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CompTIA
Exam Questions 220-1101
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 2)
A technician is troubleshooting a point-of-sale primer that Is printing blank receipts. Which o( the following should the technician do to resolve the Issue?

A. Verify the correct type of paper is loaded.

B. Install the latest print driver.
C. Check to see if the default printer has been changed.
D. Ensure the printer is connected to power.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Verifying the correct type of paper is loaded is the best solution for resolving the issue of blank receipts being printed by a point-of-sale printer. Some receipt
printers require a specific type of paper, and using the wrong type can result in blank receipts. References: https://www.techwalla.com/articles/what-are-the-causes-
of-blank-receipts- from-a-printer
Top of Form
Verify the correct type of paper is loaded. If a point-of-sale printer is printing blank receipts, one possible cause could be that the wrong type of paper is loaded in
the printer. Thermal printers require thermal paper to print properly. If regular paper is loaded instead of thermal paper, the printer will not be able to produce an
image on the paper and will print blank receipts.

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 2)
A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone
does not boot. Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue?

A. Upgrade the Ethernet cable to the latest specification.

B. Replace the phone.
C. Install a PoE injector.
D. Change ports on the switch.

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://intellinetnetwork.eu/pages/what-is-a-poe-injector
The quickest way to resolve the issue is to install a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector to provide power to the IP phone. An unmanaged switch does not provide
PoE, so an injector is needed to power the phone.

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is used to implement network security polices for an environment?

A. Managed switch
B. Repeater
C. Firewall
D. Gateway

Answer: C

Explanation:
It is designed to protect an organization's network infrastructure and data from unauthorized access, while allowing legitimate traffic to pass through. Firewalls can
be configured to enforce security policies that block certain types of traffic, limit access to specific network resources, and prevent attacks such as malware and
phishing.
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It establishes a
barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the Internet. Firewalls are used to implement network security policies for an
environment by controlling access to the network and protecting it from unauthorized access.
A firewall is used to implement network security policies. It monitors incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules and can block traffic that
does not meet the defined criteria. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Chapter 6, page 243)

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 2)
A technician is investigating the output shown on a monitor. The output is clear, but it has a pink hue. The technician has replaced the video card and updated the
graphics drivers. Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause?

A. Physical cabling issues

B. Burned-out bulb
C. Display burn-in
D. Incorrect data source

Answer: A

Explanation:
The pink hue is most likely caused by physical cabling issues the output on a monitor is clear but has a pink hue, it could be due to an issue with the physical
cabling connecting the monitor to the computer. The video signal may be degraded or distorted due to a damaged or loose cable. The technician should check and
replace the cable if necessary to resolve the issue.

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Topic 2)

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A technician made several upgrades to a computer and then determined the power supplied by the PSU is insufficient. Which of the following would MOST likely
cause the insufficiency? (Select TWO).

A. Replacing the HDD with an SSD

B. Upgrading the firmware
C. Adding an optical drive
D. Adding more RAM
E. Adding a CMOS battery
F. Upgrading the graphics card

Answer: DF

Explanation:
If a technician made several upgrades to a computer and then determined the power supplied by the PSU is insufficient, the upgraded graphics card and adding
more RAM would most likely cause the insufficiency. Upgrading the graphics card and adding more RAM can increase the power consumption of a computer,
which can cause the power supplied by the PSU to be insufficient.
Adding more RAM and upgrading the graphics card are the most likely causes of the insufficiency of power supplied by the PSU. These upgrades require more
power to operate efficiently and can cause the PSU to become insufficient.

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 2)
A user has decided to build a new computer with parts purchased from a popular online vendor The user has referenced online resources to assemble the unit.
However, when the user presses the power button, the new computer does not load the operating system's installer. Instead, the onboard speaker beeps and
immediately reports an issue on the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely issue with the new build?

A. The user did not plug in the processor's fan.

B. The user did not apply thermal paste to the CPU.
C. The user did not seat the GPU correctly.
D. The user did not install the power supply.

Answer: A

Explanation:
If a computer is not booting and the onboard speaker emits beeps, it can indicate a hardware issue. One of the most common causes of beep codes is
overheating, which can occur if the processor's fan is not properly installed and running. The processor's fan is responsible for cooling the processor and
preventing damage to the internal components.

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 2)
A technician is replacing a computer with a connected point-of-sale system using a 9-pin serial adapter. The new computer does not have a 9-pin serial port.
Which of the following ports can an adapter be installed on in order to connect to the point-of-sale system?

A. HDMI
B. Bluetooth
C. USB
D. Lightning

Answer: C

Explanation:
A USB to 9-pin serial adapter can be used to connect the new computer to the point-of-sale system using a USB port. USB is a common and versatile port type
found on most computers.
If a technician is replacing a computer with a connected point-of-sale system using a 9-pin serial adapter and the new computer does not have a 9-pin serial port,
an adapter can be installed on the USB port in order to connect to the point-of-sale system. A USB-to-serial adapter can be used to connect a serial device to a
USB port on a computer.

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 2)
Which of the following allows all VMs in a virtual environment to have RAM allocated for use?

A. Measured service
B. Containerization
C. Synchronization
D. Resource pooling

Answer: D

Explanation:
The concept described in the question is related to virtualization and resource management in a virtual environment. The approach that allows all virtual machines
(VMs) to have memory (RAM) allocated for use is known as resource pooling. Therefore, the correct answer is D: "Resource pooling." This approach allows
resources to be allocated dynamically to VMs based on their current needs, and ensures that resources are used efficiently in the virtual environment.
Resource pooling is a technique used in virtualization to share resources among multiple virtual machines (VMs). With resource pooling, RAM can be allocated
dynamically to VMs as needed, allowing all VMs in a virtual environment to have RAM allocated for use. References:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Resource_pooling

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 2)
A desktop support technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop so that it has the fastest data access possible. Which of the following BEST satisfies this
requirement?

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A. mSATASSD
B. M.2NVMeSSD
C. 2.5SATASSD
D. 2.5SASHHD

Answer: B

Explanation:
M.2 NVMe SSD provides the fastest data access possible for a laptop. It is a high-performance solid-state drive that connects directly to the motherboard through
an M.2 slot.

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 2)
A user is researching hard drives to upgrade a PC and has decided to purchase a NVMe drive. Which of the following Should the user confirm are available on the
PC before making the purchase? (Select TWO).

A. SATA
B. M.2
C. PCIe
D. SAS
E. SCSI
F. DRAM

Answer: BC

Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives are high-speed solid-state drives that utilize the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) interface to
connect to the motherboard. Before purchasing an NVMe drive, the user should confirm that the PC has an available M.2 slot for the drive and that the PC has a
PCIe interface for the M.2 slot. SATA (Serial ATA) is an older interface for hard drives and is not compatible with NVMe drives. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a
newer interface for hard drives and is typically used for enterprise-level storage systems. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a parallel interface for hard
drives that is primarily used in high-end workstations and servers. DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) is a type of memory commonly used in computers,
but it is not relevant to the storage of data on a hard drive.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 267.

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 2)
A user who works with sensitive data has a computer configured with hard drive encryption The TPM is active and hosting the encrypted key. After an upgrade to
the motherboard. RAM and video card the hard drive is not booting and data cannot be accessed from the hard drive. Which of the following should the technician
do to enable the system to boot again and get access to the stored data?

A. Use data recovery software to find and recover the hard drive information
B. Access the BIOS and select to rebuild the degraded RAID array
C. Boot into the BIOS and enable the TPM on the new motherboard.
D. Return the replaced motherboard back to the computer

Answer: C

Explanation:
After upgrading the motherboard, the TPM may need to be enabled in the BIOS in order to
access the encrypted key and boot the system. Enabling the TPM on the new motherboard should allow the system to boot and provide access to the encrypted
data. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, 220-1001, Chapter 13

NEW QUESTION 11
- (Topic 1)
A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a
protective case, and the user constantly transport the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues.

B. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint.
C. The phone’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port.
D. The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charring.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The symptoms suggest that the charging cable falls out of the phone, indicating that the charge port may contain foreign objects such as lint, which can interfere
with the connection between the charging cable and the phone.

NEW QUESTION 13
- (Topic 1)
Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the
printer. Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?

A. Replace the printer paper with a new ream.

B. Clear the print spooler on each computer.
C. Reinstall the printer driver on each computer
D. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.

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Answer: D

Explanation:
Thin, vertical lines on every printed page are usually caused by a dirty drum or toner cartridge. Performing the drum-cleaning procedure will likely resolve the
issue. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 18

NEW QUESTION 15
- (Topic 1)
A technician installed a Cat 5 UTP cable approximately 275ft (84m) from a network switch in an office to a workstation located on a factory floor The technician
sees both a flashing green LED and a flashing orange LED on the workstation's NIC. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?

A. Check for loose connections, pinched bends, and physical damage.

B. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the Cat 5 UTP cable run.
C. Replace the entire run of Cat 5 UTP cable with Cat 5 STP cable.
D. Upgrade the entire cable run to multimode fiber.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The flashing green and orange LEDs on the NIC indicate connection issues. The technician should first check for loose connections, pinched bends, and physical
damage, which are the most common causes of connection problems. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 14

NEW QUESTION 20
- (Topic 1)
A technician replaced a motherboard on a server, and now the 64-bit hypervisor is not loading correctly. Which of the following needs to be enabled for the
hypervisor to run?

A. Hardware prefetcher
B. Hyperthreading
C. vPro
D. VT-d

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://techlibrary.hpe.com/docs/iss/proliant-gen10-uefi/s_enabling_VT- d.html
Enabling VT-d (Virtualization Technology for Directed I/O) in the server's BIOS settings is required for the hypervisor to run properly. References: CompTIA A+
Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 11

NEW QUESTION 21
- (Topic 1)
A user acquired a new workstation and is attempting to open multiple targe Excel files simultaneously. The user is not experiencing the expected performance
when executing such large requests. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST?

A. Increase the swap partition.

B. Upgrade the CPU in the workstation.
C. Upgrade the power supply in the workstation.
D. Upgrade the RAM in the workstation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Opening multiple large Excel files simultaneously requires a large amount of RAM. Upgrading the RAM in the workstation should improve performance.
References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 9

NEW QUESTION 25
- (Topic 1)
An organization is looking to upgrade the processing ability for its computers. Most users report that whenever multiple applications are being utilized, the system's
response time slows down drastically. When only one application is open, the response time is acceptable. Which of the following should be upgraded FIRST?

A. SSD
B. CPU
C. HDD
D. RAM

Answer: D

Explanation:
The component that should be upgraded first is the RAM. When multiple applications are being utilized, the system’s response time slows down drastically. This is
because the computer is running out of memory. Upgrading the RAM will allow the computer to store more data in memory, which will improve performance when
multiple applications are being used123.

NEW QUESTION 29
- (Topic 1)
A user failed to gain access to a building's entrance after security measures at the entrance were upgraded last week. The company implemented the 13.56MHz
frequency short band, and users can now utilize their mobile devices to authenticate. Which of the following has to be enabled for the mobile device to
authenticate?

