NEW air law study guide

DEFINITIONS

1. “Aerial work” means an aircraft operation in which an aircraft is used for specialized services as
determined by the Director such as –
1) agricultural spraying, cloud spraying, aerial harvesting
2) aerial patrol, observation and survey;
3) aerial advertisement, including banner towing and other towing of objects;
4) search and rescue; parachuting;
5) aerial recording by photographic or electronic means;
6) fire spotting, control and fighting;
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

2. Definition of an “aeroplane”

a) means a power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft deriving its lift in flight mainly from
aerodynamic reactions on surfaces which remain fixed under given conditions of
flight;
b) means an aircraft as defined in the Act, including its engines, propellers, rotor, components,
parts, equipment, instruments, accessories and materials;
c) means an aircraft equipped with one or more engines which has, with the engine or engines
not operating, the performance characteristics of a glider;
d) means an aeroplane of which the minimum flying speed and the maximum take-off mass
have been restricted for classification purposes. The values of these restrictions are defined
in Document SA-CATS 24;

3. An “Aircraft Flight Manual”:

a) means a manual acceptable to the State of Operator, containing normal, abnormal and
emergency procedures, checklists, limitations, performance information, details of the aircraft
systems and other material relevant to the operation of the aircraft as prescribed in Parts
121, 127 and 135 and may incorporate the AFM, referred to in regulation 91.03.2;
b) means a manual which provides for the operation of aircraft, subject to specified conditions,
with particular equipment inoperative, prepared by an operator in conformity with, or
more restrictive than, the MMEL established for the aircraft type
c) means a manual, associated with the certificate of airworthiness, containing
limitations within which the aircraft is to be considered airworthy, and instructions
and information necessary to the flight crew members for the safe operation of the
aircraft;

4. Definition of “Certificate of Airworthiness”

a) means a certificate issued in terms of Part 108 to a person approved to accept, store, handle
and tender goods for the carriage by air;
b) means formal evaluation and confirmation by or on behalf of the appropriate authority that a
person possesses the necessary competencies to perform assigned functions to an
acceptable level as defined by the appropriate authority;
c) means the certificate of airworthiness referred to in Article 31 of the Convention,
issued in terms of Subpart 8 of Part 21 of the Regulations, and includes an authority to
fly issued in terms of Subpart 2 of Part 24;

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5. Just before arriving on the apron, taxiing inadvertently on the grass, a wheel falls into a hole, which
seriously damages the aircraft and obliges the crew to delay the departure.

a) This is an irregularity in the operation, the crew must inform the operator of the delay caused
by necessary repair.
b) This is an incident and the pilot-in-command must report it to the airport authority within the
next 48 hours.
c) This is an accident and the crew must follow the procedure relevant to this case.
d) Since no physical injury has been noticed and the flight is over, the actions to be taken are
related only to insurance, to the repair man, the operator and the persons in charge of the
runway and taxiways.

6. Approved training means:

a) Training conducted by a flight instructor at his or her own discretion and which does not have
to go through an ATO
b) Flight training which is approved to be conducted by an individual who is not the holder of a
flight instructor rating
c) Training conducted in terms of Part 141 under special curricula and supervision,
approved by the Director

7. Definition of “Cargo”

a) means any property carried on an aircraft other than stores, unaccompanied or mishandled
baggage;
b) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, unaccompanied or mishandled
baggage;
c) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, unaccompanied or
mishandled baggage;
d) means any property carried on an aircraft other than mail, stores, unaccompanied baggage;

8. “Cloudbreak” procedure

a) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with

specified protection from aircraft from the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual
contact with the surface may be made and from which a landing or circling approach can be
completed
b) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to flight instruments with
specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, to a point at which
visual contact with the surface may be made and from which a landing or circling
approach can be completed
c) means a series of predetermined manoeuvres by reference to VFR with specified protection
from obstacles from the initial approach fix, to a point at which visual contact with the surface
may be made and from which a landing or circling approach can be completed

9. The “empty mass” of an aircraft is:

a) The mass of the aircraft including full fuel, oil, engine coolant, hydraulic fluid and any fixed
ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
b) The mass of the aircraft excluding all fuel, oil engine coolant, and hydraulic fluid but including
any fixed ballast and all items of fixed equipment.
c) The mass of the aircraft, including any engine coolant, unusable fuel, total oil, total
hydraulic fluid, any fixed ballast and all items of fixed equipment.

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10. “Crew member” means:

a) A person assigned by an operator to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight
that are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion
of the flight and include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties
related to a specialised use of the aircraft and have been informed of and accepted the
associated risks thereof
b) A person assigned by the SACAA to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight that
are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion of the flight
and include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties related to a specialised
use of the aircraft and have been informed of and accepted the associated risks thereof
c) A person assigned by an owner to supervise refuelling operations

11. Definition of “Transition altitude”:

a) The Transition Altitude specified at major airports, and is where the pilot is expected to set
the QNH in the subscale of the altimeter
b) The Transition altitude is always at 18000 feet and at this point in the climb the pilot will set
1013 in the subscale
c) The Transition altitude is designated at major airports and is given to the pilot on the ATIS;
this is where he or she is expected to contact ATC after departure
d) The Transition Altitude is designated at major airports and is where the pilot will set
1013 on the climb out to a flight level.

12. Electronic flight bag

a) means a laptop, i-pad or i-phone

b) means an paper information management and display system intended primarily for flight or
cabin crew functions that were traditionally accomplished using electronic references
c) means an electronic information management and display system intended primarily
for flight or cabin crew functions that were traditionally accomplished using paper
references
d) means an electronic information management and display system located only in the flight
deck

13. A “Flight Simulation Training Device” (FSTD) is:

1) full flight simulator realistically simulated
2) flight procedure trainer – simulates flight characteristics of a particular class .
3) basic instrument flight trainer simulates an aircraft in flight in instrument flight conditions.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1&2
b) 2&3
c) 1, 2 & 3
d) None of the above

14. “Flight time – aeroplane” means:

a) The total time the aircraft is airborne on a flight

b) The total time from the moment the pilot first starts the engine until the time that the engine is
shutdown, whether the flight has taken place or not
c) The total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking-off
until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight

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15. “Instrument time” means

a) The time during which a pilot is practicing on the ground simulated flight in an approved
FSTD
b) The entire flight time during which the aircraft is piloted under IFR whether in VMC or IMC
c) Instrument flight time or instrument ground time, as defined

16. “Date of application” is the date:

a) Written on the application form.

b) On which the flight test and the written tests were successfully completed.
c) On which the CAA receives the application in an acceptable form
d) Nil

17. 'Flight' means the time period between the:

a) moment the aircraft commences its take off until the moment it completes the next
landing,
b) moment the aircraft moves under its own power until it comes to rest at the end of the flight,
c) moment the aircraft becomes airborne until the moment of touch down.

18. “Reduced Vertical Separation Minima” means:

a) The reduced separation above flight level 280 of aircraft to a 2000 feet in the opposite
direction and 4000 feet in the same direction
b) The reduced separation above flight level 100 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite
direction and 2000 feet in the same direction
c) The reduced separation above flight level 290 of aircraft to a 1000 feet in the opposite
direction and 2000 feet in the same direction

19. “Glider” means:

a) Heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic
reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight depends on the use
of an engine
b) Lighter-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the dynamic
reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight does not depend on
an engine
c) Heavier-than-air aircraft, other than a hang-glider that is supported in flight by the
dynamic reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces and whereof free flight
does not depend on an engine

20. The transition level:

a) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP

b) is calculated and decided by the commander
c) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been
established
d) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established

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21. “Extended range operations” means

a) Flights conducted over a route that contains a point further than one hour flying time
at the approved one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in
still air, from one adequate aerodrome
b) Flights conducted over a large mass of water further than 90 mins flying time at the approved
one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate
aerodrome
c) Flights conducted over a large mass of water further than 2 hrs flying time at the approved
one-engine inoperative cruise speed, under standard conditions in still air, from an adequate
aerodrome

22. What is the “manoeuvering area”

a) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including runways and aprons but excluding
taxiways
b) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including taxiways and aprons but excluding
runways
c) part of aerodrome used for take-off & landing including runways and taxiways but
excluding aprons
d) part of aerodrome including runways, taxiways and aprons

23. Child is between:

a) Second birth and 10 years old

b) Second birth and 12 years old
c) 5 to 10 years old
d) 5 to 12 years old

24. A natural or artificial entity holding a valid licence and operating certificate or equivalent thereof
authorising such persons to conduct scheduled or non-scheduled commercial air services is

a) An operator
b) Civil Aviation Authority
c) Manufacturer
d) Department of Transport

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PART 12

25. Part 12 is applicable to which operations?

a) All aircraft except turbo-jets

b) Jet aircraft only
c) All aircraft except aircraft so designed to remain moored to the earth or to be kept in
tow by vehicles or vessels moving on the surface of the earth; and aircraft designed
to fly without any person on board.
d) Piston aircraft and light sports aircraft

26. A body or institution designated by the SACAA may be required to perform which functions?
1) promote aviation safety
2) reduce the risk of aviation accidents or incidents
3) advise the Director on any matter connected with the promotion of aviation safety
4) report to the President regarding aviation related matters
Choose the correct combination:

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4

27. Notification of accidents or incidents in order of priority:

a) The Director, an ATSU, nearest police station

b) Nearest Police station, the Director, an ATSU
c) An ATSU, nearest police station, the Director

28. Any notification of an accident or incident referred to in regulation 12.02.1, 12.02.2 or 12.02.3 other
than an ATS incident shall include (amongst others) the following particulars:
1) Type, model, nationality and registration marks of the aircraft
2) The date and time of the accident or incident, specified in co-ordinated time or local time
3) Location of the accident or incident with reference to an easily identifiable geographical
point and if known, with reference to latitude and longitude
4) Number of flight crew members and passengers aboard, killed or seriously injured and
other persons killed or seriously injured
5) Nature of the accident or incident and extent of damage to aircraft as far as is known
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

29. After you have been involved in an accident, may all your statements to the investigator, cockpit
voice recordings or any other document be made available to anyone for purposes other than
accident or incident investigations?

a) Anytime at the discretion of the investigator in charge

b) Never
c) Only when a court of law has ordered so

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30. Who may have access to the scene of an accident:
1) An investigator
2) A member of the media
3) An advisor
4) A member of the public
5) A member of the rescue team
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 4, 5

31. After an accident, can a person from the public go to the scene directly after it happens?

a) No
b) yes
c) Yes, if investigator give authorisation

32. Notification of accidents or incidents outside of the republic:

The appropriate authority
The Director
ATSU
SAP
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3

33. After an accident or incident, the public will have access to the information collected, including
statements, communications with ATC, medical reports of persons involved, information obtained
from the flight data recorder:

a) When the investigation is completed;

b) If requested from the Director of Investigations;
c) If requested from the Director of Civil Aviation;
d) Only if a court of law determines that their public disclosure outweighs the adverse
domestic and international impact.

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PART 61

34. Part 61 applies to:

a) The issuing of pilot licenses and ratings for South African national pilots, the privileges and
limitations of such licences and ratings
b) The issuing, revalidation and re-issuing of South African pilot licences and ratings
c) Flight simulator training devices that may be used by a person to gain aeronautical
experience

35. To acquire a multi-pilot aeroplane type rating the candidate must have (inter-alia) at least the
following experience:

a) 70 hours PIC on aeroplanes

b) 100 hours PIC on aeroplanes
c) 300 hours total time
d) 6 hours of training.

36. The minimum age for the issue of a CPL is:

a) 18
b) 21
c) 17

37. An applicant for an instrument rating, who is the holder of a multi-engine class rating shall inter
alia:

a) Have completed not less than 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours
may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
b) Have completed not less than 30 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20 hours
may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.
c) Have completed not less than 40 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 20
hours may have been acquired on simulators approved by the CAA.

38. The holder of a Part 61 pilot licence wishing to fly conventionally controlled microlight aeroplanes
or light sport aeroplanes, he/she:

a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the

requirements of Part 62
b) Does not have to obtain a NPL, and may do so on meeting the requirements and
undergoing differences or familiarisation training.
c) Must obtain a NPL and all the relevant ratings.

39. The holder of a Part 61 pilot licence wishing to fly conventionally controlled microlight aeroplanes
or light sport aeroplanes, he/she:

a) May do so without meeting any requirements as a Part 61 licence supersedes the

requirements of Part 62
b) Does not have to obtain a NPL, and may do so on meeting the requirements and
undergoing differences or familiarisation training.
c) Must obtain a NPL and all the relevant ratings.

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40. An applicant for a Commercial Pilot Licence shall have completed in aeroplanes not less than:

a) 25 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 15 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD
b) 25 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD.
c) 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 5 hours may have been acquired in a
FSTD .
d) 20 hours of instrument time, of which not more than 10 hours may have been acquired
in a FSTD.

41. The privileges of the holder of a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall be:

a) to act as pilot-in command in any aeroplane engaged in operations other than

commercial air transportation
b) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane engaged in commercial air transportation
c) to act as pilot in command in any aeroplane certificate for single pilot operation other than in
commercial air transportation
d) none of the answers are correct

42. An applicant for a commercial pilot licence-aeroplane shall have completed not less than ........
hours of cross country flight time as pilot in command including a cross country flight totalling not
less than ........ km (- NM), in the course of which full stop landings at two different aerodromes
shall be made. The hours and distance referred are:

a) 20 hours and 270 km (150NM)

b) 20 hours and 540 km (300NM)
c) 10 hours and 270 km (150 NM)
d) 15 hours and 540 km (300NM)

43. The holder of a pilot licence when acting as co-pilot performing under the supervision of the pilot in
command the functions and duties of a pilot in command shall be entitled to be credit:

a) the flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence in accordance
with the requirements of the licensing authority
b) 50% of his flight time towards the total time required for higher grade of pilot licence
c) to a maximum of 500 hours with such flight time towards total time required for higher
grade of pilot licence
d) in full with his flight but not more than 300 hours towards the total time required for a higher
grade of pilot licence

44. Licences issued under Part 61 are:

1. NPL
2. SPL
3. PPL
4. CPL
5. ATPL
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements are:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 3, 4, 5

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45. The holder of a CPL (aeroplane) may exercise the following privileges in any aeroplane for which
he/she holds the appropriate class or type rating, endorsed in the crew member’s logbook or
license:
1) Exercise all the privileges of a PPL (aeroplane)
2) In operations other than the carrying of passengers or freight for reward, act as PIC in
any aeroplane
3) Act as PIC in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane certified for single-
pilot operation
4) Act as co-pilot in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane requiring by
certification to be operated with a minimum of 2 pilots
5) Act as safety pilot
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5

46. Maintenance of competency for a CPL (Aeroplane) - in the case of a holder of a CPL where the
maintenance of competency has lapsed by not more than 36 months, the licence holder shall be
required to:

a) comply with the initial issue requirements of Subpart 61.05.

b) rewrite the Air Law examination; undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved
ATO to reach the standard required for the revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and
meet the recency requirements to act as PIC; and pass an initial licence skills test in the
same category of aircraft.
c) passing a revalidation check or an initial licence skills test in the same category of aircraft
d) undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the
standard required for the revalidation check of a CPL (Aeroplane), and meet the
recency requirements to act as PIC; and pass a revalidation check in the same
category of aircraft;

47. The holder of a pilot licence issued in terms of Part 61 may not exercise the privileges of that
licence –
1) Unless that person holds an appropriate valid medical certificate issued in terms of part
67 and complies with all medical endorsements on that medical
2) While he/she is aware of having a medical deficiency that would make him/her unable to
meet the medical standards for his/her medical certificate, until he/she has been
assessed and declared medically fit again by an aviation medical examiner designated
in terms of Part 67
3) When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use
of any psychoactive substance
4) When he/she is unable to act as a flight crew member of an aircraft because of the use
of alcohol
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4

48. An applicant for a CPL must undergo the skills test within

a) 14 days of the last period of dual instruction

b) 90 days of the last period of dual instruction
c) 30 days of the last period of dual instruction
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49. If the skills test / revalidation check is conducted within 90 days prior to expiry:

a) the new expiry will be valid until the previous expiry date
b) the new expiry will be calculated from the previous date of expiry
c) the new expiry will be calculated from the previous date of the test

50. Establishment of separate type rating for aeroplanes will be assessed on the basis of three criteria.
One of these three criteria is that the aeroplane has:

a) Handling characteristics that require additional flying or simulator training

b) Handling characteristics that require the use of more than one crew member
c) A certificate of airworthiness issued by a non-member state.
d) A certificate of airworthiness issued by the manufacturer.

