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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-PTS25_Sim5 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - I

Time Allowed: TWO HOURS Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
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else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
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10. Penalty for wrong answers:

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OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
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penalty for that question.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.1) With reference to the Amara Nayaka 2. It deprived the Governors of the Presidencies
(Nayankara) system of the Vijayanagara Empire, of Bombay and Madras of their legislative
consider the following statements: powers.
1. The Amara Nayakas were military 3. It was the first act to propose for the open
commanders who were granted land competition for civil services, applicable to
territories to administer. Indians as well.
2. The Amar Nayakas were equivalent to the 4. It brought an end to the system of dual
Samantas of North India in terms of their control over the East India Company led
roles and responsibilities. government by abolishing both the Board of
3. Portuguese travelers Fernao Nuniz and Control and the Court of Directors.
Domingo Paes provided a detailed account of Which of the statements given above are
the Amara Nayaka system. correct?
Which of the statements given above are a) 1 and 2 only
correct? b) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only c) 1, 3 and 4
b) 2 and 3 only d) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 Q.5) With reference to the history of modern
India, consider the following statements
Q.2) With reference to the Bhoodan movement, regarding the Orientalist-Anglicist debate:
which one of the following statements is Statement I: Lord Macaulay, in his Minute on
incorrect? Indian Education (1835), recommended that
a) The movement was initiated by Acharya government resources be equally allocated for
Vinoba Bhave in 1951. the promotion of both traditional Indian
b) The movement aimed to persuade learning and Western scientific education.
landowners to donate a portion of their land Statement II: The Orientalists advocated the
to the landless. promotion of traditional Indian learning, while
c) The first instance of land donation (Bhoodan) the Anglicists supported the introduction of
under this movement took place in Bihar. Western science and literature through the
d) The movement received official support from English language as a sole medium of
both the Central government as well as instruction.
various State governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
Q.3) ‘The Global Investment Trends Monitor’, a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
frequently cited in analyses of foreign direct correct and Statement-II explains
investment (FDI) trends, is published by the: Statement-I.
a) United Nations Conference on Trade and b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Development (UNCTAD) correct but Statement-II does not explain
b) International Monetary Fund (IMF) Statement-I.
c) World Bank (WB) c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
d) World Economic Forum (WEF) incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Q.4) With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, correct.
consider the following statements:
1. It had a provision regarding the
representation of Indians in the Governor’s
Legislative Council.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.6) With reference to Modern Indian history, 3. Banabhatta was the famous court poet of
consider the following pairs: King Harshavardhana.
Organisation/Movement Founder Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Tattvabodhini Sabha Rabindranath correct?
Tagore a) 1 and 2
2. Khudai Khidmatgars Abdul Ghaffar b) 3 only
Khan c) 2 only
3. India House Gopala Krishna d) 2 and 3
Gokhale
How many of the pairs given above are correctly Q.10) In the context of India's cultural history,
matched? the Shalbhanjika sculptures depict the:
a) Only one a) women poets who composed Vedic hymns.
b) Only two b) female deities symbolizing fertility.
c) All three c) graceful women grasping the branch of a
d) None tree.
d) women warriors who achieved victory in
Q.7) Among the various ports of the Sangam Age, battle.
which of the following groups of ports were
situated on the eastern coast of India? Q.11) Building temples on ‘star shaped raised
a) Tondi, Muchiris, Poduke platforms’ was a notable feature in the
b) Tondi, Puhar, Korkai architecture of which of the following
c) Poduke, Puhar, Korkai kingdoms?
d) Korkai, Puhar, Muchiris a) The Gajapati
b) The Hoysala
Q.8) It is one of the popular Buddhist c) The Vijayanagara
sites consisting of two Buddhist caves, d) The Pallava
two viharas made up of brick and a group
of stupas. It also enshrines a chaitya cave with a Q.12) Which of the following statements
stūpa in the circular hall and a chaitya arch correctly characterizes the administrative
carved at the entrance. The place has a structure of the Imperial Chola Dynasty?
historical association with the renowned 1. The Chola Empire was divided into provinces
Buddhist logician Dignaga, who is believed to called ‘Valnadus’, which were further divided
have resided there for some time. into several ‘Mandalams’.
Which of the following monuments is described 2. The Central bureaucracy was not generally
in the above passage? allowed to interfere in the affairs of local
a) Amaravati administration at the village level.
b) Karla 3. ‘Nagarama’ was an assembly of the tax-
c) Sanchi paying residents, responsible for
d) Guntapalle administrative matters.
4. With respect to revenue administration, the
Q.9) With reference to ancient Indian history, in-charge of revenue collection was known
consider the following statements about King as ‘Srikaryam.’
Harshavardhana’s reign: Select the correct answer using the code given
1. He defeated Western Chalukya ruler below:
Pulakeshin II twice during his reign. a) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. He issued the grant of lands to the officers as b) 1 and 2 only
well as priests. c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.13) With reference to the socio-religious Q.15) In context to Modern India, consider the
history of India, which of the following following pairs:
statements is/are correct regarding the Alvars
Newspaper/Journal Started by
and the Nayanars?
1. Both Alvars and Nayanars belonged to
1. Amrita Bazar Debendra Nath Tagore
different social backgrounds including Patrika
“untouchables.”
2. Both of them propagated the principles of 2. Bande Mataram Bipan Chandra Pal
austerity as preached by Buddhism and
Jainism. 3. Mirat-ul-Akhbar Raja Ram Mohan Roy
3. “Nalariya Divya Prabandham” was a text
belonging to Nayanars whereas ‘Tevaram’ 4. The East Indian Annie Besant
was a text compiled by Alvar Poets. Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
4. Andal was an Alvar saint whereas Appar was a matched?
Nayanar saint. a) 1, 2 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
below: c) 3 only
a) 1 and 4 only d) 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 4 only
Q.16) With respect to the history of medieval
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
India, Tazkiras/Tazkirat were-
a) Collections of royal decrees issued by the
Q.14) With reference to the India’s struggle for Mughal emperors
independence, consider the following b) Historical accounts of battles and military
statements: conquests by court historians
Statement I: Many of the young nationalists c) Biographical narratives of Sufi saints and
were drawn towards the revolutionary musicians
programme during the second half of the 1920s. d) Scientific treatises on medicine and
Statement II: Mahatma Gandhi called off the astronomy
Non-Cooperation Movement after the Chauri
Chaura incident. Q.17) Which one of the following statements is
Statements III: The ‘Zimmerman Plan’ failed to correct regarding the Delhi Sultanate ruler
organise an all-India armed revolution to Muhammad bin Tughlaq?
overthrow the colonial government. a) He launched the Qarachil expedition to
Which one of the following is correct in respect conquer the Rajput states of western
of the statements given above? Rajasthan and Gujarat.
a) Both statement -II and statement -III are b) He transferred his capital from Lahore to
correct and both of them explain Delhi to escape Mongol invasions.
statement -I. c) He introduced token currency using copper
b) Both statement -II and statement -III are and brass which failed due to widespread
correct, but only one of them explains forgery.
statement -I. d) He reduced the scale of agrarian taxation and
c) Only one of the statements II and III is eliminated older taxes like Ghari and Charai.
correct, and that explains statement -I.
d) Neither Statement -II nor statement -III is
correct.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.18) Consider the following states of India: 3. These chemicals are used in a wide range of
1. Meghalaya applications, including cosmetics, fast-food
2. Nagaland wrappers, non-stick cookware, and wind
3. Mizoram turbines.
4. Jharkhand 4. Long-term exposure to it is linked to health
5. Andhra Pradesh issues such as cancer, liver damage, and
How many of the above given states have critical immune system disorders.
elephant habitats notified as ‘Elephant Reserve’? 5. Recently, India imposed a comprehensive
a) Only two ban on the production and use of these
b) Only three chemicals.
c) Only four Which of the statements given above are
d) All five correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q.19) Samarth Incubation Program is a program b) 2, 3 and 5 only
for the startups of which of the following c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
sectors? d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
a) Agriculture
b) Telecommunications and Information Q.23) Consider the following pairs regarding
Technology prominent places of historical importance in
c) Aviation India and the rivers on which they are situated:
d) Textile Place River
1. Ujjain Shipra
Q.20) With respect to the water on Earth’s 2. Srirangapatna Cauvery
surface, which among the following contains the 3. Mathura Betwa
highest amount of freshwater?
4. Gaya Kosi
a) Lakes
5. Manyakheta Tungabhadra
b) Soil Moisture
c) Rivers and Streams How many of the pairs given above are correctly
d) Atmosphere matched?
a) Only two
b) Only three
Q.21) Which of the following pairs of plant
c) Only four
species are endemic to India?
d) All five
a) Sal and Indian rosewood
b) Malabar lily and red sandalwood
Q.24) The Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi
c) Banyan and Tamarind
Pariyojana (PMBJP), aimed at providing
d) Teak and Indian Mahogany
affordable generic medicines to people, is
implemented under the aegis of which of the
Q.22) With reference to "Forever Chemicals",
following ministries of Government of India?
frequently seen in the news, consider the
a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
following statements:
b) Ministry of Ayush
1. These chemicals are persistent organic
c) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
pollutants that resist environmental
d) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
degradation and tend to accumulate in living
organisms over time.
2. These chemicals are scientifically known as
Perfluoroalkyl and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances
(PFAS).