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A. Bluetooth
B. Biometrics
C. NFC
D. PIN

Answer: C

Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) is a technology used for short-range wireless communication between devices, typically used for contactless payments and
authentication. In this scenario, the 13.56MHz frequency short band was implemented, and users can authenticate using their mobile devices, which requires NFC
to be enabled on the device. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1001 - Mobile device network and device synchronization - 4.4

NEW QUESTION 33
- (Topic 1)
A user connects a smartphone to a laptop. Which of the following types of networks has the user created?

A. PAN
B. MAN
C. WLAN
D. LAN

Answer: A

Explanation:
When a user connects a smartphone to a laptop, they create a Personal Area Network (PAN). A PAN is a type of network used for communication between
devices in close proximity to each other, typically within a range of a few meters or less. This type of network is commonly used for wireless communication
between personal devices, such as connecting a smartphone to a laptop for file sharing or internet access. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives
- 220-1001: 1.1 Explain common connectors and their uses.

NEW QUESTION 37
- (Topic 1)
A customer reports that access to the network fileshare has become much slower than usual, but local applications do not seem to have trouble. The technician
checks the download bandwidth and finds no issues. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A. Level of network utilization

B. Customer use of two-factor authentication
C. Amount of local drive space
D. RAID array drive health

Answer: A

Explanation:
The technician should check the level of network utilization to determine if there is an excessive amount of traffic that may be causing the slow access to the
network fileshare. This can be done using network monitoring tools to track the amount of data being transmitted on the network. References: CompTIA A+
Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 2.9

NEW QUESTION 40
- (Topic 1)
A laptop PC user is reporting issues with the hard drive. A filesystem check shows that all files are accessible and the filesystem is clean. After the check, the PC
still issues a hard drive error message. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error?

A. S.M.A.R.T failure
B. IOPS failure
C. DIMM failure
D. RAID failure

Answer: A

Explanation:
If the filesystem check shows that all files are accessible and the filesystem is clean, but a hard drive error message persists, it's possible that the hard drive is
experiencing S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) failure. This is a warning system built into hard drives to alert users of potential
issues before they become critical. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device
issues

NEW QUESTION 45
- (Topic 1)
A user in a medical office contacts a technician regarding a printer that is used to print A4-
sized labels. After the labels are printed, they mistakenly contain white space in the middle of the page. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause?

A. Contaminated fuser
B. Worn rollers
C. A misfeed
D. Page orientation

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most likely cause of the issue is that the page orientation is incorrect. The printer may be set to print labels in a different orientation than the orientation of the

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label sheet1.

NEW QUESTION 49
- (Topic 1)
A user's computer is not receiving a network connection. The technician confirms that the connection seems to be down and looks for the user's port on the patch
panel. The port and patch panel are not labeled. Which of the following network tools should the technician use to identify the port?

A. Network tap
B. Punchdown tool
C. Toner probe
D. Crimper

Answer: C

Explanation:
Toner Probe Many cable testers also incorporate the function of a toner probe, which is used to identify a cable from within a bundle. This may be necessary when
the cables have not been labeled properly. The tone generator is connected to the cable using an RJ45 jack and applies a continuous audio signal on the cable.
The probe is used to detect the signal and follow the cable over ceilings and through ducts or identify it from within the rest of the bundle.

NEW QUESTION 50
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following utilizes TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext?

A. SNMP
B. SSH
C. FTP
D. Telnet

Answer: C

Explanation:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext, which means the data is not encrypted and can be read by anyone who
intercepts it. This makes FTP insecure for transferring sensitive information. SSH (Secure Shell), on the other hand, uses port 22 and encrypts data, making it
more secure. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses ports 161/162 and is used to monitor network devices. Telnet uses port 23 and transfers data in
cleartext, making it insecure. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 199

NEW QUESTION 55
SIMULATION - (Topic 1)
A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician
a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network.
The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly
There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1.

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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered

Answer: A

Explanation:
Answer of both steps below.

A picture containing text, screenshot, indoor

Description automatically generated

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Diagram Description automatically generated with medium confidence

NEW QUESTION 57
- (Topic 1)
A developer is requesting permission to utilize client-side visualization. The developer would like to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid
negative impacts of experimental code. Which of the following provides the BEST solution for the developer?

A. Cross-platform functionality
B. Software compatibility
C. Test case development
D. Sandbox environment

Answer: D

Explanation:
A sandbox environment is an isolated testing environment where code can be written and tested without impacting other infrastructure. This provides a safe and
controlled environment for experimentation and development. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Exam Objectives - 5.5 Compare and contrast
common workstation security best practices

NEW QUESTION 61
- (Topic 1)
Upon booting a workstation, a technician hears a distinct clicking sound after power is applied to the motherboard. Which of the following would MOST likely be the
cause?

A. RAID
B. SSD
C. S.M.A.R.T
D. HDD

Answer: D

Explanation:
The clicking sound is the sound of a damaged disk in the HDD
A clicking sound from a hard disk drive typically indicates a mechanical failure, such as the read/write head hitting a physical obstruction or a problem with the disk
motor. This can cause the drive to fail to initialize or not be recognized by the system during booting.

NEW QUESTION 62
- (Topic 1)
A laptop has been returned for a screen repair. The owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on
the desktop. Which of the following steps should the repair technician take FIRST?

A. Replace the graphics card.

B. Replace the screen, as the customer insists.
C. Recommend the usage of an external display instead.
D. Ensure the backlight is functioning as expected.

Answer: D

Explanation:
If a laptop has been returned for a screen repair and the owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright
settings on the desktop, the first step the repair technician should take is to ensure the backlight is functioning as expected. If the backlight is faulty, the screen
may appear to be broken, but it may only be dim or too dark to be visible

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NEW QUESTION 65
- (Topic 1)
A technician is upgrading a faulty motherboard that was ordered by an end user for an old, high-end desktop computer. However, the technician is unable to install
the CPU into the socket. Upon closer inspection, the technician notices the pins on the CPU do not line up with the socket. Which of the following would be the
best course of action for the technician to take NEXT?

A. Try to set as many pins as possible.

B. Install an adaptor to create a universal socket.
C. Verify the socket type and manufacturer.
D. Find a compatible motherboard for the CPU.

Answer: C

Explanation:
In this situation, the best course of action for the technician to take NEXT would be C. Verify the socket type and manufacturer. If the pins on the CPU do not line
up with the socket on the motherboard, it is likely that there is a compatibility issue between the two components. The technician should verify that the socket type
and manufacturer of the motherboard match those of the CPU to ensure that they are compatible.

NEW QUESTION 69
- (Topic 1)
An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so peak is over. Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud
computing?

A. Rapid elasticity
B. Metered utilization
C. Shared resources
D. High availability

Answer: A

Explanation:
Rapid elasticity is only suitable for a domain whose resource requirements suddenly up and down for a specific time interval. Referring to the question the online
retailer wants to migrate to public cloud services during peak season, then wants it to be removed "automatically" when the peak is over.

NEW QUESTION 70
- (Topic 1)
A Microsoft Windows user is preparing to work in another country and needs to comply with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable
media. Which of the following solutions would MOST likely satisfy this requirement?

A. A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed

B. An SD memory card with NTFS
C. An xD memory card with ext3
D. A portable hard drive with FAT32

Answer: A

Explanation:
Using a USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed is the best option for complying with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable
media. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 12

NEW QUESTION 74
- (Topic 1)
A customer reports that a computer is never able to reach more than a 100Mbps transfer data rate, even when using a Gigabit LAN card. While troubleshooting,
the technician notices the network cable needs to be replaced. Which of the following cable categories is limiting the transfer speed?

A. Cat 5
B. Cat 5e
C. Cat 6
D. Cat 6a

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cat 5 cable is limited to a maximum data transfer rate of 100Mbps, while Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6a cables support Gigabit Ethernet (1000Mbps) and higher
speeds. Even though the LAN card is capable of Gigabit speeds, it cannot achieve that speed when using a Cat 5 cable. Upgrading to a Cat 5e or higher cable
would allow the computer to achieve Gigabit speeds. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 196

NEW QUESTION 78
- (Topic 1)
A technician receives several error alerts on a server after an unexpected reboot. A message states that one or more disks are in a degraded state. When the
technician advances to the next error message, it indicates the OS is missing. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of these errors? (Choose two.)

A. Missing drives in the OS

B. RAID failure
C. Bootable device not found
D. Data loss
E. Controller failure
F. CMOS corruption
G. TPM malfunction

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Answer: BC

Explanation:
The message stating that one or more disks are in a degraded state is a clear indication of a RAID failure. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent
Disks, and it is a technology used to provide fault tolerance and improve performance by combining multiple hard drives into a single logical unit.
The message indicating that the OS is missing is most likely caused by a bootable device not found. This means that the server is unable to boot from the
designated boot device, which could be the hard drive, a CD/DVD drive, or a USB flash drive. This could be caused by a faulty boot device, a loose cable, or a
misconfiguration in the BIOS or UEFI settings.

NEW QUESTION 80
- (Topic 1)
A laptop's external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video. Which of the following should a technician perform FIRST?

A. Research new webcam firmware.

B. Restart the computer and run system diagnostics.
C. Reseat the webcam.
D. Reinstall the webcam software and drivers.

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://www.lifewire.com/fix-it-when-webcam-is-not-working-4588517
If a laptop's external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video, the first step the technician should perform is to reseat the webcam. Reseating
the webcam involves disconnecting it from the motherboard and then reconnecting it. If this doesn't work, the technician should then check the webcam drivers or
software. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 502)

NEW QUESTION 81
- (Topic 1)
A user on a SOHO network is unable to watch online videos, even at 240 pixels. The technician runs ipconfig from the user's computer and records the following:

The technician then connects a test laptop to the router via the user's Cat 5 cable and records the following information:

Which of the following is MOST likely causing the user's issue?

A. Incorrect IP address
B. Faulty NIC
C. Misconfigured default gateway
D. Bad network cable

Answer: B

Explanation:
Based on the information recorded by the technician, the network connection appears to be functioning normally. The user's computer is properly configured with
an IPv4 address, subnet mask, and default gateway, which should allow the user to access the internet and online videos. The high download and upload speeds
and low ping time recorded from the test laptop also indicate that the network is working well. However, the user's inability to watch online videos suggests that
there might be an issue with the network card (NIC) on the user's computer. The NIC might be faulty or malfunctioning, which is preventing the computer from
receiving and processing the video data. The technician should try replacing the NIC to resolve the issue.

NEW QUESTION 83
- (Topic 1)
A technician is configuring a workstation to be used as a VM host. After installing the necessary software, the technician is unable to create any VMs. Which of the
following actions should be performed?

A. Disable the BIOS password.

B. Enable TPM.
C. Enable multithreading.
D. Enable Fast Startup.

Answer: B

Explanation:
If you want to install Windows 11 on a virtual machine using Hyper-V, you will have to use a “Generation 2” VM and enable the “trusted platform module” (TPM)
and Secure Boot options. Otherwise, the OS won’t install.
Starting with Windows 11, Microsoft is changing the system requirement and making TPM 2.0 and Secure Boot a prerequisite to perform an in-place upgrade or
clean install the new version on any device. This is in addition to the new 4GB of RAM and at least 64GB of storage.
quoted from here:
https://pureinfotech.com/enable-tpm-secure-boot-hyperv-install-windows-11/ Furthermore, Multithreading is not a requirement for hyper-v hosting.
To create virtual machines on a workstation, the technician needs to enable Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in the system BIOS. TPM is a hardware-based
security feature that helps protect the system from unauthorized access and tampering. It is required for many virtualization technologies, including Hyper-V,

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VirtualBox, and VMware. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1002: 2.7 Explain the basics of virtualization.

