MARCH 2025 MTLE RECALLS

CLINICAL CHEMISTRY b.​ Lungs

1.​ Which of the ff. disease state is least affected by c.​ Intestines
fasting? d.​ Liver
a.​ Elevated HDL
b.​ Elevated LDL 13. Enzymes that are used in analytical tests should be
c.​ Hypotriglycemia in ____ temperature
d.​ Hypertriglycemia a.​ Lower
b.​ Higher
2. What happens more often during a kidney disease?
c.​ Optimum
a.​ Respiratory acidosis
b.​ Respiratory alkalosis
14. Which of the following is a secretory function of the
c.​ Metabolic acidosis
liver?
d.​ Metabolic alkalosis
a.​ Production of bile
3. Insecticide poisoning (repeated thrice) b.​ Ammonia
a.​ Cholinesterase c.​ Bilirubin.
b.​ GGT 15. In turbidimetry, what type of light is measured?
c.​ ALT a.​ Transmitted
d.​ ALP b.​ Scattered
c.​ Visible light
4. Most abundant beta globulin in CSF? d.​ Ultraviolet light
a.​ Albumin
b.​ Transferrin 16. Forms of calcium in the human body, except:
c.​ Transthyretin a.​ Chelated
d.​ Fibrinogen b.​ Protein-bound
c.​ Ionized
5. An analyte that is greatly affected by hemolysis d.​ Enzyme-bound
a.​ Sodium
b.​ Potassium 17. TAG (1036 mg/dL) correlates more to:
c.​ Calcium a.​ CHD
d.​ Chloride b.​ DM
c.​ Chronic kidney disease
d.​ Gout
6. Marker for hepatocellular damage
a.​ ALT 18. All of the following are affected in increased levels of
b.​ AST ALT except:
c.​ GGT a.​ Kidney
d.​ ALP b.​ Liver
c.​ Thyroid
7. What routine test is added for assessing lipids d.​ Bone
associated with atherogenic effects?
a.​ CRP 19. NOT elevated in liver function test
b.​ BNP a.​ Cirrhosis
c.​ Apolipoprotein b.​ Biliary obstruction
d.​ FIbrinogen c.​ Hepatitis
d.​ Bone disease
8. All of the following runs should be rejected except:
a.​ 1 3S 20. Type 1 APR except:
b.​ R4S a.​ CRP
c.​ 1 2S b.​ Serum amyloid A
d.​ 2 2S c.​ Complement
d.​ Haptoglobin
9. Preventive Maintenance
a.​ Fixing things before they break 21. End product of protein metabolism (ilang beses
b.​ Ensuring that the elements of the machine fits tinanung, kahit sa CM lumabas to)
with the manufacturers conditions a.​ Urea
b.​ Creatinine
10. Least effective test for pheochromocytoma c.​ Uric acid
a.​ Plasma metanephrines d.​ Ammonia
b.​ Vanillylmandelic acid
c.​ Urine metanephrines 22. Analytical technique involving the use of ISE
d.​ HMA a.​ Potentiometry
b.​ Fluorometry
11. A step in glycolytic pathway that is irreversible c.​ Amperometry
a.​ Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose-1,6
Biphosphate 23. Convert 11 x 10^-3 to decimal notation (two items
b.​ Glucose-6-phosphate → Fructose-6-phosphate ganto ang tanung)
c.​ Fructose-1,6-Biphosphate → DHAP
d.​ Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate → 1,3-BPG 24. Convert 12.51 to nearest tenths

12. What does the numerator on the 25. What is the primary cause of dyslipidemia?
Henderson-Hasselbach equation denote? a.​ Genetic mutations
a.​ Kidney
 MARCH 2025 MTLE RECALLS
b.​ Age d.​ Fish Consumption
c.​ Sedentary lifestyle
d.​ Diabetes
36. Which is not widely frequently used for determining
26. Second most abundant protein in CSF? thyroid function:
a.​ Albumin a.​ ELISA
b.​ Transferrin b.​ RIA
c.​ Transthyretin c.​ LC-MS
d.​ Fibrinogen d.​ CLIA

27. Most abundant apolipoprotein in HDL? 37. Which of the following precedes GC/MS?
a.​ Apo-A1 a.​ Immunoassay
b.​ Apo-B b.​ Flocculation
c.​ Apo-E c.​ Agglutination
d.​ Apo-C2 d.​ Precipitation

