) Metre additional force needed is :-
2. ab2
If Y = 3 , the maximum possible error in the
c
measurement of Y is :-
(1) [
Δa +
Δ
2 b
+
Δ
3 c
] × 100%
a b c
(2) [
Δa +
Δ
2 b
−
Δ
3 c
] × 100%
a b c
(3) [
Δa −
Δ
2 b
−
3 cΔ ] × 100%
a b c (1) √3 (2) 3N
N √

(4) None of these 4

3. A lift is moving downwards with acceleration a. (3) 0.5 N (4) 1.5 N
A man in the lift drops a ball within the lift. The 6.
acceleration of the ball as observed by the man
in the lift and a man standing stationary on the
ground are respectively :
(1) g, g (2) g – a, g – a μ
If ( = 0.5) then find out acceleration of block :
(3) g – a, g (4) a, g (1) 25 m/s2 (2) 12 m/s2
4. A river is flowing at 3 m/s towards East, a boat (3) 7.2 m/s2 (4) 0
is steered toward North at 4 m/s and wind is 7. If the block in the shown arrangement is acted
blowing at 5 m/s 53° North of East. Flag upon by a constant force at t ≥ 0 then maximum
mounted on boat will flutter along : – speed of block will be :-
(1) North-East (2) South-West
(3) West (4) Stand still
(1) F (2) 2F
√
mK √
mK
(3) F (4) √ 2F
√
2mK √ mK
- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 1/32

8. Assertion (A) :- In case of bullet fired from gun, 11. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about
the ratio of kinetic energy of gun and bullet is it's axis is I. It is allowed to roll down on
equal to ratio of mass of bullet and gun. inclined plane without slipping. If its angular
Reason (R) :- In firing, total momentum is ω
velocity at the bottom be , then kinetic energy
conserved. of the cylinder will be :-
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not (1) 1
ω 2 (2) I ω2
the correct explanation of (A)
I
2

(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) 3

I ω 2 (4) 2I ω 2
2
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct 12. A solid uniform disk of mass m and radius r is
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
pivoted about a horizontal axis through its
(4)
correct explanation of (A)
circumference and a small body of mass m is
attached to the rim of the disk at diametrically
9. A bomb initially at rest explodes by it self into opposite position of pivoted point. If the disk is
three equal mass fragments. The velocities of released from rest with the small body, initially
two fragments are (3^i + 2^j ) m/s and ( – ^i – 4^j ) at the same level as the centre, the angular
m/s. The velocity of the third fragment (in m/s) velocity when the small body reaches the lowest
is :- point of the disk is :
(1) 2^i + 2^j (2) 2^i – 2^j (1) 12g (2) 11g
√ √

13r 12r
(3) – 2^i + 2^j (4) – 2^i – 2^j
(3) 12g (4) 7g
10. A spherical imperfectly elastic ball strikes a
√

11r
√

11r
plane with velocity 8 m/s at an angle of 30° 13. The breaking stress of a wire depends upon:-
with the plane. Determine the velocity after
(1) Length of the wire
impact if e = 0.5 (neglect gravity)
(2) Radius of the wire
(3) Material of the wire
(4) Shape of the cross-section

(1) 2i^ + 2√3 ^j (2) 2i^ + 4√3j^

(3) ^ ^ (4) ^ ^
2√3 i + 4j 4i + 2√3 j

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 2/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

14. Two blocks of masses 1 kg and 2 kg are 17. A pendulum clock loses 12s a day if the
connected by a metal wire going over a smooth temperature is 40°C and gains 4s a day if the
pulley as shown in the figure. The breaking temperature is 20°C. The temperature at which
stress of the metal is 40 × 106 N/m2. If g = 10 the clock will show correct time, and the co-
3π α
effecient of linear expansion ( ) of the metal of
m/s2, then what should be the minimum radius
the pendulum shaft are respectively :-
of the wire used if it is not to break ?
(1) 55°C ; α = 1.85 × 10 – 2 / °C
(2) 25°C ; α = 1.85 × 10 – 5 / °C
(3) 60°C ; α = 1.85 × 10 – 4 / °C
(4) 30°C ; α = 1.85 × 10 – 3 / °C
18. At 0°C, the densities of a cork and a liquid in
which the cork floats are d1 and d2 respectively.
The coefficients of expansion for the material of
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 1 mm
the cork just and the liquid are and 100 γ γ
respectively. If the cork sinks when temperature
(3) 1.5 mm (4) 2 mm of liquid is t°C, then ratio (d2/d1) is :-
15. A body's weight is 5N in air and 2N when put in (1) γ
1 + 100 t (2) 1+ t γ
water. The buoyant force is :- γ
1+ t 1 + 100 t γ
(1) 7N (2) 9N (3) 100 + γ t (4) 1+ t γ
1+γt 100 + t γ
(3) 3N (4) None of these 19. A series combination of n1 capacitors, each of
16. An ideal fluid flows (laminar flow) through a value C1 , is charged by a source of potential
pipe of non-uniform diameter. The maximum difference 4V. When another parallel
and minimum diameters of the pipes are 6.4 cm combination of n2 capacitors, each of value C2 is
and 4.8 cm, respectively. The ratio of the connected across potential difference of 4V. it
minimum and the maximum velocities of fluid has the same (total) energy stored in it, as first
in this pipe is : combination has. The value of C2 in terms of C1
(1) √ 3 (2) 3 is then :
2 4 (1) C1 (2) n2
16 C1
(3) 81 (4) 9 n1 n2 n1
256 16 (3) n (4) 16C1
2 2 C1
6n1 n1 n2

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 3/32

20. The Angular velocities of three bodies in SHM 24. A solid metallic sphere has a charge + 3Q.
ω ω ω
are 1, 2, 3 with their respective amplitudes Concentric with this sphere is a conducting
as A1, A2, A3. If all the three bodies have same spherical shell having charge – Q. The radius of
mass and velocity then the sphere is a and that of the spherical shell is
ω
(1) A1 1 = A2 2 = A3 3 ω ω b(b > a). What is the electric field at a distance
(2) A1ω 2
1 ω
= A2 2
2 ω
= A3 2
3
R (a < R < B) from the centre
A ω =A ω =A ω
(1) Q (2) 3Q
(3) 2
1 1
2
2 2
2
3 3 2 πε R 0 2 πε R
0

