Above 1000 Questions

Gaaffilee COC 100 ol Kan qabate

Instrutctor;- Merga Abuche(BSc,BA,MBA)

COC TRAINER
VERSIO 1

PROJECT1. MATCHING A

1. Analyzing, opportunities, selecting, targeting and managing efforts

2. Process of searching potential buyer for company offering

3. Point of sale equipment

4. A collection of related records

5. Professional development opportunities

6. Factors affecting the achievement of work objectives

7. Building mutual satisfying linkage with key partner

8. Producing individually differentiated goods

9. Wants for specific products backed by an ability to pay

10. The process by which an individual selects and interprets Information’s inputs to create a
meaningful image

11. The d/ce b/ne prospective customers expectation of all benefits And costs of an offering

12. Price largely depend on completions

13. Psycho price

14. Handling customers loyalty by low price for high quality p/s

15. Basic human requirement

16. New product and new market

17. Demo

18. Marketing

19. Product

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20. Revenue

A. A sales presentation of your p/s

B. Sales force
C. The act of promoting /advertising your product/service
D. A company income or earnings
E. Field
F. Need
G. Personal study
H. Relation marketing
I. 599.99 Br
J. 7000.00 Br
K. Diversification
L. Numerical display board
M. Customers perceived value
N. Going on price
O. Price cut off
P. File
Q. Unforeseen incident
R. Customization
S. Marketing planning
T. Niche market
U. Prospecting
V. Marketing intelligence systems

W. Value pricing

X. Perception

Y. Demand

Z. Want

Part 2.Choose the best answer from the given alternatives.

1. In marketing process the time of exchange there must be: -
A) each party has something that might be of value to the other party
B) at least two parties exist party
C) each party is capable of communication and delivery
D) each party is free to accept or reject the exchange offer
E) All F.None
2 . Of the following one is wrong definitions about marketing Management
A) It is social and managerial process

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B) It is business activities that generate revenue/profit
C) it is creation and delivery of standard of living to the society
D) It is the process of planning & executing, the conception of pricing, promotion and
distribution of ideas, goods and services
E) None G.all
3. ____is desires for specific products that are backed by ability, willingness and access to
purchasing power.
A) want C) demand
B) need D)all
E) A&B F.none
4. ____Is states of deprivation of some basic satisfactions of human?
A) want C) need
B)demand D) Product E) all F.none
5. Among the following marketing philosophy (concepts) that only focuses on the quality,
innovate feature and superiority of the product.
A) production concept /philosophy C) marketing concept
B) product concept/Philosophy D) selling concept E) societal marketing concept
6. Societal marketing philosophy mostly focuses on _____
A) societal well being C) Sustainable economic development
B) customers satisfactions D) environmental protection E) All F.none
7. One is not macro marketing environment of the company/organization?
A) Economic environment C) Socio-cultural environment
B) Political environment D) technological environment E) Publics
8. Of the following one is the internal(micro) environments of the organization/company?
A) Competitors C) Financial intermidiaries
B) suppliers D) All of the above
9. Among customers purchasing (buying) behaviors social classes that have high purchasing
power of product
A) upper-upper class B)middle-middle class
C) lower-lower class D)lower-upper class E)all F.None

10. Among the following one is not deteriminants of consumers buying behavior
A) Income B) Social class C) Religion
D) Family size E) Income F) None
11. Consumers buying behavior is highly involved in purchasing the product and sees little
difference in the brands of the product.
A) Habitual purchasing behavior C) Variety seeking buying behavior
B) Dissonance reducing buying behavior D) Complex buying behavior E) All
12. The field of ______ studies how individuals, groups, organizations select, buy, use, and
dispose of goods, services, ideas or experiences to satisfy their needs and desires.
A) Marketing C) Consumer behavior
B) Consumerism D) Consumer Goods E) All
13. Among the following one is not the importance of promotion A) To Build an image B)
creating awareness for new products C) locating where products can be purchased D) To creat
status quo E) All

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14. In consumers marketing segmentation, segmenting customers based on individuals life styles,
personality, attitude
A) Demographic segmentation C) Behavioral segmentation
B) Geographic segmentation D) Psychographic segmentation E) all of the above
15. Among the following one is not Demographic segmentation of marketing
A) Income C) Religion
B) B) Social class D) Family size E) Usage rate F.A and B
1. In marketing communications tools total marketing approach by which a producing firm
builds the images of the product with in the minds of customers is known as
A) Market positioning C) Targeting marketing
B) Market segmentation D) all of the above
2. _____is the process of selecting one or more market segments to enter
A) positioning C) targeting
B) segmentation D) Mass marketing
3. Among the following one is not product A) Place B) Service C) Ideas D) Goods E) none
4. Among the following one is not consumer goods.
A) shopping goods C) specialty goods
B) convenient goods D) unsought goods E) Materials & parts
5. The advantages of product packaging is
A) to identify the product C) serves as sales tools
B) to protect from damage and theft D) Serves as information tools E) All of the above
6. The set of all products offered for sale by a company is a called _____
A) product mix C) Product depth
B) Product line D) All E) None
7. ______ is any paid form of non-personal, oral and / or visual openly sponsor-identified
message concerning goods, services or ideas.
A) Advertising C) Publicity
B) Sales promotion D) Public relations E) All
8. All of the following are accurate descriptions of concept of marketing, EXCEPT which
one
A. Marketing is the creation of value for customers.
B. Marketing is managing profitable customer relationships.
C. Marketing involves satisfying customers' needs.
D. Marketing is used by for-profit and not-for-profit organizations
9. The set of marketing tools a firm uses to implement its marketing strategy is called
A. Promotion mix
B. Product mix
C. Marketing mix
D. Marketing effort
E. A and C
10. Of the following, which is the most important concept of modern marketing?
A. Customer relationship management

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 B. Societal marketing
C. Consumer-generated marketing
D. Properly trained salespeople
E. E.all
11. From the following marketing concept, which one is balance consumer wants, society’s
interests and company profits?
A. Product concept
B. Marketing concept
C. Societal marketing concept
D. Selling/sales concept
27. Which element of the marketing mix includes the distribution of products?
A. Product
B. Price
C. Place
D. Promotion
E. None F.all
28. In a SWOT analysis, SWOT stands for
A) Strategies, weaknesses, obligations, threats
B) Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, threats
C) Strengths, work requirements, opportunities, time
D) Strategies, worth, obligations, time
29. _________ is defined as the variety of marketing communications an organization
utilizes.
A) Promotional mix
B) Personal selling
C) Advertising
D) Publicity
30. Marketing intermediaries NOT include –
A) Physical distributors
B) Marketing service agencies
C) Financial instruments
D) Financial intermediaries
31. The following are the objectives of promotion except:
A) To deliver goods on time
B) To support sales increases
C) To create awareness
D) To create an image
32. Land Rover is a European manufacturer of bicycles. It makes bikes especially designed
for men and for women. It also makes bikes that are designed for city riding, mountain
riding, and racing. By dividing the market for its bicycles into several small groups, it is
engaging in:
A) Market segmentation
B) Market aggregation
C) Product diversification
D) Market development

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 33. What is another name for the practice of introducing a new product at a high price for a
brief period, in the hopes of recouping production costs?
A. Penetration pricing
B. Skimming pricing
C. Cost plus pricing
D. Markup pricing
34. ________ is defined as the customer's evaluation of the differences between all the
benefits and all the costs of a marketing offer relative to those of competing offers.
A. Customer equity
B. Customer satisfaction
C. Customer evangelism
D. Customer-perceived value
35. A person's buying choices are influenced by four major psychological factors. Which is
NOT one of these factors?
A. Motivation
B. Perception
C. Beliefs & Attitude
D. None

36. When consumers are highly involved with the purchase of an expensive product and they
perceive significant differences among brands, they most likely will undertake ________.
A. Habitual buying behavior
B. Complex buying behavior
C. Reflective buying behavior
D. Variety-seeking buying behavior
37. A shoe company uses ads featuring the members of a country music band with the hope
that the band's fans will see them wearing the company's shoes and want to wear the
same shoes. The shoe company is hoping that fans of the band view the band as a
________.
A. Membership group
B. Reference group
C. Status symbol
D. Subculture
38. Your marketing department is currently researching the size, density, location, age, and
occupations of your target market. Which environment is being researched?
A. Demographic
B. Psychographic
C. Geographic
D. Cultural

39. Which of the following is NOT a type of factor in a company's macro-environment?

A. Demographic
B. Economic
C. Technological
D. Competitive

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 40. You are directed to study the demographic, economic, natural, technological, political,
and cultural factors that are larger societal forces affecting your company. What are you
studying?
A. The macro-environment
B. The micro-environment
C. The Internal environment
D. The global environment
41. Which of the following terms is used to describe the factors and forces outside marketing
that affect marketing management's ability to build and maintain successful relationships
with target customers?
A. The marketing mix elements
B. The marketing environment
C. The cultural environment
D. Economic environment
42. Which of the following are the four broad groups of consumer segmentation criteria?
A. Organisational size, demographic, behavioural variables, and income
B. Behavioural, psychological, demographical, and geographic
C. Behavioural-, gender- age, and industry- type variables.
D. Psychographic, sociological, economical and price variables.
43. Introducing a new product at a price low enough to attract a large share of the market is
called:
A. Skimming pricing
B. Psychological pricing
C. Penetration pricing
D. Geographic pricing
44. Branding is concerned with ____________ component of 4P’s
A) Promotion
B) Place
C) Price
D) Product
45. Narrowly focused markets that are defined by some special interest are termed as
A) Target markets
B) Mass markets
C) Niche markets
D) Differentiated markets
46. Goods that customers usually purchase frequently with minimum efforts are ____goods.
A) Convenience
B) Shopping
C) Specialty
D) Unsought
E) All

47. The type of customer market that buy goods and services for further processing is called
a:
A) Business market

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 B) Consumer market
C) Government market
D) Retail market.
E) all
48. The groups within a company such as top management, finance, and R&D are called the
A) Macro-environment
B) Internal environment
C) Natural environment
D) Uncontrollable environment
E) all
49. The process of monitoring and analyzing the marketing environment of a company is
called:
A) Situational Analysis
B) Market Analysis
C) Market Scanning
D) Environmental Scanning
E) all
50. A group of products that are physically similar is called:
A) A product line
B) A product mix
C) A product concept
D) A product item
E) none
51.The term e-commerce includes:
a. Electronic trading of Physical goods and intangibles such as information

b.The electronic provision of services such as after sales support or online legal advice

c.All the steps involved in trade, such as on-line marketing ordering payment and support for
delivery.

d.All of the above

52.In Merchant wholesalers’ category, _____ provide a full set of services, whereas ______offer
fewer services to their suppliers and customers

a.Agents, Brokers

b.Full-service wholesalers, limited-service wholesalers

c.limited-service wholesalers, Full-service wholesalers d.Agents, limited-service wholesalers

e.Brokers, Full-service wholesalers

53,___________ a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer terms.

a.Market testing

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b.Concept development & testing

c.Marketing strategy

d.Idea screening

54.______ distribution task is performed when customers require delivery, repairs/ warranty.

a.Breaking bulk

b.Helping customers with advice and technical support

c.Providing customer service

d.All

55.Which branding strategy is used when product carry the name of the seller?

a.Corporate branding

b.Umbrella branding

c.Private branding

d.Cobranding

56.In which philosophy does the organization determine the needs, wants, and interests of target
markets to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than competitors in a
way that improves the consumer’s and the peoples well being?

a.Marketing Concept.

b.Economic Concept.

c.Management Concept.

d.None of the above.

57.Which one of the following is a correct statement about brand?

a.Branding is imperative when identity is lost due to homogeneity

b.The nucleus of branding seems to be uniformity

c.Brand plays a vital part in enhancing marketing and corporate performance

d.All of the above

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58 According to Boston Consulting Group (BCG) approach, the businesses and products
characterized with low market growth rate and low market share are referred as______

a.Stars.

b.Dogs

c.Cash cows

d.Question marks

e.None of the above

f.all

59. When some Habesha Brewery S.C) dealers in Debre Brhan complained about other Habesha
B).S.C) dealers on pricing, poor service & image, they are in ____type of conflict.

a.Vertical conflict

b.Horizontal conflict

c.Multichannel conflict

d.None of them

60. Which of the following is true about business market?

a.It includes commercial enterprises/profit making organizations

b.It involves Government agencies/ organizations

c.It consists institutional customers

d.All of the above

61. In _______ a child learns primarily by imitating the behavior of selected others, such as
family, friends and TV heroes.

a.Informal Learning

b.Formal learning

c.Technical Learning

d.All of the above

62.One of the following is the most important marketing -related constraints facing Africa’s
farmers, except.

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a.Low cost of production and marketing

b.Constrained access to credit.

c.limited availability of profitable new farm technologies to adopt and use sustainably

d.Poor market access and competitiveness conditions

63. Which of the following is true about the functions of Commodity Exchanges?

a.Price transparency

b.Price discovery

c.Reduced transaction costs

d.All of the above

64.There are many products that can’t be legally imported into most countries. Which one can’t
be imported in Ethiopia?

a.Counterfeit money.

b.Illicit drugs.

c.Espionage (spying) equipment.

d.All of the above

65.The sales force become a major part of the IMC mix, except?

a.Features & performance of the product needs personal demo & trial by the customer.

b.Final price is negotiated between buyer and seller

c.Product training and assistance needed by intermediaries

d.None

66.One of the following is not true about the role of Marketing Research.

a.Increase decision uncertainties.

b.Increase the probability of attaining the organization’s marketing objectives.

c.Provide management with relevant, accurate, reliable, valid, and current information

d.Helps the marketing manager link the marketing variables with the environment and the
consumers.

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67. _______includes the actors and forces outside marketing that affect marketing management’s
ability to build and maintain successful relationships with customers.

a.Marketing management

b.Marketing environment

c.Consumer behavior

d.Product decision

68._______is a written document requesting both authorization and funds to undertake a specific
research project.

a.Questionnaire

b.Research proposal

c.Data analysis

d.Abstract

69. Which of the following brand strategy occur when a company introduces additional items in
the same product category under the same brand name, usually with features?

a.Brand Extention

b.Line Extension

c.Multi Brand

d.New Brand

70. One of the following is not true about reasons of trade barriers in Protection of Local
Industry?

a.Reducing employment

b.Equalizing Cost and Price

c.Enhancing National Security

d.Protecting Infant Industry

71______ firm are known for having the largest market share and usually leads the other firms in
price changes, new-product introductions, distribution coverage, and promotional intensity.

a.Market leader

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b.Market challenger

c.Market follower

d.Market nicher

72. If you were the marketing manager of XX Beer S.C) and used common needs among buyers,
rather than on how buyers’ needs differ, to segment the market, you have employed
_____approach?

a.Undifferentiated strategy

b.Differentiated strategy

c.Concentrated strategy

d.One to one marketing

73._____________divides buyers into groups based on social class, lifestyle or personality

characteristics?

a.Geographic segmentation

b.Demographic segmentation

c.Behavioral segmentation

d.Psychographic segmentation

74.When each element in the population has a known & equal probability of selection, it’s
_______ sampling.

a.Simple random

b.Cluster

c.Systematic

d.Stratified

75. Market challengers choose ____ when they want to attack the strength part of the competitor.

a.Flank Attack

b.Frontal Attack

c.Encirclement Attack

d.Bypass Attack

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75.Which of the following are the desirable qualities for a brand name?

a.It should suggest something about the product's benefits & qualities

b.It should be easy to pronounce, recognize, and remember.

c.The brand name should be distinctive

d.All of the above

76.In the _______stage of the business buying process, the buyer invites qualified suppliers to
submit proposals.

a.Proposal solicitation

b.Information search

c.General need description

d.Need recognition

77.______is a type of buying decsion bavior where consumers are highly involved in a purchase
and perceive significant differences among brands, or when the product is expensive, risky,
purchased infrequently and highly self-expressive?

a.Variety seeking behavior

b.Dissonance reducing behavior

c.Habitual buying behavior

d.Complex buying behavior

78. When an earthquake occur in one locality and if local companies donated food and their sales
forces’ time to aid quake victims, what IMC tool is combined with personal selling?

a.Sales promotion

b.Public relation

c.Direct marketing

d.Advertising

79.For BGI, with similar case, what would be the mark-up price if BGI wants to earn a 20 per
cent mark-up on sales?

a.$15

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b.$17.5

c.$13.5

d.$19

80.The step in the selling process characterized by identifying qualified potential customers is--?

a.Presentation and demonstration

b.Closing

c.Approach

d.Prospecting

e.None

81.Which of the following are goods that the consumer does not know about or knows about but
does not normally think of buying?

a.Unsought Goods:

b.Shopping Goods

c.Specialty Goods

d.None o the above

82_____occurs when the consumer has high level of awareness and familiarity with the brand
and holds some strong, favorable, and unique brand association in memory.

a.Brand image

b.Customer based brand equity

c.Brand association

d.Brand awareness

83.Of the five generic service-quality dimensions, _____ is the ability to perform the promised
service dependably and accurately.

a.Reliability

b.Assurance

c.Empathy

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d.Responsiveness

84.If Mr. XX, a marketing manager of Dashen Beer S.C) set a price close to the upper limit of
value of utility as perceived by the industrial customer, he did set ______?

a.Price skimming

b.Price penetration

c.Product bundling

d.List prices

85._________is the difference between the benefits that the customer gains from owning and/or
using a product and the costs of obtaining the product.

a.Customer Value

b.Customer Satisfaction

c.Exchange

d.Transaction

86.Because of dramatic or adverse changes in the marketing environment, some brands are just
not worth saving. Their sources of brand equity may have essentially dried up, or, even worse,
damaging and difficult-to-change new associations may have been created. In the face of such
adversity, what management decisive is appropriate?

a.Retire or milk the brand.

b.Revitalize

c.Reinforcing

d.None of the above

87.Organization uses new product for different purpose. Which one is not the purpose?

a.To decrease market share

b.To appeal to new segment

c.To diversify in to new market

d.To maintain firm’s reputation

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88.Which of the following is a set of actions whose cumulative effect is to deprive investors of
their fundamental rights in the investment?

a.Confiscation

b.Expropriation

c.Creeping Expropriation

d Nationalization

89.Which of the following is a practice that requires a seller, as a condition of sale, to commit
contractually to reciprocate and undertake certain business initiatives that compensate and
benefit the buyer?

a.Cash in advance

b.Transfer pricing

c.Countertrade

d.Dumping

90.Which of the following is the right characteristics of a market structure

a.In Perfect competition no single firm has control over price

b.In monopoly market there is only one seller

c.Monopolistic competitors have the greatest price –selling freedom

d.All of the above

91.Where products or services are digital, the process of the transaction is digital and the
delivery agent is digital, which is referred to as:

a.Partial e-commerce

b.Brick-and-Mortar

c.Pure e-commerce

d.Click and Mortar.

92_______is a binding agreement between a seller and a buyer to make (seller) and to take
(buyer) delivery of the underlying commodity (or financial instrument) at a specified future date
with agreed upon payment terms.

