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CIVIL AVIATION AUTHORITY

Validation Exams

P29

Time Allowed: 1:15 Hour

1. Unless authorized by ATC, a VFR flight is not permitted to take off from an aerodrome
within a CTR when:
a. cloud ceiling is less than 1000 ft and ground visibility is less than 5 km.
b. cloud ceiling is less than 1500 ft and ground visibility is less than 5 km.
c. cloud ceiling is less than 1000 ft and ground visibility is less than 8 km.
d. cloud ceiling is less than 1500 ft and ground visibility is less than 8 km.

2. What letter is put in item 8 of a flight plan to indicate that a flight is to begin under
IFR and finish under VFR?
a. Y
b. I
c. V
d. Z
3. Which freedom of the air is applicable to a flight which wishes to land in a
foreign state for technical reasons?
a. 1st freedom
b. 3rd freedom
c. 4th freedom
d. 2nd freedom
4. When a Contracting State first enters on its register an aircraft and issues or
validates a Certificate of Airworthiness, it shall inform:
a. The State of Registry
b. The State of Manufacture
c. The State of Design
d. The State of the Operator
5. Concerning aircraft registration markings, no combinations can be used if they
can be mistaken for:
a. codes which are used for identification of ICAO documents.
b. letter combinations beginning with XXX.
c. 3 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals.
d. 5 letter combinations which are used by international code of signals.
6. When, in airspace where VFR is permitted, the PIC of an IFR flight wishes to
continue the flight in accordance with VFR until destination:
1. the pilot must inform the control unit of his intention using the expression
“cancelling my IFR flight”.
2. the pilot must request and obtain clearance to continue under VFR.
3. the pilot must communicate the necessary changes to the current flight plan.
4. the flight plan automatically becomes a VFR flight.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
a. 2 and 3.
b. 2 and 4.
c. 1 and 3.
d. 1 and 4.

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7. An aircraft intercepted by a military aircraft shall immediately attempt to
establish radio communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following
frequencies:
a. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 406.0 MHz.
b. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 243.0 MHz.
c. 121.5 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 282.0 MHz.
d. 243.0 MHz, and if communications cannot be established, on 121.5 MHz.
8. For a controlled flight, a flight plan must be filed before departure at least:
a. 60 minutes before off-block time.
b. 60 minutes before departure.
c. 30 minutes before departure.
d. 30 minutes before off-block time.
9. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. Instructions given by this
aircraft do not comply with ATC instructions. You should:
a. select code 7500 A on your transponder.
b. ask ATC for different instructions.
c. comply with instructions given by the intercepting aircraft.
d. comply with ATC instructions.
10. When is a flight plan required?
a. For IFR flight in advisory airspace.
b. For all IFR flights.
c. For all flights in controlled airspace.
d. For all VFR and SVFR flights in controlled airspace.

11. Close to an aerodrome that will be used for landing by aircraft, the vertical position shall
be expressed as:
a. altitude above sea level on or above transition altitude.
b. flight level on or under the transition altitude.
c. flight level on or under the transition level.
d. altitude above sea level at or below transition altitude.
12. If so equipped, when should an aircraft display the anti-collision light?
a. Only at night in flight, but not on the ground if being towed.
b. Whilst taxiing but not whilst being towed.
c. Only at night with engines running.
d. At all times on the ground when the engines are running.
13. A position report shall contain the following information in the order listed?
a. Aircraft identification, position, time, true airspeed, flight level or altitude, next position
and time over.
b. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
c. Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over,
ensuing position.
d. Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, next position and time over,
ensuing position and time over.
14. A white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bars indicates that:
a. glider flying is being conducted outside the landing area.
b. landing and take-off is restricted to the runways but taxiing is not confined to the
pavement areas.
c. this aerodrome is using parallel runways.

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 d. taxiing is confined to the taxiways.
15. An aircraft is overtaking another aircraft if it is closing to the other aircraft from
behind in a sector:
a. 50° either side of the longitudinal axis.
b. 60° either side of the longitudinal axis.
c. 70° either side of the longitudinal axis.
d. 80° either side of the longitudinal axis.
16. In general, what is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument
procedure?
a. The availability of navigation aids.
b. Airspace restrictions.
c. The terrain surrounding the aerodrome.
d. ATC requirements.
17. In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted, IFR is separated from all
traffic, VFR separated from IFR and VFR receives traffic information about other
VFR traffic?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
18. Special VFR operations can only be permitted :
a) By night
b) With a ceiling is at least 10,000 feet
c) Visibility of at least 6,000 metres
d) Under the terms of air traffic control clearance.
19. A pilot shall not act as PIC of an aircraft or Co-Pilot carrying passengers unless has:
a) Within the preceding 120 days carried out 3 take-offs and 6 landings
b) Within the preceding 100 days carried out 3 take-offs and 3 landings
c) Within the preceding 90 days carried out 3 take-offs and 3 landings
d) Within the preceding 110 days carried out 3 take-offs and 3 landings.
20. According to ICAO Annex 2, the term "aerodrome traffic" is defined as
a. All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity of
an aerodrome.
b. All traffic on the apron and on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft
flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
c. All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity
of an aerodrome except aircraft in a visual circuit.
d. All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all aircraft flying in the vicinity
of an aerodrome.
21. What information is provided in the general part (GEN) of the AIP?
a. Warnings for aviation, ATS airspaces and routes, restricted and dangerous airspaces
b. Access restrictions for airfields, passenger controls, requirements for pilots, license
samples and validity periods
c. Map icons, time for sunrise and sunset, airport fees, air traffic control fees
d. Table of content, classification of airfield with corresponding maps, approach charts,
taxi charts, restricted and dangerous airspaces