(4) A ω
2 2
=A ω 2 2
=A 2
(3) 3Q (4) 4Q
πε πε
1 1 2 2

21. If the length of a second's pendulum is increased 4 0 R2 4 0 R2

by 2%, how many seconds will it lose per day ? 25. In which of the following stores maximum
(1) 3927 sec (2) 3737 sec energy ?
(1)
(3) 3427 sec (4) 864 sec (2)
22. If v1 and v2 denote the sound velocity and root
mean square velocity of molecules of an ideal
gas then select the correct option ( = adiabatic γ
constant) (3) (4)
(1) γ 12 (2)
v1 = v2 ( )
γ 13 v1 = v2 ( )
2 3

(3) v1 = v2 ( )γ 1
2
(4)
v1 = v2 (
γ )
1
2
26. When a current I is set up in a wire of radius r,
3
23. Three charges Q, q & q are placed at the vertices
the drift speed is vd. If the same current is set up
through a wire of radius 2r made of same
of a right angle isosceles triangle as shown. The material, the drift speed will be :-
net electrostatic energy of the configuration is
(1) vd/4 (2) vd/2
zero, if q/Q is equal to
(3) 2vd (4) 4vd
27. Two wires of same dimensions and resistivities
ρ 1 and ρ
2 are connected in series. The
equivalent resistivity of the combination is :-
(1) ρ1 ρ2
√ ρ ρ
(2) ( 1 + 2)
(1) – 1 (2) – √2
(3) ρ +ρ1 2
(4) None of the above
(3) – 2 (4) – 2√2 2
- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 4/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

28. Ω
Find the current in 2 resistor 31. The variation of the intensity of magnetisation
(I) with respect to the magnetising field (H) in a
diamagnetic substance is described by the
graph:-

(1) 6A from b to a (2) 6A from a to b

(3) 3A from to b to a (4) zero (1) OD (2) OC
29. Δ Δ
An element I = x ^i is placed at the origin (3) OB (4) OA
and carries a current I = 10 A. 32. Which one of the following graphs represents the
behaviour of magnetic susceptibility of
paramagnetic substance with the temperature.
(2)
(1)

Δ
If x = 1.0 cm magnetic field at point P is
(1) ^
4 × 10−8 kT (2) 4 × 10−8 ^i T (3) (4)

(3) 4 × 10−8 ^j T (4) −4 × 10−8 ^j T

30. A large metal sheet carries an electric current

along its surface. Current per unit length is . λ
Magnetic field near the metal sheet is :- 33. The phenomenon of polarisation of
electromagnetic waves proves that the
(1) μλ (2) λμ 0
electromagnetic waves are :
2π
0
2 (1) transverse
λμ 0 (4) μ 0
2λπ
(3) (2) mechanical
(3) longitudinal
(4) neither longitudinal nor transverse

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 5/32

34. Current in a circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0 A in 37. A instrument uses two mirror as shown in figure.
0.1s. If an average emf of 200 V induced, give Such instrument is built with the mirrors 20 mm
an estimate of the self-inductance of the circuit:- apart. If the radius of curvature of the large
(1) 2H (2) 4H mirror is 220 mm and the small mirror is 140
mm. Where will the final image from M3 of an
(3) 6H (4) 8H object at infinity be ?
35. For the arrangement shown in figure what is the
distance between the first image formed at M1
and the second image formed at M2 ?

(1) 21 cm (2) 31.5 cm

(3) 27.5 cm (4) 19 cm
38. Four different independent waves are
represented by :
ω
(i) y1 = a1sin t
ω
(ii) y2 = a2sin2 t
(1) 20 cm (2) 24 cm ω
(iii) y3 = a3cos t
(3) 28 cm (4) 32 cm (iv) y4 = a4 sin ( ωt + π3 )

36. Which of the following is not an example of With which of two waves interference is
total internal reflection: possible?
(1) Sparkling of diamond (1) (i) & (ii)
(2) Mirage formation (2) (i) & (iv)
(3) Twinkling of stars (3) (iii) & (iv)
(4) Optical fibre (4) Not possible with any combination
39. If diffraction occurs through a single slit then
intensity of first secondary maxima become
........................ % of central maxima :-
(1) 4% (2) 25%
(3) 75% (4) 50%

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 6/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

40. Choose the correct option for given statements 43. That electric circuit represent which Bolean
Statement-I :- The kinetic energy of expression from following :-
photoelectrons emitted by a photosensitive
surface depends on the intensity of the incident
radiation.
Statement-II :- In photoelectric emission process
the maximum energy of the photoelectrons
increases with increasing intensity of the
incident light. (1) Y = A + BC (2) Y =
(1) Statement I is correct Statement II is
(3) Y = (4) Y =
incorrect.
(2) Statement II is correct Statement I is
44. Consider the following statements (A) and (B)
and identify the correct answer.
incorrect
(A) A zener diode is connected in reverse bias,
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are when used as a voltage regulator.
correct. (B) The potential barrier of p - n junction lies
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are between 0.1V to 0.3V
incorrect. (1) (A) and (B) both are correct.
41. Which one of the following is a possible nuclear (2) (A) and (B) both are incorrect.
reaction :-
(3) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect.
(1) 10
5 B + 42 He → 13 1
7 N + 1H
(4) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct.
(2) 23 + 11 H → 20 4
10 Ne + 2 He
11 Na
45. The combination of gates shown below yields.
(3) 239
93 Np → 239
94 P u + β
– + ν̄
(4) 11
7 N + 11 H → 12
6 C + β– + ν

42. A particle is moving on circular path of radius r

with constant speed v. Magnitude of its average
acceleration when it describes half circle is :- (1) NAND gate (2) OR gate
(1) v (2) v2
π r π r
(3) NOT gate (4) AND gate
(3) 2v2 (4) 2v2
πr

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 7/32

 SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

46. 48. A compound (X) with molecular formula C3H9N

reacts with C6H5SO2Cl to give solid which is
insoluble in alkali. X is :-
Products.
(1) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – NH2
(2) CH3 – CH2 – NH – CH3
(3)
Products of this reaction are:
(2)
(1) (4)
+
+ 2CH3I
49. Glucose does not give :
(1) Tollen's test (2) Br2 water test
2CH3OH
(3) Schiff's test (4) All of these
(3) (4)
50. Which one of the following does not react with
Hinsberg reagent ?
+ 2CH3I + 2CH3I
(1) R3N (2) R2NH
(3) RNH2 (4) Ph – NH2