NEW QUESTION 88
- (Topic 1)
Client-side virtualization guest machines have security requirements similar to physical machines, but they also need to ensure separation from other guest
machines. Which of the following BEST describes this client-side guest security requirement?

A. Isolation
B. Authentication
C. Hardening
D. Authorization

Answer: A

Explanation:
Client-side virtualization guest machines require isolation from other guest machines to maintain their security. Isolation ensures that each virtual machine is
separated from others and runs its own operating system and applications, making it less vulnerable to attacks from other guest machines. References: CompTIA
A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1002 - Virtualization and cloud computing - 4.1

NEW QUESTION 91
- (Topic 1)
A remote user called the help desk to report a notification indicating there is limited or no connectivity. The user can access local file folders and other local
machines but none of the organization's servers or network items. Web pages do not appear to function either. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of
the issue?

A. The user's internet connection is down.

B. The user's domain account is locked out.
C. The user's switch has stopped working.
D. The user's IP address needs to be renewed.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Based on the information provided in the scenario, the most likely cause of the issue is that the user’s internet connection is down (option A). This would explain
why the user is unable to access any of the organization’s servers or network items and why web pages are not functioning. However, since the user can still
access local file folders and other local machines, it suggests that their local network is still functioning.
The user can access local file folders and other local machines but none of the organization's servers or network items, indicating that the issue is with the user's
internet connection, not with the user's domain account, switch, or IP address.
When a user receives a notification indicating that there is limited or no connectivity, it means that their device is unable to establish a connection to the network. In
this scenario, the user can access local file folders and other local machines but is unable to access any of the organization’s servers or network items and web
pages are not functioning. This suggests that the issue is with the user’s internet connection.
An internet connection allows a device to communicate with other devices and servers outside of its local network. If the internet connection is down or not
functioning properly, the device will be unable to access any resources outside of its local network. This would explain why the user in this scenario can still access
local resources but is unable to access any of the organization’s servers or network items.

NEW QUESTION 95
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following describes the operational difference between hubs and switches when transmitting data to a specific computer inside the network?

A. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computersinside the network.
B. Switches compress data while hubs send uncompressed data
C. Switches receive data and route it to all computers inside the network while hubs receive data and do not route
D. Switches scramble data, while hubs send data in the original form.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide,
Exam 220-1001, Page 323

NEW QUESTION 97
- (Topic 1)
An end user reports that the time and date on a desktop resets after shutdown, and subsequently, the device reboots. The next day, the desktop does not load the
OS and is stuck at a black screen with the following message:

Which of the following would be the BEST action to take next?

A. Change the motherboard.

B. Reseat the motherboard power connections.
C. Replace the CMOS battery.
D. Restore the BIOS to factory default settings.

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 99
- (Topic 1)
A user takes a tablet to a technician because the cursor on it keeps drifting. The technician notices the screen does not appear to be damaged. Which of the
following is the MOST likely cause of the cursor issue?

A. The screen is physically damaged.

B. The screen rotation is incorrect.
C. The touch-pen battery is depleted.
D. The screen needs to be recalibrated.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most likely cause of the cursor issue is that the screen needs to be recalibrated. This can happen when the tablet is used for a long time or when the tablet is
dropped or bumped. Recalibrating the screen will help the tablet recognize the touch input more accurately12.

NEW QUESTION 104

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following components enables the input on a mobile device's touch screen?

A. OLED
B. Digitizer
C. Inverter
D. CMOS sensor

Answer: B

Explanation:
The digitizer is the component that enables input on a mobile device's touch screen. It is a transparent layer that sits over the screen and detects the location of
touch inputs. OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode) is a type of display technology. Inverter is a component used in older LCD displays to provide power to the
backlight. CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) sensor is a type of image sensor used in digital cameras and smartphones to capture images.
References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 177

NEW QUESTION 108

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is the SAFEST way to replace RAM on a server that has a redundant power supply?

A. Unplug one power cable.

B. Verify the RAM temperature.
C. Utilize a grounding strap.
D. Replace the RAM while the server is running.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Utilizing a grounding strap is the safest way to replace RAM on a server that has a redundant power supply. This is because the grounding strap prevents
electrostatic discharge (ESD) when handling the RAM, which can cause damage to the RAM and the server. Therefore, it is important to always use a grounding
strap when handling RAM or other sensitive components.

NEW QUESTION 113

- (Topic 2)
A user is unable to access the internet on a PC. A technician examines the PC and runs the following commands:

Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting process does this series of commands represent?

A. Establish a theory.
B. Verify full system functionality.
C. Establish a plan of action.
D. Identify the problem.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 118

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following network devices would an administrator use to distribute traffic evenly throughout multiple nodes?

A. Load balancer
B. Bridge
C. Proxy server
D. Switch
E. Firewall

Answer: A

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Explanation:
A load balancer is a network device that distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure that no single server bears too much of the
load. Load balancing helps to improve application availability, increase scalability, and optimize resource utilization.
A bridge is used to connect two different networks, often to divide a larger network into smaller segments. A proxy server is used to forward client requests to other
servers, and can also be used to cache frequently requested data. A switch is used to connect multiple devices within a network and to control the flow of network
traffic. A firewall is used to secure a network by controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on defined security rules.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 244.

NEW QUESTION 120

- (Topic 2)
A technician is diagnosing a workstation that shuts down unexpectedly during a butn-in test. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this symptom?

A. Faulty CMOS battery

B. OS update issue
C. Overheating
D. Faulty RAM

Answer: C

Explanation:
If a workstation shuts down unexpectedly during a burn-in test, overheating is the most likely cause. This is because a burn-in test is designed to stress the
components of the workstation, which can generate a lot of heat. Therefore, overheating is the correct answer. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide,
Ninth Edition, page 120

NEW QUESTION 123

- (Topic 2)
A home user has purchased a subscription for a service that blocks malicious sites by preventing them from resolving correctly. Which of the following settings
MOST likely needs to be changed on the user's router to enable this functionally?

A. DNS server
B. Port forwarding
C. Perimeter network
D. Universal PnP
E. DHCP server

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Domain Name System (DNS) is responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses. By blocking malicious sites from resolving correctly, the DNS
server is able to prevent the user from accessing those sites. Therefore, the DNS server setting on the user’s router needs to be changed to enable this
functionality123.

NEW QUESTION 126

- (Topic 2)
A startup is looking to immediately expand its data center but does not have the personnel or space to manage everything internally. The organization has multiple
small offices and remote users with large computational and storage-solution requirements. Funding is not an issue for the company. Which of the following can
BEST accomplish the company's goals?

A. SaaS
B. laaS
C. ISP
D. SON

Answer: B

Explanation:
IaaS is a cloud computing model where a third-party provider hosts infrastructure components such as servers, storage, and networking on behalf of customers.
This allows the startup to immediately expand its data center without the need for additional personnel or space to manage everything internally. Additionally, IaaS
allows remote users to easily access the required computational and storage resources from multiple small offices.
Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) can provide the startup with the necessary computational and storage solutions without the need for internal management. laaS
allows organizations to rent computing resources from a third-party provider instead of owning and maintaining them in-house.

NEW QUESTION 127

- (Topic 2)
A user is installing a new display on a desktop computer that only has a single DVI port for video input and a single HDMI port tot video output Which of me
following does the technician need to complete the setup?

A. DigitaMo-analog converter
B. A/v switcher
C. DisplayPort to HDMI adapter
D. DVI to HDMI cable

Answer: D

Explanation:
The technician will need to connect the DVI port on the computer to the new display's HDMI port. To do this, a DVI to HDMI cable will be needed. This type of
cable will allow the computer's DVI video signal to be transmitted to the new display's HDMI port.
A digital-to-analog converter (DAC) is used to convert a digital signal to an analog signal. An A/V switcher is used to switch between multiple audio and video
sources and display them on a single monitor or display. A DisplayPort to HDMI adapter is used to convert a DisplayPort signal to an HDMI signal, but it is not

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necessary in this scenario as the computer has a DVI port and not a DisplayPort.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 199.

NEW QUESTION 132

- (Topic 2)
A technician needs to install a printer on the network. Which of the following must the technician configure? (Select THREE).

A. PCL
B. Dots per inch
C. Gateway
D. Subnet mask
E. MAC address
F. MB
G. IP address
H. Drivers

Answer: CDG

Explanation:
When installing a printer on a network, the technician needs to configure the
network settings, which include the IP address, subnet mask, and gateway. These settings are used to ensure that the printer can communicate with other devices
on the network. When installing a printer on a network, the technician must configure the network settings of the printer to ensure that it can communicate with
other devices on the network. This includes configuring the gateway, subnet mask and IP address of the printer.
The gateway is the device that connects the local network to other networks or the Internet. The subnet mask is used to determine which part of an IP address
represents the network and which part represents individual hosts on that network. The IP address is a unique identifier for each device on a network.

NEW QUESTION 133

- (Topic 2)
A network technician has been tasked with creating a patch cable. The RJ45 connectors will not slay attached to the cable. Which of the following tools Is needed
to fix this Issue?

A. Cable tester
B. Crimper
C. Punchdown tool
D. Loopback plug

Answer: B

Explanation:
A crimper is a tool that is used to crimp (attach) an RJ45 connector onto the end of a patch cable. The crimper applies pressure to the connector to make a
permanent connection between the connector and the cable, ensuring that the connector will stay attached to the cable.
A cable tester is used to test the connectivity of a network cable. A punchdown tool is used to terminate network cables in a patch panel or keystone jack. A
loopback plug is a diagnostic tool that is used to test network interfaces by simulating network traffic. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Guide, page 92.

NEW QUESTION 136

- (Topic 2)
A company needs to support a 10Gbps throughput. Which of the following is the MINIMUM cable category that could be used?

A. Cat 5
B. Cat 5e
C. Cat 6
D. Cat 6a

Answer: D

Explanation:
The minimum cable category that could be used to support a 10Gbps throughput is Cat 6a. Cat 6a cable is required with 10 Gigabit Ethernet for reliable
performance with cable lengths up to 100 metres. However, lower-specification cables can often be successfully used, particularly with the shorter cable lengths
required in a typical home123.

NEW QUESTION 139

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following commonly uses NFC?

A. Contactless payments
B. loT devices
C. Inventory tracking
D. Tethering

Answer: A

Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) is a wireless communication technology that is commonly used for contactless payments, mobile payments, and other mobile
transactions. It allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are placed in close proximity.
Contactless payments commonly use NFC (Near Field Communication). NFC is a wireless communication technology that allows two devices to communicate with
each other when they are in close proximity. Contactless payments use NFC to enable customers to make payments by simply tapping their contactless card or
mobile device on a payment terminal.

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NEW QUESTION 143

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following cables replaced the Apple 30-pin connector and is also reversible?

A. USB-C
B. Lightning
C. miniUSB
D. DisplayPort

Answer: B

Explanation:
Lightning Connector: Apple introduced this brand-new connector back in 2012. It is over 80% smaller than the 30-pin connector and is reversible.
https://www.cablewholesale.com/support/technical_articles/whats_your_port.php#:~:text=Li
ghtning%20Connector%3A%20Apple%20introduced%20this,pin%20connector%20and%2 0is%20reversible.

