Dated :

03-2-2023
M.L. Sy al’
Syal’ s
al’s Helix Institute
S.C.O. 343-345, Top Floor, Sector 34-A, Chandigarh. Ph : 0172-2623155

Test Series - 5(Rev.)(Phase-I)

MM : 720 Time : 3 hrs. 20 min.

PHYSICS : MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE, MOTION IN A PLANE AND LAWS OF MOTION, WEP, CIRCULAR MOTION AND ROM,
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES,THERMAL PROPERTIES, KTG AND THERMODYNAMICS, SHM, WAVES, GRAVITATION,
CHEMISTRY : STRUCTURE OF ATOM AND CHEMICAL BONDING, MOLE CONCEPT, PERIODIC PROP. GASEOUS STATE, SOLID STATE
& P-BLOCK ELEMENTS, S-BLOCK ELEMENT, CHEMISTRY IN ACTION, REDOX REACTIONS & ELECTROCHEMISTRY,
CHEMICAL & IONIC EQUILIBRIUM, THERMODYNAMICS, HYDROGEN, EXTRACTION & ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
ZOOLOGY : DIGESTION & ABSORPTION, BREATHING & EXCHANGE OF GASES, BODY FLUID & CIRCULATION, EXCRETION &
OSMOREGULATION & CELL DIVISION, CELL-THE UNIT OF LIFE, LOCOMOTION & MOVEMENT, NEURAL CONTROL AND
CO-ORDINATION, CHEMICAL CO-ORDINATION AND INTEGRATION ET AND CT
BOTANY : PLANT KINGDOM & MONERA, THE LIVING WORLD, BIOLOGICAL CLASSIFICATIONS (I/C VIRUS), FUNGI AND
PROTISTA, ANATOMY OF ANGIOSPERMS AND RESPIRATION, TRANSOPORT IN PLANTS, MINERAL NUTRIATION,
PLANT GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT

PHYSICS : SECTION-A 4. A projectile is thrown on horizontal ground at an

angle such that initial horizontal and vertical
All questions are compulsory in section A
velocities are 9.8m/s and 19.6m /s respectively.
1. A stone thrown vertically upwards attains a maximum
height of 45 m. In what time the velocity of stone Range of the projectile is
become equal to one half the velocity of throw? (1) 39.2 m (2) 19 m
(Given: g = 10 m/s2) (3) 9.8 m (4) 4.9 m
(1) 2s (2) 1.5s 5. Assertion : A negative acceleration of a body is
(3) 1s (4) 0.5s associated with slowing down of the body.
2. N1 is the normal reaction on a vehicle of mass ‘m’ Reason : Acceleration is a vector quantity.
on a concave upward bridge of radius of curvature (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
‘r’. N2 is the normal reaction on the same vehicle reason is correct explanation of assertion.
on a plane road. Assuming same speed of vehicle (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but reason
‘v’ in two cases, N1–N2= is not correct explanation of assertion.
mv2 (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(1) (2) 2mg (4) Assertion is false.
r
mv2 mv2 6. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity of
(3) – (4) 2 10 m/s . To a cyclist moving on a straight road the
r r
3. The initial velocity of a body moving along a straight raindrops appear to be coming with a velocity of
line is 7 m/s. It has a uniform acceleration of 20 m/s. Velocity of the cyclist is
4 m/s2. The distance covered by the body in the (1) 10 m/s (2) 10 3 m/s
5th second of its motion is (3) 20 m/s (4) 20 3 m/s
(1) 25 m (2) 35 m
(3) 50 m (4) 85 m

1 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
7. For hydrogen gas CP–CV=a and for oxygen gas 14. What is the moment of inertia of a ring of mass
CP–CV=b. Relation between a and b is given by M and radius R about a tangent perpendicular to
(1) a=16b (2) b=16a its plane at its rim?
(3) a=4b (4) a=b (1) MR2 (2) 2 MR2
8. When a rod is heated but prevented from expanding,
3 1
stress developed is independent of (3) MR2 (4) MR2
2 2
(1) Material of the rod
(2) Rise in temperature 15. A block of mass ‘m’ is kept on a platform which
(3) Length of rod g
(4) None of above starts from rest with constant acceleration
2
9. The dimensions of thermal resistance are upwards as shown. Work done by normal reaction
(1) M–1L–2T3K (2) ML2T–2K–1 on block in time t is
(3) ML2T–3K (4) ML2T–2K–2
10. A body of mass 1.6 kg accelerates down a smooth M g
a=
inclined plane making an angle of 30° with the 2
horizontal. What is the minimum force required to
mg2t2 3mg2t2
make it move upwards with the same (1) (2)
acceleration? 8 8
(1) 4N (2) 8N
mg2 t2
(3) 12N (4) 16N (3) zero (4) 
8
11. x(m) 16. A car of mass 2000 kg is moving with a speed of
6 10 ms–1 on a circular path of radius 20 m on a
4 level road. What must be the frictional force
2 between the car and the road so that the car does
t(s) not slip?
0 2 4 6 (1) 104 N (2) 103 N
(3) 10 N5 (4) 102 N
In the figure given below, the position-time graph
of a particle of mass 0.1kg is shown. The 17. For a particle executing simple harmonic motion,
impulse at t=2s is the kinetic energy is given by K0 cos2  t. The
(1) 0.2 kg m/s (2) –0.2 kg m/s maximum value of potential energy is
(3) 0.1 kg m/s (4) –0.4 kg m/s (1) K0 (2) zero
12. In a liquid of density 900 kg/m3, longitudinal waves (3) 0.5 K0 (4) 0.75 K0
with frequency 250 Hz are found to have 18. A disc and a solid sphere of same mass are rolling
wavelength of 8m. The bulk modulus of liquid is with same kinetic energy. The ratio of their linear
(1) 3.6×108 Pa (2) 1.8×109 Pa velocities is
(3) 3.6×10 Pa 9 (4) 1.8×108 Pa (1) 14 : 15 (2) 14 : 15
13. A body of mass 6kg is under a force which causes
(3) 7 : 13 (4) 7 : 13
t2
displacement in it given by S  metres where t 19. Consider system of two identical particle, one of
4
is time. Work done by the force in 2 seconds is the particle has acceleration ‘a’, while other at rest.
(1) 12J (2) 9J The centre of mass has acceleration of
(3) 6J (4) 3J (1) 2 a (2) 0.5 a
(3) zero (4) a