47. Which is not the correct synthesis of m-bromo 51. Reactivities order of nucleophillic substitution
reaction in acid derivatives compound is.
nitrobenzene ?
(1) (1) Acid anhydride >Amide > Ester >Acyl
chloride
(2) Acyl chloride >Ester>Acid anhydride >
(2) Amide
(3) Acyl chloride >Acid anhydride >Ester>
Amide
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Ester >Acyl chloride>Amide >Acid
(4) None of the above anhydride

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 8/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

52. Which one is most reactive towards 56. The IUPAC name of the compound shown below
Nucleophilic addition reaction? is :-
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

(1) 2-Bromo-6-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
(2) 6-Bromo-2-chlorocyclohexene
53. Which of the following is the correct order for (3) 3-Bromo-1-chlorocyclohex-1-ene
bond energy C – H bonds in these compounds ?
(4) 1-Bromo-3-chlorocyclohexene
57. A sample of 0.5 g of an organic compound was
treated according to Kjeldahl’s method. The
ammonia evolved was absorbed in 50 ml of 0.5
M H2SO4. The remaining acid after
neutralisation by ammonia consumed 80 ml of
(1) Y > Z > X (2) X > Z > Y 0.5 M NaOH. The percentage of nitrogen in the
(3) X > Y > Z (4) Z > X > Y organic compound is :
54. (1) 14 (2) 28 (3) 42 (4) 56

A and B are geometrical isomers (RCH=CHR) 58. The correct statement about the compound (A),
(B) and (C) is -
(1) A is cis, B is trans (2) A is trans, B is cis
(3) A and B are cis (4) A and B are trans
55. The correct order of acidity for the following
compounds is

(1) A and B are identical

(2) A and B are diastereomers
(3) A and C are enantiomers
(1) I > II > III (2) II > I > III
(4) A and B are enantiomers
(3) II > III > I (4) I > III > II
- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 9/32

59. Match the compound in Column-I with the 63. In Na2[Fe(CN)5NO], sodium nitroprusside :-
possible isomers given by it in Column-II. (1) Oxidation state of Fe is +2
Column-I Column-II (2) It has NO+ as ligand
(A) CH3CH2CHO 1. Optical
(3) Both are correct
(B) CH3CH=CHCH3 2. Functional
(4) None is correct
(C) 3. Geometrical 64. Identify the incorrect statements for the
behaviour of ethane-1,2-diamine as a ligand :-
(D) CH3—CH3 4. Conformer
(1) It is a neutral ligand
(1) A→2, B→4, C→3, D→1
(2) It is a didentate ligand
(2) A→2, B→3, C→1, D→4
(3) It is a chelating ligand
(3) A→3, B→2, C→1, D→4
(4) It is a unidentate ligand
(4) A→4, B→1, C→3, D→2
65. The aqueous solution containing which one of
60. Among the following the correct order of the following ions will be colourless ?
basicity is :
(1) Ti3+ (2) Mn2+
(1)
(3) Sc3+ (4) Fe2+
(2)
66. In which of the following oxo-anion, all M—O
(3) bond length are not identical ?
(4) (1) MnO4¯ (2) MnO4 – 2
61. If the magnetic moment of a dioxygen species is (3) Cr2O7 – 2 (4) CrO4 – 2
1.73 B.M, it may be : 67. The equilibrium
(1) O−
2 or O+2 (2) O2 or O+2 Cr2O72 – 2CrO42 – is shifted to right in :
⇄

(3) O2 or O−
2 (4) O2, O−2 or O+2 (1) An acidic medium
62. Which of the following has all equal bond (2) A basic medium
lengths? (3) A neutral medium
(1) SF4 (2) IC ℓ 3 (4) It does not exist
(3) PCl3 (4) PCl5

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 10/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

68. σ π
The ratio of bond to bonds in SO3 and 75. What will be the concentration of acetate ion in a
inorganic benzene respectively is : 1.0 M solution of acetic acid containing 0.1 M
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 1 and 4 HCl [Ka = 2 × 10 – 5]:-

(3) 1 (4) 1 (1) 2 × 10 – 3 M (2) 2 × 10 – 4 M

and 2 and 4
3 3 (3) 2 × 10 – 2 M (4) 2 × 10 – 6 M
69. In which of the following molecule, the
76. In our body, carbon dioxide (CO2) combines
underlined atom has oxidation state less than +2.
with water (H2O) to form carbonic acid.
(1) CO2 (2) BCl3 H2O + CO2 → H2CO3
(3) H3PO2 (4) NF3 carbonic acid undergoes dissociation as
H2CO3 H+ + HCO3 –
70. Which of following has highest EA :- ⇌

during the physical and mental stress, the rate of

(1) F – (2) Cl – respiration increases, which result in the
(3) Li+ (4) Na+ decrease in concentration of CO2 in the blood.
71. Select the amphoteric substance in the following
What will be the effect on pH of human blood
during the stress :
:-
(1) Decreases
(1) SO3 (2) NaOH
(2) Remain same
(3) CO2 (4) Al2O3
72. The ionisation potential of the species, Pb, Pb2+,
(3) Increases
Pb4+ decreases as :- (4) Cannot be predicted
(1) Pb4+ > Pb2+ > Pb (2) Pb > Pb2+ > Pb4+ 77. For a given reaction, the overall enthalpy change
is +100 kJ/mol and activation energy of the
(3) Pb > Pb4+ > Pb2+ (4) None of the above
reverse reaction is +200 kJ/mol. The activation
73. What is the max no. of orbitals identified by the energy for the forward reaction would be :-
following quantum numbers :- (1) +300 kJ/mol (2) +200 kJ/mol
n = 2, ℓ = 1
(3) +0.100 kJ/mol (4) +100 kJ/mol
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5
74. If number of electrons present in x+3 is 16, then
number of protons in x will be
(1) 16 (2) 13
(3) 18 (4) 19