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.25) As per the Global Red list of Mangrove 2. Gharial Chambal River Critically
Ecosystems by International Union for Basin Endangered
Conservation of Nature (IUCN), the mangrove 3. Golden Western Critically
ecosystems of which of the following regions of Langur Ghats Endangered
India has been classified as "Critically 4. Pygmy Eastern Ghats Endangered
Endangered"? Hog
a) Sundarbans How many of the above rows are correctly
b) Gulf of Kutch matched?
c) Bhitarkanika a) Only one
d) Tamil Nadu coast b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.26) Consider the following statements: d) All four
Statement I: The hot and moist air feels warmer
and more uncomfortable than the hot and dry Q.29) Consider the following statements with
air. reference to Olive Ridley turtles:
Statement II: High humidity decreases the rate 1. They are the smallest and most abundant of
of evaporation of sweat from the skin. all sea turtles found in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect 2. They are herbivorous and feed mainly on
of the above statements? marine plants and algae.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 3. They are naturally found only in the warm
correct and Statement-II explains waters of the Indian ocean.
Statement-I. 4. The use of non-TED (Turtle Excluder Device)
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are fishing trawlers has been a major cause of
correct but Statement-II does not explain accidental deaths among these turtles.
Statement-I. Which of the statements given above are
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is correct?
incorrect. a) 1 and 2
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is b) 1 and 4
correct. c) 2 and 4
d) 2 and 3
Q.27) Consider the following protected areas:
1. Mudumalai Tiger Reserve Q.30) In the context of environment, which of
2. Silent Valley National Park the following statements best describes the
3. Bandipur National Park term “Carbon Leakage”?
4. Dandeli wildlife sanctuary a) It refers to the total amount of greenhouse
5. Nagarhole Tiger Reserve gases emitted directly or indirectly by an
6. Mukurthi national park individual, organization, or product annually.
How many of the above are located within the b) It refers to the amount of carbon dioxide
Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve? emitted per unit of any economic output or
a) Only three activity.
b) Only four c) It refers to the carbon emissions associated
c) Only five with materials and construction
d) All six processes throughout the lifecycle of a
building or infrastructure.
Q.28) Consider the following information: d) It refers to a phenomenon where a company
Fauna Natural IUCN shifts carbon intensive production from a
Species Habitat Status place with strict climate policies to a region
1. Sangai Keibul Lamjao Vulnerable with lax regulations.
Deer National Park