51. Further difference training or a proficiency check will be required if a variant is not flown within a
period of:

a) 90 days following the differences training or the date of last having flown the variant
b) 12 months following the differences training or the date of last having flown the variant
c) 24 months following the differences training or the date of last having flown the
variant

52. Within how many days following any skills test shall the forms be submitted

a) 14 days
b) 15 days
c) 21 days
d) 30 days

53. An example of a class rating:

a) a single engine piston aircraft

b) aeroplane
c) glider

54. An applicant for a CPL must undergo the skills test within:

a) 36 months of completing the required examinations

b) 24 months of completing the required examinations
c) 18 months of completing the required examinations

55. An applicant for an Instrument Rating shall…..

a) Have completed not less than 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least
20 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
b) Have completed not less than 20 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at least
10 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument rating is sought.
c) Have completed not less than 50 hours of cross country flight time as PIC of which at
least 10 hours must have been in the category of aircraft for which the instrument
rating is sought.

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56. In the case of a holder of an instrument rating which has lapsed by less than 36 months, the
license holder shall be required to:
1) Undergo sufficient ground and flight training at an approved ATO to reach the standard
required for the revalidation check and instrument rating including at least 5 instrument
approach procedures and a missed approach
2) Re-write and pass the Air Law and Procedures examination
3) Pass a revalidation check in the same category of aircraft or a FSTD
4) Pass an initial skills test in the same category of aircraft or in a FSTD
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4

57. The holder of a CPL (aeroplane) may exercise the following privileges in any aeroplane for which
he/she holds the appropriate class or type rating, endorsed in the crew member’s logbook or
license:
1) Exercise all the privileges of a PPL (aeroplane)
2) In operations other than the carrying of passengers or freight for reward, act as PIC in
any aeroplane
3) Act as PIC in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane certified for single-
pilot operation
4) Act as co-pilot in commercial air transport operations in any aeroplane requiring by
certification to be operated with a minimum of 2 pilots
5) Act as safety pilot
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4, 5

58. An applicant for a licence, rating, revalidation, class or type rating or any familiarisation or
differences training must have the applicable endorsements in his or her pilot logbook as described
in Document SA-CATS 61. (2) The endorsement must include, but is not limited to, the following
details –
1) Date of the skills test;
2) Aircraft registration and type;
3) Name of student
4) Name and licence number of examiner;
5) Name of the ATO.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 4, 5

59. An applicant for an initial single-pilot, multi-engine class rating must have completed, on a multi-
engine aircraft, a minimum:

a) 6 Hours dual flight training.

b) 7 Hours dual flight training.
c) 6 Hours dual and 5 hours instrument flight training.
d) Nil
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60. An applicant for a single-pilot multi-engine type rating must have at least:

a) 70 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes

b) 300 hours experience in aeroplanes
c) 100 hours experience as PIC of aeroplanes

61. You decide to practice instrument approaches in VMC by night, you may:

a) Do so at your discretion without any aid provided you are outside of controlled airspace
b) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds an
instrument rating
c) Only do so with the assistance of a safety pilot who occupies a pilot seat and holds at least a
VFR PPL and night rating

62. The revalidation check for a licence other than a PPL must be done by a

a) Grade II flight instructor.

b) DFE.
c) Grade I flight instructor.

63. Instrument rating requirements: the minimum total hour requirement to apply for an Instrument
rating is:

a) 100 hours
b) 150 hours, including 50 hours of cross country time
c) 200 hours, of which 20 hours can be in a FSTD approved for the purpose
d) There is no minimum hour requirement.

64. Maintenance of competency is revalidated for a CPL holder every 24 months. If this maintenance
of competency lapses by more than 36 months, then:

a) the CPL can be revalidated by passing a proficiency check carried out by a DFE;
b) the CPL can be revalidated by passing an air law and procedure examination and
passing a proficiency check carried out by a DFE;
c) the CPL holder will have to do sufficient ground and flight training at an ATO in order to pass
a proficiency check with a DFE to revalidate the competency;
d) The CPL holder will have to do sufficient ground and flight training (including 3 take-offs and
landings) to pass the initial skills test with a DFE to revalidate the competency.

65. An applicant for a single pilot multi-engine aeroplane type rating shall have at least:

a) 6 hours theoretical knowledge and 7 hours dual flight training

b) 5 hours theoretical knowledge and 6 hours dual flight training
c) 7 hours theoretical knowledge and 6 hours dual flight training
d) 6 hours theoretical knowledge and 5 hours dual flight training

66. Providing that the requirements regarding maintenance of competency are complied with, an
instrument rating shall be valid for:

a) 12 months
b) 6 months for the initial and 12 months thereafter
c) 10 years
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PART 67

67. If a medical examination reveals a medical fitness standard below that required, the CAA shall
suspend that license:

a) For a maximum of 14 days.

b) For a period not exceeding 6 months
c) Until the holder is able to show that he is able to meet the applicable medical
requirements
d) Nil

68. Regarding Medical examinations, the Director must:

a) Not determine standards for examinations or tests and for the training of aviation medical
examiners
b) Exercise control over medical drugs prescribed to aviation personnel
c) Exercise control over medical examinations or tests and over aviation medical
examiners performing such examinations

69. In the event that you have had a minor surgical operation or invasive procedure, you must

a) Immediately surrender your medical certificate

b) Not worry as it does not affect your medical certificate validity
c) Notify the designated body or institution

70. What is the validity period of class 1 medical certificate between 40 and 60 years hold

a) 24 month
b) 12 month
c) 6 month

71. Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more

a) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years may not act as pilot of an
aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations, except as a member of
a multi-pilot crew and provided that such holder is the only member of the multi-pilot crew
who has attained the age of 60 years
b) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as PIC of an
aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations.
c) A holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years may not act as pilot of
an aircraft engaged in international commercial air transport operations, except as a
member of a multi-pilot crew and provided that such holder is the only member of the
multi-pilot crew who has attained the age of 60 years

72. If a licence holder is unable to perform the flight crew functions appropriate to that licence due to
illness, the authority must be informed:

a) if still not fit to fly when his/her current medical certificate expires
b) After 21 days of consecutive "illness"
c) as soon as possible if the illness is expected to last more than 21days
d) after one calendar month of consecutive illness

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73. Class 1 medical will be issued:

a) For a CPL, 6 months if the candidate is under 40 years of age for single pilot operation;
b) For a CPL over 40 years of age, for 12 months, unless he or she operates in a single pilot
operation, then it is issued for 6 months;
c) For an ATP in any multi-crew commercial operation it will be issued for 6 months;
d) For a CPL or ATP in any multi-crew operation it will be issued for 6 months if the
candidate is over 60 years.

74. A person whose medical certificate has been suspended may appeal to the Director within

a) 12 months from date of expiry

b) 30 days from date of expiry
c) 14 days from date of expiry

75. How long is the medical valid for an ATPL pilot flying single-crew environment

a) 6 months
b) 12 months
c) 24 months

76. Which class of medical certificate is required for a Commercial Pilot Licence?

a) Class 1
b) Class 2
c) Class 3

77. In the event that you were absent due to illness for a period of more than 21 days, you must:

a) immediately surrender your medical certificate

b) not worry as it does not affect your medical certificate’s validity
c) notify the designated body or instituted

78. The holder of a crew member licence who has given birth may act as a flight crew member:

a) Only after 12 weeks of giving birth

b) After 2 weeks of giving birth
c) After 6 weeks of giving birth

79. If the medical examination for the CPL is suspended by a DAME, the pilot may appeal this
suspension within:

a) 14 days
b) 21 days
c) 30 days
d) 90 days

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PART 91

80. SA radio communication failure procedures for flights under IFR in IMC:

a) Only distinguish between flights IFR encountering VMC conditions and those that don’t
b) Assume that flights will route towards the nearest area with VMC as soon as possible
c) Assume only procedural separation between aircraft
d) Distinguish between flights in airspace where an ATS surveillance system is used in
the provision of ATC and flights in airspace where it is not

81. No owner or operator shall permit the taxing of and no person shall taxi an aircraft on the
movement areas of an aerodrome unless the person at the controls of the aircraft:
1) Is the holder of a valid pilot license
2) Has received instruction in the taxiing of an aircraft from, and has been declared
competent to taxi an aircraft by holder of a flight instructor’s rating or in the case of a
foreign aircraft, a person authorised by an appropriate authority
3) If a person uses a radio apparatus, such person is authorised to use the radio apparatus
4) Is conversant with the aerodrome layout, routes, signs, markings, lighting, air traffic
service signals and instructions, phraseology and procedures, if required, and is able to
perform to the standards required for safe movements at such aerodrome. Provided the
aircraft does not enter the manoeuvring area in a case where radio communication is
mandatory.
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4

82. A signalman uses the following signal: Arms down with palms towards the ground, then moved up
and down several times: this means:

a) Brakes on
b) Start taxi
c) Slow down
d) Stop

83. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations, if prior
to each flight the expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for
all flying of:

a) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days

b) 700 hours during the preceding 6 months
c) 8 hours within a 24 hour period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time and
duty period schedule

84. No owner, operator or PIC of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of or operation on
board the aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may adversely affect the
performance of the systems and equipment of the aircraft: This does not apply to:

a) A cellular telephone without flight mode

b) An electric shaver
c) A notebook which may be used at any time

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85. The PIC of an aircraft which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the purpose of landing
shall:

a) Fly overhead the aerodrome at least at circuit altitude to establish the runway in use
b) Fly overhead at least at 2000 ft to establish the runway in use
c) Join the circuit and land on the most convenient runway relative to the aircraft’s position.

86. Above FL100, day and night, flight visibility and distance from cloud for VFR flight must be:

a) 8 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.

b) 5 km visibility, 2 000 feet horizontally and 500 feet vertically.
c) 5 km visibility, horizontally 1.5 km and 1 000 feet vertically.

87. Who is responsible for the signing of the load and trim sheet?

a) the operator
b) the pilot in command
c) the loadmaster

88. A pilot who wishes to carry passengers on a flight by night must have completed at least 3 take-
offs and landings in the preceding 90 days in:

a) if a type rating is required, any aeroplane with similar characteristics and performance by
night
b) any level of FSTD
c) the same class of aeroplane by night

89. No person shall fly any aircraft whatsoever in the air space of a prohibited area:
1) Below the height specified above the ground surface of such area
2) Unless permission has been obtained from the relevant authority

a) 1 is correct; 2 is correct
b) 1 is incorrect; 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct; 2 is incorrect

90. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that:

a) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on

board.
b) The aircraft's stairs must be completely extended.
c) Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
d) All the flight crew must be on board.

91. The SA radio communication failure procedure for IFR in IMC, as contained in CAR 2011:

a) Correspond to ICAO procedures

b) Have absolutely no relation to ICAO procedures
c) Differ from ICAO procedures in terms of the time spent maintaining the last assigned speed
and level before climbing to the level in the current flight plan
d) Differ from ICAO procedures in several respects

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92. You are on an IFR flight plan in IMC conditions when you experience a communications failure.
However, an ATC clearance was received restricting you to a level below the flight level specified
in the current flight plan. Your actions should be:

a) Maintain the last assigned flight level for 7 minutes and then climb at a normal rate of
climb to the flight plan level.
b) Climb immediately to the flight plan level.
c) If terrain permits, descend until VMC.

93. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations if prior
to each flight the expected flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for
all flying of:

a) 600 hrs during the preceding 6 months

b) 10 hrs within a 24 hr period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time
and duty period scheme
c) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days

94. When it appears that a passenger on board your flight displays symptoms of a communicable
disease, you as PIC shall immediately notify:

a) The South African Police Services

b) The Director
c) The Port Health Authority (PHA)
d) The other passengers

95. No person shall operate an aircraft over water equivalent to ….. minutes at normal cruising speed
or ….. NM, whichever is the lessor unless such aircraft is equipped with life rafts and survival
equipment:

a) 30 mins and 50 nm.

b) 50 mins and 30 nm.
c) 50 mins and 50 nm.
d) 30 mins and 30 nm.

96. Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, and ATS flight plan for a flight to be
conducted in controlled or advisory airspace shall be filled:

a) For domestic flight, at least 60 minutes before departure

b) If filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in
such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible ATSU at least 5 minutes before the
aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point or entry into the controlled or advisory
airspace
c) For international flights, at least 60 minutes before departure

97. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes by the following signals:

a) Raising arm and hand horizontally in front of body, fingers extended then clenching
fist.
b) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inwards.
c) Crossing arms extended above his head.
d) Horizontally moving hands, fingers extended, palms toward ground.

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98. No person shall act as a flight crew member of an aircraft engaged in single pilot operations, if prior
to each flight the expected flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed the permissible aggregate for
all flying of:

a) 300 hours during the preceding 90 days

b) 700 hours during the preceding 6 months
c) 8 hours within a 24 hour period for pilots who are not subject to an approved flight time and
duty period schedule

99. The maximum indicated airspeed for an aircraft flying outside controlled airspace below 10 000
feet is:

a) 200 knots
b) 250 knots,
c) 300 knots.

100. No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing of take-off, except:

a) in the case of emergency involving the safety of the aircraft

b) with the permission of the Public Roads Department
c) where no licensed aerodrome is available

101. No pilot who is part of a multi-pilot crew of an aircraft flying under IFR shall have:

a) Flown more than 10 hours during the preceding 7 days.

b) Flown more than 38 hours during the preceding 14 days.
c) Flown more than 120 hours during the preceding 30 days.

102. A series of green flashes of light from the tower to an aircraft taxiing means

a) Cleared for take-off.

b) Return to starting point on the aerodrome.
c) Cleared to taxi.
d) Stop

103. Admission to the flight deck is permitted if:

a) The person is made familiar with all safety equipment and pertinent operational
procedures;
b) The flight operations department permits persons who are not crew, to the flight deck;
c) The Flight Operations Manual permits persons on to the flight deck;
d) Is only permitted if the person is not permitted to sit in any pilot seat.

104. The pilot operating on or in the vicinity of an aerodrome where there is no Air Traffic Control, shall
be responsible for:

a) Making all turns to the right when other air traffic are observed doing so.
b) Making all turns to the left unless a right hand circuit is in force.
c) Making turns to the left or right, providing there is no risk of collision.
d) Nil

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105. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:

a) must stop.
b) must return to its point of departure.
c) may continue to taxi to the take-off area.
d) must vacate the landing area in use.

106. The PIC of an aircraft shall ensure that when a flight is conducted above FL 410:

a) At least one pilot wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves the flight deck for any
reason.
b) At least one crew member wears an oxygen mask when the pilot leaves the flight deck for
any reason.
c) At least one passenger wears an oxygen mask when the pilot leaves the flight deck for any
reason
d) At least one pilot at a pilot station wears an oxygen mask when the other pilot leaves
the flight deck for any reason.

107. During a straight-in non-precision approach an aeroplane may descend to:

a) The system minima or MDH, whichever is lower

b) MDH minus circling minima, if included
c) The system minima or the MDH, whichever is the higher
d) The higher of the DH or the State minima

108. Psychoactive substances:

a) Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis, cocaine, tobacco and caffeine
b) Any substance with psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
tobacco and caffeine
c) Any substance without psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
tobacco and caffeine
d) Any substance without psychotropic effects including cannabis & cocaine but excluding
tobacco and caffeine

109. With reference to “Approach Ban” – The PIC may continue the approach to DA/H or MDA/H if –

a) at the time the RVR report is received, the aircraft has passed the FAF inbound or,
where there is no FAF, the point where the final approach course is intercepted or, in
the case of a non-precision approach, below 1 000 feet above the aerodrome;
b) the aircraft is on a flight where a landing is not intended
c) the RVR is varying between distances less than the minimum RVR.