NEW QUESTION 145

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following network types would be used in a server room to connect virtual servers lo high-speed storage?

A. WAN
B. PAN
C. MAN
D. SAN

Answer: D

Explanation:
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated, high-speed network that connects servers to data storage devices. SANs are used in server rooms to provide high-
speed storage access to virtual servers.

NEW QUESTION 150

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following network services allows a networked device to always be assigned the same IP address based on the device's MAC address?

A. DHCP
B. LDAP
C. UTM
D. DNS

Answer: A

Explanation:
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) allows a networked device to always be assigned the same IP address based on the device's MAC address. DHCP
can also assign other network configuration settings to devices automatically.

NEW QUESTION 151

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is the PRIMARY security concern with virtual machine escape?

A. Cross-site scripting
B. Compromising the hypervisor
C. Overutilization of resources
D. Rogue virtual machines installed on the hypervisor

Answer: B

Explanation:
The primary security concern with virtual machine escape is compromising the hypervisor, which can allow attackers to gain access to other virtual machines or
the host system. Virtual machine escape refers to an attack that allows a guest virtual machine to break out of its isolated environment and access other parts of
the system.

NEW QUESTION 154

- (Topic 2)
A technician is troubleshooting intermittent fuzzy video on a computer using a VGA to DisplayPort adapter to connect to a monitor. The monitor with a VGA
connector was previously working tine for another user. The technician replaces the adapter; however, the issue persists. Which of the following should the
technician do NEXT?

A. Use another brand of VGA lo DisplayPort adapter.

B. Research the issue further and formulate a new hypothesis to test.
C. Ask the user additional clarifying questions regarding the issue.
D. Document the action taken and the outcome.

Answer: C

Explanation:
https://spryzensecurity.medium.com/what-is-troubleshooting-methodology- 40cec6b6494
The technician should ask the user additional clarifying questions regarding the issue. This will help to identify any other potential causes of the issue, such as

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software configuration or compatibility issues, before attempting any further troubleshooting steps.

NEW QUESTION 158

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following allows a switch to be divided into separate logical networks?

A. VLAN
B. SSL VPN
C. NAT
D. RADIUS

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a network topology that allows a switch to be divided into separate logical networks. This allows for the creation of multiple broadcast
domains within a single physical network, improving network segmentation and security. With VLANs, you can segment your network so that different departments,
applications, or users are isolated from each other, improving network security and performance.

NEW QUESTION 161

- (Topic 2)
A technician is preparing to set up a gaming computer with the following components:
? Discrete, high-end graphics card
? Video capture card
? High-end processor
? Multiple hard drives
? USB 3.0 hub
? Sound card
Which of the following options is the MOST important for the technician to consider before building the gaming computer?

A. Redundant power supply

B. Modular power supply
C. 20-pin v
D. 24-pin power adapter
E. Power supply wattage rating

Answer: D

Explanation:
This is because high-end graphics cards, processors, and multiple hard drives require a significant amount of power to operate. A power supply with insufficient
wattage could cause stability issues or even damage the components.
The CompTIA A+ Core1 certification guide emphasizes the importance of selecting an appropriate power supply for a computer build. In addition to wattage, other
factors to consider when selecting a power supply include efficiency, modularity, and the number and type of connectors required to power the components.
However, of the options listed, the wattage rating is the most critical consideration.
Therefore, the technician should ensure that the power supply they select has a wattage rating that is sufficient to power all the components in the gaming
computer. It is always a good practice to select a power supply with a wattage rating that exceeds the estimated power usage of t

NEW QUESTION 162

- (Topic 2)
A salesperson is using a weather application on a mobile device. The application appears to be draining the device's battery very quickly. Which of the following is
the BEST action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while travelling?

A. Enable the GPS service to ensure accurate location detection.

B. Manually enter office locations in the weather application.
C. Configure less frequent location checks using cellular location services.
D. Use the offices' Wi-Fi IP addresses as the geolocation mechanism.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Reducing the frequency of location checks using cellular location services will consume less battery power while still allowing the user to view weather forecasts
while travelling. The other options may not solve the battery drain issue while using the weather application.
Configuring less frequent location checks using cellular location services is the best option for the salesperson to view weather forecasts while traveling without
draining the battery too quickly. References: https://www.makeuseof.com/tag/5-ways-improve-battery-life- android-phone/

NEW QUESTION 167

- (Topic 2)
An IT manager is requesting that the company buy new cables to be used with F-type connectors that are already in house. Which of the following cables should
the company buy?

A. Coaxial out
B. Plenum
C. Cat 5e
D. Fiber

Answer: A

Explanation:
The company should buy Coaxial cables to be used with F-type connectors.

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NEW QUESTION 169

- (Topic 2)
A technician installed a new router at a small office. After the Installation, the technician notices that all devices have a I69.254.x.x IP address. Printers and
fileshares are still working, but PCs cannot access the Internet. Which of the following should the technician configure on the router to enable devices to connect to
the internet?

A. APIPA
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. SMB

Answer: C

Explanation:
To enable devices to connect to the internet after installing a new router at a small office, the technician should configure DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol) on the router. DHCP is a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network.
By configuring DHCP on the router, the technician can ensure that all devices on the network are assigned a valid IP address that allows them to connect to the
internet.
If all devices have a 169.254.x.x IP address, this suggests that the router is not assigning IP addresses to the devices using DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol). Configuring the DHCP settings on the router can enable the devices to receive IP addresses automatically and access the internet. References:
CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 14

NEW QUESTION 173

- (Topic 2)
A technician is troubleshooting an old desktop system that randomly shows a Windows BSOD or powers off unexpectedly. All system temperatures are within
normal limits. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A. Visually inspect the motherboard capacitors.

B. Verify all case fans are operational.
C. Check that the BIOS version supports the installed CPU.
D. Compare the software requirements with the installed RAM.

Answer: A

Explanation:
BSoDs can be caused by poorly written device drivers or malfunctioning hardware, such as faulty memory, power supply issues, overheating of components, or
hardware running beyond its specification limits. In the Windows 9x era, incompatible DLLs or bugs in the operating system kernel could also cause BSoDs.

NEW QUESTION 175

- (Topic 2)
Vertical streaks are appearing on the output of a laser printer. Which of the following items is the MOST likely cause?

A. Roller
B. Drum
C. Transfer belt
D. Ribbon

Answer: B

Explanation:
Vertical or horizontal lines—Marks that appear in the same place (referred to as repetitive defects) are often due to dirty feed rollers (note that there are rollers in the
toner cartridge and fuser unit too) or a damaged or dirty photosensitive drum.
Vertical streaks on a laser printer output are usually caused by a damaged or worn-out drum, which is responsible for transferring toner to the paper. If the drum is
damaged, toner may accumulate on certain parts of the drum, leading to streaks on the printed output. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam
Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 15

NEW QUESTION 179

- (Topic 2)
A technician is troubleshooting a projector that will not display any Images. The technician has verified the computer output and cable are providing a good video
signal. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A. Calibrate the image.

B. Replace the bulb.
C. Test the output resolution.
D. Clean the fans.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The MOST efficient next step the technician should do is to test the output resolution1. The issue of a projector that will not display any images could be related to
the output resolution1. If the output resolution is not compatible with the projector, the projector will not display any images1. Calibrating the image, replacing the
bulb, or cleaning the fans may not be effective1.
If a projector is not displaying any images despite verifying that the computer output and cable are providing a good video signal, the technician should test the
output resolution. The output resolution of the computer may not be compatible with the projector, which can cause the projector to not display any images.

NEW QUESTION 181

- (Topic 2)
A technician installs a new printer for a workstation and tries to print a test page, but the page does not print. The technician looks at the print queue and notices
that the printer is called 'Generic Printer." Which of the following BEST describes what the technician should

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do to fix this issue?

A. Connect the printer with a USB cable rather than over the network.
B. Install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS.
C. Install the correct toner in the printer.
D. Set the printer trays to allow duplex printing

Answer: B

Explanation:
The technician should install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS to enable the computer to communicate with the printer. The generic printer name suggests
that the drivers are missing or not installed correctly.

NEW QUESTION 184

- (Topic 2)
A technician set up a new access point and has noticed significant latency on the selected channel. Which of the following tools can assist with locating the BEST
channel to use?

A. Wi-Fi analyzer
B. Netstat
C. Net use
D. Traceroute
E. Network tap

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool that can be used to scan the local area for available wireless networks and can provide information such as signal strength, interference,
and available channels. It can also be used to locate the best channel to use for a given access point, which can help to reduce latency and improve performance.

NEW QUESTION 186

- (Topic 2)
A department sends in a ticket to report a printer is not working. The responding technician sees paper stuck to the fuser, which is much hotter than normal. The
(user was just installed a few weeks ago. as indicated by the service history. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?

A. Disconnect the printer power for troubleshooting.

B. Install a printer roller kit.
C. Replace the overheating fuser.
D. Replace the paper with thicker paper stock.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The first step in troubleshooting a printer issue is to disconnect the printer power to avoid electric shock or further damage to the printer. The technician can then
inspect the fuser and determine if it needs to be replaced or repaired. Installing a printer roller kit or replacing the paper with thicker paper stock will not solve the
problem of the overheating fuser. Replacing the fuser without disconnecting the power is dangerous and not recommended. References:
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-fuser

NEW QUESTION 187

- (Topic 2)
A technician receives a ticket that states a mobile payment device is having Issues with Its contactless payment feature. The device is not detecting payment
options. Which of the following Is the MOST likely cause of the Issue?

A. NFC
B. Bluetooth
C. Wi-Fi
D. Lightning adapter

Answer: A

Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) is the technology used for contactless payment features on mobile payment devices. If a mobile payment device is having
issues with its contactless payment feature and is not detecting payment options, it is most likely due to an issue with the NFC functionality of the device.
The contactless payment feature on a mobile payment device uses NFC (Near Field Communication) to detect payment options. If the device is not detecting
payment options, the issue may be related to a problem with the NFC feature. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31790/near-field-communication-
nfc

NEW QUESTION 188

- (Topic 2)
A new employee has been issued a company laptop. The employee requests an accessory with a single power source that has wired network connectivity and
supports a keyboard, mouse, speakers, and dual monitors. Which of the following accessories should the systems administrator deploy to BEST meet the new
user's needs?

A. Poe switch
B. USB-C hub with power delivery
C. Docking station with DisplayPort
D. KVM switch with audio

Answer: C

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Explanation:
A docking station is a hardware accessory that allows laptops to connect to multiple peripherals and devices with a single connection. A docking station with
DisplayPort would provide the necessary connectivity for the dual monitors, and it can also support the required peripherals such as the keyboard, mouse, and
speakers. In addition, it will provide a wired network connectivity for faster and more reliable network access.

NEW QUESTION 189

- (Topic 3)
A technician needs to configure a printer for network communications Which of the following must the technician configure? (Select THREE).

A. PCL
B. Dots per Inch
C. Gateway
D. Subnet mask
E. MAC address
F. IMEI
G. IP address
H. Drivers

Answer: CDG

Explanation:
To configure a printer for network communications, the technician must configure its network settings, such as gateway, subnet mask, and IP address. The
gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects the printer to other networks or the internet. The subnet mask is a value that defines which part of
the IP address identifies the network and which part identifies the host or device on that network. The IP address is a unique identifier that allows the printer to
communicate with other devices.