2 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
20. Statement-I : Compared to a burn due to water at 25. Graph shows K.E., P.E. and T.E. of satellite, then
100°C, a burn due to steam at 100°C is more which of following is true?
dangerous.
Statement-II : When a bimetallic strip is heated, it Energy E 1
bends in form of an arc with the more expandable
metal inside. r
2
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct 3
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect (1) Graph (1) represent T.E.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is (2) Graph (2) represent P.E.
incorrect (3) Graph (3) represent K.E.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is (4) None of these
correct 26. 8 gm of steam condenses when passed through
21. y1=5 sin (250t–0.757x) 80 gm of water initially at 10°C. If the temperature
y2=5 sin (258t–0.782x) of water rises to 60°C, latent heat of steam is
If the above two sound waves superimpose, the (1) 460 cal/g (2) 540 cal/g
number of beats heard in a minute will be (3) 240 cal/g (4) 500 cal/g
(1) 76 (2) 64
(3) 48 (4) 56 27.
F

22. Angular momentum of a flywheel having a moment

of inertia of 0.4 kg m2 decreases from 30 kg-m2/s F0
to 20 kg-m2/s in a period of 2 second . Average
torque acting on the flywheel during this period is t
T/2 T
(1) 10 Nm (2) 2.5 N m
(3) 5 Nm (4) 1.5 N m
Force F acts on a particle for a time T as shown
23. The temperature of sink of Carnot engine is 27°C.
in the above graph, the magnitude of impulse is
Efficiency of engine is 25%. Then temperature of
(1) F0T (2) 2F0T
source is
(1) 227°C (2) 327°C 1 1
(3) F0T (4) F T
(3) 127°C (4) 27°C 2 4 0
24. A body starts to fall freely under gravity. The 28. 70 calories of heat is required to raise the
distances covered by it in first, second and third temperature of 2 mole of an ideal gas at constant
second are in ratio pressure from 30°C to 35°C. The amount of heat
(1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 1 : 2 : 3 required to raise the temperature of the same gas
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (4) 1 : 5 : 6 through the same range at constant volume is
(1) 30 calories (2) 50 calories
(3) 70 calories (4) 90 calories

3 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
29. Time period of a particle executing SHM is doubled 34. A train moves towards a stationary observer
and amplitude is made one-half. If the original total with speed 34 m/s. The train sounds a whistle
enregy of the particle was E, total energy now is and its frequency registered by the observer is
(1) E (2) 0.25 E f1. If the train’s speed is reduced to 17 m/s, the
(3) 0.125 E (4) 0.0625 E frequency registered is f2. If the speed of sound
30. There is a hole in the bottom of tank having water. is 340 m/s then the ratio f1/f2 is
If total pressure at bottom is 3 atm (1) 18/19 (2) 1/2
(1 atm=105N/m2) then the velocity of water (3) 2 (4) 19/18
flowing from hole is 35. A circular disc D1 of mass M and radius R has two
identical discs D2 and D3 of the same mass M and
(1) 20 m/s (2) 10 6 m/s
radius R attached rigidly at its opposite ends as
(3) 60 m/s (4) 10 m/s shown in figure. The moment of inertia of the
system about the axis OO’, passing through the
31. A body of mass M is attached to two springs as
centre of D1 will be
shown in figure. If the damping forces are absent,
O
then the time period of the horizontal oscillations
of body M will be D2 D3
K 2K D1
M
O'
3K K
(1) 2 (2) 2 5
M M (1) MR2 (2) 3MR2
2
2K M 4
(3) 2 (4) 2  (3) MR2 (4) MR2
M 3K 5
32. A 1 cm long string vibrates with fundamental
PHYSICS : SECTION-B
frequency of 256 Hz. If the length is reduced to
This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10 questions
1
cm keeping the tension unaltered, the new of them.
4
36. If the length of the simple pendulum is increased
fundamental frequency will be by 44%, then what is the change in time period of
(1) 64 Hz (2) 256 Hz pendulum
(3) 512 Hz (4) 1024 Hz (1) 22% (2) 20%
33. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at (3) 33% (4) 44%
a constant pressure of one atmosphere from 0°C 37. To what depth must a rubber ball be taken in deep
to 100°C. The change in the internal energy is sea so that its volume is decreased by 0.1%. (The
(1) 6.5 joules bulk modulus of rubber is 9.8×108 N m–2; and the
(2) 8.3×102 joules density of sea water is 103 kg m–3)
(3) 12.5×102 joules (1) 1000 m (2) 100 m
(4) 21 joules (3) 10 m (4) 1 m

4 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
38. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm 43. A bullet is fired horizontally with a speed of 200 m/s
radiates 450 W power at 500 K. If the radius were aiming at a target 100 m away. It misses the target
halved and the temperature doubled, the power by
radiated would be (1) 0.5 m (2) 0.75 m
(1) 225 W (2) 450 W (3) 1.25 m (4) 2.5 m
(3) 900 W (4) 1800 W 44. A block is released from the top of an inclined plane
39. The depth at which the effective value of of inclination  and length L. Speed of the block
acceleration due to gravity is same as that at a when it reaches the bottom, if the coefficient of
height equal to radius of earth is friction between the block and incline is  , is
(1) 0.75 R (2) 0.35 R
(3) 0.25 R (4) 0.5 R (1) 2gL( cos   sin )1/ 2
40. The following figure shows the velocity-time graph (2) 2gL(sin    cos )1/ 2
for a rocket which is fired vertically. If air friction
is negligible, then the maximum height reached by (3) 2gL(sin    cos )1/ 2
the rocket is
v (in m/s) (4) 2gL(cos    sin )1/ 2
A 45. A metal ball falls from a height of 32 metre on a
300
steel plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5,
to what height will the ball rise after second bounce
B
O
t (in sec) (1) 2 m (2) 4 m
30 100
(3) 8 m (4) 16 m
(1) 12 km (2) 15 km
(3) 24 km (4) 18 km 46. Which of the following is True?
41. Assertion : Centre of mass and centre of gravity (1) According to Hooke’s law of elasticity, if
may not coincide. stress is increased, the ratio of stress to strain
Reason : A body may not have symmetrical also increases.
(2) A barometer kept in a stationary elevator
distribution of mass.
reads 76 cm. If the elevator starts acceler-
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
ating up the reading will be less than 76 cm.
reason is the correct explanation of the (3) In a laminar flow the velocity of the liquid in
assertion contact with the walls of the tube is maxi-
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the mum.
reason is not the correct explanation of the (4) The excess pressure due to surface tension
assertion in a spherical liquid drop is directly propor-
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false tional to its radius.
(4) Assertion is false 47. A train is moving with a velocity of 100 kmh–1 in
42. If mass of earth is M, radius is R and gravitational the North-East direction. If another train is moving
constant is G, then work done to take a unit mass with a velocity of 50 km h–1 in the North-West
from earth surface to infinity will be direction, then what is the relative velocity of the
second train w.r.t. the first train?
GM GM
(1) (2) (1) 150 km/hr (2) 50 km/hr
2R R
(3) 112 km/hr (4) 84 km/hr
2GM GM
(3) (4)
R 2R