28. When does blood sugar levels usually rise? 38. Increased pCO2
a.​ After fasting a.​ Respiratory acidosis
b.​ Before meals b.​ Respiratory alkalosis
c.​ During and after meals c.​ Metabolic acidosis
d.​ Midnight d.​ Metabolic alkalosis

29. What increased result can be seen from a student 39. A patient’s ABG shows the following:
who’s been studying for an examination and hasn’t been ​ pH: High
eaten all day? ​ pCO2: Normal
a.​ Insulin ​ HCO3: High
b.​ Glucagon What is the most likely interpretation?
a.​ Respiratory acidosis
30. Danger Symbol b.​ Respiratory alkalosis
c.​ Metabolic acidosis
40. What is the concern when a patient is isolated in a
room with negative air pressure?
a.​ Airborne
b.​ Contact
c.​ Droplet

41. All are secretory serum enzymes, except:

a.​ Fibrinolysin
b.​ Peptidase
31. Method most commonly used in creatinine c.​ Transaminase
determination d.​ Cholinesterase
a.​ Uricase method
b.​ Nesslerization 42. What blood gas parameters measure the alveolar
c.​ Jaffe ventilation?
d.​ Kjeldahl a.​ PO2
b.​ PCO2
32. In serum protein electrophoresis, what can c.​ HCO3
differentiate monoclonal from polyclonal gammopathy? d.​ PH
a.​ Alpha-1 spike
b.​ Alpha-2 spike 43. In the liver, bilirubin is converted to:
c.​ Albumin spike a.​ Urobilinogen
d.​ Gamma globulin spike b.​ Urobilin
c.​ Bilirubin-albumin complex
33. Analytical tool used as a measure of uncertainty d.​ Bilirubin diglucuronide
a.​ Mean
b.​ Coefficient of Variation 44. Convert 0.5 dL to L
c.​ Standard Deviation a.​ 0.5
d.​ Variance b.​ 0.05
c.​ 0.005
34. Unique protein that is redissolved at 100 deg C but d.​ 0.00005
precipitates at 45-50 deg C is indicative of what
disease? 45. Convert 0.50 um to nm
a.​ Multiple myeloma a.​ 50
b.​ Multiple sclerosis b.​ 500
c.​ 0.5
35. With the exception of occupational settings, which of d.​ 5000
the following is the strongest indicator for mercury
consumption? 46. What is the reference method of glucose
a.​ Smelting determination
b.​ Pica a.​ Polarographic
c.​ Cosmetics b.​ Glucose oxidase
 MARCH 2025 MTLE RECALLS
c.​ Hexokinase
d.​ Potentiometric 57. Indicator of relative concentration
a.​ Dilution
47. What is the coupling enzyme utilized in hexokinase b.​ Dilution factor
method c.​ Estimate
a.​ G6PD d.​ Percent concentration
b.​ Glucose oxidase
c.​ Fructokinase 58. What is the ISE membrane specific to potassium
d.​ Glucose phosphatase a.​ Monactin and nonactin
b.​ Valinomycin
48. What method specific only for B-D glucose c.​ Aluminum glass silicate
a.​ Hexokinase d.​ Colomel
b.​ Potentiometric
c.​ Glucose oxidase 59. What analyte maintains colloidal pressure?
d.​ ISE a.​ Albumin
b.​ Sodium
49. To convert pCO2 to carbonic acid, the former should c.​ A1-antitrypsin
be multiplied by: d.​ A1-fibronectin
a.​ 10
b.​ 0.03 60. Recommended initial thyroid function test:
c.​ 2.14 a.​ Free thyroxine (FT4)
d.​ 6.54 b.​ Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
c.​ Total thyroxine (T4)
50. Which of the parameter indicates respiratory d.​ Triiodothyronine (T3)
acidosis?
a.​ Increased PCO2 61. Chylomicrons are present in which of the following
b.​ Increased HCO3 dyslipidemias?
c.​ Increased pH a.​ Familial hypercholesterolemia
d.​ Decreased PCO2 b.​ Hypertriglyceridemia
c.​ Deficiency in lipoprotein lipase activity
d.​ Familial hypoalphalipoproteinemia
51. What is the anticoagulant of choice for lipoprotein
measurement: 62. Transportation of 60-75% of the plasma cholesterol
a.​ Heparin is performed by:
b.​ EDTA a.​ Chylomicrons
c.​ Citrate b.​ Very low-density lipoproteins
d.​ Fluoride c.​ Low-density lipoproteins
d.​ High-density lipoproteins
52. How to convert BUN to urea
a.​ X 2.14 63. The most important buffer pair is the:
b.​ / 2.14 a.​ Phosphate/biphosphate pair
c.​ X 1.14 b.​ Hemoglobin/imidazole pair
d.​ /0.56 c.​ Bicarbonate/carbonic acid pair
d.​ Sulfate/bisulfate pair
53. What is the analyte that maintain osmotic pressure
a.​ Potassium 64. 90% of the copper present in the blood is bound to:
b.​ Sodium a.​ Transferrin
c.​ Calcium b.​ Ceruloplasmin
d.​ Chloride c.​ Albumin
d.​ Cryoglobulin
54. What blood gas parameter measures alveolar
ventilation: 65. A critically ill patient becomes comatose. The
a.​ PCO2 physician believes the coma is due to hepatic failure.
b.​ PO2 The assay most helpful in this diagnosis is:
c.​ HCO3- a.​ Ammonia
d.​ PH b.​ ALT
c.​ AST
55. Which of the following is a marker of preterm d.​ GGT
delivery:
a.​ Albumin 66. The protein that has the highest dye-binding capacity
b.​ A1-fetal protein is:
c.​ Fibronectin a.​ Albumin
d.​ Osteocalcin b.​ Alpha globulin
c.​ Beta globulin
56. The measurement of BUN using spectro with an d.​ Gamma globulin
amount of 1016 mg/dL is equivalent to which of the
following: 67. Which of the following represents the end product of
a.​ Nitrogen purine metabolism in humans?
b.​ Urea a.​ AMP and GMP
c.​ Creatinine b.​ DNA and RNA
d.​ Uric Acid c.​ Allantoin
 MARCH 2025 MTLE RECALLS
d.​ Uric acid c.​ Acetate
d.​ Oxidase
68. All of the following alters glucose levels, except:
a.​ Prolonged exercise 7. Protozoan that has 8 nuclei
b.​ Circadian rhythm a.​ E. histolytica
c.​ Diurnal rhythm b.​ E. coli
d.​ Vegetable diet c.​ H. nana
69. What is not an acute phase protein? d.​ E. nana