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22. In the vicinity of an aerodrome of intended landing or used for take-off, the vertical
position of aircraft shall be expressed in term of;
a) Altitude above mean sea level at or above the transition altitude.
b) Flight level at or below the transition level
c) Altitude above mean sea level at or below the transition altitude
d) Flight level at or below the transition altitude.
23. Using the visual SAR signals the symbol for “we have found all personnel” is:
a. + +
b. L L L
c. L L
d. Y
24. Which of the following concerning aerodrome signs is correct?
a. Mandatory signs: Black background with red inscription.
b. Information signs: Black or yellow background with black or yellow inscription.
c. Mandatory signs: Red background with black inscription.
d. Information signs: Orange background with black inscription.
25. According to Annex 17, security is defined as “a combination of measures
and human resources intended to safeguard:
a. civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference”
b. international civil aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference”
c. international aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference”
d. aviation operations against acts of unlawful interference”
26. Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density
altitude?
a. At sea level when the temperature is 0°C.
b. When the altimeter has no position error.
c. When the altimeter setting is 1013,2 hPa.
d. At standard temperature.
27. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft must be allowed to resume
its flight provided that:
a. the state where the aircraft is registered, the state where the aircraft is designed and
the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy, agree that
the aircraft is still airworthy
b. the state where the aircraft is registered is of the opinion that the sustained damage
is of such a nature that the aircraft is still airworthy
c. the state where the aircraft is designed and the state where the prototype of the
aircraft is declared to be airworthy, send a message to the state where there aircraft
is registered which says that the aircraft is still airworthy
d. the state where the prototype of the aircraft is declared to be airworthy has informed
the state where the aircraft is registered that the sustained damage is of such a
nature that the aircraft is still airworthy

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28. Your take-off is delayed for a controlled flight. At what point must you resubmit
your Flight Plan?
a. 30 minutes in excess of Estimated Off-Blocks Time (EOBT)
b. 45 minutes in excess of EOBT
c. 60 minutes in excess of EOBT
d. 90 minutes in excess of EOBT
29. The continued validity of a C of A of an aircraft is subject to the laws of:
a. the State of Registration.
b. the State of Registration and the State of the Operator.
c. the State of the Operator.
d. the State of Registry and the State of Design.

30. One shall not initiate any flight made in accordance with instrument flight rules unless
the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of intended
destination and destination alternate (if one is required) are, at the predicted time of:
a. take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use.
b. arrival, and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time, equal to minimum
conditions required for aerodrome use.
c. arrival equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use
d. arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use

31. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the:

a. airline operator
b. manufacturer
c. aeronautical Authority the airline operator depends on
d. Civil Aviation Authority of the European states

32. On an ILS final approach, you notice that the sky is darkening, visibility is reducing
and turbulence is increasing. At the same time you encounter an energy gain
situation causing you to ‘balloon’ above the glide path. What should you do?
a. Suspect wind shear and correct power and attitude to regain the glide path.
b. Suspect that you have passed through the top of the turbulence layer and that the wind
is no longer geostrophic, so corrections to power and attitude are required.
c. Suspect microburst activity and pre-empt the inevitable energy loss situation by leaving
power and attitude settings as before and then correct once clear of the microburst.
d. Suspect microburst activity, apply full power, climb as per the missed approach
procedure and go around for a further approach after the microburst has cleared the
approach area.

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33. With which of the following should you be aware of the possibility of microburst
activity?
1. Thunderstorms.
2. Cumulo-nimbus clouds.
3. Sudden rain squalls.
4. Gust front activity (rising dust clouds).
5. Unexpected wind shear.
6. Virga.
a. All the above.
b. 2, 4 and 5.
c. 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6.
d. 2, 5 and 6.

34. If, during an approach to land you encounter an abrupt decrease in wind speed or
a shift to a tail wind the aircraft will........ and you should...........
a. suffer a loss of lift; apply power
b. increase speed due to reduced drag; lift the nose
c. yaw to starboard; apply right rudder
d. suffer an energy gain; reduce power and lower the nose
35. An aircraft is maintaining FL150 in Class C Airspace. Another aircraft below at
FL140 receives a clearance to descend to FL70. There is severe turbulence in the
area. When at earliest can a clearance be expected to descend to FL140 or
lower?
a. When the other aircraft has reported to be descending through FL130.
b. When the other aircraft has reported to have left FL120.
c. When the other aircraft has reported to have left FL140.
d. When the other aircraft has reached FL70.