5 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
48. The velocity of a body depends on time according 55. The pH of a solution that is 0.1 M NaA and
to the equation v=20+0.1 t2. The body is 0.1 M HA(Ka = 1 × 10–6) would be
undergoing (1) 5 (2) 6
(1) uniform acceleration (3) 3 (4) 7
(2) uniform retardation 56. Bleaching of flowers by Cl2 is permanent while that
(3) non-uniform acceleration by SO2 is temporary. This is because
(4) zero acceleration (1) Cl2 bleaches by oxidation and SO2 by reduction
(2) Cl2 bleaches by reduction and SO2 by oxidation
49. The speed of a boat is 5 km/h in still water. It
(3) Cl2 is strong oxidising agent and SO2 is weak
crosses a river of width 1 km along the shortest
(4) Cl2 is strong reducing agent and SO2 is weak
possible path in 15 minutes. The velocity of the
57. Select the correct statement
river water is
(1) Ionisation energy of members of boron family
(1) 1 km/h (2) 3 km/h
decreases in the order B>TI>Ga>Al>In
(3) 4 km/h (4) 5 km/h
(2) CCl4 can be hydrolysed but SiCl4 can not be
50. A closed pipe and an open pipe have their first hydrolysed
overtones identical in frequency. Their lengths are (3) N(SiH3)3 is more basic than N(CH3)3
in the ratio (4) In water B(OH)3 acts as a protonic acid
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 58. In which of the following reaction oxidation number
(3) 3 : 4 (4) 4 : 5 of N does not change?
CHEMISTRY : SECTION-A a. BN+H2O 
All questions are compulsory in section A b. AlN+H2O 
Pt
51. At high pressures, the van der Waal’s equation c. NH3+O2  
reduces to d. HNO3+P4O10 
a (1) a & b (2) a, b, c & d
(1) pV = RT – (2) pV = RT
V (3) a & c (4) a, b & d
aRT 59. Statement-I : For PCl5(g) PCl3(g)+Cl2(g).
(3) pV = RT + pb (4) pV =
V2 If more PCl5 is added the equilibrium will shift in
52. The effective number of atoms inside two fcc unit
backward direction.
cells of an element which share a common face
(in fcc lattice) are Statement-II : Equilibrium shifted in backward
(1) 4 (2) 7 direction so that equilibrium constant K remains
(3) 6 (4) 8 same.
53. The percentage degree of dissociation for (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
0.001 M NH3 (Kb=10–5) is approximately (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(1) 10 (2) 0.1 incorrect
(3) 1 (4) 100 (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
54. Electronic configurations of four elements A, B, C
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
and D are given below
correct
A. 1s2 2s2 2p6 B. 1s2 2s2 2p4
2 2 6 1
60. 500 mL of 0.2 M acidic KMnO4 solution is used to
C. 1s 2s 2p 3s D. 1s2 2s2 2p5
oxidise SO2 to H2SO4. What weight of SO2 will be
Which of the following is the correct order of
oxidised if KMnO4 itself gets reduced to MnSO4?
increasing tendency to gain electron?
(1) 32 g (2) 160 g
(1) A<C<B<D (2) A<B<C<D
(3) 16 g (4) 6.4 g
(3) D<B<C<A (4) D<A<B<C

6 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
61. A vessel at 1000K contains CO2 with a pressure 67. In the cyanide extraction process of silver ore, the
of 0.5atm. Some of the CO2 is converted into CO oxidising and reducing agent agents used are
on addition of graphite, then the value of K if total (1) O2 and CO respectively
pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm is (2) O2 and Zn dust respectively
(1) 3.8 (2) 2.8 (3) HNO3 and Zn dust respectively
(3) 1.8 (4) 1.5 (4) HNO3 and CO respectively
62. Peroxy linkage is present in 68. The compound added to soaps to impart antiseptic
(1) H2SO4 (2) H2SO5 properties is
(3) H2S2O8 (4) Both (2) and (3) (1) chloroxylenol (2) terpinol
63. Cl2(g) 2Cl(g) (3) bithional (4) furacine
The above product formation is favoured by 69. 2 grams of a metal hydroxide, on ignition, gave
(1) increase in temperature 1.51 grams of oxide. Equivalent weight of metal is
(2) decrease in concentration of Cl2 (1) 40 g (2) 20 g
(3) removal of Cl (3) 23 g (4) 46 g
(4) both (1) and (3) 70. The number of  and  bonds present in the
64. 5 mol of an ideal gas expands reversibly from a following molecule is
volume of 8 L to 80 L at a temperature of 300K.
The change in entropy for this process is CH3
(1) 70.26 J/K (2) 80.55 J/K
(3) 95.73 J/K (4) 107.11 J/K
65. The H—H bond energy is 430 kJ mol and Cl—Cl
bond energy is 240 kJ/mol.  H for HCl is –90 kJ. CH3
The H—Cl bond energy is about p-xylene
(1) 180 kJ/mol (2) 360 kJ/mol
(1)  –18,  –3 (2)  –18,  –6
(3) 213 kJ/mol (4) 425 kJ/mol (3)  –12,  –3 (4)  –14,  –3
66. In NaCl crystal when all the ions along one of the 71. The actual oxidation state of Br in Br3O8 is/are
face centered axis are removed, then which of the (1) +16/3 (2) +6 & +6 only
following happens? (3) +4, +4 & +6 (4) +6, +4, +6
i. NaCl becomes metal excess crystalline solid 72. Identify the incorrect statement
ii. Schottky defect is created (1)  (2px) and  (2py) always have lower energy
iii. Stability of crystal decreases
than that of  (2pz)
iv. It becomes paramagnetic
(1) i & iii only (2) ii & iii (2) Peroxide ion bond is weaker than the
(3) i, iii & iv only (4) i, ii & iv only superoxide ion bond
(3) 2px and 2px orbital overlap to form  (2px)
and * (2px)
(4) Sigma (  ) M.Os are symmetrical around the
bond axis while  molecular orbitals are not
symmetrical

