PSYCHOLOGICAL 2.

They created the first test of

ASSESSMENT_BLOCK 1 intelligence for children.

Prepared by: Prof. Yvette Anne *

Camantiles, RPm
1 point
shelahesguerra@gmail.com Switch
accounts A. Francis Galton and Karl Pearson

B. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon

*Required C. Lewis Terman and Henry Goddard

Email D. Henry Murray and Christina Morgan

* 3. During World War II, this test was

widely used to determine the mental
NAME [First Name, Middle Initial, and ability of military personnel.
Last Name] e.g. Juan C. dela Cruz
*
*
1 point
RGO BRANCH
A. Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale
*
B. Army Alpha and Beta
EXAM FOR
C. AGCT
*
D. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet
Psychometrician
4. Previous learning does not affect
Psychologist one9s performance in non-verbal
intelligence tests. Among the following
LAST SCHOOL ATTENDED types of intelligence, what do these tests
primarily measure?
*
*
1. Who coined the term 8mental
quotient9? 1 point
* A. Visual-Spatial Intelligence
1 point B. Convergent Thinking
A. Francis Galton C. Crystallized Intelligence
B. Raymond Cattell D. Fluid Intelligence
C. William Stern 5. Identify the first theory of intelligence
and its proponent. It talks about an
D. Charles Spearman
underlying ability required for all kinds of

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mental tests and another ability limited 1 point
to only one kind.
A. Psychological Testing
*
B. Psychological Assessment
1 point
C. Psychotherapy
A. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence by
Raymond Cattell D. Counseling

B. Multiple Intelligences Theory by 8. Kayle is alarmed to find out that she

Howard Gardner has feelings for another girl. She does
not know what to do and wants to seek
C. Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence by help from a professional. Which of the
Charles Spearman following would be the most appropriate
service for Kayle?
D. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence by
Robert Sternberg *

6. Teacher Ambet makes sure to 1 point

incorporate music, movement, and art in
her lessons with her pupils. She A. Psychological Testing
understands that young children learn
B. Psychological Assessment
differently, and each pupil is intelligent in
some way. Her methods are guided by C. Psychotherapy
which theory of intelligence?
D. Counseling
*
9. The recruiter tells Camille that her
1 point grammar and vocabulary test scores are
enough to get her through the next
A. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence by
round of recruitment. What has likely
Raymond Cattell
occurred?
B. Multiple Intelligences Theor by
*
Howard Gardner
1 point
C. Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence by
Charles Spearman A. Psychological Testing
D. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence by B. Psychological Assessment
Robert Sternberg
C. Psychotherapy
7. Madeline was referred to a
psychiatrist since her doctor suspected D. Counseling
that she had signs and symptoms of
10. Clients, patients, and other
Conversion Disorder. What process will
individuals who are given psychological
Madeline most likely undergo?
tests are called?
*
*

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1 point 13. Scores on the NMAT are reported in
percentile ranks. The scores of aspiring
A. Test Users medical students are compared against
the performance of their fellow
B. Test Takers
examinees and plotted in a distribution
C. Test Sample curve. What is TRUE?

D. Test Developers *

11. After a training session, Bebot gives 1 point

her trainees a short test to see whether
A. The NMAT is a criterion-referenced
they learned something and if her
test
teaching methods were effective. What
kind of test did she administer? B. The NMAT is a speed test
* C. The NMAT is a norm-referenced test
1 point D. Items on the NMAT do not vary in
difficulty
A. An intelligence test
14. Job applicants for clerical or
B. A projective test
secretarial positions are commonly
C. An aptitude test given typing and organization tasks.
Their success is usually measured by
D. An achievement test how much they accomplish given a time
limit. What type of tests are these?
12. Students who wish to enter medical
schools in the Philippines must take the *
NMAT, which tests their cognitive skills
and knowledge in various subjects. The 1 point
NMAT determines whether a student will
A. Power tests
likely succeed or not in medicine. What
kind of test is the NMAT? B. Speed tests
* C. Physical acuity tests
1 point D. Both A and B
A. Maximal Performance; Aptitude test 15. Which is the least culture-fair test?
B. Maximal Performance; Intelligence *
test
1 point
C. Typical Performance Test;
Achievement test A. RPM

