Book Crunch- 2

Physics
 Problems in
General Physics

MECHANICS
 
1. Two particles, 1 and 2, move with constant velocities v1 and v 2 . At the initial moment their radius vectors
 
are equal to r1 and r2 . How must these four vectors be interrelated for the particles to collide?

2. Two boats, A and B, move away from a buoy anchored at the middle of a river along the mutually
perpendicular straight lines: the boat A along the river, and the boat B across the river. Having moved off
an equal distance from the buoy the boats returned. Find the ratio of times of motion of boats A/B if the
velocity of each boat with respect to water is  = 1.2 times greater than the stream velocity.
3. Three points are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle whose side equals a. They all start moving
simultaneously with velocity v constant in modulus, with the first point heading continually for the second,
the second for the third, and the third for the first. How soon will the points converge?

4. Point A moves uniformly with velocity v so that the vector v is continually “aimed” at point B which in itss
 
turn moves rectilinearly and uniformly with velocity u < v. At the initial moment of time v  u and the pointss
are separated by a distance  . How soon will the points converge?
5. From point A located on a highway (Fig. 1) one has to get by car as soon as possible to point B located in
the field at a distance  from the highway. It is known that the car moves in the field  times slower than
on the highway. At what distance from point D one must turn off the highway?

Fig. 1

6. A particle moves in the plane xy with velocity v  aiˆ  bxjˆ, where iˆ and ĵ are the unit vectors of the
x and y axes, and a and b are constants. At the initial moment of time the particle was located at the point
x = y = 0. Find:
(a) the equation of the particle’s trajectory y (x);
(b) the curvature radius of trajectory as a function of x.
7. A particle moves along the plane trajectory y(x) with velocity v whose modulus is constant. Find the
acceleration of the particle at the point x = 0 and the curvature radius of the trajectory at that point if the
trajectory has the form
(a) of a parabola y = ax2;
(b) of an ellipse (x/a)2 + (y/b)2 = 1; a and b are constants here.

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8. A rotating disc (Fig. 2) moves in the positive direction of the x axis. Find the equation y(x) describing the
position of the instantaneous axis of rotation, if at the initial moment the axis C of the disc was located at
the point O after which it moved.
y

C
O x
v

Fig. 2
(a) with a constant velocity v, while the disc started rotating counterclockwise with a constant angular
acceleration  (the initial angular velocity is equal to zero);
(b) with a constant acceleration w (and the zero initial velocity), while the disc rotates counterclockwise with
a constant angular velocity .

9. A solid body rotates with angular velocity   atiˆ bt 2 jˆ, where a = 0.50 rad/s2, b = 0.060 rad/s3, and iˆ and ĵ
are the unit vectors of the x and y axes. Find:
(a) the moduli of the angular velocity and the angular acceleration at the moment t = 10.0 s;
(b) the angle between the vectors of the angular velocity and the angular acceleration at that moment.
10. A solid body rotates with a constant angular velocity 0 = 0.50 rad/s about a horizontal axis AB.
At the moment t = 0 the axis AB starts turning about the vertical with a constant angular acceleration
 0 = 0.10 rad/s2. Find the angular velocity and angular acceleration of the body after t = 3.5 s.
11. A plank of mass m1 with a bar of mass m2 placed on it lies on a smooth horizontal plane. A horizontal force
growing with time t as F = at (a is constant) is applied to the bar. Find how the accelerations of the plank
w1 and of the bar w2 depend on t, if the coefficient of friction between the plank and the bar is equal to k.
Draw the approximate plots of these dependences.
12. In the arrangement shown in Fig. 3 the bodies have masses m0, m1, m2, the friction is absent, the masses
of the pulleys and the threads are negligible. Find the acceleration of the body m1. Look into possible cases.
m0

m1
m2

Fig. 3
13. What is the minimum acceleration with which bar A (Fig. 4) should be shifted horizontally to keep bodies 1
and 2 stationary relative to the bar? The masses of the bodies are equal, and the coefficient of friction
between the bar and the bodies is equal to k. The masses of the pulley and the threads are negligible, the
friction in the pulley is absent.

A 2

Fig. 4
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14. In the arrangement shown in Fig. 5 the masses m of the bar and M of the wedge, as well as the wedge
angle , are known.

m
M


Fig. 5
The masses of the pulley and the thread are negligible. The friction is absent. Find the acceleration of the
wedge M.
15. A device (Fig. 6) consists of a smooth L-shaped rod located in a horizontal plane and a sleeve A of mass
m attached by a weightless spring to a point B. The spring stiffness is equal to . The whole system rotates
with a constant angular velocity  about a vertical axis passing through the point O. Find the elongation of
the spring. How is the result affected by the rotation direction?

O B

Fig. 6
  
16. At the moment t = 0 a particle of mass m starts moving due to a force F  F0 cos t, where F0 and  are
constants. How long will it be moving until it stops for the first time? What distance will it traverse during
that time? What is the maximum velocity of the particle over this distance?
17. A small disc A is placed on an inclined plane forming an angle  with the horizontal (Fig. 7) and is imparted
an initial velocity v0. Find how the velocity of the disc depends on the angle  if the friction coefficient

k = tan  and at the initial moment 0 = .
2

v A
 

x
Fig. 7
18. A particle moves in a plane under the action of a force which is always perpendicular to the particle’s velocity
and depends on a distance to a certain point on the plane as 1/rn, where n is a constant. At what value of
n will the motion of the particle along the circle be steady?
19. A horizontal plane supports a stationary vertical cylinder of radius R and a disc A attached to the cylinder
by a horizontal thread AB of length 0 (Fig. 8, top view). An initial velocity v0 is imparted to the disc as shown
in the figure. How long will it move along the plane until it strikes against the cylinder? The friction is assumed
to be absent.

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v0

R 0
B A
Fig. 8
20. A horizontal plane supports a plank with a bar of mass m = 1.0 kg placed on it and attached by a light
elastic non-deformed cord of length 0 = 40 cm to a point O (Fig. 9). The coefficient of friction between
the bar and the plank equals k = 0.20. The plank is slowly shifted to the right until the bar starts sliding
over it. It occurs at the moment when the cord deviates from the vertical by an angle  = 30°. Find the
work that has been performed by that moment by the friction force acting on the bar in the reference frame
fixed to the plane.

0

Fig. 9
21. A closed chain A of mass m = 0.36 kg is attached to a vertical rotating shaft by means of a thread
(Fig. 10), and rotates with a constant angular velocity  = 35 rad/s. The thread forms an angle  = 45° with
the vertical. Find the distance between the chain’s centre of gravity and the rotation axis, and the tension
of the thread.

Fig. 10
22. A system consists of two identical cubes, each of mass m, linked together by the compressed weightless
spring of stiffness  (Fig. 11). The cubes are also connected by a thread which is burned through at a certain
moment. Find:
(a) at what values of , the initial compression of the spring, the lower cube will bounce up after the thread
has been burned through:
(b) to what height h the centre of gravity of this system will rise if the initial compression of the spring
 = 7 mg/.

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Fig. 11
23. A small disc of mass m slides down a smooth hill of height h without initial velocity and gets onto a plank
of mass M lying on the horizontal plane at the base of the hill (Fig. 12). Due to friction between the disc
and the plank the disc slows down and, beginning with a certain moment, moves in one piece with the plank.
(a) Find the total work performed by the friction forces in this process.
(b) Can it be stated that the result obtained does not depend on the choice of the reference frame?
m

h
M

Fig. 12
24. A particle of mass m1 collides elastically with a stationary particle of mass m2 (m1 > m2). Find the maximum
angle through which the striking particle may deviate as a result of the collision.
25. A molecule collides with another stationary molecule of the same mass. Demonstrate that the angle of
divergence
(a) equals 90° when the collision is ideally elastic;
(b) differs from 90° when the collision is inelastic.
26. A chain AB of length  is located in a smooth horizontal tube so that its fraction of length h hangs freely
and touches the surface of the table with its end B (Fig. 13). At a certain moment the end A of the chain is
set free. With what velocity will this end of the chain slip out of the tube?

Fig. 13
27. A disc A of mass m sliding over a smooth horizontal surface with velocity v experiences a perfectly elastic
collision with a smooth stationary wall at a point O (Fig. 14). The angle between the motion direction of the
disc and the normal of the wall is equal to . Find:

(a) the points relative to which the angular momentum M of the disc remains constant in this process;
(b) the magnitude of the increment of the vector of the disc’s angular momentum relative to the point O
which is located in the plane of the disc's motion at the distance  from the point O.

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
O


O

Fig. 14
28. A small body of mass m tied to a non-stretchable thread moves over a smooth horizontal plane. The other
end of the thread is being drawn into a hole O (Fig. 15) with a constant velocity. Find the thread tension as
a function of the distance r between the body and the hole if at r = r0 the angular velocity of the thread is
equal to 0.

O
m

F
Fig. 15
29. A cosmic body A moves to the Sun with velocity v0 (when far from the Sun) and aiming parameter  the

arm of the vector v 0 relative to the centre of the Sun (Fig. 16). Find the minimum distance by which this
body will get to the Sun.

A 
v0
Fig. 16
30. Two Earth’s satellites move in a common plane along circular orbits. The orbital radius of one satellite
r = 7000 km while that of the other satellite is r = 70 km less. What time interval separates the periodic
approaches of the satellites to each other over the minimum distance?
31. An artificial satellite of the Moon revolves in a circular orbit whose radius exceeds the radius of the Moon
 times. In the process of motion the satellite experiences a slight resistance due to cosmic dust. Assuming
the resistance force to depend on the velocity of the satellite as F = v2, where  is a constant, find how
long the satellite will stay in orbit until it falls onto the Moon's surface.
32. Find approximately the third cosmic velocity v3, i.e. the minimum velocity that has to be imparted to a body
relative to the Earth’s surface to drive it out of the Solar system. The rotation of the Earth about its own axis
is to be neglected.
33. A thin horizontal uniform rod AB of mass m and length  can rotate freely about a vertical axis passing
through its end A. At a certain moment the end B starts experiencing a constant force F which is always
perpendicular to the original position of the stationary rod and directed in a horizontal plane. Find the angular
velocity of the rod as a function of its rotation angle  counted relative to the initial position.

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34. A uniform cylinder of radius R is spinned about its axis to the angular velocity 0 and then placed into a
corner (Fig. 17).

Fig. 17
The coefficient of friction between the corner walls and the cylinder is equal to k. How many turns will the
cylinder accomplish before it stops?
35. A uniform solid cylinder of mass m rests on two horizontal planks. A thread is wound on the cylinder. The
hanging end of the thread is pulled vertically down with a constant force F (Fig. 18).

F
Fig. 18
Find the maximum magnitude of the force F which still does not bring about any sliding of the cylinder, if
the coefficient of friction between the cylinder and the planks is equal to k. What is the acceleration wmax of
the axis of the cylinder rolling down the inclined plane?
36. A spool with thread wound on it, of mass m, rests on a rough horizontal surface. Its moment of inertia relative
to its own axis is equal to I = mR2, where  is a numerical factor, and R is the outside radius of the spool.
The radius of the wound thread layer is equal to r. The spool is pulled without sliding by the thread with a

constant force F directed at an angle  to the horizontal (Fig. 19). Find:
(a) the projection of the acceleration vector of the spool axis on the x-axis;

(b) the work performed by the force F during the first t seconds after the beginning of motion.

F
R 
r

Fig. 19
37. In the arrangement shown in Fig. 20 a weight A possesses mass m, a pulley B possesses mass M. Also
known are the moment of inertia I of the pulley relative to its axis and the radii of the pulley R and 2R. The
mass of the threads is negligible. Find the acceleration of the weight A after the system is set free.

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B
2R

Fig. 20
38. A uniform solid cylinder of radius R = 15 cm rolls over a horizontal plane passing into an inclined plane
forming an angle  = 30° with the horizontal (Fig. 21). Find the maximum value of the velocity v0 which still
permits the cylinder to roll onto the inclined plane section without a jump. The sliding is assumed to be
absent.

v0
R

Fig. 21
39. A uniform sphere of mass m and radius r rolls without sliding over a horizontal plane, rotating about a
horizontal axle OA (Fig. 22). In the process, the centre of the sphere moves with velocity v along a circle
of radius R. Find the kinetic energy of the sphere.

O A

Fig. 22
40. A midpoint of a thin uniform rod AB of mass m and length  is rigidly fixed to a rotation axle OO as shown
in Fig. 23. The rod is set into rotation with a constant angular velocity . Find the resultant moment of the
centrifugal forces of inertia relative to the point C in the reference frame fixed to the axle OO and to the
rod.

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O
B

A
O

Fig. 23
41. Determine the relationship between the torque N and the torsion angle  for
(a) the tube whose wall thickness r is considerably less than the tube radius;
(b) for the solid rod of circular cross-section. Their length , radius r, and shear modulus G are supposed
to be known.
42. Calculate the torque N twisting a steel tube of length  = 3.0 m through an angle  = 2.0° about its axis, if
the inside and outside diameters of the tube are equal to d1 = 30 mm and d2 = 50 mm.
43. Ideal fluid flows along a flat tube of constant cross-section, located in a horizontal plane and bent as shown
in Fig. 24 (top view). The flow is steady. Are the pressures and velocities of the fluid equal at points 1 and
2? What is the shape of the streamlines?

2
1

Fig. 24
44. A side wall of a wide open tank is provided with a narrowing tube (Fig. 25) through which water flows out.
The cross-sectional area of the tube decreases from S = 3.0 cm2 to s = 1.0 cm2. The water level in the tank
is h = 4.6 m higher than that in the tube.

S s

Fig. 25
Neglecting the viscosity of the water, find the horizontal component of the force tending to pull the tube out
of the tank.
45. A fluid with viscosity  fills the space between two long co-axial cylinders of radii R1 and R2, with R1 < R2.
The inner cylinder is stationary while the outer one is rotated with a constant angular velocity 2. The fluid
flow is laminar. Taking into account that the friction force acting on a unit area of a cylindrical surface of radius
r is defined by the formula  = r (/r), find:

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(a) the angular velocity of the rotating fluid as a function of radius r ;

(b) the moment of the friction forces acting on a unit length of the outer cylinder.
46. The cross-sectional radius of a pipeline decreases gradually as r = r0e–x, where  = 0.50 m –1, x is the
distance from the pipeline inlet. Find the ratio of Reynolds numbers for two cross-sections separated by x
= 3.2 m.

THERMODYNAMICS
1. A smooth vertical tube having two different sections is open from both ends and equipped with two pistons
of different areas (Fig. 1). Each piston slides within a respective tube section. One mole of ideal gas is
enclosed between the pistons tied with a non-stretchable thread. The cross-sectional area of the upper piston
is S = 10 cm 2 greater than that of the lower one. The combined mass of the two pistons is equal to
m = 5.0 kg. The outside air pressure is p0 = 1.0 atm. By how many kelvins must the gas between the pistons
be heated to shift the pistons through  = 5.0 cm?

p0

p0

Fig. 1
2. Find the minimum attainable pressure of ideal gas in the process T = T0 + V2, where T0 and  are positive
constants, and V is the volume of one mole of gas. Draw the approximate p vs V plot of this process.
3. An ideal gas of molar mass M is located in the uniform gravitational field in which the free-fall acceleration
is equal to g. Find the gas pressure as a function of height h, if p = p0 at h = 0, and the temperature varies
with height as
(a) T = T0 (1 – ah); (b) T = T0 (1 + ah),
where a is a positive constant.
4. Find the isothermal compressibility  of a van der Waals gas as a function of volume V at temperature T.

1 V
Note: By definition,  = 
V p
5. Making use of the result obtained in the foregoing problem, find at what temperature the isothermal
compressibility  of a van der Waals gas is greater than that of an ideal gas. Examine the case when the
molar volume is much greater than the parameter b.
6. Two moles of a certain ideal gas at a temperature T0 = 300 K were cooled isochorically so that the gas
pressure reduced n = 2.0 times. Then, as a result of the isobaric process, the gas expanded till its
temperature got back to the initial value. Find the total amount of heat absorbed by the gas in this process.
7. Draw the approximate plots of isochoric, isobaric, isothermal, and adiabatic processes for the case of an
ideal gas, using the following variables:
(a) p, T; (b) V, T.

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8. Find the rate v with which helium flows out of a thermally insulated vessel into vacuum through a small hole.
The flow rate of the gas inside the vessel is assumed to be negligible under these conditions. The
temperature of helium in the vessel is T = 1,000 K.
9. An ideal gas has a molar heat capacity CV at constant volume. Find the molar heat capacity of this gas as
a function of its volume V, if the gas undergoes the following process:
(a) T = T0eV;
(b) p = p0eV
where T0, p0, and  are constants.


10. An ideal gas has an adiabatic exponent . In some process its molar heat capacity varies as C = , where
T
 is a constant. Find:
(a) the work performed by one mole of the gas during its heating from the temperature T0 to the temperature
 times higher;
(b) the equation of the process in the variables p, V.
11. A tall vertical vessel contains a gas composed of two kinds of molecules of masses m1 and m2, with
m2 > m1. The concentrations of these molecules at the bottom of the vessel are equal to n1 and n 2
respectively, with n2 > n1. Assuming the temperature T and the free-fall acceleration g to be independent of
the height, find the height at which the concentrations of these kinds of molecules are equal.
12. A horizontal tube with closed ends is rotated with a constant angular velocity  about a vertical axis passing
through one of its ends. The tube contains carbon dioxide at a temperature T = 300 K. The length of the
tube is  = 100 cm. Find the value  at which the ratio of molecular concentrations at the opposite ends of
the tube is equal to  = 2.0.
13. An ideal gas goes through a cycle consisting of alternate isothermal and adiabatic curves (Fig. 2). The
isothermal processes proceed at the temperatures T1, T2, and T3. Find the efficiency of such a cycle, if in
each isothermal expansion the gas volume increases in the same proportion.

P T1

T2

T3
O
V
Fig. 2
14. An ideal gas goes through a cycle consisting of
(a) isochoric, adiabatic, and isothermal lines;
(b) isobaric, adiabatic, and isothermal lines,
with the isothermal process proceeding at the minimum temperature of the whole cycle. Find the efficiency
of each cycle if the absolute temperature varies n-fold within the cycle.
15. Find the efficiency of a cycle consisting of two isobaric and two isothermal lines if the pressure varies n-
fold and the absolute temperature -fold within the cycle. The working substance is an ideal gas with the
adiabatic exponent .
16. An ideal gas with the adiabatic exponent  goes through a cycle (Fig. 3) within which the absolute
temperature varies -fold. Find the efficiency of this cycle.

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O V
Fig. 3
17. One mole of an ideal gas with heat capacity CV goes through a process in which its entropy S depends on

T as S = , where  is a constant. The gas temperature varies from T1 to T2. Find:
T
(a) the molar heat capacity of the gas as a function of its temperature;
(b) the amount of heat transferred to the gas;
(c) the work performed by the gas.
18. When a vertical capillary of length  with the sealed upper end was brought in contact with the surface of a
liquid, the level of this liquid rose to the height h. The liquid density is , the inside diameter of the capillary
is d, the contact angle is , the atmospheric pressure is p0. Find the surface tension of the liquid.
19. Two vertical plates submerged partially in a wetting liquid form a wedge with a very small angle . The edge
of this wedge is vertical. The density of the liquid is , its surface tension is , the contact angle is . Find
the height h, to which the liquid rises, as a function of the distance x from the edge.
20. Find the work to be performed in order to blow a soap bubble of radius R if the outside air pressure is equal
to p0 and the surface tension of the soap water solution is equal to .

ELECTRODYNAMICS
1. A thin non-conducting ring of radius R has a linear charge density  = 0 cos , where 0 is a constant, 
is the azimuthal angle. Find the magnitude of the electric field strength
(a) at the centre of the ring;
(b) on the axis of the ring as a function of the distance x from its centre. Investigate the obtained function
at x >> R.
2. Suppose the surface charge density over a sphere of radius R depends on a polar angle  as  = 0 cos ,
where 0 is a positive constant. Show that such a charge distribution can be represented as a result of a
small relative shift of two uniformly charged balls of radius R whose charges are equal in magnitude and
opposite in sign. Resorting to this representation, find the electric field strength vector inside the given sphere.
3. A very thin round plate of radius R carrying a uniform surface charge density  is located in vacuum. Find
the electric field potential and strength along the plate’s axis as a function of a distance  from its centre.
Investigate the obtained expression at   0 and  >> R.
4. The potential of a certain electrostatic field has the form  = a (x2 + y2) + bz2, where a and b are constants.
Find the magnitude and direction of the electric field strength vector. What shape have the equipotential
surfaces in the following cases:
(a) a > 0, b > 0; (b) a > 0, b < 0?

5. Find the potential  (x, y) of an electrostatic field E  2axyiˆ  a  x 2  y 2  ˆj , where a is a constant, iˆ and ĵ
are the unit vectors of the x and y axes.

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6. The field potential inside a charged ball depends only on the distance from its centre as  = ar2 + b, where
a and b are constants. Find the space charge distribution  (r) inside the ball.
7. A very long straight thread is oriented at right angles to an infinite conducting plane; its end is separated
from the plane by a distance . The thread carries a uniform charge of linear density . Suppose the point
O is the trace of the thread on the plane. Find the surface density of the induced charge on the plane
(a) at the point O;
(b) as a function of a distance r from the point O.
8. Demonstrate that at a dielectric-conductor interface the surface density of the dielectric’s bound charge
 = – ( – 1)/, where  is the permittivity,  is the surface density of the charge on the conductor.
9. The gap between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor is filled with isotropic dielectric whose permittivity 
varies linearly from 1 to 2 (2 > 1) in the direction perpendicular to the plates. The area of each plate equals
S, the separation between the plates is equal to d. Find:
(a) the capacitance of the capacitor;
(b) the space density of the bound charges as a function of  if the charge of the capacitor is q and the

field E in it is directed toward the growing  values.
10. There is a double-layer cylindrical capacitor whose parameters are shown in Fig. 2. The breakdown field
strength values for these dielectrics are equal to E1 and E2 respectively. What is the breakdown voltage of
this capacitor if 1R1E1 < 2R2E2?