7 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
73. Statement-I : Octahedral holes are present at edge 78. For the reaction : N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
centre and at body center in FCC arrangement. [NH3 ] 2
Equilibrium constant Kc=
Statement-II : Contribution
1 of holes (octahedral) [N2 ][H2 ]3
at edge centre is and that at body centre is 1. Match the following reactions with the
4 corresponding equilibrium constant
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
column I column II
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
i. 2N2(g)+6H2(g) 4NH3(g) a. K 2c
correct 1

(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is ii. 2NH3(g) N2(g)+3H2(g) b. K c2

incorrect 1 3 1
iii. N2(g)+ H2(g) NH3(g) c. K
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are 2 2 c

incorrect (1) i-b, ii-c, iii-a (2) i-a, ii-c, iii-b

(3) i-c, ii-b, iii-a (4) i-a, ii-b, iii-c
74. Heat liberated when 100 ml of 1N NaOH is
79. Which of the following is employed as a
neutralised by 300 ml of 1N HCl
tranquilizer?
(1) 11.46 kJ (2) 5.73 kJ (1) Equanil (2) Tetracyline
(3) 22.92 kJ (4) 17.19 kJ (3) Aspirn (4) Cimetidine
75. Standard reduction potentials of Mg, Zn, Ni, H2, 80. Which hydrides is electron-precise hydride?
Cu & Ag are –2.37, –0.76, –0.25, 0.00, 0.034 & (1) B2H6 (2) NH3
0.80 volts respectively. Which one of the following (3) H2O (4) CH4
cells has maximum voltage? 81. Assertion : PCl3Br2 is a polar molecule with polar
(1) Mg2++2Ag  Mg+2Ag+ bonds.
Reason : It has a regular geometry.
(2) Cu2++H2  Cu+2H+ (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(3) Ni2++Zn  Ni+Zn2+ reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion
(4) Mg+2Ag+  Mg2++2Ag (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
76. ClO2 is a mixed anhydride of reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) HClO3 and HClO4 (2) HClO2 and HClO3 assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) HClO and HClO3 (4) none of these
(4) Assertion is false
77. If an aqueous NaCl solution is electrolysed, which
82. If KC=0.900 and KP=538 for a hypothetical
phenomenon is not observed?
reaction, which of the equations below could
(1) The concentration of Na+ ion decreases represent the reaction at a certain temperature?
(2) Cl2(g) is produced at the anode (1) A(g) 2C(s)+D(g)
(3) The solution become more basic (2) B(g) C(I)+D(I)
(4) H2(g) is produced at the cathode (3) A(I)+2B(g) 2C(g)
(4) A(g)+B(s) 3C(g)

8 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
83. The number of radial nodes for 3p orbital is 88. The first (IE1) and the second (IE2) ionisation
(1) 3 (2) 4 enthalpies (kJ mol–1) of three elements I, II, III are
(3) 2 (4) 1 given below :
84. 3 faraday of electricity is passed through the I II III
solutions containing 1 mole each of NaCl, MgCl2 IE1 403 549 1142
IE2 2640 1060 2080
and AlCl3. Number of moles of Na, Mg and Al
Identify the element which is likely to be an alkali
formed will be in the ratio
metal.
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 : 4 (1) I (2) II
(3) 6 : 3 : 2 (4) 3 : 4 : 6
(3) III (4) II & III
85. When 4f level is completely filled with electrons,
89. Among the followign substances the one which
the next electron will enter into a subshell whose catalyses conversion of SO2 to SO3, which causes
(n + l) is equal to
classical smog is?
(1) 7 (2) 8
(1) Plants (2) I R radiations
(3) 9 (4) 10 (3) Particulates (4) UV radiations
CHEMISTRY : SECTION-B 90. A 1000 mL sample of a gas at –73°C and 2 atmosphere
is heated to 127°C and the pressure is reduced to 0.5
This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10 questions atmosphere. The final volume will be
of them. (1) 2000 mL (2) 4000 mL
86. Most alkaline hydroxide is (3) 6000 mL (4) 8000 mL
(1) Be(OH)2 (2) Ba(OH)2 91. The number of moles of KI required to produce 0.4
(3) Sr(OH)2 (4) CsOH gram molecules of K2HgI4 is
87. Assertion : Cu dissolves in dilute HNO3 but not in (1) 0.4 (2) 3.2
dilute HCl. (3) 0.8 (4) 1.6
92. The formula of the compound made of A and B
Reason : The ERO.P follows the order with A having fcc arrangement and two B on each
O body diagonal
ENO  EO  EHO|H .
–
3|NO Cu2 |cu 2 (1) AB2 (2) A2B
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the (3) A2B3 (4) A2B2
reason is the correct explanation of the 93. Which of the following molecules does not possess
assertion a permanent dipole moment?
(1) H2S (2) SO2
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(3) CS2 (4) SF4
reason is not the correct explanation of the
94. The units of constant in Avogadro’s Law are
assertion
(1) L mol–1 (2) L mol–1 K–1
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false –1
(3) L mol (4) atm L mol–1 K–1
(4) Assertion is false