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a.Futures contract

b.Forward contract

c.Option contract

d.Hedging

93.Where __ seek causal determination, prediction, and generalization of findings___ seek

illumination, understanding, and extrapolation to similar situations. Which one is true?

a.Quantitative researchers, Qualitative researchers

b.Qualitative researchers, Quantitative researchers

c.Questionnaire, Observation

d.In-depth interview, Focus group discussion

94.Which one is the practice of advertising the same product in the same way everywhere?

a.Standardized product

b.Standardized Personal selling

c.Standardized Publicity

d.None of the above

95.Which advertising is important with mature products to help maintain customer relationships
and keep customers thinking about the product?

a.Informative

b.Reminder

c.Persuasive

d.None Of the above

96.One of it consists all of the groups that have a direct (face-to-face) or indirect influence on a
person’s attitudes or behavior?

a.Reference groups.

b.Membership groups.

c.Aspiration groups.

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d.Dissociative groups.

97.The marketing task under ________ is analyzing why the market dislikes the product, &
focus on product redesign, lower prices, and more positive promotion to change the markets
beliefs and attitudes

a.No demand

b.Full demand

c.Overfull demand

d.Negative demand

98.Let us say that you have faced a declining sales volume and or market share and wants to cut
the costs associated with the SBU to improve the cash flow. What should be the deletion strategy
you have to employ to a product or business?

a.Line simplification

b.Harvesting

c.Divestment

d.Line addition

99.which of the following comprises a broad group of products intended for essentially similar
uses and having similar physical characteristics?

a.Product Mix

b.Product Length

c.Product Line

d.Product Depth

100._the degree to which the innovation appears superior to existing products.

a.Compatibility
b.Relative advantage
c.Complexity
d.Communicability
101.______is when consumers select goals based upon totally objective criteria such as size,
weight, price or miles per gallon.

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a.Emotional Motivation

b.Rational Motivation

c.Negative motivation

d.Positive motivation

102. The _____model was developed to represent the stages a salesperson must take a customer
through in the personal-selling process.

a.AIDA

b.Hierarchy of effect

c.Innovation adoption

d.Alternative response

103.Why will customers choose to do business with your firm instead of another company? This
fact discussed under one of the key elements of a business model, which is______?

a.Revenue model

b.Value proposition

c.Competitive environment

d.Market opportunity

104.Which of the following is an internal factors affecting pricing decision except?

a.Company's marketing objectives

b.Competitors

c.Marketing-mix strategy

d.Costs and organization

105.______ are traditional bound consumers who are suspicious only when it has become
something of a tradition itself.

a.Innovators

b.Early adaptors

c.Laggards

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d.Early majority

106.Which one of the following is the primary reason for countertrade?

a.Countertrade provides a trade financing alternative to those countries that have international
debt and liquidity problems

b.Countertrade relationships may provide developing countries and MNCs with access to new
markets

c.A and B

d.None of the above

106. Suppose BGI Company had the following costs and expected sales of St.George Beer, with
Variable cost of $8, Fixed cost of $300,000, and Expected unit sales 50,000, what would be the
unit cost?

a.$14

b.$20

c.$12

d.None of the above

107.Which of the following is the mental process through which an individual passes from first
learning about an innovation to final adoption?

a.Innovation process

b.Adoption process

c.Trial process

d.All of the above

e.all

f.Aand C

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VERSION 2

Project1

1.Which strategy is appropriate? if there is latent demand

A. Conversional

B. Developmental marketing

C. Re stimulation

D. Synchro marketing

E.All

2 . Among the following types of behavior consumers are highly involved with an expensive,

infrequent, or risky purchase, but see little difference among brands.

A. Dissonance reducing buying behavior

B. Habitual buying behavior

C. Variety seeking buying behavior

D. Complex buying behavior

5. Identify the wrong one

A. Satisfied customers tells 3 people

B. Habitual buying behavior occurs under conditions of low consumer involvement and

little significant brand difference

C. A motivated person is ready to act

D. Social class is determined by a single factor

6. Insurance could be categorized under:

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A. Convenience Goods

B. Unsought goods

C. Shopping goods

D. Specialty goods

7. Based on the customers who are buying the product, products can be classified as:

A. Convenience & raw material

B. Convenience & shopping

C. Durable & non-durable

D. Consumer & industrial

8. All are standards used by producers to check the channel members performance except

A. Growth and profit record

B. Sales quota

C. Customer delivery time

D. Treatment of damaged and lost goods

9. The fundamental reason that you are buying a refrigerator is for getting cooling and

preservation services. Which product level does this stands for?

A. Augmented product level

B. Expected level

C. Basic product

D. Core Benefit

10. A price adjustment strategy allows reducing price of the product to reward customer for

certain responses such as paying early, volume purchase, off-season buying etc.

A. Psychological pricing

B. Discounts and allowance

C. Geographic pricing

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D. Segmented pricing

11. Which of the following refers to sellers being preoccupied with their own product and losing

sight of underlying consumer needs?

A. Selling myopia

B. Value proposition

C. Marketing myopia

D. The product concept

12. Which one of the following is not the variable in the demographic environment

A. educational levels

B. cultural shift

C. household patterns

D. mobility trend

13. Which of the following shows the right order of the motivation process?

A. Tension Unfulfilled needs Behavior Drive goal

B. Unfulfilled needs Tension Drive Behavior goal

C. Unfulfilled needs Tension Behavior Drive goal

D. Tension Drive Unfulfilled needs Goal Behavior

14. Identify the correct statement.

A. Innate needs are needs that we learn in response to our culture or environment.

B. Every individual has needs

C. All behaviors are not goal oriented

D. Acquired needs are needed to sustain biological life

15. Which of the following is not part of key characteristics of consumer motivation?

A. Motivation involves Direction component

B. Motivation involves energy component

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C. Consumer motivation has no Valance

D. Consumer motivation can be Hidden/Overt

16. Motivation is Dynamic because of the following Characteristics of need and goal, except

A. Needs and Goals Are Constantly Changing

B. Needs Are Never Fully Satisfied

C. New Needs Emerge as Old Needs Are Satisfies

D. Goals never substitute

17. If Mr. Bamlaku develops a desire to buy a car with the intention of avoiding the traffic jam,

he is facing every morning. The arousal of his motive is said to be,

A. Physiological Arousal

B. Environmental Arousal

C. Emotional Arousal

D. Cognitive Arousal

18. Mrs. Senait was an employee of ABC Company. After ten years of working experience in the

company she realized that she needs an automobile to ease her job. The arousal of motivation

is said to be;

A. Physiological Arousal

B. Environmental Arousal

C. Emotional Arousal

D. Cognitive Arousal

19. Which one of the following are individual factors?

A. Social class

B. Reference group

C. Occupation

D. Culture

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20. Which one of the following are characteristics of extensive problem solving?

A. Level of information about the market is none or very little

B. Price knowledge and experience is high

C. Frequency of purchase is very high

D. Perceived risk is very low

21. Before using secondary data the research must see that they possess the characteristics of

A. Reliability

B. Suitability

C. Adequacy

D. All Of The Above

22. Which one of the following may not be criteria for good research?

A. Clearly defined purpose

B. Sufficient detail of research procedures

C. Report with complete frankness

D. Unrestricted conclusion by the data

23. In which research types the researcher has no control over the variables?

A. Descriptive research

B. Analytical research

C. Applied research

D. Fundamental research

24. A definite plan determined before any data are actually collected for obtaining a sample from
a given population is

A. Sample design

B. Sample plan

C. Census

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D. Sampling technique

25. Research design in case of exploratory research studies is not:

A. Means of finding out „what is happening‟

B. To seek new insights

C. The discovery of ideas

D. About describing the characteristics of a particular individual

26. The research method that is related to some abstract idea(s) or theory is

A. Conceptual research

B. Empirical research

C. Qualitative research

D. Quantitative research

27. Censes survey is preferred over sapling survey in cases/situations of the population is

A. Vast data

B. Infinite population

C. Homogeneity

D. Finite and heterogeneous

28. Which one is different among the following?

A. Quota sampling

B. Simple random sampling

C. Systematic sampling

D. Stratified sampling

30. Which of the following is basically getting into different versions of the same base product

on the same market?

A. Product extension

B. Market extension

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C. Brand diversification

D. Line extension

31. When brand management becomes the heart of marketing then which one becomes the heart

of brand management.

A. Owner‟s equity

B. Brand asset

C. Brand equity

D. Brand Value

32. _________________is a structural approach to assessing the sources and outcomes of brand

equity and the manner in which marketing activities create brand value.

A. Revitalizing Brand

B. Brand Hierarchy

C. Brand value chain

D. Reinforcing Brand

33. Brand identity is followed by _________, which is a reflection of what marketers planned to
send to the public.

A. Brand value

B. Advertising

C. Brand image

D. Brand personality

34. Introduction of more brands and extensions leads to __ with no new benefits to consumers.

A. Higher cost

B. Brand proliferation

C. Greater revenue

D. Increased competition

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35. ___________is a means of summarizing branding strategy by displaying the number and

nature of brand elements across the firm‟s products.

A. Brand-product mix

B. Brand line

C. Brand Hierarchy

D. Brand portfolio

36.. Which of the following is a not tangible characteristic of brand?

A. Package

B. Brand image

C. Price

D. physical product

37. ___________ is the extent to which customers stick to a particular brand

A. Brand loyalty

B. Perceived Quality

C. Brand awareness

D. Brand Association

37. One of the following is not reasons for service failure.

A. Incorrect outcome

B. Caring employee

C. Not being reliable

D. service delivered too lately

38. One of the following is not Benefit of Electronic channels

A. High cost

B. customer convenience

C. Customer choice

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D. Quick customer feed back

38. Service outlets licensed by a principal to deliver a unique service it had created is called:

A. Electronic channel

B. Franchise

C. Broker

D. Agent

39. The process of creating touch points and defining how they interact with each other and with
the user is called:

A. Service Design

B. position mapping

C. Operational design

D. Blueprint

40. All of following are source of both desired and predicted service expectoration except:

A. Word of Mouth

B. perceived service alternative

C. Past experience

D. Explicit service promise

41._______encompasses the firm‟s advertising, personal selling and other form of

communication.

A. Explicit service promise

B. Enduing service intensifier

C. Implicit service promise

D. personal Needs

42. Charging customers different prices for essentially the same service is called

A. Price discrimination

B. Complementary

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C. Supply and demand.

D. Substitutes.

43. Which of the following is not a benefit of customer satisfaction?

A. The firm is more insulated from price competition.

B. The firm provides a positive work environment for its employees

C. Positive word-of-mouth is generated from satisfied customers

D. Satisfied customers make purchases more frequently

44. The primary role of a service firm for the customer in the communication mix is to ___.

A. Confuse customers.

B. Oppose the competitor s claim

C. Inform and remind customers

D. Persuade the dealers

45. One of the advantages of requiring employees to wear uniforms is that it reduces the
customers‟ perception of ___.

A. Intangibility

B. Heterogeneity.

C. Inseparability

D. Socialization.

46. Minimizing the amount of role conflict and role ambiguity experienced by employees will

help reduce the size of this gap is known as ___.

A. Knowledge gap.

B. Delivery gap.

C. Standards gap

D. Communications gap

47. The unique service characteristic that deals specifically with the inability to inventory
services are.

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A. Inseparability

B. Homogeneity

C. Intangibility

D. Perishability

48. __________ enables internet users to share files and computer resources directly without

having to go through a central web server.

A. C2C

B. P2P

C. B2B

D. C2B

49. An E-commerce feature which relates to “Internet/Web technology is available everywhere:

at work, at home, and elsewhere via mobile phone devices, anytime” is___

A. Universal standard

B. Interactivity

C. Customization

D. Ubiquity

E. Richness

50. A payment card that enables its holder to charge items (and pay later):

A. Debit card

B. charge card

C. credit card

D. ATM card

51. One of the following E-business models is information update and entertainment provider.

A. E-tailors

B. Transaction breakers

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C. Market creators

D. Content providers

E. Auction providers

52. ________ is a user file that records the user‟s activities on a company‟s website from the
computer log.

A. Transaction log

B. Web bugs

C. Spyware

D. Web Mining

Project6

53. Among the following points, which one precedes all others in setting of a plan?

A. Analyzing internal and external environment

B. Determining means to be used and allocating resources

C. Checking on the progress of planned activities

D. Implementing the plans

E. Corporate Mission Or Goal

54. This method of sales forecasting is the oldest and One or more of the executives, who are

experienced and have good knowledge of the market factors make out the expected sales.

A. Sales force composite

B. Consumer survey panel

C. Jury of Executive

D. Opinion Expert Opinion.

56. Genet wants to know how well his company did last quarter in relation to other companies in

its industry. She needs to conduct a ……………………………….

A. Sales volume analysis.

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B. Market share analysis.

C. SWOT analysis.

D. Customer analysis.

57. Which factor is the internal sales management environment?

A. Skill of the sales force

B. the social and cultural factor

C. Technology

D. Government regulations

E. Rising interest rate

58. The maximum possible sales available for an entire industry during a stated period of time is

A. Market potential

B. Sales potential

C. Sales forecast

D. Sales budget

E. Sales Strategies

60. Which one of the following is not the advantage of Geographical structure base of sales force

organization?

A. It‟s simple

B. Encourages the development of personal friendships

C. It reduces travelling expenses

D. Salesperson is required to sell the full range of the company‟s products.

61. Find the different one as far as source of recruitment is concerned?

A. Employee Transfer

B. Direct Unsolicited Applications

C. Employees of Customers

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D. Sales forces of Noncompeting Companies

E. Sales Forces of Competing Companies

62. The natural tendency for international marketers to base their judgments and marketing

strategies in foreign markets upon their experiences in their home culture is best described as

the:

A. Domestic market extension

B. Multi-domestic market extension

C. International marketing concept

D. Global marketing orientation.

63. The action taken by the government to safeguard local infant industries refers to_______

A. Import control

B. Expropriation

C. Confiscation

D. Export control

64. ______________ is components of logistics system that Provides place utility

A. Packaging

B. Facility structure,

C. Order management,

D. Transportation,

E. Inventory

65. Among the following factors one is not fundamental to transportation performance

A. Volume

B. Cost

C. Speed

D. Consistency

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66. _____is an economic driver which refers to how product case dimensions fit into

transportation equipment

A. Density

B. Stowability

C. Liability

D. Handling

67. All are forward flow of activity from the company to the customer except

A. Physical movement of product

B. Title transfer,

C. Product promotion

D. Payment

68. A one-level channel in consumer market contains all of the following except

A. Producer

B. Consumer

C. Wholesaler

D. Retailer.

69. All of the following channel members (intermediaries) exist both in consumer and industrial
market except

A. Agent

B. Producer

C. Retailer

D. Customer

70. This method calls upon marketers to develop their budget by identifying the objectives of
sales function and then ascertaining the selling and related tasks to achieve the objective.

A. Affordable method

B. Rule of thumb method

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C. Competitive parity method.

D. Objective and task method

71. This method of sales forecasting is the oldest and One or more of the executives, who are
experienced and have good knowledge of the market factors make out the expected sales.

A. Sales force composite

B. Consumer survey panel

C. Jury of Executive

D. Opinion Expert Opinion.

72. Which factor is the internal sales management environment?

A. Skill of the sales force

B. the social and cultural factor

C. Technology

D. Government regulations

E. Rising interest rate

73. The person who intends to buy a product or service and is capable of doing so is termed

A. Customer

B. consumer

C. Agent

D. wholesaler

Project7

74. A type of marketing audit which deals with the firms overall structure is ___

A. Organization area audit

B. Marketing productivity area audit

C. Marketing environment audit

D. Planning and control system area audit

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E. Marketing function area audit

75. Which one of the following is not true about the product life cycle

A. The declining product is not necessarily unprofitable

B. There is intense rivalry for a mature market

C. Law prices will be vital in the introduction stage

D. Not all products follow the S-shaped curve

E. Addition of new channel is vital in the growth stage

76. One of the following is not an area of concern for employees as corporate publics

A. Reward of pride

B. Challenge

C. Equity

D. Monetary reward

77. A strategy that amounts to offering middle of the market products at the best price with the
least inconvenience.

A. Customer intimacy

B. Operational excellence

C. Product leadership

D. Preemptive

E. Cost leadership

78. Which one of the following activities comes first in designing control systems?

A. Taking corrective actions

B. Obtaining the needed data

C. Setting standards of performance

D. Specifying the necessary feedback data

E. Evaluating feedback data

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79. One of the following is not among corporate publics.

A. Competitive

B. Supplies

C. Employees

D. Government

E. Competitive

80. Which one of the following is not among the planner‟s responsibility

A. Performer

B. Scheduling

C. Administrative

D. Directive

81. One of the following is not true about marketing

A. Marketing is about only selling and promotion

B. Marketing is characterized by a set of values and beliefs that highlights the importance of the
customer‟s interest

C. It is concerned with the choice of products, markets and competitive stance

D. It provides the basis for the implementation of the business competitive stance

82. Deals essentially with the interplay of three forces known as the strategic for the customer,

the competition, and the corporation.

A. Mission statement

B. Marketing Strategy

C. Marketing Mixes

D. Resource deployment

83. Which dealing primarily with the question of how a business unit competes within its
industry.

A. Business level

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B. Corporate level

C. Functional level

D. Operational level

84. Its primary focus is to effectively allocate and coordinate marketing resources and activities

to accomplish the firm‟s objectives within a specific product – market.

A. Business unit level

B. Corporate level

C. Functional level

D. Division level

83. The defensive marketing strategy in which the market leader erect outposts to protect a weak

front or support a possible counterattack referred as ___________________

A. Preemptive defense

B. Position defense

C. Flank defense

D. Mobile defense

84. _________ means a product originally designed for a local market is exported to other

countries with virtually no change, except perhaps for the translation of words and other
cosmetic changes.

A. Product Adaptation

B. Product Standardization

C. Product scheduling

D. Product differentiation

85. This market entry strategy maximizes a profit potential while tolerating a higher degree of

risk Correct

A. Foreign indirect investment

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B. Foreign direct investment

C. Foreign semi-direct investment

D. Home-country investment

86. This strategy involves selling a product from a home base, usually without any product

modification

A. Exporting

B. Licensing

C. Joint venture

D. Manufacturing

87. This entry strategy involves having an agreement that permits a foreign company to use
industry property, technical knowhow, or engineering design in a foreign market

A. Exporting

B. Licensing

C. Joint venture

D. Manufacturing

88. This is not an advantage of licensing

A. Protection of patent

B. Degree of risk

C. Amount of capital required

D. Amount of profit

89. The least profitable entry strategy is

A. Licensing

B. Joint venture

C. Manufacturing

D. Foreign direct investment

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90. Sony and Pepsi joined together to market Wilson sporting goods in Japan This strategy is

A. Exporting

B. Licensing

C. Joint venture

D. Assembly operations

91. ______is the practice of charging different prices for the same product in similar markets.

A. Tariffs and Distribution Costs

B. Market Share

C. Dumping

D. Supply and Demand

92. All of the following are False about Industrial market Promotional Characteristics:

A. Much heavier emphasis on Sales Promotion

B. Salespeople possess more technical background

C. Advertising plays the role of laying down the foundation

D. Sales people are more like consultants

E. Advertising media differs from in consumer market

93. ______________________ are commercial customers who buy products and sometimes
service to incorporate into the products.

A. Original Equipment Manufacturers

B. User Customer

C. Industrial Distributors

D. Consumer Distributors

E. Merchant Wholesalers

94. In market penetration pricing, the business marketer recognizes the following conditions,

Except One

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A. With heavy fixed costs and low variable costs

B. Many close substitutes are available

C. The product is easy to copy

D. The usage of the market is limited

E. The market exhibits a high price elasticity of demand.

95. _______________________is more likely to happen when the number of firms in a

particular industry is small.

