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Dropper JEE Advanced: Test-10

The document outlines the structure and instructions for a JEE Advanced test, including sections for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a total of 54 questions and a maximum score of 198. It details the marking schemes for each section, including rules for answering questions and filling out the OMR sheet. Additionally, it provides important constants and values relevant to the test content.

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pankajpatelai05
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
83 views11 pages

Dropper JEE Advanced: Test-10

The document outlines the structure and instructions for a JEE Advanced test, including sections for Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, with a total of 54 questions and a maximum score of 198. It details the marking schemes for each section, including rules for answering questions and filling out the OMR sheet. Additionally, it provides important constants and values relevant to the test content.

Uploaded by

pankajpatelai05
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Dropper JEE Advanced

AJPA11.1/10 Test- 10
DURATION : 180 Minutes DATE : 16/03/2025 M.MARKS : 198

Topics covered
Physics: Full Syllabus
Chemistry: Full Syllabus
Mathematics: Full Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 54 questions. The maximum marks are 198.
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 18)
• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
• For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : -1 In all other cases.

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)


• This section contains SIX (06) questions.
• Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct answer(s).
• For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s).
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is(are) chosen;
Partial Marks : + 3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : + 2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are
correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –2 In all other cases.

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 24)


• This section contains SIX (06) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.
• For each question, enter the correct numerical value of the answer using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. If the numerical value has more than two decimal places,
truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal places.
• Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered;
Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases.

[1]
OMR Instructions:
1. Use blue/black dark ballpoint pens.
2. Darken the bubbles completely. Don't put a tick mark or a cross mark where it is specified that you fill the bubbles
completely. Half-filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software.
3. Never use pencils to mark your answers.
4. Never use whiteners to rectify filling errors as they may disrupt the scanning and evaluation process.
5. Writing on the OMR Sheet is permitted on the specified area only and even small marks other than the specified area may
create problems during the evaluation.
6. Multiple markings will be treated as invalid responses.
7. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet (OMR).

Name of the Students (In CAPITALS) : _______________________________________________________________

Roll Number : _____________________________________________________________________________________________

OMR Bar Code Number : ________________________________________________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature : _______________________________ Invigilator’s Signature _____________________

[2]
IMPORTANT CONSTANTS

Speed of light in free space, : 3.00 × 108 ms–1


Permeability of free space, : 4 × 10–7 Hm–1
Permittivity of free space, : 8.85 × 10–12 Fm–1
The Planck constant, : 6.63 × 10–34 Js
Rest mass of electron, : 9.1 × 10–31 kg
Rest mass of proton, : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Molar gas constant, : 8.31 JK–1 mol–1
The Avogadro constant, : 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
The Boltzmann constant, : 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1
Gravitational constant, : 6.67 × 10–11 N m2kg–2
Acceleration of free fall : 9.8 ms–2
Rydberg Constant : 1.097 × 107 m–1
Atomic mass unit : 1.67 × 10–27 kg
Charge on proton : 1.6 × 10–19 C

IMPORTANT VALUES

2 = 1.414 ln 10 = 2.303
3 = 1.732 log102 = 0.3010
5 = 2.236 log103= 0.4770
 = 3.142 log107 = 0.845
e (Euler’s constant) = 2.718

* Use above values unless otherwise specified in a question.


❑❑❑
PART-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION-1 measure the potential drop against rv as shown in
Single Correct Type Questions: figure. Thus, value of R will be (in ohm)
1. A sphere is placed rotating with its centre initially
at rest in a corner as shown in figure (a) & (b).
Coefficient of friction between all surfaces and
1
the sphere is . Find the ratio of the frictional
3
fa
force by ground in situations (a) & (b)
fb
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 4