9 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
95. Which group-II carbide evolves methane on 100. Assertion : Soaps do not work in hard water.
hydrolysis Reason : Ca+2 and Mg+2 ions react with soap and
(1) Be2C (2) Mg2C3 makes it insoluble.
(3) CaC2 (4) Al4C3
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
96. If the solubility of Ag2CrO4 in 0.01 M potassium
chromate is 1×10–9 mol dm–3, then the Ksp of reason is not the correct explanation of the
Ag2CrO4 is assertion

(1) 2×10–11 (2) 2×10–20 (2) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(3) 4×10–20 (4) 4×10–11 (3) Assertion is false
97. The maximum number of orbitals having n=3, (4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
l=2 and m=+2 are reason is the correct explanation of the
(1) 1 (2) 5 assertion
(3) 3 (4) 7
ZOOLOGY : SECTION-A
98. G° vs T plot in the Ellingham diagram slopes
All questions are compulsory in section A
downward for the reaction
101. Which of the following is not the correct match?
1 (1) Facial bones – 6 paired +2 unpaired
(1) Mg+ O MgO
2 2  (2) Hind limb – 30 bones
1 (3) Ribcage – 37 bones
(2) 2Ag+ O Ag2O
2 2  (4) Appendicular skeleton – 80 bones
102. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
1 (1) Asthma – wheezing due to inflammation of
(3) C+ O CO
2 2  bronchi and bronchioles
1 (2) Diarrhoea – increased liquidity of faecal
(4) CO+ O CO2
2 2  discharge
(3) Emphysema–alveolar walls damaged &
99. 2PCl5  [ PCl6 ] and [ PCl4 ] respiratory surface is decreased
How is the hybridisation affected in the above (4) Renal calculi– soluble mass of crystallised salts
change? formed within the kidney
(1) sp3d to sp3d2 & sp3 103. Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre is due
(2) sp3d to sp3d & sp3 to
(3) sp3d to sp3d2 & sp3d2 (1) presence of numerous nuclei scattered
(4) sp3d3 to sp3d & sp3 through out sarcoplasm
(2) presence of Ca2+ storing S.E.R
(3) due to distibution pattern of actin and myosin
(4) all of the above are correct

10 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
104. Hinge joint is present in our body between 111. Match the hormones under Column-I with their role
(1) Humerus and scapula in Column-II
(2) First and second vertebra Column-I Column-II
(3) Humerus and ulna a. ACTH i. inhibits gastric secretion
(4) Between carpals & motility
105. Muscle fibres, fascicle, muscle, myofibril, b. Secretin ii. growth & development of
sarcomere ovarian follicles
If the above are arranged in ascending order of c. FSH iii. stimulates secretion of
their structural organization then 3rd & 5th will be
H2O & HCO–3 ions from
(1) sarcomere & myofibril
(2) muscle fibre & muscle pancreas
(3) sarcomene & fascicle d. Gastric inhibitory iv. stimulates synthesis of
(4) myofibril & muscle fibre peptide steroidal hormones
106. Which of the following hormone pair is not produced (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
by same endocrine glands ? (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
(1) ADH and Somatostatin 112. Which one of the four parts mentioned below does
(2) Melatonin and Serotonin not constitute a part of a single nephron?
(3) Renin and Angiotensin (1) Bowman’s capsule
(4) Prolactin and Somatotrophic Hormone (2) Distal convoluted tubule
107. Go through the following points (3) Loop of Henle
a. regulate the development of secondary sex (4) Collecting duct
organs 113. Which one of the following does not produce
b. stimulates spermatogenesis enzymes for extracellular digestion?
c. produce anabolic effect (1) Intestinal mucosa
d. secreted under the influence of LH (2) Pancreas
e. act on CNS and sexual behaviour (3) Liver
Above points are associated with (4) Gastric mucosa
(1) FSH and LH 114. Statement-I : Fatty acids and glycerols cannot be
(2) estrogen & progesterone absorbed into the blood.
(3) Androgens, testosterone Statement-II : Specialized lymphatic capillaries
(4) Testosterone & estrogen called lacteals carry chylomicrons into lymphatic
108. Site of formation of ribosomal precursor/ribosomal vessels and ultimately into the blood.
subunits in cell is (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(1) nucleus (2) nucleolus
incorrect
(3) golgi body (4) stroma
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
109. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true, incorrect
regarding vasa recta ? (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(1) A minute vessel of the peritubular network correct
runs parallel to the LH forming vasa recta 115. Which of the following is the correct chronological
(2) Vasa recta arises directly from Afferent order for enzyme activity of some enzymes taking
arteriole emerging from glomerulus part in digestion of food?
(1) Trypsin  Pepsin  Peptidase
(3) The descending limb of vasa recta passes
(2) Nucleotidase  Nuclease  Nucleosidase
close to the ascending limb of LH which is
(3) Pepsin  trypsin  Peptidase
permeable to water only
(4) Trypsin  chymotrypsin  Enterokinase
(4) All of these 116. The chromatids reach the two poles, chromosomal
110. Which of the following statements is incorrect? elongation starts and nucleolus reappears. These
(1) Retinal is light absorbing part in events are present in
photoreceptors (1) Metaphase (2) Telophase
(2) Photoreceptors are hyperpolarised in darkness (3) Anaphase (4) Prophase
and become depolarised in light 117. Which of the following does not favour the
formation of large quantities of dilute urine?
(3) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin A
(1) Renin, ANF (2) ANF, ADH
(4) Action potential is generated in ganglionic cells (3) Aldosterone, ANF (4) Renin, ADH