A. Predatory pricing

B. Exchanging price information

C. Price fixing

D. Price Mixing

E. Price List

96. Which one of the following types of demand occurs when the demand of one product
depends upon that product's being used in combination with another product.

A. Derived demand

B. Elastic demand

C. Joint demand

D. Inelastic demand

E. Develop demand

97. An industrial purchasing decision step where organization becomes aware of the need for a

product or service is

A. Supplier search

B. Problem recognition

C. Proposal solicitation

D. Need description

E. Evaluation

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98. All of the following are True about Business advertising but one

A. Rational appeals

B. Smaller part of the entire selling function

C. Address a somewhat limited market

D. Speaks to a very large and diverse market

E. Utilizes smaller percentage of the sales dollar

99. All of the following are Advantages offered by manufacturers‟ agents but one

A. More aggressive representation

B. Synergy in complementary lines

C. Instant marketing

D. Customer patronages preferences

E. Permanence of representation

100. One of the following is the base for segmentation which dividing a market into different

groups based on social class, lifestyle, or personality characteristics.

A. Geographic Segmentation

B. Demographic Segmentation

C. Psychographics segmentation

D. Behavioral segmentation

101. If a company banded soap in to a package of 4 with promotion „„buy 3 and get 1 free‟‟. It

used -----------------types of promotional tool.

A. Advertising

B. Sales promotion

C. Personal selling

D. Public relation

E. All

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 VERSION 3

PROJECT1

1. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Marketing is the term used to refer only to the sales function within a firm

B. Marketing managers usually don't get involved in production or distribution decisions

C. Marketing is an activity that considers only the needs of the organization, not the

needs of society as a whole

D. Marketing is the activity, set of institutions, and processes for creating, communicating,
delivering, and exchanging offerings that have value for customers, clients, partners, and society
at large

2. Which of the following is NOT an element of the marketing mix?

A. Distribution

B. Product

C. Target market

D. Pricing

3. Marketing decision makers in a firm must constantly monitor competitors' activities-their

products, prices, distribution, and promotional efforts-because

A. The competitors may be violating the law and can be reported to the authorities

B. The actions of competitors may threaten the monopoly position of the firm in its industry

C. The actions of competitors may create an oligopoly within an industry

D. New product offerings by a competitor with the resulting competitive variations may require
adjustments to one or more components of the firm's marketing mix

4. is the collection and interpretation of information about forces, events, and relationships that
may affect the organization.

A. Environmental scanning

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B. Stakeholder analysis

C. Market sampling

D. Opportunity analysis

5. When companies make marketing decisions by considering consumers' wants and the long-

run interests of the company, consumer, and the general population, they are practicing which of
the following principles?

A. Innovative marketing

B. Consumer-oriented marketing

C. Value marketing

D. Societal marketing

6. The holds that consumers will favour products that are available and highly affordable
(therefore, work on improving production and distribution efficiency).

A. Product concept

B. Production concept

C. Production cost expansion concept

D. Marketing concept

7. The term marketing refers to:

A. New product concepts and improvements

B. Advertising and promotion activities

C. A philosophy that stresses customer value and satisfaction

D. Planning sales campaigns

8. The term "marketing mix" describes:

A. A composite analysis of all environmental factors inside and outside the firm

B. A series of business decisions that aid in selling a product

C. The relationship between a firm's marketing strengths and its business weaknesses

D. A blending of four strategic elements to satisfy specific target markets

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9. Early adopters of which opinion leaders are largely comprised of and tend to be

A. Generalized; that is, they tend to lead the group on most issues

B. More likely to buy new products before their friends do and voice their opinions about them

C. From the upper class; people from other classes are more likely to be followers

D. Quiet, withdrawn people who don't make fashion statements or take risks easily

10. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase "a good product will sell itself" is
characteristic of the period.

A. Production

B. Sales

C. Marketing

D. Relationship

11. Today's marketers need

A. Neither creativity nor critical thinking skills

B. Both creativity and critical thinking skills

C. Critical thinking skills but not creativity

D. Creativity but not critical thinking skills

12. The process that turns marketing strategies and plans into marketing actions in order to
accomplish strategic marketing objectives is called

A. Marketing strategy.

B. Marketing control.

C. Marketing analysis.

D. Marketing implementation

13. Segmentation is the process of:

A. Dividing the market into homogenous groups

B. Selecting one group of consumers among several other groups

C. Creating a unique space in the minds of the target consumer

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D. None of these

14. Good marketing is no accident, but a result of careful planning and .

A. Execution

B. Selling.

C. Research.

D. Strategies.

15. The traditional view of marketing is that the firm makes something and then it.

A. Markets.

B. Sells.

C. Prices.

D. Services.

16. Groups that have a direct or indirect influence on a person’s attitudes or behaviour is known
as

A. Reference groups

B. Family.

C. Roles.

D. Status.

17. Re-marketing is related with creating demand for .

A. Fresh products.

B. Non-usable products

C. Low quality products.

D. Renewed use of products.

18. Demographic segmentation refers to.

A. The description of the people and the place in society.

B. The description of the people's purchasing behaviour

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C. The location where people live

D. Geographic regions.

19. Which of the following reflects the marketing concept philosophy?

A. "You won't find a better deal anywhere".

B. "When its profits versus customer’s needs, profits will always win out".

C. "We are in the business of making and selling superior product".

D. "We won't have a marketing department; we have a customer department".

20. In selling concept, maximization of project of the firm is done through .

A. Sales volume.

B. Increasing production.

C. Quality.

D. Services.

21. In segmentation, buyers are divided into different groups on the basis of life style or
personality and values.

A. Geographic.

B. Demographic

C. Psychographic.

D. Behavioural.

22. Which of the following is not part of demographic segmentation?

A. Age.

B. Income.

C. Education.

D. Interest.

23. When a consumer decides to buy without much logical thinking, his decision is said to be

A. Patronage.

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B. Emotional.

C. Rational.

D. None of these.

24. Marketing means serving a small market not Served by competitions.

A. Niche.

B. Mega.

C. Meta.

D. None of these.

25. The task of any business is to deliver at a profit.

A. Customer needs

B. Products.

C. Customer value

D. Quality.

26. is the next stage of market segmentation.

A. market targeting

B. Positioning.

C. MIS.

D. Marketing.

27. In the traditional concept, the main strategy of the company is to find customers for the
product, manufactured by them and somehow convince the customer into buying this product.

A. Selling.

B. Product.

C. Production.

D. Marketing.

28. Some companies are now switching from being product- centred to being more centred.

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A. Competency.

B. Marketing.

C. Sales.

D. Customer-segment.

29. environment consists of the factors like inflation rate, interest rate and unemployment.

A. Geographic.

B. Economic.

C. Demographic.

D. Technological.

30. When a firm practice concept, all its activities are directed to satisfy the consumer.

A. Selling.

B. Production.

C. Marketing.

D. Societal.

31. Marketing channel that involves no intermediaries to made their products available to final
buyers is classified as

A. Direct channel

B. Indirect channel

C. Static channel

D. Flexible channel

32. Identify the incorrect statement about multiple channels:

A. Internet banking is an example of low-cost channel that is offered by banks

B. Customers usually use only one channel for all transactions even if multiple channels are
offered

C. Service sensitive customers prefer the full-service channels

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D. Economic considerations should not be the only criteria for deciding what combination of
channels to be used

33. The _ function of marketing makes the products available in different geographic regions.

A. Production.

B. Selling.

C. Distribution.

D. Promotion.

34. Logistics means .

A. Production.

B. Flow of goods.

C. Consumption.

D. Marketing channel.

35. Logistics management is a part of .

A. Production.

B. Marketing channel

C. Supply chain management.

D. Consumption.

36. Which of the following is not included in the function of physical supply?

A. Standardization.

B. Storage.

C. Packaging.

D. Transportation.

37. The best channel of distribution for vacuum cleaner is _.

A. Direct marketing.

B. Tele marketing.

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C. Retail chains.

D. None of these.

38. Transportation belongs to function of marketing.

A. Research.

B. Exchange.

C. Physical supply

D. Facilitating.

39. is a broad range of activities concerned with efficient movement of finished goods from the
end of the production line to the consumer.

A. Physical distribution.

B. Channel of distribution

C. Intensive distribution.

D. None of these.

40. Which of the following is not a non-store retailing?

A. Tele marketing.

B. Direct marketing.

C. Kiosk marketing.

D. Retail chains.

41. In , manufacturers supply products to a limited number of outlets in the target market.

A. Selective distribution

B. Geographical distribution

C. Intensive distribution.

D. Executive distribution.

42. Which company is the pioneer in direct marketing?

A. Johnson &Johnson.

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B. Eureka Forbes.

C. Avon cosmetics.

D. Cipla.

43. Ensuring the availability of the products and services as and when required by the

customers is utility.

A. Time.

B. Place.

C. Form.

D. Profession

44. The process of moving the raw materials from the place of the suppliers to the place of the
producers is known as .

A. Inbound logistics.

B. Outbound logistics

C. Inventory management. using loud music

using colorful ads

employing verbal framing

repeating brand information

increasing curiosity about the brand

D. Acquisition of raw materials.

45. The flow of goods from production to consumption is known as .

A. Inbound logistics.

B. Outbound logistics.

C. Process logistics.

D. Reverse logistics

46. A strength of radio advertising is

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A. the ability to reach segmented audiences

B. the ability to reach prospective customers on a personal and intimate level

C. low cost per thousand

D. short lead-times

E. All of the above

47. Marketers can enhance the consumers' ability to access knowledge structures by

48. All marketing activities that attempt to stimulate quick buyer action or immediate sales of

a product are known as _ .

A. Sponsorship

B. Advertising

C. personal selling

D. sales promotion

E. Publicity

49. A detergent that advertises how clean it gets clothes is appealing to the consumer need.

A. Functional

B. Symbolic

C. Biological

D. Utilitarian

E. Experiential

50. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for setting advertising objectives?

A. Objectives must specify the amount of change.

B. Objectives must be stated in terms of profits.

C. Objectives must be realistic.

D. Objectives must be internally consistent.

E. Objectives must be clear and in writing.

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51. The component of attitudes focuses on behavioral tendencies.

A. Affective

B. Instrumental

C. Conative

D. Cognitive

E. Behavioral

52. The process of translating thought into a symbolic form is known as ---------------- --.

A. Encoding

B. Feedback

C. Noise

D. Decoding

E. the message channels

53. Margaret Stephens notices the television commercial because of the loud sounds. This is

an example of .

A. exposure

B. involuntary attention

C. non-voluntary attention

D. voluntary attention

E. interpretation

54. The series of steps that must be followed by salespersons is classified as:

A. Marketing process

B. Selling process

C. Intermediation process

D. Nominal process

55. The concept which states information about value, opportunities and rewards of good

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performance as thought by salespersons is called:

A. Organizational Climate

B. Media Climate

C. Sales Climate

D. Outbound Climate

56. According to consumer promotion technique, the cash refunds is also classified as:

A. Price packs

B. Sweepstakes

C. Point of Purchase Promotions

D. Cash Rebate

57. The consumer promotion technique according to which product consumers are told

tosubmit their names for drawing is classified as

A. Cash Refunds

B. Cash Sample

C. Sweepstakes

D. Cents off deals

58. The promotion tools such as sweepstakes, event sponsorship, samples and coupons
areclassified in category of:

A. Organizational Promotion

B. Consumer Promotions

C. Inbound Promotion

D. Outbound Promotion

59. The consumer promotion technique in which customer purchase proof is sent tomanufacturer
which then refunds some part of price is called:

A. Cash refund

B. Coupon

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C. Sample

D. Premium

60. The individual who represent company by performing selling, servicing,

informationgathering, and prospecting is classified as:

A. Sales person

B. Promoting manager

C. Prospering manager

D. Persuasion manage

61. What are the primary functions of business management?

A. Planning, organizing, controlling

B. Strategizing, communicating, planning

C. Finance, operations, management

D. Marketing, accounting, human resource management

62. The standard of living for a nation’s people depends mainly on

A. the quality of the natural environment

B. how much political freedom they have

C. their incomes and the prices of the good and services they buy

D. the amount of labor and capital available employed in the manufacturing sector

63. The total value of final goods and services produced within a nation’s borders in a given year
is known as that nation’s

A. aggregate production quota

B. aggregate domestic output

C. index of aggregate economic output

D. gross domestic product

64. The nation of Tryland has seen the total value of the goods and services it produces increase
rapidly over the past year. What is the most likely result of this change?

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A. A rise in Tryland’s GDP

B. A rise in Tryland’s CPI

C. A rise in Tryland’s unemployment rate

D. A decline in the number of workers who are structurally unemployed

65. Which of the following statements about government deficit spending is most accurate?

A. Although the government used to run big deficits, it has consistently run surpluses sincethe
late 1980s.

B. One reason the government has a hard time reducing deficits is that there is a great dealof
pressure on the government to increase its spending each year.

C. The federal government violates the law by running deficits because the Constitutionrequires
the

government to balance its budget each year.

D. The government has used deficit spending to lower the national debt.

66. What measure is used to report price changes at the wholesale level?

A. Gross domestic product (GDP)

B. Consumer price index (CPI)

C. Wholesale price index (WPI)

D. Producer price index (PPI)

67. Jack is the sole proprietor of a gift shop in a small shopping center. Any profit Jack's
business earns is

A. totally tax-free

B. taxed only as Jack's personal income

C. taxed only if and when it is distributed to investors

D. taxed twice, once as business income, then again as Jack's personal income

68. What is the easiest form of business to start and to end?

A. Sole proprietorship

B. Limited partnership

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C. Corporation

D. Cooperative

69. A (n) is a person who assumes the risk of starting a business.

A. manager

B. stakeholder

C. entrepreneur

D. private investor

70. Which theory states that a nation should produce and sell goods that it produces most
efficiently to other countries, and buy goods that are produced more efficiently by other
countries?

A. Comparative advantage

B. Absolute advantage

C. Bilateral advantage

D. Mercantilism

71. Which of the following would be a unique focus of an integrity-based ethics code?

A. Shared accountability among employees

B. Improved awareness of the relevant laws

C. Increased penalties for code violators

D. Increased control over employee actions

72. When managers work to create conditions and systems to ensure that everything and
everyone works together to achieve the organization's goals, they are involved in the function of
management.

A. controlling

B. leading

C. planning

D. organizing

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73. A national chain of hotels utilizes a centralized authority structure. What is the most likely
reasonwhy top management favors centralized authority?

A. They want to maintain a uniform image and high quality service.

B. They want to improve customer service response time.

C. They intend to empower its first-line employees.

D. They want to utilize a cross-functional organization.

74. Which of the following terms describes the set of values, beliefs, rules, language, and
institutions held by a specific group of people?

A. Culture

B. Ethnocentricity

C. Social beliefs

D. Institutional society

75. To implement a policy of empowerment, sometimes an organization has to restructure itself

sothat

A. workers agree to work overtime without extra pay

B. an entire level of management is removed from the organization

C. managers have more responsibility and employees learn to follow directions

D. managers have less authority and employees have more responsibility

76. What is the purpose of the double-entry procedure in accounting?

A. To create the financials

B. To record debits and credits

C. To prepare the journals

D. To keep the accounting equation in balance

77. Which of the following instruments has the longest duration?

A. Bridge loan

B. Treasury bill

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C. Treasury note

D. Treasury bond

78. What term is used to describe the core characteristics that define a brand?

A. Brand essence

B. Brand quality

C. Brand element

D. Brand nature

79. What type of marketing channel consists of the producer and the consumer?

A. Direct channel marketing

B. Indirect channel marketing

C. Traditional marketing

D. Mono-channel marketing

80. What is the difference between perfect competition and monopolistic competition?

A. Perfect competition has a large number of small firms while monopolistic competition does
not.

B. In perfect competition, firms produce identical goods, while in monopolistic competition,

firms produce slightly different goods.

C. Perfect competition has no barriers to entry, while monopolistic competition does.

D. Perfect competition has barriers to entry while monopolistic competition does not.

81. The market type known as perfect competition is

A. almost free from competition and firms earn large profits.

B. highly competitive and firms find it impossible to earn an economic profit in the long run.

C. dominated by fierce advertising campaigns.

D. marked by firms continuously trying to change their products so that consumers prefer their
product to their competitors' products.

82. Which of the following market types has all firms selling products so identical that buyers do
not care from which firm they buy?

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A. perfect competition B) oligopoly

C) monopolistic competition D) monopoly

83. Perfect competition is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

A. well-informed buyers and sellers with respect to prices.

B. a large number of buyers and sellers.

C. no restrictions on entry into or exit from the industry.

D. considerable advertising by individual firms.

84. Which of the following is the best example of a perfectly competitive market?

A. diamonds B) athletic shoes C) soft drinks D) farming

85. Which of the following market types has the fewest number of firms?

A. perfect competition B) monopoly

C) monopolistic competition D) oligopoly

86. Which of the following market types has a large number of firms that sell similar but slightly
different products?

A. perfect competition B) oligopoly

C) monopolistic competition D) monopoly

87. Which of the following market types has only a few competing firms?

A. perfect competition B) monopolistic competition

C) monopoly D) oligopoly

88. In a perfectly competitive market, the type of decision a firm has to make is different in the
short run than in the long run. Which of the following is an example of a perfectly competitive
firm's short-run decision?

A. what price to charge buyers for the product

B. whether or not to enter or exit an industry

C. the profit-maximizing level of output

D. how much to spend on advertising and sales promotion

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89. In perfect competition, a firm maximizes profit in the short run by deciding

A. how much output to produce. B) whether or not to enter a market.

C) what price to charge. D) how much capital to use.

90. In a perfectly competitive market, the type of decision a firm has to make is different in the
short run than in the long run. Which of the following is an example of a perfectly competitive
firm's long-run decision?

A. what price to charge buyers for the product

B. how much to spend on advertising and sales promotion

C. the profit-maximizing level of output

D. whether or not to enter or exit an industry

91. A price-taking firm

A. cannot influence the price of the product it sells.

B. talks to rival firms to determine the best price for all of them to charge.

C. sets the product's price to whatever level the owner decides upon.

D. asks the government to set the price of its product.

92. A large number of sellers all selling an identical product implies which of the following?

A. horizontal market supply curves

B. large losses by all sellers

C. the inability of any seller to change the price of the product

D. market chaos

93. Perfectly competitive firms are price takers because

A. each firm is very large. B) there are no good substitutes for their goods.

C) many other firms produce identical products. D) their demand curves are downward sloping.

94. If demand for a seller's product is perfectly elastic, which of the following is correct?

A. There is no incentive to sell at a price below the market price.

B. It will not sell any output at all if it tries to price its product above the market price.

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C. There are a very large number of perfect substitutes for the seller's product.

D. All of the above answers are correct.

95. One of the requirements for a monopoly is that

A. the product cannot be produced by small firms.

B. there are several close substitutes for the product.

C. there is a unique product with no close substitutes.

D. products are high priced.

96. A monopoly is a market with

A. no barriers to entry. B) many substitutes. C) many suppliers. D) one supplier.

97. Firms face competition when the good they produce

A. is in a market with natural barriers to entry. B) is unique.

C) is in a market with legal barriers to entry. D) has a close substitute.

98. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The market demand and the firm's demand are the same for a monopoly.

B. Monopolies have perfectly inelastic demand for the product sold.

C. Monopolies are guaranteed to earn an economic profit.

D. All of the above are correct.

99. Which describes a barrier to entry?

A. anything that protects a firm from the arrival of new competitors

B. a government regulation that bars a monopoly from earning an economic profit

C. something that establishes a barrier to expanding output

D. firms already in the market incurring economic losses so that no new firm wants to enter the
market

100. A barrier to entry is

A. an open door.

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B. the economic term for diseconomies of scale.

C. illegal in most markets.

D. anything that protects a firm from the arrival of new competitors.

101. Which of the following would create a natural monopoly?

A. requirement of a government license before the firm can sell the good or service

B. technology enabling a single firm to produce at a lower average cost than two or more firms

C. an exclusive right granted to supply a good or service

D. ownership of all the available units of a necessary input

102. If the technology for producing a good enables one firm to meet the entire market demand
at a lower price than two or more firms could, then that firm has

A. a legal barrier to entry. B) a natural monopoly.

C) increasing average total costs. D) patented the market.

103. Which of the following goods is the best example of a natural monopoly?

A. natural gas B) diamonds C) a patented good D) first-class mail

104. Which of the following is the best example of a natural monopoly?

A. owning the only licensed taxicab in town

B. the United States Postal Service

C. ownership of the only ferry across Puget Sound for twenty miles

D. the cable television company in your hometown

105. Which barrier to entry is an exclusive right granted to the author or composer of a literary,
musical, dramatic or artistic work?

A. government license B) patent C) public franchise D) copyright

106. Patents

A. stimulate innovation.

B. encourage the invention of new products and production methods.

C. are exclusive rights granted to the inventor of a product or service.

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D. All of the above answers are correct.

107. Which of the following is NOT correct about patents?

A. Patents stimulate innovation.

B. A patent is a barrier to entry.

C. Patents enable a firm to be a permanent monopoly.

D. Patents encourage invention of new products.

108. Recently in a small city, building contractors lobbied the city council to pass a law requiring
all people working on residential dwellings be licensed by the city. Why would the contractors
lobby for this requirement?

A. to reduce the cost of building dwellings

B. There is no good explanation for this type of lobbying.

C. to guarantee that work on dwellings is of high quality

D. to create a legal barrier to entry

109. Ownership of a necessary input creates what type of barrier to entry?

A. natural barrier to entry B) a public franchise

C) a government license D) legal barrier to entry

110. An industry with a large number of firms, differentiated products, and free entry and exit is
called

A. oligopoly. B) monopoly.

C) monopolistic competition. D) perfect competition.

111. In monopolistic competition, each firm supplies a small part of the market. This occurs
because

A. there are barriers to entry. B) firms produce differentiated products.

C) there are no barriers to entry. D) there are a large number of firms.

112. In monopolistic competition, the products of different sellers are assumed to be

A. similar but slightly different. B) identical perfect substitutes.

C) either identical or differentiated. D) unique without any close or perfect substitutes.

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113. Which of the following is different about perfect competition and monopolistic
competition?

A. Firms in monopolistic competition compete on their product's price as well as its quality and
marketing.

B. In monopolistic competition, entry into the industry is unblocked.

C. Perfect competition has a large number of independently acting sellers.

D. Only firms in monopolistic competition can earn an economic profit in the short run.

114. In an industry with a large number of firms,

A. collusion is impossible.

B. one firm will dominate the market.

C. each firm will produce a large quantity, relative to market demand.

D. competition is eliminated.

115. Which of the following is an example of a monopolistically competitive industry?

A. wheat farming B) colleges and universities

C) the local electricity producer D) the domestic automobile producing industry

116. All of the following are examples of product differentiation in monopolistic competition
EXCEPT

A. new and improved packaging.

B. lower price.

C. acceptance of more credit cards than the competition.

D. location of the retail store.

117. A differentiated product has

A. many perfect substitutes. B) close but not perfect substitutes.

C) no close substitutes. D) no substitutes of any kind.

118. As the degree of product differentiation increases among the products sold in a
monopolistically competitive industry, which of the following occurs?

A. The cost of production falls.

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B. The amount of marketing expenditures decreases for each firm.

C. The demand curve for each seller's product becomes more horizontal.

D. Each seller's demand becomes more inelastic.

119. Marketing consists of what?

A. selling at a lower price than rivals sell for B) producing more output to lower average costs

C) advertising and packaging D) None of the above answers are correct.

120. Firms use marketing to

A. influence a consumer's buying decision.

B. convince customers that their product is worth its price.

C. persuade buyers that their product is superior to others.

D. All of the above answers are correct.

121. If a monopolistically competitive seller can convince buyers that its product is of better
quality and value than products sold by rival firms,

A. demand increases. B) the firm gains more control over its price.

C) demand becomes more inelastic. D) all of the above occur.

122. If you have found the percentage of the value of sales accounted for by the four largest
firms in an

industry, you have found the

A. elasticity of supply value. B) Herfindahl-Hirschman Index.

C) elasticity of demand value. D) four-firm concentration ratio.

123. Which of the following four-firm concentration ratios would be the best indication of a
perfectly

competitive industry?

A. 100 percent B) 78 percent C) 0.25 percent D) 31 percent

124. Which of the following four-firm concentration ratios is consistent with monopolistic
competition?

A. 0 percent B) 25 percent C) 100 percent D) 75 percent

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125. Different strategies are suitable for different companies depending on their

particular situation. This is articulated by the “EPRG Framework”. What are the four options of
theEPRG Framework?

A. Ethno Policies, Private Polies, Racial Policies, Geography

B. Ethnocentrism, Polycentrism, Regiocentrism, Geocentrism

C. Energy, Privacy, Real-World, Giggity

D. Ethnocentrism, Polycentrism, Racialism, Governmental

126. For any company looking to expand internationally, be it first-time exporter

or a majormultinational, a fundamental question has been, and continues to be:

A. New Market, New Product

B. New Market, Same Product

C. The extent to which the marketing mix should or can be standardized across

thecountries in which the firm operates

D. PDI, PDV

127. European and Japanese managers have been “thinking international”

from the outset(beginning).

A. True

B. False

128. Distribution channels vary depending on which of the following?

A. Target market size

B. Competition

C. Available distribution intermediaries

D. All of the above

129. Within the firm, it is primarily the or managers who argue for

standardization for the sake of economies of scale.

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A. Production, Finance

B. Marketing, Distribution

C. Logistic, Manufacturer

D. Primary, Secondary

130. Which country has more retailers than the rest of the world combined?

A. Japan

B. China

C. India

D. Germany

131. The process of international market selection is typically done by using to

enable a quick and relatively low-cost overview of as many markets as possible.

A. Quantitative data

B. Secondary data

C. Primary data

D. All of the above

132. Ethnocentrism can simply be defined as:

A. Developing a simple diverse strategy for new markets

B. Develop one strategy for all countries worldwide

C. Use everywhere the same strategy as at home.

D. Being ethnically centred on a global scale

133. Which of the following would you consider to be a socio-cultural influence on international
marketing?

A. Language

B. Religion

C. Social organization

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D. All of the above

134. An overall strategy that involves the firm pouring all of its available resources into one or

a select few markets is knows as:

A. Maximum investment strategy

B. Sprinkler Strategy

C. Waterfall Strategy

D. Standardization

135. All of the following are actual modes of market-entry EXCEPT:

A. Licensing

B. Standardization

C. Franchising

D. Exporting

136. suggests spreading the company’s resources in order to gain even small footholds across as
many markets as possible

A. Direct Exporting

B. Sprinkler Strategy

C. Agent Intermediaries

D. Waterfall Strategy

137. Conditions that may encourage an organization in a domestic environment to expand are:

A. Market Saturation, Slow Population, Growth, Product Adolescence

B. Factors related to the firm's industrial sector, or to the company itself and its products

C. A unique product with a strong competitive advantage, a forward-looking

managerial philosophy, corporate objectives calling for rapid growth, as well as as

of the right oftalents and skills for international operations

D. All of the above

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138. usually means that the company sells to a customer in another country, be it an

intermediary or an end-customer.

A. Indirect exporting

B. Direct Exporting

C. Franchising

D. Cross selling

139. Which of the following alternative market entry modes offers the least risk?

A. Consortia

B. Strategic International Alliance

C. Contract Manufacturing

D. Mergers and Acquisitions

140. Which of the following alternative market entry modes offers the most control and risk?

A. Franchising

B. Licensing

C. Greenfield

D. Strategic Alliance

141. MEA stands for Manufacturer Export Agent

A. True

B. False

142. are a partnership of two or more companies that join forces to create a separate legal entity.

A. International Joint Ventures

B. International Consortia

C. Mergers and Acquisitions

D. Co-Branding

143. An unconscious reference to one’s own culterual values, experiences, and knowledge as

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a basis for decisions.

A. Self-Reference Criterion

B. Pro Globalist

C. Tolerance Effect

D. Culture

144. For managers selling capital equipment and big-ticket industrial services, understanding

the concept of demand is absolutely fundamental to their sucess.

A. Kinked

B. Sliding

C. Multiple

D. Derived

145. The concept of quality encompasses many factors, and the perception of quality rests

solely with the .

A. Price

B. Value

C. Sellers

D. Customer

146. ISO 9000 concerns the registration and certification of a manufacturer's .

A. Goods

B. Services

C. Quality systems

D. MIS

147. The measures customers' satisfaction and perceptions of quality of arepresentative sample
of U.S goods and services.

A. ISO 9000

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B. MIS

C. ACSI

D. API

148. The ability to match the acceptable behaviour, norms, and values is called a product's:

A. Relative advantage

B. Compatibility

C. Complexity

D. Trial-ability

149. One of the early problems faced by BMW when it attempted to market its line
ofautomobiles in the United States was a severe shortage of spare parts. If BMW's management
makes the decision to correct this problem, in which of the following components of the product
component model would management need to make improvement?

A. Core component

B. Functional component

C. Support services component

D. First stage component

150. How do the vast majority of services enter a foreign market?

A. Exporting

B. Importing

C. Brokers

D. Licensing, Franchising, or Direct Investment

151. A successful is the most valuable resource a company has.

A. Marketing Campaign

B. CEO

C. Product

D. Brand

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152. Any influence that the company of manufacture, assembly, or design has on a

consumer'spositive or negative perception of a product is called the:

A. Polar effect

B. Alteration effect

C. Country-of-origin effect

D. Transferation effect

153. The foundation of the Japaense distribution system is the:

A. Middleman

B. Upperman

C. Small retailer

D. Big retailer

154. Three questions are central to strategy. Which is not one of them?

A. When do we compete?

B. With whom do we need to develop key relationships?

C. Where do we compete?

D. How do we compete?

155. There are complaints towards globalization. Which is not one of them?

A. unhealthy dietary patterns

B. legal rights

C. unsustainable consumption

D. loss of local Culture

156. Web sales are characterized as having which of the following challenging

aspects?

A. Delivery of goods

B. Discounts for volume purchase

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C. Consumer loyalty

D. Payment

157. Which of the following external intermediaries does not take title to the goods that
theyprocess?

A. Merchant intermediaries

B. Export merchants

C. Trading companies

D. Agent intermediaries

158. James Bond is looking for an intermediary that specialies in researching foreign

markets for a client's products. Additionally, he would like this intermediary

to handle all the routine details of getting his products to the foreign customers

that he anticipates he will have during the next business year. Which of the

following would be the best choice for Mr. Bond if hewants to meet his objectives?

A. Export management company

B. Import management company

C. A jobber

D. A robber

159. As Global Retailers like Idea, Costco, Toys "R" Us, or Wal-Mart expand

their globalcoverage, they are becoming major for international markets

A. Domestic intermediaries

B. International intermediaries

C. Globally renowned

D. EMC

160. MEA stands for Manufacturer Export Agent

A. True

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B. False

161. Which of the following international intermediaries often has exclusive sales rights in
aspecific country and works in close cooperation with the manufacturer?

A. Foreign-country broker

B. Managing agent

C. Dealer

D. Foreign distributor

162. Distribution channels vary depending on which of the following?

A. Target market size

B. Competition

C. Available distribution intermediaries

D. All of the above

163. Conditions that may encourage an organization in a domestic environment to expand are:

A. Market Saturation, Slow Population, Growth, Product Adolescence

B. Factors related to the firm's industrial sector, or to the company itself and its products

C. A unique product with a strong competitive advantage, a forward-looking

managerial philosophy, corporate objectives calling for rapid growth, as well as as of the right
oftalents and skills for international operations

D. All of the above

164. Which country has more retailers than the rest of the world combined?

A. Japan

B. China

C. India

D. Germany

165. Which of the following C's must be considered if the company is to achieve the

optimumvolume of sales, secure a reasonable market share, and gain

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satisfactory market penetration?

A. Coverage

B. Control

C. Character

D. Continuity

166. Which of the following C's must be considered with regard to ownership of

the salesforce and distribution system?

A. Control

B. Cost

C. Continuity

D. Coverage

167. As a result of international trade and global interdependence, countries' inflation ratestend
to:

A. increase

B. moderate

C. be unpredictable

D. be unstable

168. Because of trade (and imports), inflation:

A. increases

B. decreases

C. moderates

D. disappears

169. A strong orientation toward the home country is an indication of:

A. ethnocentricity

B. polycentricity

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C. geocentricity

170. This is the feeling within a culture that its values are superior to those of foreign cultures.

A. ethnocentricity

B. polycentricity

C. geocentricity

171. Which of the following would you consider to be a socio-cultural influence oninternational
marketing?

A. Language

B. Religion

C. Social organisation

D. All of the above

172. A is a tax-free enclave in which imported goods can be stored or processed. It is alsonot
considered part of the country as far as import and otherregulations are concerned

A. Free trade zone

B. Port storage centre

C. Corporate housing unit

D. Manufacturing den

173. In countries with rapid inflation goods are often sold below their cost of replacement

A. True

B. False

174. Deflation results in decreasing prices and creates a positive result for consumers, but itputs
pressure on everyone in the supply chain to lower costs

A. True

B. False

175. A exists when various companies producing similar products or services work together to
control their markets

A. Inflation period

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B. Deflation period

C. Cartel

D. Service

176. Domestic cartelization is legal in North America

A. True

B. False

177. Canada does not allow foreign-market cartels if the results have an adverse impact on
theCanadian economy

A. True

B. False

178. Ethnocentrism can simply be defined as:

A. Developing a simple diverse strategy for new markets

B. Develop one strategy for all countries worldwide

C. Use everywhere the same strategy as at home.

D. Being ethnically centred on a global scale

179. All of the following are actual modes of market-entry EXCEPT:

A. Licensing

B. Standardization

C. Franchising

D. Exporting

180. According to the textbook, international marketing is “the multinational process of planning
and executing the conception, pricing, promotion, and distribution of ideas, goods,and services to
create exchanges that satisfy individual and organizational objectives.” The definition fails to
recognize:

A. nonprofit marketing

B. business-to-business marketing

C. consumer marketing

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D. integration of the 4 Ps

181. ISO 9000 concerns the registration and certification of a manufacturer's .

A. Goods

B. Services

C. Quality systems

D. MIS

182. Distribution channels vary depending on which of the following?

A. Target market size

B. Competition

C. Available distribution intermediaries

D. All of the above

183. Conditions that may encourage an organization in a domestic environment to expand are:

A. Market Saturation, Slow Population, Growth, Product Adolescence

B. Factors related to the firm's industrial sector, or to the company itself and its products

C. A unique product with a strong competitive advantage, a forward-looking managerial

philosophy, corporate objectives calling for rapid growth, as well as as of the right of talents and
skills for international operations

D. All of the above

184. Which country has more retailers than the rest of the world combined?

A. Japan

B. China

C. India

D. Germany

185. The set of processes developed in an organization to create, gather, store, transfer, andapply
knowledge, best describes:

A. organizational learnings

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B. knowledge management

C. organizational memory

D. knowledge assets

186. Expertise and experience of organizational members that has not been formally documented
is known as:

A. knowledge sharing

B. tacit knowledge

C. organizational learning

D. organizational memory

187. The stored learning from an organization’s history that can be used for decision- makingand
other purposes best describes:

A. Organizational learning

B. Knowledge warehouse

C. Best practices

D. Organizational memory

188. The most successful solutions or problem-solving methods that have been developed by a
specific organization or industry best describes:

A. Organizational memory

B. Knowledge management

C. Best practices

D. Standard operating procedures

189. Major knowledge work applications include:

A. Investment workstations, computer-aided design systems, and intelligent agents

B. Document imaging systems

C. Virtual reality systems, intelligent agents, and investment workstations

D. Computer-aided design systems, virtual reality systems, and investment workstations

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190. Interactive graphics software and hardware that create computer-generated
simulationswhich provide sensations that emulate real world-activities describes:

A. VRML

B. Fuzzy neural networks

C. Virtual reality systems

D. Genetic algorithms

191. Artificial intelligence systems:

A. Do not exhibit the same level of intelligence as human beings

B. Can solve all problems intelligently

C. Substitute for experts

D. Can come up with new and novel solutions to problems

192. A knowledge-intensive computer program that captures the expertise of a human in limited
domains of knowledge describes:

A. virtual reality

B. a neural network

C. a decision support system

D. an expert system

193. A collection of internal and external knowledge in a single location for more efficient
management and utilization by the organization, best describes:

A. a knowledge repository

B. organizational memory

C. a data warehouse

D. knowledge management

194. Which of the following refers to rule-based AI tolerates imprecision by using non-specific
terms called membership functions to solve problems?

A. Genetic algorithms

B. Expert system

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C. Hybrid system

D. Fuzzy logic

Version 4
PROJECT1

choose the right answer from the alternatives (1 Point each).

12. ________ anything that can be offered to a market for attention, acquisition use or
consumption that might satisfy a need or want.
A. Marketing
B. Management
C. Economics
D. PRODUCT
E. A and B
13. The marketing task under ________ is analyzing why the market dislikes the product, &
focus on product redesign, lower prices, and more positive promotion to change the
markets beliefs and attitudes
A. demand
B. Full demand
C. Overfull demand
D. Negative demand
E. ALL
14. _________is the difference between the benefits that the customer gains from owning
and/or using a product and the costs of obtaining the product.
A. customer Value
B. Customer Satisfaction
C. Exchange
D. Transaction
E. NONE
15. _______includes the actors and forces outside marketing that affect marketing
management’s ability to build and maintain successful relationships with customers.
A. Marketing management
B. The marketing environment
C. Consumer behavior
D. Product decision
16. ________ studies how individuals, groups, and organizations select, buy, use, and dispose
of goods, services, ideas, or experiences to satisfy their needs and desires?
A. consumer Behavior.
B. Psychographic Behavior.
C. Marketing Management.