R1
O R2
1
R3
2

Fig. 2
11. Find the capacitance of a system of two identical metal balls of radius a if the distance between their centres
is equal to b, with b >> a. The system is located in a uniform dielectric with permittivity .
12. What charges will flow after the shorting of the switch Sw in the circuit illustrated in Fig. 3 through sections
1 and 2 in the directions indicated by the arrows?
Sw C1

 
C2

1 2
Fig. 3
13. There is an infinite straight chain of alternating charges q and –q. The distance between the neighbouring
charges is equal to a. Find the interaction energy of each charge with all the others.
Instruction: Make use of the expansion of In(1 + ) in a power series in .
14. What amount of heat will be generated in the circuit shown in Fig. 4 after the switch Sw is shifted from
position 1 to position 2?

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C C0 C
Sw

1 2


Fig. 4
15. A point charge q is located at the centre O of a spherical uncharged conducting layer provided with a
small orifice (Fig. 5). The inside and outside radii of the layer are equal to a and b respectively. What
amount of work has to be performed to slowly transfer the charge q from the point O through the orifice
and into infinity?

b
a
O
q

Fig. 5
16. A capacitor consists of two stationary plates shaped as a semi-circle of radius R and a movable plate made
of dielectric with permittivity  and capable of rotating about an axis O between the stationary plates
(Fig. 7). The thickness of the movable plate is equal to d which is practically the separation between the
stationary plates. A potential difference V is applied to the capacitor. Find the magnitude of the moment of
forces relative to the axis O acting on the movable plate in the position shown in the figure.

 O

Fig. 7
17. Find the resistance of a wire frame shaped as a cube (Fig. 8) when measured between points
(a) 1–7; (b) 1–2; (c) 1–3.
The resistance of each edge of the frame is R
6 7
2
3

5
8
1 4
Fig. 8
18. There is an infinite wire grid with square cells (Fig. 9). The resistance of each wire between neighbouring
joint connections is equal to R0. Find the resistance R of the whole grid between points A and B.

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Instruction: Make use of principles of symmetry and superposition.

A B

Fig. 9
19. The space between two conducting concentric spheres of radii a and b (a < b) is filled up with homogeneous
poorly conducting medium. The capacitance of such a system equals C. Find the resistivity of the medium
if the potential difference between the spheres, when they are disconnected from an external voltage,
decreases -fold during the time interval t.
20. Demonstrate that the law of refraction of direct current lines at the boundary between two conducting media
tan  2 2
has the form tan    , where 1 and 2 are the conductivities of the media, 2 and 1 are the angles
1 1
between the current lines and the normal of the boundary surface.
21. Two sources of current of equal emf are connected in series and have different internal resistances R1 and
R2. (R2 > R1). Find the external resistance R at which the potential difference across the terminals of one
of the sources (which one in particular?) becomes equal to zero.
22. Find the magnitude and direction of the current flowing through the resistance R in the circuit shown in
Fig. 10 if the emf’s of the sources are equal to 1 = 1.5 V and 2 = 3.7 V and the resistances are equal to
R1 = 10 , R2 = 20 , R = 5.0 . The internal resistances of the sources are negligible.
R2 2

R1
1
R

Fig. 10
23. Find the resistance between points A and B of the circuit shown in Fig. 11.
r R

A B
r

R r

Fig. 11
24. A conductor has a temperature-independent resistance R and a total heat capacity C. At the moment t = 0
it is connected to a dc voltage V. Find the time dependence of a conductor’s temperature T assuming the
thermal power dissipated into surrounding space to vary as q = k (T – T0), where k is a constant, T0 is the
environmental temperature (equal to the conductor’s temperature at the initial moment).
25. The radii of spherical capacitor electrodes are equal to a and b, with a < b. The interelectrode space is filled
with homogeneous substance of permittivity  and resistivity . Initially the capacitor is not charged. At the
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moment t = 0 the internal electrode gets a charge q0. Find:

(a) the time variation of the charge on the internal electrode;
(b) the amount of heat generated during the spreading of the charge.
26. Two large parallel plates are located in vacuum. One of them serves as a cathode, a source of electrons
whose initial velocity is negligible. An electron flow directed toward the opposite plate produces a space
charge causing the potential in the gap between the plates to vary as  = ax4/3, where a is a positive
constant, and x is the distance from the cathode. Find:
(a) the volume density of the space charge as a function of x;
(b) the current density.
27. A current I flows along a thin wire shaped as a regular polygon with n sides which can be inscribed into a
circle of radius R. Find the magnetic induction at the centre of the polygon. Analyse the obtained expression
at n  .
28. A direct current I flows along a lengthy straight wire. From the point O (Fig. 12) the current spreads radially
all over an infinite conducting plane perpendicular to the wire. Find the magnetic induction at all points of
space.

O
Fig. 12
29. Find the magnitude and direction of a force vector acting on a unit length of a thin wire, carrying a current
I = 8.0 A, at a point O, if the wire is bent as shown in
(a) Fig. 13a, with curvature radius R = 10 cm;
(b) Fig. 13b, the distance between the long parallel segments of the wire being equal to  = 20 cm.

R O 
O
(a) (b)
Fig. 13 a and b
30. A small coil C with N = 200 turns is mounted on one end of a balance beam and introduced between the poles
of an electromagnet as shown in Fig. 14. The cross-sectional area of the coil is S = 1.0 cm2, the length of the
arm OA of the balance beam is  = 30 cm. When there is no current in the coil the balance is in equilibrium. On
passing a current I = 22 mA through the coil the equilibrium is restored by putting the additional counterweight
of mass m = 60 mg on the balance pan. Find the magnetic induction at the spot where the coil is located.

O A
C

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Fig. 14
31. Two long thin parallel conductors of the shape shown in Fig. 15 carry direct currents I1 and I2. The separation
between the conductors is a, the width of the right-hand conductor is equal to b. With both conductors lying
in one plane, find the magnetic interaction force between them reduced to a unit of their length.

I1 I2

Fig. 15
32. In an electromagnetic pump designed for transferring molten metals a pipe section with metal is located in
a uniform magnetic field of induction B (Fig. 16). A current I is made to flow across this pipe section in the
direction perpendicular both to the vector B and to the axis of the pipe. Find the gauge pressure produced
by the pump if B = 0.10 T, I = 100 A, and a = 2.0 cm.
B

I
a

Fig. 16
33. A small current-carrying coil having a magnetic moment pm is located at the axis of a round loop of radius
R with current I flowing through it. Find the magnitude of the vector force applied to the coil if its distance
from the centre of the loop is equal to x and the vector pm, coincides in direction with the axis of the loop.
34. A metal rod of mass m can rotate about a horizontal axis O, sliding along a circular conductor of radius a
(Fig. 17). The arrangement is located in a uniform magnetic field of induction B directed perpendicular to
the ring plane. The axis and the ring are connected to an emf source to form a circuit of resistance R.
Neglecting the friction, circuit inductance, and ring resistance, find the law according to which the source
emf must vary to make the rod rotate with a constant angular velocity .


t

O B

Fig. 17
35. A square wire frame with side a and a straight conductor carrying a constant current I are located in the
same plane (Fig. 18).
b
O

I a

a O

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Fig. 18
The inductance and the resistance of the frame are equal to L and R respectively. The frame was turned
through 180° about the axis OO separated from the current-carrying conductor by a distance b. Find the
electric charge having flown through the frame.
36. A conducting rod AB of mass m slides without friction over two long conducting rails separated by a
distance  (Fig. 19). At the left end the rails are interconnected by a resistance R. The system is located in
a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the loop. At the moment t = 0 the rod AB starts moving
to the right with an initial velocity v0. Neglecting the resistances of the rails and the rod AB, as well as the
self-inductance, find:
(a) the distance covered by the rod until it comes to a standstill;
(b) the amount of heat generated in the resistance R during this process.
A
v0 B
R

B
Fig. 19
37. Calculate the inductance of a doughnut solenoid whose inside radius is equal to b and cross-section has
the form of a square with side a. The solenoid winding consists of N turns. The space inside the solenoid
is filled up with uniform paramagnetic having permeability .
38. A ring of radius a = 50 mm made of thin wire of radius b = 1.0 mm was located in a uniform magnetic field

with induction B = 0.50 mT so that the ring plane was perpendicular to the vector B . Then the ring was
cooled down to a superconducting state, and the magnetic field was switched off. Find the ring current after

that. Note that the inductance of a thin ring along which the surface current flows is equal to L = 0a
 8a 
 ln  2 .
 b 
39. Demonstrate that the magnetic energy of interaction of two current-carrying loops located in vacuum can

 1     
be represented as Wia   
 0 
 B1  B2dV , where B1 and B2 are the magnetic inductions within a volume

element dV, produced individually by the currents of the first and the second loop respectively.
40. A non-relativistic charged particle flies through the electric field of a cylindrical capacitor and gets into a
uniform transverse magnetic field with induction B (Fig. 20). In the capacitor the particle moves along the
arc of a circle, in the magnetic field, along a semi-circle of radius r. The potential difference applied to the
capacitor is equal to V, the radii of the electrodes are equal to a and b, with a < b. Find the velocity of the
particle and its specific charge q/m.
q

r
B

Fig. 20
41. A particle with specific charge q/m is located inside a round solenoid at a distance r from its axis. With the
current switched into the winding, the magnetic induction of the field generated by the solenoid amounts to

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B. Find the velocity of the particle and the curvature radius of its trajectory, assuming that during the increase
of current flowing in the solenoid the particle shifts by a negligible distance.

OSCILLATIONS AND WAVES

 
1. A point moves along the x axis according to the law x = a sin2   t   . Find:
 4
(a) the amplitude and period of oscillations; draw the plot x(t);
(b) the velocity projection vx as a function of the coordinate x; draw the plot vx(x).
2. A particle performs harmonic oscillations along the x axis according to the law x = a cos t. Assuming the
probability P of the particle to fall within an interval from –a to +a to be equal to unity, find how the probability
dP
density depends on x. Here dP denotes the probability of the particle falling within an interval from x
dx
dP
to x + dx. Plot as a function of x.
dx
3. Determine the period of small oscillations of a mathematical pendulum, that is a ball suspended by a thread
 = 20 cm in length, if it is located in a liquid whose density is  = 3.0 times less than that of the ball. The
resistance of the liquid is to be neglected.
4. Determine the period of oscillations of mercury of mass m = 200 g poured into a bent tube (Fig. 1) whose
right arm forms an angle  = 30° with the vertical. The cross-sectional area of the tube is S = 0.50 cm2.
The viscosity of mercury is to be neglected.

Fig. 1
5. Find the period of small oscillations of a mathematical pendulum of length  if its point of suspension O moves
relative to the Earth’s surface in an arbitrary direction with a constant acceleration w (Fig. 2). Calculate that
g  
period if   21 cm, w  , and the angle between the vectors w and g equals  = 120°.
2
w
O


g

Fig. 2
6. A plank with a body of mass m placed on it starts moving straight up according to the law y = a
(1 – cos t), where y is the displacement from the initial position,  = 11 s–1. Find:
(a) the time dependence of the force that the body exerts on the plank if a = 4.0 cm; plot this dependence;
(b) the minimum amplitude of oscillation of the plank at which the body starts falling behind the plank;
(c) the amplitude of oscillation of the plank at which the body springs up to a height h = 50 cm relative to
the initial position (at the moment t = 0).

7.
 



A particle of mass m moves in the plane xy due to the force varying with velocity as F  a y iˆ  x ˆj , where

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a is a positive constant, iˆ and ĵ are the unit vectors of the x and y axes. At the initial moment t = 0 the

particle was located at the point x = y = 0 and possessed a velocity v0 directed along the unit vector ˆj .
Find the law of motion x (t) , y (t) of the particle, and also the equation of its trajectory.

8. A uniform rod of mass m = 1.5 kg suspended by two identical threads   90 cm in length (Fig. 3) was turned
through a small angle about the vertical axis passing through its middle point C. The threads deviated in
the process through an angle  = 5.0°. Then the rod was released to start performing small oscillations. Find:
(a) the oscillation period;
(b) the rod’s oscillation energy.

 

 

C
Fig. 3
9. A uniform rod of mass m and length  performs small oscillations about the horizontal axis passing through
its upper end. Find the mean kinetic energy of the rod averaged over one oscillation period if at the initial

moment it was deflected from the vertical by an angle 0 and then imparted an angular velocity 0 .
10. A uniform cylindrical pulley of mass M and radius R can freely rotate about the horizontal axis O (Fig. 4).
The free end of a thread tightly wound on the pulley carries a deadweight A. At a certain angle  it
counterbalances a point mass m fixed at the rim of the pulley. Find the frequency of small oscillations of
the arrangement.

O
R

m
A

Fig. 4
11. A mock-up of a CO2 molecule consists of three balls interconnected by identical light springs and placed along
a straight line in the state of equilibrium. Such a system can freely perform oscillations of two types, as shown
by the arrows in Fig. 5. Knowing the masses of the atoms, find the ratio of frequencies of these oscillations.
O C O
(1)

O C O
(2)

Fig. 5
12. A coil of inductance L connects the upper ends of two vertical copper bars separated by a distance . A
horizontal conducting connector of mass m starts falling with zero initial velocity along the bars without losing
contact with them. The whole system is located in a uniform magnetic field with induction B perpendicular
to the plane of the bars. Find the law of motion x (t) of the connector.

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13. A body performs torsional oscillations according to the law  = 0e–t cos t. Find :
 
(a) the angular velocity  and the angular acceleration  of the body at the moment t = 0;
(b) the moments of time at which the angular velocity becomes maximum.
14. An oscillating circuit consists of a capacitor with capacitance C, a coil of inductance L with negligible
resistance, and a switch. With the switch disconnected, the capacitor was charged to a voltage Vm and then
at the moment t = 0 the switch was closed. Find:
(a) the current I (t) in the circuit as a function of time;
(b) the emf of self-inductance in the coil at the moments when the electric energy of the capacitor is equal
to that of the current in the coil.
15. The free damped oscillations are maintained in a circuit, such that the voltage across the capacitor varies as
V = Vme–t cos t. Find the moments of time when the modulus of the voltage across the capacitor reaches
(a) peak values;
(b) maximum (extremum) values.
16. A capacitor with capacitance C whose interelectrode space is filled up with poorly conducting medium with
active resistance R is connected to a source of alternating voltage V = Vm cos t. Find the time dependence
of the steady-state current flowing in lead wires. The resistance of the wires is to be neglected.

17. A series circuit consisting of an inductance-free resistance R = 0.16 k and a coil with active resistance is
connected to the mains with effective voltage V = 220 V. Find the heat power generated in the coil if the
effective voltage values across the resistance R and the coil are equal to V1 = 80 V and V2 = 180 V
respectively.

18. A ring of thin wire with active resistance R and inductance L rotates with constant angular velocity  in the
external uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the rotation axis. In the process, the flux of magnetic
induction of external field across the ring varies with time as  = 0 cos t. Demonstrate that
 0
(a) the inductive current in the ring varies with time as I = Im sin (t – ), where Im  with
R 2  2 L2
L
tan   ;
R
(b) the mean mechanical power developed by external forces to maintain rotation is defined by the formula

1 2 2
 0R
P 2 .
 R 2  2L2 
19. Demonstrate that any differentiable function f (t + x), where  is a constant, provides a solution of wave
equation. What is the physical meaning of the constant ?
20. A plane wave  = a cos (t – kx) propagates in a homogeneous elastic medium. For the moment t = 0 draw
 
(a) the plots of , , and vs x;
t x
(b) the velocity direction of the particles of the medium at the points where  = 0, for the cases of longitudinal
and transverse waves;
(c) the approximate plot of density distribution (x) of the medium for the case of longitudinal waves.
21. The equation of a plane standing wave in a homogeneous elastic medium has the form  = a cos kx  cos
t. Plot:

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 T
(a)  and as functions of x at the moments t = 0 and t = , where T is the oscillation period;
x 2
T
(b) the distribution of density (x) of the medium at the moments t = 0 and t = in the case of longitudinal
2
oscillations;
T
(c) the velocity distribution of particles of the medium at the moment t = ; indicate the directions of
4
velocities at the antinodes, both for longitudinal and transverse oscillations.

OPTICS
1. Write the law of reflection of a light beam from a mirror in vector form, using the directing unit vectors e
and e of the incident and reflected beams and the unit vector n of the outside normal to the mirror surface.
2. Determine the focal length of a concave mirror if:
(a) with the distance between an object and its image being equal to  = 15 cm, the transverse magnification
 = –2.0;
(b) in a certain position of the object the transverse magnification is  1 = –0.50 and in another position
displaced with respect to the former by a distance  = 5.0 cm the transverse magnification  2 = –0.25.
3. A parallel beam of light falls from vacuum on a surface enclosing a medium with refractive index n (Fig. 1).
Find the shape of that surface, x (r), if the beam is brought into focus at the point F at a distance f from
the crest O. What is the maximum radius of a beam that can still be focussed?
r
n

f F
O
x

Fig. 1
4. There are two thin symmetrical lenses: one is converging, with refractive index n1 = 1.70, and the other is
diverging with refractive index n2 = 1.51. Both lenses have the same curvature radius of their surfaces equal
to R = 10 cm. The lenses were put close together and submerged into water. What is the focal length of
this system in water?
5. On passing through a telescope a flux of light increases its intensity  = 4.0 × 104 times. Find the angular
dimension of a distant object if its image formed by that telescope has an angular dimension  = 2.0°.
6. A system illustrated in Fig. 2 consists of two coherent point sources 1 and 2 located in a certain plane so
that their dipole moments are oriented at right angles to that plane. The sources are separated by a distance
d, the radiation wavelength is equal to . Taking into account that the oscillations of source 2 lag in phase
behind the oscillations of source 1 by  ( < ), find:
(a) the angles  at which the radiation intensity is maximum;
(b) the conditions under which the radiation intensity in the direction  =  is maximum and in the opposite
direction, minimum.

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Fig. 2
7. In Lloyd's mirror experiment (Fig. 3) a light wave emitted directly by the source S (narrow slit) interferes with
the wave reflected from a mirror M. As a result, an interference fringe pattern is formed on the screen Sc.
The source and the mirror are separated by a distance  = 100 cm. At a certain position of the source the
fringe width on the screen was equal to x = 0.25 mm, and after the source was moved away from the mirror
plane by h = 0.60 mm, the fringe width decreased  = 1.5 times. Find the wavelength of light.
Sc
S

M
Fig. 3
8. A plane light wave with wavelength  = 0.70 m falls normally on the base of a biprism made of glass (n =
1.520) with refracting angle  = 5.0°. Behind the biprism (Fig. 5) there is a plane-parallel plate, with the space
between them filled up with benzene (n = 1.500). Find the width of a fringe on the screen Sc placed behind
this system.
Sc
n
n

Fig. 5
9. Figure 6 illustrates an interferometer used in measurements of refractive indices of transparent substances.
Here S is a narrow slit illuminated by monochromatic light with wavelength = 589 nm, 1 and 2 are identical
tubes with air of length  = 10.0 cm each, D is a diaphragm with two slits. After the air in tube 1 was replaced
with ammonia gas, the interference pattern on the screen Sc was displaced upward by N = 17 fringes. The
refractive index of air is equal to n = 1.000277. Determine the refractive index of ammonia gas.
1 D Sc

S
2
Fig. 6
10. Two plano-convex thin glass lenses are brought into contact with their spherical surfaces. Find the optical
power of such a system if in reflected light with wavelength  = 0.60 m the diameter of the fifth bright ring
is d = 1.50 mm.
11. The spherical surface of a plano-convex lens comes into contact with a glass plate. The space between the
lens and the plate is filled up with carbon dioxide. The refractive indices of the lens, carbon dioxide, and
the plate are equal to n1 = 1.50, n2 = 1.63, and n3 = 1.70 respectively. The curvature radius of the spherical
surface of the lens is equal to R = 100 cm. Determine the radius of the fifth dark Newton's ring in reflected
light with wavelength  = 0.50 m.

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12. A plane monochromatic light wave falls normally on a round aperture. At a distance b = 9.0 m from it there
is a screen showing a certain diffraction pattern. The aperture diameter was decreased  = 3.0 times. Find
the new distance b at which the screen should be positioned to obtain the diffraction pattern similar to the
previous one but diminished  times.