11 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
118. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein 125. Match the following columns
degradation machinery necessary for proper mitosis Column-I Column-II
of animal cells. If APC is defective in a human cell, a. Nucleolus i. Protein factory
which of the following is expected to occur? b. Ribosomes ii. Suicidal bags
(1) Chromosomes will not condense c. Lysosomes iii. Packaging of materials
(2) Chromosomes will be fragmented d. Golgi apparatus iv. RNA synthesis
(3) Chromosomes will not segregate (1) a–iv, b–i, c–iii, d–ii
(4) Recombination of chromosome arms will (2) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii
occur (3) a–iv, b–i, c–ii, d–iii
119. Which of the following is characteristic of simple (4) a–i, b–ii, c–iii, d–iv
epithelial tissue? 126. Which is INCORRECT w.r.t. mechanism of vision?
(1) Highly vascularized (1) Cornea and lens focus light on retina
(2) Always nonglandular (2) Photosensitive compounds in eye are made
(3) Have large intercellular spaces up of opsin and retinal
(4) Cells rest on basement membrane (3) Light induces change in structure of opsin
120. The following shows a cell in prophase-I (4) Action potentials are generated in ganglionic
cells and photoreceptors
127. In an animal cell
(1) lipids provide fluidity to membrane for
Keeping the diagram in view, which of the following functions like endocytosis and formation of
diagram is correct for one of the cell at the end of intercellular junctions
meiosis? (2) Golgi apparatus is site of formation of
glycolipids, lipids and proteins
(1) (2)
(3) Diameter of golgi cisternae is 1.0  m to 5.0
m
(3) (4) (4) The axoneme of cilia and flagella have 9+0
microtubular arrangement
121. In resting state of neuron, the fluid outside the axon
128. Assertion : Osteoporosis is characterised by
and inside axon contains
decreased bone mass and increased chances of
(1) equal amount of Na+ and K+
fractures.
(2) high amount of Na+ on outside and less
Reason : Common cause of osteoporosis is
amount of K+ inside
increased levels of estrogen .
(3) low concentration of K+ outside and low
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
concentration of Na+ inside
reason is the correct explanation of the
(4) high amount of K+ on outside and high amount
assertion
of Na+ inside the axon
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
122. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(1) Cortisol produces anti insulin effect.
assertion
(2) Iodothyronines interact with membrane bound
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
receptors and donot enter the target cell
(4) Assertion is false
(3) Thyroxine hormone controls physical, mental
129. Which of the following is a cartilaginous joint?
and sexual growth of the child.
(1) Pubic symphysis
(4) Non steroid hormone can act upon their target
(2) Between zygapophysis of vertebrae
cells by generating second messengers
(3) Carpal and metacarpal of thumb
123. How many of the following are components of
(4) Both (1) and (2)
human forebrain?
130. The epithelial tissue having thin, flat cells with
Hypothalamus , Corpora quadrigemina, Pons varolli,
irregular boundaries is found in
Pineal gland, Cerebral aqueduct, Thalamus,
a. Bowman’s capsule
Cerebellum
b. Lining of blood capillaries
(1) five (2) four
c. Lining of fallopian tubes
(3) two (4) three
d. Alveolar sacs
124. Which of the following do not synthesize homones?
e. Lining of intestinal villi
(1) Pars intermedia (2) Pars nervosa
(1) a, b and c (2) a, b and d
(3) Pars distalis (4) Adenohypophysis
(3) a, c and e (4) b, c and e

12 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
131. Hepatic portal vein drains blood to liver from ZOOLOGY : SECTION-B
(1) Heart (2) Kidney This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10 questions
(3) Intestine (4) Lungs of them.
132. What would be the cardiac output of a person 136. Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by change
whose SA node generates 90 action potentials per in blood volume and ionic concentration. Activation
minute and blood pumped by each ventricle of his of these receptors stimulate the
heart is 80ml per cardiac cycle? (1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
(1) 5 L (2) 7.2 L (3) Medulla Oblongata (4) Hypothalamus
(3) 6.5 L (4) 9 L 137. Number of chromosomes pair at equatorial plate in
133. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram metaphase I of meiosis in plant with 2n=50 is
(1) 100 (2) 50
A (3) 25 (4) 200
138. Which of the following is not a part of axial skeleton ?
(1) Sacrum (2) Sternum
(3) Ribs (4) Clavicle
139. Middle ear communicates directly with
(1) cochlea of labyrinth
(2) semicircular canals of cochlea
C B (3) saccule and utricle
(4) vestibular apparatus
140. Match the items given in Column I with those in
Column II and select the correct option given below :
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
D c. Albumin (iii) Defence mechanism
a b c a b c
(1) (iii) (ii) (i) (2) (i) (ii) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (4) (i) (iii) (ii)
141. Choose the incorrect option
(1) Hypoparathyroidism–Tetany
(1) A–Urea, B–H2O, C–NaCl, D–K+ (2) Hyperparathyroidism–Osteoporosis
(3) Hypersecretion of adrenocorticoids–Addison’s
(2) A– HCO–3 , B–H2O, C–NaCl, D–Urea disease
(4) Hyperthyroidism–Grave’s disease
(3) A–Nutrients, B–Urea, C–H2O, D–Urea
142. Statement-I : The coagulum is formed of network
(4) A– HCO–3 , B–Urea, C–H2O, D–NaCl of threads called thrombins.
Statement-II : Spleen is the graveyard of
134. The junctions which stop leakage across cells in erythrocytes.
epithelial tissue are (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(1) tight junction (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
(2) adhering junction incorrect
(3) gap junction (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
incorrect
(4) communication junction
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
135. Which of the following is true w.r.t. average lung correct
volumes and capacities of a person at rest? 143. What is true about myofibril when skeletal muscle
(1) VC >TLC >TV > FRC contracts?
(2) TLC > FRC>VC >TV Light band Dark band H–Zone
(1) shortens shortens shortens
(3) TLC > VC > FRC >TV
(2) shortens unchanged unchanged
(4) IC > FRC > VC>TV
(3) shortens unchanged disappears
(4) unchanged shortens shortens

