Clinical MCQ - Acute Ischemic Stroke
Clinical MCQ - Acute Ischemic Stroke
1) A 66-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation presents with sudden
right-sided weakness and slurred speech that started 90 minutes ago. CT brain shows no
hemorrhage. His NIHSS score is 8. What is the next best step in management?
Explanation:
For eligible patients presenting within 4.5 hours of symptom onset and with no contraindications,
IV alteplase is the standard treatment for acute ischemic stroke. Aspirin and anticoagulation are
delayed in this context.
References:
• Powers WJ et al. 2023 AHA/ASA Guidelines for the Early Management of Patients with
Acute Ischemic Stroke.
• Saver JL. Time is brain—quantified. Stroke. 2006.
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2) A 74-year-old woman with diabetes presents 6 hours after sudden onset of left-sided
hemiparesis. CT angiography reveals a right MCA occlusion. Which intervention offers the
greatest potential benefit?
A. IV alteplase
B. Aspirin therapy
C. Mechanical thrombectomy
D. Mannitol administration
Explanation:
Patients with large vessel occlusion presenting within 6–24 hours may benefit from mechanical
thrombectomy, particularly if there’s salvageable brain tissue. Alteplase is only approved up to
4.5 hours.
References:
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3) A 58-year-old man is brought in with sudden onset aphasia and right hemiplegia. BP is
210/110 mmHg. CT brain shows no hemorrhage. He is eligible for thrombolysis. What is the
appropriate BP target before administering alteplase?
A. <220/120 mmHg
B. <200/110 mmHg
C. <180/105 mmHg
D. <160/100 mmHg
Explanation:
Before administering IV alteplase, BP should be lowered to <180/105 mmHg to reduce the risk
of hemorrhagic transformation.
References:
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4) A 65-year-old woman is diagnosed with an acute ischemic stroke. She received IV alteplase 2
hours after onset. 24 hours later, she is stable and CT shows no hemorrhage. What is the next
best step?
References:
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5) A 72-year-old man presents with sudden visual loss and left-sided weakness. MRI shows
acute infarct in the PCA and MCA territories. ECG shows new-onset atrial fibrillation. What is
the best long-term secondary prevention?
A. Clopidogrel alone
B. Dual antiplatelet therapy
C. Oral anticoagulation
D. High-dose statin only
Explanation:
In patients with cardioembolic stroke due to atrial fibrillation, oral anticoagulation (e.g., DOAC
or warfarin) is the most effective long-term prevention strategy to reduce recurrence risk.
References:
• Hart RG et al. Antithrombotic therapy for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation. Chest
2012.
• Diener HC et al. Oral anticoagulants in stroke prevention. Stroke 2019.
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