ATOMIC AND NUCLEAR PHYSICS

1. To what minimum distance will an alpha particle with kinetic energy T = 0.40 MeV approach in the case of
a head-on collision to
(a) a stationary Pb nucleus;
(b) a stationary free Li7 nucleus?
2. An alpha particle with kinetic energy T = 0.50 MeV is deflected through an angle of  = 90° by the Coulomb
field of a stationary Hg nucleus. Find:
(a) the least curvature radius of its trajectory;
(b) the minimum approach distance between the particle and the nucleus.
3. A particle with kinetic energy T is deflected by a spherical potential well of radius R and depth U0, i.e. by
the field in which the potential energy of the particle takes the form

 0 for r  R,
U
U0 for r  R,

where r is the distance from the centre of the well. Find the relationship between the aiming parameter b
of the particle and the angle through which it deflects from the initial motion direction.
4. A stationary ball of radius R is irradiated by a parallel stream of particles whose radius is r. Assuming the
collision of a particle and the ball to be elastic, find:
(a) the deflection angle  of a particle as a function of its aiming parameter b;
(b) the fraction of particles which after a collision with the ball are scattered into the angular interval between
 and  + d;
(c) the probability of a particle to be deflected, after a collision with the ball, into the front hemisphere
 
   .
 2

5. In accordance with classical electrodynamics an electron moving with acceleration w loses its energy due
to radiation as

dE 2e 2
  3 w 2,
dt 3c

where e is the electron charge, c is the velocity of light. Estimate the time during which the energy of an
electron performing almost harmonic oscillations with frequency  = 5 × 1015 s–1 will decrease = 10 times.
6. Making use of the formula of the foregoing problem, estimate the time during which an electron moving in
a hydrogen atom along a circular orbit of radius r = 50 pm would have fallen onto the nucleus. For the sake

of simplicity assume the vector w to be permanently directed toward the centre of the atom.

kr 2
7. A particle of mass m moves along a circular orbit in a centro-symmetrical potential field U (r )  . Using
2
the Bohr quantization condition, find the permissible orbital radii and energy levels of that particle.

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8. For hydrogen-like systems find the magnetic moment n corresponding to the motion of an electron along
the nth orbit and the ratio of the magnetic and mechanical moments n/Mn. Calculate the magnetic moment
of an electron occupying the first Bohr orbit.
9. Find the quantum number n corresponding to the excited state of He+ ion if on transition to the ground state
that ion emits two photons in succession with wavelengths 108.5 and 30.4 nm.
10. A stationary He+ ion emitted a photon corresponding to the first line of the Lyman series. That photon liberated
a photoelectron from a stationary hydrogen atom in the ground state. Find the velocity of the photoelectron.
11. Calculate the separation between the particles of a system in the ground state, the corresponding binding
energy, and the wavelength of the first line of the Lyman series, if such a system is
(a) a mesonic hydrogen atom whose nucleus is a proton (in a mesonic atom an electron is replaced by a
meson whose charge is the same and mass is 207 that of an electron);
(b) a positronium consisting of an electron and a positron revolving around their common centre of masses.
12. Two identical non-relativistic particles move at right angles to each other, possessing de Broglie wavelengths
1 and 2. Find the de Broglie wavelength of each particle in the frame of their centre of inertia.
13. At what value of kinetic energy is the de Broglie wavelength of an electron equal to its Compton wavelength?
14. A small amount of solution containing Na24 radionuclide with activity A = 2.0 × 103 disintegrations per second
was injected in the bloodstream of a man. The activity of 1 cm 3 of blood sample taken t = 5.0 hours later
turned out to be A = 16 disintegrations per minute per cm 3. The half-life of the radionuclide is T = 15 hours.
Find the volume of the man’s blood.
15. A P32 radionuclide with half-life T = 14.3 days is produced in a reactor at a constant rate q = 2.7 × 109 nuclei
per second. How soon after the beginning of production of that radionuclide will its activity be equal to
A = 1.0 × 109 dis/s?
16. A radionuclide A1 with decay constant 1 transforms into a radionuclide A2 with decay constant 2. Assuming
that at the initial moment the preparation contained only the radionuclide A1, find:
(a) the equation describing accumulation of the radionuclide A2 with time;
(b) the time interval after which the activity of radionuclide A2 reaches the maximum value.
17. Solve the foregoing problem if 1 = 2 = .
18. A neutron collides elastically with an initially stationary deuteron. Find the fraction of the kinetic energy lost
by the neutron
(a) in a head-on collision;
(b) in scattering at right angles.

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Chemistry
 Chemistry
1. It is known that atom contain protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass of neutron is assumed to be half
of its original value whereas that of proton is assumed to be twice of its original value then the atomic mass
14
of 6C will be

(a) Same (b) 14.28% less

(c) 14.28% more (d) 28.56% less

2. Dieldrin, an insecticide, contains C, H, Cl and O. Combustion of 29.72 mg of Dieldrin gave 41.21 mg CO2 and
5.63 mg of H2O. In a separate analysis 25.31 mg of Dieldrin was converted into 67.16 mg AgCI. What is the
empirical formula of Dieldrin?

(a) C6H4Cl3O

(b) C8H8ClO

(c) C12H8Cl6O

(d) C6H4Cl3O2

3. Suppose two elements X and Y combine to form two compounds XY2 and X2Y3 . 0.05 mole of XY2 weighs
5 g while 3.011 × 1023 molecules of X2Y3 weigh 85 g. The atomic masses of X and Y are respectively

(a) 20, 30 (b) 30, 40

(c) 40, 30 (d) 80, 60

4. Some older emergency oxygen masks containing potassium superoxide, KO2 which reacts with CO2 and water
in exhaled air to produce oxygen according to the given equation. If a person exhales 0.667 g of CO 2 per
minute, how many grams of KO2 are consumed in 5.0 minutes?

4KO2 + 2H2O + 4CO2  4KHCO3 + 3O2

(a) 10.7 (b) 0.0757

(c) 1.07 (d) 5.38

5. 9 moles of “D” and 14 moles of E are allowed to react in a closed vessel according to given reactions.
Calculate number of moles of B formed in the end of reaction, if 4 moles of G are present in reaction vessel.
(Percentage yield of reaction is mentioned in the reaction)

80%
Step-I 3D + 4E   5C + A

50%
Step-2 3C + 5G   6B + F

(a) 2.4 (b) 30

(c) 4.8 (d) 1

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6. The chief ore of Zn is the sulphide, ZnS. The ore is concentrated by froth floatation process and then heated in
air to convert ZnS to ZnO.
80%
2ZnS + 3O2   2ZnO + 2SO2
100%
ZnO + H2SO 4  ZnSO 4 + H2O
80%
2ZnSO 4 + 2H2O   2Zn + 2H2SO4 + O2
The number of moles of ZnS required for producing 2 moles of Zn will be
(a) 3.125 (b) 2
(c) 2.125 (d) 4
7. One gram of the silver salt of an organic dibasic acid yields, on strong heating, 0.5934 g of silver. If the weight
percentage of carbon in it is 8 times the weight percentage of hydrogen and one-half the weight percentage
of oxygen, determine the molecular formula of the acid.
(a) C4H6O4 (b) C4H6O6
(c) C2H6O2 (d) C5H10O5
8. 2 mole of N2H4 loses 16 mole of electron on being converted to a new compound X. Assuming that all of the
N appears in the new compound. What is the oxidation state of ‘N’ in X?
(a) –1 (b) –2
(c) +2 (d) +4

 1 
9. H2O2 is used as bleaching reagent because on dissociation it gives oxygen  H2O2  H2O + O2  .
 2 
If “Chachi 420” used H2O2 solution to bleach her hair and she required 2.24 L O 2 gas at 1 atm and 273 K.
She has a H2O2 solution labelled as “5.6 V” then what volume of such solution must she required to bleach
her hair?
(a) 200 mL (b) 300 mL
(c) 400 mL (d) 500 mL
10. 0.80 g of impure (NH4)2SO4 was boiled with 100 mL of a 0.2 N NaOH solution till all the NH3(g) evolved. The
remaining solution was diluted to 250 mL. 25 mL of this solution was neutralized using 5 mL of a 0.2 N H2SO4
solution. The percentage purity of the (NH4)2SO4 sample is
(a) 82.5 (b) 72.5
(c) 62.5 (d) 17.5
11. Stannous sulphate (SnSO4) and potassium permanganate are used as oxidising agents in acidic medium for
oxidation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to ferric sulphate. The ratio of number of moles of stannous sulphate
required per mole of ferrous ammonium sulphate to the number of moles of KMnO4 required per mole of ferrous
ammonium sulphate, is
(a) 2.5 (b) 0.2
(c) 0.4 (d) 2.0
12. In an iodometric estimation, the following reactions occur

2Cu2 + 4I  Cu2I2 + I2 ; I2 + 2Na2S2O3  2Nal + Na 2S4O6

0.12 mole of CuSO4 was added to excess of KI solution and the liberated iodine required 120 mL of hypo.
The molarity of hypo solution was
(a) 2 (b) 0.20
(c) 0.1 (d) 1.0

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13. A mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 required 25 mL of 0.1 M HCl using phenolphthalein as the indicator. However,
the same amount of the mixture required 30 mL of 0.1 M HCl when methyl orange was used as the indicator.
The molar ratio of NaOH and Na2CO3 in the mixture was

(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 2

(c) 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 4

14. 6.2 g of a sample containing Na2CO3, NaHCO3 and non-volatile inert impurity on gentle heating loses 5% of
its weight due to reaction 2NaHCO3  Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2. Residue is dissolved in water and formed
100 mL solution and its 10 mL portion requires 7.5 mL of 0.2 M aqueous solution of BaCl2 for complete
precipitation of carbonates. Determine weight (in gram) of Na2CO3 in the original sample.

(a) 1.59 (b) 1.06

(c) 0.53 (d) None of these

15. A 1.0 g sample of a pure organic compound containing chlorine is fused with Na2O2 to convert chlorine to NaCl.
The sample is then dissolved in water, and the chloride precipitated with AgNO3 , giving 1.96 g of AgCI. If the
molecular weight of organic compound is 147, how many chlorine atoms does each molecule contain?

(a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

16. 11.6 g of an organic compound having formula CnH2n + 2 is burnt in excess of O2(g) initially taken in a
22.41 litre steel vessel. Before reaction the gaseous mixture was at 273 K with pressure reading 2 atm. After
complete combustion and loss of considerable amount of heat, the mixture of product and excess of O 2 had
a temperature of 546 K and 4.6 atm pressure. The formula of organic compound is

(a) C2H6 (b) C3H8

(c) C5H12 (d) C4H10

40% yield
17. H2O2  2KI   I2  2KOH

50% yield
H2O2  2KMnO 4  3H2SO 4   K 2SO 4  2MnSO 4  3O 2  4H2O

150 mL of H2O2 sample was divided into two parts. First part was treated with KI and formed KOH required
200 mL of M/2 H2SO4 for neutralisation. Other part was treated with KMnO4 yielding 6.74 litre of O2 at 1 atm
and 273 K. Using % yield indicated find volume strength of H2O2 sample used.

(a) 5.04 (b) 10.08

(c) 3.36 (d) 33.6

18. 0.10 g of a sample containing CuCO3 and some inert impurity was dissolved in dilute sulphuric acid and volume
made up to 50 mL. This solution was added into 50 mL of 0.04 M KI solution where copper precipitates as
Cul and I– is oxidized into I3 . A 10 mL protion of this solution is taken for analysis, filtered and made free
from I3 and then treated with excess of acidic permanganate solution. Liberated iodine required 20 mL of
2.5 mM sodium thiosulphate solution to reach the end point. Determine weight percentage of CuCO 3 in the
original sample.

(a) 7.41

(b) 74.1

(c) 61.75

(d) None of these

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19. When an equimolar mixture of Cu2S and CuS is titrated with Ba(MnO4)2 in acidic medium, the final product's
contains Cu2+, SO2 and Mn2+. If the mol. wt. of Cu2S, CuS and Ba(MnO4)2, are M1, M2 and M3 respectively
then
M1
(a) Eq. wt. of Cu2S is
8
M2
(b) Eq. wt. of CuS is
6

M3
(c) Eq. wt. of Ba(MnO4)2 is
5
(d) Cu2S and CuS both have same equivalents in mixture
20. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
[Atomic masses (M)] (% composition of heavier isotope)
Isotope-I Isotope-II Average
(A) (z – 1) (z + 3) z (P) 25% by moles
(B) (z + 1) (z + 3) (z + 2) (Q) 50% by moles
(C) z 3z 2z (R) % by mass dependent on z
(D) (z – 1) (z + 1) z (S) 75% by mass
21. A sample of raw material contain NaNO3 also contains NaIO3. The NalO3 can be used as a source of iodine,
produced in the following reactions:

IO3  HSO3 I  SO24 ... (1)

I  IO3  I2  H2O ... (2)

One litre of sample solution containing 396 g of NalO3 is treated with stoichiometric quantity of NaHSO3. Now
a substantial amount of same solution is added to reaction mixture to bring about the reaction (2).
Column-I Column-II

(A) n-factor of IO3 in reaction (2) (P) 6

(B) Number of moles of HSO3 used in (Q) 1.2

reaction (1)
(C) Moles of I2 produced (R) 2

(D) Equivalents of IO3 used in reaction (2) (S) 5

22. 10 g mixture of K2Cr2O7 and KMnO4 was treated with excess of KI in acidic medium. Iodine liberated required
100 cm3 of 2.2 N sodium thiosulphate solution for titration. If the mass percent of KMnO 4 in the mixture is
Z, then what is the value of 2Z/5?
23. Electronic transition in He+ ion takes from n2 to n1 shell such that :
2n2 + 3n1 = 18
2n2 – 3n1 = 6
What will be the total number of photons emitted when electrons transit to n1 shell ?
(a) 21 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 10

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24. A light source of wavelength  illuminates a metal and ejects photoelectrons with (K.E.)max = 1 eV.

Another light source of wavelength , ejects photoelectrons from same metal with (K.E.)max = 4 eV..
3
Find the value of work function.
(a) 1 eV (b) 2 eV
(c) 0.5 eV (d) None of these
25. V on two particles A and B are plotted against de-Broglie wavelengths. Where V is potential difference
applied on the particles. Which of the following relation is correct about the mass of particles? (Assume equal
charge on the two particles)

V
B
A


(a) mA = mB (b) mA > mB

(c) mA < mB (d) mA  mB
26. Consider the following six electronic configurations (remaining inner orbitals are completely filled) and mark the
incorrect option.

3s 3p 3s 3p 3s 3d
I. II. III.

4s 3d 4s 4p 4s 3d
IV. V. VI.

(a) Stability order : II > I > IV > III

(b) Order of spin multiplicity : IV > III = I > II
(c) V does not violate all the three rules of electronic configuration
(d) If VI represents A then A+ when kept near a magnet, acts as diamagnetic substance.
27. The Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen atom is

3/2
1  Z (  1) (2  8  12) e  /2
 (radial)   
16 4  a0 

2Zr
where a0 and Z are the constant in which answer can be expressed and   .
a0

Minimum and maximum position of radial nodes from nucleus are ...... respectively.

a0 3a0 a0 a0
(a) , (b) ,
z z 2z z

a0 3a0 a0 4a0
(c) , (d) ,
2z z 2z z

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Ke2
28. For a hypothetical hydrogen like atom, the potential energy of the system is given by U(r)  , where r
r3
is the distance between the two particles. If Bohr's model of quantization of angular momentum is applicable
then velocity of particle is given by

n2h3 n3h3
(a) v  (b) v 
Ke2 83m2 8Ke2 3m2
n3h3 n2h3
(c) v  (d) v 
24Ke2 3m2 24Ke2 3m2
1 2
29. A small particle of mass m moves in such a way that P.E.   mkr , where k is a constant and r is the
2
distance of the particle from origin. Assuming Bohr's model of quantization of angular momentum is applicable
then r is directly proportional to
(a) n2 (b) n
(c) n (d) None of these
30. An element undergoes a reaction as shown :
X + 2e–  X2–, energy released = 30.87 eV/atom. If the energy released, is used to dissociate 4 gms of H 2
molecules, equally into H+ and H*, where H* is excited state of H atoms where the electron travel in orbit whose
circumference equal to four times its de Broglie’s wavelength. Determine the least moles of X that would be
required :
Given : I.E. of H = 13.6 eV/atom, bond energy of H2 = 4.526 eV/molecule.
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
31. In a measurement of quantum efficiency of photosynthesis in green plants, it was found that 10 quanta of red
light of wavelength 6850 Å were needed to release one molecule of O 2. The average energy storage in this
process is 112 kcal/mol O2 evolved.
What is the energy conversion efficiency in this experiment?
Given: 1 cal = 4.18 J; NA = 6 × 1023; h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js
(a) 23.5 (b) 26.9
(c) 66.34 (d) 73.1
32. The radial distribution functions [P(r)] is used to determine the most probable radius, which is used to find the
 dP(r) 
electron in a given orbital   for 1s-orbital of hydrogen like atom having atomic number Z, is
 dr 

dP 4Z3  2Zr 2  2Zr /a0 .

 3  2r  e
dr a0  a0 

Then which of the following statements is/are correct?

dP(r)
(a) At the point of maximum value of radial distribution function 0
dr
a0
(b) Most probable radius of Li2+ is pm
3
a0
(c) Most probable radius of He+ is pm
2
(d) Most probable radius of hydrogen atom is a0 pm

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33. Match Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) (P) 4s

2 2
4r R
(B) (Q) 5py

Distance from nucleus

(C) Angular probability is dependent of  and  (R) 3s

(D) At least one angular node is present (S) 6dxy

34. For 1s orbital of Hydrogen atom radial wave function is given as:

3/2
1  1
R(r)    e r /a0 (where a0 = 0.529 Å)
  a0 

The ratio of radial probability density of finding electron at r = a0 to the radial probability density of finding
electron at the nucleus is given as (x.e–y). Calculate the value of (x + y).

35. Air entering the lungs ends up in tiny sacs called alveoli. It is from the alveoli that oxygen diffuses into the
blood. The average radius of the alveoli is 0.0050 mm and the air inside contains 14 per cent oxygen. Assuming
that the pressure in the alveoli is 1.0 atm and the temperature is 37°C, calculate the number of oxygen
molecules in one of the alveoli.

(a) 6 × 1013 (b) 1024

(c) 1.7 × 1022 (d) 1.7 × 109

36. The density of liquid gallium at 30°C is 6.095 g/mL. Because of its wide liquid range (30 to 2400°C), gallium
could be used as a barometer fluid at high temperature. What height (in cm) of gallium will be supported on
a day when the mercury barometer reads 740 torr?

(The density of mercury is 13.6 g/mL.).

(a) 322 (b) 285

(c) 165 (d) 210

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37. For a closed (not rigid) container containing n = 10 moles of an ideal gas fitted with movable, frictionless,
weightless piston operating such that pressure of gas remains constant at 0.821 atm, which graph represents
correct variation of log V vs log T, where V is in litre and T in kelvin?
log V

log V
(a) (b)

45° 30°
log T log T

45°
log V

log T
(c) (d)
1
45°
log T log V

38. Two inflated balloons I and II (thin skin) having volume 600 mL and 1500 mL at 300 K are taken as shown in
diagram. If maximum volume of inner and outer balloons are 800 mL and 1800 mL respectively then find the
balloon which will burst first on gradual heating.

1500 mL

600 mL

(a) Inner balloon (b) Outer balloon

(c) Both simultaneously (d) Unpredictable
39. Consider the following statements. If the van der Waal’s parameters of two gases are given as
a/dm6 bar mol–2 b/dm3 mol–1
Gas A 6.5 0.055
Gas B 2 0.01
then:
1. Critical volume of A < Critical volume of B.
2. Critical pressure A > Critical pressure of B.
3. Critical temperature of A > Critical temperature of B.
Which of the above statements is incorrect?
(a) 1 alone (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

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40. The van der Waals' equation for one mole may be expressed as

 RT  2 aVm ab
Vm3.   b  Vm   0
 p  p p

where Vm is the molar volume of the gas. Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) For a temperature less than Tc, V has three real roots
(b) For a temperature less than Tc, V has three imaginary roots
(c) For a temperature equal to Tc, all three roots of V are real and identical
(d) On increasing the temperature (T < Tc), the three roots become closer to one another
41. For a gas obeying the van der Waals’ equation, at the critical temperature

P    2P 
(a) Both   and  2  are zero
 V T  V T

  2P 
(b) Only  2  is not zero
 V T

 P    2P 
(c)   is zero but  2  is non-zero
 V T  V T

 P    2P 
(d)   is non-zero but  2  is zero
 V T  V  T

42. 11 moles N2 and 12 moles of H2 mixture reacted in 20 litre vessel at 800 K. After equilibrium was reached,
6 mole of H2 was present. 3.58 litre of liquid water is injected in equilibrium mixture and resultant gaseous
mixture suddenly cooled to 300 K. What is the final pressure of gaseous mixture? Neglect vapour pressure
of liquid solution. Assume (i) all NH3 dissolved in water (ii) no change in volume of liquid (iii) no reaction of
N2 and H2 at 300 K

N2 : 11 moles N2, H2 T = 300 K ; P = ?