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.31) Which one of the following issues the Q.34) With reference to the seagrass , consider
‘Greening the Blue’ Report periodically? the following statements:
a) The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) 1. It is a large algae that lacks roots, stems, and
b) The United Nations Environment Programme vascular tissues.
(UNEP) 2. It is mainly found in cold, and deep ocean
c) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change waters of the world’s temperate and polar
(IPCC) regions.
d) International Union for Conservation of 3. It is an important source of food for many
Nature (IUCN) marine organisms including Dugong.
4. It provides water purification services by
filtering and absorbing nutrients and
Q.32) In context to biodiversity conservation in
pathogens.
India, which of the following statements are
5. India’s largest seagrass bed is found in the
correct regarding the Biodiversity Management
Gulf of Khambhat.
Committees?
How many of the statements given above are
1. They are constituted under the Environment correct?
(Protection) Act, 1986. a) Only two
2. It is mandatory for the Central Government b) Only three
to set up at least one Biodiversity c) Only four
Management Committee for every State. d) All five
3. They are mandated to prepare a People’s
Biodiversity Register (PBR) which provides Q.35) Consider the following:
information about the availability of 1. Carbon Dioxide
biological resources in an area. 2. Black Carbon
4. The Biodiversity Management Committees 3. Methane
have the power to levy fees on collection of 4. Stratospheric Ozone
biological resources by any person within its 5. Hydrofluorocarbon
jurisdiction. Which of the above are identified as the ‘super
Select the correct answer using the code given pollutants’?
below: a) 2, 3 and 5 only
a) 2 and 3 only b) 3 and 5 only
b) 2 and 4 only c) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only d) 4 and 5 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Q.36) With reference to world geography,
Q.33) In context to the India State of Forest consider the following pairs:
Report (ISFR) 2023, what is the correct Volcanic Mountain/ Associated country
increasing order of the given States in terms of Volcano
their ‘total forest and tree cover’? 1. Kilauea United States of
1. Arunachal Pradesh America
2. Maharashtra 2. Marapi Indonesia
3. Madhya Pradesh 3. Sundhnúkur Russia
4. Chhattisgarh 4. Kanlaon Japan
Select the correct answer using the code given 5. Etna Italy
below: How many of the pairs given above are correctly
a) 2-1-3-4 matched?
b) 2-1-4-3 a) Only two
c) 4-1-2-3 b) Only three
c) Only four
d) 4-2-1-3
d) All five

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.37) Which of the following countries are Which of the statements given above are
respectively the largest producer and the largest correct?
exporter of wheat in the world? a) 2 and 3
a) India and Russia b) 3 and 4
b) China and Russia c) 2 and 4
c) China and the United States of America d) 1 and 2
d) Ukraine and China
Q.41) Consider the following:
Q.38) With reference to Major waterfalls in 1. Flying Squirrels
India, consider the following information: 2. Dugongs
Major Associated Located in 3. Pangolins
waterfall river 4. Otters
1. Hundru Subarnarekha Chhattisgarh 5. Dolphins
Falls 6. Penguins
2. Jog falls Sharavathi Karnataka How many of the above are mammal species?
a) Only three
3. Athirappilly Chalakudy Kerala
b) Only four
Falls
c) Only five
4. Shiva Kaveri Tamil Nadu
d) All six
Samudram
falls
Q.42) With reference to India’s biodiversity,
In how many of the above given rows, the
Senna spectabilis and Lantana camara, which
information is correctly matched?
are frequently mentioned in the news, are the:
a) Only one
a) newly discovered species of bacteria
b) Only two
b) invasive alien species of plants
c) Only three
c) rare species of golden fish
d) All four
d) endangered species of butterflies