110. How many hours after being involved in an accident are you allowed to drink?

a) 6 hrs
b) 8 hrs
c) 12 hrs
d) 24 hrs

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111. No owner, operator or PIC of an aircraft or person shall permit the operation of or operation on
board the aircraft during flight time, any portable electronic device which may adversely affect the
performance of the systems and equipment of the aircraft: This does not apply to:

a) A cellular telephone without flight mode

b) An electric shaver
c) A notebook which may be used at any time

112. Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from the
tower. The aircraft:

a) must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time.
b) is cleared to land.
c) must land immediately and clear the landing area.
d) must give way to another aircraft.

113. On aerodromes aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give way to:

a) all vehicles moving on the apron except the "follow me" vehicle
b) aircraft taking off or about to take off
c) other vehicles and pedestrians
d) other converging aircraft

114. According to SA-CATS 91.07.5, for a precision approach category I runway to be classified as
having full facilities, the minimum length of HI/MI approach lighting required is:

a) 720 m
b) 1 200 m
c) 900 m
d) 420 m

115. When is a pilot required to go for substance abuse testing?

a) When requested to do so
b) Only when required by the Director or Medical Examiner
c) He should not go

116. As stated under Part 91 CAR's, no person shall consume alcohol less than:

a) 16 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,

b) 12 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty,
c) 8 hrs prior to commencing standby for flight duty.
d) Nil

117. “Terrain awareness and warning systems” are required for:

a) All aircraft operating commercially in accordance with IFR

b) All turbine engine aircraft operating according to IFR
c) Turbine engine aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5 700 kg
or authorised to carry more than 9 passengers operating according to IFR

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118. The required distance from clouds within a control zone under normal VFR conditions is:

a) 500 meters horizontally and 300 feet vertically

b) 600 meters horizontally and 500 feet vertically
c) 1500 meters horizontally and 1000 feet horizontally

119. An aircraft which is following a railway line within 1 nautical mile shall, unless otherwise instructed
by ATC:

a) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the left of the railway line
b) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line
c) Remain above a minimum height of 1500 ft AGL

120. The PIC of an aircraft which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the purpose of landing
shall:

a) Fly overhead the aerodrome at least at circuit altitude to establish the runway in use
b) Fly overhead at least at 2000 ft to establish the runway in use
c) Join the circuit and land on the most convenient runway relative to the aircraft’s position.

121. Destination alternate planning minima for aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing
operations, but not supporting straight-in approach and landing operations to at least 2 runway
ends, according to SA CATS 135 is:

a) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 400 ft plus a
visibility increment of 1500 m
b) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 200 ft plus a visibility
increment of 800 m
c) In the case of a non-precision approach, the non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to the
MDH and 1000 m added to the RVR/visibility and the ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft

122. Unless otherwise authorised by an ATC, no person shall fly an aircraft within a control zone or an
aerodrome traffic zone at an indicated airspeed or more than:

a) 180 knots piston engine aircraft and 210 knots turbine powered aircraft
b) 160 knots piston engine aircraft and 200 knots turbine powered aircraft
c) 170 knots piston engine aircraft and 220 knots turbine powered aircraft

123. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the aircraft that has he other
on its right shall give way, except:

a) gliders shall give way to balloons, airships shall give way to gliders and balloons,
b) gliders shall give way to airships and balloons.
c) None of the above
d) Nil

124. Training in a FSTD:

a) May not be logged

b) May be logged
c) May be logged provided it is certified by the instructor
d) Does not count towards your total time
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125. The pilot of an aircraft observes the anti-collision beacon and the red Navigation light of another
aircraft on a relative bearing of 030, the bearing remaining constant.
a) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the right
b) there is no danger of collision
c) there is a danger of collision, alter heading to the left

126. The lowest visibility or RVR that a single-engine aircraft may use for take-off is:
a) 3000 m
b) 800 m
c) 500 m
d) 1500 m

127. The minimum cruise level for IFR flight is:

a) 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle.
b) 2 000 ft above the highest obstacle.
c) 1 000 ft above the highest obstacle 5 000 ft or below.
d) Nil

128. No person shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off in an aircraft, except;
a) In an emergency involving the safety of the aircraft or its occupants
b) For the purpose of saving human lives,
c) When involved in civil defence or law enforcement operations.
d) All of the above

129. A marshaller signal: “Either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand across throat, palm downward.
The hand is moved side wards with the arm remaining bent” – indicates:
a) Stop
b) Brakes
c) Cut engine
d) Chocks

130. An aircraft which is following a railway line within 1 nautical mile shall, unless otherwise instructed
by ATC:
a) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the left of the railway line
b) If flying at or below 1500 ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line
c) Remain above a minimum height of 1500 ft AGL

131. When is a take-off alternate aerodrome required?

a) When flying any multi-engine aircraft which is not able to comply with the take-off
performance conditions specified in SA CATS 91
b) When weather conditions at the aerodrome of departure are below the applicable
minima for landing
c) When departing from an aerodrome with SID performance requirements which cannot be
complied with
d) Requirements are specified in SA CATS Parts 121, 127 and 135 and are operator defined

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132. Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight
to be recorded –

a) 7 days in the case of flights not for hire and reward (Part 91 operations), flight training,
and domestic commercial air transport operations;
b) 4 days in the case of international commercial air transport operations;
c) 8 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept.

133. An aircraft shall display, if so equipped, an anti-collision light:

a) outside the daylight-period in flight, but not on the ground when it is being towed;
b) while taxiing, but not when it is being towed;
c) outside the daylight-period at engine-start. During the daylight-period this is not applicable;
d) on the ground when the engines are running

134. When is an aircraft required to be equipped with Terrain Awareness and Warning Systems
(TAWS)?

a) Aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700 kg or authorised to carry

more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
b) Turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 5700
kg or authorised to carry more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
c) Aircraft of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry
more than 9 pax operating according to IFR
d) Turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in excess of 15 000 kg or
authorised to carry more than 9 pax operating according to IFR

135. When requesting a pilot to engage the parking brake, a marshaller will give the following signal:

a) Arms repeatedly crossed above the head

b) Arms placed down and crossed in front of the body moving horizontally
c) Raise arm and hand with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clench
fist
d) Arms placed horizontally sideways with palms towards the ground beckoning downwards

136. No person may operate a turbine engine aeroplane of a maximum certificated take-off mass in
excess of 15 000 kg or authorised to carry more than 30 passengers, for which the individual
certificate of airworthiness was issued after 1 January 2007, unless such aircraft is equipped with:

a) ACAS & TAWS.

b) TAWS.
c) ACAS.
d) RVSM.

137. The Director may by notice in the AIP declare any area to be a restricted area and shall when so
declaring an area to be a restricted area, specify in the notice in question:
1) The nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in question
2) The authorization under which flights in such restricted are shall be permitted.

a) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
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138. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:

a) Dangerous airfield. Do not land.

b) Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
c) Come back and land.
d) Give way to another aircraft and hold the circuit.

139. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:

a) glider flying is performed outside the landing area;

b) taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways ;
c) landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only;
d) this aerodrome is using parallel runways

140. May a pilot in a multi-crew environment leave his/her assigned station during flight?

a) Yes, provided it is for physiological needs and at least one suitably qualified pilot
remains at the controls of the aircraft at all times
b) No, it is not allowed
c) Yes, provided another person sits at his/her station during the time the person is away.

141. When two aircraft are approaching head on or approximately so and there is a danger of collision,
each aircraft shall:

a) Follow the ICAO deviation procedure as listed in ICAO Doc 4444

b) Alter heading to the right
c) Alter heading to the left

142. With respect to multi crew certificated aircraft the PIC is bound by Part 91’s recency requirements.
The three take-off and landings must be done as:

a) Pilot monitoring
b) Pilot flying
c) Pilot monitoring or Pilot flying

143. No person shall operate an aeroplane, unless such aeroplane is equipped with a flotation device or
life jacket containing a survivor locator light for each person on board:

a) when flying over land & beyond gliding distance from water
b) when flying over water & beyond gliding distance from land;
c) when flying beyond 50 nautical miles from land
d) when flying beyond 30 nautical miles from land;

144. Except with the approval of the Director, the crew of any aircraft:

a) must maintain communication at all times with boom or throat microphones;

b) must maintain communication on 121.5MHz with boom or throat microphones;
c) must maintain communication on boom or throat microphones with each other;
d) must maintain communication with boom or throat microphones when below
transition altitude or transition level when on the flight deck of a large aeroplane.

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145. Subject to all provisions, Special VFR operations may be done:

a) by day or by night
b) by night only
c) by day only

146. The PIC of an aircraft may pick up an object:

a) With approval from the Director

b) Only when he/she has obtained prior written approval from the Director
c) At the discretion of the PIC
d) With permission from the Operator

147. All flight crew members involved in large aeroplanes operations and who are required to be on the
flight deck duty shall:

a) ensure that each crew member can be heard in an audible manner on the flight deck
b) may use a speaker and hand held microphone during all phases of flight
c) communicate through boom or throat microphones below the transitions level /
altitude

148. A double white cross displayed horizontally in the signal area means:

a) Need special precautions while approaching for landing.

b) The aerodrome is being used by gliders and that glider flights are being performed.
c) An area unit for the movement of aircraft.
d) Special precautions must be observed due to bad state of the taxiways.

149. An extended flight over water, aircraft not equipped with life rafts is limited to:

a) gliding distance from the shore except during take-off and landing
b) route where no portion of the flight is further than 50 nm from the shore
c) route where no portion of flight is further than 90 minutes from the shore, calculated at the
cruising speed of the aircraft

150. An aircraft shall be equipped with means for indicating the adequacy of the power being supplied
to:

a) All instruments
b) All equipment
c) Required flight instruments

151. Final reserve fuel is:

a) the extra amount of fuel to be carried at the discretion of the PIC

b) for a reciprocating engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes under
speed and conditions specified by the Director
c) for a turbine engine aeroplane, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at
holding speed at 1 500 ft above aerodrome elevation

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152. Pilots may fly RNAV routes provided they have:

a) done initial GNSS training and the 12 month revalidation is valid.

b) done GNSS training and the 6 month revalidation is valid.
c) done initial GNSS training and revalidation every 3 months.

153. In which of the following circumstances may a conversion between Met Vis and RVR not be used?

a) Take-off minima
b) Landing minima
c) When operating Cat D or E aeroplanes
d) When operating multi engine aeroplanes

154. As far as the planning minima for IFR are concerned, in which of the following must the cloud
ceiling be taken into account?

a) When the only approaches available are VOR, VOR/DME, NDB or circling approaches
b) Where an IFR flight is planned to an aerodrome en route where the approach can be made
to encounter VMC and then continued to the destination
c) In all cases

155. A flight plan to be filed for a flight to be conducted in controlled airspace shall be filed:

a) 30 minutes before entering controlled airspace.

b) 30 minutes before departure for an international flight.
c) Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, 30 minutes before departure.
d) 24 hours before departure

156. A commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel remaining in flight is not less than the
fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe landing can be made with:

a) fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.

b) 15 minutes of remaining fuel.
c) final reserve fuel remaining.
d) fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome.

157. No pilot shall operate an aircraft in formation flight, except:

a) By prior written approval having been granted by the Director

b) By arrangement between the pilot-in-command of each aircraft
c) In uncontrolled airspace
d) Nil

158. The weather conditions at an IFR take-off alternate aerodrome are required to:

a) To be at or above the applicable landing minima

b) Comply with the criteria for en route aerodromes
c) Comply with the enhanced minima requirements for destination alternate aerodromes
d) Be equal to or better than applicable minima for take-off

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159. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

a) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is
required to remain clear of clouds and in sight of the ground.
b) A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC.
c) A flight in IMC where the pilot and/or aeroplane are unable to comply with the requirements
for VFR.
d) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit an area in IMC without compliance with
IFR.

160. Unless otherwise authorised by the responsible ATSU, and ATS flight plan for a flight to be
conducted in controlled or advisory airspace shall be filled:

a) For domestic flight, at least 60 minutes before departure

b) If filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in
such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible ATSU at least 5 minutes before the
aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point or entry into the controlled or advisory
airspace
c) For international flights, at least 60 minutes before departure

161. Distress signals are signals made by radio telephony or by any signalling method consisting of:
1) signal sent by radio telephony consisting of spoken word mayday x 3
2) rocket shells throwing red lights fired one at a time and at short intervals
3) parachute flare showing red lights
Choose the correct combination:

a) 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3

162. At night when flying by IFR and except when taking-off or landing, the minimum height above the
height of the highest obstacle at 5 000 feet or below and within 5 NM of the aircraft is:

a) 1 500 ft.
b) 1 000 ft.
c) 2 000 ft.
d) Nil

163. If the marshaller: “arms repeatedly crossed above his head” this means:

a) Brakes
b) Chocks
c) Cut engines
d) Stop

164. For which flight are you required to carry a passenger manifest?

a) International
b) Domestic
c) Both

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165. If a flight plan has not been activated, it will automatically be cancelled after:

a) 30 minutes.
b) 1 hour.
c) 10 minutes.
d) 24 hours.

166. No article other than fine sand or clean water used as ballast or chemical substances for the
purpose of spraying or dusting may be dropped from an aircraft in flight except:

a) In a emergency.
b) By special permission granted by the Director of Civil Aviation (DCA).
c) Both a and b are correct.

167. When an aircraft is operated without a destination alternate, the required destination alternate fuel
to be carried is:

a) The amount of fuel required to enable the aircraft to fly for 15 mins at holding speed 1500 ft
above destination alternate elevation in standard conditions
b) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel to fly for 30 mins at normal cruise
consumption above destination aerodrome
c) For a reciprocating engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 mins

168. When a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome the required destination
alternate fuel to be carried shall be:

a) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 2 hours at normal
cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel
b) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruise
consumption above the destination aerodrome
c) For a reciprocating engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes

169. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) shall not be used for flights operated regularly on the same day(s) of
consecutive weeks and:

a) On at least 20 days consecutively

b) On at least 20 occasions
c) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least ten consecutive days
d) On at least ten occasions or every day over a period of at least 20 consecutive days

170. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions. You should:

a) request ATC for other instructions.

b) select code A7500 on your transponder.
c) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
d) follow ATC instructions.

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171. According to Part 91, a noise certificate (if such certificate has been issued for the type of aircraft)
is required to be carried on board for:

a) Domestic flight only

b) International flight only
c) Both Domestic and International flights

172. An aircraft intercepting in front and to the left rocking its wings means:

a) follow me away from a prohibited area

b) follow me to a landing area
c) extend your landing gear

173. An Emergency Locator Transmitter is required to be carried by all flights, except:

a) All training flights;

b) Aerial work except for aircraft used for spraying of chemicals for agricultural purposes;
c) Any flight remaining within a radius of 100 nm of the point of departure;
d) Any aircraft that has the ELT repaired can operate for not longer than 60 days without one.

174. The ATS flight plan shall not be filed in respect of –

a) a flight crossing an airway or advisory routes at right angles

b) an international flight;
c) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by
the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and
search and rescue services; and
d) any flight within or into designated areas, or along designated routes, when so required by
the appropriate ATS authority to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with
ATSUs in adjacent States in order to avoid the possible need for interception for the purpose
of identification.

175. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions. You should:

a) follow ATC instructions.

b) request ATC for other instructions.
c) follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft.
d) select code A7500 on your transponder.

176. Destination alternate planning minima for aerodromes supporting instrument approach and landing
operations, but not supporting straight-in approach and landing operations to at least 2 runway
ends, according to SA CATS 135 is:

a) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 400 ft plus a
visibility increment of 1500 m
b) The applicable aerodrome operating minima plus a ceiling increment of 200 ft plus a visibility
increment of 800 m
c) In the case of a non-precision approach, the non-precision minima plus 200 ft added to the
MDH and 1000 m added to the RVR/visibility and the ceiling must be above the MDH + 200 ft

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177. Having been intercepted, the signal from the intercepting aircraft to the intercepted aircraft to
indicate that it is clear to proceed is:

a) Cut across in front of the intercepted aircraft

b) Rocking wings
c) Breaking climbing turn left
d) Flashing lights

178. If aircraft “A” files a flight plan and aircraft “B” does not:

a) “A” has priority.

b) No one has priority.
c) “A” may be given priority.
d) Priority will be given to a commercial flight.