T = 800 K
H2 : 12 moles V = 20 L

Initial condition

(a) 18.47 atm (b) 60 atm

(c) 22.5 atm (d) 45 atm
43. A mixture of NH3(g) and N2H4(g) is placed in a sealed container at 300 K. The total pressure is 0.5 atm. The
container is heated to 1200 K at which time both substances decompose completely according to the
equations
2NH3(g)  N2(g) + 3H2(g) and N2H4(g)  N2(g) + 2H2(g)
After decomposition is complete, the total pressure at 1200 K is found to be 4.5 atm. Find the mole% of N2H4
in the original mixture.
(a) 20% (b) 25%
(c) 50% (d) 75%

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44. Three closed rigid vessels, A, B and C without energy transfer with surroundings, which initially contain three
different gases at different temperatures are connected by tube of negligible volume. The vessel A contain
2 mole Ne gas, at 300 K, vessel ‘B’ contain 2 mole SO2 gas at 400 K and vessel ‘C’ contain 3 mole CO2
gas at temperature 500 K. What is the final pressure (in atm) attained by gases when all valves of connecting
three vessels are opened and additional 15.6 kcal heat supplied to vessel through valve. The volume of A, B
and C vessel is 2, 2 and 3 litre respectively

Ne SO 2 CO2

Given: R = 2 calorie/mol-K; Cv (Ne) = 3/2R, Cv (CO) = 5/2 R and Cv (SO2) = 3R

(a) 73.89 atm (b) 67.31 atm
(c) 80 atm (d) None of these
45. A bulb of constant volume is attached to a manometer tube open at other end as shown in figure. The
manometer is filled with a liquid of density (1/3)rd that of mercury. Initially h was 228 cm.

gas h

dp
Through a small hole in the bulb gas leaked assuming pressure decreases as  kP .
dt
If value of h is 114 cm after 14 minutes. What is the value of k ( in hour–1)?
[Use : In (4/3) = 0.28 and density of Hg = 13.6 g/mL]
(a) 0.6 (b) 1.2
(c) 2.4 (d) None of these
46. At room temperature following reaction goes to completion
2AB(g) + B2(g)  2AB2(s)
AB2 is solid with negligible vapour pressure below 0°C. At 300 K, the AB in the smaller flask exerts a pressure
of 3 atm and the larger flask exerts a pressure of 1 atm at 400 K when they are separated out by a close
valve. The gases are mixed by opening the stop cock and after the end of the reaction the flask are cooled
to 250 K.

AB (g) B2 (g)

8.21 L
8.21 L
The final pressure is
(a) 0.156 atm (b) 0.3125 atm
(c) 0.625 atm (d) 3.2 atm

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B C
47. van der Waal’s gas equation can be reduced to virial equation (in terms of volume) as Z  A   2  ......
Vm Vm
where A = first virial coefficient, B = second virial coefficient, C = third virial coefficient. The third virial coefficient
of Hg(g) is 625 (cm 3/mol)2. What volume is available for movement of 10 moles He(g) atoms present in 50 L
vessel?
(a) 49.75 L (b) 49.25 L
(c) 25 L (d) 50 L
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 48 to 51
van der Waals’ equation for calculating the pressure of a non ideal gas is

 an2 
 P  2  (V  nb)  nRT
 V 
van der Waals’ suggested that the pressure exerted by an ideal gas, Pideal, is related to the experimentally measured
pressure, Preal by the equation

an 2
Pideal = Preal + 2
V

Constant a is measure of intermolecular interaction between gaseous molecules that gives rise to non ideal behavior
and depends on how frequently any two molecules approach each other closely. Another correction concerns the
volume occupied by the gas molecules. In the ideal gas equation, V represents the volume of the container. However,
each molecule does occupy a finite, although small, intrinsic volume, so the effective volume of the gas becomes
(V –nb), where n is the number of moles of the gas and b is a constant. The term nb represents the volume occupied
by n moles of the gas.
Having taken into account the corrections for pressure and volume, we can rewrite the ideal gas equation as follows:

 an2 
 P  2  (v – nb) = nRT
 V 
corrected corrected
pressure volume
48. At relatively high pressures, the van der Waals' equation of state reduces to
(a) PV = RT – a/V (b) PV = aRT/V2
(c) P = RT – a/V2 (d) PV = RT + Pb
49. For non-zero value of force of attraction between gas molecules for large volume, gas equation will be

n2a
(a) PV  nRT  (b) PV = nRT + nbP
V
nRT
(c) P  (d) PV = nRT
V b
50. The van der Waals’ constant ‘a’ for CO2 gas is greater than that of H2 gas. Its mean that the
(a) Strength of van der Waals’ force of CO2 gas is less than that of H2 gas
(b) Strength of van der Waals’ force of CO2 gas is equal to that of H2 gas
(c) CO2 gas can be more easily liquified
(d) H2 gas can be more easily liquified

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51. Using van der Waals’ equation, find the constant ‘a’ (in atm L2 mol–2) when two moles of a gas confined in
4 L flask exerts a pressure of 11.0 atmospheres at a temperature of 300 K. The value of b is 0.05 L mol–1.
(R = 0.082 atm. L/K mol)
(a) 2.62 (b) 2.64
(c) 6.24 (d) 6.46
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 52 to 54
Collision cross-section is an area of an imaginary sphere of radius  around the molecule within which the centre
of another molecule cannot penetrate.
The volume swept by a single molecule in unit time is

 u


V  ( 2 )u where u is the average speed

If N* is the number of molecules per unit volume, then the number of molecules within the volume V is

N  VN*  (  2u)N *
Hence, the number of collision made by a single molecule in unit time will be

Z  N  (  2 u)N *
In order to account for the movements of all molecules, we must consider the average velocity along the line of
centres of two colliding molecules instead of the average velocity of a single molecule. If it is assumed that, on
an average, molecules collide while approaching each other perpendicularly, then the average velocity along their
centres is 2 u as shown below. Number of collision made by a single molecule with other molecules per unit time
is given by

u
2u

Z1  2 (u rel )N*  2 2 uN *

The total number of bimolecular collisions Z 11 per unit volume per unit time is given by
1 1 1
Z11  (Z1N*)or Z11  ( 2 2uN*)N*  2uN * 2
2 2 2
If the collision involve two unlike molecules then the number of collisions Z12 per unit volume per unit time is given
as

2  8kT 
Z12  12   N1N2
  

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where N1 and N2 are the number of molecules per unit volume of the two types of molecules, 12 is the average
diameter of the two molecules and  is the reduced mass.
The mean free path is the average distance travelled by a molecule between two successive collisions. We can
express it as follows :

Average distance travelled per unit time u

= =
No. of collisions made by a single molecule per unit time Z1

u 1
or  2

2  uN * 2 2N *

52. For a given gas the mean free path at a particular pressure is
(a) Independent of temperature (b) Decreases with rise in temperature
(c) Increases with rise in temperature (d) Directly proportional to T2
53-54 Three ideal gas samples in separate equal volume containers are taken and following data is given :
Pressure Temperature Mean free paths Mol. wt.
Gas A 1 atm 1600 K 0.16 nm 20
Gas B 2 atm 200 K 0.16 nm 40
Gas C 4 atm 400 K 0.04 nm 80
53. Calculate ratio of collision frequencies (Z11) (A : B : C) of following for the three gases.
(a) 1 : 2 : 4 (b) 4 : 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 4 : 16 (d) 16 : 4 : 1
54. Calculate number of collision by one molecule per sec (Z1).
(a) 4 : 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 4 : 4
(c) 4 : 3 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 4
55. Two container each containing liquid water are connected as shown in diagram.

X Y

300 K 350 K

Given that vapour pressure of H2O(l) at 300 K and 350 K are 22 torr and 40 torr. Select write statement(s).
(a) The final pressure in each container if valve is opened while keeping the containers at the given temperature
is 22 torr
(b) The final pressure in each container if valve is opened while keeping the containers at the given temperature
is 40 torr
(c) Mass of H2O(l) is decreased in vessel X
(d) Mass of H2O(l) is decreased in vessel Y

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56. An open ended mercury manometer is used to measure the pressure exerted by a trapped gas as shown in
the figure. Initially manometer shows no difference in mercury level in both columns as shown in diagram.

P = 76 cm

gas A

Hg

After sparking ‘A’ dissociates according to following reaction

A(g)  B(g) + 3C(g)

If pressure of Gas “A” decreases to 0.9 atrn. Then (Assume temperature to be constant and is 300 K)

(a) Total pressure increased to 1.3 atm (b) Total pressure increased by 0.3 atm

(c) Total pressure increased by 22.3 cm of Hg (d) Difference in mercury level is 228 mm

57. Match the correct column from Column-I to Column-II on the basis of following Andrews isotherm of real gas.

G
E F
T3
C
T2
P
D B
T1
A
V

Column-I Column-II

(A) Substance exist in both liquid and gas state (P) At AB part

(B) Only liquid state exist (Q) At BD part

(C) Substance exist in gas state only (R) At DE part

(D) Real gas is called super critical fluid (S) At point C

(T) At GF curve

58. Determine which of the following reactions taking place at constant pressure represent surrounding that do work
on the system

I. 4NH3(g) + 7O2(g)  4NO2(g) + 6H2O(g)

II. CO(g) + 2H2(g)  CH3OH(l)

III. C(s, graphite) + H2O(g)  CO(g) + H2(g)

IV. H2O(s)  H2O(l)

(a) III, IV (b) II and III

(c) II, IV (d) I, II and IV

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59. For a closed container containing 100 mole of an ideal gas fitted with movable, frictionless, weightless piston
operating such that pressure of gas remains constant at 8.21 atm, which graph represents correct variation
of log V versus log T where V is in litre and T in kelvin.
log V

log V
(a) (b)
45° 30°
log T log T
log V

log T
45°
(c) (d)
1
log T log V
60. A cyclic process ABCD is shown in P–V diagram for an ideal gas. Which of the following diagram represents
the same process?
A B

P C
D
V

A B C D
C A
(a) V (b) V
D B
T T
D C A B
B
(c) V (d) V
D
A C
T T
61. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state from (1.0 atm, 3.0 L, 200 K) to (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, 250 K)
with a change in internal energy (U) = 40 L atm. The change in enthalpy of the process in ‘L atm’ is
(a) 43 (b) 57
(c) 42 (d) None of these
62. At 5 × 105
bar pressure density of diamond and graphite are 3 g/cc and 2 g/cc respectively, at certain
temperature ‘T’. Find the value of U – H for the conversion of 1 mole of graphite to 1 mole of diamond at
temperature ‘T’.
(a) 100 kJ/mol (b) 50 kJ/mol
(c) –100 kJ/mol (d) None of these
63. Stearic acid [CH3(CH2)16CO2H] is a fatty acid, the part of fat that stores most of the energy. 1.0 g of stearic
acid was burned in a bomb calorimeter. The bomb had a heat capacity of 652 J/°C. If the temperature of
500 g water (c = 4.18J/g°C) rose from 25.0 to 39.3°C, how much heat was released when the stearic acid
was burned? [Given CP (H2O) = 4.18 J/g°C]
(a) 39.21 kJ (b) 29.91 kJ
(c) 108 kJ (d) 9.32 kJ

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64. The enthalpies of neutralization of a weak base AOH and a strong base BOH by HCI are –12250 cal/mol and
–13000cal/mol respectively. When one mole of HCI is added to a solution containing 1 mole of AOH and
1 mole of BOH, the enthalpy change was –12500 cal/mol. In what ratio is the acid distribution between AOH
and BOH?
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 2 (d) None of these
65. Boron can undergo the following reactions with the given enthalpy changes :

3
2B(s)  O2 (g)  B2O3 (s); H  1260 kJ
2

2B(s)  3H2 (g)  B2H6 (g); H  30 kJ

Assume no other reactions are occurring.

If in a container (operating at constant pressure) which is isolated from the surrounding, mixture of H 2 (gas)
and O2 (gas) are passed over excess of B(s), then calculate the molar ratio (O2 : H2) so that temperature of
the container do not change.
(a) 15 : 3 (b) 42 : 1
(c) 1 : 42 (d) 1 : 84
66. A rigid and insulated tank of 3 m 3 volume is divided into two compartments. One compartment of volume of
2 m3 contains an ideal gas at 0.8314 MPa and 400 K and while the second compartment of volume 1 m 3
contains the same gas at 8.314 MPa and 500 K. If the partition between the two compartments is ruptured,
the final temperature of the gas is
(a) 420 K
(b) 450 K
(c) 480 K
(d) None of these
67. One mole of an ideal gas is carried through the reversible cyclic process as shown in figure. The max.
temperature attained by the gas during the cycle

B
4 bar

1 bar C
A

1 litre 2 litre
V

7 12
(a) (b)
6R 49R

49
(c) (d) None of these
12R

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68. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

Statement (i) : The entropy in isolated system with P-V work only, is always maximized at equilibrium.
Statement (ii) : It is possible for the entropy of a close system to decrease substantially in an irreversible
process.
Statement (iii) : Entropy can be created but not destroyed.
Statement (iv) : Ssystem is zero for reversible process in an isolated system.
(a) Statement i, ii, iii (b) Statement ii, iv
(c) Statement i, ii, iv (d) All
69. For the hypothetical reaction
A 2 (g)  B2 (g)  2AB(g)
rG° and rS° are 20 kJ/mol and –20 JK–1 mol–1 respectively at 200 K
If rCp is 20 JK–1 mol–1 then rH° at 400 K is
(a) 20 kJ/mol (b) 7.98 kJ/mol
(c) 28 kJ/mol (d) None of these
70. The efficiency of an ideal gas with adiabatic exponent ‘’ for the shown cyclic process would be

V B
2V0

V0 C
A

T0 2T0 T

(   1)(2ln 2  1) (   1)(1  2ln2)

(a) (b)
1  (   1)2ln2 (   1)2ln2  1
(2ln2  1)(   1) (2ln2  1)
(c) (d)
(   1)2ln2  1  / (   1)
71. One mole of an ideal gas is subjected to a two step reversible process (A–B and B–C). The pressure at A
and C is same. Mark the correct statement(s).

(1, 100) B (3, 600)

A
P (atm)

C (1, 300)

T (K)
(a) Work involved in the path AB is zero
(b) In the path AB work will be done on the gas by the surrounding
(c) Volume of gas at C = 3 × volume of gas at A
(d) Volume of gas at B is 16.42 litres

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72. Assume ideal gas behaviour for all the gases considered and neglect vibrational degrees of freedom. Separate
equimolar samples of Ne, O2, CO2 and SO2 were subjected to a two process as mentioned. Initially all are at
same state of temperature and pressure.
Step I  All undergo reversible adiabatic expansion to attain same final volume, which is double the original
volume thereby causing the decrease in their temperature.
Step II  After step I, all are given appropriate amount of heat isochorically to restore the original temperature.
Mark the correct option(s).
(a) Due to step I only, the decrease in temperature will be maximum for Ne
(b) During step II, heat given will be minimum for SO2
(c) There will be no change in internal energy for any of the gas after both the steps of process are competed
(d) The P–V graph of O2 and CO2 will be same
73. Match Column-I with Column-II
Column-I Column-II
(Partial derivative) (Thermodynamic variable)
 U 
(a)   (p) CP
 T  V
 H 
(b)   (q) CV
 T P
 G 
(c)   (r) –S
 T P
 G 
(d)   (s) V
 P T
74. A diatomic ideal gas is expanded according to PV3 = constant, under very high temperature (Assume vibration
mode active). Calculate the molar heat capacity of gas (in cal/mol K) in this process.

75. For a reversible gaseous reaction N2  3H2  2NH3 at equilibrium, if some moles of H2 are replaced by same
number of moles of T2 (T is tritium, isotope of H and assume isotopes do not have different chemical properties)
without affecting other parameters, then
(a) The sample of ammonia obtained after sometime will be radioactive.
(b) Moles of N2 after the change will be different as compared to moles of N2 present before the change
(c) The value of Kp or Kc will change
(d) The average molecular mass of new equilibrium will be same as that of old equilibrium

76. Attainment of the equilibrium A(g)  2C(g)  B(g) gave the following graph. Find the correct option.
(% dissociation = fraction dissociated × 100)

10
A
8

C
4
2
B

t=5 s time

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(a) At t = 5 s equilibrium has been reached and Kc = 40 (mol/litre)2

(b) At t = 5 s equilibrium has been reached and % dissociation of A is 20%
(c) At t = 5 s equilibrium has been reached and % dissociation of A is 30%
(d) None of these

77. CuSO 4  5H2O(s)  CuSO 4  3H2O(s)  2H2O(g); K p  4  10 4 atm2 . If the vapour pressure of water is 38 torr
then the percentage relative humidity is (Assume all data at constant temperature)
(a) 4 (b) 10
(c) 40 (d) None of these
78. Ammonia under a pressure of 15 atm at 27°C is heated to 347°C in a closed vessel in the presence of a
catalyst. Under the conditions, NH3 is partially decomposed according to the equation,
2NH3  N2  3H2 the vessel is such that the volume remains effectively constant whereas pressure increases
to 50 atm. Calculate the percentage of NH3 actually decomposed.
(a) 65% (b) 61.3%
(c) 62.5% (d) 64%
79. The graph which represents all the equilibrium concentrations for the reaction
N2O 4 (g)  2NO2 (g)
Then select the correct graph for concentrations of NO2 against concentrations of NO4.

(a)
[NO2]

[N 2O4]

(b)
[N O2]

[N2O 4]

(c)
[N O2]

[N2O4]

(d)
[N O2]

[N2O4]

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80. An equilibrium mixture at 700 K of 0.05 M N2(g), 0.3 M H2(g) and 0.2 M NH3(g) is present in a container. Now
if this equilibrium is disturbed by adding N2(g) so that its concentration becomes 0.15 M just after addition
then which of the following graphs represents the above situation more appropriately?

Initial eq. New eq. New eq.

Initial eq.
0.3 0.3 NH 3(g)
H 2(g)
Conc. (M)

Conc. (M)
0.2 NH3(g) 0.2
H2(g)
(a) (b)
N 2(g)
0.1 0.1
N2(g)

Time Time

Initial eq. New eq. New eq.

Initial eq.
0.3 H 2(g) 0.3 NH3(g)
Conc. (M)

Conc. (M)
0.2 NH3(g) 0.2
H2(g)
(c)
N2(g) (d)
0.1 0.1
N2(g)

Time Time
81. Solid Ca(HCO3)2 decomposes as

Ca(HCO3 )2 (s)  CaCO3 (s)  CO2 (g)  H2O(g)

If the total pressure is 0.2 bar at 420 K, what is the standard free energy change for the given reaction (rG°)?
(a) 840 kJ/mol (b) 3.86 kJ/mol
(c) 6.98 kJ/mol (d) 16.083 kJ/mol
82. The gas A2 in the left flask allowed to react with gas B2 present in right flask as A2(g) + B2(g)  2AB(g);
Kc = 4 at 27°C. What is the concentration of AB when equilibrium is established?

2 mole 4 mole
A2 B2

1 litre
at 27°C 3 litre
at 27°C
(a) 1.33 M (b) 2.66 M
(c) 0.66 M (d) 0.33 M
83. A vessel of 250 litre was filled with 0.01 mole of Sb2S3 and 0.01 mole of H2 to attain the equilibrium at 440°C
as

Sb2S3 (s)  3H2 (g)  2Sb(s)  3H2S(g)

After equilibrium, the H2S formed was analysed by dissolving it in water and treating with excess of Pb 2+ to
give 1.19 g of PbS as precipitate. What is the value of K, at 440°C?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 4 (d) 8

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84. N2(g) and H2(g) are allowed to react in a closed vessel at given temperature and pressure for the formation of
NH3 (g) [N2 (g)  3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g)  22.4 kcal] if He(g) is added at equilibrium at constant pressure then which
is/are correct?
(a) Concentration of N2(g), H2(g) and NH3(g) decrease
(b) Moles of NH3(g) decreases
(c) The extent of cooling depends on amount of He(g) added
(d) Concentration of N2 and H2 increases and concentration of NH3 decreases
85. Given : Enthalpy of ionization of two acids :
H°(HCN) = 45.2 kJ mol–1
H°(CH3COOH) = 2.1 kJ mol–1
which relationship for the two acids is true?
(a) pKa(HCN) = pKa(CH3COOH) (b) pKa(HCN) > pKa(CH3COOH)

45.2
(c) pKa(HCN) < pKa(CH3COOH) (d) pK a (HCN)  pK a (CH3COOH)
2.1

86. At 25°C dissociation constants of acid HA and base BOH in aqueous solution are same. The pH of 0.01 M
solution of HA is 5. The pOH of 10–4 M solution of BOH at the same temperature is
(a) 3.5 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) None of these
87. The enthalpy of neutralisation of four acids HA, HB, HC and HD with NaOH are –13, –12, –11, –10 kcal/mol.
Which salt has maximum degree of hydrolysis?
(a) 1 M NaA (b) 1 M NaB
(c) 1 M NaC (d) 1 M NaD
88. 1.0 L solution is prepared by mixing 61 gm benzoic acid (pKa = 4.2) with 72 gm of sodium benzoate and then
300 mL 1.0 M HBr solution was added. The pH of final solution is
(a) 3.6 (b) 3.8
(c) 4.2 (d) 4.8
89. An acid-base indicator which is a weak acid has a pKa value = 5.45. At what concentration ratio of sodium
acetate to acetic acid would the indicator show a colour half-way between those of its acid and conjugate base
forms ? [pKa of acetic acid = 4.75]
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 6 : 1
(c) 5 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
90. A 1 litre solution containing NH4Cl and NH4OH has hydroxide ion concentration of 10–6 mol/litre. Which of the
following hydroxides could be precipitated when the solution is added to 1 litre solution of 0.1 M metal ions?
(I) Ba(OH)2 (Ksp = 5 × 10–3)
(II) Ni(OH)2 (Ksp = 1.6 × 10–16)
(III) Mn(OH)2 (Ksp = 2 × 10–13)
(IV) Fe(OH)2 (Ksp = 8 × 10–16)
(a) I, II, IV (b) IV
(c) II and IV (d) II, III, IV

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91. A 1.025 g sample containing a weak acid HX (mol. wt. = 82) is dissolved in 60 mL water and titrated with
0.25 M NaOH. When half of the acid was neutralised the pH was found to be 5.0 and at the equivalence point
the pH is 9.0. Calculate weight percentage of HX in sample.
(a) 50% (b) 75%
(c) 80% (d) None of these
92. A solution of weak acid HA was titrated with base NaOH. The equivalent point was reached when 40 mL of
0.1 M NaOH has been added. Now 20 mL of 0.1 M HCl were added to titrated solution, the pH was found to
be 5.0. What will be the pH of the solution obtained by mixing 20 mL of 0.2 M NaOH and 20 mL of 0.2 M
HA?
(a) 7 (b) 9
(c) 11 (d) None of these
93. A buffer solution having 0.04 M in Na2HPO4 and 0.02 M in Na3PO4 is prepared. The electrolytic oxidation of
1.0 milli-mole of the organic compound RNHOH is carried out in 100 mL of the buffer. The reaction is
RNHOH + H2O  RNO2 + 4H+ + 4e–
The approximate pH of solution after the complete oxidation is
[Given : for H3PO4 , pK a1  2.2; pK a2  7.20; pK a3  12]
(a) 6.90 (b) 7.20
(c) 7.5 (d) None of these
94. A solution is 0.1 M in Cl and 104 M in CrO42 . If solid AgNO3 is gradually added to this solution, what will be
the concentration of Cl– when Ag2CrO4 begins to precipitate?
[Ksp (AgCI) = 10–10 M2; Ksp (Ag2CrO4) = 10–12 M3
(a) 10–6 M (b) 10–4 M
(c) 10–5 M (d) 10–9 M
95. If 500 mL of 0.4 M AgNO3 is mixed with 500 mL of 2 M NH3 solution then what is the concentration of Ag(NH3)+
in solution?
Given : K f1 [Ag(NH3 ) ]  103 ; K f2 [Ag(NH3 )2 ]  104
(a) 3.33 × 10–7 M (b) 3.33 × 10–5 M
(c) 3 × 10–4 M (d) 10–7 M
96. The simultaneous solubility of AgCN (Ksp = 2.5 × 10–16) and AgCl (Ksp = 6 × 10–10) in 1.0 M NH3 (aq.) are
respectively : [Given : K f [Ag(NH3 )2 ]  107 ]
(a) 0.037, 5.78 × 10–8 (b) 5.78 × 10–8, 0.037
(c) 0.04, 6.25 × 10–8 (d) 1.58 × 10–3, 1.26 × 10–5

97. There exist an equilibrium between solid SrSO4 and Sr2+ and SO24 ion in aqueous medium. The possible
equilibrium states are shown in figure as thick line. Now, if equilibrium is disturbed by addition of (I) Sr(NO 3)2
and (II) K2SO4 and dotted line represent approach of system towards equilibrium. Match the columns given
below :

2+ 2+ 2+ 2+
Sr Sr Sr Sr
(iii) (iv) (v) (vi)

2 2 2
SO 4 SO4 SO 4 SO24
(I) Addition of Sr(NO3)2 (II) Addition of K2SO4
(a) (I) – (iii), (II) – (iv) (b) (I) – (iv), (II) – (v)
(c) (I) – (vi), (II) – (v) (d) (I) – (iv), (II) – (vi)

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98. The salt Al(OH)3 is involved in the following two equilibria,

Al(OH)3 (s)  Al3  (aq.)  3OH (aq.); K sp

Al(OH)3 (s)  OH (aq.)  Al(OH)4 (aq.); K c

Which of the following relationship is correct at which solubility is minimum?