Q.39) The ‘Bluethroat’, ‘Tawny Pipit’, and

Q.43) With reference to rubber cultivation in
‘Ultramarine Flycatcher’, which were seen
India, consider the following statements:
recently in the news are the species of
1. Rubber requires a hot and humid climate,
a) Frogs
with annual rainfall exceeding 200 cm.
b) Anteaters
2. Well-drained lateritic soils on gently
c) Birds
undulating terrain are considered ideal for
d) Rodents
rubber cultivation.
3. India is the largest producer and consumer of
Q.40) With reference to the biodiversity
natural rubber in the world.
conservation, consider the following statements:
4. Kerala is the largest producer of natural
1. Key Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) in India are
rubber in India.
identified by the Wildlife Institute of India.
5. The Rubber Board functions under
2. Important Bird Areas (IBAs) in India are
administrative control of the Ministry of
identified by Birdlife International in
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
collaboration with Bombay Natural History
Which of the statements given above are
Society.
correct?
3. The criteria for designating a site as Key
a) 1 and 2 only
Biodiversity Areas (KBAs) are developed by
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
International Union for Conservation of
c) 2, 3 and 5
Nature (IUCN).
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
4. To qualify as an IBA, a site must consist of at
least 70% migratory bird population.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.44) In the context of climatology, which one of 3. The Members of Parliament are immune
the following statements regarding temperature from prosecution in any case related to
inversion is correct? bribery under the Prevention of Corruption
It is a condition- Act, 1988.
a) where temperature decreases rapidly with 4. Only the Supreme Court can punish a
increasing altitude. Member of the Parliament for ‘breach of
b) where cooler air lies above warmer air, privilege’ of any other Member.
enhancing vertical air movement. 5. The Attorney General of India is entitled to
c) where a layer of warmer air traps cooler air parliamentary privileges that are available to
beneath it, preventing vertical mixing. a Member of Parliament.
d) associated with intense thunderstorms and Which of the statements given above are
increased cloud formation. correct?
a) 2, 3 and 5 only
Q.45) With reference to Constitutional b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Amendment Acts in India, which of the following c) 1, 2 and 5 only
statements are correct? d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
1. The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act
allowed the appointment of a person as a Q.47) The Eleventh and the Twelfth Schedules
Governor for two or more states. were added to the Constitution of India during
2. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act the Prime Ministership of
made it obligatory for the President to give a) Rajiv Gandhi
assent to Constitutional Amendment Bills. b) Vishwanath Pratap Singh
3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act c) Chandra Shekhar
removed the Right to Property from the list d) P. V. Narasimha Rao
of fundamental rights under Part III of the
Constitution. Q.48) With reference to the National Human
4. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act Rights Commission (NHRC) in India, consider
imposed a limit on the size of the Council of the following statements:
Ministers, restricting it to 15% of the total 1. The Selection Committee for the
strength of the Lok Sabha. appointment of its Chairman includes both
Select the correct answer using the code given the Prime Minister and the Chief Justice of
below: India.
a) 1 and 2 only 2. On ceasing to hold office, a member of the
b) 2 and 3 only Commission is neither eligible for
c) 1, 2 and 4 only reappointment nor any further appointment
d) 1, 3 and 4 only under the Government.
3. The Global Alliance of National Human Rights
Q.46) With reference to the Indian polity, Institutions (GANHRI) has recently provided
consider the following statements regarding the accreditation to India’s NHRC for the first
Parliamentary Privileges: time.
1. The Parliament has not yet enacted any Which of the statements given above is/are
legislation that defines or codifies the correct?
privileges and immunities of the Houses of a) 1 and 3 only
Parliament or their members. b) 2 only
2. The Members of Parliament enjoy the c) 3 only
freedom of speech in the Houses of d) None of the above
Parliament and Parliamentary committees.

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 Page 10

PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.49) Which of the following statements is b) It is a discretionary power exclusively vested

correct regarding the Ordinance-Making Power in the Supreme Court of India.
of the Governor of a State? c) It can be related to the Constitutional as well
a) An ordinance related to any money bill of the as civil and criminal matters.
state cannot be promulgated by the d) It cannot be granted against any judgment
Governor without the prior instruction of the passed by any court constituted under any
President. law relating to the Armed Forces.
b) The Governor’s power to promulgate an
ordinance cannot be subjected to judicial Q.53) Consider the following statements:
review. Statement-I: In India, no person can be
c) It is a discretionary power that can be deprived of his life or personal liberty, except
exercised by the Governor without the according to the procedure established by the
advice of the State Council of Ministers. law.
d) An ordinance promulgated by the Governor Statement-II: The concept of ‘due process of
can have the retrospective effect i.e. it may law’ states that the procedure established by the
come into force from a back date. law should be just, fair and reasonable.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
Q.50) According to the Constitution of India, the of the above statements?
minimum number of Judges who are to sit for a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the purpose of hearing any reference from the correct and Statement-II explains
President under article 143 shall be- Statement-I.
a) Three b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
b) Five correct but Statement-II does not explain
c) Seven Statement-I.
d) Nine c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
Q.51) In the context of the Sixth Schedule of the d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Indian Constitution, consider the following correct.
statements:
1. Such areas can be organized as the Q.54) Consider the following statements
‘autonomous districts’. regarding the United Nations Office on Drugs
2. Such areas must have a Tribes Advisory and Crime (UNODC):
Council to advise on the welfare of the 1. It assists member states in combating
Scheduled Tribes. organized crimes, including terrorism.
3. Such areas are empowered to have regional 2. It is mandated by the member states to assist
councils for trial of cases between the tribes. in the implementation of the United Nations
4. Such areas may be exempted from the Convention Against Corruption (UNCAC).
application of laws made by the Parliament of 3. It has launched the ‘RiseUp4Peace’ initiative
India. to combat drug trafficking exclusively in the
How many of the above will be the ‘Golden Crescent’ region, comprising
consequences of declaring an area under the Afghanistan, Pakistan and Iran.
Sixth Schedule? 4. It has recently released the ‘World Drug
a) Only one Report 2024’ to assist Member States in
b) Only two mitigating the impact of drug abuse.
c) Only three Which of the statements given above are
d) All four correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.52) With reference to the provision of ‘Special b) 3 and 4 only
leave to appeal’ under the Indian Constitution, c) 1, 2 and 4 only
which of the following statements is incorrect? d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
a) It is governed under the provisions of Article
142 of the Constitution of India.