5. An uncharged parallel plate capacitor having its


9
(A) 1 (B) lower end fixed and upper end is attached with
10
spring having spring constant K. Upper plate is in
10 7 equilibrium before switch (SW) is closed. After
(C) (D)
9 9 switch is closed, the maximum value of the
potential of battery (V) so that the system can
2. There are n identical balls travelling along a acquire new equilibrium position is. (mass of
straight line on a smooth horizontal table. All upper plate = m, area of plate = A)
balls have equal speed v m/s and each one is
travelling to either right or left. All collisions
between the balls are head on elastic. At some
point in time all balls will have fallen off the
table. The time at which this happens will
definitely depend on initial positions of the balls.
Over all possible initial positions of the balls, 3 3 3 3
what is the longest amount of time that you would 5 L K 2 L K
(A)   (B)  
need to wait to ensure that the table has no more  3  0 A  3  0 A
balls left on it? 2 3 2 3
5 L K 3 L K
(C)   (D)  
 4  0 A  4  0 A

nL L 6. A circular conducting loop of radius R carries a


(A) (B)
v nv current I. Another straight infinite conductor
2L L carrying current I passes through the diameter of
(C) (D)
v v this loop as shown in the figure. The magnitude of
force exerted by the straight conductor on the loop
3. Consider a solid insulating sphere (of relative is:
permittivity one) of radius R having a spherically
symmetric charge distribution. The charge density
varies as  = 0 r2 (0 is a constant and r is
measured from centre). Consider two points A and
B at distances x and y respectively (x < R, y > R)
from the centre. If magnitude of electric fields at
points A and B are equal, then
(A) x2y = R3 (B) x3y2 = R5 (A) 0I2
(C) x2y3 = R5 (D) x4y = R5 (B) 0I2
0 I 2
4. A real cell of emf 20 V is connected across a (C)
2
resistor of resistance R. A voltmeter of varying
(D) 0
resistance (rv) is connected across resistance to

[4]
SECTION-2 (A) Kinetic energy of satellite is independent of
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions: orbital radius of satellite.
7. A conical shaped vessel has semi vertical angle (B) Kinetic energy of satellite depends on radius
37°. The vessel is filled with water (density  = of planet.
1000 kg/m3) upto a height of 13 cm and placed on (C) Orbital speed of satellite depends on orbital
a smooth horizontal surface. Upper surface is
radius of satellite.
opened to atmosphere. A hole of area of cross-
section 1.5 cm2 is made on curved wall at a height (D) Time period revolution of satellite is directly
of 8 cm from bottom as shown in figure. Area of proportional to its orbital radius.
water surface in vessel is much large as compared
to the area of the hole. The vessel is held in 10. The common prism spectroscope is shown in
equilibrium by applying a suitable horizontal figure is generally made up of three parts, viz., a
force Select the correct option(s). prism and two telescopes, One of these telescopes
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
is used to render the rays which fall on the prism
parallel to teach other, and is therefore called the
collimator, the other telescope is made movable so
that it can be turned into the proper direction for
observing any desired colour, and is, therefore,
called the view-telescope. A circular scale is also
(A) Initial velocity of efflux is 1 m/s provided to measure angular position of telescope.
(B) Initial horizontal range of water jet from
On the circular scale 29 divisions of the main
point Q is 7.25 cm
(C) Horizontal force required to keep the vessel scale exactly coincide with the 30 divisions of the
in static equilibrium is 0.15 N vernier scale. The smallest division of the main
(D) Horizontal force required to keep the vessel scale is half-a-degree (0.5°). Initially view-
in static equilibrium is 0.12 N telescope is focused to collect rays directly from
collimator and position of telescope is measured.
8. A time varying voltage V = 2t (volt) is applied This is position (1). Now a prism is placed as
across an ideal inductor of inductance L = 2 H. At
shown in the figure and telescope is focused for
t = 0, current is zero. Select the correct option(s)?
red, yellow and violet. The respective positions of
telescopes are (2), (3) and (4).

Reading of main Reading of


scale veriner scale
(A) Current flowing through inductor versus time Position (1) 20.0° 20
graph is a parabola
Position (2) 30.0° 16
(B) Energy stored in the inductor in the form of
magnetic field at t = 2 s is 4 J Position (3) 32.5° 9
(C) Energy stored in the inductor at time t = 1 s is Position (4) 33.5° 11
increasing at a rate of 1 J/s
(D) Energy stored in the inductor in the form of
magnetic field is constant all the time

9. Consider a long hypothetical cylindrical hollow


planet of radius R and a fixed uniform mass per
unit area . If a satellite revolves around the
planet in circular orbit of radius r in a plane
perpendicular to the axis of the planet, then:-
The deviation for:
(A) red light is 10°4’
(B) violet light is 13°19’
(C) yellow light is 12°19’
(D) violet light is 13°21’