1 1
 K sp  3   Kc  4
(a) [OH ]    (b) [OH ]   
 Kc   K sp 

1 1
 K sp  4  3K sp  4
(d) OH   
 –
(c) [OH ]    
 Kc   Kc 

99. If K a1 , K a2 and K a3 be the first, second and third ionization constant of H 3PO4 and K a1  K a2  K a3 which
is/are correct?

(a) [H ]  K a1 [H3PO4 ]

(b) [H ]  [HPO24 ]

(c) K a2  [HPO 4 ]
2
(d) [HPO24 ]  [PO34 ]

100. 10 mL of H2A (weak diprotic acid) solution is titrated against 0.1 M NaOH. pH of the solution is plotted against
volume of strong base added and following observation is made.
pH of solution

20 40

If pH of the solution at first equivalence point is pH1 and at second equivalence point is pH2. Calculate the
value of (pH2 – pH1) at 25°C.

Given : For H2 A, pK a1  4.6 and pK a2  8, log 25  1.4

101. The rate of reaction is expressed in different ways as follows:

1 d[C] 1 d[D] 1 d[A] d[B]

   
2 dt 3 dt 4 dt dt

The reaction is
(a) 4A + B  2C + 3D
(b) B + 3D  4A + 2C
(c) A + B  C + D
(d) B + D  A + C

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102. The decomposition of azo methane, at certain temperature according to the equation
(CH3)2N2  C2H6 + N2 is a first order reaction.
After 40 minutes from the start, the total pressure developed is found to be 350 mm Hg in place of initial
pressure 200 mm Hg of azo methane. The value of rate constant k is :
(a) 2.88 × 10–4 s–1 (b) 1.25 × 10–4 s–1
(c) 5.77 × 10–4 s–1 (d) None of these
103. A  B first order reaction, A is optically active and B is optically inactive. A series of experiment were
conducted on a solution of A
Time 0 60 min 
Optical rotation 82° 77° 2°
Assume some impurity is present, calculate the optical rotation after 5 hours.
(Given, In 1.066 = 0.064 e0.16 = 1.17)
(a) 60 (b) 30
(c) 20 (d) 120

–3 –1
k1 = 2 × 10 s
2B(g)
104. A decomposes as A(g) , the rate of appearance of B, taking 2 M concentration of
–3 –1 C(g)
k2 = 1 × 10 s
A, is equal to
(a) 2 × 10–3 M s–1 (b) 4 × 10–3 M s–1
(c) 8 × 10–3 M s–1 (d) None of these

k
105. For a complex reaction A   products

Ea1  180 kJ / mol; Ea2  80 kJ / mol; Ea3  50 kJ / mol

2
 k  k 3
Overall rate constant k is related to individual rate constant by the equation k   1 2  (Activation energy
 k3 
(kJ/mol) for the overall reaction is
(a) 100 (b) 43.44
(c) 150 (d) 140
106. A radioactive sample had an initial activity of 56 dpm. After 69.3 minutes, it was found to have an activity of
28 dpm. Find the number of atoms in a sample having an activity of 100 dpm.
(a) 693 (b) 100
(c) 1000 (d) 10,000
107. In a sample of wood, the reading of a counter is 32 dpm and in a fresh sample of tree it is 122 dpm. Due to
error counter gives the reading 2 dpm in absence of 14C. Half life of 14C is 5770 years. The approximate age
(in years) of wood sample is
(a) 7997.2 (b) 57570
(c) 11,540 (d) 15140

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108. 84Po (t1/2 = 183 s) decay to 82Pb (t1/2 = 161 s) by -emission, while Pb214 is a -emitter. In an experiment
218

starting with 1 mole of pure Po218, how much time would be required for the number of nuclei of 82Pb214 to
reach maximum?
(a) 147.5 (b) 247.5
(c) 182 (d) 304
109. The reaction A(g)  B(g) + 2C(g) is a first order reaction with rate constant 2.772 × 10–3 s–1. Starting with
0.1 mole of A in 2 litre vessel, find the concentration of A after 250 s when the reaction is allowed to take
place at constant pressure at 300 K.
(a) 0.0125 M (b) 0.025 M
(c) 0.05 M (d) None of these
110. A(aq)  B(aq) + C(aq) is a first order reaction.
Time t 
moles of reagent n1 n2
Reaction progress is measured with the help of titration of reagent ‘R’. If all A, B and C react with reagent
mol. wt.
and have ‘n’ factors [n factor; eq. wt.  ] in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3 with the reagent. The k in terms of
n
t, n1 and n2 is

1  n2  1  2n2 
(a) k  ln  (b) k  ln 
t  n2  n1  t  n2  n1 

1  4n2  1  4n2 
(c) k  ln  (d) k  ln 
t  n2  n1  t  5(n2  n1 ) 

111. A gaseous compound A reacts by three independent first order processes (as shown in figure) with rate constant
2 × 10–3, 3 × 10–3 and 1.93 × 10–3 s–1 for products B, C and D respectively. If initially pure A was taken in a
closed container with P = 8 atm, then the partial pressure of B (in atm) after 100 s from starting of experiment
is

B(g)
k1
k2
A(g) C(g)
k3
D(g)
(a) 0.288 (b) 0.577
(c) 1.154 (d) None of these
112. For given hypothetical elementary parallel reaction,

2B
k1
k1 1
A where 
k2 2
k2
2C
Initially only 2 moles of A are present. The total no. of moles of A, B and C at the end of 75% reaction are
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 3.5

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
kf
113. The reaction cis-X  
 trans-X is first order in both directions. At 25°C, the equilibrium constant is 0.10
k b

and the rate constant k f = 3 × 10–4 s–1. In an experiment starting with the pure cis-form, how long would it
take for half of the equilibrium amount of the trans-isomer to be formed?
(a) 150 s
(b) 200 s
(c) 240 s
(d) 210 s
114. The following mechanism has been proposed for the exothermic catalyzed complex reaction

 IAB 

A  B 
slow
k1 k2
AB  I  PA
fast

If k1 is much smaller than k2, the most suitable qualitative plot of potential energy (P. E.) versus reaction
co-ordinate (R.C.) for the above reaction is

P.E.
P.E.

AB+l A+P
(a) (b) AB+l
A+B lAB
A+B
lAB A+P
R.C. R.C.
P.E.
P.E.

(c) (d)
A+B A+B
lAB
AB+l A+P IAB
AB+l A+P
R.C. R.C.

115. The mechanism of esterification in presence of acid catalyst (H2SO4) is proposed as follows :

O k1 O—H +C2H5OH O—H

+
+H (fast) [slow] k2
CH3COH CH 3CO—H CH 3—C—O—H
(I) +
–H (fast) –C2H5OH
(II) H—O—C2H5
(fast)

(III)

fast fast

H—O—H
O +
+H ; fast +H2O; slow
CH3—C CH3—C—OH CH 3—C—OH
OC2H5 k5 k4
( VI) + O—C2H5 O—C2H5
–H ; fast –H2O; fast
(V) ( IV)

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Which of the following potential energy versus reaction co-ordinate diagram is consistent with given mechanism?

P.E.
(a) III IV

I II V VI
R.C.

(b) P.E.
III
IV V VI
I II
R.C.

IV
(c) P.E. III

I II V VI
R.C.

P.E.
(d)
III IV
I II
V VI
R.C.

116. A fresh radioactive mixture containing short lived species A and B. Both emitting -particles initially of 8000
-particles per minute. 20 minutes later, they emit at the rate of 3500 -particles per minute. If the half-lives
of the species A and B are 10 minutes and 500 hours respectively, then the ratio of activities of A : B in the
initial mixture was
(a) 4 : 6
(b) 6 : 4
(c) 3 : 4
(d) 3 :1
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 117 to 119
Two consecutive irreversible first order reactions can be represented by
k1 k2
A  B  C
The rate equation for A is readily integrated to obtain

k1[A]0 k1t
[A]t  [A]0  e k1t ; and [B]t  [e  e k 2 t ]
k 2  k1

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117. At what time will B be present in greatest concentration?

k1 1 k1
(a) k  k (b) k  k ln k
2 1 1 2 2

1 k1
(c) k  k ln k (d) None of these
2 1 2

118. When k1 = 1 s–1 and k2 = 50 s–1; select most appropriate graph.

[C] t [C] t
Conc.

Conc.
(a) [B]t (b)

[A]t [B] t [A] t

t (sec) t (sec)

[B]t
[C] t
Conc.
Conc.

[B]t [C] t
(c) (d)

[A]t
[A]t
t (sec) t (sec)

119. If k1 and k2 both are almost same then which graph is most suitable?
(a) Graph A (b) Graph B
(c) Graph C (d) Graph D
120. Select the correct statement(s).
(a) The rate law of the elementary reaction; 2A  B + C, must be r = k (A]2
(b) The rate law for the complex reaction
A + B  C, might not be r = k[A][B]
(c) If the partial orders differ from the coefficients in the balanced reaction, the reaction must be complex

(d) If the partial orders are equal to corresponding coefficients in the balanced reaction, the reaction must be
elementary

k1 B
k2
121. A C ; at time t = 0 (initial mole) of A is 1.
k3
D

Overall half life of the reaction is 15 days. The number of moles of C after 45 days is n, the value of 100n is
if the ratio of k1 : k2 : k3 is 4 : 2 : 1

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122. In the given radioactive disintegration series

232
90 Th 208
82 Pb

Calculate value of (n + 2).

Where value of n is number of isobars formed in this series, suppose there is successive emission of
-particles.
123. An aqueous solution containing 1 M each of Au3+, Cu2+, Ag+, Li+ is being electrolysed by using inert electrodes.
The value of standard reduction potentials are

EoAg /Ag  0.80 V, EoCu /Cu  0.34 V, and EoAu3 / Au  1.50 V, ELi
o

/Li
 3.03 V,

With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be
(a) Li, Cu, Ag, Au
(b) Cu, Ag, Au
(c) Au, Ag, Cu
(d) Au, Ag, Cu, Li
124. Ammonium perchlorate, NH4CIO4, used in the solid fuel in the booster rockets on the space shuttle, is prepared
from sodium perchlorate, NaCIO4, which is produced commercially by the electrolysis of a hot, stirred solution
of sodium chloride. How many faradays are required to produce 1.0 kg of sodium perchlorate?
NaCl + 4H2O  NaCIO4 + 4H2
(a) 40.3 (b) 18.3
(c) 31.6 (d) 65.3
125. Consider the following half-cell reactions and associated standard half-cell potentials and determine the
maximum voltage that can be obtained by combination resulting in spontaneous processes :

AuBr4 (aq)  3e  Au(s)  4Br  (aq); E  0.86 V

Eu3 (aq)  e  Eu2 (aq); E  0.43 V

Sn2 (aq)  2e  Sn(s); E  0.14 V

IO (aq)  H2O(l)  2e  I (aq)  2OH (aq); E  0.49 V

(a) +0.72 (b) +1.54

(c) +1.00 (d) +1.35
126. Consider the following equation for an electrochemical cell reaction. Which of the following changes in condition
will increase the cell voltage?
H2(g) + PbCl2(s)  Pb(s) + 2HCl(aq)
(I) Dissolve concentrated HCIO4 in the cell solution
(II) Increase the pressure of H2(g)
(III) Increase the amount of Pb(s)
(a) III (b) I and II
(c) II and III (d) II

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127. The temperature coefficient of a cell whose operation is based on the reaction

Pb(s)  HgCl2 (aq)  PbCl2 (aq)  Hg(l) is :

 dE  4 1
   1.5  10 VK at 298 K
 dT p

The change in entropy (in J/K mol) during the operation is

(a) 8627 (b) 57.9
(c) 28.95 (d) 14.475
128. The specific conductance of a saturated solution of silver bromide is  S cm–1. The limiting ionic conductivity
of Ag+ and Br– ions are x and y, respectively. The solubility of silver bromide in gL–1 is (molar mass of
AgBr = 188)

  1000 
(a) (b)  188
xy xy

  1000  188 x  y 1000

(c) (d) 
xy  188

129. The conductance of a salt solution (AB) measured by two parallel electrodes of area 100 cm 2 separated by
10 cm was found to be 0.0001 –1. If volume enclosed between two electrode contain 0.1 mole of salt, what
is the molar conductivity (S cm 2 mol–1) of salt at same concentration?
(a) 10 (b) 0.1
(c) 1 (d) None of these
130. Conductometric titration curve of a equimolar mixture of a HCI and HCN with NaOH(aq) is
Conductance

Conductance

(a) (b)

Vol. of NaOH Vol. of NaOH

Conductance
Conductance

(c) (d)

Vol. of NaOH Vol. of NaOH

131. In the Hall’s process, aluminum is produced by the electrolysis of molten Al2O3. How many second would it
take to produce enough aluminum by the Hall’s process to make a case of 24 cans of aluminum soft-drink,
if each can uses 5.0 g of Al, a current of 9650 A is employed, and the current efficiency of the cell is 90.0%?
(a) 203.2 (b) 148.14
(c) 333 (d) 6.17

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132. 100 mL of 0.05 M CuSO4(aq) solution was electrolyzed by using inert electrodes by passing current till the
pH of the resulting solution was 2. The solution after electrolysis was neutralized and then treated with excess
KI and formed I2 titrated with 0.04 M Na2S2O3. Calculate the required volume (in mL) of Na2S2O3.
(a) 112.5 mL (b) 100 mL
(c) 125 mL (d) None of these

133. Copper reduces NO3 into NO and NO2 depending upon concentration of HNO3 in solution. Assuming
[Cu2  ]  0.1 M, and PNO  PNO2  10 3 bar. At which concentration of HNO 3, thermodynamic tendency for
reduction of NO3 into NO and NO2 by copper is same?

Given : Eo 2   0.34 volt, Eo  o

  0.96 volt, ENO    0.79 volt 
 Cu |Cu NO3 |NO 3 |NO2 

(a) 101.23 M (b) 100·56 M

(c) 100·66 M (d) 100.12 M
134. Given the following molar conductivities at 25°C; HCI, 426 –1 cm2mol–1; NaCl, 126 –1 cm2 mol–1; NaC
(sodium crotonate), 83 –1 cm2 mol–1. What is the ionization constant of crotonic acid, if the conductivity of
a 0.001 M crotonic acid solution is 3.83 × 10–5 –1 cm–1 ?
(a) 10–5 (b) 1.11 × 10–5
(c) 1.11 × 10–4 (d) 0.01
135. The conductivity of 0.001 M Na2SO4 solution is 2.6 × 10–4 S crn–1 and increase to 7.0 × 10–4 S cm–1, when
the solution is saturated with CaSO4. The molar conductivities of Na+ and Ca2+ are 50 and 120 S cm 2 mol–1,
respectively. Neglect conductivity of used water.
What is the solubility product of CaSO4?
(a) 4 × 10–6 (b) 1.57 × 10–3
(c) 4 × 10–4 (d) 2.46 × 10–6
136. Three electrolytic cells X, Y, Z containing solution of NaCl, AgNO3 and CuSO4 respectively are connected in
series combination. During electrolysis 21.6 gm of silver deposite at cathode in cell Y. Which is incorrect
statement?
(a) 6.35 gm copper deposite at cathode in cell Z
(b) 2.24 litre Cl2 liberated at 1 atm and 273 K at cathode in cell X
(c) 2.24 litre O2 liberated at 1 atm and 273 K at anode in cell Y
(d) 2.24 litre H2 liberated at 1 atm and 273 K at cathode in cell X
137. Standard electrode potential of two half-reactions are given below :

Fe2  Fe E  0.44 V

Fe3  Fe2 E  0.77 V

If Fe2+, Fe3+ and Fe are kept together

(a) The concentration of Fe3+ increases
(b) The concentration of Fe3+ decreases
(c) The mass of Fe increases
(d) The concentration of Fe2+ decreases

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138. A dilute solution of KCI was placed between two Pt electrode 10 cm apart across which a potential difference
of 10 volt was applied. Which is/are correct statement? (Given : molar conductivity of K+ at infinite dilution is
96.5 S cm2 mol–1).

(a) Ionic mobility of K+ is 10–3 cm2 s–1 volt–1

(b) The speed of K+ is 10–3 cm s–1

(c) Distance travelled by K+ is 5 × 103 s is 5 cm

(d) The potential gradient is 1.0 volt cm–1

139. Given : Pt(s) | H2 (g) | 0.1 M NH4OH (aq) || 0.1 M CH3COOH (aq) | H2 (g) | Pt(s)
1 bar 1 bar

2.303RT
pK b (NH4OH)  5; pK a (CH3COOH)  5;  0.06
F

Volume of 0.1 M NH4OH in anode half cell = 100 mL,

Volume of 0.1 M CH3COOH in cathode half cell = 100 mL

Which is/are correct statement?

(a) The emf of given cell is 0.48 V

(b) The emf of given cell is 0.36 V when 50 mL, 0.1 M NaOH added to cathode compartment

(c) The emf of given cell is 0.36 V when 50 mL 0.1 M HCI added to anode compartment

(d) The emf of given cell is 0.192 V when 100 mL 0.1 M NaOH added to anode compartment

140. What is the potential of an electrode which originally contained 0.1 M NO3 and 0.4 M H+ and which has been
treated by 80% of the cadmium necessary to reduce all the NO3 to NO(g) at 1 bar?

Given : NO3  4H  3e  NO  2H2O; E  0.96 V; log 2  0.3

(a) 0.84 V (b) 1.08 V

(c) 1.23 V (d) 1.36 V

141. Given : Pt(s) | Cl2 (g) | Cl (C1) || Cl (C2 ) | Cl2 (g) | Pt(s)
P1 atm P2 atm

Identify in which of following condition working of cell takes place.

(a) C1 > C2 and P1 = P2

(b) P2 > P1 and C1 = C2

(c) C1 < C2 and P1 = P2

(d) P2 < P1 and C1 = C2

142. A sample of liquid H2O of mass 18.0 g is injected into an evacuated 7.6 L flask maintained at 27.0°C. If vapour
pressure of H2O at 27°C is 24.63 mm Hg. What weight percentage of the water will be vapourised when the
system comes to equilibrium? Assume water vapours behaves as an ideal gas. The volume occupied by the
liquid water is negligible compared to the volume of the container.