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 Page 11

PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.55) Consider the following statements Q.58) Consider the following pairs:
regarding the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Terms related to Description
Act, 1958: Environment and
1. Only the Central Government is empowered Ecology
to notify an area as a ‘disturbed area’ in a 1. Ecotype A Group of different
state or union territory under AFSPA. species that have
2. The act empowers the armed forces officers adapted to the same
of certain ranks to arrest any person without environmental
warrant against whom a reasonable suspicion conditions.
exists of committing a cognizable offence. 2. Ecotone A transition area
3. It provides absolute immunity to the armed between two biomes.
forces from prosecution against their 3. Keystone A group of organisms
actions. Species without which an
4. It has been recently extended to the entire ecosystem may
State of Manipur. drastically change or
Which of the above statements is/are correct? cease to exist altogether.
a) 1 and 2 only 4. Indicator A group of organisms
b) 3 only Species that serve as early
c) 3 and 4 only warning signals for
d) 2 only environmental
degradation.
Q.56) Which of the following parts of the How many of the above pairs are correctly
Constitution of India provides to ‘foster respect matched?
for international law and treaty obligations in a) Only one
the dealings of organized peoples with one b) Only two
another’? c) Only three
a) Fundamental Rights d) All four
b) Fundamental Duties
c) The Preamble
Q.59) Which of the following statements is
d) Directive Principles of State Policy
incorrect regarding the Ecomark Rules of 2024?
a) These Rules are notified under the
Q.57) Consider the following statements Environment (Protection) Act of 1986.
regarding the National Critical Mineral Mission b) Their primary objective is to implement the
(NCMM): ideals of the ‘LiFE (Lifestyle for Environment)
1. It focuses on securing the availability of the Movement’ by promoting sustainable
critical and strategic minerals specified patterns of production and consumption.
under the Mines and Minerals (Development c) The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) has
and Regulation) Amendment Act of 2023. been designated as the nodal agency for
2. It aims to secure India’s critical mineral granting an ‘Ecomark’ to a product.
supply chain by ensuring mineral availability d) An Ecomark can be granted to a product that
from domestic and foreign sources. is recyclable or is made from recycled
3. It involves mining in the offshore areas to material.
extract polymetallic nodules.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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 Page 12

PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.60) Consider the following information

3. Risa Textile Tripura
regarding the criteria for classification of Miro,
Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in 4. Kannadipaya Kerala
India:
Category of Investment in Turnover
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
Enterprise plant and does not
matched?
machinery or exceed
a) Only one
equipment
b) Only two
does not
c) Only three
exceed d) All four
1. Micro 2 crores10 crores
Enterprise Q.63) With reference to the comparison
2. Small 10 crores 50 crores between the Nominal Gross Domestic Product
Enterprise (GDP) and the Real Gross Domestic Product
3. Medium 125 crores 1000 crores (GDP) of a country, consider the following
Enterprise statements:
In how many of the above rows is the given 1. Unlike Nominal Gross Domestic Product
information correctly matched? (GDP), Real GDP measures the value of goods
a) Only one and services at some constant set of prices.
b) Only two 2. If the economy is facing positive inflation,
c) All three then real GDP will always be higher than
d) None nominal GDP.
3. Real GDP is often considered a more
Q.61) The term 'Special Mention Accounts’, accurate measure of economic growth than
which sometimes appears in the news, is most nominal GDP.
closely associated with which of the following? Which of the statements given above are
a) Bank accounts of high net-worth individuals correct?
(HNIs) with substantial liquid assets. a) 1 and 2 only
b) Bank accounts of Non-resident Indians with b) 2 and 3 only
foreign currency-denominated deposits. c) 1 and 3 only
c) Bank accounts showing earliest signs of d) 1, 2 and 3
sickness or irregularities in loan repayment.
d) Bank accounts that are used for facilitating Q.64) The Union Cabinet has recently approved
the financing of trade receivables of MSMEs. the phase-II of the Vibrant Villages Programme.
Regarding this Programme, which of the
Q.62) Consider the following pairs regarding the following statements is correct?
Geographical Indication (GI) tagged products in a) It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
India and the States with which they are b) It aims at the comprehensive development of
associated: strategic villages located along the western
and eastern coastal areas.
GI Tagged Product State from which it
c) It will provide funds for the development of
received the GI Tag
educational infrastructure as well as tourism
1. Amalsad Chikoo Maharashtra circuits.
d) The Ministry of Rural Development is the
2. Rupa Tarakasi (Silver Odisha nodal ministry for its implementation.
Filigree)