a.​ Vitamin B12 8. Which hepatitis virus is transmitted via fecal-oral

b.​ Serum amyloid A route?
c.​ CRP a.​ HAV
d.​ Basta acute phase din b.​ HBV
c.​ HCV
70. Marker for thyroid autoantibody d.​ HDV

a.​ Tg Ab 9. Not included in counting of Plasmodium spp.

b.​ Tg a.​ Sporozoites
c.​ T3 b.​ Merozoites
d.​ T4 c.​ Gametocytes
d.​ Trophozoites
71. Type 1 hypersensitivity protects from
10. Specimen of choice for rickettsiae
a.​ Virus a.​ Stool
b.​ Bacteria b.​ Urine
c.​ Parasite c.​ Blood
d.​ Fungi d.​ Tissue

72. Unit of C3 11. Most significant in soft tissue abscess

a.​ P. aeruginosa
a.​ % b.​ E. coli
b.​ mg/dl c.​ Staphylococcus pyogenes
c.​ Microliter d.​ Streptococcus pneumoniae
d.​ U/mL
12. TSI A/A with swarming (shortened, mahaba tanong
to)
MICROBIOLOGY AND PARASITOLOGY a.​ Proteus
b.​ Enterobacter
1.​ All of the following can be seen on a blood smear c.​ Salmonella
except: d.​ Citrobacter
a.​ Plasmodium spp.
b.​ Filarial worms 13. Large lateral spine
c.​ S. stercoralis a.​ S. haematobium
b.​ S. japonicum
2. First stain used in AFB c.​ S. mansoni
a.​ Carbol fuchsin d.​ S. mekongi
b.​ Eosin
c.​ Methylene blue 14. Most ideal to be used for mass fecal examination?
d.​ Methanol a.​ FEC
b.​ Kato Katz
3. Test to differentiate Neisseria from Acinetobacter c.​ SEC
a.​ Catalase d.​ Scotch tape technique
b.​ Indole
c.​ Oxidase 15. How many percent of formalin is used in preserving
d.​ Coagulase protozoan cyst?
a.​ 0.5
4. Campylobacter grows optimally at what temperature? b.​ 0.05
a.​ 25 deg C c.​ 1
b.​ 35 deg C d.​ 10
c.​ 37 deg C
d.​ 42 deg C 16. Enterobius picture