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 D. Response Model.
17. ______is a type of buying decision behavior where consumers are highly involved in a
purchase and perceive significant differences among brands, or when the product is
expensive, risky, purchased infrequently and highly self-expressive?
A. Variety seeking behavior
B. Dissonance reducing behavior
C. Habitual buying behavior
D. Complex buying behavior
18. All of the following are a marketing stimuli except?
A. Product
B. Price
C. Distribution
D. Promotion
E. None of the above
19. Which one of the following is a purchase decision that requires thorough research such as
a new product?
A. New task.
B. Modified rebuy
C. Straight rebuy.
D. None of the above.
20. One of it consists all of the groups that have a direct (face-to-face) or indirect influence
on a person’s attitudes or behavior?
A. Reference group
B. Membership groups.
C. Aspiration groups.
D. Dissociative groups.
21. Which of the following is the mental process through which an individual passes from
first learning about an innovation to final adoption?
A. Innovation process
B. Adoption process
C. Trial process
D. All of the above
22. In which philosophy does the organization determine the needs, wants, and interests of
target markets to deliver the desired satisfactions more effectively and efficiently than
competitors in a way that improves the consumer’s and the peoples well being?
A. Marketing Concept.
B. Economic Concept.
C. Management Concept.
D. None of the above.
23. What will be the Demand States or the marketing task when marketing managers are
engaged in finding ways to reduce the demand temporarily or permanently?
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 A. Full demand.
B. Remarketing.
C. No demand.
D. none
24. _____________divides buyers into groups based on social class, lifestyle or personality
characteristics?
A. Geographic segmentation
B. Demographic segmentation
C. Behavioral segmentation
D. Psychographic segmentation
25. _______is a more narrowly defined group, usually identified by dividing a segment into
sub segments or by defining a group with a distinctive set of traits who may seek a
special combination of benefits.

A. NICHE
B. Mass marketing
C. Segments
D. All of them
26. Which of the following are goods that the consumer does not know about or knows about
but does not normally think of buying?
A. UNSOUGHT Goods:
B. Shopping Goods
C. Specialty Goods
D. None o the above
27. Which of the following comprises a broad group of products intended for essentially
similar uses and having similar physical characteristics?
A. Product Mix
B. Product Length
C. Product Line
D. Product Depth
28. Which of the following are the desirable qualities for a brand name?
A. It should suggest something about the product's benefits & qualities
B. It should be easy to pronounce, recognize, and remember.
C. The brand name should be distinctive
D. All of the above
29. Which of the following is the key function that members of the marketing channel
perform?
A. Negotiation
B. Contact
C. Promotion
D. All of the above
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 30. Which of the following brand strategy occur when a company introduces additional items
in the same product category under the same brand name, usually with features?
A. Brand Extention
B. Line Extension
C. Multi Brand
D. New Brand
31. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Companies selling perishable products require more direct marketing
B. Company’s channel objectives are influenced by the nature of the company
C. Environmental factors affect channel design decisions
D. All except C
E. All of the above
32. Which of the following statement is false?
A. Business with limited finances can establish its own sales force but financially
strong firm uses middlemen to provide the function of middle men service
B. Retailers, by definition, serve ultimate consumers, so they are not in channels
for business goods
C. When most of firm's prospective customers are concentrated in a few
geographic areas, direct sale is practical.
D. Perishable products require direct or very short channels.
E. None of the above
33. Which of the following is an internal factors affecting pricing decision except?
A. Company's marketing objectives
B. Competitors
C. Marketing-mix strategy
D. Costs and organization
34. Which of the following is an advantage of a Television medium of communication
except?
A. Availability of sound and motion
B. Less audience selectivity
C. It is appealing to the senses
D. High attention and reach
35. Personal selling is more important for one of the following reason.
A. For expensive items
B. To create long-term relationship with customers
C. To maintain strong relationships with members of the purchasing company.
D. D.ALL
36. Suppose BGI Company had the following costs and expected sales of St.George Beer,
with Variable cost of $8, Fixed cost of $300,000, and Expected unit sales 50,000, what
would be the unit cost?
A. $14
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 B. $20
C. $12
D. None of the above
37. For BGI, with similar case, what would be the mark-up price if BGI wants to earn a 20
per cent mark-up on sales?
A. $15
B. $17.5
C. $13.5
D. $19
38. In Merchant wholesalers’ category, _____ provide a full set of services, whereas
______offer fewer services to their suppliers and customers.
A. Agents, Brokers
B. Full-service wholesalers, limited-service wholesalers
C. limited-service wholesalers, Full-service wholesalers
D. Agents, limited-service wholesalers
E. Brokers, Full-service wholesalers
39. ____ includes the activities of designing and producing the container or wrapper for a
product?
A. Packaging
B. Labeling
C. Branding
D. All of the above
40. Which advertising is important with mature products to help maintain customer
relationships and keep customers thinking about the product?
A. Informative
B. REMEINDER
C. Persuasive
D. None Of the above
41. _______Measure of the percentage of people in the target market who are exposed to the
ads
A. Frequency
B. Impact
C. REACH
D. None
42. In _____ buying decision process, the buyer senses a difference between his or her actual
state and some desired state.
A. need recognition
B. Information search
C. Evaluation of alternatives
D. Purchase decision

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 43. Having recognized a need, the buyer next prepares a _____that describes the
characteristics and quantity of the needed item.
A. Information search
B. general need description
C. Need recognition
D. Evaluation of alternatives
44. In the _______stage of the business buying process, the buyer invites qualified suppliers
to submit proposals.
A. Proposal solicitation
B. Information search
C. General need description
D. Need recognition
45. _______ a child learns primarily by imitating the behavior of selected others, such as
family, friends and TV heroes.
A. Informal learning
B. Formal learning
C. Technical Learning
D. All of the above
46. ___________ Family members who provide information to other family members about
the product/service
A. Gatekeepers
B. Influencer
C. Deciders
D. Buyers
47. ________Family members who make the actual purchase of a particular product/service
A. buyer
B. Gatekeepers
C. Preparers
D. Users
48. ________occurs when a new product, service, attribute, or idea that has utilitarian
benefits that are different from or better than those of alternatives.
A. Aesthetic innovation
B. Functional innovation
C. Symbolic innovation
D. All of the above
49. ______the degree to which the innovation appears superior to existing products.
A. Compatibility
B. relatively advantage
C. Complexity
D. Communicability
50. _____ the degree to which the innovation fits the values and experiences of consumers.
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 A. compatibility
B. Divisibility
C. Complexity
D. Communicability
51. _______ the degree to which the innovation is difficult to understand or use.
A. Compatibility
B. Divisibility
C. complexity
D. Communicability
52. -______ are traditional bound consumers who are suspicious only when it has become
something of a tradition itself.
A. Innovators
B. Early adaptors
C. laggard
D. Early majority
53. In a consumer behavior context, an ____is a learned predisposition to behave in a
consistently favorable or unfavorable way with respect to a given object.
A. Learning
B. attitude
C. Behavior
D. Knowledge
54. _______is the immediate and direct response of the sensory organs to stimuli.
A. sensation
B. Attitude
C. Behavior
D. Knowledge
55. _____is defined as the distinctive and enduring patterns of thoughts, emotions, and
behaviors that characterize each individual’s adaptation to the situations of his or her life.
A. Sensation
B. Attitude
C. Behavior
D. PERSONALITY

56. _______is when consumers select goals based upon totally objective criteria such as size,
weight, price or miles per gallon.
A. Emotional Motivation
B. Rational Motivation
C. Negative motivation
D. Positive motivation
57. Which one of the following is true about causes of new product failure?
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 A. Social & governmental constraints
B. Lack of marketing research activities and inaccurate result
C. Development costs are lower than expected
D. Competitors fight back harder than expected
E. All except C
58. _________ is original products, product improvements, product modifications, and new
brands developed from the firm’s own research and development.
A. Brand
B. Cost reduction
C. Repositioning
D. Non of the above
59. Which one is not true about factors for successful innovation?
A. Customer based
B. Market need
C. Lack of support of management
D. Delegation

60. ___________ a detailed version of the idea stated in meaningful consumer terms.
A. Market testing
B. Concept development & testing
C. Marketing strategy
D. Idea screening
61. _________ are given the sole task of developing new products.
A. New product departments
B. New product committees
C. New product venture teams
D. New product development

62. Organization uses new product for different purpose. Which one is not the purpose?
A. To decrease market share
B. To appeal to new segment
C. To diversify in to new market
D. To maintain firm’s reputation
63. One of the following is not true about the ability of a strong brand.
A. It simplify decision making
B. It increase risk to customers
C. Helps to set expectations
D. It influence preference
64. Which one of the following is a correct statement about brand?
A. Branding is imperative when identity is lost due to homogeneity
B. The nucleus of branding seems to be uniformity
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 C. Brand plays a vital part in enhancing marketing and corporate performance
D. All of the above
65. Which branding strategy is used when product carry the name of the seller?
A. Corporate branding
B. Umbrella branding
C. Private branding
D. Cobranding
66. One of the branding perspective that visualizes a brand as a person possessing certain
traits like masculine or feminine, sophisticated, dependable, friendly, young etc.
A. Visual/ Verbal perspective
B. Personality perspective
C. Positioning perspective
D. Value perspective
67. One of the following is not the reason why brand is a matter for customers.
A. To legally protect feature
B. Promise with maker of product
C. Risk reducer
D. Signal of quality
68. Building a strong brand is essential. One of the following is NOT its importance
A. To provide a vital differentiator
B. To create loyalty & advocacy
C. To act as a barrier to competition
D. To command a lower price
69. In _________brand challenge scenarios, so many brands engaged in expansion, channels
of distribution have become clogged, and many brand battles are waged just to get
products on the shelf.
A. Savvy Customers
B. Media Transformation
C. Brand proliferation
D. Consumer Revolt
70. One of the following is a set of brand assets and liabilities linked with a particular brand
name element that adds or subtracts value.
A. Brand image
B. Brand awareness
C. Brand equity
D. Brand association
71. _____occurs when the consumer has high level of awareness and familiarity with the
brand and holds some strong, favorable, and unique brand association in memory.
A. Brand image
B. Customer based brand equity
C. Brand association
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 D. Brand awareness
72. Which one of the following is true abut positive customer based brand equity?
A. Customers react more favorably to a product
B. Less sensitivity to a price increase
C. Accepting new brand extension
D. All of the above
73. One of the following is not the benefits of Customer based bran equity.
A. Enjoy greater brand loyalty
B. Command lower price
C. Yield licensing opportunities
D. Support brand extensions
74. __________are short phrases that communicate descriptive or persuasive information
about the brand.
A. Uniform resource locators
B. Logos
C. Slogan
D. Symbols
75. This element of the brand was important branding devices during the first half of the
twentieth century, when broadcast advertising was confined primarily to radio.
A. Characters
B. Symbols
C. Packages
D. Jingles
76. _____criteria of branding focuses on defending trade mark from unauthorized use.
A. Memorability
B. Adaptability
C. Protectable
D. Transferable
77. ________ represent how often and how easily customers think of the brand under various
purchase of consumption situation.
A. Brand performance
B. Brand knowledge
C. Brand relevance
D. Brand silence
78. ____is the act of designing the company’s offer and image to occupy a distinct and
valued place in the target customer’s minds.
A. Customer segmentation
B. Brand positioning
C. Brand targeting
D. Brand differentiation
79. One of the following is not true about POD (point of difference).
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 A. Demonstrate superiority
B. Require uniqueness
C. Driven by the needs of category membership
D. More challenging to attain than POPs
80. To determine ____, identifying the right category membership is essential; which
indicates set of products with which a brand competes.
A. Frame of reference
B. Point of difference
C. Point of parity
D. None of the above
81. When the target customers find the POD to be unique and superior, it is said to have___
A. distinctiveness
B. Relevant
C. Believability
D. Feasibility
82. While establishing POP and POD, conflict might arise that marketers should take care of
the issue because when a brand is positioned as _____which is a positive attribute the
reverse might be communicated i.e. cheap and poor quality.
A. Prestigious
B. Affordable
C. Expensive
D. Costly
83. The rapid expansion of the internet and continued fragmentation of mass media have
brought the need for one of the following. Which one is it?
A. Personalized marketing
B. Mass marketing
C. Relationship marketing
D. All of the above
E. All except B
84. Which one of the following after marketing program has purpose of identifying,
maintaining, and increasing the yield from a firm’s ‘best’ customers through long-term
interactive value-added relationships?
A. Loyalty program
B. User Manuals
C. Customer Service Programs
D. All of the above
85. If one attempt to sell the right product at the right price to better meet consumer wishes.
Which pricing strategy did he/she pursue?
A. Value based pricing strategies
B. Everyday low pricing
C. Market penetration
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 D. Market skimming
86. Which of the following pricing strategies has received increased attention as a means of
determining price discounts and promotions over time?
A. Value based pricing strategies
B. Everyday low pricing
C. Product design and delivery
D. Market skimming
87. Companies can use one of the following means to sell their product directly to their
customers, except.
A. Company-Owned Stores
B. Store-Within-a-Store
C. Agent
D. Electronic means
88. Which of the following is a graphical representation of all the brands and products sold
by the firm?
A. Brand product matrix
B. Brand portfolio
C. Brand line
D. Brand hierarchy
89. When a firm develops hierarchy and it signals refinement or differences in the brand,
what are they developing

A. Family brand
B. Corperate brand
Corperate brand
C. Individual brand
D. Modifier
90. Which of the effort is possible for brands that have clear, relevant values that have been
left dormant for a long time?
A. Adjusting brand portfolio
B. Revitalizing brands
C. Reinforcing brands
D. None
91. Which of the following is the correct combination in managing brand over time?
A. Adjustment to the brand portfolio - Maintaining brand consistency & retiring
brands
B. Revitalizing - Expanding brand awareness & improving brand image
C. Reinforcing brands - Protecting sources of brand equity & migration strategy
D. Revitalizing - Improving brand image & protecting sources of brand equity
92. Because of dramatic or adverse changes in the marketing environment, some brands are
just not worth saving. Their sources of brand equity may have essentially dried up, or,
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 even worse, damaging and difficult-to-change new associations may have been
created. In the face of such adversity, what management decisive is appropriate?
A. Retire or milk the brand.
B. revitalize
C. Reinforcing
D. None of the above
93. Which of the following describe the volume of a specific product a defined customer or
customer group in particular geographic area buys during a specified period of time?
A. Need
B. Want
C. demand
D. Supply
94. One of the following is generated by individuals who buy goods and services to satisfy
their own personal needs?
A. Direct demand
B. Derived demand
C. Inelastic demand
D. Fluctuating demand
95. ___takes place if price changes have little impact on the quantity of goods or services
demanded?
A. Direct demand
B. Derived demand
C. In elastic demand
D. Fluctuating demand

VERSION5

PROJECT1

1. Marketing utility consists of ________.

A. Price.

B. Place, price.

C. Product, place, price and profit.

D. Product, Price, place, promotion

2. A place for buying and selling activities is called ________.

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A. Market.

B. Marketing.

C. Market research.

D. Market information.

3. The exchange value of a good service in terms of money is_________.

A. Price.

B. Product.

C. Buying.

D. Selling.

4. Selling the same product at different prices is known as________.

A. Price lining.

B. Dual pricing.

C. Geographical pricing.

D. Monopoly pricing.

5. The words used to convey the advertisement idea is ____________.

A. Advertisement.

B. Advertisement Research.

C. Advertisement copy.

D. Advertisement budget

6. Advertisement promotes_________.

A. . Purchases.

B. Production.

C. Sales.

D. Price.

7. Agricultural products are_________.

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A. Perishable.

B. Highly priced.

C. Low quality products.

D. Heterogeneous goods

8. The social aspect of marketing is to ensure_________.

A. Price.

B. Demand.

C. Low price with high quality.

D. Service goods.

9. The orange juice manufacturers know that orange juice is most often consumed in the

mornings. However, they would like to change this and make the drink acceptable during other

time periods during the day. Which form of segmentation would they need to work with and

establish strategy reflective of their desires?

A. Gender segmentation.

B. Benefit segmentation

C. Occasion segmentation.

D. Age and life cycle segmentation

10. The typical method of retail operation used by supermarkets and catalog showrooms is

called:

A. Self service retailing.

B. Limited service retailing.

C. Full service retailing.

D. Service merchandiser.

11. Marketing creates profit by creating _____ to the buyer.

A. Value. B. Money. C. Product. D. Price.

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12._____ needs the interest of the buyer.

A. Product. B. Sales. C. Production. D. Manufacturing.

13. _____ includes the configuration of benefits, value, cost and satisfaction

A. Demand. B. Innovation. C. Creativity. D. Invention.

14. All companies strive to build _____ strength.

A. Brand. B. Image. C. Customer. D. Employee

15. Which one of the following is not one of the P s of marketing?

A. Product. B. Price. C. Place. D. Production.

16. . Which of the following best identifies how marketing must be understood today?

A. Satisfy customer needs. B. Marketing. C. Selling. D. Behaviour.

17. A _____ is a trade of vale between two or more parties.

A. Transaction. B. Exchange. C. Transfer. D. Prospecting.

18. Which concept holds that consumers will not buy enough of organizations product unless it

takes large scale selling and promotion effort?

A. Marketing. B. Selling. C. Production. D. Product. ANSWER: B

19. _____ includes that other company s offering similar products & services to the same

customer at similar prices.

A. Supply Chain. B. Competition. C. Product. D. Price

20._____ consists of a group of customers who share a similar set of wants

A. Micro Marketing B. Mass Marketing. C. Market Segment. D. Market targeting.

21. The starting point for discussing segmentation is _____.

A. Segregation. B. Positioning. C. Both. D. None

22. Need become _____ when they are directed to specific objects that might satisfy the need.

A. Wants B. Needs C. Demand. D. Flexibility.

23. A marketer is someone seeking a response from another party called _____.

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A. Marketer. B. Prospect. C. Supplier. D. Distributor.

24._____ are wants for specific products that are backed up an ability and willingness to buy
them.

A. Demand. B. Wants. C. Needs. D. Desire.

25. Which is intangible among the following?

A. Product. B. Services. C. Products & services. D. Sales.

26. _____emerges when people decide to satisfy and want through exchange.

A. Marketing. B. Sales. C. Purchase. D. Accounting.

27. _____ concept holds consumers will favour those products that offer the most quality or

performance.

A. Product. B. Selling. C. Production. D. Sales.

28.______ concept holds that consumers will favour those products that are conveniently

available in adequate quantity and affordable.

A. Product. B. Production. C. Selling. D. Buying.

29._____ concepts holds that consumers if left alone will ordinarily not buy enough of the

Organization s products.

A. Marketing. B. Product. C. Selling. D. Buying.

30. _____ involves managing demand, which in turn involves managing customer relationship.

A. Marketing management. B. Direct marketing.

C. Production management. D. Advertising.

31. At which stage in the International Trade Cycle does a country usually import foreign goods?

A. Introduction stage. B. Growth stage. C. Maturity stage. D. Saturation stage.

32. Which stage of the product lifecycle is marked by falling costs and rising revenues?

A. Introduction stage. B. Growth stage. C. Maturity stage. D. Saturation stage.

33. The usual source for new products is_____.

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A. Marketing research

B. R&D.

C. Accidental discoveries.

D. A variety of sources including customers, competitors, serendipity and formal processes

34. The term marketing refers to_____.

A. New product concepts and improvements.

B. Advertising and promotion activities.

C. A philosophy that stresses customer value and satisfaction.

D. Planning sales campaigns.

35. A brand is a _______.

A. Name. B. Term. C. Sign. D. A combination of all of the above.

36. A marketing philosophy summarized by the phrase a good product will sell itself is

Characteristic of the_________ period.

A. Production. B. Sales. C. Marketing. D. Relationship.

37. An organization with a______ orientation assumes that customers will resist purchasing

Products not deemed essential. The job of marketers is to overcome this resistance through

personal selling and advertising.