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.65) With reference to the Kisan Credit Card Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
Scheme, consider the following entities: matched?
1. Sharecroppers a) 1 only
2. All Self Help Groups b) 1 and 3 only
3. Fishermen c) 3 only
4. Dairy farmers d) 2 and 3 only
How many of the above are eligible for credit
support under the Kisan Credit Card scheme? Q.68) Consider the following:
a) Only one 1. A government scheme funding higher
b) Only two education for rural youth
c) Only three 2. A company investing in skill training for its
d) All four workers
3. A family purchasing shares of a company for
Q.66) Consider the following recommendation: future returns
1. The members of the Panchayats at all three 4. A farmer buying a tractor to increase
levels should be directly elected. agricultural productivity
2. A constitutional recognition should be How many of the above are examples of human
accorded to the Panchayati Raj institutions. capital formation?
3. A State Election Commission should be a) Only one
established for the conduct of elections to b) Only two
the panchayats. c) Only three
The above mentioned recommendations were d) All four
given by which of the following committees?
a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Q.69) With reference to the implication of
b) Ashok Mehta Committee currency devaluation, consider the following
c) L. M. Singhvi Committee statements:
d) V.N. Gadgil Committee Statement I: Devaluation of domestic currency
can help improve the Balance of Payments (BoP)
Q.67) In context to Indian economy, consider the position of a country.
following pairs: Statement II: Devaluation of domestic currency
makes the exports of that country more
Terms in News Description/Feature
competitive in the global market.
Statements III: Devaluation of domestic
1. Promissory It allows foreign
currency helps reduce the level of inflation in
Note companies to raise
the domestic economy.
capital from Indian
Which one of the following is correct in respect
investors without listing
of the statements given above?
their shares on Indian
a) Both statement -II and statement -III are
stock exchanges.
correct and both of them explain
2. Participatory It can only be traded in statement -I.
Note the primary market and b) Both statement -II and statement -III are
not in the secondary correct, but only one of them explains
market. statement -I.
c) Only one of the statements II and III is
3. Line of Credit It is a flexible loan facility correct, and that explains statement -I.
extended by banks that d) Neither Statement -II nor statement -III is
allows businesses to correct.
access funds as needed.

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 Page 14

PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.70) In context to India’s Five Year Plans, 4. China is the largest shareholder in AIIB,
consider the following information: holding over 25% of the voting power.
Which of the statements given above are
Five Year Primary Theme Began during
correct?
Plan of the Plan the Prime
a) 1 and 2 only
Ministership
b) 1, 2 and 3
of c) 2 and 4 only
d) 3 and 4 only
1. Third To make India a Jawahar Lal
Plan 'self-reliant' and Nehru
Q.72) In the context of banking, what does the
'self-generating'
term 'Provisioning Coverage Ratio (PCR)' refer
economy.
to?
a) The proportion of high-quality liquid assets
2. Fifth To promote Morarji Desai held by banks to meet its short-term
Plan “growth with obligations.
social justice & b) The ratio of banks liquid assets to its net
equality ” demand and time liabilities (NDTL).
c) The ratio of a bank’s net stable funding to its
3. Eighth To introduce V.P. Singh required stable funding.
Plan fiscal & d) The ratio of funds set aside by banks in
economic relation to its gross non-performing assets.
reforms
including Q.73) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently
liberalisation revised the threshold limits for classifying
deposits as bulk deposits for various types of
4. Eleventh To achieve Manmohan banks. In this context, consider the following
Plan "Faster, More Singh statements:
Inclusive and 1. The bulk deposit limit for Scheduled
Sustainable Commercial Banks, including Regional Rural
Growth" Banks, has been increased to a single rupee
In how many of the above rows is the given term deposit of ₹3 crore.
information correctly matched? 2. Banks have been mandated by the RBI to
a) Only one offer uniform interest rates on bulk deposits.
b) Only two Which of the statements given above is/are
c) Only three correct?
d) All four a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.71) With reference to the Asian Infrastructure c) Both 1 and 2
Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following d) Neither 1 nor 2
statements:
1. Its headquarters is located in Shanghai,
China.
2. Presently, India is the largest borrower from
the bank.
3. Only Asian countries are eligible to become
members of AIIB.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.74) Recently, the Union Cabinet approved the sewage into a water body, in consultation
development of the National Maritime Heritage with the Central Pollution Control Board.
Complex (NMHC). In this context, consider the 2. It empowers the central government to
following statements: prescribe rules for the appointment of
1. This initiative is led by the Ministry of chairpersons of State Pollution Control
Culture. Boards.
2. Its primary objective is to showcase India's 3. Penalties collected under the Act will be
maritime heritage spanning from ancient to credited to the Consolidated Fund of India.
modern times. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. It is being established at Lothal in the state of correct?
Gujarat. a) 1 only
4. It is being developed under the Sagarmala b) 2 only
Programme. c) 3 only
Which of the statements given above are d) 2 and 3
correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only Q.77) The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index
b) 1, 2 and 4 only (MPI) measures poverty using specific indicators
c) 2, 3 and 4 only across three dimensions. In this context, which
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the following is not included as an MPI
indicator?
Q.75) With reference to synthetic drugs, which a) Maternal Health
of the following statements are correct? b) Nutrition
1. They are chemically manufactured c) Electricity
substances designed to mimic the effects of d) Years of Schooling
naturally occurring illicit drugs.
2. The International Narcotics Control Board Q.78) With reference to the Manufacturing
has recently highlighted that the sector in the Indian economy, which one of the
proliferation of synthetic drugs is a major following statements is correct?
threat to public health. a) The manufacturing sector contributes over
3. Synthetic drugs such as Fentanyl are 30 percent to India’s Gross Domestic Product
considered to be more potent than natural (GDP).
opioids like morphine. b) India’s manufacturing sector accounts for
Select the correct answer using the code given approximately 10 percent of global
below: manufacturing output.
a) 1 and 2 only c) Karnataka is the leading state in terms of
b) 2 and 3 only contribution to India’s total manufacturing
c) 1 and 3 only Gross Value Added (GVA).
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) Tamil Nadu employs the highest number of
individuals in the manufacturing sector
Q.76) Consider the following statements with across India.
reference to the Water (Prevention and Control
of Pollution) Amendment Act, 2024:
1. It empowers the State governments to
exempt certain industrial plants from
obtaining prior consent for discharging