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 11/32

78. A gas phase reaction R → A + B + C + D is of 82. Which addition would not change the pH of 10
first order. The initial pressure was X0 where ml of dilute hydrochloric acid ?
total pressure after 10 minute was Y. The (1) 20 ml of the same hydrochloric acid
correct expression for rate constant K is (in
min – 1) ? (2) 5 ml of pure water
(1) K = 2.303 4X0 (3) 20 ml of pure water
log
10 3X0 − Y (4) 10 ml of concentrated hydrochloric acid
(2) K = 2.303
10
log
2X0
3X0 − Y 83. The acidic salt is not :-
(3) K = 2.303
log
3X0 (1) NaHCO3 (2) NaH2PO2
10 4X0 − Y
(3) KH2PO4 (4) KHSO3
(4) K = 2.303 4X0
10
log
4X0 − Y 84. Vapour pressure of solution is given as PS =
79. A gaseous reaction, 2A(g) → B(g) + 5C(g) 150XA + 200, then P°A and P°B will be :-
shows increase in pressure from 80 mm to 100 (1) P°A = 350, P°B = 200
mm in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of
(2) P°A = 200, P°B = 350
A is :-
(3) P°A = 250, P°B = 100
(1) 4 mm min – 1 (2) 8 mm min – 1
(4) P°A = 100, P°B = 250
(3) 16 mm min – 1 (4) 2 mm min – 1
80. Which one of the following will increase the
85. Mole fraction of I2 in C6H6 is 0.2. The molality
of I2 in C6H6 is :-
voltage of the cell : (T = 298 K)
Sn + 2Ag+ → Sn2+ + 2Ag (1) 3.2 (2) 6.40 (3) 1.6 (4) 2.30
(1) Increase in the size of silver rod 86. The volume of oxygen required for complete
oxidation of 8L of CO at NTP will be :-
(2) Increase in the concentration of Sn2+ ions
(1) 8 L (2) 16 L
(3) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(3) 4 L (4) 2 L
(4) Increase in the size of Sn rod
81. ∣ (H ) ∣ ∣ 87. If 20% nitrogen is present in a compound, then
Pt ∣
2 ∣ pH = 2||pH = 3 ∣ (H2 ) P t . The cell its minimum molecular weight will be :-
∣ 1 atm ∣ ∣ 1 atm
reaction for the given cell is :- (At mass of 'N' = 14)

(1) spontaneous (2) non-spontaneous (1) 144 (2) 28

(3) equilibrium (4) none is correct (3) 288 (4) 70

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 12/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

88. How many moles of MnO4 – will react with 1 90. In an adiabatic process which of the following is
mole of ferrous oxalate ion in acidic medium. true:-
(1) 1 (2) 2 (1) q = +w (2) Δ
− E = −w

(3)
5
3 (4)
5
5
(3) Δ
P V =0 (4) q= E Δ
5 3
89. Bond dissociation enthalpy and heat of
atomisation are not the same for : – –
(1) O2(g) (2) N2(g)
(3) CH4(g) (4) F2(g)

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 13/32

 SUBJECT : BIOLOGY

91. What is common in wheat, mammals, dogs and 94. Match the entities in column I with their
animals :- character in column II :
(1) These are all taxa at different levels Column I Column II
(2) These all taxa belong to same category (A) Protozoans (I) Red tides
(3) These are all taxa at same level in linnaeus (B) Slime
(II) Diatomaceous earth
hierarchy moulds
(4) These are all categories at different levels (III) They are believed to be
(C) Euglenoids primitive relatives of
92. Select the not incorrect statement from the animals
following.
(IV) Pigments are identical
(1) Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic in (D)
to those present in higher
ascomycetes. Chrysophytes
plants
(2) Albugo is extensively used in biochemical (E) (V) Spores are dispersed by
and genetic work. Dinoflagellates air currents
(3) In ascomycetes sexual spores are (1) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-I, E-II
endogenously borne.
(2) A-II, B-III, C-V, D-I, E-IV
(4) Rust diseases of wheat is caused by
Ustilago. (3) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-II, E-I

93. Choose the incorrect statement about bacterial (4) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-IV, E-II
reproduction. 95. Match the columns and find out the correct
(1) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission combination :
Tobacco mosaic
(2) Under unfavourable condition they produce a Free RNA i
disease
spores
b Mad cow disease ii Viroids
(3) They also reproduce by sexual reproduction
c Dmitri Ivanowsky iii Prions
(4) They show a sort of sexual reproduction
Crystallisation of
d iv W.M.Stanley
virus
(1) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv (2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 14/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

96. How many statements are correct? 100. The function of guard cells in stomata is:
(a) Floridian starch is very similar to (1) To absorb water from roots
amylopectin and glycogen in structure
(b) Sexual reproduction is oogamous in red (2) To regulate gas exchange
algae accompanied by complex post fertilization (3) To provide mechanical support
developments (4) To store food
(c) Some algae store food in form of oil droplets
(d) Half of the Total Carbon fixation on earth is 101. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. placentation
carried out by algae Placentation Example
(e) In Phaeophyceae, union of gametes takes (1) Axile – China rose
place in water or within oogonium.
(2) Free central – Dianthus
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2
(3) Basal – Sunflower
97. Select the correct Option by reading Statements?
Statement 1: Liverworts reproduce using (4) Parietal – Primrose
gemmae cups. 102. Select incorrect match.
Statement 2: Ferns reproduce using seeds. (1) Whorled phyllotaxy – Calotropis
(1) Both are true (2) Both are false (2) Inferior ovary – Guava
(3) Only 1 is true (4) Only 2 is true (3) Radial symmetry of flower – Datura
98. In gymnosperms, pollination takes place by : – (4) Cymose inflorescence – Termination of
(1) Wind (2) Water main axis in a flower.
(3) Insects (4) Animals 103. Pericarp differentiated into –
99. When the ______ cells in the leaves have (1) Outer thin epicarp, middle fleshy edible
absorbed water and are turgid, the leaf surface is mesocarp and an inner stony hard endocarp
exposed. When they are flaccid due to water in Mango
stress, they make the leaves curl inwards to (2) Outer fleshy epicarp, middle stony hard
minimise water loss. endocarp in mango
Above statement is related to which cells
(3) Outer thin epicarp, middle stony hard
(1) Bulliform cells (2) Guard cells mesocarp and an inner seed in mango
(3) Subsidary cells (4) Lenticel (4) None of these