179. Except with the written permission of the CAA no aircraft shall circle over or within 1 km of or make
repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons below a height of:

a) 3 000 ft above the surface

b) 2 000 ft above sea level
c) 1 000 ft above the surface

180. An aerodrome with runway and centreline lighting – what is the lowest take-off minima for a Cat D
aircraft?

a) RVR 250 m
b) RVR 200 m
c) RVR 500 m
d) RVR 150 m

181. On a VFR flight from X to Z an airway has to be crossed at right angles. Both X and Z are situated
outside Controlled airspace.

a) A flight plan may not be filed.

b) A flight plan must be filed if search and rescue is required.
c) A flight plan must be filed with the nearest Air Traffic Service Unit, because you are entering
controlled airspace.
d) Only need to file a plan if it is an IFR flight.

182. The minimum height above a proclaimed game reserve is:

a) 500 ft
b) 2 000 ft
c) 500 m
d) 1500 m

183. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full
stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

a) 60% of the landing distance available.

b) 70% of the landing distance available.
c) 80% of the landing distance available.
d) 50% of the landing distance available.
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184. A flight plan shall be submitted in respect of:

a) All flights for which search and rescue is required

b) An international flight.
c) All commercial flights – air transport and aerial work.
d) Both a and b are correct.

185. When carrying passengers in a small aircraft, you as the PIC shall ensure that:

a) the passengers are briefed on the smoking prohibition and portable electronic devices
b) the passengers are shown how to use the fire extinguisher
c) no alcohol is consumed at any stage during the flight by any passenger

186. A flight folio must be completed after each flight:

a) This must be completed by the flight crew member, and must include routeing and oil and
fuel uptake;
b) The information must be completed in a legible writing and in permanent ink;
c) This document must be kept for a period of at least 3 years after the last entry;
d) The flight folio can be kept in flight operations, and need not be carried in the aircraft.

187. A regular requirement for the completion of a flight folio is:

a) The number of landings completed during the flight

b) The duty assignment of flight crew members
c) The number of passengers carried on board

188. On board a pressurized aircraft, a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an
oxygen reserve enabling all the crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with
oxygen in the event of a cabin depressurization, throughout the flight period, during which the
pressure altitude is greater than:

a) 12 000 ft.
b) 11 000 ft.
c) 10 000 ft.
d) 13 000 ft.

189. The determination of the aerodrome minimum operating conditions must take the following into
account :
1) equipment available for navigation
2) dimensions and characteristics of the runways
3) composition of the flight crew
4) obstacles in the vicinity of approach and missed approach areas
5) facilities for determining and communicating the weather conditions
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1,2,3,4,5
b) 1,2,4,5
c) 2,4,5
d) 2,3,5

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190. Except by individual permission from the Director, aircraft shall not be flown acrobatically –
1) unless the manoeuvre can be concluded and the aircraft brought on an even keel at a
height of not less than 2 000 feet above the ground or water;
2) within a five nautical mile distance of an aerodrome reference point of an aerodrome
licensed and approved in terms of Part 139 unless at a height not less than 4 000 feet
above ground level;
3) in the vicinity of air traffic services routes; or
4) over any populous area or public gathering.
Choose the correct combination:

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4

191. Preparing an IFR flight from controlled into or through uncontrolled airspace, the FL to be selected
in accordance with semi-circular rules depends on:

a) The Magnetic Track and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.

b) The Magnetic track only.
c) The compass heading and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.
d) Only on whether he is flying in IMC or VMC.

192. If an aircraft is not capable of flight to an aerodrome if the critical power unit becomes inoperative,
the aircraft should carry sufficient life jackets for an overwater flight for every person on board and
is restricted to:

a) Flight within gliding distance from land.

b) Within 15 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed
c) Within 30 minutes flight time from land, based on reduced cruise speed.
d) Nil

193. A precautionary kit shall be carried on board an aircraft for which the maximum certificated
passenger seating is:

a) 10 or more
b) 15 or more
c) 20 or more
d) 30 or more

194. Certificate of Release to service is issued by the AMO after a Mandatory periodic inspection of an
aircraft as required by the maintenance schedule. This will certificate will be retained for a period
of:

a) 12 months;
b) 6 months;
c) 24 months;
d) 5 years.

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195. An aircraft with a mass in excess of 5 700 kg operated in commercial air transportation shall:

a) except in emergency, not land at an unlicensed aerodrome

b) land at a unlicensed aerodrome
c) land at a unlicensed aerodrome provided the pilot has satisfied himself that there is no
danger involved

196. Except in emergency, no aircraft shall take off or land by night unless:

a) Such aircraft is equipped with landing lights in terms of the provision of A. In which case such
landing lights may be regarded as sufficient equipment for take-off and landing at night.
b) The PIC of such aircraft is familiar with the aerodrome and according to his judgement
sufficient means are available to assist in take-off or landing in the absence of runway lights.
c) The aerodrome of take-off or landing is equipped for night flying and that the PIC has
ensured that night flying facilities are available for take-off or landing.

197. On any flight within the RSA, the certificate of release to service must be carried on board:

a) Only for domestic flights.

b) Only for international flights.
c) On all flights

198. Does the release of service pertain to:

a) Annual scheduled maintenance only

b) Specific line maintenance
c) Both

199. Landing distance available must be at least:

a) For turbo-jet or turbo-fan aircraft the landing distance required must not be more than
60% of the LDA;
b) For all aeroplanes dispatch only permitted if the planned landing mass will allow a landing
within 70% of the landing distance available(LDA);
c) For turbine aeroplanes, dispatch permitted if the planned landing distance required is not
more than 60% of the LDA;
d) For large propeller driven aeroplanes, the planned landing distance required must not be
more than 60% of the LDA.

200. The minimum navigation equipment required for an aircraft flying VFR:

a) Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator.

b) Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical
speed indicator.
c) Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, direction
indicator.
d) Magnetic compass, time piece, sensitive pressure altimeter, airspeed indicator, turn & bank
indicator

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201. Entries in pilot logbooks must be made within the following periods after the completion of the flight
to be recorded –

a) 24 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept;
b) 36 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations away
from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept
c) 48 hours after return to base in the case where a pilot is engaged in flight operations
away from the base where the pilot logbook is normally kept.

202. In an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses available for use in flight must
be at least:

a) 20 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater
b) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater
c) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
d) 5 % of the number fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater

203. An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :

a) the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in sight;
b) the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
c) the pilot is following the published approach procedure
d) all mentioned answers are correct

204. The lowest visibility or RVR that a single-engine aircraft may use for take-off is:

a) 3000 m
b) 800 m
c) 500 m
d) 1500 m

205. An ATS flight plan shall be filed in respect of:

a) a local flight
b) a flight crossing an airway at 90°
c) all flights undertaken in terms of a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the Air
Services Licensing Act

206. Except for other equipment prescribed for IFR flights it is necessary that …..

a) The flight crew wear watches showing hours, minutes and seconds
b) The flight crew have stop watches
c) The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes and
seconds
d) The aircraft be equipped with an accurate time piece showing hours, minutes

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207. No aircraft shall be operated at night without:

a) An rotating beacon, navigation lights or position lights.

b) Rotating beacon, navigation lights and two landing lights or a single light having two
separately energised filaments.
c) Two parachute flares if the maximum certificated mass is 5 700 kgs or less.

208. No aircraft shall take off from, land at or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within an
aerodrome traffic zone under normal VFR operations when the ground visibility at the aerodrome
concerned is less than:

a) 1500 m and the ceiling is less than 500 ft

b) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 500 ft
c) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 1500 ft

209. The lowest RVR that may be used for a visual approach is:

a) 1500 m
b) 800 m
c) 3600 m
d) 2400 m

210. Which of the following are included in the Aerodrome Operating Minima for a non-precision
approach:
1) the required RVR,
2) the ceiling
3) the minimum descent height (MDH)
4) the decision height (DH)

a) 1, 2, 4.
b) 1, 3.
c) 1, 4.
d) 1, 2, 3.

211. On board a non-pressurized aircraft, 10% of the passengers must be supplied with oxygen
throughout the period of flight, reduced by 30 minutes, during which the pressure altitude is
between:

a) 10 000 ft and 13 000 ft

b) 10 000 ft and 12 000 ft
c) 11 000 ft and 13 000 ft
d) 11 000 ft and 12 000 ft

212. Seats for cabin crew close to the emergency exit must be:

a) 15° in the longitudinal axis

b) 25° in the lateral axis
c) 15° in the lateral axis
d) 25° in longitudinal axis

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213. RVSM operations requires:
1) a valid RVSM approval certificate has been issued for such aircraft;
2) the prescribed minimum RVSM equipment is serviceable; and
3) the flight crew has successfully completed the RVSM training
4) Only applicable to Large aircraft
Choose the correct combination

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4

214. A safety pilot must be rated on the type of aircraft and he must also:

a) occupy a control seat

b) be able to keep a look out in all directions
c) occupy a control seat and be able to keep a good look out

215. The minimum RVR for a visual approach is:

a) 2 000 m
b) 1 500m
c) 1 000m
d) 500m.

216. The approval of the Director of Civil Aviation is required to conduct CAT II operations. Where in
South African aviation legislation is this provided for in respect of General aviation operators.

a) Part 127
b) Part 135
c) Part 121
d) Part 91

217. The holder of a RVSM approval certificate endorsed for operations within RVSM airspace, shall:

a) report each height-keeping error in RVSM airspace.

b) report within 24 hours to the Director any occurrence involving poor height-keeping in
an RVSM environment
c) report within 12 hours to the Director any occurrence involving poor height-keeping in an
RVSM environment
d) Need not report height-keeping errors in RVSM airspace.

218. Whilst taxiing at an uncontrolled airfield, the pilot observes an aircraft converging from the right.
The pilot should:

a) Continue to taxi.
b) Slow down or stop and allow the other aircraft right of way.
c) Continue to taxi if on an IFR flight plan.
d) Nil

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219. The one engine cruising speed for a multi-engine aircraft which is used to calculate the flight time
for purposes of a take-off alternate aerodrome is based on:

a) the average route mass, ie: the average of the actual take-off mass and the estimated
landing mass
b) the maximum certificated take-off mass
c) the actual take-off mass
d) the mass at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation using all engine operative fuel burn rate for
calculation

220. No owner or operator of an aircraft in which fuses are used, shall operate the aircraft unless there
are spare fuse available for use in flight equal to at least:

a) 10% or 3, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for
complete circuit protection
b) 10% or 5, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for
complete circuit protection
c) 5% or 5, whichever is the greater of the number of fuses of each rating required for complete
circuit protection

221. VFR flight is not permitted:

1) At supersonic speeds
2) In Class A airspace

a) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect

222. The signal which, when directed from an aerodrome at an aircraft in the air shall constitute an
instruction to the aircraft to give way to other aircraft and continue circling is:

a) an intermittent green beam

b) a continuous red beam
c) an intermittent red beam
d) a continuous green beam

223. The use of an electronic flight bag such as an IPAD:

a) May not be used under any circumstances

b) May only be used if it meets the requirements specified in SA CATS 91 and is
approved for the purpose by the Director.
c) Is permitted at any stage provided the correct software has been downloaded.

224. According to CAR 2011, when an aerodrome is selected as a destination or alternate aerodrome,
the appropriate weather reports or forecasts or a combination of thereof must be at or above the
applicable planning minima for a period of:

a) 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETD of the aircraft at the aerodrome
b) 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
c) 2 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome
d) 1 hour before to 2 hour after the ETA of the aircraft at the aerodrome

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225. A flashing red light from control tower during an approach to land means:

a) The airport is temporarily closed, continue circling

b) Give way to other aircraft in emergency
c) Continue circling and wait for further instructions
d) The airport is unsafe, do not land

226. The pilot in command of an aircraft:

1) must comply immediately to all instructions received from ATC.
2) is responsible only if he is the "pilot flying".
3) may deviate from air regulations for safety reasons.
4) may be exempt from air regulations in order to comply to an ATC instruction.
5) may ask for the modification of an unsatisfactory clearance.
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

a) 2-3-5
b) 3-5
c) 3-4-5
d) 1-4

227. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication
failure. You will:

a) Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;

b) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
c) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
d) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;

228. Approach ban is applicable to:

a) all IMC approaches;

b) Only precision approaches;
c) Only non-precision approaches and APVs;
d) Only cat 11 and Cat 111 approaches

229. No person shall act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a Passenger by night unless he has
carried out, in an aircraft of the same class and category, not less than:

a) five take offs and landings within six months of the flight
b) three take offs and landings within 90 days preceding the flight
c) three take offs and landings within six months of the flight

230. The minimum required recency experience for a PIC or SIC for an instrument approach under IMC
shall be:

a) 3 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments only

b) 2 approaches in an aircraft or FSTD with reference to flight instruments only.
c) 3 approaches in an aircraft or FSTD with reference to flight instruments only
d) 2 approaches in an aircraft or approved FSTD with reference to flight instruments
only.

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231. No aircraft shall take off from, land at or approach to land at an aerodrome or fly within an
aerodrome traffic zone under normal VFR operations when the ground visibility at the aerodrome
concerned is less than:

a) 1500 m and the ceiling is less than 500 ft

b) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 500 ft
c) 5 km and the ceiling is less than 1500 ft

232. May a pilot in a multi-crew environment leave his/her assigned station during flight?

a) Yes, provided it is for physiological needs and at least one suitably qualified pilot
remains at the controls of the aircraft at all times
b) No, it is not allowed
c) Yes, provided another person sits at his/her station during the time the person is away.

233. Take-off alternate: A take-of alternate is required to be nominated if return to the departure airfield
is precluded due to weather. This will be:

a) For a 2 engine aeroplane, an alternate within 1 hour engine out cruise speed from the
departure aerodrome, in ISA conditions, and in still air at the maximum certificated
take-off mass of that aeroplane;
b) For a 3 or 4 engine aeroplane an alternate within 2 hours all engine cruise in ISA and still air
conditions at the actual take-off mass;
c) For a 3 or 4 engine aeroplane an alternate within 2 hours one engine out engine cruise in
ISA and still air conditions at the actual take-off mass;
d) For a 2 engine aeroplane, an alternate within 1 hour all engine cruise speed from the
departure aerodrome, in ISA conditions, and in still air at the maximum certificated take-off
mass of that aeroplane.

234. The operator of an aeroplane shall select at least one destination alternate aerodrome for each IFR
flight unless:
1) Isolated aerodrome
2) 2 separate runways
3) Duration of the flight from departure taking into account all the operational information for
a period of at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after the ETA and can be made in VMC
4) Sufficient fuel to hold for at least 2 hours
5) Weather for 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA is above the applicable minima
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2 & 3
b) 2, 4 & 5
c) 1, 3 & 5
d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

235. The Director may by notice in the AIP declare any area to be a restricted area and shall when so
declaring an area to be a restricted area, specify in the notice in question:
1) The nature and extent of the restriction applicable in respect of the area in question
2) The authorization under which flights in such restricted are shall be permitted.

a) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect
b) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is correct

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236. SA radio communication failure procedures for flights under IFR in IMC:

a) Only distinguish between flights IFR encountering VMC conditions and those that don’t
b) Assume that flights will route towards the nearest area with VMC as soon as possible
c) Assume only procedural separation between aircraft
d) Distinguish between flights in airspace where an ATS surveillance system is used in
the provision of ATC and flights in airspace where it is not

237. If an ATC clearance is not suitable to the pilot in command of an aircraft

a) Can do whatever he wants

b) He may request and if practicable, obtain an amended clearance
c) May disregard the clearance

238. On an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the expected weather
conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or above:

a) the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period
before and after such a predicted time.
b) the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after
the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome.
c) the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival.
d) the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome.