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.79) With reference to Skill Impact Bonds (SIBs) a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
in India, which one of the following statements correct and Statement-II explains
is correct? Statement-I.
a) India’s first SIB was launched by the Ministry b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
of Finance in collaboration with the World correct but Statement-II does not explain
Bank. Statement-I.
b) They are a type of sovereign bond backed by c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
the Government’s budgetary allocation. incorrect.
c) In a SIB, private investors fund the training d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
upfront and are repaid based on correct.
predetermined, independently verified
outcomes achieved. Q.82) With reference to the SVAMITVA Scheme,
d) All trainees under SIBs are guaranteed job consider the following statements:
placement after completing the training. 1. It is a Central Sector Scheme.
2. It works under the aegis of the Ministry of
Q.80) With reference to the Indian Rural Development.
Parliamentary system, consider the following 3. The scheme aims to provide legal ownership
statements: cards to property owners in rural inhabited
A person who is not a member of Parliament: areas by mapping land parcels using drone
1. can be appointed as Prime Minister for a technology.
period of up to six months. 4. The scheme covers both agricultural and
2. can be appointed as a Union Minister for a non-agricultural land holdings within its
period of up to six months. ambit.
3. can be elected as Speaker of the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above are
for a period of up to six months. correct?
4. can be designated as Leader of the a) 1, 3 and 4 only
Opposition for a period of up to six months. b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above are c) 2 and 4 only
correct? d) 1 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only Q.83) In India, agricultural cropping is broadly
c) 1, 2 and 4 classified into two main seasons: Kharif and
d) 1, 3 and 4 Rabi.
In this context, consider the following crops:
Q.81) With respect to the Indian polity, consider 1. Maize
the following statements: 2. Turmeric
Statement I: The writ jurisdiction of the High 3. Barley
Courts is wider than that of the Supreme Court. 4. Groundnut
Statement II: Parliament has empowered High 5. Mustard
Courts to issue writs for matters other than How many of the above crops are primarily
Fundamental Rights by law, but no such law grown during the Kharif season in India?
exists for the Supreme Court. a) Only two
Which one of the following is correct in respect b) Only three
of the above statements? c) Only four
d) All five