D. Typical Performance Test; B. PNLT

Unstructured personality test
C. NEO-PI R

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D. CFIT C. Interval

16. Rachel is assessing a transferee D. Ratio

who wants to enroll in the HUMSS
strand. She believes he is better suited 19. At the hospital, Vi9s doctor asked her
for the ABM strand since his entrance to indicate her pain on a scale of 1 to 10,
exam results in social sciences are poor, with 10 being extreme pain. Although
and he might have some difficulty in the subjective, this method gives doctors a
future. How was the test used in this rough estimate of Vi9s experience. What
case? scale of measurement was used, and
what characteristics does it lack?
*
*
1 point
1 point
A. Selection
A. Interval: Absolute Zero
B. Placement
B. Interval: Equal Intervals, Absolute
C. Screening Zero
D. Certification C. Nominal; Magnitude, Equal Intervals,
Absolute Zero
17. Joey is a scout for a modeling
agency. He stands outside shopping D. Ordinal: Equal Intervals
malls and uses a checklist to assess
people who could be potential models E. Ordinal: Equal Intervals, Absolute
quickly. How is he using the checklist in Zero
this situation?
20. Vanya loves the pep talks her
* teacher gives the class before quizzes.
It boosts her confidence in her abilities,
1 point making her scores better. What is
manifested in this situation?
A. Selection
*
B. Placement
1 point
C. Screening
A. Golem Effect
D. Certification
B. Contrast Effect
18. This scale of measurement denotes
categories and operates on frequencies. C. Frog Pond Effect
* D. Pygmalion Effect

1 point 21. Suppose you take your mock

exams with 100 multiple-choice
A. Nominal questions with four choice alternatives,
and your mind suddenly goes blank.
B. Ordinal

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What would be your chance 24. Alice wants to determine whether
performance level, or how many items she belongs in her class's higher or
would you get right if you were to guess lower scoring group. She already has
them all? the mean score to start with. What
would help her approximate the average
* deviation of other scores around the
mean in the distribution?
1 point
*
A. 20 correct items
1 point
B. 25 correct items
A. Range
C. 30 correct items
B. Standard Deviation
D. 50 correct items
C. Variance
22. Five is agonizing over which
measure of central tendency to use with D. Skewness
the scores he has collected from his
respondents. If you were to advise him, 25. Which of the following is TRUE
which of the following would be most when referring to a positively skewed
useful given his data? distribution?

* *

1 point 1 point

A. Mean A. The most common score of the test

takers likely falls on the higher end of
B. Median the distribution
C. Mode B. The test items are likely difficult
D. Standard Deviation C. The majority of the test-takers passed
23. Which of the following is a D. All of the above
disadvantage of using the mean in data
analysis? 26. When a test has high item difficulty,
it can be expected that?
*
*
1 point
1 point
A. It is affected by extreme values
A. Many test-takers will get low scores
B. It can only be used for discrete data
B. The reliability and validity will be high
C. It provides the sum of least squares
C. The distribution curve will likely turn
D. It is limited to distributed data out normal

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D. The median will likely be greater than D. Indicators of an individual9s relative
the mean standing

27. This property is essential since it 30. Babet scored 89 on her 100-item
determines the degree to which an item Math test and 50 on her Science test,
differentiates correctly among high- which had 20 items less than the Math
performing and low-performing exam. She also got a score of 70 on her
examinees, depending on what the test 90-item History test. Arrange her
is measuring. performance on her tests from best to
worst.
*
*
1 point
1 point
A. Item difficulty
A. History, Science, Math
B. Item discrimination
B. Math, History, Science
C. Item differentiation
C. Math, Science, History
D. Item divergence
D. None of the above
28. Item difficulty and discriminability
indices are ____ for pure speed tests 31. Class Magiliw garnered an
rather than pure power tests. average score of 60 and a standard
deviation of 5 in their 100-item English
* exam. If Chrissy has a raw score of 75,
what would be her z-score?
1 point
*
A. More appropriate
1 point
B. Less appropriate
A. 3
C. Just as appropriate
B. 2
D. It depends on the items
C. 1
29 In psychological testing, raw scores
are? D. -1
* 32. Which standard score is
commonly used in t-tests and regression
1 point
tests and has a standard deviation of
A. Direct reports and unaltered data of a 10?
test taker9s performance
*
B. Total sums of the test-takers
1 point
response after statistical conversion
A. T-scores
C. Interpreted for comparison purposes

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B. Z-score D. There is no issue. The correlation is
nearly perfect and is highly significant.
C. STEN scores
35. Hypothetically, if I were to give you
D. None of the above this test multiple times, what would give
me the range of possible scores you
33. You found in your research that
might obtain?
vigilance is related to life satisfaction
with a correlation coefficient of -.65 and *
a p-value of .06. Which statement is
TRUE in interpreting your result? 1 point

* A. Standard Error of Estimate

1 point B. Standard Error of Measurement

A. Vigilance will result in significantly C. Coefficient of Determination

less life satisfaction.
D. Correlation Coefficient
B. The more an individual feels vigilant,
the more satisfied he/she is with his life. 36. What is the relationship between
reliability coefficients and the standard
C. As vigilance grows, people will likely error of measurement?
be less satisfied with life.
*
D. Individuals who are more satisfied
with their lives tend to exhibit more 1 point
vigilance.
A. The standard error of measurement
E. None of the above are accurate increases as the reliability coefficient
interpretations gets bigger.