[5]
11. A Carnot heat engine draws heat from a reservoir
at temperature T1 and rejects heat to another
reservoir at temperature T3. The Carnot forward
cycle engine drives a Carnot reversed cycle
engine or Carnot refrigerator which absorbs heat
from reservoir at temperatures T2 and rejects heat
14. During a thrilling football match, a player kicks a
to a reservoir at temperature T3. The high
football from the ground towards the goal post, which
temperature T1 is 600 K and low temperature T2 is
is 50 meters away. The ball majestically sails through
300 K. the air, clearing the goal post at a height of 2 meters
(A) If heat supplied to engine Q1 is equal to heat above the top of the post, and continues to fly, finally
absorbed by the refrigerator Q2, the value of landing 10 meters behind the goal post. Remarkably,
T3 is 400 K as the ball crosses above the goal post, its speed is
(B) The C.O.P (coefficient of performance) of precisely 20 meters per second. Assuming the ball
Carnot refrigerator is 2 follows a perfect parabolic trajectory and neglecting
(C) The C.O.P (coefficient of performance) of air resistance. Take g = 10 m/s2. If the height of the
Carnot refrigerator is 3 goal post is h (in m), the value of h is
(D) If heat supplied to engine Q1 is equal to heat
absorbed by the refrigerator Q2, the value of 15. A cylinder of radius r = 7 m fixed on a smooth
T3 is 450 K horizontal surface with its axis vertical. One end of an
ideal string of length L = 140 m is attached to the
surface of cylinder close to horizontal surface & is
12. n moles of an ideal gas undergo an isothermal
tightly wound on the cylinder and particle of mass m
process at temperature T. P-V graph of the process
is attached to other end of the string. The particle is on
is as shown in the figure. A point A (P1 V1) is the horizontal surface & is given a horizontal velocity
located on the P-V curve. Tangent at point A, cuts v0 = 25 m/s directed along the radius vector drawn
the V-axis at point D. AO is the line joining the A from the cylinder's axis. Then find the minimum time
to the origin O of PV diagram. Then, (in second) after which the string will be fully wound
22
around the cylinder again. Take  =
7

 3V1 
(A) coordinates of points D is  , 0
 2 
(B) coordinates of points D is (2V1, 0) 16. A protonium atom consists of a proton and an
(C) area of the triangle AOD is nRT antiproton. An antiproton is negatively charged
3 particle, mass and modulus of charge of which are
(D) area of the triangle AOD nRT
4 equal to those of a proton. If binding energy of an
40
electron in hydrogen atom is eV and mass of
SECTION-3 3
Numerical Value Type Questions: proton is 1800 times the mass of electron, find the
13. In a river of 20 m width. Half part of river flows energy of a photon emitted in transition of a
with speed 10 m/s and remaining half part flows protonium atom from the first excited state to ground
with 20 m/s as shown in figure. A man starts to state. Give your answer in multiples of ‘keV’.
swim from A and lands at point B on the opposite
bank in 10 s. Man swims with speed vm with 17. A sound detector is moving with a constant velocity
respect to river at an angle θ with line AB. Man towards a stationary sound source. The source emits a
beep of sound of frequency v0 = 264 Hz that
swims with constant speed and in same direction
propagates with speed c = 330 m/s. The detector
with respect to river throughout the motion. Then,
detects the beep of sound over a distance x = 66 m
2
the value of tan  is and registers a frequency v = 275 Hz. Find duration of
3
the beep emitted by the source. (in sec)

[6]
18. A schematic model of a current limiter consists of a
conducting half ring of radius r = 10 cm and mass m
= 100 gram, one end O of which is hinged while the
other rests on a fixed metallic support P. The ring can
rotate in a vertical plane about O without friction in
presence of a uniform horizontal magnetic field of
induction B = 2 T pointing perpendicular to the plane
of the ring. The ring is connected in series in a branch
of a circuit through the hinge O and the metallic
contact P. Find the minimum current (in ampere), at
which the limiter opens the circuit. (Take the
acceleration of free fall, g = 10 m/s2) (C is the center)