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 15/32

104. In plant cell middle lamella is chiefly made up 106. Match the following :-
of Column-I Column-II
(1) Cellulose (2) Mannans (A) Typical bocteria (i) 10-20 μ
(3) Calcium pectate (4) Calcium carbonate (B) Viruses (ii) 0.1 μ
105. Match the following columns and select the
1-2 μ
Typical eukaryotic
correct option- (C) (iii)
cell
Column - I Column - II 0.02 - 0.2
a. Ribosomes (i)
Schleiden and (D) PPLO (iv)
μ
Schwann
b. Golgi apparatus (ii) George Palade (1) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

Omnis cellula-e (2) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

c. (iii) Camillo Golgi
cellula (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
d. Cell theory (iv) Rudolf Virchow (4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(1) a-(iii), b - (ii), c - (i), d - (iv) 107. Match the column-I with column-II :
(2) a-(ii), b - (iv), c - (i), d - (iii)
Column-I Column-II
Bidirectional movement of
(3) a-(ii), b - (iii), c - (iv), d - (i) i Nuclear pore a
RNA protein
(4) a-(iv), b - (i), c - (ii), d - (iii)
ii Acrocentric b Centromere is at end

Plasmodesmata
iii c Desmotubules
connection

iv Plasma membrane d Trilayerd

e Bilayer

f Has one extremely short arm

(1) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - e
(2) i - a, ii - f, iii - c, iv - d
(3) i - a, ii - f, iii - c, iv - e
(4) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 16/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

108. Select the correct match w.r.t. mitosis. 111. The thylakoid membrane and inner membrane of
(1) Complete condensation of chromosomes — mitochondria bears several F0-F1 particles- ATP
Late prophase synthase. Which of the following is incorrect
regarding it?
(2) ER and Nucleolus dis-appear — Early
prophase (1) F0 component is embedded in the
membrane and forms a transmembrane
(3) De-condensation of chromosome — channel that carries out facilitated diffusion
Telophase of protons across the membrane
(4) Movement of chromatids at opposite poles (2) F1 component protrudes out facing the
— Metaphase stroma in chloroplast
109. Spindle fibres attach on to : (3) The catalytic sites for ATP formation are
(1) Telomere of the chromosome located in F1 part
(2) Kinetochore of the chromosome (4) F1 is intrinsic protein
(3) Centromere of the chromosome 112. Match the column-I with column-II and choose
(4) Kinetosome of the chromosome the correct combination from the options given
below.
110. Photorespiration is favoured by
Column-I Column-II
(1) high O2 and low CO2 (A) Inner mitochondrial
(I) Krebs cycle
(2) low light and high O2 membrane
(3) low temperature and high O2 (B) Pyruvic acid is
(4) low O2 and high CO2 converted into CO2 and (II) ETC
ethanol.
(III)
(C) Cytoplasm
Fermentation
(D) Mitochondrial matrix (IV) Glycolysis
(1) A – IV; B – III; C – II; D – I
(2) A – I; B – II; C – IV; D – III
(3) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(4) A – II; B – III; C – IV; D – I

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 17/32

113. Match the column-I with column-II and select 115. Match the substrates given in column I with their
the correct option :- RQ values given in column II
Column I Column II Column I Column II
Alcoholic 3-carbon A Carbohydrates i 0.7
(A) (i)
fermentation compound B Fats ii 0.9
Lactic acid C Proteins iii 1
(B) (ii) CO2 production
fermentation
(1) A – ii, B – iii, C – i
Muscles during
(C) Pyruvic acid (iii) vigorous exercise (2) A – i, B – iii, C – ii
in animals (3) A – iii, B – i, C – ii
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i (2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii (4) A – iii, B – ii, C – i
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-i (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii 116. Assertion : Outbreeding devices promote self-
114. Which is correct match : pollination.
Column-I Column-II Reason : Lupinus arcticus seeds excavated from
Arctic Tundra, germinated and flowered after an
Initiate rooting in stem estimated record of 10,000 years of dormancy.
(1) Gibberellins
cuttings
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
Elongate and improve in reason is a correct explanation of the
(2) Auxins
shape of apple assertion.
Overcome the apical (2) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(3) Cytokinins
dominance reason is not a correct explanation of the
Fruit ripening in tomatoes Abscisic assertion.
(4)
and apples acid (3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.
117. Egg apparatus consists of
(1) egg cell and antipodal cells
(2) egg cell and central cell
(3) egg cell and one synergid
(4) egg cell and two synergids
- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 18/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

118. Identify the given diagram and example: 120. Choose the incorrect statement about Mendelian
disorders.
(1) These are usually caused by mutation in a
single gene.
(2) These disorders are transmitted to the
offspring according to the laws of
inheritance.
(3) Mendelian disorders are always sex linked.
(4) The trait in question can be dominant or
recessive.
(1) Apocapous gynoecium of Hibiscus. 121. Male heterogamety is found in
(2) Synacapous gynoecium of Michelia (1) Grasshopper (2) Drosophila
(3) Apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia (3) Humans (4) All of these
(4) Syncarpous pistil of Papaver 122. What map unit (centimorgan) is adopted in the
119. Match the List-I with List-II and select the construction of genetic maps?
correct option. (1) A unit distance between two expressed
List-I List-II genes, representing 10% cross over.
(2) A unit distance between two expressed
a. Funicle i. Small opening in ovule
genes, representing 100% cross over.
b. Integuments ii. Stalk of ovule
(3) A unit distance between genes on
Protective envelopes of chromosomes, representing 1% cross over.
c. Chalaza iii.
ovule
(4) A unit distance between genes on
Place of junction chromosomes, representing 50% cross over.
d. Hilum iv.
of ovule with stalk
123. The second law of inheritance, i.e., law of
e. Micropyle v. Basal part of ovule segregation is based on the fact that
(1) a - ii, b - iii, c - v, d - iv, e - i (1) Alleles do not show any blending.
(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - v, d - i, e - iii (2) Both characters are recovered as such in F2
generation.
(3) a - iii, b - v, c - i, d - ii, e - iv
(3) One allele dominates the other allele.
(4) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - v, e - iv
(4) Both (1) and (2)
- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 19/32

124. 𝛽-glactosidase is used to catalyze the hydrosis 127. Statement-I : Micro-organisms such as
of lactobacillus and others commonly called lactic
(1) Lactose into galactose and glucose acid bacteria (LAB) grow in milk and convert it
to curd.
(2) Lactose into fructose & glucose Statement-II : In our stomach, the LAB play very
(3) Lactose into fructose & fructose beneficial role in checking disease causing
(4) None of these microbes.