239. On a flight from Cape Town to Bloemfontein in a twin-engine aircraft that is capable of climbing to
1 500 ft on a single engine. The surface conditions at Cape Town are: - Visibility 1 500 m with
runway 01 in use. For the take-off, these conditions are:

a) Suitable, provided the conditions at an alternate aerodrome within 1 hour flight time
on one engine are at or above landing minima
b) Not suitable for take-off because in the event of an engine failure the aircraft would not be
able to return for landing
c) Suitable for take-off provided the conditions at an alternate within 1 hour flight time has a
ceiling of at least 600 ft. a visibility of 3 200 m and an ILS available
d) More information is required to answer the question

240. Destination alternates planning minima: Aerodromes supporting straight in instrument approach
and landing operation to different suitable runways. The ceiling:

a) Applicable aerodrome operating minima plus an increment of 400 ft

b) Applicable aerodrome operating minima plus an increment of 200 ft
c) For CAT II operations at least 300 ft, for CAT III operations at least 200 ft
d) For CAT II operations at least 200 ft, for CAT III operations at least 300 ft

241. When a flight is operated without a destination alternate aerodrome the required destination
alternate fuel to be carried shall be:

a) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 2 hours at normal
cruise consumption above the destination aerodrome, including final reserve fuel
b) For a turbine engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruise
consumption above the destination aerodrome
c) For a reciprocating engine aircraft, the amount of fuel required to fly for 45 minutes
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242. Except by individual permission from the CAA aircraft shall not be flown aerobatically inter alia:

a) in the vicinity of air traffic routes and within 4 nm of an aerodrome

b) within 5 nm from an aerodrome unless at a height of not less than 4 000 ft agl
c) in the vicinity of air traffic routes and within 8 nm from an aerodrome

243. Planning minima for en-route alternates CAT I:

a) Non precision minima and ceiling must be above the MDA

b) Non-precision RVR/Visibility + 1000 m and ceiling must be at or above the MDH + 200 ft
c) Must be forecast at or above the CAT I minima
d) Must be forecast at or above the CAT II minima

244. For which flight are you required to carry a noise certificate?

a) International
b) Domestic
c) Both

245. To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required is:

a) 5000 meters
b) 1500 meters
c) 3000 meters
d) 2500 meters

246. If no meteorological information is available for the destination, the operator must:

a) select two destination alternates.

b) take extra fuel to fly one hour at holding speed, 1500 ft above the alternate aerodrome.
c) take extra fuel to fly two hours at holding speed.
d) (not take-off until obtaining destination meteorological forecast.

247. Special VFR can be given

a) By day only
b) When visibility is less than 1500m.
c) In a CTR or ATZ.
d) When the ceiling is less than 1200 feet.

248. The use of an electronic flight bag such as an IPAD:

a) May not be used under any circumstances

b) May only be used if it meets the requirements specified in SA CATS 91 and is
approved for the purpose by the Director.
c) Is permitted at any stage provided the correct software has been downloaded.

249. Smoking is permitted:

a) Never in aircraft.
b) Within 25 metres of an aircraft.
c) On private flights if the aircraft manual permits smoking on board the aircraft.
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Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see
that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:
1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination,
2 - one copy of the ops flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet,
3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's material report,
4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator,
5 - notification for special loadings,
6 - details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

• 2,4
• 2,3,4,5
• 1,2,3,4,5,6
• 1,3,5

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will
first see the:

• green flashing light

• green steady light
• red steady light
• white steady light

For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen, masks are compulsory on board any pressurized
aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:

• 25 000 ft
• 13 000 ft
• 29 000 ft
• 10 000 ft

The operator must ensure that all operations information is stored for a minimum period of:

• 24 months
• 3 months
• 15 months
• 12 months

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PART 92

250. Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA-CATS 92, dangerous goods may be carried:
1) In the passenger cabin occupied by passengers
2) On the flight deck
3) In the cargo compartment
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 3 only
b) 2 ,3
c) 1, 2, 3

251. In the event of a package containing dangerous goods and bearing a cargo aircraft only sticker:

a) The pilots and ground personnel require additional training about the package being flown
b) It shall be loaded in a manner that any flight crew member or other person authorised
by the operator can still handle the package and where size and weight permit,
separate such package from the other cargo on the flight
c) The operator shall always ensure that in this instance the securing meets the requirements
regarding the separation of materials referred to in regulations 92.00.19(3)

252. No person shall offer for conveyance in an aircraft, convey in an aircraft or accept for conveyance
in an aircraft, unless

a) These are carried in the cargo hold, in a manner described in CATS 92;
b) Some dangerous goods are allowed to be carried in the cabin or the cockpit: these goods are
limited to, amongst others, medical goods required by a patient on board;
c) Military aircraft are not covered by the regulations in Part 92;
d) All of the above.

253. May a passenger carry any dangerous goods on his person?

a) Yes, provided the pilot gives permission

b) Never
c) Yes, provided it is in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed
in document SA CATS 92

254. Dangerous goods to be transported includes medical equipment. This will be permitted in the
cabin:

a) If required by a passenger in the cabin

b) Will not be permitted if it is for a sick animal
c) Must be declared to the PIC and the PIC will decide if it is to be permitted
d) Only applies to a pacemaker

255. May a passenger carry any dangerous goods on his person?

a) Yes, provided the pilot gives permission

b) Never
c) Yes, provided it is in accordance with the requirements and standards as prescribed
in document SA CATS 92

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256. No person shall offer for conveyance in an aircraft, convey in an aircraft or accept for conveyance
in an aircraft, unless

a) These are carried in the cargo hold, in a manner described in CATS 92;
b) Some dangerous goods are allowed to be carried in the cabin or the cockpit: these goods are
limited to, amongst others, medical goods required by a patient on board;
c) Military aircraft are not covered by the regulations in Part 92;
d) All of the above.

257. Unless otherwise provided for in Document SA CATS 92, dangerous goods may be transported:
1) In the passenger cabin, occupied by passengers
2) On the flight deck
3) In the cargo compartment
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 3 only
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 3

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PART 93

258. A private operator shall not operate a twin-engine aircraft, under Part 93, over a route which
contains a point further from an adequate and suitable aerodrome than the distance that can be
flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 60 minutes at the one-engine inoperative cruise
speed unless:

a) The extended range twin-engine operations are conducted in accordance with the
procedures approved for the operator in the operations manual.
b) The pilot has selected two destination alternate aerodromes and the weather is such that for
one hour before and one hour after the ETA the weather conditions are VMC
c) The pilot(s) is(are) type rated and RVSM approved.

259. A private operator shall not operate a twin engine aeroplane, under Part 93, over a route which
contains a point further from an adequate and suitable aerodrome than the distance that can be
flown, under standard conditions in still air, in 60 mins at the one engine inoperative cruise speed
unless:

a) the extended range twin engine operations are conducted in accordance with the
procedures approved for the operator in its operations manual
b) the pilot has selected two destination alternate aerodromes an the weather is such that for
one hour before and one hour after the estimated arrival the weather conditions are VMC
c) the pilot(s) is (are)type rated and RVSM approved

260. In order to operate under Part 93, the private operator shall:

a) Obtain the appropriate Air Service License from the Department of Transport
b) Automatically be granted RVSM, FDP and LVP approvals
c) Establish and implement a fatigue management program

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PART 121

261. Part 121: Air Transport Operations applies to:

a) any South African Operator, engaged in a commercial air transport operation, using an
airplane registered in the Republic of South Africa operating in an all-cargo
configuration having a maximum certificated take-off mass of greater than 8618 kg
b) any South African Operator, engaged in a commercial air transport operation, using an
airplane registered in the Republic of South Africa having a certificated take-off mass above
5700 kg
c) any local or foreign operator, engaged in a commercial air transport operation, using an
airplane operating in an all-cargo configuration having a maximum certificated take-off mass
of greater than 8618 kg

PART 129

262. Part 129 applies to:

a) Aerodromes and heliports

b) Air ambulance operations
c) Foreign Air Operations
d) General Aviation and Operating Rules

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PART 135

263. According to Part 135, a single turbine engine aircraft with passengers on board may only be
operated at night if:

a) Is authorized to do so in its operations specifications

b) The pilots have undergone detailed training in single engine operations
c) May only do so with prior permission from the passenger and PIC

264. Assuming all approvals are in place, according to Part 135, what experience does the PIC require
for operations at night without a SIC?

a) At least 350 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 100 hours shall be
as PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night
b) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall
be as PIC and 15 hours of flight time at night
c) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 20 hours shall be as
PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night

265. Part 135 cargo operations applies to:

a) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or
less
b) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 8618 kg or
more
c) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of
8618 kg or less
d) Aircraft registered in South Africa having a maximum certificated take-off mass of 5700 kg or
more

266. According to Part 135, a single turbine engine aircraft with passengers on board may only be
operated at night if:

a) Is authorized to do so in its operations specifications

b) The pilots have undergone detailed training in single engine operations
c) May only do so with prior permission from the passenger and PIC

267. May a passenger sit in the co-pilot seat in an aircraft operated under Part 135?

a) Never
b) Only in an aircraft operated under Part 91
c) Not in an aircraft operated under Part 135
d) An operator of aeroplanes certificated or authorised for flight with one pilot may use
the second seat on the flight deck as a passenger seat

268. In the case of a multi-pilot crew, the owner or operator shall designate one pilot among the flight
crew as PIC of the aircraft and

a) the PIC may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot.
b) the PIC may not delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot.
c) the PIC may not delegate the conduct of the flight to a crew member

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269. To act as PIC of an aircraft engaged in Part 135 operations, you:

a) May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings and must meet the
experience limitations detailed in SA CATS 135
b) May do so once you automatically meet the minimum regulatory experience requirements
even if the published company requirements are higher
c) May do so only by holding at least a CPL and the applicable ratings without any experience
limitations

270. How many hours must a PIC have before being able to carry passengers in an aeroplane with a
maximum certificated seating configuration of 10 or more passenger in VFR at night?

a) 100 hours and a suitable type rating

b) 200 hours and a suitable type rating
c) 350 hours and a suitable type rating
d) 500 hours and a suitable type rating

271. Assuming all approvals are in place, according to Part 135, what experience does the PIC require
for operations at night without a SIC?

a) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall be as
PIC and 15 hours of flight time at night
b) At least 350 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 100 hours shall be
as PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night
c) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 10 hours shall
be as PIC and 15 hours of flight time at night
d) At least 50 hours flight time on the class of aeroplane, of which at least 20 hours shall be as
PIC and 50 hours of flight time at night

272. According to Part 135, an operator who wishes to operate a single turbine-engine aeroplane with
passengers on board at night, must comply with SA CATS 135 and:

a) May do so only with prior permission from the passengers and PIC
b) Have ensured that the pilots have undergone detailed training regarding night flight
operations in single engine aeroplanes-82
c)
d) Be specifically approved to do so in its operations specifications

273. In a part 135 operation, the PIC of an aircraft flying IFR must have a second in command if:

a) The aeroplane is > 5 700kg and certified to carry 19 or less passengers;

b) has passed a single-pilot proficiency check within the previous 24 months;
c) In the case of unpressurised aeroplane, not operate at a level that requires continuous use of
oxygen;
d) Cannot perform normal and emergency procedures without assistance.

274. According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the mass
of the aircraft on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:

a) In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
b) In the case of a small propeller driven aircraft, within 60% of the LDA
c) In the case of any turbojet or turbofan-powered aircraft, within 70% of the LDA

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275. According to Part 135, an operator who wishes to operate a single turbine-engine aeroplane with
passengers on board at night, must comply with SA CATS 135 and:

a) May do so only with prior permission from the passengers and PIC
b) Have ensured that the pilots have undergone detailed training regarding night flight
operations in single engine aeroplanes
c) Be specifically approved to do so in its operations specifications

276. In order to conduct single-engine IMC or night flight operation under Part 135:

a) Only the pilot must be rated and the aircraft must meet the required equipment and
operational requirements
b) This operation must specifically be listed as an approval on an operator’s Ops Spec
prior to conducting such a flight
c) The operator must have a valid AOC but such operation does not have to be specifically
listed in its Ops Spec

277. While on a flight which is being operated for reward, a pilot deviates from the CAR. The PIC is
required as soon as practical to:

a) Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the
deviation occurred, of such deviation without delay.
b) Notify the SACAA of such deviation without delay.
c) Notify the appropriate authority of the State within or over the territory of which the deviation
occurred, of such deviation within 24 hours.

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PART 138

278. Part 138 applies to:

a) Airspace
b) Air ambulance operations
c) Aerodromes and heliports

PART 139

279. SA CAR Part 139 refers to:

a) Aerodromes and Heliports

b) Airspaces and Air Traffic Services
c) Air ambulance services
d) Air Transportation: Small aeroplanes

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PART 185

280. When an aircraft has been involved in an accident, the investigator in charge may:

a) Call upon the owner, operator or PIC of any aircraft to produce or cause to be
produced for inspection or investigation any licence, certificate, manual, logbook or
other document relating to the aircraft or crew
b) Arrest the pilot, owner, operator if there is sufficient evidence that the aircraft crashed due to
improper operation of such aircraft
c) Withdraw the pilot’s licence immediately

281. According to Part 135 no person shall dispatch or conduct a take-off in an aircraft unless the mass
of the aircraft on landing at the destination aerodrome will allow a full stop landing:

a) In the case of a large propeller driven aircraft, within 70% of the LDA
b) In the case of a small propeller driven aircraft, within 60% of the LDA
c) In the case of any turbojet or turbofan-powered aircraft, within 70% of the LDA

282. A person who operates or attempts to operate any aircraft in respect of which no valid certificate of
registration or valid certificate of airworthiness have been issued is:

a) committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
b) guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fined but may have other punitive measures
brought against him
c) within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft

283. A person who gives false information pertaining to the investigation of any aviation accident or
incident is:

a) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fired but may have other punitive measures
brought against them
b) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so
c) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft

284. A person who exercises a privilege granted by, or uses, any license, rating, certificate, permit,
approval, authorisation, exemption or other document issued under the regulations, of which
he/she or is not the holder, is:

a) Within his/her right if they are the owner of the aircraft

b) Guilty of a little misdemeanour and may not be fired but may have other punitive measures
brought against them
c) Committing a serious offence and may be fined for each time he/she has done so

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AIP ENRS
ENR 1.4 AIRSPACE

285. Airspace in which aircraft only receive air traffic control services is classified as;

a) Class G
b) Class A
c) Class F

286. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flight are permitted and receive flight information services
only, if requested, is classified as
a) Class G
b) Class A
c) Class F

287. Controlled airspace is classified as:

1) Class A
2) Class F
3) Class G
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1 only
c) 2,3

288. Uncontrolled airspace is classified as:

1. Class A
2. Class F
3. Class G
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3

289. Class G airspace. IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all the flights receive:

a) Air Traffic Control Services.

b) Only Traffic Information, if requested
c) Flight Information Services, if permitted.
d) Terrain clearance from information services

290. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if
requested, is classified as

a) Airspace C
b) Airspace E
c) Airspace G
d) Airspace F

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291. Controlled airspace is classified as:
1. Class A
2. Class F
3. Class G
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1 only
c) 2,3

292. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are
separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is
classified as:

a) Airspace B
b) Airspace C
c) Airspace D
d) Airspace E

293. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an
air traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified

a) Airspace D
b) Airspace E
c) Airspace F
d) Airspace G

294. A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:

a) Control area.
b) Control zone.
c) Advisory airspace.
d) Flight Information Region.

295. A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit is:

a) Advisory airspace.
b) Control zone.
c) Control area.
d) Air traffic zone.

296. Uncontrolled airspace is classified as:

1. Class A
2. Class F
3. Class G
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3

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297. Control Area means:

a) The portion of an aerodrome where aircraft movement are under the direct control of ATC
b) Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height above the surface
without an upper limit unless an upper limit is published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and
designated as a control area.
c) Controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a specified upper limit as
published in AIP, AIC or NOTAM.

298. Unless otherwise authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, or directed by the appropriate air
traffic control unit, controlled flights shall, in so far as practicable:

a) operate the shortest direct route between its departure point and destination aerodrome
b) when on established ATS route, operate 10nm to the right of the defined centre line of that
route
c) when on any other route, operate directly between the navigation facilities and/or
points defining that route

299. Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?

a) During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation;

b) If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 10 minutes or more, an Expected
Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
c) Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure in
any event when they are expected to exceed 15 minutes;
d) An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact
between aircraft and approach control;

300. The position reports shall contain the following elements of information in the order listed:

a) Aircraft identification, position, time, true air speed, flight level or altitude, next position and
time over.
b) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over.
c) Aircraft identification, position, time, flight level or altitude, next position and time over
and ensuing significant point.
d) Aircraft identification, position, flight level or altitude, time, next position and time over and
ensuing significant point.