PART-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-1 (B) Aqueous solution of Borax shows buffer
Single Correct Type Questions: properties.
19. Which of the following is the correct statement? (C) B2H6 on reaction with excess NH3 at low
(A) T+3 and Al+3 act as an oxidizing agent in temperature forms an ionic compound which
on heating gives an aromatic compound
aqueous solution
which is less reactive than benzene.
(B) In TI3, T is present in +3 and I is present
(D) On hydrolysis of BF3, boric acid along with
1 fluoroborates are obtained.
in − oxidisation state respectively.
3
(C) Hydrogen bonding in H3BO3 gives a layered 22. Select the incorrect statement from the following
structure (A) The translational kinetic energy of 15 g of
(D) B(OC2H5)3 burns with blue edge flame 3RT
ethane is
4
20. An aqueous solution containing a non-volatile (B) The volume of acetylene required for
solute is heated in a open vessel till the boiling 3RT
point is reached. Thereafter, the boiling is producing 78 g benzene is , at given
P
continued and the temperature and vapour temperature T.
pressure of solution are recorded at 5 min, 10 min (C) Pressure correction term in vander Wall’s
and 15 min. The corresponding temperatures and
an 2
pressure are T5, T10, T15 and P5, P10, P15 equation for n moles of gas is .
respectively. The correct relationship among V2
them is : (D) Hydrogen will diffuse. 3 times faster than
(A) T5 < T10 < T15 and P5 = P10 = P15 ammonia gas at same pressure and
(B) T5 < T10 < T15 and P5 < P10 < P15 temperature.
(C) T5 = T10 = T15 and P5 < P10 < P15
(D) T5 = T10 = T15 and P5 = P10 = P15 23. Which of the following reactions does not occur
in Bessemer converter in the extraction of copper
21. Which of the following statements is from chalcopyrite?
INCORRECT with respect to Boron for its (A) 2CuFeS2 + O2 → Cu2S + 2FeS + SO2
compounds? (B) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
(A) Titration of boric acid with NaOH does not (C) 2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2
give a sharp end point but when taken along (D) Cu2S + 2Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2
with sugars, it gives a sharp end point with
NaOH.
[7]
29. The electron affinity of nitrogen is very low
24. ; At time t = 0, initial mole of A is which can be attributed to
(A) Nitrogen atom has stable half-filled 2p3
configuration
1. Overall half-life of the reaction is 15 days. (B) Addition of electron to 2p orbital creates
Then calculate the number of moles of C after 45 spin paired electron repulsion
days if the ratio of k1 : k2 : k3 is 4: 2 : 1 (C) Energy released due to attraction between
(A) 1 (B) 2 the nucleus and incoming electron is off set
(C) 3 (D) 4 by the inter electron repulsion by pairing
(D) Due to small size also, the inter electronic
SECTION-2
repulsions are more than the other elements
One or More Than One Correct Type Questions:
in the group
25. Mark out the correct statement(s).
When ethanol, (CH3CH2OH) is treated with
30. The correct statements about peptides are
(A) Conc. H2SO4 at 170°C, it gives ethene
(A) A dipeptide has one peptide link between
CH2 = CH2.
(B) Conc. H2SO4 at 140°C, it gives ether two amino acids
CH3CH2OCH2CH3. (B) By convention, N-Terminus is kept at left
18 and C-terminus at right in the structure of a
(C) H 2 O, H 2SO 4 (dil. H2SO4) at 140°C it gives peptide
ethene. (C) α-D-glucopyranose and β-D-glucopyranose
18
(D) H 2 O, H 2SO 4 (dil. H2SO4) at 140°C, it gives are anomers.
(D) Protein and nylon–6, 6 are polyamides.
18
CH3 – CH2 – O H
SECTION-3
26. Which of the following pairs cannot be separated Numerical Value Type Questions:
by concentrated aqueous sodium hydroxide 31. Consider the following combination of atomic
solution? orbitals
(A) Al+3 and Sn+2 (B) Al+3 and Fe+3 Combining orbitals (Internuclear axis)
(C) Al+3 and Zn+2 (D) Zn+2 and Pb+2 (i) s + px(x) (ii) dxy + dxy(x)
(iii) dyz + pz(z) (iv) s + s(z)
27. Which of the following is/are correctly ordered? (v) dyz + dyz(x) (vi) py + py(y)
(A) –OH > –NH2 (+M effect) (vii) d
z2
+d
z2
(z) (viii) dxy + dxy(z)
(B) –SO3H > –NO2 (–M effect) (ix) px + px(y) (x) s + pz(x)
(C) –CR3 > –CHR2 (+I effect) Then calculate value of a2+ b2 + 2cd. (where a =
(D) –CN > –F (–I effect) no. of σ-bond; b = no. of π bond; c = no. of δ;
d = non-bonding combinations)
28. Consider 0.1 molal aqueous solutions of two
solutes X and Y. The solute X behaves as a 32. A solution containing 0.012 kg of Ba (NO3)2 in 0.1
univalent electrolyte, while the solute Y kg of water boils at 100.57°C. Calculate the degree
dimerizes in solution. Which of the following of ionization of the salt. Kb (water) = 0.52 K kg mol–1
statement(s) is/are correct regarding these (Atomic mass of barium = 137.3, N = 14, O = 16
solutions? g/mol) (Give answer upto two decimal places)
(A) The boiling point of the solution of X will
be higher than that of Y. 33. 0.5 mol of an ideal gas ‘A’ is present in a chamber
(B) The osmotic pressure of the solution of X and 0.5 mol an ideal gas ‘B’ is present in an other
identical chamber. Both the chambers are connected
will be higher than that of Y.
through a valve. Both the gases are at 1 atm pressure
(C) The freezing point of the solution of X will
and same temperature. What will be the total change
be higher than that of Y.
in entropy (in J/K) when valve is opened between the
(D) The relative lowering of vapour pressure of
chambers? (Given, R = 8.314 J/mol-K, ln2 = 0.693)
both the solution will be the same.
(Give answer upto two decimal places)