125. Choose incorrect statement

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct.
(1) 5.8 s r-RNA and 5 s-RNA transcribes
(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is
by same RNA polymerase in eukaryote.
incorrect.
(2) hnRNA & mRNA transcribe by same RNA
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is
polymerase in eukaryote
correct.
(3) tRNA & snRNA transcribes by same RNA
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
polymerase in eukaryote
incorrect.
(4) None of these
128. Mark true and false for the following statements
126. The template of replication fork with Polarity 5' w.r.t. population growth curves.
→ 3' is ___ while 3' → 5' is ____ (a) Exponential growth of a population can be
(1) Continuous, continuous calculated by Nt = N0ert
(b) Under unlimited resource conditions,
(2) Continuous, discontinuous
enormous population densities can be attained in
(3) Discontinuous, continuous a short time
(4) Discontinuous, discontinuous (c) In the equation dN/dt = rN, r is an important
parameter for assessing the biotic potential of a
population
(d) Growth for most animal population is finite
as animals always have a large body
(1) (a)-T, (b)-T, (c)-F, (d)-F
(2) (a)-T, (b)-F, (c)-T, (d)-F
(3) (a)-T, (b)-T, (c)-T, (d)-F
(4) (a)-T, (b)-F, (c)-T, (d)-T

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 20/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

129. Mark the correct statement (with respect to 133. Which of the following aspects are considered
Connell's elegant field experiments) when analyzing the functioning of an ecosystem
(1) Chathamalus dominates the industrial area as a unit?
(2) Competitively superior but small barnacle (1) Productivity, Decomposition, Energy flow,
excludes the inferior and large barnacle Nutrient cycling
(3) Study of rock intertidal communities of the (2) Stratification, Productivity, Decomposition,
American Pacific coast Nutrient cycling
(4) Balanus excludes the Chathamalus from (3) Energy flow, Nutrient cycling,
intertidal zone Stratification, Productivity

130. Pyramid of energy is (4) Productivity, Energy flow, Nutrient cycling,

Reproduction
(1) Always inverted
134. Which are involved in In-situ conservation?
(2) Sometime upright (i) Biosphere reserve (ii) Cryopreservation
(3) Always upright (iii) Tissue culture (iv) Seed bank
(v) National park (vi) Zoological park
(4) Sometimes inverted
(vii)Sacred groves (viii) Safari parks
131. Population has certain attributes which are-
(1) iii, vii, v (2) ii, iii, i
(1) birth rates (2) death rates
(3) i, v, vii (4) iv, vi, i
(3) sex ratio (4) All of these
135. ‘The Evil Quartet’ is the term used to describe
132. (1) Causes of habitat losses
(2) Causes of biodiversity losses
Given pyramid represents : – (3) Causes of water losses
(1) Pyramid of numbers in pond (4) All of these
(2) Pyramid of biomass in forest 136. ELISA is based on-
(3) Pyramid of energy in lake (1) Amplification of nucleic acid
(4) Pyramid of biomass in lake (2) Antigen antibody interaction
(3) Somatic hypridesation
(4) Meristem culture

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 21/32

137. What is true for Bt-toxin:- 141. Statement I: Presence of more than one
(1) Bt-toxin protein exist as active toxin in recognition sites of a restriction endonuclease
bacterium within the vector will complicate the gene
(2) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin cloning.
due to acidic pH in gut of insect Statement II: Herbert Boyer first observed that
few enzymes of E.Coli have the capability of
(3) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin
cutting DNA strands in a particular fashion.
due to alkaline pH in gut of insects
(1) Both statements I and II are correct
(4) Bt-toxin is formed by Biotechnology
138. Which of the following is not the use of
(2) Both statements I and II are incorrect
transgenic animal ? (3) Only statement II is correct
(1) Study of normal physiology and (4) Only statement I is correct
development
142. Match list-I with list-II and choose correct
(2) Testing of vaccine safety answer from the given options.
(3) Production of biological products List - I List - II
(4) Molecular diagnosis Evolution by
Marsupials of
139. Which of the following statement is correct in A anthropogenic I
Australia
the context of observing DNA fragments action
separated by agarose gel electrophoresis :- Living forms arise
(1) DNA can be seen in visible light Adaptive
B II from nonliving
radiation
(2) DNA can be seen without staining in matter
visible light Spontaneous Discontinuous
C III
(3) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be generation variation
seen in visible light DDT resistance in
D Mutation IV
(4) Ethidium bromide stained DNA can be mosquitoes
seen under exposure to UV light (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
140. Bioreactors are useful in :- (2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(1) Separation and purification of a product
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) Microinjection
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) Processing of large volume of culture
(4) Isolation of genetic material
- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 22/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

143. Select the correct statement about Coelacanth. 145. Match the following :-
Column I Column II
(1) In 1938, a fish caught in South America Common
happened to be a Coelacanth which was (A) (i) Dry & Scaly lesions
cold
thought to be extinct.
Haemophilus
(2) Coelacanth called lobefins evolved into the (B) Typhoid (ii)
influenzae
first reptile that lived on both land and
Stool with mucous &
water. (C) Pneumonia (iii)
blood clots
(3) There are no specimens of Coelacanth left (D) Malaria (iv) Rhino virus
with us.
(E) Ringworm (v) Salmonella typhi
(4) Coelacanth were ancestors of modern day
frogs and turtles. (F) Amoebiasis (vi) Haemozoin
144. Match the given column (1) A – iv, B – v, C – ii, D – vi, E – i, F – iii
Column I Column II (2) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D – iv, E – iii, F – v
500 (3) A – iv, B – v, C – ii, D – vi, E – iii, F – i
a. i. Dinosaurs dominated
MYA
(4) A – iv, B – v, C – ii, D – i, E – vi, F – iii
b.
320
MYA
ii. Dinosaurs disappeared 146. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct
about typhoid?
2000 Sea weeds and few plants (a) Sustained high fever
c. iii.
MYA existed (b) Weakness
200 First cellular form of life (c) Stomach pain
d. iv.
MYA appeared (d) Constipation
Invertebrates formed and (e) Headache and loss of appetite
v. (f) Coughing
were active
(1) Only a, c, d
(1) a-v b-iii c-iv d-ii e-i
(2) Only d, e, f
(2) a-iv b-ii c-v d-iii e-i
(3) a, b, c, d and e
(3) a-v b-iii c-ii d-iv e-i
(4) a, b, c but d, e, f are not
(4) a-iv b-v c-ii d-iii e-i