NEW QUESTION 191

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following wireless technologies is used by mobile devices to process payments at kiosks?

A. Wi-Fi 6
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. RFID

Answer: C

Explanation:
NFC stands for near-field communication, which is a wireless technology that allows two devices to exchange data when they are in close proximity (usually within
a few centimeters). NFC is commonly used by mobile devices to process payments at kiosks, such as Apple Pay or Google Pay. Wi-Fi 6 is a wireless standard that
provides faster speed and lower latency than previous versions of Wi-Fi. Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate over short
distances (usually within 10 meters). RFID stands for radio-frequency identification, which is a wireless technology that uses radio waves to identify and track
objects that have RFID tags attached to them

NEW QUESTION 192

- (Topic 3)
A technician needs to increase the available RAM on a virtual workstation. Which of the following should the technician do?

A. Increase the ECC memory timings in the BIOS.

B. Upgrade to the latest DDR5 modules.
C. Clear the temporary files on the workstation’s boot drive.
D. Use a hypervisor to adjust the resource allocation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A hypervisor is a software layer that manages and allocates resources for virtual machines (VMs) on a physical host machine. A technician can use a hypervisor
to adjust the resource allocation for a virtual workstation, such as increasing the amount of RAM assigned to it from the available pool of memory on the host
machine. This can improve the performance and functionality of the virtual workstation without requiring any hardware changes or modifications. Reference:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a- core-1-220-1101-study-guide (page 59)

NEW QUESTION 197

- (Topic 3)
A user is looking for a way to increase the total RAM in a system without upgrading the hardware. Which of the following should the user perform to complete this
task?

A. Run a burn-in application

B. Create a VM.
C. Install hardware-tuning software.
D. Set up virtual memory.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Virtual memory is a software-based memory management system that allows a computer to use hard disk storage space as RAM. This can be used to increase
the total RAM in a system without upgrading the hardware. To set up virtual memory, the user should go to the System Properties window and select the
Advanced tab. In the Performance section, click on the Settings button, which will open the Performance Options window. Then, click on the Advanced tab and
click on the Change button in the Virtual memory section. Finally, select the option to Automatically manage paging file size for all drives, and then click OK to save
the changes.

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NEW QUESTION 198

- (Topic 3)
Following a scheduled power outage, users report they cannot access the local intranet. A technician is able to ping the IP address of the server that is hosting the
website. Which of the following serves is MOST likely offline?

A. Web
B. DNS
C. File
D. DHCP

Answer: B

Explanation:
DNS stands for Domain Name System and is a service that translates domain names (such as www.example.com) into IP addresses (such as 192.168.1.100) that
computers can use to communicate over a network. If the DNS server is offline, users may not be able to access websites or other network resources by using
their domain names, even if they are online and reachable by their IP addresses. The technician should check if the DNS server is running and configured
correctly, or use an alternative DNS
server if possible. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a-core-1-220-1101- study-guide (page 81)

NEW QUESTION 203

- (Topic 3)
A user’s Windows computer started running slowly after the installation of a CAD program. The computer has intermittent timeouts and often has to be rebooted to
restore functionally. The computer seems to work correctly if the application is not running. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT to help
troubleshoot the issue? (Select TWO).

A. Replace the video card.

B. Research the requirements of the application.
C. Install a new case fun.
D. Run chkdsk on the HDD.
E. Check the Event Viewer logs.
F. Reinstall the application.

Answer: BE

Explanation:
The technician should research the requirements of the CAD program to see if the computer meets them or needs any upgrades or updates to run it properly. The
technician should also check the Event Viewer logs to see if there are any errors or warnings related to the application or system performance that could indicate
the cause of the problem or suggest a solution. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/a- core-1-220-1101-study-guide (pages 43, 47)

NEW QUESTION 206

- (Topic 3)
An end user needs to upgrade the hard drive on a laptop and wants one that is fast and shock resistant. Which of the following is the BEST option for this end
user?

A. Hybrid HHD/SSD
B. 5,400rpm HDD
C. 7,200rpm HDD
D. NVMe SDD

Answer: D

Explanation:
A non-volatile memory express (NVMe) solid state drive (SSD) is the best option for an end user who wants to upgrade the hard drive on a laptop and wants one
that is fast and shock resistant.NVMe SSDs use flash memory and PCIe interface to achieve high performance and low latency.SSDs are also more shock
resistant than hard disk drives (HDDs) because they have no moving parts.Hybrid HDD/SSD combines both technologies but does not offer the same speed or
capacity as pure SSDs.A 5,400rpm HDD or a 7,200rpm HDD are slower and less shock resistant than SSDs

NEW QUESTION 210

- (Topic 3)
A technician is preparing laptops for deployment to a medical department. The laptops require SSD-level encryption to be enabled, but BitLocker refuses to turn it
on. An error message states that a BIOS-level setting has not been turned on. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST when troubleshooting this
issue?

A. Recorder the priority in Widows Boot Manager.

B. Check to make sure Secure Boot is turned on.
C. Ensure that the Trusted Platform Module enabled.
D. Verify that the latest updates are installed.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware component that provides cryptographic functions and secure storage for encryption keys, passwords, and
certificates. BitLocker requires a TPM to be enabled and activated in the BIOS or UEFI settings of the laptop in order to use SSD-level encryption. The technician
should check that the TPM is enabled and activated before trying to turn on BitLocker. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-
core-series-combined- content-guide (page 34)

NEW QUESTION 215

- (Topic 3)

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A technician is on site troubleshooting a customer's laptop. The technician needs to download a software update but the company's proxy is blocking updates.
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate action for the technician to take to get the update?

A. Connect to a hotspot
B. Request a traffic exemption.
C. Change the DNS address to 1.1.1.1
D. Update the Group Policy settings

Answer: B

Explanation:
If a technician is on site troubleshooting a customer’s laptop and needs to download a software update but the company’s proxy is blocking updates, the most
appropriate action for the technician to take would be to request a traffic exemption from the company’s IT department.

NEW QUESTION 218

- (Topic 3)
A service technician replaced the gateway, and a user is now unable to access the SOHO wireless network. Which of the following steps should the technician
take to resolve the issue?

A. Assess the network cables for damage.

B. Disable Bluetooth connections.
C. Update the firmware.
D. Check if the password and SSID are correct

Answer: D

Explanation:
Checking if the password and SSID are correct is the best step that the technician should take to resolve the issue of a user being unable to access the SOHO
wireless network after replacing the gateway. The new gateway may have a different password and SSID than the old one, which would prevent the user from
connecting to the wireless network. The technician should verify that the user has entered the correct password and SSID for the new gateway. Assessing the
network cables for damage, disabling Bluetooth connections, or updating the firmware are not likely to solve the issue, as they are not related to the wireless
network authentication

NEW QUESTION 220

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following describes the BEST use case for a client-side hypervisor?

A. By For a software developer who is required to test an application in many environments

B. When the data center environment is out of resources for a new server
C. As a cost-saving measure to allow multiple users on one computer
D. To provide a backup to cloud-based solutions during internet failures

Answer: A

Explanation:
A client-side hypervisor is a virtual machine monitor (VMM) that resides in and virtualizes a user’s computer, allowing it to run multiple operating systems (or
virtual machines) on shared hardware12. A client-side hypervisor can be useful for a software developer who needs to test an application in many environments,
such as different versions of Windows, Linux, or Mac OS. By using a client-side hypervisor, the developer can switch between different virtual machines without
rebooting the computer or using multiple physical devices3.

NEW QUESTION 223

- (Topic 3)
A user receives the following error when trying to reboot a computer:

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this error message?

A. Corrupted bootloader
B. Faulty RAID controller
C. Failed hard drive
D. Incorrect storage device driver

Answer: C

Explanation:
The error message "Reboot and Select Proper Boot Device" indicates that the computer cannot find the boot device that contains the operating system12. This can
happen if the hard drive that stores the operating system is damaged or failed, and the BIOS cannot detect it or read from it23. A failed hard drive can also cause
other symptoms such as clicking noises, corrupted files, or slow performance4.

NEW QUESTION 225

- (Topic 3)
A customer brings a phone top a repair shop because it is experiencing extreme slowness and applications are crashing. A technician attempts to install a
diagnostic application. but the installation fails. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST to troubleshoot the issue?

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A. Check the storage space.

B. Inspect the screen for damage.
C. Install the latest updates.
D. Recalibrate the digitizer.

Answer: A

Explanation:
One of the possible causes of extreme slowness and application crashes on a phone is low or insufficient storage space. This can affect the performance and
functionality of the phone, as well as prevent new applications from being installed or updated. The technician should check the storage space on the phone and
see if there is enough free space available for the diagnostic application and other operations. The technician should also advise the customer to delete or move
any unnecessary or unused
files, apps, or data from the phone to free up some space. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/a-core-1-content-guide (page 10)

NEW QUESTION 230

- (Topic 3)
An IT technician is inspecting the internal components of a desktop computer to assess a suspected power issue with the motherboard. Which of the following
connectors should the IT technician inspect further?

A. RJ45
B. Straight tip
C. DB9
D. Molex

Answer: D

Explanation:
The connector that the IT technician should inspect further is Molex. The Molex connector is used to provide power to the motherboard and other components in
the computer. If there is a suspected power issue with the motherboard, the IT technician should inspect the Molex connector to ensure that it is properly
connected and providing power to the motherboard1

NEW QUESTION 234

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following handles touch-screen operation on a mobile device?

A. Stylus
B. Liquid crystal display
C. Processor
D. Digitizer

Answer: D

Explanation:
A digitizer is a component that handles touch-screen operation on a mobile device. It is a layer of material that detects and converts the touch of a finger or a
stylus into an electrical signal that can be processed by the device12. A digitizer works with a display screen to create a touch-screen interface that allows a user
to interact with the device by touching pictures or words on the screen.

NEW QUESTION 236

- (Topic 3)
Auser is unable to perform contactless payments with a phone. Which of the following functions is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. NFC
B. Hotspot
C. Bluetooth
D. USB

Answer: A

Explanation:
Near field communication (NFC) is a function that enables contactless payments with a phone by allowing it to communicate with compatible devices within close
proximity. If NFC is not working properly, the user will not be able to perform contactless payments with the phone. Hotspot is a feature that allows a device to
share its internet connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB. Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to connect and exchange data
over short distances. USB is a standard interface that connects devices such as keyboards, mice, flash drives, etc

NEW QUESTION 237

- (Topic 3)
A video game developer is requesting a new desktop computer with eight sticks of memory. The developer wants the desktop computer to take advantage of all
available memory bandwidth without sacrificing performance. Which of the following would be the BEST solution?

A. Triple-channel with DDR5 ECC RAM

B. Quad-channel with DDR4 RAM
C. Quad-channel with DDR5 SODIMM
D. Dual-channel with DDR4 RAM

Answer: B

Explanation:
Quad-channel memory architecture allows the CPU to access four memory modules simultaneously, increasing the memory bandwidth and performance. DDR4

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RAM is a type of memory that has higher speed and lower power consumption than DDR3. SODIMM is a smaller form factor of memory that is typically used in
laptops, not desktops. ECC RAM is a type of memory that can detect and correct errors, but it is more expensive and slower than non-ECC RAM. Triple-channel
memory architecture is less common and less efficient than quad-channel. References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a#examdetails
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is- ddr4-ram https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-quad-channel-memory

NEW QUESTION 240

- (Topic 3)
A user is unable to connect a mobile phone while in a car. However, a second mobile Device is able To connect in The same car, WHICH of the Following settings
should the user check on the first phone?