301. The Air Traffic control Services: do not prevent collisions with terrain.

a) Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

b) Correct, except when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
c) Prevent collisions with terrain
d) Do not prevent collisions with terrain

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AIP ENR 1.5 - ARRIVING & DEPARTING A/C

302. According to the RSA AIP en-route section, aircraft are subject to speed restrictions within 15 DME
from JSV/PEV/CTV/TGV/BLV/ELV. These restrictions apply:

a) to inbound aircraft
b) to both inbound and outbound aircraft
c) only when instructed by ATC
d) to outbound aircraft

303. During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and received by
the crew contains parameters below the crew's operational minimums, the point beyond which the
approach must not be continued is:

a) the middle marker.

b) the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).
c) the outer marker (OM).
d) the FAF.

304. VMC approach is always conducted in:

a) VFR
b) IFR
c) RDR control
d) Special VFR

305. A so called "Visual Approach" can be performed:

a) during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;

b) during IFR flights, if the cloud base is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that
procedure;
c) as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more
d) during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the
underlying ground;

306. To conduct a visual approach the pilot must be able to maintain visual reference to the terrain.
Where must the reported ceiling be?

a) For a visual approach, the weather must meet CAVOK criteria

b) At or above the initial approach altitude for the approach
c) Above the intermediate approach altitude
d) Above the level at which the pilot requests the visual approach

307. The minimum RVR for a visual approach is:

e) 2 000 m
f) 1 500m
g) 1 000m
h) 500m.

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308. When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term "Visual
approach"?

a) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach

procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain
b) An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC
c) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome
of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima
d) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for
landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach

309. The South African noise abatement procedures, as published:

a) are mandatory
b) apply only to turbine engine aircraft
c) are optional during daylight hours
d) all of the answers are correct

310. South African Noise Abatement Procedure:

a) At 800 ft AGL, initiate thrust reduction to climb power / thrust

b) From 800 – 3000 ft AGL, maintain flaps and slats in take-off configuration
c) At 1500 ft AGL, reduce thrust to not less than climb power / thrust
d) Reduce thrust to climb power / thrust at the latest during the second segment of the climb
phase

311. Noise abatement procedures apply for all:

a) All aircraft
b) All aeroplanes
c) Departing aeroplanes
d) Aeroplanes on a SID

312. Noise abatement take-offs and departures for turbine aircraft at major aerodromes consist of the
following procedure:

a) Climb at V2 + 10 to 20 KIAS to 800 feet agl; reduce thrust to climb thrust; climb to 3 000 feet
agl still at V2 + 10 to 20 KIAS;
b) No jet aircraft to use intersection for take-off between the hours of 2000 and 0400 UTC;
c) If levelled off by the SID or ATC or at 3 000 feet agl the noise abatement profile can be
disregarded;
d) All the above are part of the noise abatement procedures for the listed aerodromes.

313. You are on an IFR flight plan in IMC conditions when you experience a communications failure.
However, an ATC clearance was received restricting you to a level below the flight level specified
in the current flight plan. Your actions should be:

d) Maintain the last assigned flight level for 7 minutes and then climb at a normal rate of
climb to the flight plan level.
e) Climb immediately to the flight plan level.
f) If terrain permits, descend until VMC.

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314. About procedures for noise attenuation during landing:

a) Such procedures will not involve the prohibition of using reverse thrust.
b) They prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
c) Such procedures do not exist.
d) They are applied in the case of an instrument approach only.

315. In accordance with AIP ENR, the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by
the operator should be:

a) for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes.

b) for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome.
c) different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types.
d) for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes.

316. SA radio communication failure procedures for flights under IFR in IMC:

e) Only distinguish between flights IFR encountering VMC conditions and those that don’t
f) Assume that flights will route towards the nearest area with VMC as soon as possible
g) Assume only procedural separation between aircraft
h) Distinguish between flights in airspace where an ATS surveillance system is used in
the provision of ATC and flights in airspace where it is not

317. The SA radio communication failure procedure for IFR in IMC, as contained in CAR 2011:

e) Correspond to ICAO procedures

f) Have absolutely no relation to ICAO procedures
g) Differ from ICAO procedures in terms of the time spent maintaining the last assigned speed
and level before climbing to the level in the current flight plan
h) Differ from ICAO procedures in several respects

318. During an IFR flight in VMC in controlled airspace you experience a two-way radio communication
failure. You will:

e) Select A7600 and continue according current flight plan to destination ;

f) Descend to the flight level submitted for that portion of flight ;
g) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome and inform ATC
h) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome maintaining VMC and inform ATC ;

319. While executing an instrument approach procedure an aircraft descends into improved weather
conditions and the pilot makes and keeps visual contact with the terrain and aerodrome. What are
the pilot’s options:

a) None. He should complete the entire procedure

b) He may request a visual approach. If not approved, he should still execute the
instrument approach procedure
c) If he has already been cleared for the approach. He may orbit at a safe altitude to join the
aerodrome circuit
d) He may break off the approach and manoeuvre for landing

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320. When flying in accordance with IFR, which of the following best describes the term "Visual
approach"?

a) An approach by an IFR flight when either part or all of an instrument approach

procedure is not completed and the approach is executed in visual reference to terrain
b) An approach executed by an IFR flight unable to maintain VMC
c) A visual manoeuvre executed by an IFR flight when the weather conditions at the aerodrome
of destination are equal to or better than required VMC minima
d) An extension of an instrument approach procedure to bring an aircraft into position for
landing on a runway which is not suitably located for straight-in-approach

321. Where can you find the Noise abatement Procedures?

a) AIP ENR 1.5

b) ATC
c) ATIS

322. Document SA CATS 91-08-16 and AIP ENR 1.8 Radio Communication Failure (RCF) procedures
refers: Select the correct option to complete the phrase below
If the communication failure occurs while operating in accordance with IFR while in IMC or, if VMC
but unable to maintain VMC. The aircraft shall:

a) In airspace where an ATS surveillance system is not used in the provision of air traffic control,
maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of
7 minutes
b) Continue to fly in instrument meteorological conditions, land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome and report your arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATC unit
c) Maintain the last assigned flight level for a minimum of 3 minutes on reaching, provided
terrain permits. After 3 minutes the aircraft is to climb at the normal rate of climb, to the flight
level specified in the current FPL
d) In airspace where an ATS surveillance system is not used in the provision of air traffic
control, maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if
higher, for a period of 20 minutes, following aircraft’s failure to report its position over
a compulsory point and thereafter adjust level and speed on accordance with the filed
FPL

323. At which of the following South African aerodromes are noise abatement procedures NOT..

a) Wonderboom Airport (Pretoria)

b) Cape Town International airport
c) East London Airport
d) Mthatha Airport

324. According to the RSA AIP enroute section, aircraft are subject in speed restrictions within 50 DME
From JSV/PEV/CTV/TGV/BLV/ELV. This restriction is:

a) 210 KTAS
b) 220 KIAS
c) 215 KTAS
d) 250 KIAS

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325. A visual approach is always conducted:

a) Under VMC
b) Under IFR
c) Under IMC
d) Under VFR

326. According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B" , as established in DOC 8168
- Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:

• 500 ft
• 1 500 ft
• 3 000 ft
• 1 000 ft

327. If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in sight', a
clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions

a) The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km

b) The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
c) Continued approach will be according to VFR
d) The approach must be passing the FAF

328. Which procedure you follow if during an IFR flight in VMC you have two way communication
failure?

a) Return to the aerodrome of departure.

b) Continue the flight maintaining VMC and land as soon as practicable.
c) Continue the flight at the assigned level and route; start approach at your ETA.
d) Maintain your assigned level and route and land at the nearest aerodrome that has VMC
conditions.

329. During an arrival procedure under an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions, traffic avoidance is the
responsibility of:

a) the pilot in command.

b) the approach controller.
c) the radar controller.
d) the airport controller.

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AIP ENR 1.6 - RADAR

330. Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be
achieved by one of the following procedures:

a) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.

b) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
c) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
d) To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.

331. If an aircraft that has just descended under radar control through the MSA in IMC and loses
contact with the ATC, what should the pilot do?

a) Climb immediately back to MSA, and plan for a diversion to nearest instrument
approach or VMC conditions
b) Continue descent, since ATC did clear to a lower level, and hope for VMC before reaching
cleared level
c) Maintain present level, and contact ATC on another frequency for further clearance
d) Climb back to MSA and use GNSS or other instruments to position clear of obstacles

332. You are the pilot of a multi-engine aircraft and are squawking 4345. You experience a catastrophic
inflight engine failure, declare an emergency to ATC and decide to continue to your destination.
Which squawk code should you set on the transponder?

a) 7500
b) 7600
c) 7700
d) You should not change the squawk code until instructed to do so by ATC

333. Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in conjunction with
Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?

a) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.

b) Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
c) Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
d) Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.

334. Which of the following would indicate Surveillance Radar is inoperative:

a) Non-precision approach will be flown in such a case

b) SID and STARs will not be in force
c) Airspace is downgraded from Class A to Class B
d) Speed restrictions become applicable in such cases

335. Primary Radar is NOT available at the following airports:

a) FAGG, FALA;
b) FALE, FAOR;
c) FACT, FAEL;
d) FAPE, FALE.

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336. Which of the following groupings have Secondary Surveillance Radar facilities?

a) FALE, FAOR, FABL, FAGG

b) FACT, FAGG, FAEL, FAPM
c) FAPE, FAGG, FALE, FAPB
d) FALE, FALA, FACT, FABL.

337. Which aerodromes in South Africa have Radar?

e) FAGG, FALA;
f) FALE, FAOR;
g) FACT, FAWB;
h) FAUT, FALE.

338. You are the pilot of an aircraft that is under radar control. When you leave controlled airspace you
should expect:

a) An imminent collision with another i=aircraft

b) Termination of radar service by a transmission from the controller stating: “ZS-XXX radar
service terminates.”
c) Automatic termination of radar control service without being notified.
d) Further radar control in a buffer area of 5 NM with final radar advisory service for a further 5
NM thereafter.

339. If an aircraft which is under radar control experiences radio failure, the pilot can expect the
following:

a) He will have to vacate the airspace and conduct a visual approach at a suitable aerodrome
b) The controller will apply procedural aircraft separation until the emergency is resolved
c) The radar controller will instruct the pilot to carry out specific turns to determine
whether he can hear the instructions
d) The radar controller will instruct all other aircraft to vacate the airspace

340. When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:

a) At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside
airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
b) Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
c) Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
d) Only when directed by ATC

341. You are the pilot of an aircraft that is under radar control. When you leave controlled airspace you
should expect:

a) An imminent collision with another i=aircraft

b) Termination of radar service by a transmission from the controller stating: “ZS-XXX radar
service terminates.”
c) Automatic termination of radar control service without being notified.
d) Further radar control in a buffer area of 5 NM with final radar advisory service for a further 5
NM thereafter.

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342. In the event of communication failure the squawk code to be selected on the transponder is:

a) 7600
b) 7500
c) maintain assigned squawk code and ident
d) 7700

343. Which of the following ATC centres in South Africa does NOT have Radar facilities?

a) East London Airport

b) Durban / King Shaka International Airport
c) Cape Town International Airport
d) George Airport

344. If an aircraft that has just descended under radar control through the MSA in IMC and loses
contact with the ATC, what should the pilot do?

a) Climb immediately back to MSA, and plan for a diversion to nearest instrument
approach or VMC conditions
b) Continue descent, since ATC did clear to a lower level, and hope for VMC before reaching
cleared level
c) Maintain present level, and contact ATC on another frequency for further clearance
d) Climb back to MSA and use GNSS or other instruments to position clear of obstacles

345. Which airport does not have radar facilities?

a) FAEL
b) FACT
c) FAOR
d) Kruger International Airport

346. If an aircraft which is under radar control experiences radio failure, the pilot can expect the
following:

a) He will have to vacate the airspace and conduct a visual approach at a suitable aerodrome
b) The controller will apply procedural aircraft separation until the emergency is resolved
c) The radar controller will instruct the pilot to carry out specific turns to determine
whether he can hear the instructions
d) The radar controller will instruct all other aircraft to vacate the airspace

347. When "Secondary Radar" is used, an aircraft may be identified by one of the following procedures:

a) Observation of compliance with an instruction to operate transponder from "ON" to

"STBY" and back to "ON".
b) To request pilot to set transponder on position "ON".
c) To request pilot to set transponder on position "OFF".
d) To request pilot to switch from "ON" to "STDBY".

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348. In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
transponder should be set to:

a) 7000
b) 7600
c) 7500
d) 7700

349. Which of the following statements regarding inoperative surveillance radar is correct?

a) SIDs and STARs will not be in force

b) Airspace is downgraded from Class A to Class C
c) Speed restrictions become applicable in such cases
d) Non-procedural instrument approaches are flown in such cases

350. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: "fly heading 030", the pilot must fly
heading:

a) 030° true
b) 030° true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
c) 030° magnetic
d) 030° magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)

351. Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?

a) ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are
advised that contact has been lost.
b) Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will
be provided until radar identification is terminated.
c) Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
contact with this radar facility.
d) You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
radar contact has been lost.

352. One of the functions ensured by a radar control unit for the provision of approach control service is:

a) To conduct precision radar approach (PAR).

b) To apply a horizontal separation less than 5 NM.
c) To apply a reduced vertical separation of 500 feet between IFR and VFR flights.
d) To provide instructions to reduce the separation minima.

353. When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and re-storage is impossible,
then:

a) departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
b) you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide
for continuation of the flight;
c) the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
d) you are not allowed to commence the flight

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AIP ENR 1.7 - ALTIMETER SETTING PROCEDURES

354. At airfields where there is no published transition altitude, for arriving or departing IMC flights, the
transition altitude shall be:

a) 1 000 agl
b) 2 000 agl
c) 3 000 agl
d) the lowest safe cruising altitude

355. An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR above the surface shall not be required to comply with
flight levels according to magnetic track when flown at a height of less than:

a) 3 000 ft.
b) 2 000 ft.
c) 1 500 ft.
d) Transition altitude.

356. South African altimeter setting procedures have to be complied with:

a) By only IFR aircraft

b) By only VFR traffic
c) By all aircraft operating in level flight at or above 1500 ft above ground or water
d) By all aircraft operating in level flight at or below 1500 ft above ground or water

357. You are the pilot of an aircraft departing VFR on a cross-country flight from a local gravel runway
called HISMAJESTY (FAHM). Your planned cruising level is FL85. FAHM has an elevation of 3900
ft. The runway is 28nm from WONDERBOOM (FAWB) aerodrome (elevation 4095 ft) which has a
transition altitude of 8000 ft. After take-off at which altitude must you change the altimeter sub-
scale setting to 1013.25 hPa?

a) 6100 ft
b) 6900 ft
c) 8000 ft
d) 5900 ft

358. Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

a) at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

b) only at transition altitude.
c) only at transition level.
d) at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

359. The minimum vertical separation between the transition altitude and the transition level will be

a) 500 ft
b) 1000 ft
c) 1500 ft
d) 2000 ft

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360. Select the correct answer from the list to complete the sentence: When passing within ……
nautical miles of an aerodrome with a published transition altitude, an aircraft shall set its altimeter
to the QNH of the aerodrome.

a) 5
b) 10
c) the question is incorrect and cannot be answered
d) 25

361. As far as the vertical reference of an aircraft during the final approach segment of an instrument
approach procedure is concerned, a pilot:

a) may only use the local QNH setting on the altimeter sub-scale
b) may use the altimeter with QFE on the sub-scale
c) may request a Ground Controlled approach (GCA) when weather conditions are near minima
d) is allowed to use a radio altimeter instead of the barometric altimeter

362. An aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with flight levels according
to magnetic track when flown at a height (above the surface) of less than:

a) 3 000 ft
b) 2 000 ft
c) 1 000 ft
d) 1 500 ft

363. The lowest practical IFR level

a) FL 15
b) FL 20
c) FL100
d) FL200

364. You are the pilot of an aircraft departing VFR from FAVG (Virginia airport) which has an elevation
of 20 ft. The flight will be conducted at FL 65 to a rural airfield 116 nm way. FAVG is 15 nm from
FAEL (elevation 304 ft) which has a transition altitude of 5500 ft. After take-off, at which altitude
must you change the altimeter sub-scale setting to 1013.25 hPa?

a) 5920 ft
b) 5800 ft
c) 2420 ft
d) 5500 ft

365. The transition level:

a) shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been
established
b) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established
c) for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
d) is calculated and decided by the commander

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366. Select the option from the list that correctly completes the sentence. In flight when an aircraft is …..
the transition altitude, its vertical position is expressed in terms of altitude:

a) At or below
b) Below
c) Above
d) At

367. Select the option from the list that correctly completes the sentence. In flight when an aircraft is …..
the transition altitude, you change the Altimeter to QNE?

a) At or below
b) Below
c) Above
d) At

368. You depart from an aerodrome which is 28 nm from FAWB. The elevation is 5 900 ft. You plan to
fly at FL 85. What will your Transition Altitude be?

a) 8000
b) 6900
c) 7900
d) 8500

369. Which of the following options is most correct? You are the pilot of an aircraft departing VFR for a
cross country flight from a local gravel runway called DUPONT (FADP). Your planned cruising
level is FL 65. FADP has an elevation of 3900 ft. The runway is 8 nm from Wonderboom (FAWB)
aerodrome (elevation 4095 ft) but is not inside the CTR. FAWB has a transition altitude of 8000 ft.
After take-off, when must you change the altimeter sub-scale setting to 1013.25 hPa?

a) When you exit the circuit pattern at FADP

b) When you are not flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome any longer
c) Passing 5900 ft
d) When you pass a distance of 25 nm from FAWB

370. As far as the vertical reference of an aircraft during the final approach segment of an instrument
approach procedure is concerned, a pilot:

a) may only use the local QNH setting on the altimeter sub-scale
b) may use the altimeter with QFE on the sub-scale
c) may request a Ground Controlled approach (GCA) when weather conditions are near minima
d) is allowed to use a radio altimeter instead of the barometric altimeter

371. QNH and QFE are settings for the subscale of the altimeter: these are given by the ATSU to the
pilot: The Hpa will be rounded:

a) down to the nearest Hpa;

b) up to the nearest Hpa;
c) given in full to the pilot for setting in the subscale at the appropriate time;
d) given in full for the pilot to round up or down as appropriate.