34. In a research study, the student is B. The standard error of measurement

confused because the correlation decreases as the reliability coefficient
coefficient is .98. What is the problem, gets bigger.
and what could remedy the issue?
C. The standard error of measurement
* is almost always equal to the reliability
coefficient
1 point
D. The standard error measurement is
A. The sample size is too small for such not related to reliability coefficients.
a correlation. Add more respondents.
37. Marina garnered a raw score of
B. Correlation is not appropriate. Better 80 on an anxiety test with an SEM of 5.
to use a t-test instead. Considering a confidence interval of 95,
which range will her actual level of
C. The variables are multicollinear. anxiety fall under?
Change them.
*

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1 point

A. 75 3 85 *

B. 70 3 90 1 point

C. 65 3 95 A. Internal Consistency 3 Coefficient

Alpha
D. 75 3 80
B. Test-Retest Reliability
38. Suppose all the citizens of Metro
Manila were given an IQ test that utilizes C. Alternate Forms Reliability 3 Delayed
the deviation IQ scale. Assuming
normality, what percentage of the D. Split-Half Reliability
examinees would have an IQ of 85 to
41. Yana is answering a test with
115?
multiple-choice items with only one
* correct answer among the four
alternatives. What method of
1 point establishing internal consistency is
appropriate for this test?
A. 50
*
B. 68
1 point
C. 95
A. Kuder-Richardson 20
D. 99
B. Coefficient Alpha
39. Why is it essential to ensure
reliability in a psychological test? C. Kappa coefficient
* D. Spearman-Brown

1 point 42. After writing items for her reading

comprehension tests, Jamie takes his
A. Because a reliable test is also valid test to English professors at the
university to establish validity. What kind
B. Because it means that the test
of validity is he after?
measures the correct construct
*
C. Because a reliable test produces
representative and relatively stable 1 point
measurements
A. Content Validity
D. Because a reliable test is not affected
by systematic and random errors B. Construct Validity
40. This type of reliability is most C. Criterion-Related Validity
appropriate when measuring time and
content sampling errors. D. All of the above

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43. You were an honor student in high A. Whom is the test intended for?
school, and now that you are in college,
you expect to perform the same or even B. Is there an existing test that is already
better. You tell yourself, <Anong measuring the intended construct?
nangyare sakin?= three years later,
C. What attributes, characteristics, or
because your performance is just
theoretical concepts will the test
average. This shows that?
measure?
*
D. What are the reliability and validity
1 point procedures to be used?

A. Your basis for your expectations has E. None of the above

low construct validity
46. Which of the following is an
B. Your basis for your expectations is advantage of constructed-response test
not reliable but has high content validity. items over selected-response items?

C. Your basis for your expectations has *

low criterion-related validity.
1 point
D. It is impossible to establish future
A. They are easy to prepare
success based on current data
statistically. B. They are easier to quantify
44. Worry is often differentiated from C. They make use of testing time more
rumination in studies. Knowing this, efficiently
Skylar correlates her worry test to a
rumination test. If the correlation is weak D. They are less prone to scoring errors
or insignificant, what did she establish?
47. This is a group of individuals on
* whom the test is administered to
develop the test norms and establish
1 point uniform administration and scoring
procedures.
A. Convergent validity
*
B. Divergent validity
1 point
C. Content validity
A. Standardization sample
D. Both A and B
B. Normative sample
45. The first stage of test development is
usually test conceptualization. In this C. Reference group
stage, which of the following questions
would least likely be raised? D. Group norm

* 48. Strictly speaking,

psychometricians can only administer?
1 point

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* receptionist never mentioned Eddie9s
name.
1 point
50. You are physically attracted to
A. Level A and B tests 3 individual/group your client and think it is mutual. Which
intelligence or structured personality of the following is NOT technically a
tests only violation of the code of ethics?
B. Level A, B, and C tests 3 *
individual/group intelligence, structured
and unstructured personality tests 1 point
C. Level A and B tests 3 group A. Having relations with their family
intelligence or structured personality members
tests only.
B. Having relations with the client after
D. Level A, B, and C tests 3 they have given their consent
individual/group intelligence, structured
and unstructured personality tests with C. Having relations with the client with
supervision. the condition that you refer them to
another therapist.
49. Eddie was unaware that cheaper
alternative treatments were available to D. Having relations with the client two
address his psychological concern. This years after the professional relationship
is a big issue since he did not anticipate has ended
how expensive therapy would be once
his assessments and therapy sessions
started. On top of that, although his
name was not mentioned, he overhears
the receptionist reading his interview
responses, which other clients can hear.
What ethical violations are present in
Eddie9s case?

1 point
A. There was no informed consent.

B. There was no informed consent, and

Eddie9s privacy was violated.

C. There was no informed consent, and

confidentiality was violated.
D. There is no ethical violation. Clients
do not need to know about alternatives
or costs at the get-go, and the

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