A. Wi-Fi
B. Hotspot
C. Bluetooth
D. Location

Answer: C

Explanation:
To connect a mobile phone to a car, you need to pair them using Bluetooth, which is a wireless technology that allows secure local networks between devices1. If
one phone can connect to the car but another cannot, it means that the first phone has Bluetooth enabled and paired with the car, while the second phone does
not. Therefore, the user should check the Bluetooth settings on the second phone and make sure it is turned on and discoverable21.

NEW QUESTION 241

- (Topic 3)
A help desk technician receives a ticket stating a printer has jammed several times today. The technician removes the jammed paper and notices the paper supply
is low and the paper in the tray is wrinkled. Which of the following MOST likely caused the paper jams?

A. High latency
B. Page orientation
C. Driver mismatch
D. Multipage misfeed

Answer: D

Explanation:
A multipage misfeed is when more than one sheet of paper feeds into the printer at once, causing paper jams or misprints. A multipage misfeed can be caused by
low paper supply or wrinkled paper in the tray, as reported by the user in this case. High latency is not related to paper jams, but to network delays or slow
performance. Page orientation refers to whether the page is printed in portrait or landscape mode, which does not affect paper jams either. Driver mismatch could
cause printing errors or compatibility issues, but not paper jams.

NEW QUESTION 244

- (Topic 3)
A drive failed on a server that was leveraging a RAID disk configuration. The server administrator would like to rebuild the array so it can withstand a potential
multidrive failure in the future. Which of the following RAID configurations will the administrator MOST likely select?

A. 1
B. 5
C. 10

Answer: D

Explanation:
RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, which is a technology that combines multiple disks into a logical unit to improve performance, reliability,
or both. There are different types of RAID levels that use different methods of data distribution and redundancy.
RAID 0 is a level that stripes data across multiple disks without any redundancy. It offers the highest performance but no fault tolerance. If any disk fails, the entire
array is lost. RAID 1 is a level that mirrors data across two disks. It offers the lowest performance but the highest fault tolerance. It can survive the failure of one
disk.
RAID 5 is a level that stripes data across multiple disks with parity information. It offers a balance between performance and fault tolerance. It can survive the
failure of one disk, but not two or more disks.
RAID 10 is a level that combines RAID 1 and RAID 0. It creates a striped array of mirrored pairs. It offers high performance and high fault tolerance. It can survive
the failure of one disk in each pair, or multiple disks in different pairs.
Therefore, if the server administrator wants to rebuild the array to withstand a potential multidrive failure in the future, RAID 10 is the most likely choice.

NEW QUESTION 248

- (Topic 3)
A technician is working to connect an RS-232 serial signature pad to a customer's ultralightweight laptop. Which of the following should the technician use to install
the device?

A. Port replicator
B. Wi-Fi Direct
C. Hotspot
D. USB-C cable

Answer: D

Explanation:
A USB-C cable is the best option for installing an RS-232 serial signature pad to an ultralightweight laptop. USB-C is a universal connector that supports various
protocols and devices, including serial devices. A port replicator is a device that expands the connectivity options of a laptop by providing additional ports. Wi-Fi
Direct is a wireless technology that allows devices to connect directly without a router or access point. Hotspot is a feature that allows a device to share its internet

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connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB.

NEW QUESTION 252

- (Topic 3)
A salesperson is using a weather application on a mobile device. The application appears to be draining the device's battery very quickly. Which of the following is
the BEST action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while traveling?

A. Enable the GPS service to ensure accurate location detection.

B. Update the PRL when getting to a new location.
C. Configure less location checks using cellular location services,
D. use the offices' Wi-Fi IP addresses as the geolocation mechanism.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The best action for the salesperson to take in order to view weather forecasts while traveling and minimize the battery drain on their mobile device is to configure
fewer location checks using cellular location services. This can be done by adjusting the settings for the weather application to limit how often it checks for updates
and uses location services. This will help to conserve the battery on the device and keep the application from consuming too much power.

NEW QUESTION 257

- (Topic 3)
A technician is working with a user to set up scanning. The user requires the scans to be
viewable on the network for the entire department. Which of the following settings on the MFP should the technician edit to BEST address the user's request?

A. Scan to email
B. Server message block
C. Secured prints
D. Web services
E. Printer share

Answer: B

Explanation:
Server message block (SMB) is the setting on the multifunction printer (MFP) that the technician should edit to best address the user’s request of making the
scans viewable on the network for the entire department. SMB is a network protocol that allows file sharing and printer access among different devices on a
network. The technician can configure the MFP to scan to a shared folder on the network using SMB. Scan to email is a feature that allows the MFP to send
scanned documents as email attachments, which may not be viewable by everyone in the department. Secured prints is a feature that allows the MFP to print
documents only after entering a PIN or password, which does not address the user’s request. Web services is a feature that allows the MFP to access online
services such as cloud storage or email, which may not be viewable by everyone in the department either. Printer share is not a setting on the MFP, but a feature
that allows a device to share its printer with other devices on a network

NEW QUESTION 259

- (Topic 3)
A technician is upgrading a computer OS from Windows 7 to Windows 10. During the OS installation, the system is not able to find the hard drive. Which of the
following can the technician do to MOST likely fix the issue?

A. Change the partition to MBR

B. Load the HDD drivers using a flash drive.
C. Upgrade the RAM modules.
D. Replace the hard drive.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Loading the hard disk drive (HDD) drivers using a flash drive is the most likely action that can fix the issue of a computer not being able to find the hard drive
during an OS installation from Windows 7 to Windows 10. The HDD may have a different interface or controller than what Windows 10 supports by default, such as
SATA or RAID, which would require loading additional drivers during the installation process. The technician can use a flash drive to load the drivers from another
device or source. Changing the partition to MBR, upgrading the RAM modules, or replacing the hard drive are not likely to fix the issue, as they are not related to
the HDD drivers

NEW QUESTION 264

- (Topic 3)
A technician is troubleshooting a classroom projector that shuts down after fifteen minutes of use. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve the
issue?

A. Replace the video input cable.

B. Change the bulb.
C. Clean the air filter.
D. Swap the power cord.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Cleaning the air filter is the best action to resolve the issue of a projector that shuts down after fifteen minutes of use. A dirty air filter can cause overheating and
trigger the projector’s thermal protection mechanism. Replacing the video input cable, changing the bulb, or swapping the power cord are unlikely to solve the
overheating issue

NEW QUESTION 265

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- (Topic 3)
A technician is attempting to connect the wired LANs at two nearby buildings by installing a wireless point-to-point connection. Which of the following should the
technician consider?

A. NFC protocol data rate

B. RFID frequency range
C. Bluetooth version compatibility
D. Allowable limits for transmit power

Answer: D

Explanation:
When installing a wireless point-to-point connection between two buildings, the technician should consider the allowable limits for transmit power, which vary
depending on the country or region. Exceeding these limits could interfere with other wireless devices or violate regulations. NFC protocol data rate, RFID
frequency range, and Bluetooth version compatibility are not relevant for a wireless point-to-point connection.

NEW QUESTION 266

- (Topic 3)
A user's laptop is running out of disk space and requires a new hard drive. The user wants to replace the existing hard drive with the fastest possible I TB HDD. A
technician assesses the user's hardware and determines the connections that are available. Which of the following drive types should the technician recommend
as the BEST choice?

A. 1TB NVMe SSD

B. 1TB flash drive
C. 1TB SATA SSD
D. 1TB SAS

Answer: A

Explanation:
The best choice for the user's laptop is a 1TB NVMe SSD. NVMe (Non- Volatile Memory Express) is a high-performance storage protocol designed specifically for
solid-state drives (SSDs). It is significantly faster than SATA SSDs and SAS hard drives, making it ideal for users who need fast storage for their laptop. NVMe
SSDs also have lower latency and higher bandwidth than traditional hard drives, making them well-suited for data-intensive tasks such as video editing, gaming,
and running multiple applications simultaneously. Additionally, NVMe offers more reliable data reliability than traditional hard drives, and is less susceptible to
performance degradation over time.

NEW QUESTION 271

- (Topic 4)
A customer's phone no longer charges fully The phone only charges to 67% and then stops_ Which of the following should be replaced to resolve this issue?

A. The phone
B. The charger
C. The battery
D. The SD card

Answer: C

Explanation:
The correct answer is C. The battery.
The battery is the component that stores and provides electrical power to the phone. The battery can degrade over time and lose its capacity to hold a full charge.
This can cause the phone to stop charging at a certain percentage and run out of power faster. To resolve this issue, the battery should be replaced with a new
one that is compatible with the phone model and manufacturer.
To replace the battery, the customer may need to follow different steps depending on the type of phone and battery. Some phones have removable batteries that
can be easily accessed by opening the back cover of the phone and sliding out the old battery. Other phones have non-removable batteries that are sealed inside
the phone and require special tools and skills to open the phone and disconnect the old battery. In this case, the customer may need to contact the phone
manufacturer or a professional service center for assistance.
Reference: Troubleshooting Mobile Devices – CompTIA A+ 220-1101 – 5.5

NEW QUESTION 272

- (Topic 4)
A company wants to save money by leveraging the cloud while still being able to customize the infrastructure. Which of the following cloud models
would best address the company's needs?

A. Private
B. Public
C. Hybrid
D. Community

Answer: C

Explanation:
A hybrid cloud model would best address the company’s needs of saving money by leveraging the cloud while still being able to customize the infrastructure. A
hybrid cloud model is a combination of public and private cloud services, connected by a secure network. A public cloud service is a cloud service that is offered by
a third-party provider over the Internet, and is shared by multiple customers. A private cloud service is a cloud service that is dedicated to a single customer, and is
hosted either on-premises or by a third-party provider. A hybrid cloud model allows the company to use the public cloud for cost-effective and scalable services,
such as storage, backup, or analytics, and use the private cloud for more sensitive or customized services, such as security, compliance, or performance. A hybrid
cloud model also enables the company to move workloads between the public and private cloud as needed, depending on the demand, availability, or cost. A
hybrid cloud model can provide the company with the best of both worlds: the flexibility and efficiency of the cloud, and the control and customization of the
infrastructure.
References:

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? What is Hybrid Cloud? | IBM1

? Hybrid Cloud Computing | Microsoft Azure2
? Cloud Deployment Models: Explaining and Comparing the 5 Main Models …3

NEW QUESTION 275

- (Topic 4)
A classroom projector, which is turned on, displays a flashing LED code but does not have any video output. Which of the following should a technician do to
resolve the issue?