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372. The transition altitude of an aerodrome should not be below:

a) 1000 ft
b) 2000 ft
c) 3000 ft
d) 4000 ft

373. Preparing an IFR flight from controlled into or through uncontrolled airspace, the FL to be selected
in accordance with semi-circular rules depends on:

e) The Magnetic Track and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.

f) The Magnetic track only.
g) The compass heading and whether he is flying in VMC or IMC.
h) Only on whether he is flying in IMC or VMC.

374. The transition level:

a) Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome

b) Is calculated by the commander
c) Will be distributed via NOTAM
d) Is calculated by ATS

375. When below 1500 ft above the surface an aircraft’s vertical position is expressed in terms of:

a) Altitudes only
b) Altitudes and heights
c) Altitudes, heights and flight levels
d) Heights only

376. When below 1500 ft above the surface, what will you set on the Altimeter? Choose correct options:

a) QNH
b) QFE
c) QNE
d) QFF

377. Which is the first usable IFR flight level?

a) FL 15
b) FL 20
c) FL 30
d) FL 200

378. The airspace between the transition level and the transition layer is called the:

a) Transition layer
b) TMA
c) CTA
d) Transition zone

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379. Transition altitude means:

a) The altitude at which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to
Altitude
b) The altitude at which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to flight
levels
c) The altitude where the pilot must put QFE into the altimeter
d) The altitude where the pilot must put QNHE into the altimeter

380. When does a pilot change from local QNH to 1013hpa

a) At the Transition Level

b) At the Transition Altitude
c) At the Transition Layer
d) When he feels like it

381. The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:

a) as flight level.
b) according pilot's choice.
c) as altitude.
d) as height.

382. VFR flight levels start:

a) FL35
b) FL15
c) Above the airfield transition level

383. What is the Highest VFR flight level

a) FL100
b) FL200
c) FL195
d) FL015

384. Below 1500ft above the surface, the aircraft altimeter sub-scale must be set to:

a) any suitable height reference including QNH, QFE, QNE or radio altimeter
b) QNH only
c) QNH or QFE
d) QNH, QFE or the standard pressure of 1013.25 hPa

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ANNEX 14
AERODROMES

385. Refer to the diagram:

What is the length of the
runway at San Francisco
airport?

a) 2400 m
b) 2600 m
c) more than 2800 m
d) 2400 – 3600 m

a) 1500 m
b) 1800 m
c) > 2400 m
d) < 2400 m

386. Refer to the photograph of San Francisco International Airport above. The aerodrome marking
feature indicated by the red arrow refers to:

a) Low visibility landing direction indicators

b) A temporary displaced threshold
c) Threshold markings
d) Touchdown zone distance markers
e) A permanently displaced threshold

387. The aerodrome marking feature indicated by the red

arrow refers to:

a) threshold markings
b) a temporary displace threshold
c) touchdown zone distance markers
d) a permanently displaced threshold

388. Refer to the picture across. This is a photo of a….?

a) Taxiway
b) Enhanced taxiway
c) Displace threshold
d) Stopway

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389. Refer to the photograph of the runway below:
What is the reason for the installation of the runway lighting installation which has been circled in
red?

a) a displaced threshold
b) the absence of an installed visual approach slope indicator system
c) a history of pilots mistaking the runway threshold with a parallel road within the aerodrome
perimeter
d) the runway is a precision approach runway category II or category III

390. Refer to the photograph across.

Name the runway characteristic that has
been circled in red:

a) ILS critical area

b) Localizer sensitive area (LSA)
c) runway turn pad
d) designated engine test bay
e) runway shoulder

391. What is indicated by the red circle in the picture across?

a) Aiming point on non-precision runway:

b) Threshold markings
c) Runway edge marking

392. The movement area of an airfield, the adjacent lands and

buildings or the parts of them with controlled access is called:

a) Security program.
b) Manoeuvring area.
c) Terminal.
d) Aeronautical part

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393. What is indicated by the red circle in the picture across?

a) Runway edge marking

b) Side stripe for precision runway
c) Runway centre line marking

394. The glide path antenna is located on the side of the runway
approximately:

a) 300m beyond the threshold

b) 300m before the threshold
c) 300m from the far end of the runway
d) 200m beyond the ILS reference point

395. Refer to the image across. How wide is the runway in the
photograph?

a) 23 m
b) 30 m
c) 35 m
d) 45 m

396. What determines the level of fire service at an

aerodrome?

a) Aircraft length and wing span

b) Aircraft length and maximum fuselage width
c) Aircraft length and minimum fuselage width
d) Aircraft length only

397. “Landing distance available” means:

a) Length of the runway including the displaced threshold for aircraft weighing less than 5700kg
b) Length of the runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an
aeroplane landing
c) Length of the runway including the displaced threshold for aircraft weighing more than 5700kg

398. Regarding a clearway:

1. It may not have an upslope of greater than 1.25%
2. It may not be less than 500ft wide
3. It must be a tar, paved or asphalt surface
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:

a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2
c) 2,3
d) 1,3

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399. "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:

a) Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

b) Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
c) Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
d) Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

400. “TODA” take-off distance available is:

a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
provided).
b) The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if provided).
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway (if
provided).
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

401. Closed runways and taxiways are indicated by:

a) Displaying crosses in the centre of the unserviceable part as well as at each end of the
unserviceable part.
b) Crosses of a single contrasting colour, yellow or white, displayed horizontally on
runways and taxiways or parts thereof indicate an area unfit for movement of aircraft.
c) Double crosses at each end of the unserviceable part as well as in the centre of the
unserviceable part.

402. ASDA is

a) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway
b) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway
c) The length of the take-off distance available plus the length of the stopway
d) The length of the take-off distance available plus the length of the stopway and clearway

403. TODA is

a) The length of the take-off run available

b) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway
c) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the displaced threshold
d) The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway and stopway

404. The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:

a) The length of the longest runway

b) The aircraft category speed
c) The overall length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and its max
fuselage weight

405. Displaced threshold:

a) Located at the end of the runway

b) Used for turning of aircraft
c) Part of a runway which is fir for the movement of aircraft
d) A threshold not located at the extremity of a runway

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LIGHTING

406. Refer to the photograph of the runway

below: The lights circled in red are:

a) Threshold lights
b) Threshold identification lights
c) Wing bar lights
d) Barrette lights

407. Refer to the diagram below: At which

position would the VASIS be located?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

4
1
3

408. What is a 'barrette'?

a) a CAT II/III holding point

b) a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed
c) a high obstacle near a runway or taxiway
d) a set of three or more lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of lights.

409. You are on final approach to a runway with a PAPI lighting system. You observe the left bank of
lights indicating three white lights and one red, and the right hand bank of lights indicating three red
and one white. Your actions would be:

a) Obey the left hand set of lights, since it is better to be too high.
b) Obey the right hand set of lights, since you are only slightly low.
c) Ignore the PAPI system altogether
d) Nil

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410. Refer to the taxiway diagram. Which runway lighting element in the
illustration has been circled in red?

a) stop bar lights

b) taxiway crossbar
c) wing bar lights
d) land and hold short stop lights

411. What is the colour of the light for the Outer Marker?

a) White
b) Blue
c) Red
d) Green

412. Yellow lights towards the end of the runway during landing.
What do they mean?

a) Caution to pilot that he is nearing the

end of the runway during landing
b) They ran out of white lights during the
construction of the lighting system of the runway
c) Yellow lights, like yellow lines, mean that a taxiway is close by
d) These are called caution lights, and are on the edges of the
stopway.

413. Refer to the image above. What is the reason for the yellow colour of the runway lights that have
been circled in red?

a) during the construction of the aerodrome the contractor ran out of white lights
b) the lights indicate the last taxiway exit before the opposite threshold
c) the edge lights at the remote end of the rwy show yellow as a warning to pilots
d) there is a displaced threshold at the opposite threshold
e) the lights indicate the stopway or clearway.

414. The visual approach slope indictor system (VASIS)

installed at the runway in the photograph is?

a) A VASI
b) A PAPI
c) A barrette
d) An APAPI

415. When pilot on an approach sees 2 white and 2 red

lights on the final approach it means he is:

a) Too high
b) Too low
c) On the correct approach path

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416. Refer to the figure across. Identify the aerodrome feature
in the photograph that is encircled by the red oval?

a) the glideslope transmitter unit

b) the stop bar installation
c) the localizer transmitter unit
d) the threshold light installation

417. The ILS marker identified visually by an amber light

flashing is the:

a) Inner marker
b) Middle marker
c) Outer marker
d) Locator

418. Essentially a Category I lighting system shall consist of:

a) A single row of lights on the extended centreline of the runway

b) A row of lights on the extended centreline of the runway as well as two side rows of
lights and two crossbars
c) No lights – only Category II and III precision approach runways have approach lighting
d) A row of lights on the extended centreline of the runway with a row of lights forming a
crossbar

419. Runway centre line lights are mandatory on a:

a) Runway in operation at an international aerodrome

b) Precision approach runway Cat I, II or III
c) Precision approach runway Cat II or III
d) Runway intended for night time use

420. The ILS marker identified visually by a blue flashing light is the:

a) Middle marker
b) Inner marker
c) Locator
d) Outer marker

421. What is the likely reason for the installation of the VASIS on the right hand side?

a) Interference by the taxiway on the left hand side

b) Left hand circuit pattern has been promulgated for the runway
c) Right hand circuit pattern has been promulgated for the runway

422. What is the colour of the light for the Middle Marker?

a) White
b) Amber
c) Red
d) Blue

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423. What is the length of an approach lighting system of a precision-approach runway CAT II?

a) 150 m
b) 600 m
c) 300 m
d) 900 m

424. What is a likely reason for the installation of the visual approach slope indicator system on the right
hand side?

a) it should be installed on the right hand side unless impractical

b) interference by the taxiway on the left hand side
c) a left hand circuit pattern has probably been promulgated for the runway
d) an right hand circuit pattern has probably been promulgated for the runway

425. What should be the length of a Cat I ILS approach light system be?

a) 420 metres
b) 900 metres
c) 1000 metres
d) 1200 metres

426. Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:

a) of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway;
b) always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
c) of flashing lights only;
d) of an arbitrary amount of green lights;

427. An airport has no approach lighting, but has runway lighting. The MDA is 5 085 ft and the threshold
elevation is 4 500 ft, the required RVR for a category A aircraft is:

a) 1 500 m.
b) 1 000 m
c) 2 400 m.
d) 2000 m

428. Runway centre line lights shall be provided:

a) On precision approach runways, CAT II and III.

b) On other given runways, when it is necessary for operational reasons.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
d) Nil

429. The “PAPI" shall consist of:

a) Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
b) Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
c) A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
d) A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.

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430. The letters “SALS” appear under aerodrome lighting in the AIP. This is the abbreviation for:

a) Short approach light system

b) Simple approach light system.
c) Sectional approach light system.
d) Nil

431. During an approach the PAPI displays four white lights on either side of the runway. That means
that:

a) The approach slope is not yet intercepted. Level flight should be maintained.
b) The correct approach slope has been intercepted and should be maintained
c) The aircraft is too close to the runway in relation to its height.
d) Nil

432. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

a) Fixed lights showing blue.

b) Fixed lights showing yellow.
c) Fixed lights showing white.
d) Fixed lights showing green.

433. Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a specific
dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the length of this
approach light system?

a) 420 metres
b) 900 metres
c) 1000 metres
d) 1200 metres

434. The lights shown by an aerodrome identification beacon at a land aerodrome shall be

a) White colour identification given by morse code

b) Green colour identification given by morse code
c) Red flashing lights
d) Yellow flashing lights

435. When a single set of PAPI lights is installed at an aerodrome you would expect the installation to
be on:

a) The right side of the runway

b) Both sides of the runway
c) The left side of the runway

436. In a precision approach CAT I lighting system, the single 2 & 3 light sources on the centre line have
a length of

a) 200 m
b) 300 m
c) 500m
d) 1000 m

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437. Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

a) Fixed lights showing blue.

b) Fixed lights showing yellow.
c) Fixed lights showing white.
d) Fixed lights showing green.

MARKINGS & SIGNS

438. An information sign other than a location sign consists of an

inscription of:

a) Black on yellow background

b) Yellow on black background
c) Red on white background
d) White on red background

439. If you observe a sign containing a red colour on the movement area of an aerodrome, it will always
be:

a) runway holding point

b) stop instruction
c) mandatory instruction
d) information sign

440. What do the taxiway markings and signage indicate?

a) On taxiway A at the Cat I precision approach runway holding point for runway 27
b) On taxiway A at the non-precision approach runway holding point for runway 27
c) On taxiway A at the non-instrument holding point for runway 27
d) On taxiway A at the Category precision approach runway holding point for runway 27

441. Refer to the sign: Assume that you are the pilot that sees this sign from an aircraft. Where are you
according to the sign?

a) On taxiway Z
2340M Z 12 - 30
b) On runway 12 at intersection Z with 2340 m of runway ahead
c) On runway 30 with the full length of 2340 m runway ahead
d) On runway 12/30

442. Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:

a) mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.

b) information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow inscriptions.
c) information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.
d) mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.

443. An information sign other than a location sign consists of an inscription of:

a) Black on yellow background

b) Yellow on black background
c) Red on white background
d) White on red background
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444. When a fixed-distance marking has to be provided this marking shall commence at:

a) 450 m from threshold

b) 600 m from threshold
c) 300 m from threshold
d) 150 m from threshold

445. Runway threshold lights shall be:

a) Fixed lights showing green or white colours.

b) Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway.
c) Fixed unidirectional lights showing white in the direction of approach to the runway.
d) Fixed lights green colours.

446. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar lights shall be:

a) Flashing lights showing variable green.

b) Fixed lights showing variable white.
c) Flashing lights showing variable white.
d) Fixed lights showing variable green.

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AIP PLATES
447. Refer to FAPM AD: Which aerodrome feature has been circled in red on the chart?

a) Stopway
b) Displace threshold
c) Localiser sensitive area (LSA)
d) Secondary runway shoulder

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448. Refer to FAAB Aerodrome chart: The slope of RWY 01 at FAAB is:

a) 0.26% less than the ICAO standard slope

b) 0.26% UP
c) 0.26% less than the slope of the stopway
d) 0.26% Down

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449. Refer to FABL Aerodrome chart: Choose the incorrect statement:

a) The slope on RWY 02 is 0.1% down

b) The slope on RWY 20 is 0.1% up
c) At the intersection of RWY 20 and RWY 30 is a transmissometer
d) The PAPI on RWY 30 is on the incorrect side of the runway

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450. Refer to FAPP Aerodrome chart: What is the reason for the position of the PAPI lights on runway
05:

a) Maintenance personnel do not have to cross a runway to do maintenance on the PAPI

installations
b) It is closer to the control tower and allows verification by ATC
c) There is probably a physical problem prohibiting installation on standard side
d) ICAO Annex 14 standards require this installation

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451. Refer to chart below: Which chart is this?

a) VOR approach plate

b) SID
c) STAR
d) Radar Minimum Altitude Chart

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452. Refer to FAWB Breakcloud NDB approach procedure RWY 29: You are bearing 230⁰. What is the
MSA?

a) 6900
b) 8000
c) 5400
d) 7000

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DEFINITIONS

Aerodrome traffic is:

• All traffic on the manoeuvring area.