(a) 1% (b) 10%

(c) 18% (d) 20%

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143. The solubility of a specific non-volatile salt is 4 g in 100 g of water at 25°C. If 2.0 g, 4.0 g and 6.0 g of the
salt added to 100 g of water at 25°C, in system X, Y and Z. The vapour pressure would be in the order:
(a) X < Y < Z (b) X > Y > Z
(c) Z > X = Y (d) X > Y = Z
144. Equal weight of a solute are dissolved in equal weight of two solvents A and B and formed very dilute solution.
The relative lowering of vapour pressure for the solution B has twice the relative lowering of vapour pressure
for the solution A. If MA and MB are the molecular weights of solvents A and B respectively, then
(a) MA = MB (b) MB = 2 × MA
(c) MA = 4MB (d) MA = 2MB
145. Two liquids A and B from ideal solutions. At 300 K, the vapour pressure of solution containing 1 mole of A and
3 mole of B is 550 mm Hg. At the same temperature, if one more mole of B is added to this solution, the
vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm Hg. Determine the vapour pressure of A and B in their
pure states (in mm Hg)
(a) 400, 600 (b) 500, 500
(c) 600, 400 (d) None of these
146. Based on the given diagram, which of the following statements regarding the homogeneous solutions of two
volatile liquids are correct?
D
H
C
G
V.Pr.
F
AE mole fraction B
XA = 1 XB = 1
(1) Plots AD and BC show that Raoult's law is obeyed for the solution in which B is a solvent and A is the
solute and as well as for that in which A is solvent and B is solute.
(2) Plot CD shows that Dalton's law of partial pressures is obeyed by the binary solution of components
A and B.
(3) EF + EG = EH; and AC and BD correspond to the vapour pressures of the pure solvents A and B
respectively.
Select the correct answer using the options given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All
147. Boiling point composition diagram of the liquid-vapour equilibrium for A and B is shown in the figure. If a binary
liquid mixture of A and B is distilled fractionally, which of the following would be correct observation?

Vapour
Temperature

Liquid

XB = 1 (% Composition) XA = 1
(a) Composition of the still (residue) will approach pure liquid B
(b) Composition of the distillate will approach pure A
(c) Composition of distillate and residue will approach pure B and A respectively
(d) Neither of the component can be obtained in pure state

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148. When a liquid that is immiscible with water was steam distilled at 95.2°C at a total pressure of 748 torr, the
distillate contained 1.25 g of the liquid per gram of water. The vapour pressure of water is 648 torr at 95.2°C,
what is the molar mass of liquid?
(a) 7.975 g/mol (b) 166 g/mol
(c) 145.8 g/mol (d) None of these
149. A very dilute saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt X 3Y4 has a vapour pressure of 20 mm Hg at
temperature T, while pure water exerts a pressure of 20.0126 mm Hg at the same temperature. Calculate
molality (m) at temperature T.
(a) 6.3 × 10–4 (b) 3.5 × 10–2
(c) 5 × 10–3 (d) None of these
150. A complex is represented as CoCl3xNH3. Its 0.1 molal solution in water shows Tf = 0.558 K. Kf for H2O is
1.86 K molality–1. Assuming 100% ionisation of complex and co-ordination number of Co is six, calculate
formula of complex.
(a) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 (b) [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2
(c) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (d) None of these
151. If 1 m solution of benzoic acid in benzene has a freezing point depression of 3.84°C. (Kf = 5.12°C mol–1 kg)
and boiling point elevation of 2.53°C (Kb, = 2.53°C mol–1 kg), then select the correct statement(s)
Statement I : There is dimer formation when undergoing freezing
Statement II : There is no change when undergoing boiling
Statement III : Reverse of I and II
Statement IV : Dimer formation in freezing and boiling state
(a) I, II (b) II, III
(c) III, I (d) Only I
152. Insulin is dissolved in a suitable solvent and the osmotic pressure () of solutions of various concentrations
C(g/cm3) is measured at 20°C. The slope of a plot of  against C is found to be 4.65 × 10–3. The molecular
weight of the insulin (g/mol) is
(a) 3 × 105 (b) 9 × 105
(c) 4.5 × 105 (d) 5.16 × 106
153. X3Y2 (i = 5) when reacted with A2B3 (i = 5) in aqueous solution gives brown colour. These are separated by a
semipermeable membrane AB as shown. Due to osmosis there is

0.5 M 0.01 M
X3Y2 A2B3

Side X Side Y

SPM
(a) Brown colour formation in side X
(b) Brown colour formation in side Y
(c) Formation in both of the sides X and Y
(d) No brown colour formation

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154. According to Henry's law, the partial pressure of gas (Pg) is directly proportional to mole fraction of gas in liquid
solution, Pgas = KH  Xgas where KH is Henry's constant. Which is incorrect?
(a) KH is characteristic constant for a given gas-solvent system
(b) Higher is the value of KH, lower is solubility of gas for a given partial pressure of gas
(c) KH has temperature dependence
(d) KH decreases with increase of temperature
155. The vapour pressure of two pure liquids A and B, that form an ideal solution are 100 and 900 torr respectively
at temperature T. This liquid solution of A and B is composed of 1 mole of A and 1 mole of B. What will be
the pressure, when 1 mole of mixture has been vaporized?
(a) 800 torr (b) 500 torr
(c) 300 torr (d) None of these
156. Which of the following represents correctly the changes in thermodynamics properties during the formation of
1 mole of an ideal binary solution?

+ G mix + Gmix

–1 T Smix –1 Hmix
(a) J mol 0 (b) J mol 0

– Hmix – TSmix

mole fraction mole fraction

+ TSmix + TSmix

–1 Hmix –1 Gmix
(c) J mol 0 (d) J mol 0

– Gmix – H mix

mole fraction mole fraction

Tb
157. Ratio of K of 10 g AB2 and 14 g A2B per 100 g of solvent in their respective, solution (AB2 and A2B both
b

are non-electrolytes) is 1 mol/kg in both cases. Hence, atomic wt. of A and B are respectively
(a) 100, 40
(b) 60, 20
(c) 20, 60
(d) None of these
158. Each edge of a cubic unit cell is 400 pm long. If atomic weight of the element is 120 and its density is
6.25 g/cm3. The crystal lattice is (use NA = 6 × 1023)
(a) Primitive (b) Body centered
(c) Face centered (d) End centered

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 CHEMISTRY Book Crunch

159. By X-ray diffraction it is found that nickel (atomic mass = 59 g mol–1), crystallizes with ccp. The edge length
of the unit cell is 3.5 Å. If density of Ni crystal is 9.0 g/cm 3. Then value of Avogadro's number from the data
is
(a) 6.05 × 1023 (b) 6.11 × 1023
(c) 6.02 × 1023 (d) 6.023 × 1023
160. Which one of the following schemes of ordering closed packed sheets of equal sized spheres do not generate
closest packed lattice?
(a) ABCABC
(b) ABACABAC
(c) ABBAABBA
(d) ABCBCABCBC
161. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to have copper constituting the ccp lattice. If silver atoms occupy
the edge centres and gold is present at body centre, the alloy will have the formula
(a) Cu4Ag2Au (b) Cu4Ag4Au
(c) Cu4Ag3Au (d) CuAgAu
162. A certain sample of cuprous sulphide is found to have formula Cu1.8S, because of incorporation of Cu2+ ions
in the lattice. What is the mole % of Cu2+ in total copper content in this crystal?
(a) 99.8% (b) 11.11%
(c) 88.88% (d) None of these
163. When heated above 916°C, iron changes its bcc crystalline form to fcc without the change in the radius of
atom. The ratio of density of the crystal before heating and after heating is:
(a) 1.069 (b) 0.918
(c) 0.725 (d) 1.231
164. A body centered cubic lattice is made up of hollow spheres of B. Spheres of solid A are present in hollow
spheres of B. Radius of A is half of radius of B. What is the ratio of total volume of spheres of B unoccupied
by A in a unit cell and volume of unit cell?

7 3 7 3
(a) (b)
64 128

7
(c) (d) None of these
24

165. The density of a pure substance ‘A’ whose atoms are in cubic close pack arrangement is 1 g/cc. If all the
tetrahedral voids are occupied by ‘B’ atom, what is the density of resulting solid in g/cc? [Atomic mass
(A) = 30 g/mol and atomic mass (B) = 50 g/mol]
(a) 3.33 (b) 4.33
(c) 2.33 (d) 5.33
166. An element X (atomic weight 24 gm/mol) forms a face centered cubic lattice. If the edge length of the lattice
is 4 × 10–8 cm and the observed density is 2.40 × 103 kg/m3, then the percentage occupancy of lattice points
by element X is (Use NA = 6 × 1023)
(a) 96 (b) 98
(c) 99.9 (d) None of these

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Book Crunch CHEMISTRY

167. A2B molecules (molar mass = 259.8 g/mol) crystallises in a hexagonal lattice as shown in figure. The lattice
constants were a = 5 Å and b = 8 Å. If density of crystal is 5 g/cm 3 then how many molecules are contained
in given unit cell? ( use NA = 6 × 1023)

120C°

90°
a
(a) 6 (b) 4
(c) 3 (d) 2
168. A crystal is made of particles A and B. A forms fcc packing and B occupies all the octahedral voids. If all the
particles along the plane as shown in figure are removed, then, the formula of the crystal would be:

A A A

B A B
B A
A
A B
B
A B
A
B B
A
A B
A
B
A B
A B A
(a) AB (b) A5B7
(c) A7B5 (d) None of these
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 169 to 172
A spinel is an important class of oxides consisting of two types of metal ions with the oxide ions arranged in ccp
layers. The normal spinel has one-eighth of the tetrahedral holes occupied by one type of metal ion and one-half
of the octahedral holes occupied by another type of metal ion. Such a spinel is formed by Mg2+, Al3+ and O2–. The
neutrality of the crystal is being maintained.
169. The formula of the spinel is
(a) Mg2AlO4 (b) MgAl2O4
(c) Mg3Al2O6 (d) None of these
170. Type of hole occupied by Al3+ ions is
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

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 CHEMISTRY Book Crunch

171. Type of hole occupied by Mg2+ ions is

(a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
172. If oxide ion is replaced by X–8/3, the number of anionic vacancy per unit cell is
(a) 1 (b) 2

3
(c) 3 (d)
4

173. Select the correct statement(s).

(a) A cubic system possesses a total of 23 elements of symmetry
(b) A cubic system contains centre of symmetry, planes of symmetry as well as axes of symmetry
(c) For triclinic system a  b  c and       90°
(d) The total no. of Bravais space lattice belonging to all the seven crystals are 14
174. Given: Radius of A2+ = 100 pm; Radius of C+ = 240 pm; Radius of B2– = 300 pm; Radius of D– = 480 pm.
Which is/are correct statement?
(a) Coordination number of A2+ in compound AB is 4
(b) Coordination number of A2+ in compound AB is 6.
(c) Coordination number of C+ in compound CD is 6
(d) Coordination number of C+ in compound CD is 8.
175. Match Column-I with Column-II.
Column-I Column-II

(a) Magnetic moment in a paramagnetic (p)

substance

(b) Magnetic moment in a ferromagnetic (q)

(c) Magnetic moment in a antiferromagnetic (r)

(d) Magnetic moment in a ferrimagnetic (s)

176. Match Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I (Void representation) Column-II (Name of void)

void
(a) (p) Tetrahedral void

void
(b) (q) Octahedral void

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Book Crunch CHEMISTRY

void

(c) (r) Cubic void

void
(d) (s) Triangular void

177. Ionic solid Na+A– crystallise in rock salt type structure. 2.592 gm of ionic solid salt NaA dissolved in water
to make 2 litre solution. The pH of this solution is 8. If distance between cation and anion is 300 pm. Calculate
density of ionic solid (in gm/cm 3).

(Given: pKw = 13, pKa(HA) = 5, NA = 6 × 1023)

Z
178. Calculate the value of . Where
10

Z = Co-ordination number of 2D-square close packing

Co-ordination number of 2D-hcp

Co-ordination number of 3D-square close packing

Co-ordination number of 3D, ABCABC ...... packing

Co-ordination number of 3D, ABAB ....... packing

179. Which of the following adsorption isotherms represents the adsorption of a gas by a solid involving monolayer
formation? (Ps = saturation pressure)

Ps Ps
(a) x (b) x
m m

P P

Ps Ps

(c) x (d) x
m m
P P

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 CHEMISTRY Book Crunch

180. On adding AgNO3 solution into KI solution, a negatively charged colloidal sol is obtained when they are in
(a) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI (b) 50 mL of 0.1 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.2 M KI
(c) 50 mL of 0.2 M AgNO3 + 50 mL of 0.1 M KI (d) None of these
181. The gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.04, 0.004, 10 and 40 respectively. The protective
powers of A, B, C and D are in the order
(a) A > B > C > D (b) B > A > C > D
(c) D > C > A > B (d) D > C > B > A
182. Under the influence of an electric field, the particles in a sol migrate towards cathode. The coagulation of the
same sol is studied using NaCl, Na2SO4 and Na3PO4 solutions. Their coagulating values will be maximum for
(a) NaCl (b) Na2SO4
(c) Na3PO4 (d) Same for all
183. 100 mL of 0.6 M acetic acid is shaken with 2 g activated carbon. The final concentration of the solution after
adsorption is 0.5 M. What is the amount of acetic acid adsorbed per gram of carbon?
(a) 0.6 g (b) 0.3 g
(c) 1.2 g (d) None of these

184. A detergent (C12H25SO4Na+ ) solution becomes a colloidal sol at a concentration of 10–3 M. On an average
1013 colloidal particles are present in 1 mm 3. What is the average number of ions are contain in one colloidal
particle (micelle)? [Given: NA = 6 × 1023]
(a) 6 × 107 (b) 10
(c) 60 (d) None of these
185. At 1 atm and 273 K the volume of nitrogen gas required to cover a sample of silica gel, assuming Langmuir
monolayer adsorption, is found to be 1.30 cm 3 g–1 of the gel. The area occupied by a nitrogen molecule is
0.16 nm2. What is the surface area per gram of silica gel?
[Given : NA = 6 × 1023]
(a) 5.568 m2 g–1 (b) 3.48 m2 g–1
(c) 1.6 m2 g–1 (d) None of these
186. 10% sites of catalyst bed have been adsorbed by H2. On heating H2 gas is evolved from sites and collected
at 0.03 atm and 300 K in a small vessel of 2.46 cm 3. No. of sites available is 5.4 × 1016 per cm2 and surface
area is 1000 cm 2. Find out the no. of surface sites occupied per molecule of H2. (Given NA = 6 × 1023)
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None of these
187. A sample of 16 g charcoal was brought into contact with CH4 gas contained in a vessel of 1 litre at 27°C.
The pressure of gas was found to fall from 760 to 608 torr. The density of charcoal sample is 1.6 g/cm3. What
is the volume of the CH4 gas adsorbed per gram of the adsorbent at 608 torr and 27°C?
(a) 125 mL/g (b) 16.25 mL/g
(c) 26 mL/g (d) None of these

  

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Book Crunch- 2

Mathematics
 MATHEMATICS

x 2 + 2x + a
1. Let f : D → R be defined as f ( x ) = where D and R denote the domain of f and the set of all
x 2 + 4 x + 3a
real numbers respectively. If f is surjective mapping then the range of a is
(1) 0 ≤ a ≤ 1 (2) 0 < a ≤ 1
(3) 0 ≤ a < 1 (4) 0 < a < 1

 x +7 −4
If f ( x ) = π 
 x − 9 
2. , then the range of function y = sin (2f(x)) is
 
 1 
(1) [0, 1] (2)  0, 
 2
 1   1 
(3)  0, ∪ , 1 (4) (0, 1]
 2  2 

x2 + x + c 5 3
3. If the range of function f ( x ) = , x ∈ R is  ,  , then c is equal to
x 2 + 2x + c 6 2

(1) –4 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
4. If a polynomial function f satisfies the relation

 
2 2  f ( x ) 
 
log2 [f ( x )] = log2  2 + + + ..... + ∞  ⋅ log3  1 + and f(10) = 1001, then the value of f(20) is
 3 9    1
 f  x
  

(1) 2002 (2) 7999

(3) 8001 (4) 16001

5. The sum of all positive integral values of a, a ∈ [1, 500] for which the equation [x]3 + x – a = 0 has solution is
(Note : [ ] denotes the greatest integer function]
(1) 462 (2) 512
(3) 784 (4) 812
6. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4}. Number of function f : A → A are there satisfying fof (x) = x ∀ x ∈ A, is
(1) 10 (2) 11
(3) 12 (4) 13
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 2 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

Paragraph for Q. Nos. 7 and 8

Let f be an even function satisfying

  6 x 2 + 13    3 x, 0 ≤ x <1
f ( x − 2) = f  x +  2
   ∀x ∈ R and f ( x ) = 
  x + 2    4 − x, 1 ≤ x ≤ 4

(Note : [y] denotes greatest integer function of y]

7. The area bounded by the graph of f(x) and the x-axis from x = –1 to x = 9 is

31
(1) (2) 15
2
15
(3) 12 (4)
2
8. The value of f(–89) – f (–67) + f (46) is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7
9. Let f, g and h be three functions defined as follows :

32
f (x) = , g(x) = 9 + x2 and h(x) = –x2 – 3x + k
4 + x2 + x4
Identify which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct.
(1) Number of integers in the range of f(x) is 8
(2) Number of integral values of k for which h(f(x)) > 0 and h(g(x)) < 0 ∀ x ∈ R is 20
(3) Number of integral values of k for which h(f(x)) > 0 and h(g(x)) < 0 ∀ x ∈ R is 19
(4) Maximum value of g(f(x)) is 73

x 2 − 2x y −1 2
10. Consider, P = , Q= and R = where x, y, z ∈ R.
2
x + x +1 y2 + y +1 2
z + z +1

If k = [P + Q + R] – ([P] + [Q] + [R]) then the possible value(s) of k is(are) (where [⋅] denotes greatest integer
less than or equals to x)
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

 π π   x 2 − x + 1 
11. Let the function f : ( −∞, ∞ ) →  − ,  be given by f ( x ) = sin−1  log3  2   , then
 2 2  
  x + x + 1 
 1
(1) f   = −f ( − x ) (2) f(x) is a strictly increasing function in (–∞, ∞)
x
(3) f(x) is a surjective function (4) f(x) is a injective function
12. Let f : R → [1, ∞) be a quadratic surjective function such that f(2 + x) = f(2 – x) and f(1) = 2. If g : (–∞, ln 2]
→ [1, 5) is given by g(ln x) = f(x) then which of the following is(are) correct?
(1) The value of f(3) is equal to 2

(2) g −1( x ) = ln(2 − x − 1)

(3) g −1( x ) = ln(2 + x − 1)

(4) The sum of values of x satisfying the equation f(x) = 5 is 4
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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 3

x + 3 if x ∈ [ −4, − 2)
 x + 6 x<0
13. Let f ( x ) = 1 if x ∈ [ −2, 2) , g ( x ) =  then
3 − x 2x + 6 x≥0
 if x ∈ [2, 4]
(1) gof (x) = k will have one at least solution if k ∈ [5, 8]
(2) Range of fog (x) is [–1, 1]

(3) lim fog ( x ) = −1

x → −2

(4) gof (x) is an even function

14. Let f be a function defined in [–2, 3] given as

3( x + 1)1/3 , −2 ≤ x < 0

 2
−( x − 1) , 0 ≤ x <1
f (x) = 
2
2( x − 1) , 1≤ x < 2
 2
− x + 4 x − 3, 2 ≤ x ≤ 3
Column-I Column-II
(A) The number of integers in the range of f(x) is (p) 2
(B) The number of integral values of x which are (q) 4
in the domain of f(1 – |x|), is
(C) The number of integers in the range of |f(–|x|)|, (r) 6
is
(D) The number of integral values of k for which (s) 7
the equation f(|x|) = k has exactly four
distinct solutions is
15. Let f(x) = | x2 – 9 | – | x – a |. Find the number of integers in the range of a so that f(x) = 0 has 4 distinct
real root.

3 4
16. The set of real values of x satisfying the equality   +   = 5 (where [ ] denotes the greatest integer
x x

 b b
function) belongs to the interval  a,  where a, b, c ∈ N and is in its lowest form. Find the value of
 c c
a + b + c + abc.
17. Let f be an odd periodic function from R to R. If the period of f is 2 and it is given that

  1 1 1 
f  (3.65 + log 9  6− 6− .....∞   = 1 , then find the absolute value of f(0.85).
 2 3 2 3 2 3 
 4 

 π  4 
18. Let f : R →  0,  be defined as f ( x ) = sin−1  2  then f(x) is
 6  4 x − 12 x + 17 

(1) Injective as well as surjective (2) Surjective but not injective

(3) Injective but not surjective (4) Neither injective nor surjective
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 4 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

2
π π  −1  x − c 
19. Let g : R →  ,  is defined by g ( x ) = sin  2 
 . Then the possible values of c for which g is surjective
6 2   1+ x 
function, is
 1  1
(1)   (2)  −1, − 
2  2 
 1  1 
(3) −  (4)  − , 1
 2  2 

9  33   129 
20. The sum of series cot −1   + cot −1   + cot −1   + .....∞ is equal to
2  4   8 

(1) cot–1 (2) (2) cot–1 (3)

(3) cot–1 (–1) (4) cot–1 (1)
21. If ‘α’ is the only real root of the equation x3 + bx2 + cx + 1 = 0 (b < c), then the value of tan–1 α + tan–1 (α–1) is
equal to

−π π
(1) (2)
2 2

(3) 0 (4) Can’t be determined

n
 π − sec −1 | x | +1 − cosec −1 | x | +1 
∞
22. If the sum of the series    is finite, where x ∈ R and a > 0 then a lies
 πa 
n =1 
in the interval

 1
(1) (1, ∞) (2)  0, 
 2
1  1 
(3)  , ∞  (4)  , ∞ 
2  2 
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 23 and 24

 1− 4x2 − 2 3x 
Consider, f ( x ) = tan−1  
 3 − 12 x 2 + 2 x 
 
 − 3 1
23. If x ∈  ,  then range of f(x) is
 4 2 

 π  −π π 
(1) 0,  (2)  , 
 6  3 6
 −π   −π π 
(3)  , 0  (4)  , 
3   3 2
 3 + 1  1 
24. The value of f  +f
 4 2   2 2 
is equal to
 
−5π −π
(1) (2)
12 12
−π 5π
(3) (4)
3 12
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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 5

 π π  7 
25. If f : R →  − ,  is a function defined by f ( x ) = tan−1  x 4 − x 2 − + tan−1 α  and f is surjective then
 4 2  4 
2
−1  1 − α 
(1) cos  2 

=2
 1+ α 

1
(2) α + = 2 cosec 2
α

−1  2α 
(3) sin  2  = π−2
 α + 1

−1  2α 
(4) tan  2  = 2−π
 α − 1
∞
26. If f (n ) = cot −1(n + 3) − 2cot −1(n + 1) + cot −1(n − 1), n ∈ N , then  f (n ) is equal to
n =1

3
 1
(1)  tan−1  k 
k =1

− sin( x )
(2) lim
x→ π π−x

 1
(3) lim cot −1  
x→ 0 −
x

π ( x − π)2
(4) lim
x → π 4 (cos x + 1)

 5  −1  3  −1  7 2  −1  3 
27. Let α = 3cos−1   + 3 tan   and β = 4 sin   − 4 tan   , then which of the following does not
 28   2   10  4

hold(s) good?