A. Replace the bulb.

B. Adjust the input resolution_
C. Clean the air filter.
D. Change the input source.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The answer is C. Clean the air filter.
A flashing LED code on a projector usually indicates a problem with the projector’s hardware, such as the lamp, the fan, the temperature sensor, or the air filter.
According to the web search results, some possible causes and solutions for this problem are:
? Projector is too hot: Make sure that the vents and air filter are not clogged with dust or obstructed by nearby objects. Clean or replace the air filter. Make sure the
environmental temperature is not too hot12.
? Projector has overheated and turned off: Leave it turned off to cool down for five minutes. Make sure that the vents and air filter are not clogged with dust or
obstructed by nearby objects. Clean or replace the air filter. If operating the projector at high altitude, turn on High Altitude Mode12.
? Low air flow through the projector or air filter: Make sure that the vents and air filter are not clogged with dust or obstructed by nearby objects. Clean or replace
the air filter12.
References:
? Projector Light Status
? Projector Light Status

NEW QUESTION 277

- (Topic 4)
A user tries to turn on a computer but gets the following error message: Bootable device not found. The computer had no issues yesterday Which of the following
is the most likely reason for this error?

A. The HDD is malfunctioning.

B. The mouse and keyboard are not connected.
C. A misconfigured boot device is in the BIOS.
D. The network cable is unplugged

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most likely reason for this error is A. The HDD is malfunctioning.
A bootable device not found error usually indicates that the system cannot access or detect the hard disk that contains the operating system files. This could be
due to a physical or logical damage to the hard disk, such as bad sectors, corrupted partitions, or faulty cables. According to the web search results, some possible
causes and solutions for this error are:
? Hard drive connection issue: Check the cabling and power supply to the hard drive and make sure they are properly connected12.
? Corrupt hard drive partitions: Use a Windows installation media to scan and repair the corrupt system files using the System File Checker (SFC) tool1.
? Damaged hard drive: Replace the hard drive with a new one and reinstall the operating system2.
? Incorrect boot sequence in the BIOS: Enter the BIOS or UEFI settings menu and change the boot order to make sure that the system drive is in the first
position13.
? Damaged MBR (Master Boot Record): Use a Windows installation media to repair the Windows bootloader using the Diskpart tool1.

NEW QUESTION 282

- (Topic 4)
A technician is troubleshooting a burning smell on a desktop computer. The technician determines that the odor is coming from inside the device.
Which of the following should the technician do first?

A. Unplug the computer.

B. Locate a fire extinguisher.
C. Call the fire department.
D. Remove the desktop cover.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A burning smell on a desktop computer is a serious issue that indicates a hardware malfunction or failure. It can be caused by overheating, a faulty power supply,
a malfunctioning motherboard, or a short circuit12. If left unchecked, it can damage the components, cause a fire, or harm the user.
The first thing the technician should do when troubleshooting a burning smell on a desktop computer is to unplug the computer from the power source. This will
stop the flow of electricity and prevent further damage or fire. The technician should also wear protective gloves and eye wear to avoid contact with any hot or
hazardous parts.
The other options are less likely to be the first step in troubleshooting, because:
•Locating a fire extinguisher is a good precaution, but it should not be done before unplugging the computer. The fire extinguisher should only be used if there is
visible smoke or flames coming from the computer, and only after unplugging it and ensuring that it is safe to do so.
•Calling the fire department is an extreme measure that should only be done if there is an actual fire that cannot be controlled by the fire extinguisher. It should not
be done before unplugging the computer and trying to identify and fix the problem.
•Removing the desktop cover is a necessary step to inspect the internal components and find the source of the burning smell. However, it should not be done
before unplugging the computer, as it can expose the technician to live wires and electric shocks.
For more information and tips on how to troubleshoot a burning smell on a desktop computer, you can visit these links:

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•How to find the source of a burning smell in my computer?

•Burning Smell From PC? 10 Reasons Why It Could Happen

NEW QUESTION 283

- (Topic 4)
A technician is configuring a SOHO network. During testing, the technician receives the IP address 169.254.2.2, but the router is assigned the address scope of
192.168.1.254/24. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

A. DHCP
B. Ipv6
C. DNS
D. Ipv4

Answer: A

Explanation:
DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which is a protocol that provides quick, automatic, and central management for the distribution of IP
addresses within a network1. A DHCP server can assign IP addresses and other network information to devices that request them, such as computers,
smartphones, and routers2.
The IP address 169.254.2.2 is an example of an APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) address, which is a special type of IP address that devices use when
they cannot obtain a valid IP address from a DHCP server3. APIPA addresses are in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.254, with a subnet mask of
255.255.0.03. Devices that use APIPA addresses can only communicate with other devices on the same local network that also use APIPA addresses3.
The router in the question is assigned the address scope of 192.168.1.254/24, which means it has an IP address of 192.168.1.254 and a subnet mask of
255.255.255.04. This address scope belongs to the private IP address range of 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255, which is commonly used for local networks4.
Devices that use private IP addresses can communicate with other devices on the same local network or across different networks through NAT (Network Address
Translation)4.
The most likely cause of the technician receiving the IP address 169.254.2.2 is that the DHCP server on the router is not working properly or is not configured
correctly3. This could be due to various reasons, such as a misconfigured router, a faulty cable, a firewall blocking DHCP traffic, or an exhausted pool of IP
addresses3. As a result, the technician’s device cannot obtain a valid IP address from the DHCP server and resorts to using an APIPA address instead3.
To fix this issue, the technician should check the router settings and make sure that the DHCP server is enabled and has enough available IP addresses to assign
to devices2. The technician should also check the physical cabling and make sure it is properly connected
and secured2. If the issue persists, the technician should try rebooting the router or resetting it to factory defaults2. Alternatively, the technician could manually
assign a static IP address to the device that matches the router’s address scope, such as 192.168.1.x/242.

NEW QUESTION 284

- (Topic 4)
A technician assembled a new PC. After a few minutes, the computer slows down and then shuts itself off. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the
failure?

A. Thermal paste was not used.

B. The GPU needs additional power.
C. The memory is insufficient.
D. The motherboard is incompatible.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most likely cause of the failure is A. Thermal paste was not used.
Thermal paste, also known as thermal grease or thermal compound, is a substance that is applied between the CPU and the heat sink to improve the heat transfer
and cooling of the CPU. Thermal paste fills the gaps and irregularities between the CPU and the heat sink, creating a better contact and reducing the thermal
resistance .
According to some web search results , some signs and symptoms of not using thermal paste or using it incorrectly are:
•The CPU overheats and slows down or shuts down to prevent damage
•The CPU fan spins faster and louder to try to cool down the CPU
•The PC performance drops or becomes unstable
•The PC crashes or displays errors or blue screens
To fix this issue, the technician should apply thermal paste properly between the CPU and the heat sink, following these steps :
•Turn off the PC and unplug it from the power source
•Open the PC case and locate the CPU fan and heat sink
•Remove the CPU fan and heat sink from the motherboard
•Clean the surfaces of the CPU and heat sink with a lint-free cloth and alcohol
•Apply a small amount of thermal paste (about the size of a grain of rice) in the center of the CPU
•Reattach the heat sink and CPU fan to the motherboard, making sure they are aligned and secured
•Close the PC case and plug it back to the power source
The GPU needs additional power, the memory is insufficient, or the motherboard is
incompatible are not likely causes of the failure, since they would not cause the PC to overheat and shut down after a few minutes. The GPU needs additional
power if it has a high power consumption that exceeds the capacity of the power supply or the PCIe slot. The memory is insufficient if it cannot handle the
applications or tasks that are running on the PC. The motherboard is incompatible if it does not support the CPU, RAM, or other components that are installed on
it. These issues may cause poor performance, errors, or crashes, but not overheating and shutting down.

NEW QUESTION 288

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following server roles does RADIUS perform?

A. DNS
B. AAA
C. Mail server
D. Syslog

Answer: B

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Explanation:
AAA stands for Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting, and it is a framework that provides security services for network access control. Authentication
verifies the identity of a user or device that requests access to a network resource. Authorization determines what level of access or privileges are granted to a
user or device based on their identity or role. Accounting tracks and records the usage of network resources by users or devices for billing or auditing purposes.
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a protocol that implements AAA functions by communicating with a central server that stores user
credentials and policies.

NEW QUESTION 293

- (Topic 4)
A technician attempts to join a Windows client to a domain but receives the following error: An attempt to resolve the hostname has failed.
The technician generates the display shown below utilizing ipconfig /all.

Which of the following is the most likely reason for the error?

A. DNS
B. Physical address
C. Subnet mask
D. IPv4 address
E. Default gateway

Answer: A

Explanation:
The most likely reason for the error is that the DNS server is not configured correctly. The technician should check the DNS server settings and make sure they
are correct.
DNS, or Domain Name System, is a service that translates domain names, such as www.example.com, into IP addresses, such as 192.168.1.1, that computers
use to communicate with each other. DNS is essential for joining a Windows client to a domain, which is a logical group of computers that share a common
directory and security policy. A domain name, such as example.com, identifies the domain and its members on the network.
To join a Windows client to a domain, the client needs to resolve the hostname of the domain controller, which is the server that manages the domain and its
resources. The client sends a DNS query to the DNS server, asking for the IP address of the domain controller. The DNS server responds with the IP address, and
the client uses it to establish a connection with the domain controller and complete the domain join process.
However, if the DNS server is not configured correctly, the client may not be able to resolve the hostname of the domain controller, and receive the error: An
attempt to resolve the hostname has failed. This can happen if the DNS server is not reachable, not authoritative, or not updated. For example, the DNS server
may have an incorrect IP address, a wrong DNS suffix, a missing or outdated DNS record, or a firewall blocking the DNS traffic.
To fix the error, the technician should verify that the DNS server settings on the client and the domain controller are correct and consistent. The technician can use
the ipconfig /all command to display the DNS server settings, such as the IPv4 address, the subnet mask, the default gateway, and the DNS suffix. The technician
can also use the nslookup command to test the DNS resolution and the ping command to test the connectivity. The technician should make sure that the client and
the domain controller are using the same DNS server, and that the DNS server can resolve the hostname of the domain controller. References:
? How to Resolve the "Temporary failure in name resolution" Error1
? Strict hostname resolution configured but no hostname was set2
? Error: Hostname Not Resolved to an IP Address - HostGator3
? The Host Name Could Not be Resolved in DNS4
? Troubleshoot DNS name resolution on the Internet - Windows Server5

NEW QUESTION 295

- (Topic 4)
A laser printer, which is located in a large office, has a leaky toner cartridge. Some toner spilled into the printer when the cartridge was removed.
Which of the following is the best way to clean up the toner?

A. Magnetic duster
B. ESD-safe vacuum
C. Compressed air
D. Damp cloth

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best way to clean up the toner that spilled into the printer is to use an ESD-safe vacuum. An ESD-safe vacuum is a special type of vacuum that has a filter
that traps toner particles and prevents them from escaping into the air. An ESD-safe vacuum also has a grounding wire that prevents static electricity from building
up and damaging the printer’s components. Toner is electrically conductive and can cause short circuits or sparks if it contacts sensitive parts of the printer.
Therefore, using an ESD-safe vacuum is the safest and most effective method to remove the toner from the printer.
Other methods, such as a magnetic duster, compressed air, or a damp cloth, are not recommended for cleaning up toner spills. A magnetic duster is a device that
uses a magnet to attract toner particles, but it can also damage the printer’s components that rely on magnetism, such as the drum or the fuser. Compressed air
can blow the toner around and create a cloud of dust that can be harmful to breathe or contaminate other parts of the printer. A damp cloth can smear the toner
and make it harder to remove, as well as cause corrosion or rust on the printer’s metal parts.
References:
? Cleaning up Toner Spills or Leaks Inside the Printer - Xerox Support1
? How to Clean Up Toner Spills - YouTube2
? How to Clean up a Laser Toner Spill - Cartouches Certifiées3

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NEW QUESTION 296

- (Topic 4)
A PC's boot drive is showing signs of imminent failure, and a technician needs to recover the data. Which of the following should the technician do first?