[8]
34. The observed rotation of 2 gram of a compound in 36. In the following reaction
10 ml of solution in polarimeter tube of 25 cm long
is +24.6°. The specific rotation of the compound (in
+
degree) is + Ph 3 P − CH 2 → R + Ph 3PO
(Product)

35. The relative reactivity of 1° : 2° : 3° hydrogen to The percentage mass of hydrogen in the product (R)
bromination is 1 : 82 : 1600. In the following is:
Br2
reaction CH3 – CH2 – CH3 ⎯⎯⎯ →
h

H3C − CH − CH3 + CH3CH 2CH 2 Br


|
Br
the percentage yield of 2-Bromopropane is: (Give
answer upto two decimal places)

PART-III (MATHEMATICS)
SECTION-1 −p −p
+1 +3
tan 3 x tan 3 x
Single Correct Type Questions: (D) − +c
−p −p
37. From a moving point P lying on the plane +1 +3
3 3
x y z
+ + = p , perpendiculars PA, PB, PC are
a b c
39. Conditions so that equation (a1x2 + b1x + c1)
drawn to the three coordinate planes. The locus
(a2x2 + b2x + c2 ) = 0, (a1a2 > 0) have four real
of the foot of perpendicular drawn from origin to
roots if
plane passing through points A, B and C is
(i) c1c2 > 0
(A) ( x2 + y 2 + z 2 )  ax1 + by1 + cz1  = p (ii) a1c2 < 0
(iii) a2c1 < 0
(A) only (i) is sufficient
(B) ( x2 + y 2 + z 2 )  ax1 + by1 + cz1  = 2 p (B) either of two statements are sufficient
(C) either of (ii) or (iii) is individually sufficient
 1 1 1  x y z  (D) all the three statements must be correct
(C)  2 + 2 + 2   + +  = p
x y z  a b c 
40. ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral with AC⊥ BD and
(D) ( )
a b c
x2 + y 2 + z 2  + +  = p
x y z
O is the centre of its circumcircle, then
OA  OB + OB  OC + OC  OD + OD  OA is equal