13 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
144. Which of the following is not a control centre in BOTANY : SECTION-A
medulla oblongata?
All questions are compulsory in section A
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre
(2) Cardiac centre 151. Which of the following fungi is parasitic on mustard?
(3) Thermostat (1) Rhizopus (2) Mucor
(4) Vomiting centre
(3) Albugo (4) Fusarium
145. In which of the following cells cytoplasmic granules
contain histamine? 152. Choose the correct match
(1) Basophils (2) Acidophils (1) Iron–component of middle lamella
(3) Eosinophils (4) Neutrophils (2) Sulphur –constituent of vitamins
146. Find the correct values of partial pressures among (3) Magnesium – activator of catalase
the following (4) Calcium– carbohydrate translocation
a. PO2 in alveolar air =104mm Hg
153. Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae)
b. PCO2 in inspired air= 0.3mm Hg
c. PO2 in arterial blood=40 mm Hg (1) is a unicellular member of basidiomycetes
d. PO2 in pulmonary artery=95 mm Hg (2) reproduce only by asexual spore conidia
e. PO2 in pumonary vein=40mm Hg
(3) produces sexual spore ascospores inside ascus
(1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) d, e (4) a, b (4) generally causes skin diseases
147. Choose an incorrect statement w.r.t cell cycle 154. The process of mineral absorption can be
(1) DNA synthesis occurs during specific stage demarcated into two phases. The first phase
in cell cycle where as cytoplasmic growth is involves
continuous
a. rapid uptake of ions in outer free space
(2) Duration of cell cycle is same in different types
b. entry of ions into the ‘ symplast’
of cells of an organisms
c. entry of ions into the apoplast
(3) Duration of cell cycle can vary from organism
d. expenditure of metabolic energy
to organism
(4) Events of cell cycle are under genetic control (1) d only (2) a and b
148. Assertion : A person goes to high altitude and (3) b and d (4) a and c
experiences ‘altitude sickness’ with symptoms like 155. The category ‘order’ in plants ends with the suffix
breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. (1) –ales (2) –aceae
Reason :Due to low atmospheric pressure at high (3) –opsida (4) –ini
altitude, the body does not get sufficient oxygen . 156. Statement-I : Amides are transported to other parts
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the of the plant via xylem.
reason is the correct explanation of the Statement-II : Amides contain more nitrogen than
assertion the amino acids.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the (1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
reason is not the correct explanation of the (2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
assertion incorrect
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
(4) Assertion is false incorrect
149. Which one of the following is not a specialized (4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
connective tissue? correct
(1) Cartilage (2) Bone 157. A group of individual organisms with fundamental
(3) Areolar tissue (4) Blood similarities and are capable of interbreeding is called
150. Choose the incorrect statement as
(1) Differentiation of colour is the property of cone (1) species (2) genus
cells (3) family (4) order
(2) Fovea centralis perceives bright and coloured 158. In pteridophytes, spores germinate to give rise to
light
(1) prothallus (2) protonema
(3) Rods are responsible for vision in bright light
and cones in dimlight (3) leafy stage (4) strobili
(4) Cornea is a transparent part of fibrous layer

14 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
159. Toxicity symptoms are difficult to identify as 166. Label A, B, C and D in the following diagram of
(1) The toxicity levels of any element vary for lenticel.
different plants
(2) Excess of an element may induces the large
uptake of another element
(3) Toxicity of one element may lead to toxicity
of another element
(4) The elements are absorbed in the form of ions
160. Which of the following statements is/are false about
spring wood?
a. Also called early wood (1)A-epidermis, B-cork cambium,
b. Darker in colour C-complimentary cells, D-secondary cortex
(2) A-epidermis, B-secondary cortex, C-cork
c. It has low density cambium, D-complimentary cells
(1) a, b, c (2) b and c (3) A-epidermis, B-secondary cortex,
(3) only b (4) a and c C-complimentary cells, D-cork cambium
(4) A-epidermis, B-complimentary cells,
161. Ethephon C-secondary cortex, D-cork cambium
(1) induces dormancy in seeds 167. Select correct option w.r.t plant growth regulators
(2) prevents abscission of flowers and fruits (1) Spraying sugarcane crop with ethylene
(3) hastens fruit ripening in tomatoes increases the length of stem
(4) increases length of grape stalks (2) Gibberellins help to initiate rooting in stem
162. Endosperm in Gymnosperms is formed cutting
(3) Auxins induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes
(1) after fertilization
(4) Abscisic acid breaks seed and bud dormancy
(2) alongwith seed germination
(3) before fertilization 168. Solution Hypertonic A Isotonic
(4) at the time of fertilization Cell B Turgid Flaccid
163. Which of the following statement is correct? Water Out of the Into the C
movement cell cell
(1) Gas vacuoles translate mRNA into proteins
(2) Mycoplasma are smallest living cells
(1) A–hypertonic,B–deplasmolysed,C–No net flow
(3) Azotobacter converts nitrite to nitrate
(2) A–hypotonic, B-plasmolysed, C-No net flow
(4) Chemosynthetic bacteria can evolve oxygen
(3) A–isotonic, B–plasmolysed, C–into the cell
during photosynthesis
(4) A–hypotonic, B–flaccid, C–No net flow
164. Which of the following is incorrect?
169. Which statement about the symplastic pathway is
(1) Vernalisation refers specially to the promotion not correct?
of flowering by a period of low temperature a. It is a system of interconnected protoplasts
(2) Long day plants initiate flowering when and neighbouring cells connected through
cytoplasmic strands that extend through
exposed to light for a period less than a certain
plasmodesmata
critical period b. Water has to enter the cells through the cell
(3) Cells in a watermelon may increase in size by membrane hence the movement is relatively
upto 3,50,000 times slower
c. Symplastic movement is down a potential
(4) Development is considered as the sum of gradient
growth and differentiation d. It may be aided by cytoplasmic streaming
e. Movement of water into the root cortex is
165. In dicot stem
mainly symplastic
(1) cambium is present (1) a, b, c & d (2) c & d
(2) secondary growth is absent (3) d & e (4) e
170. When fats are used in respiration, the RQ is
(3) vascular bundles are closed (1) 1 (2) less than 1
(4) phloem is located toward inner side of the (3) 0.9 (4 
xylem