5. Specimen of choice for VZV

a.​ Serum
b.​ Blood
c.​ Vesicular lesion
d.​ Biopsy

6. Test used to differentiate E. coli from Shigella

a.​ Acetamide
b.​ Catalase
 MARCH 2025 MTLE RECALLS
17. A patient suspected with an otitis media infection a.​ Cary-Blair
should be tested with: b.​ Stuart’s
a.​ Optochin disk c.​ Buffered Glycerol Saline
b.​ Hippurate hydrolysis d.​ 10% Formalin with PVA
c.​ CAMP
d.​ Bacitracin 27. Distinct operculum, small knob / protrusion
a.​ Clonorchis
18. Actinomycetes are: b.​ Heterophyes
a.​ Gram positive cocci c.​ D. latum
b.​ Gram negative cocci d.​ P. westermani
c.​ Gram positive bacilli, facultative
d.​ Gram positive cocci, anaerobic 28. The only cestode egg with operculum
a.​ D. latum
19. Symptoms of food poisoning due to S. aureus occurs b.​ D. caninum
within: c.​ D. medinensis
a.​ 2-6 hrs d.​ H. nana
b.​ 8-10 hrs
c.​ 12-24 hrs 29. How many scotch tape test for E. vermicularis are
d.​ 72 hrs needed in order to be considered as negative?
a.​ 1
20. Which is not included in water quality testing? b.​ 2
a.​ Thermophilic coliform c.​ 3
b.​ pH d.​ 4
c.​ Salinity
d.​ Presence of residual chlorine 30. Plasmodium spp with the longest incubation period
a.​ P. malariae
21. Gram positive bacilli with rectangular ends and b.​ P. vivax
bamboo pole appearance c.​ P. ovale
a.​ Corynebacterium d.​ P. falciparum
b.​ Clostridium
c.​ Bacillus 31. Specimen for Norovirus
d.​ Listeria a.​ Urine
b.​ Blood
22. Which of the following is under BSL 2? c.​ Stool
a.​ Hantavirus
b.​ S. aureus 32. Correctly matched (non-verbatim)
c.​ E. coli a.​ Throat swab : Metapneumovirus
d.​ MTB b.​ Tissue : Arbovirus

23. Clostridium perfringens can be identified on blood

agar due to which unique hemolytic pattern? (twice 33. Non-fastidious media
asked, binaligtad lang) a.​ Basal media
a.​ Beta hemolysis b.​ Selective media
b.​ Alpha hemolysis c.​ Differential media
c.​ Double zone of hemolysis d.​ Transport media
d.​ No hemolysis
34. In which stool are trophozoites seen when a patient
24. If fungal meningitis was suspected which of the has Giardiasis?
following must be done? a.​ Watery
a.​ India ink b.​ Soft
b.​ Gram stain c.​ Formed
c.​ GS + India ink d.​ Hard
d.​ AFS + India ink
35. What should be seen in order to make a definitive
25. Which parasite does not require an intermediate host diagnosis for D. latum infection?
to complete its life cycle? a.​ Proglottid
a.​ T. saginata b.​ Neck
b.​ S. japonicum c.​ Ova
c.​ C. sinensis d.​ Tail
d.​ H. nana
36. In E. granulosus infection, humans are ____
26. Not used as a transport medium for Vibrio: a.​ Definitive host
 MARCH 2025 MTLE RECALLS
b.​ Intermediate host d.​ Acetamide utilization
c.​ Accidental host
46. What is not used for the direct stool examination?
37. Anticoagulant used for viral sample
a.​ Sodium citrate a.​ (Incomplete) Methylene blue
b.​ Heparin b.​ Potassium Hydroxide
c.​ EDTA c.​ Iodine
d.​ Oxalate d.​ Saline