 sec
to
38. q /3
x  cosec p /3 x dx equals, where
(A) 1
+
( p, q  I and p + q = 12) (B) –1
−p (C) 0
+1
tan 3 x
(A) +c (D) 2
−p
+1
3
41. If Pn = 1 + cos (2n – 1 θ) – sin (2n – 1 θ) and Qn = 1
−p −p
+1 +3
tan 3 x tan 3
x + tan 2n – 1 θ such that (P1Q0)(P2Q1).…(PnQn–1) =
(B) + +c
−p −p 1, then sin 2n θ equals
+1 +3
3 3 (A) cosθ
−p (B) sinθ
+3
tan 3 x
(C) +c (C) cos2θ
−p
+3 (D) sin2θ
3
[9]
42. Value of
10
 15 Cr  35 C10−r is (
(B) tan 2 tan −1 x )
tan ( cot −1 ( − x ) − cot −1 ( x ) )
r =1
(C)
(A) 50
C10 – 15C10 (B) 50
C10 − 35 C10
(D) tan ( 2 cot −1 x )
(C) 40
C10 (D) 50
C10 − 1


SECTION-2 1 2

One or More Than One Correct Type Questions:
bc − a 2 ac − b 2 ab − c 2
47. Let f ( x) = e x2 + 
0
1 + sin tdtx  (0, ) then-
a b c
43. Let 1 = b c a ,  2 = ac − b 2 ab − c 2 bc − a 2 (A) f ' exists and is continuous  x (0, )
(B) f '' exists x(0, )
c a b ab − c 2 bc − a 2 ac − b 2
(C) f ' is bounded
a −b c (D) There exists α > 0 such that
and 3 = −b c −a , then choose the correct | f ( x) | f '( x)x  (, )
c −a b
option(s) 48. The vertices A, B, C of ABC are 0, 3 and 4i on
(A) 2 = −32 (B)  2 = 12 the argand plane. If three equilateral triangles
(PBC, QAC and RBA) are constructed
(C) 3 = 1 (D) 3 = −1
outwardly to given ABC, then
(A) The distance between centroid of PQR and
44. A six digit number is formed randomly using 5
digits {1, 2, 3} with repetitions. Choose the orthocentre of ABC is
3
correct option(s)
(B) The distance between centroid of PQR and
(A) Probability that all digits are used at least
5
20 orthocentre of ABC is
once is 6
27
(C) The distance between centroid of PQR and
(B) Probability that digit 1 is used odd number
5
of times and 2 is used even number of times circumcentre of ABC is
3
182
is 6 (D) The distance between centroid of PQR and
3
5
(C) Probability that all digits are used as well as circumcentre of ABC is
6
odd digits are used odd number of times and
even digit is used even number of times is
SECTION-3
50
Numerical Value Type Questions:
35 49. Let f ( x) = log10 | 2 + sin x | then
(D) Probability that exactly two digits are used
lim ( f ( x) )
n
1
62 n→
is
243  sin 2 x + 3sin x + 1 dx is equal to
−1

45. Let n = 233472115. Choose the correct option(s)


50. Two perpendicular tangents are drawn to the
(A) The number of divisors of n, which are of ellipse (x + y + 1)2 + 2(x – y – 3)2 = 4 from a
the form (4k + 2), is 89 (k  N) point. The chord of contact touches a circle
(B) The number of divisors of n, which are concentric with the given ellipse. Then ratio of
perfect squares is 36 maximum to minimum radius of circle is
(C) The number of divisors of n2, which are not
divisors of n, is 3105 51. Let f (x) be a differentiable function such that
(D) The number of divisors of n2, which are not
f (x) + f (x) = 4xe–x sin 2x and f(0) = 0.
divisors of n is 360

7  ( 4n + 1)   − 4  e − k  − 1 
If  f  = e  −  , then k is
46. ( ( ))
2 tan tan −1 ( x ) + tan −1 x3 , where n =0  4   e −1 
x  R – {–1, 1}, is equal to: equal to
2x
(A)
1 − x2
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( −1)i ( 2i 2 + 1) 54. Reflection of parabola y2 – 4x + 4 = 0 in the line
52. Let A =  aij  such that aij = , x + y + 1 = 0 is given by x2 + by2 + 2hxy + 2gx +
nn 4 j4 + 1
2fy + c = 0, then b + h + g + f + c equals
then value of 1 + lim ( trace A ) is
n→

53. If T1, T2, ..., T100 are the distinct terms in


Harmonic progression and T6, T10, T18 are in
Arithmetic progression. If Tp, T12, Tq are in
Geometric progression, then maximum value of q
is
(p < 12 < q)


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