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 23/32

147. Which of the following statements are not 150. Match the contraceptive methods given under
incorrect ? column I with their examples given under
(a) Smack is chemically diacetyl morphine column II. Select the correct choice from those
which is obtained by acetylation of heroin given below. :
(b) Morphine is obtained from the latex of Column I Column II
poppy plant Papaver somniferum
Tubectomy and
(c) Drugs having their effects on cardiovascular A Chemical p
Vasectomy
system of body are being abused by some sports
persons. B IUDs q Copper-T and Loop
(d) Crack interfers with the transport of the C Barriers r Condom and Cervical cap
neuro-transmitter dopamine Spermicidal Jelly and
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, c, d D Sterilization s
foam
(3) b, c, d (4) c, d Coitus interruptus and
t
148. The contraceptive 'SAHELI' calendar method
(1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, (1) A = p, B = r, C = q, D = t
preventing eggs from getting implanted. (2) A = s, B = q, C = t, D = p
(2) increases the concentration of estrogen and (3) A = s, B = t, C = q, D = r
prevents ovulation in females.
(4) A = s, B = q, C = r, D = p
(3) is an lUD.
(4) is a post-coital contraceptive.
149. Which of the following statements are incorrect
:
(A) MTP during first trimester is generally safe
(B) Contraceptive pills may be taken upto one
week after coitus to prevent conception
(C) Chances of conception are nil until mother
breast feeds the infant upto two years
(D) IUD like Copper-T are effective
contraceptives
(1) B and D (2) A and D
(3) B and C (4) B, C and D
- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 24/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

151. The figure given below depicts a diagrammatic 153. GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, needed in
sectional view of the female reproductive reproduction, acts on:
system of humans. Which one set of three parts (1) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
out of I – VI have been correctly identified ? secretion of LH and FSH.
(2) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
(3) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates
secretion of LH and relaxin.
(1) (II) Endometrium, (III) Infundibulum, (IV) (4) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates
Fimbriae secretion of LH and oxytocin.
(2) (III) Infundibulum, (IV) Fimbriae, (V) 154. After ovulation :-
Cervix
(1) only oestrogen increases
(3) (IV) Oviducal funnel, (V) Uterus, (VI)
Cervix (2) only progesterone increases
(4) (I) Perimetrium, (II) Myometrium, (III) (3) both oestrogen and progesterone increases
Fallopian tube (4) progesterone increases but oestrogen
152. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of decreases
total gonadotropin activity was assessed. The 155. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
result expected was :- (A) Dietary proteins are source of non-essential
(1) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to amino acids only.
stimulate endometrial thickening (B) Protein are heteropolymer.
(C) Glycosidic bond and peptide bond are
(2) High levels of circulating HCG to stimulate formed by dehydration.
estrogen and progesterone synthesis
(D) Choline is directly attached to glycerol by
(3) High level of circulating FSH and LH in ester bond.
the uterus to stimulate implantation of the How many of the above statements are right ?
embryo
(1) Four (2) Three
(4) High level of circulating HCG to stimulate
(3) Two (4) One
endometrial thickening

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 25/32

156. (i) Transient association with the protein part of 159. Competitive inhibition of enzymes plays
conjugated enzyme important role in :-
(ii) Non protein organic substance (1) Control of bacterial pathogen
(iii) Usually made up of vitamins
All the above characters are applicable to :- (2) Control of glycolysis
(1) Apoenzyme (2) Holoenzyme (3) Influencing Km value of enzyme
(3) Coenzyme (4) Isoenzyme (4) Both (1) and (3)
157. Which of the following is a correct match 160. Observe following diagram and give answer –
according to secondary metabolites :-
(A) (B) (C)
Alkaloid Toxins Drug
(1) Vinblastin Abrin Morphine
(2) Codeine Ricin Curcumin
(3) Ricin Morphine Abrin
(4) Rubber Cellulose Morphine
158. Read the following four statements (A – D) :-
(A) Palmitic acid has 16 carbons excluding
carboxyl carbon How many hormones among following show this
(B) In a polysaccharide chain, one end is called mechanism of action.
reducing end while the other end is called ACTH, Prolactin, Thyroxine, ADH, GH,
non-reducing end. Mineralocorticoid, Insulin
(C) Cellulose form helical secondary structure. (1) 2 (2) 3
(D) In solutions of different pH, the structure of
(3) 4 (4) 1
amino acid changes
How many of the above statements are wrong?
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) One

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 26/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

161. Find out the correct statement 163. Identify the figure and label A, B, C and D in
(A) Gluconeogenesis & lipolysis are stimulated correct sequence?
by glucocorticoids of adrenal.
(B) In diabetes insipidus patients are
successfully treated with insulin therapy.
(C) When blood pressure decreases, ANF is
secreted which causes dialation of blood vessels
to increase B.P.
(D) Glucagon reduces cellular glucose uptake
and utilisation.
(1) A, C (2) B, C
(3) A, D (4) B, D A B C D
162. Read the following statements :- Uterine
(A) At adulthood stage epiphyseal plate of bone (1) F.S.H. cell Nucleus mRNA
become ossified thus no further division take membrane
place. Uterine
(B) Prolactin hormone secreted from (2) Estrogen cell Nucleus Genome
neurohypophysis become dominant after membrane
puberty and helps in development of Ovarium
mammary gland. (3) Estrogen cell Nucleus DNA
(C) Gonadotrophic hormone in female promotes membrane
secretion of androgen.
(D) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone stimulate Uterine
adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoid. (4) Estrogen cell DNA mRNA
How many of above statement is/are wrong? membrane