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.84) Arrange the following states in increasing Q.87) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
order of their share in total merchandise exports recently issued the Guidelines on Default Loss
of India in 2023-24: Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending. In this
1. Maharashtra context, consider the following
2. Gujarat 1. Small Finance Bank
3. Tamil Nadu 2. Housing Finance Companies
4. Karnataka 3. Primary (Urban) Cooperative Banks
Select the correct answer using the code given 4. State Cooperative Banks
below: The above mentioned guidelines apply to Digital
a) 3-4-2-1 Lending operations undertaken by how many of
b) 3-4-1-2 the above entities?
c) 4-3-2-1 a) Only one
d) 4-3-1-2 b) Only two
c) Only three
Q.85) With reference to polity, which of the d) All four
following statements best describes the
relationship between law and liberty? Q.88) Recently, which among the following
a) Liberty prospers most when laws are minimal became the first country in the World to allow
and rarely enforced. voters to elect judges at all levels of the
b) The more laws a society has, the more liberty judiciary?
its citizens enjoy. a) New Zealand
c) Liberty and laws are independent and do not b) Norway
affect each other. c) Mexico
d) Liberty cannot exist without the fair and just d) Argentina
application of the laws.
Q.89) "Extended Fund Facility" and "Stand-by
Q.86) In the context of the Indian economy, Arrangement" are related to the provisions of
which of the following statements is incorrect lending by which one of the following?
regarding the Index of Industrial Production a) World Bank
(IIP)? b) International Monetary Fund
a) It is compiled and published on a monthly c) New Development Bank
basis by the National Statistical Office (NSO), d) World Trade Organization
Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Implementation. Q.90) Which of the following is the most
b) It measures the short-term changes in the appropriate consequence of an increase in the
volume of production of a basket of industrial GDP Deflator of an economy?
products during a given period with respect a) Increase in the general level of prices of
to the base period. goods and services in the economy.
c) In IIP, the sectoral weightage of ‘Electricity’ is b) Improvement in the trade competitiveness of
higher than that of ‘Mining’. the economy.
d) Presently, the base year for the calculation of c) Reduction in the general level of prices of
IIP in India is 2011-12. goods and services in the economy.
d) Slow down in the growth rate of the
economy.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.91) Consider the following applications: Q.94) With reference to Open Source Software
1. Cryogenic preservation of food and biological (OSS), consider the following statements:
samples 1. It is software whose source code is openly
2. Deep cleaning of industrial equipment accessible for modification and distribution.
3. Packaging of electronics components 2. Governments prefer OSS for its cost-
4. Freeze branding of horses and cattle effectiveness, and enhanced control over
5. Shielding of materials from oxygen exposure digital infrastructure.
How many of the above are the applications of 3. Bharat Operating System Solutions (BOSS)
Liquid Nitrogen? and BharOS are OSS developed by the
a) Only two Government of India.
b) Only three Which of the statements given above are
c) Only four correct?
d) All five a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
Q.92) Which of the following statements is c) 1, 2 and 3
correct regarding the phenomenon of quantum d) 1 and 3 only
entanglement of particles?
a) Particles that are entangled have no physical Q.95) Consider the following information:
connection and behave independently of Disease Vector
Treatment/
each other. Vaccine
b) Entangled particles travel faster than the 1. Malaria Virus Artemisinin-
speed of light to communicate with each based
other. combination
c) Entangled particles exhibit the therapy (ACT)
characteristics of waves as well as particles available
at the same time. 2. Avian Protozoan No vaccine or
d) Entangled particles remain connected even influenza treatment
when separated by great distances. available
3. Tuber- Bacteria Combination
Q.93) Which one of the following statements culosis based antibiotic
best explains the term 'Mercenary Spyware treatment
Attacks' recently mentioned in the news? available
a) Cyberattacks carried out by independent 4. MPox Virus No specific
hackers for personal financial gain using vaccine or
generic malware. treatment
b) State-sponsored cyber operations aimed at available
disrupting foreign government infrastructure In how many of the above rows is the given
through ransomware. information correctly matched?
c) Mass phishing campaigns designed to a) Only one
indiscriminately infect users with adware for b) Only two
data harvesting. c) Only three
d) Rare and targeted surveillance operations d) All four
using sophisticated spyware to remotely
compromise the user devices.

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PTS 2025 | Test Code: 221406 |

Q.96) With reference to Nanozymes, consider Which of the statements given above are
the following statements: correct?
1. These are kind of nanomaterials that exhibit a) 1 and 3 only
enzymatic catalytic properties. b) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. These are synthetically produced and not c) 2 only
found naturally. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. These can be used in detection and
treatment of cancer disease in humans. Q.99) With reference to Biotechnology,
4. These can be employed in the development Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), often
of collagen-based biomaterials. mentioned in the news, refers to which of the
Which of the statements given above are following?
correct? a) A genome-editing technique used to make
a) 1, 2 and 3 only precise changes in the DNA of organisms.
b) 1, 3 and 4 only b) A laboratory method used to rapidly amplify
c) 2 and 4 only specific segments of DNA for analysis.
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 c) A reproductive technique that involves
replacing defective mitochondria in a human
Q.97) With reference to Web3 technology, egg cell.
consider the following statements: d) A protein separation technique used to study
1. It allows users to own and control their data gene expression through detection of
through cryptographic identities and smart specific proteins.
contracts.
2. It enables verification of content authenticity Q.100) Consider the following pairs regarding
by validating the creator's private key with developments in the field of defense in India and
their public wallet addresses. their descriptions:
3. Applications of Web3 are often less user- Developments in Description
friendly compared to mainstream platforms. the field of Defense
Which of the statements given above are 1. ASTRA Missile An air-to-air missile
correct? designed for beyond-
a) 1 and 2 only visual-range
b) 1, 2 and 3 engagements
c) 1 and 3 only 2. GAURAV A long-range glide
d) 2 and 3 only bomb designed for
precision strikes
Q.98 With reference to the Regenerative braking 3. HELINA Missile A helicopter-launched
recently seen in news, consider the following anti-tank guided
statements: missile
1. It is a brake system designed to convert the How many of the pairs given above are correctly
kinetic energy of the vehicle’s wheels to a matched?
form that can be stored and used for other a) Only one
purposes. b) Only two
2. It can be deployed only in electric vehicles c) All three
(EVs). d) None
3. It mainly works on the principle of
conservation of energy.
4. It is primarily designed to prevent vehicles
from rolling backward on slopes.

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