38. All are sheathed except 47. What mycobacterium is not appropriate for ast?( non
a.​ M. oozardi verbatim)
b.​ W. bancrofti
c.​ Loa loa a.​ M.kansasii
d.​ B. malayi b.​ M.avium
c.​ M.scrofulaceum
39. Least used in detecting Chlamydia d.​ M.marinum
a.​ Serology
48. What type of mycobacteria produces only pigment
b.​ Culture
when exposed to light?
c.​ Microscopy
d.​ Biochemical reactions-
a.​ Scrotochromogen
b.​ Rapid grower
40. Refers to changes that result in observably reduced
c.​ Photochromogen
susceptibility of an organism to a particular antimicrobial
d.​ I forgot
agent.
a.​ Clinical resistance 49. Can be found on px stool D. latum
b.​ Biologic resistance
c.​ Intrinsic resistance a.​ Head
d.​ Microorganism-mediated b.​ Neck
c.​ Tail
41. Refers to antimicrobial resistance from genetically d.​ Eggs
encoded traits of the microorganism.
a.​ Clinical resistance 50. Box car morphology
b.​ Biologic resistance
c.​ Intrinsic resistance a.​ Bacillus
d.​ Microorganism-mediated b.​ Corynebacterium
c.​ Listeria
42. Trematode with Small lateral spine d.​ …

a.​ S.haematobium
b.​ S.mekongi CLINICAL MICROSCOPY
c.​ S.japonicum
d.​ S.mansoni 1.The 1st 4-5ml is for what tube for synovial fluid

43. How to report budding yeast cell? a.​ Sodium fluoride

b.​ Non anticoagulated
a.​ Yeast/LPF c.​ EDTA
b.​ Presence of yeast cell d.​ Sodium heparin
c.​ Yeast cell ++
d.​ Yeast cell/HPF 2. What should be used to verify CSF that is suspected
with fungal meningitis?
44. What is the most commonly used permanent stain
for stool smear? a.​ India ink only
b.​ Acid fast stain
a.​ Wheatly trichrome c.​ Gram stain and India ink
b.​ Acid fast stain d.​ Acid fast and india ink
c.​ Gram stain
d.​ Iron hematoxylin 3. A type of microscope to distinguish RBC that can still
detect even hemolyze rbc? (Non-verbatim)
45. What test differentiate E.coli from Shigella?
a.​ Inverted
a.​ Bile esculin b.​ Polarizing
b.​ Bile solubility c.​ Phase contrast
c.​ Acetate utilization d.​ Bright field
 MARCH 2025 MTLE RECALLS
2.​ Next of kin if unable to make decision
HEMATOLOGY a.​ Cousin
b.​ Guardian
1.​ Slight hemolysis will mostly affect? c.​ Common partner in law
a.​ MCH d.​ Mother in law
b.​ MCV
c.​ MCHC 3. Hair spray fixative in pap smear is?
d.​ RDW a.​ Water soluble
b.​ Alcohol soluble
BB
1.​ Which of the following is performed as screening 4. Ano raw po pang hugas sa excess hematoxylin sa
daw sa donors… EXCEPT pap smear?
a.​ Anti HBs a.​ Tap water
b.​ CMV b.​ Deioinized water
c.​ HCV c.​ Acid alcohol
d.​ HIV d.​

2. ..APR that restricts release of iron

a.​ Transferrin
b.​ Ferritin
c.​ Hepcidin

3. Reagent that does NOT destroy Kell Ag

a.​ Zzap
b.​ Glycine edta
c.​ Dtt
d.​ G- - - phosphate

4. Fisher race for R1

a.​ DCe
b.​ DcE
c.​ DCE

5. Px for ABO/Rh phenotyping… there are no

alloantibodies detected. Next step..
a.​ Repeat the test
b.​ …
c.​ …
d.​ No further testing

6. Best way to prepare leukoreduced RBCs

a.​ ..
b.​ ..
c.​ Wash
d.​ Filter

7. How to prepare platelet conc.?

a.​ Light spin
b.​ Hard spin
c.​ 2 cycles
d.​ 3 cycles

HISTOPATH, MTL

1.​ [Non-verbatim] The Philippine Qualification

Framework should include the following EXCEPT:
a.​ Knowledge, skills, and values
b.​ Attitude
c.​ Application
d.​ Degree of Independence