(1) α < π but β > π (2) α > π but β < π

(3) Both α and β are equal (4) cos (α + β) = 0

 x  x 2π
28. If sin−1  + sin−1  1 −  + tan−1 y =
 2 
, then
 
4 3
  

49
(1) Maximum value of x2 + y2 is
3

(2) Maximum value of x2 + y2 is 4

1
(3) Minimum value of x2 + y2 is
3

(4) Minimum value of x2 + y2 is 3

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 6 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

29. Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

(A) 2cot (cot −1(3) + cot −1(7) + cot −1(13) (p) 3

+ cot −1(21)) has the value equal to

  1  1  1
(B) If tan  tan−1   + tan−1   + tan−1   (q) 4
 3 7  13 

 1   m , where m, n ∈ N,
+..... + tan−1   =
 381   n

then the least value of (m + n) is divisible by

(C) Number of integral ordered pairs (x, y) (r) 5
satisfying the equation

1 1 1
arc tan + arc tan = arc tan , is
x y 10

(D) The smallest positive integral value of n (s) 8

for which (n – 2) x2 + 8x + n + 4 >
sin–1(sin 12) + cos–1 (cos 12) ∀ x ∈ R,
is
(t) 10

n  6 
30. If Sn =  r ! then for n > 6  given,  r ! = 873 
r =1  r =1 

Column-I Column-II

  S   
(A) sin−1  sin  Sn − 7  n    (p) 5 – 2π
  
 7   
 

  S   
(B) cos−1  cos  Sn − 7  n    (q) 2π – 5
  
   7   

  S   
(C) tan−1  tan  Sn − 7  n    (r) 6 – 2π
  
   7   

  S   
(D) cot −1  cot  Sn − 7  n    (s) 5 – π
  
   7   

(t) π – 4
(where [ ] denotes greatest integer function)

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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 7

 ( 12 − 2) x 2 
31. Consider f ( x ) = tan−1  4
 x + 2 x 2 + 3 
and m and M are respectively minimum and maximum values of f(x) and
 
x = a (a > 0) is the point in the domain of f(x) where f(x) attains its maximum value.

Column-I Column-II

(A) If sin−1 2 x = 3 tan−1(tan(m + M )) (p) 0

then 8x equals

  7M 
(B) If cos−1 x + cos−1 y = 3 tan−1  tan (q) 2
  2 

 3π  
+ tan−1  m + tan   , then (x + y) equals
 8 

 2 
(C) The value of tan  sec −1  
 + M  equals (r) –2
  a2  

(D) If α and β are roots of the equation (s) 1

x2 – (tan (3 sin–1 (sin M))) x + a4 = 0,
then αβ – (α + β) equals
(t) –1

 π π
32. If x ∈  0,  satisfies the inequality | tan x − 3 | + | 4 sin2 x − 3 | + tan (tan−1 x ) − ≤ 0 , then find the value of
 2  3

   2  3x   
 tan  cot −1  cos     .
   4    
   30 x

[Note : [.] denotes greatest integer function.]

n  1 + (k − 1) k (k + 1)(k + 2)  120π
33. If the lim
n →∞
 cos−1  k (k + 1)
=
 k
then find the value of k.
k =2  

∞  16(2n + 1)  a
34. If α =  tan−1  4 2  and sin α = b where a, b ∈ N, then find the least value of a + b .
2 2

n =1  (2n + 1) − 4(2n + 1) + 16 

1 x +1
35. Let f ( x ) = (sin−1 x + cos−1 x + tan−1 x ) + 2 . If the absolute maximum value of f(x) is M, find 52M.
π x + 2 x + 10

 2x   3cos y − 4 sin y 
36. Consider, α = sin−1  2 
, x ∈ [ −1, 1] , β = cos−1   , y ∈ [0, 2π] and
 1+ x   10 

γ = 2 tan−1( z 2 − 4z + 5), z ∈ R . If α, β and γ are interior angles of a triangle such that (β + γ) is minimum then

a− b
x + tan y + z = , where, a, b, c ∈ N. Find the least value of (a + b + c).
c
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 8 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

2
37. Let f : R → R be a continuous function such that f(x) = 19 ∀ x ∈ Q and g ( x ) = 39 + x , then the value of g(f(x)),
is
(1) 18 (2) 20
(3) 25 (4) 17

38. Let P ( x ) = a1x + a2 x 2 + a3 x 3 + ..... + a100 x100 , where a 1 = 1 and a i ∈ R ∀ i = 2, 3, 4, ....., 100, then

100 1 + P ( x ) −1
lim has the value equal to
x →0 x

1
(1) 100 (2)
100

(3) 1 (4) 5050

39. Let f ( x ) = max.{| x 2 − 2| x ||, | x |} and g ( x ) = min.{| x 2 − 2 | x ||, | x |} then

(1) Both f(x) and g(x) are non-differentiable at 5 points

(2) f(x) is not differentiable at 5 points where g(x) is non-differentiable at 7 points
(3) Number of points of non-differentiability for f(x) and g(x) are 7 and 5 respectively
(4) Both f(x) and g(x) are non-differentiable at 3 and 5 points respectively

40. If α1, α1, α2, α3, ....., αn are the roots of equation xn + 1 – 5x2 + 6x – 3 = 0 and (α1 – α2)(α1 – α3)(α1 – α4) .....
(α1 –αn) = k, then n(n + 1) α1n −1 − 2k equals

(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 12 (4) 5

4n  π  p + cos θ 
41. If lim exists and is equal to p (p ≠ 0) where θ ∈  0,  , then the value of   is
n →∞ (4 − 3 + 2 sin θ)n + 2  2  p 
equal to
(1) 7 (2) 8
(3) 9 (4) 10

42. Number of values of x ∈ [0, π] where f(x) = [4 sin x – 7] is non-derivable is

(Note : [k] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to k]

(1) 7 (2) 8

(3) 9 (4) 10

2
ex+x 2
43. Let f : R → (0, ∞) be such that f ( x ) + ≤ e x + e x ∀ x > 0 , then xlim
→1
f ( x ) is
f (x)

1
(1) 1 (2)
e

(3) e (4) 2e

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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 9
44. Let R be the set of real numbers and f : R → R, be a differentiable function such that |f(x) – f(y)| ≤ |x – y|3 ∀ x,
y ∈ R. If f(10) = 100, the value of f(20) is equal to
(1) 0 (2) 20
(3) 100 (4) 10

45. If f(x) is defined ∀ x ∈ R and is discontinuous only at x = 0 such that f 3 ( x ) − 6f 2 ( x ) + 11f ( x ) − 3 = 3 ∀ x ∈ R , then
the number of such functions is equal to
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 16 (4) 24

π π
46. Let < A < and a function f(x) is defined as
3 2

 ax 2 (sin A − sin3 A) − (5 x − b )| sin A − sin3 A |n

 lim , x ∈Q
n →∞ (sin A − sin3 A) − | sin A − sin3 A |n
f (x) = 
 ax 2 (sin A + sin3 A) + (5 x − b )| sin A + sin3 A |n
nlim , x ∉Q
 →∞ (sin A + sin3 A) + | sin A + sin3 A |n
If f(x) is continuous at x = 2 and x = 3 then the value of b – a, is

(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 6

Paragraph for Q. Nos. 47 to 49

Let f, g, h be real-valued functions defined on R. Consider f ( x ) = −1 + 4 sin2 x , g(x) = 2x –1 and h(x) = 2x + 1.

h(f ( x ))
47. The range of function y = is equal to
g (f ( x ))

1 7 7 
(1)  ,  (2) ( − ∞, 1) ∪  , ∞ 
3 5  5 
 7 1 7
(3) 1,  (4)  − ∞,  ∪  , ∞ 
 5  3   5 
f (sin−1 x )
48. The value of lim is equal to
x→
1 g( x )
2

(1) 0 (2) 2
(3) 4 (4) 10

f (sin−1 kx ) − 3
49. If lim exists and has value equal to l then | k | + | l | is equal to
x→
−1 h( x )
2

(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 12
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10 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

5 x + 1, x≤2
x
50. Let f ( x ) =  , then which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect?
  (5 + | 1 − t |) dt , x > 2
0
(1) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable at x = 2 (2) f(x) is not continuous at x = 2
(3) f(x) is differentiable for all x ∈ R (4) The right hand derivative of f(x) at x = 3 does not exist

 π
 2− | x |, −1 ≤ x ≤ 1  sin x − 1, 0≤x<
2
51. Consider, f ( x ) =  and g ( x ) =  , where [k] denotes greatest
| x − 2 | − x, 1< x ≤ 3 [ x ] − cos( x − 2), π
≤x≤π
 2

integer function of k. Identify the correct statement(s).

(1) lim g (f ( x )) = −1 (2) lim g (f {g ( x )}) = 0

x → 1+ π−
x→
2

f (g ( x )) 1 g (f ( x )) 1
(3) lim = (4) lim 2
=
x →2 + f (x) − 2 2 x→ 0 +
(f ( x ) − 2) 2

ln(2 + x 2 ) − x 2n sin( x 2 )
52. Let f ( x ) = lim . Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
n→∞ 1 + x 2n

(1) f(x) is discontinuous at two points (2) Minimum value of f(x) equals –sin 1
(3) There exists some c ∈ R for which f(c) = 1 (4) The equation f(x) = 0 has at least one real root in (1, ∞)
53. Let {an}, {bn}, {cn} be sequences such that
(i) an + bn + cn = 2n + 1
(ii) anbn + bncn + cnan = 2n – 1
(iii) anbncn = –1 and
(iv) an > bn > cn
then which of the following is/are correct?

an 1 an
(1) lim = (2) lim =2
n →∞ n 2 n →∞ n
an an
(3) lim =0 (4) lim =2
n→−∞ n n→−∞ n

2 x 3 − (tan−1 x )3 1
54. The possible value(s) of k for which lim = , is
x→ ∞ 8 3 1 2
x cot −1 | kx | + k 2 x 6 sin 3 − 3kx 3
π x

(1) 0 (2) –1
(3) 2 (4) 4

55. If f(x) = sgn ((sin2 x – sin x – 1)(sin2 x + sin x + 1)) = 0 has exactly 4 points of discontinuity for x ∈ (0, nπ), n ∈ N
then the value of n may be equal to
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5

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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 11
56. In the following, [ ] and { } are greatest integer function and fractional part function respectively. Match the functions
in Column-I with the properties in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II

 4x  2
(A) f1( x ) =   sgn ( x − x + 1) (p) Discontinuous at more than 3 points but less than
 π 
6 points in [–2, 2]

−1   2x − 1  
(B) f2 ( x ) = cos  sgn  cos π (q) Non-derivable at more than 2 points but atmost 5
  2 
points in [–2, 2]

(C) f3 ( x ) = max. ({x+1}, {5 − x }) (r) Range contains at least one integer but not more
than seven and no irrational value in [–2, 2]

(D) f4 ( x ) = x 2 + [ x ]2 (s) Many one but not even function in [–2, 2]

(t) Neither odd nor periodic in [–2, 2]

57. Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II
(A) Number of integral values of x satisfying (p) 0
|x2 – 9| + |x2 – 4| = 5, is

−5, −∞ < x ≤ −1

(B) Let f ( x ) =  x − 4, −1 < x ≤ 6 , (q) 2
2, 6<x<∞


[ x ]2 − 13[ x ] + 42
then lim is equal to
x → n ( x − 7)( x − 6)

[Note : Where n is the number of integers

in the range of f(|x|), [x] denotes greatest
integer less than or equal to x]

a sin x + bxe x + 3 x 2
(C) If lim exists and (r) 3
x → 0 sin x − 2 x + tan x

has value equal to L, then the value of

b−L
, is equal to
a
n  1 
(D) Let P =
n ∏  1 − k +1C  . If lim Pn can
 n →∞
(s) 4
k =2 2 
be expressed as lowest rational in the

a
form , then the value of (b – a) is equal to
b
(t) Non-existent

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12 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

n   n
2(2r − 1)
58. If Sn =  tan−1  2 2  then find the value of lim  (cot (Sn − 1 ) − cot(Sn )) .
r =1  4 + r (r − 2r + 1)  n →∞
n =2

 
 2t 2 − t − 1 − t 2 − t + 1 
59. If the equation | x − 1| − 6 lim   = k has four distinct solutions then find the number of
t →∞  π 
 t  tan  
  8  
integral values of k.
n n
nπ
60. If  sin−1 αr =
2
for any n ∈ N and p = ∏ (α r ) .
r

r =1 r =1

 x1/3 − (3 − 2 x )1/4
 , x≠p
If f ( x ) =  x2 − x is continuous at x = p, then find the value of 6(k + p).
k , x=p


f ( x ) + x 2n g ( x )
61. Let f(x) = x2 + ax + 3 and g(x) = x + b, where F ( x ) = lim . If F(x) is continuous at x = 1 and
n→∞ 1 + x 2n
x = –1 then find the value of (a2 + b2).

62. The sequence {an }n+ ∞=1 is defined by a1 = 0 and an + 1 = an + 4n + 3, n ≥ 1. Find the value of

an + a4n + a + a + ..... + a
42 n 43 n 410 n
lim
n → +∞ an + a2n + a + a + ..... + a
22 n 23 n 210 n

63. Let θ k (k = 1, 2, 3, ....., n), θ 1 < θ 2 < ..... < θ n be the solution of θ such that 3 sin nθ + cos nθ = 0 . If

1 n θ k
lim
n →∞ n
 cos k = , then find the value of k (k ∈ N).
2 π
k =1

1 π 1 π 1 π 1  π 
64. Let S = tan + 2 tan + 3 tan + ..... + n tan  n + 1  . If lim S = L ; then find the value of (100 π) L.
2 4 2 8 2 16 2 2  n→∞

(you may use the fact cot x – tan x = 2 cot 2x)

e2f ( x ) − 2ef ( x )+1 + e2 cos ( x − 1) 7 2

65. If for a differentiable function y = f(x), (f ′( x ) > 0) lim = e and area of the triangle
2 2
x →1 sec ( x − 1) − 1

1
formed by the tangent drawn to the curve y = f(x) at [1, f(1)] and co-ordinate axes is Δ, then find the value of .
Δ

4
66. If f ( x ) = (2 x − 3π)5 + x + cos x and g is the inverse function of f, then g′(2π) is equal to
3

7 3
(1) (2)
3 7

30π4 + 4 3
(3) (4)
3 30π4 + 4
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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 13

n
x sin x
67. Given that ∏ cos 2n =
 x 
.
n =1 2n sin  n 
2 

 n
1  x  π
 lim  n tan  n , x ∈ (0, π) −  
n → ∞ n = 1 2
Let f ( x ) =  2  2
2 π
 x , x=
2
then which one of the following alternative is true?

π
(1) f(x) has non-removable discontinuity of finite type at x =
2

π
(2) f(x) has missing point discontinuity at x =
2
π
(3) f(x) is continuous at x =
2
π
(4) f(x) has non-removable discontinuity of infinite type at x =
2

dy
68. Suppose A = dy of x2 + y2 = 0 at ( 2, 2) , B = dy of sin y + sin x = sin x ⋅ sin y at (π, π) and C = of
dx dx dx

2e xy + e x e y − e x − e y = e xy +1 at (1, 1), then (A + B + C) has the value equal to

(1) –1 (2) e
(3) –3 (4) 0

 f ( x ) − f (5) − ( x − 5) f ′(5) 
69. Let f and g be twice differentiable function on R and f′′(5) = 8, g′′(5) = 2 then xlim  
→ 5  g ( x ) − g (5) − ( x − 5) g ′ (5) 

is equal to
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 4

d 2y
70. For the curve 32x3y2 = (x + y)5, the value of at P(1, 1) is equal to
dx 2
(1) 0 (2) 1

1
(3) –1 (4)
2

 d 2y   d2x 
71. If a curve is represented parametrically by the equations x = f(t) and y = g(t) then  2   2  is equal to
 dx   dy 
(where f ′(t ) ≠ 0, g ′(t ) ≠ 0 ).

g ′(t )
(1) 1 (2)
f ′(t )
2 3
 g ′(t )   g ′(t ) 
(3) −   (4) −  
 f ′(t )   f ′(t ) 
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14 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

Paragraph for Q. Nos. 72 to 74

Let f, g, f1, f2 : R → R be twice differentiable function, and f(x) ≥ 0, f′(x) ≥ 0, g′(x) > 0 ∀ x ∈ R.

Also, lim f1( x ) = 5, lim f2 ( x ) = 12, lim f ( x ) = ∞, lim g ( x ) = ∞,

x →∞ x →∞ x →∞ x →∞

f ′( x ) f (x)
and + f (x) = f (x) ∀ x > 0 .
g ′( x ) 1 g ( x ) 2
(Also, f′(x) and g′(x) are continuous)

g ′( x )
72. lim equals
x →∞ f ′( x )
(1) 0 (2) 2

1
(3) 1 (4)
2
f (x)
73. lim equals
x →∞ g( x )
(1) 1 (2) 0

1
(3) (4) 2
2
λ f ′( x ) + f ′′( x )
74. lim
x →∞ λ g ′( x ) + g ′′( x ) equals (λ > 0)
(1) ∞ (2) 0
(3) 2 (4) 1
3
d 2y  dy  dy
75. If the independent variable x is changed to y then the differential equation x +  − dx = 0 is changed
dx 2  dx 
2
d2x  dx 
to x 2
+  = k where k is equal to
dy  dy 

 2 tan x   2x 
(1) xlim
→0   (2) xlim
→0  
 x   tan x 

 tan x 
(3) xlim
→0   (4) 1
 x 

76. Let f be a differentiable function satisfying f ( x + y ) = f ( x ) + f ( y ) + (e x − 1)(e y − 1) ∀ x, y ∈ R and f ′(0) = 2 . Identify

the correct statement(s).
1
f (f ( x ))
(1) xlim =4 x
→0 f (x) − x
(2) lim (f ( x ) + cos x )e −1 = e2
x →0

(3) Number of solutions of the equation f(x) = 0 is 2 (4) Range of the function y = f(x) is (–∞, ∞)

 1− x2   2x 
77. Three functions, f1, f2 and f3 are given as f1( x ) = sin−1  , f ( x ) = x − cos−1 
 1 + x 2  2  and
 1+ x2 
 
−1
 tan x 
f3 ( x ) = 4   − { x } . [Note : {k} denotes fractional part function of k]
 2 
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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 15
Column-I Column-II
(A) The differential coefficient of f1(x) (p) –1
with respect to f2(x) at x = tan 1, is

d [f3 ( x )]
(B) is equal to (q) 2
d [f2 ( x )]
x = tan1

(C)
d
dx
(  (f ( x ) − f ( x ) dx ))
2 1
x = tan1
(r) 1 + sec 2

is equal to
(D) The slope of the normal to the (s) tan 1

curve y = f3(x) at x = 3 is

dny
78. Let y = f(x) be an infinitely differentiable function on R such that f(0) ≠ 0 and ≠ 0 at x = 0 for n = 1, 2, 3, 4.
dx n

f (4 x ) + af (3 x ) + bf (2 x ) + cf ( x ) + df (0)
If lim exists, then find the value of (25a + 50b + 100c + 500d).
x →0 x4

 x 
79. Let g ( x ) = f   where f(x) is a differentiable positive function on (0, ∞) such that f(1) = f′(1). Determine g′(1).
f (x) 

80. Let f(x) be a cubic polynomial with leading coefficient unity such that f(0) = 1 and all the roots of f′(x) = 0 are
1
also roots of f(x) = 0. If  f ( x ) dx = g ( x ) + C , where g(0) = 4
and C is constant of integration, then g(3) – g(1)

is equal to
(1) 27 (2) 48
(3) 60 (4) 81

99
81.  [sin(101x ) ⋅ sin x ] dx equals

sin(100 x )(sin x )100 cos(100 x )(sin x )100

(1) +C (2) +C
100 100

cos(100 x )(cos x )100 sin(100 x )(sin x )101

(3) +C (4) +C
100 101

n
82. If In =  cot x dx, then I0 + I1 + 2(I2 + I3 + ..... + I8) + I9 + I10 equals (where u = cot x)

u2 u9  u2 u9 
(1) u + + ..... + (2) −  u + 2 + ..... + 9 
2 9  

 u2 u9  u 2u 2 9u 9
−  u + + ..... +  + + ..... +
(3)  2! 9!  (4)
 2 3 10
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16 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

d 2v dv du
83. If  u dx = u −v + w then w is equal to
dx 2 dx dx

d 2u d 2v
(1)  v dx 2 dx (2)  u dx 2 dx
2 2
 du   dv 
(3)  v  dx  dx (4)  u  dx  dx