15 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
171. Bryophytes differ from pteridophytes in having 180. Hypodermis is _______ in sunflower and ______ in
(1) Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte maize stem
(2) Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte (1) Collenchymatous, sclerenchymatous
(3) Independent sporophyte
(2) Collenchymatous, collenchymatous
(4) Absence of alternation of generations
172. Which of the following is not a reason for ‘why (3) Sclerenchymatous, collenchymatous
plants can get along without respiratory organs’? (4) Collencymatous, parenchymatous
(1) There is a high amount of transport of gases 181. Select incorrect match
from one plant part to another (1) Contagium vivum fluidium – Beijerinek
(2) Each plant part can take care of its own gas- (2) Crystals of TMV – Stanley
exchange needs (3) 5 kingdom classification – Whittaker
(3) Plants do not present great demands for gas (4) Auxin – Kurosawa
exchange
182. What does phloem sap contain?
(4) Distance the gases must diffuse is not great
a. Sucrose
173. Cyanobacteria belong to Monera because of
(1) presence of nucleoid b. Other sugars
(2) blue-green pigmentation c. Water
(3) non-motile nature d. Some hormones & amino acids
(4) nitrogen fixing ability (1) a, b & d (2) a, b & c
174. Assertion : Linnaeus system of classification of (3) a, c & d (4) a, b, c & d
plants was artificial system. 183. We can calculate the net gain of ATP for every
Reason : It was based on natural affinities, internal glucose molecule oxidised completely if along with
features, embryology etc. the others, we assume that
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the (1) Acetyl CoA enters the pathway from fat
reason is the correct explanation of the oxidation also
assertion (2)  -ketoglutarate produced is utilised to
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the synthesise glutamate
reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) NADH synthesised in glycolysis is undergoing
assertion
oxidative phosphorylation
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) All of these
(4) Assertion is false
184. Which of the following pigment is essential for the
175. Flagellated stages are absent in the members of
nitrogen fixation by legumes?
(1) Chlorophyceae (2) Phaeophyceae
(1) Astaxanthin
(3) Rhodophyceae (4) All of these
(2) Phycocyanin
176. In the five kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas
(3) Leghaemoglobin
and Chlorella have been included in kingdom
(4) Phycobilins
(1) Protista (2) Algae
185. Plant factors that affect transpiration include all,
(3) Plantae (4) Monera except
177. The continued oxidation of acetyl CoA via TCA cycle (1) Distribution of stomata
requires
(2) Percent of open stomata
(1) replenishment of OAA
(3) Water status of the plant
(2) regeneration of NAD+ and FAD+
(4) Water status of soil
(3) presence of oxygen
(4) all of these
BOTANY : SECTION-B
178. Yeasts poison themselves to death when the This section has 15 questions, attempt any 10 questions
concentration of alcohol reaches about of them.
(1) 10% (2) 13% 186. Which of the following statement is correct?
(3) 23% (4) 33% (1) Botanical gardens have collection of dried,
179. Chemotaxonomy is connected with pressed and preserved specimens
(2) Housefly belongs to the genus Musca and the
(1) classification of chemicals found in plants
family Diptera
(2) use of chemical constituents of the plant by
(3) Viroids were discovered by T.O Diener in 1971
taxonomists
(4) Prions have low molecular weight RNA
(3) application of chemicals on herbarium sheets
(4) use of statistics in chemical yielding plants

16 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
187. Match the column-I with column-II 192. Which embryophyte is also a vascular cryptogam?
Column-I Column-II
a. Green algae (i) Polysiphonia
b. Red algae (ii) Ulothrix
c. Brown algae (iii) Sphagnum
d. Moss (iv) Riccia
e. Liverwort (v) Dictyota
(1) a–(ii), b–(i), c–(v), d–(iii), e–(iv)
(2) a–(iii), b–(i), c–(v), d–(ii), e–(iv) (1) (2)
(3) a–(i), b–(ii), c–(v), d–(iii), e–(iv)
(4) a–(ii), b–(i), c–(iv), d–(iii), e–(v)
188. Mesosomes do not
(1) participate in the formation of septum
(2) help in cell division
(3) attach to nucleoid
(4) help in decreasing surface area of bacteria
189. Pteridophytes includes
(1) Horsetails and ferns
(3) (4)
(2) Horsetail, ferns, Funaria
(3) Ferns, Selaginella and Sphagnum
(4) Ferns, Marchantia and Selaginella
190. Statement-I : Double fertilization in seen in all seed 193. Properties of cell organelles are not always found
plants. in the molecular constituents of cell organelles as
(1) organelles do not show metabolism
Statement-II :Jute, Flax and hemp are commercially
used phloem fibres. (2) its components are inorganic
(3) interaction produces a new functional entity
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) organisation occurs at higher level only
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are
incorrect 194. Assertion : In aerobic respiration, role of oxygen is
limited but vital.
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is
Reason : Oxygen drives the whole process by
incorrect
removing hydrogen from the system.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
correct reason is the correct explanation of the
191. Which of the following embryophyte shows assertion
diplontic life cycle? (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(1) Fucus (2) Ectocarpus reason is not the correct explanation of the
(3) Cedrus (4) Salvinia assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false
195. Tracheids and sieve tubes both are found in
(1) all vascular plants
(2) some vascular plants
(3) only gymnosperms
(4) gymnosperms and ferns

17 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23
196. How many of the following organisms can show 199. Which of the following is an example of
autotrophic mode of nutrition? redifferentiated cells?
Euglena, Amoeba, Green algae, Physarum, (1) Interfasicular vascular cambium
Conifers, Ceratium, Solanum nigrum, TMV, (2) Secondary phloem
Navicula, some prokaryotes, Angiosperm (3) Meristematic cells
(1) 3 (2) 4 (4) Primary phloem
(3) 5 (4) 8 200. What is wrong w.r.t. mass flow?
197. How many of the following statements are true? a. It involves movement of substances in bulk
a. All the mineral elements that plant absorbs or en masse from one point to another as a
are essential result of pressure differences between the
b. Plants cannot use atmospheric nitrogen two points
directly b. It is achieved through a hydrostatic pressure
c. Diffusion is a slow process and is not gradient
dependent on a ‘living system’ c. Different substances move in water
d. Glucose is the favoured substrate for independently depending upon their
respiration concentration gradient
e. The cells proximal to the meristematic zone (1) a, c (2) b only
respresent the phase of elongation (3) a only (4) c only
(1) One only (2) Four
(3) Three (4) Two
198. Choose the incorrect match
(1) Golden algae – desmids
(2) Puccinia – rust fungus
(3) Sequoia – coralloid roots
(4) Quercus – bottle cork

18 5PCZB(Rev.)/HMC-2/Phase-I/(T.S.)/Helix-23