A. Production. B. Marketing. C. Relationship. D. Sales.

38. In the relationship marketing firms focus on__________ relationships with__________.

A. Short term customers and suppliers.

B. Long term customers and suppliers.

C. Short term customers.

D. Long term customers.

39. Which of the following is NOT an element of the marketing mix?

A. Distribution. B. Product. C. Target market. D. Pricing.

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40. The term marketing mix describes _____.

A. A composite analysis of all environmental factors inside and outside the firm.

B. A series of business decisions that aid in selling a product.

C. The relationship between a firm's marketing strengths and its business weaknesses.

D. A blending of four strategic elements to satisfy specific target marker.

41. Newsletters, catalogues, and invitations to organisation-sponsored events are most closely

associated with the marketing mix activity of _____.

A. Pricing. B. Distribution. C. Product development. D. Promotion.

42. A market with which of the following characteristics would generally be less competitive?

A. High barriers to entry.

B. Lots of potential substitutes exist.

C. Strong bargaining power among buyers.

D. Strong bargaining power among suppliers.

43. The process of anticipating future events and conditions and determining the best way to

achieve organizational objectives is known as_______.

A. Researching. B. Planning. C. Controlling. D. Managing.

44. Which one of the following best describes the present value of the stream of future profits

expected over the customer s life time purchase?

A. Customers Life time value. B. Suppliers Life time Value.

C. Company s life time value. D. Future value.

45. Market expansion is usually achieved by_______.

A. More effective use of distribution.

B. More effective use of advertising

C. By cutting prices.

D. All of the above are suitable tactics.

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46. The following are all major stages of a product life cycle except_____.

A. Sales decline. B. Market maturity. C. Market Introduction. D. Market Growth.

47. Techniques of sales promotions are _____.

A. Free samples. B. Free offers. C. Merchandising. D. All the above.

48. A _____ is a set of segements sharing some exploitable similarity.

A. Over segment. B. Counter segment. C. Super segment. D. Selection segment.

49. The firm must consider whether investing in the segment makes sense givng the firm _____

and____.

A. Knowledge & objective. B. Objective & resource.

C. Knowledge & resource. D. None.

50. _____ and ____ are the major factors influencing the selection of suppliers.

A. Price and Quantity B. Price and Quality.

C. Price and Delivery. D. Quantity and Delivery.

51. Promotion mix includes Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Advertising and

a) Marketing b) Sales c) Publicity d) None of these

52. Copy testing is also known as

a) Pre Testing b) Copy writing c) concurrent testing d) Preview

53. Consumer promotion, trade promotion and ____ are the three forms of sales promotion

a) Media Promotion b) Sales Force Promotion c) Core Promotion d) Media Mix

54. ______ media can give 24 hour exposure to the public eye.

a) Television b) Print c) Internet d) Flex Board

55. It is popularly known as free form of promotion

a) Advertisement b) Publicity c) Personal Selling d) Marketing

56. Which among the following is an example of Trade promotion?

a) Coupons b) Samples c) Push Money d) None of these

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57. Which among the following is a Pull Strategy?

a) Trade promotion b) Consumer Promotion c) Sales Force Promotion d) None of these

58. If a company gives false message to the customers, it is known as

a) Obscene ads b) Subliminal ads c) Deception d) None of these

59. The strategy that encourages dealers and distributors to sell a product is known as

a) Push b) Pull c) Combination d) Marketing

60. Creating image of product in the minds of target group is called

a) Marketing b) positioning c) Branding d) Popularizing

61. The process of purchasing space in a media is

a) Media Spacing b) Media Scheduling c) Media Purchasing d) Media Buying

62. The plan that show time, date and frequency of an advertisement is

a) Media Plan b) Media Schedule c) Media Time d) Media Space

63. Series of advertisement messages that share a single idea or theme is

a) Advertisement Campaign b) Advertisement Group

c) Advertisement Cluster d) Advertisement Series

64. Point of Purchase Ads are also known as

a) In-Store Advertising b) Built-in Advertising c) Green Advertising d) Stock Advertising

65. The specific carrier within a medium is called

a) Media Carrier b) Media Bus c) Media Van d) Media Vehicle

66. A series of actions that media planners take to attain the media objectives

a) Media Function b) Media Strategy c) Media Policy d) Media Option

67. The combination of media used for advertising in a target market is

a) Media Mix b) Market-Media Match c) Media Advertising d) Media Option

68. Selection of most appropriate cost-effective medium in advertisement is

a) Media Buying b) Media Scheduling c) Media Purchasing d) Media Selection

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69. Direct mail advertising sends messages through

a) Audio b) Video c) Mail d) None of these

70. Which of the following is more of personal medium of advertisement?

a) Internet Advertisement b) Broadcast Media c) Direct Mail Advertising d) Print Media

71. Independent organization of creative people for advertisement and promotional tools are

called

a)Advertisement Makers b) Advertisement Creators

c) Advertisement Developers d) Advertisement Agency

72. Which tool of the promotional mix consists of short-term incentives to encourage the

purchase or sale of a product or service?

a) advertising b) public relations c) direct marketing d) sales promotion

73. If a company wants to build a good “corporate image,” it will probably use which of the

following marketing communications mix tools?

a) advertising b) public relations c) direct marketing d) sales promotion

74. _____ is direct communications with carefully targeted individual consumers to obtain an

immediate response.

a) Personal selling b) Public relations c) Direct marketing d) Sales promotion

75. Which of the following promotional forms is often described as being too impersonal and

only a one-way communication form?

a) advertising b) personal selling c) public relations d) sales promotion

76. The promotion tool that may include coupons, contests, premiums, and other means of

attracting consumer attention is best described as being which of the following?

a) advertising b) personal selling c) public relations d) sales promotion

77. A __________ is a promotion strategy that calls for using the sales force and trade promotion

to move the product through channels.

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a) push strategy b) pull strategy c) blocking strategy d) integrated strategy

78. Which of the following strategies is usually followed by B2C companies with respect to
promotion strategy?

a) Push strategy b) Pull strategy c) Blocking strategy d) Integrated strategy

79. Which of the following strategies is usually followed by B2B companies with respect to
promotion strategy?

a) Push strategy b) Pull strategy c) Blocking strategy d) Integrated strategy

80. Marketing management must make four important decisions when developing an advertising

program. All of the following would be among those decisions EXCEPT:

a) Setting advertising objectives. b) Conducting advertising culture audit

c) Setting the advertising budget. d) Developing advertising strategy.

81. The first step in developing an advertising program should be to:

a) Set advertising objectives. b) Set the advertising budget.

c) Evaluate advertising campaigns. d) Develop advertising strategy.

82. A specific communication task to be accomplished with a specific target audience during a

specific period of time is called an:

a) Advertising campaign. b) Advertising objective.

c) Advertising criterion. d) Advertising evaluation.

83. Which of the following WOULD NOT be one of the primary advertising objectives as
classified by primary purpose?

a) to inform b) to persuade c) to remind d) to make profits

84. __________ is used heavily when introducing a new product category.

a) Persuasive advertising b) Inferential advertising

c) Reminder advertising d) Informative advertising

85. Keeping consumers thinking about the product is the objective for which type of advertising?

a) Informative advertising. b) Psychological advertising.

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c) Reminder advertising. d) Persuasive advertising.

86. Determining the promotion budget on the basis of financial availability of capital is

characteristic of which of the following budget methods?

a) Affordable method b) percentage-of-sales method

c) competitive-parity method d) objective-end-task method

87. Setting the promotion budget so as to match the budgets of the competitors is characteristic

of which of the following budget methods?

a) Affordable method b) Percentage-of-Sales method

c) competitive-parity method d) Objective-end-task method

88. _____are vehicles or channels through which the advertising messages are transmitted to

target consumers so that the desired action may be induced at the consumer level

a) advertisement media b) advertisement copy c) advertising layout d) teaser advertisements

89. _____ is a plan of presenting the message in a more specific and compact form within the

advertising space available to the target consumers

a) advertisement media b) advertisement copy

c) advertising layout d) teaser advertisements

90. All of the following methods are used for evaluating advertising effectiveness EXCEPT:

a) Pre- test b) Post- test c) Concurrent test d) Marginal test

91. All of the following methods are considered to be concurrent testing methods EXCEPT:

a) consumer diaries b) co-incidental surveys c) readability studies d) electronic devices

92. The central theme of an advertisement that motivates the consumer to make a purchase
decision is?

a) Advertising appeal b) Advertisement script c) Slogan d) Headline

93. The aggregate of all the factors which arouse the needs of customers and guide them in final
selection is called?

a) Advertising appeal b) Advertising media c) Advertisement d) Buying motive

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94. Which among the following is not an essential of advertising appeal?

a) It must be conceptually sound b) It must be interesting

c) It must be economical d) It must be complete

95. The type of appeal which is related to a person‟s psychological and social needs for

purchasing products and services?

a) Rational appeal b) Emotional appeal c) Moral appeal d) Humour appeal

96. Aishwarya Rai Bachan endorsing L‟Oreal is an example of?

a) Rational appeal b) Beauty appeal c) Sex appeal d) Emotional appeal

97. The content and context of a message contained in an advertisement is called?

a) Ad copy b) Script c) Body d) Advertising appeal

98. An Ad copy which informs the target group the fact that the manufacturer is established

enough to give them the right goods is?

a) Institutional copy b) straight selling copy c) Educational copy d) expository copy

99. Searching and identifying potential buyers for a product is ___

a) Selling b) Prospecting c) Compelling d) Canvasing

100. If a copy tells openly and directly all the features of a product or a service with the help of

suitable pictures, photos and diagrams to impress a customer, it is called?

a) descriptive copy b) educational copy c) straight selling copy d) expository copy

101. An Ad copy that uses the endorsement of a satisfied customer?

a) comparative copy b) reminder copy c) expository copy d) testimonial Ad copy

102. Which among the following is the right sequence of copywriting process?

a) planning, research, organisation, writing, checking, proof reading, editing, revision

b) research, planning, organisation, writing, checking, proof reading, editing, revision

c) planning, research, organisation, writing, checking, editing, proof reading, revision

d) research, planning, organisation, writing, checking, editing, proof reading, revision

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103. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Two major dimensions of advertising are message creation and message
dissemination

Statement 2: Message creation is meaningful once the advertisement is created.

a) Both statements are right b) Both statements are wrong

c) Only Statement 1 is correct d) Only statement 2 is correct

104. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Media planning refers to series of decision involving delivery of messages to the
target audience

Statement 2: The central theme of media planning is message dissemination.

a) Both statements are right b) Both statements are wrong

c) Only Statement 1 is correct d) Only statement 2 is correct

105. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Media planning starts with analysis target audience

Statement 2: Media strategy is concerned with the selection of appropriate media)

a) Both statements are right b) Both statements are wrong

c) Only Statement 1 is correct d) Only statement 2 is correct

106. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Print media is the oldest and basic forms of mass communication.

Statement 2: Print media can make a faster delivery than broadcast media)

a) Both statements are right b) Both statements are wrong

c) Only Statement 1 is correct d) Only statement 2 is correct

107. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Point of purchase advertising refers to advertising at the place and time of purchase

Statement 2: It is similar to window dressing.

a) Both statements are right b) Both statements are wrong

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c) Only Statement 1 is correct d) Only statement 2 is correct Ans: C

108. Which among the following is not a function of ad agency?

a) Conduct market analysis b) Develop advertising plans

c) Develop media strategy d) Collect feedback from target audience.

109. Which among the following is not an objective of advertising research?

a) Improve the efficiency of an ad b) Develop advertising plans

c) Evaluate impact of an ad d) To avoid wastage of money

110. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: Post testing is an evaluation conducted to know whether a proposed ad campaign is

appealing to target group

Statement 2: It is also known as copy testing.

a) Both statements are right b) Both statements are wrong

c) Only Statement 1 is correct d) Only statement 2 is correct

111. Showing the product in a picture as being bigger than it actually is an example of

a) Deception b) Subliminal Ads c) Obscene ads d) Challenging

112. _____ is a self-regulatory voluntary organization of the advertising industry

a) Securities and Exchange Board of India b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

c) Medical Council of India d) Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI)

113. Colgate is offering scholarships worth one lakh rupees to Indian students. This highlights

a) Advertising clutter b) Corporate Social Responsibility

c) Advertising revolution d) Mass advertising

114. Benetton „Unhate‟ ad campaign, featuring world leaders kissing is a case of ____

a) Subliminal ads b) Misleading c) Obscene d) Appealing

115. Axe body spray ads are examples of _____

a) Obscene advertisements b) Deception c) Subliminal d) Rational appeal

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116. The large volume of advertising in a society is known as ____

a) Advertising clutter b) Deception c) Mass advertising d) Large scale advertising

117. It is criticized that advertising causes people to give too much importance to _______

a) Fashion b) Material goods c) Cost of product d) Standard of living

118. Advertising is an important source of revenue to ____

a) Advertisers b) Public c) Media d) Government

119. Advertisement aims at _________

a) Product selling b) Marketing c) Customer relations d) Mass communication

120. __________ is directed towards consumers and traders with the intention to increase

immediate or short term sales.

a) Advertising b) Direct selling c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity

121. The basic objective of push strategy is to encourage the ___________

a) Consumer b) middlemen c) Producer c) Public

122. A pull sales promotion strategy concentrates on the __________

a) Consumer b) middlemen c) Producer c) Sales force

123. The sales promotion strategy which concentrates on the middlemen and consumers is

known as______________

a) Pull Strategy b)Combination strategy c) Sale force Strategy d) Push Strategy

124. Couponing is an example of________________

a) Consumer promotion Techniques b) Trader Promotion Techniques

c) Sales Force Promotion Technique d) Dealer Promotion Technique

125. The reduction in the price of a product for a short span of time is known as___________

a) Rebate b) Free Offer c) Price off offer d)Trade offer

126. ______ is a non-paid form of promotion

a) Advertising b) Direct Marketing c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity

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127. ________ is the oral communication with potential buyers of a product with the intention of

making a sale.

a) Personal Selling b) Direct Marketing c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity

128. __________ is the sum total of values, assets and liabilities generated by a branded product

over a period of time.

a) Brand loyalty b) Brand association c) Brand Equity d) Brand awareness

129. ____________ is a measure of attachment that a consumer has to a brand.

a) Brand loyalty b) Brand association c) Brand Equity d) Brand awareness

130. Communication activities which provide incentives to consumer is known as_________

a) Advertising b) Direct Marketing c) Sales Promotion d) Publicity

131. Merchandise allowance is a __________ technique.

a) Consumer promotion Techniques b) Trader Promotion Techniques

c) Sales Force Promotion Technique d) Pull Promotion Technique

132. The additional amount of money consumers are willing to pay for a brand is known as ___

a) Brand loyalty b) Brand association c) Brand Equity d) Brand awareness

133. Sales persons who want for the sales to come to them is known as

a) Transactional b) Closers c) Relational d) Consultants

134. The process which consists of six stages; prospecting, preapproach, approach, presentation,

close, and follow-up is called the:

a) Product Marketing Process b) Direct Marketing process

c) Personal selling process d) Purchase decision process

135. Excuses for NOT making a purchase commitment or decision are called

a) Constraints b) Interventions c) Troubles d) Objections

136. The final stage in the personal sales process is the stage

a) Follow-up b) Assumptive close c) Trial Close d) Presentation

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137. AIDA stands for Awareness, ______, Desire and _____.

a) Interest; Action b) Idea; Approach c) Intensity; Appeal d) Involvement; Appeal

138. A consumer contest is an example of _____.

a) Personal Selling b) Sales Promotion c) Advertisement d) Indirect Selling

139. Avon, Amway, and Tupperware use which of the following forms of channel distribution?

a. direct marketing channel b. indirect marketing channel

c. forward channel d. fashion channel

140. Makers of televisions, cameras, tires, furniture, and major appliances normally use which of
the following distribution channel forms?

a. direct marketing channel b. indirect marketing channel

c. horizontal channel d. synthetic channel

141. The benefits of marketing channels are………..

(a) Cost saving (b) Time saving (c) Financial support given (d) All of above

142. ________________ is a marketing channel that has no intermediary levels.

a. direct marketing channel b. indirect marketing channel

c. forward channel d. hybrid channel

143. Which of the following is not a promotion mix?

A. Sales promotion. B. Personal selling. C. Forecasting. D. Advertising

144. Two main components of sales promotion are ______.

A. Trade promotion and consumer promotion. B. marketing promotion and sales promotion.

C. Consumer promotion and marketing promotion. D. none.

145. Marketing and selling are _____.

A. Same. B. Different. C. Almost same D. Fully varies.

146. _____is not a part of the external marketing environment.

A. Political. B. Legal. C. Product. D. Socio cultural.

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147. The middlemen who do not take any title to goods

A. Retailer. B. Wholesaler. C. Agent. D. Commission houses.

148. ____ are the basic human requirements

A. Needs. B. Wants. C. Luxuries. D. Offerings.

149. The direct channel has the limitation of _____.

A. Market exploitation. B. Communication. C. Control. D. Cost .

150. This marketing component is most likely to be standardized_____

A. Brand . B. Price. C. Advertising. D. Distribution. ANSWER: A

VERSION 6

MISRAK PTC

DEPARTMENT: BUSINESS, SECTION :-MARKETING ,LEVEL3. UC. PLAN AND

IMPLEMENT SALES

NAME_________________________________________________ IDNO._______
SECTION_______

PROJECT1. Choose the best alternative answer

1. Selling the same product at different prices is known as_____? A. Price lining. B. Dual
pricing
C. Geographical pricing D. Monopoly pricing.
2. Which concept holds that consumers will not buy enough of organizations product unless it
takes large scale selling and promotion effort? A. Marketing. B. Selling. C. Production. D.
Product. E. A&C

3. A place for buying and selling activities is called _____A. Market research B. Marketing C.
Market

D. Market information

4. __ concepts holds that consumers if left alone will ordinarily not buy enough of the
Organization s products.

A. Marketing. B. Product. C. Selling. D. Buying E. all except D

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5. Which stage of the product lifecycle is marked by falling costs per customers and high
profits?

A. Introduction stage. B. Growth stage. C. Maturity stage. D. Saturation stage.

6. _____is not a part of the external marketing environment. A. Political. B. Legal. C. Product.
D. Socio cultural E. boycott F.A&C

7. The exchange value of a good service in terms of money is__? A. Price. B. Product. C. Buying
D/ Selling E. A &B

8. Which the following is/are the methods of price tactics? A/ 2/10, n/30 B. even price C/price
lining D/all

9. Which marketing philosophy is an “outside-in” perspective (focuses on needs, values, and

satisfactions)? A/ selling concept A/marketing concept C/ production concept D/A &B

10. The stage is the product life cycle that focuses on expanding market and creating product
awareness and trial is the: A/ decline stage B/ introduction stage C/ growth stage D/all

PROJECT2. Briefly explain the following tasks

1. marketing planning processes
2. If you are assigned as marketing officer what are the methods you may used for
price setting?
3. Challenges of price setting
4. 4.Factors influencing a sales forecasting

PROJECT2

INSTRUCTOR. MERGA A

Choose the answer and write the letter of your choice on the separated answer sheet.