36. When flying outside controlled airspace it is compulsory to conform to the semi-
circular flight rule except when:
a. Flying at or below 1000 feet AGL or 3000 feet AMSL, whichever is the higher;
b. Flying at or below 3000 feet AGL;
c. Flying in VMC

37. A DISTRESS message differs from an URGENCY message because:

a. there is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate assistance.
b. the aeroplane has suffered damage that endangers the ability to fly.
c. the aeroplane will not be able to reach a suitable aerodrome.
d. the situation concerns the safety of passengers on board or within sight.
38. From the flight deck you observe an aeroplane in the forward left position on an
opposite parallel track. What Nav light will be observed?
a. Green
b. Red
c. White

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 d. All of the above

39. Standards defined in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are;

a) Advice and guidance for the aviation related legislation within the legal framework of
the Contracting States.
b) Binding for all Contracting States without deviation or exception.
c) Recommended explanatory material for the aviation related legislation of the
Contracting States.
d) Binding for the Contracting States unless they have notified ICAO about a national
difference
40. A serious injury is an injury which is sustained by a person in an accident
and which:
a. requires hospitalization for 48 hours or more
b. requires hospitalization for 24 hours or more
c. requires hospitalization for more than 24 hours
d. requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours

41. A manoeuvre where a turn is made from a “designated track” followed by a turn in the
opposite direction to enable the aircraft to fly the prescribed track is called a:
a. base turn.
b. reverse track.
c. race track.
d. procedure turn.

42. When the captain cannot comply with an ATC clearance:

a. the Captain must accept the ATC clearance, because it is based on a filed flight plan.
b. he/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable, he/she will accept that
clearance.
c. he/she may ask for a new clearance and the appropriate ATC must grant him/ her that
clearance.
d. he/she may suggest a new clearance to ATC.

43. The transition from IFR to VFR is done:

a. on the Captain’s initiative.
b. whenever an aircraft in VMC leaves controlled airspace.
c. if told by ATC.
d. at the clearance limit, disregarding the weather situation.

44. An aircraft is allowed to descend below the MSA if:

a. the pilot follows the published approach procedures.
b. the aircraft receives radar vectors.
c. the pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding terrain and is
able to maintain visual contact.

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 d. all of the above.

45. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks?

a. Simulator flying skills
b. The ability to land safely
c. Flying technique, emergency procedures and IFR
d. The ability to conform with set procedures

46. What kind of weather is forecast for the period after 12:00 UTC?
TAF FWKI 160500Z 1606/1706 13010KT 9000 BKN020 BECMG 1606/1608 SCT015CB
BKN020 TEMPO 1608/1612
17012G22KT 1000 TSRA SCT010CB BKN020 FM12 15006KT 9999 BKN020 BKN100=

a. Moderate southeasterly wind with visibility improvement to more than 10 km,

precipitations will stop, cloudiness will become greater with ceiling at 600 m.
b. Rainy weather with showers and gusty wind and visibility below 10 km.
c. Visibility will improve to 5 km to 10 km and cloud covering will decrease to
1/8 at 600 m and 1/8 at 3000 m.
d. Southeasterly wind 6 kts, visibility will be convenient for visual flying and the
sky will be completely covered with clouds with base at 600 m.

47. The correct decode for a TAF 0615 14025G40KT 1200 BR would be:
a. The forecast is for a nine hour period from 0615 UTC with a surface wind of 140º
M at 25 knots gusting 40 knots, visibility 1 200metres in mist
b. The forecast is for a nine hour period from 0615 UTC with a surface wind of
140º T at 25 knots, visibility 1 200 metres in fog
c. The forecast is for a nine hour period from 0600 to 1500 UTC with a surface
wind of 140ºM at 25 knots gusting 40 kts, visibility 1 200metres in broken
patches
d. The forecast is for a nine- hour period from 0600 to 1500 UTC with a surface
wind of 140º T at 25 knots gusting 40 kts, visibility 1 200 metres in mist

48. On an ILS, you are told that the weather has dropped below company minima. When
must you abort the approach?
a. Start of the glide slope descent
b. FAF
c. Inner marker
d. Outer marker

49. A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?

a. Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers
b. Route specific maps and charts
c. NOTAMs, tech log, op flight plan, mass & Balance, spec load notification
d. AICs, AISs, and all company NOTAMs

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50. The considerations for a non-precision approach are:
1. MDA (H)
2. DH
3. ceiling
4. horizontal visibility
a. 2, 3 & 4
b. 1, 3 & 4
c. 1 & 3
d. 2 & 4

END OF PAPER

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