A. Clone the drive to another one.

B. Access the Device Manager.
C. Download the drive manufacturer's diagnostic tool.
D. Uninstall the drive in the Device Manager.
E. Replace the drive with a new one.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The first step to recover data from a failing drive is to clone the drive to another one, which means creating an exact copy of the drive’s contents, including the
operating system, applications, files, and settings, to a new drive. Cloning the drive can preserve the data and prevent further damage or data loss from the failing
drive. Cloning the drive can also allow the technician to boot from the new drive and access the data normally, without needing to reinstall the operating system or
the applications12.
The other options are not as effective or relevant as cloning the drive. Accessing the Device Manager may not help with data recovery, as it is a tool that displays
and manages the hardware devices and drivers on a PC. The Device Manager may show the status of the failing drive, but it cannot copy or restore the data from
it3. Downloading the drive manufacturer’s diagnostic tool may help with identifying and repairing some errors or issues with the drive, but it may not be able to
recover the data if the drive is physically damaged or corrupted. The diagnostic tool may also overwrite or erase some data during the repair process, which can
make the data recovery more difficult or impossible4. Uninstalling the drive in the Device Manager may not help with data recovery, as it removes the drive from
the system and its driver from the operating system. Uninstalling the drive may make the drive inaccessible or unrecognized by the PC, which can prevent the data
recovery5. Replacing the drive with a new one may not help with data recovery, as it does not transfer the data from the old drive to the new one. Replacing the
drive may also require reinstalling the operating system and the applications, which can take time and effort. Replacing the drive may also discard the old drive,
which may still contain some recoverable data.
References:
? CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3: Hardware, Section 3.3: Storage Devices, Page 140
? CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.5: Disk Management, Page 107
? CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Operating Systems, Section 2.4: Device Manager, Page 84
? CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.6: Troubleshooting Storage Devices, Page 111
? CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Operating Systems, Section 2.4: Device Manager, Page 85
? CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Cram, Chapter 3: Storage, Section 3.6: Troubleshooting Storage Devices, Page 112

NEW QUESTION 299

- (Topic 4)
A user needs to connect a laptop to the internet while traveling on a train. Which of the following features should be enabled on the user's phone?

A. Bluetooth
B. Near-field communication
C. Hotspot
D. Roaming

Answer: C

Explanation:
A hotspot is a feature that allows a phone to share its cellular data connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, or USB. This can be useful when traveling
on a train, where Wi-Fi networks may not be available or reliable. A hotspot can provide internet access to a laptop or other devices that need to connect to the
web.
Bluetooth is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate over short distances, usually within 10 meters. It can be used to pair devices such as
headphones, speakers, keyboards, mice, etc. However, it cannot be used to share internet access from a phone to a laptop.
Near-field communication (NFC) is a wireless technology that allows devices to exchange data by touching or bringing them close together, usually within 4 cm. It
can be used for applications such as contactless payments, smart cards, digital tickets, etc. However, it cannot be used to share internet access from a phone to a
laptop.
Roaming is a feature that allows a phone to use another carrier’s network when the home network is not available. This can be useful when traveling abroad,
where the home network may not have coverage or agreements with local operators. However, roaming can incur additional charges and may not provide the
same speed or quality of service as the home network. Roaming does not affect the ability of the phone to share internet access with other devices via hotspot.

NEW QUESTION 300

- (Topic 4)
A systems administrator needs to set up a multifunction printer for the legal department. The legal department deals with sensitive documents and requires a
secure method of releasing print jobs. Which of the following should the systems administrator configure to meet the department's security requirements?

A. SMB settings
B. User authentication
C. Audit logging
D. Wired connection

Answer: B

Explanation:
This option requires the user to enter a PIN code or swipe a smart card before the printer releases their print job. This way, the user can verify their identity and
ensure that no one else can access their sensitive documents.
The other options are not as secure or effective as user authentication. SMB settings are used to share files and printers over a network, but they do not provide a
secure method of releasing print jobs. Audit logging records the details of each print job, but it does not prevent unauthorized access to the printed documents.
Wired connection reduces the risk of wireless interference or hacking, but it does not guarantee that the print jobs are only retrieved by the intended recipient.

NEW QUESTION 303

- (Topic 4)
A user reports a monitor, keyboard, mouse. and headset are no longer functioning. The user has restarted the laptop and tested an alternative headset and

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monitor, but the issue persists. The technician notices the user has a printer. USB-C hub, and AC adapter plugged into the laptop. Which of the following should
the technician do to MOST likely resolve the issue?

A. Verify the AC adaptor voltage.

B. Repair the operating system.
C. Replace the user’s USB-C hub.
D. Reinstall the drivers for affected devices.
E. Make sure the printer is not drawing too much power.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most likely cause of the issue is that the user’s USB-C hub is faulty or incompatible with the laptop. The USB-C hub is a device that allows the user to
connect multiple peripherals to the laptop using a single USB-C port. If the hub is not working properly, it may prevent the monitor, keyboard, mouse, and headset
from functioning. The technician should replace the user’s USB-C hub with a new one that is compatible with the laptop and test the peripherals again. Verifying
the AC adapter voltage will not help with the issue, as the AC adapter is used to power the laptop, not the peripherals. Repairing the operating system will not help
either, as the issue is not related to software. Reinstalling the drivers for affected devices may not help, as the issue may be caused by the hub, not the devices.
Making sure the printer is not drawing too much power is irrelevant, as the printer is not connected to the hub or affecting the other peripherals. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-usb-c

NEW QUESTION 307

- (Topic 4)
A technician is replacing a failed drive in a RAID 5 array Which of the following is the first step the technician should take before hot swapping the drive out of the
array?

A. Document the replacement date.

B. Shut down the array_
C. Safely dispose of the failed drive.
D. Perform a full backup

Answer: D

Explanation:
The answer is D. Perform a full backup.
Before replacing a failed drive in a RAID 5 array, the technician should perform a full backup of the data on the array to ensure that no data is lost during the hot
swapping process. Hot swapping is the process of replacing a drive without shutting down the system or the array, which allows for faster recovery and minimal
downtime. However, hot swapping also involves some risks, such as accidentally removing the wrong drive, damaging the new drive, or encountering another
drive failure during the rebuild process. Therefore, performing a full backup is a precautionary measure that can prevent data loss in case of any unexpected errors
or complications.
The other options are not the first steps that the technician should take before hot swapping the drive. Documenting the replacement date is a good practice, but it
is not as important as backing up the data. Shutting down the array is not necessary for hot swapping, and it may cause more disruption to the system or the
users. Safely disposing of the failed drive is a step that should be done after replacing it, not before.
References:
? Hot-swapping the hard drives when the RAID crashes | QNAP, section “Install a new drive to rebuild RAID 5 by hot swapping”: “Important: Do not install a new
drive when the system is not in degraded mode, otherwise you may encounter unexpected system failures.”
? Hot Swapping hard drives on Raid 5 with data on them - Spiceworks Community, reply by Magnus369: “Part of that slowness would be the raid level you are
using. Highly doubt you can change it without losing data either, but your writes are going to be atrociously slow due to having to figure out parity across 11 drives
for each write you do. While you may have a ton of space, it’s unstable and subject to self destruction.”
? hard drive - How do I Change a damaged Disk in a Raid 5 array - Server Fault, answer by Chris S: “If you have another disk failure during rebuild you will lose all
your data.”

NEW QUESTION 311

- (Topic 4)
Several users report that a projector routinely turns off in the middle of meetings and does not tum back on immediately. Users have to wait several minutes before
the projector will turn back on. When the projector is on, the picture is clear and bright. Which of the following is the most likely reason the projector is turning off?

A. The video cable connecting the video source to the projector is failing.
B. The bulb in the projector is failing.
C. The projector is overheating and needs to be cleaned.
D. The outlet that the projector is plugged into is faulty.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The projector is overheating and needs to be cleaned. A common cause of projector shutdown is overheating, which can be triggered by dust accumulation,
blocked vents, or faulty fans. The projector has a thermal protection circuit that turns it off when the temperature reaches a certain level, and it will not turn back on
until it cools down. To prevent this issue, the projector needs to be cleaned regularly and placed in a well- ventilated area. The video cable, the bulb, and the outlet
are not likely to cause the projector to turn off intermittently.
Reference: [CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide], page 18.

NEW QUESTION 316

- (Topic 4)
A user takes a tablet to a technician because the cursor on it keeps drifting. The technician notices the screen does not appear to be damaged. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of the cursor issue?

A. The screen is physically damaged.

B. The screen rotation is incorrect.
C. The touch-pen battery is depleted.
D. The screen needs to be recalibrated.

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Answer: D

Explanation:
The screen needs to be recalibrated. The cursor drift is a common symptom of a misaligned touch screen, which can be caused by physical shocks, temperature
changes, or software updates. The screen can be recalibrated using the tablet’s settings or a utility program. The screen is not physically damaged, as there is no
visible crack or break. The screen rotation is not related to the cursor drift, as it only affects the orientation of the display. The touch-pen battery is not relevant, as
the cursor drift occurs even without using the pen.
Reference: [CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide], page 15.

NEW QUESTION 321

- (Topic 4)
An administrator is replacing 15.000rpm hard drives in a server. Which of the following is the interface type the drives most likely use?

A. IDE
B. SAS
C. eSATA
D. SATA

Answer: B

Explanation:
SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is an interface type that supports high-speed data transfer and high-performance hard drives, such as 15,000rpm drives. SAS drives
are commonly used in servers that require fast access and reliability. IDE (Integrated Drive Electronics), eSATA (external SATA), and SATA (Serial ATA) are not
suitable for 15,000rpm drives, as they have lower speed and performance.
Reference: [CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide], page 22.

NEW QUESTION 325

- (Topic 4)
A technician is upgrading the memory on a server that processes payment information online. Which of the following types of memory would the technician most
likely install?

A. DDR4
B. VRAM
C. SODIMM
D. ECC

Answer: D

Explanation:
ECC stands for Error Correction Code, which is a type of memory that can detect and correct data errors that may occur during processing or transmission. ECC
memory is commonly used in servers that handle sensitive or critical information, such as payment information online, because it can reduce the risk of data
corruption, system crashes, or security breaches12.
DDR4 is a generation of DDR technology, which stands for Double Data Rate. DDR4 memory is faster and more power-efficient than its predecessors, but it does
not necessarily have ECC functionality. DDR4 memory can be either ECC or non-ECC1. VRAM is Video RAM, which is a type of memory that is dedicated to
storing graphics data for display. VRAM is usually found on graphics cards or integrated graphics processors, not on servers3.
SODIMM is Small Outline DIMM, which is a type of memory module that has a smaller size and lower profile than regular DIMMs. SODIMMs are typically used in
laptops, notebooks, or other compact devices, not on servers3.

NEW QUESTION 329

......

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