1. Who sells goods to the final consumers? A. Manufacturers C. Middle men

B. Retailers D. Distributors

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2. The set of independent organizations responsible for making a product available to the
consumer is called; A. Fulfillment art C. Marketing channels B. Retailer D. Sales
managers

3. ------------ encompasses all activities associated with the flow and transformation of goods
from the raw material stage, through to the end user, as well as the associated information flows;

A. Production line C. Marketing channel B. Supply chain D. Warehouse

4. Cost efficiency is determined by which of the following drivers?

A. Supply costs, experience, product/process design and economies of scale.

B. Supply costs and economies of scale C. Product/process design and economies of scale

D. Experience

5. Athlete KENENIS B. is the only dealer of Hyundai car in Ethiopia. He is the only one who
gets the permission to deliver Hyundai cars in the country. Which distribution system involves
territorial protection for authorized dealers like Athlete KENENISA B?

A. Direct distribution C. Indirect distribution B. Exclusive distribution D. Intensive

distribution

6. Which of the following transportation modes used for digital products?

A. Raid C. Air B. Truck D. Internet

7. The logistics strategic analysis;

A. Reflects the capability of the management to think beyond the current way.

B. Reflects the extent of use of logistical component for competitive advantage.

C. Ensures effective implementation of logistics strategy.

D. Deals with managing change.

8. The department in the shipping company that ensures the seaworthiness of ship is;

A. Husbandry department C. Technical department B. Finance department D. Operating

department

9. Which of the following marketing channel function helps to fulfill the completed transaction?

A. Gathering and distributing information about consumers.

B. Reaching an agreement on price and other terms.

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C. Communicating with prospective buyers.

D. Assuming the risks of carrying out the channel network.

10. Which of the following discount is offered by a manufacturer to the members of channel, in
case they perform certain functions such as selling, storing and record keeping?

A. Cash discount D. Trade discount B. Allowance E. Seasonal discount C. Quantity discount

11. Competitive advantage can be created and achieved by logistics managers through;

A. Cost advantage C. Value advantage B. Quality D. Cost and value advantage

12. If shipment is not effected within the permitted free days, the goods incur;

A. Dead freight C. Demurrage B. Rebate D. Back freight

13. A highly coordinated distribution channel designed to improve operating efficiency and
marketing effectiveness is called;

A. Horizontal marketing system C. Parallel marketing system

B. Alternative marketing system D. Vertical marketing system

14. Warehouse management does not include;

A. Space determination D. Stock design B. Stock layout E. Order picking procedure

C. Stock design

15. The document that is used to differentiate liner operations from tramp operations is;

A. Bill of entry C. Letter of credit B. Charter party D. Shipping bill

16. The warehouses located near the port is;

A. Field warehouse C. Bonded warehouse B. Buffer storage warehouse D. Export and

import warehouse

17. A ------------------------- Represents a chain of businesses or through which the final buyer
purchases a good or service.

A. Place D. Production B. Distribution channel E. None of the above C. Price

18. Which of the following is not true for supply chain management approach?

A. Joint reduction in channel inventories.

B. Large breadth of supplier base to increase competition and spread risk.

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C. Risks and rewards are shared over long term.

D. Companies use intermodal transportation to reach to their markets.

19. This is where the perception on the part of a channel member is that its goal attainment is
being impeded by another, with stress or tension the result;

A. Channel communication C. Channel relationships B. Channel conflict D. Customer conflict

20. The practice of cutting inventories to absolute minimum levels and requiring vendors to
deliver the items as they are needed in the production process is known as;

A. It’s-about-time (IAT) C. One-more-time (OMT) B. Just-in-time (JIT) D. Next-time-in (NTI)

21. These are chains of organizations that are concerned with the management of the processes
and activities involved in creating and moving products from producers and manufacturers to
end-user customers.

A. Distribution C. Communication B. Vendor D. Selling

22. The purpose of supply chain management is;

A. Provide customer satisfaction C. Integrating supply and demand management

B. Improve quality of a product D. Increasing production

23. The time difference between a business ordering and receiving stock is called;

A. Recorder quantity C. Buffer stock B. Lead time D. Recorder level

24. A kind of transportation where no empty wagons or containers are bought back is;

A. Rail B. Road C. Pipeline

25. The goal of logistics is;

A. To achieve a target level of customer service at lowest possible cost.

B. To achieve a targeted level of customer service. C. Increase in the market share. D. All of the .

26. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. A short distribution channel is recommended for inexpensive products to avoid the potential
loss of revenue to a third-party member.

B. A short distribution channel is suggested for products that require extensive technical support.

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C. A short distribution channel is preferred if a company wants to increase its control over
distribution related activities.

D. A long distribution channel is appropriate for a company with a limited number of standard
products.

27. Place utility is created by; A. Operation function C. Procurement function

B. Logistics function D. None of the above

28. A clothing company is looking to enter a new market in a foreign country. It is unsure about
the local culture and regulations, and also wants to minimize the risk of financial losses. Which
of the following intermediaries would be best suited for this purpose?

A. Wholesalers C. Brokers B. Agents D. Retailers

29. The series of internal departments that carryout value-creating activities to design, produce,
market, deliver, and support a firm’s products is known as;

A. Product chain D. Value chain B. Supply chain E. None of the above C. Marketing chain

30. The document that is used in imports and not in exports is;

A. Bill of entry C. Letter of credit B. Charter party D. Shipping bill

31. The permitted free days for the goods to be kept in port for shipment is;

A. 5 days C. 10 days B. 7 days D. 15 days

32. The channel alternative is not to be assessed on the basis of;

A. Economic criteria C. Adaptive criteria

B. Control criteria D. Accumulation criteria

33. Which of the following means placing your products or services in as many outlets or
locations as possible, in order to maximize the opportunity for customers to find the good or
service?

A. Exclusive distribution C. Selective distribution

B. Intensive distribution D. Direct distribution

34. Packaging performs two functions. What are these?

A. Distribution and logistics C. Material handling and marketing

B. Store keeping and marketing D. Marketing and logistics

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35. The term used for loading or unloading of heavy cargo is;

A. Rigging C. Carnage B. Slinging D. Forced discharge

36. Which of the following is not a part of supply chain management system?

A. Supplier C. Information flow

B. Manufacturer D. Competition

37. The freight broker’s duty of acting for the actual ship owner in finding cargo for the vessel is;

A. Chartering duty C. Owner broker B. Sale and purchase D. Cabling broker

38. Firms that help the company to promote, sell, and distribute its goods to final buyers are
known as;

A. Sales intermediary’s C. Product promotion intermediaries

B. Marketing intermediaries D. Finance intermediaries

39. This can occur vertically that is between sequential members in a distribution network such
as producers, distributors and retailers.

A. Horizontal conflict C. Vertical conflict B. Network conflict D. Hybrid conflict

40. Which of the following is true for supply chain management?

A. The physical material moves in the direction of the end of chain.

B. Flow of the cash backward through the chain.

C. Exchange of information moves in both directions. D. All of the above. E. None of the above.

41. The business term that involves choosing a supplier, agreeing what to buy at a certain price
and by when is called?

A. Logistics C. Stock control B. Supply chain management D. Procurement

42. The freight amount that is paid before the delivery of good is;

A. Lump sum C. Advance B. Dead D. Back

43. Which of the following is not the solution for channel conflict?

A. Establishing a channel wide committee for periodic evaluations of emerging problems related
to conflict.

B. A distribution executive position might be created for each major firm in the channel.

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C. Set a joint goal by the committee, which takes in to account the goals and special capacities of
the various channel members, the needs of consumers, and environmental constraints.

D. All of the above. E. None of the above.

44. -----------includes design and administration of system to control the flow of materials, work-
in-process and finished inventory to support business unit strategy.

A. Materials management C. Bills of materials B. Logistics management D. None of these

45. What are the elements of logistics system?

A. Transportation C. Inventory management B. Warehousing D. All of the above

46. The delivery of a damaged product has;

A. An increase in its value C. No change in its value B. A decrease in its value D. Better
demand

47. Which of the following is not true while determining length of distribution channel?

A. The larger the market size, the longer the channel.

B. If the average lot size is large, it is better to have a longer channel.

C. If the product and the market require a high level of service, it is advisable to keep a Shorter
channel.

D. If customers shop for an assortment of products, it demands for a wider channel of

distribution.

E. All of these are true.

48. The business activity of farming out identified non-core activities to external agencies is;

A. Logistics C. Outsourcing B. Supply Chain Management D. Distribution

49. which of the following is not part of the documents they play key role in the movement of
domestic freight?

A. Bill of landing C. Freight bill B. Letter of credit D. Freight claim form

50. Which of the following is not the cause of channel conflict?

A. Role incongruities C. Role incongruities Goal incompatibilities

B. Sufficient resources D. Expectation difference

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51. all are functions of retailers except?

A.. Provide personal services to all. B. Provide two way information.

C. . Undertake physical movement and storage of goods. D. producing products. E.all

VERSION 7

PROJECT1

What does the term PLC stands for?

(1) Product life cycle

(2) Production life cycle
(3) Product long cycle
(4) Production long cycle
(5) None of these

Q2. PLC in marketing represents two main challenges. 1st an organization must be good at
developing new product to replace old ones and 2nd it must be good at _________________.

(1) Functioning
(2) Marketing
(3) Selling
(4) Adapting
(5) Testing

Q3. Which of the following is stage of Product Life Cycle?

(1) Introduction Stage

(2) Growth stage
(3) Decline stage
(4) Mature stage
(5) All of the above

Q4. When a new product arrives in the market with higher quality, higher value and new features
better than its competitors. Such products are known as

(1) Superior products

(2) Develop superior products
(3) Unique superior products
(4) New products
(5) None of these

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Q5. Which of the following is not a characteristic of “Market Introduction Stage” in PLC?

(1) Demands has to be created

(2) Costs are low
(3) Makes no money at this stage
(4) Slow sales volume to start
(5) There is little or no competition

Q6. Developing a unique superior product with high quality, new features, and high value in use
is ______________________ in new product development strategy.

(1) New product development process

(2) Typical reasons for failure
(3) Success factors
(4) Product concept
(5) Develop superior product

Q7. Which thing will make the project more attractive while evaluating a new development
project using net present value analysis?

(1) Market penetration

(2) Sequential product development
(3) Idea generation
(4) Continuous improvements
(5) Idea screening

Q8. According to whom “ a product lifecycle is very much similar to human life cycle.”

(1) Arch Paton

(2) Stanton
(3) Neil Borden
(4) Philip Kotler
(5) Nielson

Q9. Increased competition leads to price decrease, increasing public awareness, sales volume
increase significantly are the characteristics of ______________ in PLC.

(1) Mature stage

(2) Decline stage
(3) Growth stage
(4) Market introduction stage
(5) None of these.

Q10. __________________________ includes review of sales, profit projections and cost for a
new product, to find out whether it satisfied the company objective or not.

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(1) Product Development
(2) Business Analysis
(3) Marketing Strategy
(4) Test Marketing
(5) Idea Screening

Q11. In _______________________ all the augmentations and transformations of a product

might undergo in the failure.
(1) Generic Product
(2) Expected Product
(3) Augmented Product
(4) Potential Product
(5) None of these

Q12. Which concept is useful for a family of products who shares similar technology?

(1) Product Platform

(2) Pricing Platform
(3) Process Platform
(4) Distribution Platform
(5) None of these

Q13. Color and size of the product, brand and packaging are considered as

(1) Chemical features of product

(2) Physical features of product
(3) Product designing
(4) Product manufacture
(5) Business strategy

Q14. A true definition of a product is the detailed version of the product only if it is stated in

(1) Meaningful marketer view

(2) Meaningful supplier view
(3) Meaningful consumer view
(4) Meaningful Manager view
(5) None of these
Q15. The most important performance dimension for product development project is

(1) Time to market

(2) Time to target
(3) Time to consumer
(4) Time to seller
(5) Time to manager
]

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Q16. A version of products containing only those features which are absolutely necessary for it
to function.

(1) Expected Product

(2) Augmented Product
(3) Generic Product
(4) Potential product
(5) None of thes
Q17. __________________________uses cross functional integration for concurrent
development of a product.

(1) Value engineering

(2) Concurrent engineering
(3) Business analysis
(4) Value analysis
(5) Product analysis

Q18. _________________________ outline the planned price, marketing budget, distribution

and describe the target market, planned product positioning, profit goals, market share, sales for
the first few years.

(1) Product development

(2) Business analysis
(3) Marketing strategy
(4) Test Market
(5) Sequential product development

Q19. More calls to the same customer, alternate marketing, and surrogate marketing all can be
done in case of ___________________.

(1) Commercialization
(2) Market penetration
(3) Business analysis
(4) Adapting
(5) Continuous improvement

Q20. _______________________is one of the challenges presented by the Product Life Cycle
for a product.

(1) Product development

(2) New product development
(3) Product testing
(4) Poor margins
(5) More products

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Q21. A detailed specification for the product development and pricing is established in
_____________________ stage of “Product Development Process”.

(1) Launch
(2) Testing
(3) Feature specification
(4) Idea screening
(5) Development

Q22. What would be the assumed percentage of newly launched product, will sure fail and
cannot achieve their potential to survive?

(1) Up to 90%
(2) Up to 80%
(3) Up to 70%
(4) Up to 60%
(5) Up to 50%
Q23. Linked with different marketing and technology strategy the overall corporate strategy is
considered as

(1) Differentiation strategy

(2) New product strategy
(3) Market strategy
(4) Product development strategy
(5) None of these

Q24. The cost, potential sale, profit of the offering are calculated at different price levels in
______________ stage of “Product Development Process”.

(1) Evaluation
(2) Testing
(3) Idea screening
(4) Idea generation
(5) Feature specification

Q25.______________________ is the reason for failure in “New Product Development

Strategy”

(1) Poor product design

(2) Incorrect positioning
(3) Price too high
(4) Market size overestimated
(5) All of the above
Q26. ________________ includes small number of representative test cities for marketing
campaigns store audits, consumer and distributor surveys.

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(1) Control test markets
(2) Standard test markets
(3) Stimulated test markets
(4) Commercialization
(5) None of these
Q27. Encourage all stakeholders like customers, dealers, employees etc to send ideas to the idea
manager and formally recognize the program to reward best new ideas is characteristic of which
stage in the “New Product Development Process”.

(1) Idea generation

(2) Idea screening
(3) Testing
(4) Development
(5) Evaluation

Q28. In __________________R&D needs to perform prototyping and testing of various

alternative implementation ways. The company conducts performance and safety tests possibly
with customer groups.

(1) Test marketing

(2) Product development
(3) Business strategy
(4) Market strategy
(5) Standard test market

Q29. Which is the next stage after “Idea Generation” in “New Product Development Process”?

(1) Feature specification

(2) Testing
(3) Development
(4) Idea Screening
(5) Evaluation

Q30. When more number of conversions takes place in a particular market, what does it mean in
terms of marketing?

(1) Marketing strategy development

(2) Decline stage
(3) Poor margin
(4) More products
(5) More customers

Q31. When market reach to its saturation, the producers begin to leave the market due
to____________

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(1) Marketing strategy development
(2) Decline stage
(3) Poor margin
(4) Market penetration
(5) None of these

Q32. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage represents rapid growth of product sale knows as

(1) Market introduction phase

(2) Growth phase
(3) Saturation phase
(4) Mature phase
(5) All of these

Q33. The objective of ______________________ is to achieve better performance at a lower

cost.

(1) Value Analysis/Value Engineering

(2) Quality Function Development
(3) Effective production step
(4) Continuous Improvements
(5) None of these
Q34. _______________________ Stage introduces a new product in the market.

(1) Evaluation
(2) Commercialisation
(3) Feature specification
(4) Development
(5) None of these

Q35. “A product has to pass through various stages and different competitive environments from
its introduction to decline” was stated by

(1) Arch Paton

(2) Philip Kotler
(3) Nielson
(4) Stanton
(5) Neil Borden

Q36. To reach forward for positioning strategy and to come back to core capabilities. Which
strategy is important in the case?

(1) Differentiation strategy

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(2) New product strategy
(3) Market strategy
(4) Product development strategy
(5) None of these
Q37. A new-product development approach in which one company department works to
complete its stage of the process before passing the new product along to the next department
and help to control complex and risky projects. This stage is called

(1) Simultaneous product development

(2) Sequential product development
(3) Product development
(4) Marketing strategy statement
(5) None of these
Q38. ________________________ increases consumption of the current product and reposition
the brand to appeal to a larger or faster-growing segment.

(1) Modifying the market mix

(2) Modifying the market
(3) Modifying the product
(4) Modifying the process
(5) None of these
Q39. In terms of “Product Life Cycle”, a style is a basic and distinctive mode of

(1) Perception
(2) Growth
(3) Impression
(4) Expression
(5) Subculture

Q40. A concept for designing an initial marketing strategy for a new product based on product
concept is

(1) Simultaneous product development

(2) Sequential product development
(3) Marketing strategy development
(4) Product development phase
(5) Quality function deployment

Q41. A tool that translates customer requirements into concrete operating and engineering goal is
called

(1) Product development phase

(2) Quality function deployment
(3) Quantity function deployment
(4) Marketing strategy development

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(5) None of these

Q42. Launch better advertising campaign and use aggressive sales promotions like trade-deals,
discounts, premiums, contests etc is

(1) Modifying the market mix

(2) Modifying the market
(3) Modifying the product
(4) Modifying the process
(5) None of these

Q43. The products enters maturity when

(1) Decrease in profit

(2) Increase in sale
(3) Sales stop growing and demand stabilises
(4) Sales start growing
(5) Mets consumer needs
Q44. A weak product may be very costly to the firm, hidden costs may fail product reputation
and affect overall company image, shift of consumer taste, technological advances are
characteristics of which stage of “Product Life Cycle”?

(1) Market introduction stage

(2) Growth stage
(3) Mature stage
(4) Decline stage
(5) None of these
Q45. Which characteristic provides potential access to a variety of markets, it increases
perceived customer benefit and it is hard for competitors to imitate?

(1) Continuous improvement

(2) Company’s core competence
(3) Idea management system
(4) Market penetration
(5) Projective technique

Q46. Costs are high, demand has to be created, customers have to prompted to try the product,
slow sales volume starts and makes no money at this stage are the characteristics of which stage
in PLC.

(1) Saturation stage

(2) Decline stage
(3) Mature stage
(4) Introduction stage

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(5) Growth stage

Q47. Introducing a new product and marketing program to more realistic market settings, allow
testing and fine tuning of product and marketing program before costly full introduction carried
out at which stage of “New Product Development Process”?

(1) Marketing strategy

(2) Product development
(3) Telemarketing
(4) Business strategy
(5) None of these

Q48. Reason of product failure associated with its feature is due to

(1) Good quality of product

(2) Poor quality of product
(3) Good quantity of product
(4) Poor quantity of product
(5) None of these

Q49. Loss in product distinctiveness is one of the limitations of using

(1) Product Platforms

(2) Pricing Platforms
(3) Process Platforms
(4) Distribution Platforms
(5) None of these

Q50. Surveying market opinion and looking at the sales history of similar products are tools used
at which stage of “New Product Development Process”?