(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 27/32

164. Match the column-I and II, and choose the 167. Match the following bones with their appropriate
correct combination from the options given :- joints :-
Column-I Column-II A B
Myelinated nerve Somatic neural Cartilagenous
a 1 a Knee joint (i)
fibre system joint
Unmyelinated Autonomic neural Intervertebral
b 2 b (ii) Fibrous joint
nerve fibre system disc
3 Cranial nerves c Cranial bones (iii) Hinge joint
4 Spinal nerves d Radius and ulna (iv) Pivot joint
(1) a-1, 2 ; b-3, 4 (2) a-3, 4 ; b-1, 2 (1) a-iii b-iv c-ii d-i
(3) a-1, 3 ; b-2, 4 (4) a-2, 4 ; b-1, 3 (2) a-iii b-i c-iv d-ii
165. The forebrain consists of :- (3) a-iii b-i c-ii d-iv
(1) Cerebellum, thalamus and hypothalamus (4) a-iii b-ii c-i d-iv
(2) Pons, cerebrum and medulla. 168. Which of the following pair is correct
(3) Amygdala, hippocampus and brain stem match according to their cause :-
(4) Thalamus, hypothalamus and cerebrum (1) Tetany - rapid spasm in muscle due to high
Ca2+ level in body fluids
166. Association areas is-
(2) Muscular dystrophy - Auto immune
(1) Sensory in function disorder
(2) Motor in function (3) Mysthania gravis - genetic disorder
(3) Neither clearly sensory nor motor in (4) Oesteoporosis - age related disorder
function characterized by decreased bone mass
(4) Neurosecretory in function

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 28/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

169. Match column I and column II and choose 171. Which statement is correct about the function of
correct option from followings :- the renal tubule?
Column-I Column-II (1) DCT is capable of selective secretion of
Elastic fibre in I - .
A H-Zone i
Band (2) Reabsorption in Henle's loop is maximum.
Sarcoplasmic Light central area (3) PCT also helps to maintain the pH and ionic
B ii
Reticulum of A-band. balance of body fluids by absorption of
Part of .
C Z-line iii meromyosin
(4) DCT part allow passage of small amount of
protein.
urea into the medullary interstitium to
Store house of maintain the osmolarity.
D Cross Arm iv
Ca+2 ions
172. Arrange the event of micturition -
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv (A) Urine formed by the nephrons is ultimately
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i carried to the urinary bladder.
(B) CNS passes on motor messages to initiate the
(3) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii contraction of smooth muscle of the bladder.
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii (C) It is stored till a voluntary signal is given by
170. How many of the following organisms in a box
the central Nervous system (CNS).
(D) Simultaneous Relaxation of the urethral
are uricotelic?
Sphincter causing the Release of urine.
Land snail, Bony fishes, Reptiles, (E) The stretch Receptors on the walls of the
Amphibians bladder send signals to the CNS.
(1) One (2) Two Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :-
(3) Three (4) Four
(1) (A), (C), (E), (B), (D)
(2) (A), (D), (E), (C), (B)
(3) (A), (D), (C), (B), (E)
(4) (B), (A), (E), (D), (C)

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 29/32

173. Assertion : Tubular secretion helps in the 176. What will happen if the neuromuscular
maintenance of ionic and acid base balance of conduction pathway in heart is broken between
body fluids. S.A. node and A.V. node ?
Reason : During urine formation, the tubular (1) Auricles will contract due to impulse
cells secrete substances like H+, K+ and generated by S.A. node, while ventricles
ammonia into the filtrate. will not show any activity
(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the (2) No contraction or heart beat will be seen in
reason is correct explanation of assertion. heart
(2) Assertion and reason both are true but (3) Auricles will contract at the rate set by the
reason is not correct explanation of S.A. node while venticles will contract at
assertion. the rate of impulse generated by the A.V.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong. node
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong. (4) There will be no effect on the activity of
174. Hepatic portal system starts from :- heart

(1) Digestive system to liver 177. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (a-d)
& four jumbled respiratory volumes of a adult ?
(2) Kidney to liver R.C. R.V.
(3) Liver to heart (a) Expiratory reserve volume (i) 2500 ml
(4) Liver to kidney (b) Vital capacity (ii) 3000 ml
175. In amphibians and reptiles respiratory (c) Expiratory capacity (iii) 6000 ml
structure/organ receives :-
(d) Functional residual capacity (iv) 4300 ml
(1) Deoxygenated blood
(e) Mammals
(2) Oxygenated blood Which of the following is correct matching :
(3) Mixed blood (1) B ⇒ 4300 ml, D⇒ 2500 ml
(4) 1 and 2 both (2) B ⇒ 6000 ml, C ⇒ 3000 ml
(3) A ⇒ 3000 ml, B ⇒ 2500 ml
(4) C ⇒4300 ml, D ⇒ 2500 ml

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 30/32 Space for Rough Work English / 07042025

178. Recognize the figure and find out the correct 179. What does neural signal from pneumotaxic
matching:- centre cause :
(1) Increases the duration of inspiration
(2) Reduces the duration of expiration
(3) Reduces the duration of inspiration
(4) Increases the duration of both inspiration
and expiration
180. Read the following statements :-
(1) d – renal artery, c – renal vein, f – calyx, (A) It is chronic disorder.
e – medullary pyramid, b – renal column, (B) Major cause of it is cigrette smoking.
a – renal pelvis (C) It is an allergy.
(D) Alveolar walls are damaged.
(2) c – renal artery, d – renal vein, e – calyx,
(E) Respiratory surface is decreased.
f – medullary pyramid, b – renal column,
(F) It is due to inflammation of bronchi and
a – renal pelvis bronchioles.
(3) d – renal artery, c – renal vein, e – calyx, How many of above statements are correct about
f – medullary pyramid, a – renal column, Emphysema disorder
b – renal pelvis (1) Two (2) Three
(4) c – renal artery, d – renal vein, e – calyx, (3) Four (4) One
f – medullary pyramid, a – renal column,
b – renal pelvis

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

English / 07042025 Space for Rough Work Page 31/32

 SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

- NEET_Samarth_Target(720)_Test - 11_[2024-25] SAMARTH2025PV00011

Page 32/32 English / 07042025