Paragraph for Q. Nos. 84 and 85

4 2 2 2 33
Consider φ (a, b, t ) = a − 5a + b + 5t − 4bt − 2t + where a, b, t ∈ R. Given that f(t) and g(b) are the
4
minimum value of φ(a, b, t).

dx
84.  f (x) is

1  x − 1
(1) tan−1( x − 1) + C (2) tan−1   +C
2  2 

1 x −1
(3) ln[ x − 1 + x 2 − 2x + 2) + C (4) ln +C
2 x +1

(Note : where C is the constant of integration)

x
85. If e g ( x ) dx = e x ( Ax 2 + Bx + C ) + D , where D is constant of integration, then (A + B + C) is equal to

14
(1) 2 (2)
5

19
(3) 5 (4)
5

3 cot 3 x − cot x
86. If  tan x − 3 tan3 x dx = pf ( x ) + qg ( x ) + c where c is a constant of integration, then

1 3 − tan x
(1) p = 1; q = ; f(x) = x; g ( x ) = ln
3 3 + tan x

1 3 − tan x
(2) p = 1; q = − ; f(x) = x; g ( x ) = ln
3 3 + tan x

2 3 + tan x
(3) p = 1; q = − ; f(x) = x; g ( x ) = ln
3 3 − tan x

1 3 + tan x
(4) p = 1; q = − ; f(x) = x; g ( x ) = ln
3 3 − tan x
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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 17

(1 + x 4 ) dx  1  π
87. Let  = f ( x ) + C1 where f(0) = 0 and  f ( x ) dx = g ( x ) + C2 with g(0) = 0. If g   = , find k.
3
 2 k
(1 − x 4 )2

( x − 1) dx
88. If  = 4 tan−1[g ( x )] + C, where C is an arbitrary constant of integration. Find g2(1).
(x + x x + x ) x ( x + 1)

π /2
sin x
 ( x cos x + 1) e dx
89. The absolute value of 0 is equal to
π /2
cos x
 ( x sin x − 1) e dx
0

(1) e (2) πe
(3) e/2 (4) π/e
90. The interval [0, 4] is divided into n equal sub-intervals by the points x0, x1, x2, ....., xn – 1, xn where 0 = x0 < x1 <
n
x2 < x3 ..... < xn = 4. If δx = xi – xi – 1 for i = 1, 2, 3, ..... n then lim
δx →0
 xi δx is equal to
i =1

(1) 4 (2) 8
32
(3) (4) 16
3

 
e2010 
1 1 − ln x 
91. The value of the definite integral  x
1+
 x 
dx, equals
e
 ln x ln  ln x  
  

(1) 2009 – ln (2010 – ln 2010) (2) 2010 – ln (2009 – ln 2009)

(3) 2009 – ln (2010 – ln 2009) (4) 2010 – ln (2010 – ln 2010)

6
 yi
i =1  ex 
92. If  (sin−1 xi + cos−1 y i ) = 9π, then  x ln(1 + x 2 ) 
 1 + e2 x  dx is equal to
i =1 6  
 xi
i =1

(1) 0 (2) e6 + e–6

37
(3) ln   (4) e6 – e–6
 12 
x2
93. Consider a parabola y = and the point F(0, 1).
4
Let A1 (x 1 , y 1), A2(x 2 , y 2), A 3(x 3 , y 3), ....., A n(x n, y n ) are n points on the parabola such as x k > 0 and

kπ 1 n
∠OFAk = (k = 1, 2, 3, ....., n ) . Then the value of lim  FAk , is equal to
2n n →∞ n
k =1

2 4
(1) (2)
π π
8
(3) (4) None of these
π
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18 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

1
2
94. The value of the definite integral  ((e − 1) ln (1 + (e − 1) x + e x ) dx is equal to
0

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) e (4) e2

b
95. For real numbers a, b with 0 ≤ a ≤ π, a < b. Let I (a, b ) =  e − x sin x dx .
a

If lim I (a, b ) = 0 , and the value of a is kπ (k > 0), then the value of k, is
b→ ∞

1 1
(1) (2)
2 4
3
(3) (4) 1
4
96. Let f(x) be a continuous and periodic function such that f(x) = f(x + T) for all x ∈ R, T > 0. If
a + 5T T a

 f ( x ) dx = 19 (a > 0) and
 f ( x ) dx = 2 , then  f ( x ) dx is equal to
−2T 0 0

(1) 3 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 9

x 
97. If x and y are independent variables and f ( x ) =   e x − y f ′ ( y ) dy  − ( x 2 − x + 1) e x , where f(x) is a differentiable
 
0 
 −1 
function, then f   equals
 2
(1) 2 e (2) −2 e

−2 2
(3) (4)
e e
1
4 7
98. ( 1 − x 7 − 1 − x 4 ) dx is equal to
0

1
(1) (2) 1
2
(3) 0 (4) None of these

c
c f (x)
99. A function f(x) satisfies f ( x ) = f   for some real number c (c > 1) and ∀ x > 0. If  dx = 3 , then the value
x 1
x
c
f (x)
of  x
dx is
1

(1) 0 (2) 3

(3) –3 (4) 6

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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 19
Paragraph for Q. Nos. 100 and 101

Let a polynomial f satisfies the relation f (f (f ( x ))) + (1 − p ) f ( x ) = 3 ∀x ∈ R where p ∈ R.

d
100. If leading coefficient of f(x) is 2 then the value of (f (f ( x ))) at x = p is
dx

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 9
(4) 17

1
−1
101. If leading coefficient of f(x) is negative and f(0) = 4 then f ( x ) dx is equal to
−1

(1) 8 (2) 16
(3) 32 (4) 64

n
k 2 + n2 n −1
k 2 + n2
102. Let Sn =  and Tn =  for n = 1, 2, 3, ..... then
k =1 n3 k =0 n3

4 4
(1) Sn < (2) Tn >
3 3

4 4
(3) Sn > (4) Tn <
3 3

x
2x
103. Let f : R → (0, ∞) be a real valued function satisfying  t f ( x − t ) dt = e − 1 , then which of the following is(are)
0

correct?

1
(1) The value of (f–1)′ (4) equals
8

(2) Derivative of f(x) with respect to ex at x = 0 is equal to 8

f (x) − 4
(3) The value of lim equals 4
x →0 x

(4) The value of f(0) is equal to 4

1/2 4 1/2
1 2 
104. Let J =   4 − x  dx and K =
 x
4
(1 − x )4 dx , then
0 0

J
(1) =2 (2) J – K = 0
K

1
1 4 1
x (1 − x )4 dx
2 0
(3) J = (4) K =
1260

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20 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

xn + y n 1
105. Let fn ( x ) + fn ( y ) = for all x, y ∈ R – {0} where n ∈ N and g(x) = max {f2(x), f3(x), }, ∀ x ∈ R – {0}.
x yn n 2

Column-I Column-II
(A) The possible value(s) of (p) 1
∞ ∞
 f2k (cosec θ)+ f2k (sec θ)
k =1 k =1

kπ
where θ ≠ , k ∈ I is/are
2
(B) The value(s) of n for which (q) 2
h(x) = fn(x) sgn x is even, is/are
(C) Values of consecutive integers (r) 3
2

between which,  g ( x ) dx lie are

1/2

(D) Number of values of x for which (s) 4

the function y = g(x) ∀ x ∈ R – {0}
is non-differentiable, is/are

1
d 2Un x
106. Given that Un = {x (1 – x)}n and n ≥ 2 and = n (n − 1)Un −2 − 2n (2n − 1)Un −1 , further if Vn =  e ⋅ Un dx , then
dx 2 0

for n ≥ 2, we have Vn + K1n (2n – 1). Vn – 1 + K2n (n – 1) Vn – 2 = 0. Find (K1 + K2).

1 x
1
107. Given a function g, continuous everywhere such that g(1) = 5 and  g (t ) dt = 2 . If f ( x ) = 2  ( x − t )2 g (t ) dt , then
0 0

compute the value of f ′′′(1) − f ′′(1) .

1/ n
 3n
Cn  a
108. Given lim   = where a and b are relatively prime, find the value of (a + b).
n→∞  2n
Cn  b


 t dx 
109. If lim   − at b  exists and equals to non-zero finite number L, where a and b are positive real numbers,
t→∞  3 2 
 1 1+ x 
then find the value of (ab – 4L – 3π).

2
2
110. Let f(x) be a continuous function defined from [0, 2] → R and satisfying the equation  f ( x )( x − f ( x )) dx = 3 . Find
0

the value of 2f(1).

1 
111. Let f be a differentiable function defined such that f : [0, 27] →  , 6  and f ′( x ) < 0 ∀ x ∈ Df . If
3 
27 3

 x f ′( x ) dx = λ − 3  x 2 f ( x 3 ) dx then find the value of λ.

0 0

(Note : Df denotes the domain of the function)

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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 21

 1 
112. If P(x) = (2013) x2012 – (2012) x2011 – 16x + 8, then P(x) = 0 for x ∈ 0, 8 2011  has
 

(1) Exactly one real root

(2) No real root
(3) At least one and at most two real roots
(4) At least two real roots
π /2

 (sin x + t cos x ) dx
0
113. The value of t for which is maximum lies in the interval
π /2
2
 (sin x + t cos x ) dx
0

 1
(1)  0, 
 2
1 3
(2)  , 
2 4
3 3
(3)  , 
 4 2
3 5
(4)  , 
2 2

x x +1
 1  1
114. Let f ( x ) =  1 +  and g ( x ) =  1 +  , both f and g being defined for x > 0, then f(x) and g(x) will have
 x   x 
nature that

(1) Both f(x) and g(x) are increasing

(2) f(x) is increasing and g(x) is decreasing

(3) f(x) is decreasing and g(x) is increasing

(4) Both f(x) and g(x) are decreasing

115. If the equation x3 – 3x + 1 = 0 has three real roots x1, x2, x3, where x1 < x2 < x3, then the value of ({x1} + {x2} +
{x3}) is equal to

(Note : {x} denotes the fractional part of x)

3
(1) (2) 1
2

5
(3) 2 (4)
2

116. Let f : R → R be a function defined by f(x) = 2x3 – 21x2 + 78x + 24. Number of integers in the solutions set of x
satisfying the inequality f(f(f(x) – 2x3)) ≥ f(f(2x3 – f(x))) is

(1) 3 (2) 4

(3) 5 (4) 6

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22 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

Paragraph for Q. Nos. 117 to 119

y
2ln( − x − 1), −e − 1 ≤ x ≤ −2
2
1
 (4 − x 2 ), −2 < x < 0
2
 1
Let f ( x ) = 0, x =0
1
 ( x 2 − 4), 0<x<2 x
2 – e – 1 –2 –1 0 1 2 e+1
2ln( x − 1), 2 ≤ x ≤ e +1
–1
Graph of f(x)
and graph of f(x) is as shown. –2

min {f (t ) : −e − 1 ≤ t ≤ x }, −e − 1 ≤ x < 0
Also, g ( x ) = 
max {f (t ) : 0 ≤ t ≤ x }, 0 ≤ x ≤ e +1

117. Which one of the following statement does not hold good?

(1) Range of g(x) is [0, 2] (2) g(x) is non-monotonic in [–2, 2]

(3) g(x) is a continuous function (4) g(x) is an odd function

118. If x = α is the point of non-differentiability of g(x) in (– e – 1, e + 1) then the values of α is

(1) –2, 1 (2) –2, –1
(3) –2, 2 (4) –2, 0
119. If the equation g(x) = k has exactly two distinct solution in [– e – 1, e + 1] then the sum of all possible integral
values of k is
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3

Paragraph for Q. Nos. 120 to 122

Let f(x) = a (x – 2) (x – b), where a, b ∈ R and a ≠ 0.

 2  b
Also, f (f ( x )) = a3  x 2 − (2 + b )x + 2b −  x 2 − (2 + b )x + 2b −  , a ≠ 0 ,
 a  a

has exactly one real zeroes 5.

120. Which of the following is incorrect?
(1) The minimum value of f(x) is 5 and attained at x = –2
(2) The maximum value of f(x) is 2 and attained at x = 5
(3) The minimum value of f(x) is 10 and attained at x = 0
(4) The maximum value of f(x) is 24 and attained at x = 6
121. The slope of the straight line passing through O(0, 0) and tangent to y = f(x), can be
(1) 4 (2) 2

4 2
(3) (4)
9 9
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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 23
5
122. The value of definite integral  f ( x ) dx is equal to
2
(1) 4 (2) 8
(3) 10 (4) 14
1
123. Let the function f(x) be thrice differentiable and satisfies f(f(x)) = 1 – x for all x ∈ [0, 1]. If J =  f ( x ) dx and
0

4
f ′′   = 0 , then which of the following is(are) true?
5

 1  2 1
(1) f   + f   = 1 (2) J =
3 3 2

1 3 1 4
(3) f′′(x) = 0 has at least one root in x ∈  ,  (4) f′′′(x) = 0 has at least one root in x ∈  , 
4 4 2 5

f ( x ) f ′′( x ) − [f ′( x )]2
124. Let f(x) = (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3).....(x – n), n ∈ N and  f 2(x)
dx = g ( x ) + C , where C is arbitrary

constant.
Column-I Column-II
(A) If f′(n) = 5040, then n is divisible by (p) 4
(B) If g(x) is discontinuous at 9 points, (q) 6
∀ x ∈ R then n is greater than
(C) If g(x) = 5 has 8 solutions, then n (r) 8
may be equal to
(D) If the number of roots of equation (s) 9
f′(x) = 0, be (n – 5)2 (n –1), (n > 1)
then possible values of n is/are
125. Let f be a continuous function and satisfies f′(x) > 0 on (–∞, ∞) and the value of f′′(x) ∀ x ∈ (0, ∞) is equal to

minimum value of min {e −|x| + 2, | x | +2} .

x∈R

3
3x 2 − − 4f ′( x )
If L = lim x2 + 1 then find the value of [L2].
x →∞ f (x)

(Note : [k] denotes greatest integer less than or equal to k]

π   x 
126. Let f ( x ) = + sgn  tan−1  2 
tan−1 x , where sgn (y) denotes signum function of y, and g(x) is the inverse
2   1 + x  
of f(x). If the complete set of values of k for which the equation 2g(x) + k(π – 2x) = 0 has three distinct solutions
is (a, ∞) then find a.
127. Find the length of the shortest path that begins at the point (2, 5), touches the x-axis and then ends at a point
on the circle x2 + y2 + 12x – 20y + 120 = 0.

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24 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

π /2
128. Let g (a ) =  | sin2x − a cos x | dx, 0 ≤ a ≤ 1 . If m and M is minimum and maximum value of g(a) ∀ a ∈ [0, 1] then
0
find the value of 2(M + m).
129. Orthogonal trajectories of family of the curve x2/3 + y2/3 = a2/3, where a is any arbitrary constant, is

(1) x 2/3 − y 2/3 = c (2) x 4/3 − y 4/3 = c

(3) x 4/3 + y 4/3 = c (4) x1/3 − y 1/3 = c

130. A function y = f(x) satisfies the condition f′(x) sin x + f(x) cos x = 1, f(x) being bounded when x → 0. If
π /2
I=  f ( x ) dx then
0

π π2 π π2
(1) <I < (2) <I <
2 4 4 2
π
(3) 1 < I < (4) 0 < I < 1
2
131. The substitution y = zα transforms the differential equation (x2y2 – 1)dy + 2xy3dx = 0 into a homogeneous differential
equation for
(1) α = –1 (2) 0
(3) α = 1 (4) No value of α

g ′( x ) g ′( x ) df ( x )
132. Let y ′( x ) + ⋅ y(x) = where f′(x) denotes and g(x) is a given non-constant differentiable
g( x ) 1+ g 2 (x) dx

function on R. If g(1) = y(1) = 1 and g (e ) = (2e − 1) then y(e) equals

3 1
(1) (2)
2g (e ) 2g (e )

2 1
(3) (4)
3g ( e ) 3g ( e )

x
133. Let f(x)(f(x) > 0) be a differentiable function satisfying f 2 ( x ) =  (f 2 (t ) − f 4 (t ) + (f ′(t ))2 dt + 100 , where f2(0) = 100,
0

then lim f ( x ) can be

x→ ∞

(1) 0 (2) 1

10
(3) (4) 10
9

Paragraph for Q. Nos. 134 to 136

Let f be a differentiable function satisfying

f (x) x

 f −1(t ) dt −  (cos t − f (t )) dt = 0 and f(0) = 1

0 0

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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 25

f (2 x ) f (x)
134. The number of solution(s) of the equation = 0 in (0, 2π) is
sin x 2
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
π /2
135. The value of  f ( x ) dx lies in the interval
0

2   π
(1)  , 1 (2)  1, 
π   2
3 π  2
(3)  ,  (4)  0, 
2 2  π

  cos x   cos 2 x   cos3 x   cos(100 x )  

136. The value of lim    +  +  + ..... +    is equal to
x → 0  f ( x )   f (2 x )   f (3 x )   f (100 x )  


(Note : where [k] denotes greatest integer less than or equal to k)

(1) 0 (2) 4950
(3) 5049 (4) 5050
137. A curve y = f(x) has the property that the perpendicular distance of the origin from the normal at any point P of
the curve is equal to the distance of the point P from the x-axis. Then the differential equation of the curve
(1) Is homogeneous
(2) Can be converted into linear differential equation with some suitable substitution
(3) Is the family of circles touching the x-axis at the origin
(4) The family of circles touching the y-axis at the origin

dy sin2 x
138. A function y = f(x) satisfying the differential equation ⋅ sin x − y cos x + = 0 is such that, y → 0 as
dx x2
x → ∞ then the statement which is correct is
π /2
π
(1) lim f ( x ) = 1
x →0
(2)  f ( x ) dx is less than
2
0

π /2
(3)  f ( x ) dx is greater than unity (4) f(x) is an odd function
0

x x
−x
139. Let f be a continuous function satisfying the equation  f (t ) dt +  t f ( x − t ) dt = e − 1, then find the value of
0 0
e10 f(10).
∞
140. Let An be the area of region bounded by a curve y = x3 (1 – x2)n, 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and the x-axis, then the value of  An
n =1
is equal to
1 1
(1) (2)
2 3
1
(3) (4) 1
4
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26 MATHEMATICS Book Crunch

141. Let Z be a complex number such that Re(Z ) = x 2 + 4 and Im(Z ) = y − 4 satisfying | Z | = 10 . Area
enclosed by the set of points (x, y) on the complex plane, is

(1) 8 6 (2) 4 6

20 10 40 10
(3) (4)
3 3

1 1 
142. The graphs of f(x) = x2 and g(x) = cx3 (c > 0) intersect at the points (0, 0) and  ,  . If the region which lies
 c c2 
 1 2
between these graphs and over the interval  0,  has the area equal to then the value of c is
 c 3

1
(1) 1 (2)
3
1
(3) (4) 2
2
1 1 
143. Infinite rectangles each of width 1 unit and height  −  (n ∈ N ) are constructed such that ends of exactly
 n n + 1
1
one diagonal of every rectangle lies along the curve y = . The sum of areas of all such rectangles, is
x

1 2
(1) (2)
2 3
3
(3) (4) 1
4

Paragraph for Q. Nos. 144 to 146

dy
Let y = f(x) be a solution of the differential equation = −4 x ( y − 2) with f(0) = 2 and
dx

 x x 
g ( x ) = max. 1 + −   , sin x, | x − 1| , h(x) = ln x, k(x) = min. {x2 – 3x + 2, 2 + sin x}
 2 2
  

(Note : [y] denotes greatest integer function less than or equal to y]

144. Area enclosed by the curves y = f(x), y = g(x) and the y-axis, is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
145. Area bounded by the curve y = f(x), y = h(x) and the y-axis, is
(1) e (2) e2
3e
(3) (4) e2 – 1
2
146. Number of solutions of the equation f(x) = k(x) in [0, 2π], is
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5
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Book Crunch MATHEMATICS 27
147. The graph of y = f(x) is shown with roots r and s (r < s). Area bounded by the graph of f(x), x-axis, x = 0 and
0
2 6
x = 6 over the intervals [0, r] and [r, s] and [s, 6] are , 2 and 12 respectively. If m =  f ( x ) dx , p =  f ( x ) dx ,
5
s r

6 6
q=  f ( x ) dx , n =  | f ( x ) | dx , then
0 0

y = f(x) x=6
r s
O

(1) p < m (2) m < 1

(3) q < 11 (4) n > 11

±2
148. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 3. If the curve y = f(x) has relative extrema at x = and passes through
3
(0, 0) and (1, –2) dividing the circle x2 + y2 = 4 in two parts, then the area bounded by x2 + y2 = 4 and y ≥ f(x) is
kπ
. Find the value of k.
2

 2x   2x 
149. Let f ( x ) = cos−1  2 
, g ( x ) = cot −1  2  where x ∈ (–1, 1). If area bounded by the curves y = f(x) + g(x)
 1+ x   x − 1
and y = πx2 is A, then find the value of [A].
(Note : [K] denotes greatest integer less than or equal to K]

‰‰‰

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