(1) Marketing strategy

(2) Product development
(3) Business analysis
(4) Tele marketing
(5) Idea generation

Q51. If Maruti describes one of the future car with moderate price, subcompact design and
family car to be used around the city. Then the company has stated a potential new product in
terms of

(1) Marketing concept

(2) Product concept
(3) Selling concept
(4) Telemarketing

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(5) Business strategy

Q52. Market share plays most important role in context to product development. If in case we
want to increase the market share then we have to

(1) Increase the sale

(2) Increase the price
(3) Decrease the sale
(4) Decrease the price
(5) Increase the stock

Q53. To develop superior products company must understand

(1) Consumer
(2) Market
(3) Competitors
(4) All of these
(5) None of these

Q54. In marketing ________________________introduces new product so radically that it

changes the way people live.

(1) Marketing strategy

(2) Quality function deployment
(3) Discontinuous innovation
(4) Differentiation strategy
(5) None of these

Q55. By installing _____________________________ the search for new product ideas will be
always systematic rather than haphazard.

(1) Idea generation

(2) Idea management system
(3) Idea screening
(4) Innovating ideas
(5) None of these

VERSION 8
PRO 1

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1. One business promising to do something for another business in return for receiving
compensation is an example of a

A. partnership. C. contract.

B. benefit. D. guarantee.

2. Which of the following is an activity covered by environmental regulations that affects

businesses:

A. Counseling substance abusers C. Adapting to worker safety

B. Identifying natural resources D. Disposing of hazardous waste

3. Retailers perform an important channel activity by negotiating with consumers on issues such
as

A. delivery. C. promotion.

B. risk-taking. D. manufacturing.

4. Major brands of soft drinks are produced and distributed through local and regional bottling
companies that then sell the soft drinks to retail supermarkets where consumers can purchase
them. The channel of distribution these soft-drink companies use is

A. indirect. C. retail.

B. wholesale. D. direct.

5. Which of the following is a technological tool that connects businesses with their suppliers
and customers:

A. Firewall C. Filter

B. Extranet D. Intranet

6. A business taking back its used products and recycling or properly disposing of those products
is an

example of the ethical practice of __________ distribution.

A. closed C. joint

B. internal D. reverse

7. As a result of effectively coordinating distribution with other marketing activities, a business

is often able to provide

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A. free delivery. C. good customer service.

B. attractive product displays. D. flexible credit terms.

8. Which of the following is a form of verbal communication between individuals:

A. Facial expression C. Listening

B. Body posture D. Eye contact

9. Betty Clark asks Dave Jones to handle her calls while she is away from her desk. If Betty's
telephone

rings, Dave should answer it by saying

A. "May I help you?" C. "Hello."

B. "Dave Jones' desk." D. "Betty Clark's desk."

10. Which of the following steps should be completed first when preparing a written
communication:

A. Editing the communication to make sure it is clear

B. Determining the major purpose of the communication

C. Organizing the information to be presented in the communication

D. Selecting the details that should be included in the communication

11. When writing routine informational messages, businesspeople should present the information
in a(n)__________ way.

A. technical C. persuasive

B. straightforward D. attention-getting

12. What should you include in a persuasive message to support your statements?

A. Personal opinion C. Simple language

B. Educated guess D. Logical evidence

13. The owner of Bob's Bargains has prepared a one-page report to inform the staff about current
sales

volume. This is an example of a(n) __________ report.

A. analytical C. activity

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B. complex D. informal

14. What type of customer would say, "Your vegetables are never fresh"?

A. Leave-me-alone C. Complaining

B. Suspicious D. Slow/Methodical

15. The goal of determining a sampling plan is to identify an accurate segment of the

A. mass audience. C. target population.

B. business community. D. general market.

16. The amount of a product that producers are willing to make is most affected by

A. place utility. C. consumer demand.

B. product utility. D. producer demand.

17. What is the business activity that provides information as to whether a business can afford to
hire moreemployees?

A. Financial analysis C. Marketing

B. Strategic management D. Production

18. All of the potential losses to which a business is exposed are called

A. business risks. C. embezzlement.

B. property damage. D. shipment losses.

19. Which of the following is not a reason that regulatory laws are passed:

A. To control what businesses are allowed to do

B. To increase sales for businesses

C. To require businesses to meet certain standards

D. To prohibit certain kinds of business activities

20. The three categories of membership in a craft/trade union are

A. novice, journeyman, and owner. C. apprentice, journeyman, and owner.

B. novice, laborer, and supervisor. D. apprentice, journeyman, and master.

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21. Which of the following is a reason why many corporations locate their factories and
businesses in foreign countries:

A. Low labor costs in their home countries C. Lack of cooperative trade agreements

B. Unfavorable monetary policies D. Reduced transportation costs

22. Which of the following accurately reflects the relationship between traditional intelligence
and emotional intelligence:

A. Only traditional intelligence can be measured accurately with a written test.

B. Emotional intelligence cannot be increased, but traditional intelligence can be.

C. Neither traditional nor emotional intelligence promote a person's career success.

D. A high level of traditional intelligence results in a high level of emotional intelligence.

23. Self-esteem is essential to one's well-being because it shows that you

A. can maintain a fearful, unsure, dependent nature.

B. are empowered to brag about accomplishments.

C. can assist in becoming apologetic and defensive.

D. understand your own needs.

24. Your interest and enthusiasm can help to create a sense of __________ within your work
group.

A. cooperation C. security

B. disagreement D. conflict

25. People who receive a great deal of negative feedback may develop

A. optimism. C. depression.

B. enthusiasm. D. self-importance.

26. Which of the following is a verbal technique for behaving in an assertive manner:

A. Maintaining appropriate eye contact C. Planning exactly what you will say

B. Beginning conversations with other people D. Asking questions about areas of confusion

27. When it comes to taking responsibility for something that goes wrong, an effective leader
should

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A. change his/her leadership style.

B. place blame for the problem on others.

C. require others to figure out a way to fix the problem.

D. work to prevent the problem from happening again.

28. Which of the following coaching characteristics means that you are willing to admit your
mistakes:

A. Humility C. Patience

B. Dependability D. Approachability

29. Which of the following is a type of credit card that can be used to make purchases from a
variety of

participating businesses:

A. Petroleum C. Hotel

B. Retail D. Bank

30. Emily has decided to use all of her savings to buy a new car instead of a used one. What are
the

opportunity costs of that decision?

A. The money she saves by not having to constantly repair a used car

B. The reliability and luxury of a new car compared to a used one

C. The benefits she could have received by using the additional cost of a new car another way

D. The benefits she could have received by using public transportation instead

31. To make sure he develops a realistic personal budget, Marcel should always

A. verify his past credit rating. C. track and record his expenses.

B. pay his bills on time. D. consult with a bookkeeper.

32. Which of the following is an economic risk that a manager is likely to encounter in
marketing:

A. Incompetence C. Weather

B. Perishability D. Competition

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33. One way that many businesses use technology in accounting is to process

A. product warranties. C. credit applications.

B. insurance policies. D. risk factors.

34. Which of the following is an example of a situation in which a business might decide it
needed to

decrease expenses after comparing the categories in its profit-and-loss statement:

A. Revenues are rising. C. Cash flow is steady.

B. Salaries are lower. D. Sales are the same.

35. Which of the following is a key component of managing working capital:

A. Financing C. Capital budgeting

B. Cash conversion cycle D. Capital structure

Test 1028 MARKETING CLUSTER EXAM 4

36. Labor-union negotiations are part of which HR management activity?

A. Compensation and benefits C. Training and development

B. Employee relations D. Staffing

37. One of the advantages of obtaining and using marketing information is because it helps
business

managers to

A. prepare documents and reports. C. train and direct employees.

B. predict and control risks. D. review and understand regulations.

38. The Big Company has questioned customers about their needs for a specific product the
company may decide to produce. What kind of marketing information is this company
collecting?

A. Economic C. Primary

B. Secondary D. Systematic

39. Which of the following is an important ethical issue involved with the collection and use of
marketing information:

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A. Standardization C. Adaptability

B. Confidentiality D. Commercialization

40. Businesses can retrieve external marketing data by accessing

A. inventory management records. C. accounts receivable summaries.

B. computer-generated sales reports. D. web-based information services.

41. The Henry Smith Company wants to select a representative group of consumers to survey.
What part of marketing research is it doing?

A. Sampling C. Analyzing

B. Observation D. Experimentation

42. What research approach do businesses often use to test new product ideas?

A. Questioning C. Recording

B. Technological D. Experimental

43. When customers complain, what is the general rule that business personnel follow in order to
assure that customers receive fair and consistent treatment?

A. Customer complaint plan C. Customer service plan

B. Store procedure D. Store policy

44. A marketing manager is seeking information about the company's three biggest competitors.
What is an excellent source of information that may include such data as new products, sales and
revenue goals,

changes in the organization, and current hiring needs?

A. Local newspaper C. Competitors' web sites

B. Department of Commerce D. Better Business Bureau

45. What do businesses often do with the marketing information they collect from consumer
questionnaires?

A. Enter it into a computer for analysis C. Arrange the names in alphabetical order

B. Assign a numeric value to the responses D. Organize it according to the date received

46. Which of the following is an example of range:

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A. Consumers buy between three and seven CDs per month.

B. Consumers buy an average of five CDs per month.

C. Most consumers buy four CDs per month.

D. Half of all consumers buy more than five CDs per month.

47. A good marketing-research brief provides background information about the company,
describes the

problem at hand, and states the

A. researcher's mission statement. C. research objectives.

B. financial needs. D. report findings.

48. Which of the following is a possible weakness associated with a secondary-data source:

A. Reasonable purchase price C. Inconsistent collection method

B. Recent industry approval D. Internet accessibility

49. When researchers think it is necessary to find out how employees interact with customers,
they might decide that it is appropriate to use the __________ research method.

A. observation C. personal

B. interview D. experimental

50. Jordan just began his new job as a financial analyst. Processes and procedures at his new
company are a little bit different from the last place he worked, so his first week will be spent
learning the ropes. This is an example of which positive action companies should take:

A. Protect business's reputation

B. Use rational and emotional motivation to convince customers to buy

C. Provide proper training for employees

D. Communicate honestly within and outside business

51. Java Coffee House, located in the trendy Olde Towne area, advertises that it is an upscale
place for

single, young professionals to meet. Java is targeting a market based on __________

segmentation.

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A. geographic C. behavioral

B. psychographic D. demographic

52. Which of the following is a possible external threat that a business might identify as a result
of conducting a situational analysis during the marketing-planning process:

A. Downturn in the economy C. Contract with a new supplier

B. Change in pricing structure D. Decrease in operating expense

53. A manufacturer expects product sales to decrease during the coming year. How does this
information

affect the production of goods?

A. Production should increase. C. Production should decrease.

B. Production should remain the same. D. Production should not be affected.

54. What do most businesses use to store information for future use?

A. CD-ROMs C. Scanners

B. Display screens D. Computer systems

55. Which of the following is an example of a type of information a business must manage:

A. Government spending C. Employees' personal bills

B. Accounting records D. Competitors' payrolls

56. One of the reasons that businesses destroy some of their records is because the records are

A. not required by law. C. kept in storage.

B. several years old. D. no longer needed.

57. Most businesses maintain records about what customers are buying and how much they are
spending in order to

A. offer quality service. C. analyze the information.

B. plan an inventory count. D. develop a quality environment.

58. Which of the following is an example of a current trend in business:

A. Developing market research C. Protecting consumer privacy

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B. Expanding economic growth D. Promoting private enterprise

59. As a result of conducting an environmental scan, a business might find that the rate of
unemployment is slowly increasing, which is an example of a(n) __________ factor.

A. political C. economic

B. geographic D. cultural

60. The most important reason why workplace accidents which do not result in injuries should be
reported to supervisors is because

A. this is required by state law. C. the report prevents future liability.

B. the next accident could result in an injury. D. this is an OSHA requirement.

61. Why is it important to define your project precisely?

A. So you can involve other people C. So you can achieve your objectives

B. So you can create something tangible D. So you can spend less money

62. An important benefit of project management is that it allows the manager to

A. identify and correct problems. C. make all of the decisions.

B. have power and authority. D. work with interesting people.

63. One of the advantages to an auto-parts store of placing a standing order with a vendor for a
certain

quantity of a product to be delivered once a week is that the store might be able to

A. negotiate a long-term price. C. attract more customers.

B. keep track of the inventory. D. obtain attractive displays.

64. Abbra-Kadabra Company examined its expenses for electricity for the past six months and
found the

average electric bill to be $2,300 per month, with a high of $2,375 and a low of $2,250 during
that period.This type of an expense would be classified as a __________ cost.

A. variable C. semivariable

B. fixed D. nonoperating

65. The importance to the business of employees' regularly performing housekeeping duties is to

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A. keep employees occupied. C. pass insurance inspections.

B. present a favorable business image. D. reduce the need for maintenance.

66. Which of the following does not represent a guideline for proper business dress:

A. Clothing should present a harmonious appearance.

B. Clothing should be fashionable, not faddish.

C. It is best to wear "loud" colors in clothing.

D. Articles of clothing should be proportionate in size to one another.

67. What is likely to be the result if you fail to set goals?

A. You will waste a lot of time and effort.

B. You will have a high level of self-esteem.

C. You will focus your efforts in one direction.

D. You will be better able to measure your progress.

68. Laura has made a list of the things she most enjoys doing and the way she likes to spend her
time. This list will help Laura to

A. improve her study habits. C. measure her work skills.

B. identify an appropriate career. D. increase her level of ability.

69. Which of the following guidelines should be followed when writing any letter of application:

A. Provide a brief explanation of your qualifications for a job.

B. Submit a neatly typed photocopy to the employer.

C. Use humor to interest the reader in your qualifications.

D. Stress your educational achievements.

70. Kwacky Kwackers needs a new package design for its crackers. What marketing professional
would be responsible for creating the new package?

A. Advertising C. Product management

B. Marketing research D. Distribution/Warehousing

Test 1028 MARKETING CLUSTER EXAM 7

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71. What technological advancement has allowed consumers to collect the most information for
price-

comparison shopping?

A. Catalog C. Internet

B. Newspaper D. Telephone

72. Which of the following is an example of all of the local companies in the same business
being involved in the illegal activity of price fixing:

A. Selling one product below cost

B. Charging different customers different prices for the same product

C. Agreeing on the price of a certain product

D. Putting pressure on customers to buy an expensive product

73. Which of the following is a factor that often causes an increase in the selling price of goods
and services:

A. Economic growth C. Elastic demand

B. High unemployment D. Abundant supply

74. Which of the following areas of product/service management is important in attracting

customers and in

protecting products:

A. Idea generation C. Labeling

B. Concept testing D. Packaging

75. During which stage of a product life cycle do sales and profit usually increase even though
competition is intense?

A. Universal C. Maturity

B. Introduction D. Existing

76. Which of the following is an advantage to businesses that use computer databases to manage
their

inventory:

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A. Decreases order accuracy C. Increases demand

B. Decreases product usage D. Increases efficiency

77. "Your money back if not satisfied" is an example of a

A. warranty. C. recourse.

B. guarantee. D. strategy.

78. Franklin Juice Company produced and aired television commercials that stated that drinking
its new

beverage daily would prevent the common cold and headaches. What federal agency would
charge the

company for providing false, misleading, and deceptive advertising?

A. Consumer Product Safety Commission C. Consumer Affairs Department

B. Food and Drug Administration D. Federal Trade Commission

79. Why would a business remove or delete product items or lines from its product mix?

A. To avoid legal liabilities C. To increase market risk

B. To offer customers complementary products D. To appeal to a new market

80. Which of the following situations is an example of the mixed product bundling strategy:

A. A manufacturer offers its distributors lower prices for a specific item that is purchased in
large

quantities.

B. Cable television and Internet fees cost consumers less when the services are purchased

together rather than if they are purchased individually.

C. A supermarket chain gives its customers coupons and packaged samples of a new cereal

product it is now stocking.

D. Laundry detergent is boxed with a label stating that the customer is receiving twenty percent

more soap for the same price.

Test 1028 MARKETING CLUSTER EXAM 8

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81. The way that a business positions its goods and services affects how its customers
____________ the

products.

A. outsource C. use

B. perceive D. trade

82. Which of the following is an example of a corporate brand:

A. Procter and Gamble C. Charmin bath tissue

B. Tide detergent D. Oil of Olay

83. Promotion benefits customers by making them

A. buy products they don't need. C. feel entertained.

B. less informed. D. more informed.

84. Which of the following is an example of a public-relations promotion:

A. Smithson's Bank promotes that it has added Saturday banking hours.

B. The American Beef Association encourages consumers to eat beef.

C. LensCrafters offers free sunglasses with the purchase of contacts.

D. Firestone promotes its efforts to exchange tires on Ford Explorers.

85. Which of the following would not be considered sales promotion:

A. Window display C. Fashion show

B. Newspaper ad D. Demonstration

86. Promotional messages that continuously portray senior citizens as sick, helpless people is an
example of an ethical issue related to

A. sexism. C. stereotyping.

B. puffery. D. fraud.

87. Which of the following technological tools has made it possible for a business to send
personalized

promotional messages in a cost-efficient manner:

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A. Electronic mail C. Interactive banner

B. Encryption card D. Exclusive kiosk

88. Word-of-mouth communication between satisfied customers and others that promotes a
business is a type of

A. advertising. C. retailing.

B. marketing. D. prospecting.

89. Sweepstakes and contests are examples of communications channels often used in

A. sales promotions. C. publicity programs.

B. advertising campaigns. D. media commercials.

90. If the headline of a print advertisement identifies a problem, then the copy that follows
should provide

A. reactions. C. examples.

B. descriptions. D. solutions.

91. Which of the following is a public-relations activity that involves dealing with government
officials:

A. Lobbying C. Counseling

B. Advising D. Writing

92. Participating in trade shows to communicate with target audiences often is an important part
of a

business's

A. sponsorship strategy. C. direct sales effort.

B. advertising campaign. D. promotional program.

Test 1028 MARKETING CLUSTER EXAM 9

93. A manufacturer mails free cereal samples to consumers and provides businesses with colorful
materials for in-store displays of the product. This is an example of which of the following:

A. Coordination of promotional activities C. Use of institutional advertising

B. Use of cooperative advertising D. Selection of channels of distribution

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94. Brittany knows her products inside and out. She knows all their features and is able to
explain them in

terms of benefits for specific customers. Which characteristic of a successful salesperson does
Brittany

display?

A. Product knowledge C. Self-confidence

B. Self-motivation D. Ethics

95. Jack has been the owner/operator of a suburban business for 20 years. Many of his customers
have

done business with Jack since the beginning. This fact indicates that Jack has been successful in

A. selecting marketing strategies. C. promoting his business.

B. offering good service. D. building a clientele.

96. A high level of ethics will compel you to behave in a __________ way.

A. suspicious C. truthful

B. law-abiding D. questionable

97. Which of the following allows the Gateway Insurance Group to match its agents with
policyholders by aligning its agents with market potential:

A. Mapping software C. Database software

B. Outbound telemarketing D. Inbound telemarketing

98. "Fat-free" is stamped on the label of a bottle of salad dressing. This type of product
information refers to the product's

A. grade. C. content.

B. size. D. quality.

99. What is the best method for a salesperson to use in determining which features and benefits
of a product are important to individual customers?

A. Ask appropriate questions and listen to each customer

B. Distribute surveys to past buyers and evaluate their responses

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C. Provide brochures and feature-benefit literature to prospects

D. Explain the product's hidden benefits and evaluate customer response

100. A plant manager or a department head would be an example of which level of management?

A. Middle C. Top

B. Operating D. Supervisory

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