• All traffic on the movement area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
• All traffic in the aerodrome circuit.
• All traffic on the manoeuvring area and flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.

1. The M.E.L. (Minimum Equipment List) is produced by:

a) the manufacturer
b) the operator
c) the aircraft state of registry
d) the state of the operator

2. The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the:

a) air operator certificate.

b) airworthiness certificate.
c) insurance certificate.
d) registration certificate.

3. The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative
when undertaking a flight and the conditions under which this allowance can be accepted. This
MMEL is drawn up by:

a) the operator and approved by the certification authority

b) the operations manual
c) the manufacturer and approved by the certification authority
d) the operator from a main list drawn up by the manufacturer

4. The M.M.E.L. (Master Minimum Equipment List) is drawn up by:

a) the operator.
b) the manufacturer.
c) the aircraft manufacturer’s list.
d) the aircraft state of registry.

5. Who shall provide the flight operations personal with an operations manual and also issue the
amendments to keep it up to date?

a) Owner
b) CAA
c) Operator
d) Manufacturer

Which information is not included in Instrument Approach Charts (IAC) in the AIP

• Obstacles penetrating the obstacle free area in the final approach sector
• OCA or OCH

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• DME-frequencies
• Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as alternate

6. Crew Member means:

a) A person assigned by an operator to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight
that are essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion of
the flight and include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight du
b) A person assigned by the SACAA to carry out duties on board an aircraft during flight that are
essential for the safe operation of the aircraft and the successful completion of the flight and
include task specialists who have been assigned in-flight duties
c) A person assigned by an owner to supervise refuelling operations

Part 61

7. Instrument rating requirements: the minimum total hour requirement to apply for an Instrument
rating is:

a) 100 hours
b) 150 hours, including 50 hours of cross country time
c) 200 hours, of which 20 hours can be in a FSTD approved for the purpose
d) At least 50 hours cross country flight as PIC of which at least 10 hours must be in the
category of aircraft in which the rating is sought

Part 91

8. Flight plan should be filed:

a) When flights are undertaken in terms of Class I or Class II as issued per the Air service
Licensing.
b) International flight.
c) Both A and B
d) For an IFR flight.

9. Except for special VFR flight, the required visibility and distance from cloud whilst flying in a control
zone shall be:

a) Visibility 5 km, distance from cloud horizontally 600m and vertically 500 ft.
b) Visibility 5 nm, distance from cloud horizontally 2 000 ft and vertically 500 ft.
c) Visibility 2 000 metres, distance from cloud horizontally 5 000 ft and vertically 500 ft.
d) Visibility 1500m and horizontally 600m.

10. At airfields where there is no published Transition Altitude for arrival or departing IMC flights, the
Transition Altitude shall be:

a) The lowest safe cruising altitude

b) The highest safe altitude
c) 5 000 ft AGL
d) 3 000 ft AGL

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11. During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft
are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft

a) #1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.

b) #2; aircraft #2 is to the right of aircraft #1
c) #2; aircraft #2 is to the left of aircraft #1.

12. A flashing red light sent to an aircraft by the tower while in flight means?

a) Taxi clear of landing area in use

b) aerodrome unsafe, do not land
c) give way to other aircraft and continue to circle
d) stop

13. An ATS flight plan shall be filed in respect of:

a) a local flight
b) a flight crossing an airway at 90°
c) all flights undertaken in terms of a Class I or Class II licence issued in terms of the Air
Services Licensing Act

14. An aeroplane flying VMC on an IFR flight plan above F200 on a magnetic track of 240° requires:

a) F290 and flight visibility 5 km and horizontally 2 km form cloud.

b) F280 and flight visibility 8 km and horizontally 1.5 km from cloud.
c) F300 and flight visibility 5 km and horizontally 2 km from cloud.
d) Cannot fly VMC above FL200.

According to international agreements wind direction shall be adjusted to the local variation and given in
degrees magnetic:

• When the local variation exceeds 10° East or 10° West.

• In upper wind forecast for areas north of lat 60° north or 60° south.
• When an aircraft on the request by a meteorological watch office (MWO) or at specified
points transmits a PIREP
• Before landing and take-off

The person who has final authority as to the disposition of an aircraft during flight time is:

• The aircraft owner

• The airliner operator
• The commander
• The ATC controller if the aircraft is flying in a controlled airspace

Circuit height at any airfield is:

• 1 000 ft above airfield elevation

• 1 000 ft for reciprocating aircraft, 1 500 ft for turbine powered aircraft
• 1 000 ft above airfield elevation, unless the AIP specifies something different

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The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The validity of the previous proficiency check
was the 30th of June. The period of the new proficiency check can be and can't exceed:

• 31th of December the same year

• 15th of October the same year
• 30th of October the same year
• 30th of April the following year

What type of fire extinguisher must be carried on board a SA registered aircraft?

• dry power type

• an approved type
• an approved type using Halon 1211

Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that any
transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?

• The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.

• The company's cargo technicians.
• The captain.
• The operator.

When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that:

• Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on

board.
• The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
• Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
• All the flight crew be on board.

An aeroplane suffers an explosive decompression at an altitude of 31000 ft . What is the initial action by
the operating crew?

• transmit a MAYDAY message

• place the seat belts sign to ON
• to put on oxygen masks
• disconnect the autopilot

Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

• from take-off to landing.

• while at their station.
• only during take-off and landing.
• only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest
of safety.

Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see
that this file is kept on ground. It contains more particularly:
1 - the weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination,
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2 - one copy of the ops flight plan and, if required, the weight and balance sheet,
3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft's material report,
4 - the en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator,
5 - notification for special loadings,
6 - details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

• 2,4
• 2,3,4,5
• 1,2,3,4,5,6
• 1,3,5

A met report must be obtained for all flights:

• Of more than 20 nm.

• Of more than 30- nm.
• Irrespective of the distance.
• Nil

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front left, will
first see the:

• green flashing light

• green steady light
• red steady light
• white steady light

For the flight crew members, quickly-fitted oxygen, masks are compulsory on board any pressurized
aircraft flying at a pressure altitude greater than:

• 25 000 ft
• 13 000 ft
• 29 000 ft
• 10 000 ft

The operator must ensure that all operations information is stored for a minimum period of:

• 24 months
• 3 months
• 15 months
• 12 months

During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from the front right, will
first see the:

• red steady light

• green steady light
• white steady light
• green flashing light

Flight crew member licenses should be carried in the aircraft:

• Only if the flight is operated for commercial air transport.

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• For all flights.
• Only if the aircraft is engaged in an international flight.
• Nil

The minimum RVR or VIS, below which no approach to land shall be commenced or continued, shall be
determined by the:

• Pilot in command,
• DCA,
• Operator of the aircraft.
• The SCCM

Who shall provide the flight operations personal with an operations manual and also issue the
amendments to keep it up to date?

• Aircraft producer.
• Owner of the aircraft.
• ATS authority of the state of registry.
• Aircraft operator.

A list of visual signals for use by intercepting and intercepted aircraft should be carried on board for:

• Cross country flight of more than 100 NM from the departure.

• All flights.
• Flights intended to enter military airspace
• Nil

15. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened:

a) While at their station

b) For take-off & landing only
c) From take-off to landing
d) For take-off, landing & whenever necessary by PIC in the interest of safety

16. Who must finally determine that the load and its distribution is such that the mass and balance
limits of the aircraft are not exceeded and confirm their acceptance by countersigning the mass
and balance documentation?

a) The airline's dispatcher.

b) The operator.
c) The flight engineer.
d) The commander.

17. In accordance with SA CAR 91, in an aeroplane in which fuses are used, the number of spare
fuses available for use in flight must be at least:

a) 20 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 2 of each rating, whichever is the greater
b) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 3 of each rating, whichever is the greater
c) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater
d) 5 % of the number fuses of each rating or 1 of each rating, whichever is the greater

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18. Who checks, before flight, that the aircraft's weight is such that flight can be safely made, and that
any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured?

a) The captain.
b) The operator.
c) The mechanic on board, or in his absence the co-pilot.
d) The company's cargo technicians.

19. The regulatory green navigation light is located on the starboard side with a coverage angle of:

a) 220°.
b) 70°.
c) 140°.
d) 110°.

20. The correct definition of a safe forced landing is:

a) an unavoidable landing or ditching with a reasonable expectancy of no injuries to

persons in the aircraft or on the surface.
b) a voluntary landing on land or sea carried out by the crew in order to protect the aircraft and
its occupants
c) a landing on land or sea from which it is guaranteed no injuries will result to the occupants
d) an inevitable landing on land or sea from which one may reasonably expect no injuries on
board

21. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front left on
approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:

a) white steady light

b) red steady light
c) green and white flashing light
d) green steady light

22. During a night flight, an observer located in the cockpit, seeing an aircraft coming from front right
on approximate opposite parallel track, will first see the:

a) red light
b) red and white flashing light
c) green light
d) white light

23. During the passenger briefing for a flight requiring life jackets, the passengers shall be instructed to
inflate their life jackets:;

a) as soon as ditching is prepared.

b) immediately on ditching.
c) when outside the aircraft.;
d) immediately on the opening of the exits.

An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio communication
with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:

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• 121.5 MHz - 125.5 MHz
• 121.5 MHz - 282.8 MHz
• 243 MHz - 125.5 MHz
• 121.5 MHz - 243 MHz

The pre-flight inspection of an aircraft is the responsibility of the:

• Co-pilot
• flight engineer
• pilot-in-command
• operator

Who is responsible for setting up a body for aviation regulation and safety?

• The CAA
• The president
• The minister of transport

All aircraft are required to carry a first aid kit which must be:

• Must be readily accessible to crew only

• Must be stowed on the flight deck
• Must be readily accessible to crew and pax
• May only be opened by a medical doctor or nurse

24. In accordance with CAR 91, 100 % of the passengers in a non-pressurised aircraft shall be
supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure altitudes above:

a) 12000 ft.
b) 10000 ft.
c) 15000 ft.
d) 14000 ft.

25. SA CAR requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls during take-off and landing
unless:

a) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the
preceding 60 days.
b) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the
same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 90
days.
c) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the
same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 60
days.
d) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane
in the preceding 90 days.

26. Information concerning emergency evacuation procedures shall be found in the:

a) operations manual.
b) journey logbook.
c) flight manual.
d) operational flight plan.
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27. According to SA CAR, the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an
aeroplane by an operator must not be less than:

a) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved
simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
b) 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
c) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved
simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used
d) 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aeroplane during the last 6 months

28. An operator shall ensure that for the duration of each flight or series of flights, relevant information
is preserved on the ground. This includes:

a) meteorological information.
b) the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.
c) a copy of the calculated take-off performance.
d) mass and balance documentation, if required.

29. In accordance with SA CAR, refuelling performed while passengers are embarking or
disembarking the aircraft:

a) is acceptable provided that the ground area beneath the exits intended for emergency
evacuation and slide deployment areas must be kept clear.
b) is prohibited.
c) is acceptable provided that all flight crew shall remain at their station.
d) is acceptable provided that all the aircraft doors must be completely opened.

30. In accordance with SA CAR, the minimum required recent experience for a pilot engaged in a
single-pilot operation under IFR or at night shall be:

a) 3 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90 days on
the type/class of aeroplane in the single -pilot role.
b) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 90 days on
the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.
c) 5 IFR flights, including 3 instrument approaches, carried out during the preceding 90
days on the type/class of aeroplane in the single -pilot role.
d) 5 IFR flights, including 3 take-off and 3 landings carried out during the preceding 30 days on
the type or class of aeroplane in the single-pilot role.

31. For a pressurised aircraft, the first-aid oxygen is designed to:

a) provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13000 ft after 30

minutes.
b) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation.
c) provide undiluted oxygen for passengers who, for physiological reasons, might
require oxygen following a cabin depressurisation.
d) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases.

32. In accordance with SA CAR, the operator must ensure that the mass and balance documentation
of a flight is stored for a minimum period of:

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a) 3 months
b) 1 year
c) 1 month
d) 6 months

33. The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of hazardous
materials are specified in the:

a) operations manual.
b) air carrier certificate.
c) AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
d) flight manual.

34. The general information, instructions and recommendations on the transport of dangerous goods
are specified in the:

a) air operator certificate.

b) operations manual.
c) AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication).
d) flight manual.

35. The coverage angle of the regulatory white navigation/ position lights, located to the rear of the
aircraft, is:

a) 110°
b) 140°
c) 220°
d) 70°

36. According to SA CAR, for a non-pressurised aircraft, the supplemental oxygen is:

a) available for supply to passengers for physiological reasons

b) therapeutical oxygen specially carried for certain passengers
c) required to operate at pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
d) used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide

37. A piece of equipment on your public transport aircraft fails while you are still parked. The reference
document you use to decide on the procedure to follow is:

a) the JAR OPS.

b) the Operations Manual under the heading "MEL".
c) the flight manual.
d) the Operations Manual under the heading "Abnormal and Emergency procedures".

38. In accordance with SA CAR, the operator must ensure that the information contained in the aircraft
technical log is stored for a minimum period of:

a) 24 months
b) 3 months
c) 15 months
d) 12 months

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39. The field of application of the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is defined by a phase of flight. In the
event of an aircraft serviceability problem, the commander must use the limitations provided by the
MEL:

a) At any time during the flight.

b) At the parking area prior to the aircraft taxiing.
c) Prior to take-off.
d) Until the aircraft has come to a complete stop at the end of the flight.

40. The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines the equipment which can be inoperative when
undertaking a flight and the additional procedures under which this allowance can be accepted .
The Mel is drawn up by:

a) the manufacturer and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List
(MMEL)
b) the operator and may be less restrictive than the Master Minimum equipment List (MMEL)
c) the operator and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)
d) the manufacturer and may be more restrictive than the Master Minimum Equipment List
(MMEL)

41. Following an act of unlawful interference on board an aircraft, the commander should submit a
report to:

a) the designated local authority only.;

b) both the designated local authority and the Authority in the State of the operator.;
c) the Authority of the State of the operator only
d) the Authority of the State within which the aircraft is operating at the time of the unlawful
interference

42. An operator shall ensure that information relevant to the flight is preserved on the ground for the
duration of each flight or series of flights. This includes:
1 - appropriate meteorological information;
2 - a copy of the operational flight plan and, if required, the mass and balance documentation;
3 - copies of the relevant parts of the aircraft technical log;
4 - route specific NOTAM documentation if specifically edited by the operator;
5 - special loads notification;
6 - copies of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts.
The combination regrouping all the

a) 2,3,5.;
b) 1,2,3,5,6.;
c) 2,4,5.;
d) 2,3,4,5.;

43. In accordance with SA CAR, all occupants of flight deck seats on flight deck duty in a non-
pressurised aircraft shall be supplied with supplemental oxygen for the entire flight time at pressure
altitudes above:

a) 14000 ft.
b) 13000 ft.
c) 15000 ft.
d) 12000 ft.

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44. According to SA CAR, a life jacket is mandatory for each person on board a land aeroplane, when
flying over water at a distance from the shore of more than:

a) 50 NM
b) 200 NM
c) 400 NM
d) 100 NM

45. SA CAR requires that a co-pilot does not serve at the flight controls (as pilot flying or pilot non-
flying) as part of the minimum certificated crew unless:

a) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the
preceding 90 days.
b) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the
same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used in the preceding 60
days.
c) he has operated the controls as a pilot for three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane in the
preceding 60 days.
d) he has operated the controls as pilot flying for three take-offs and landings in an
aeroplane of the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be
used in the preceding 90 days.

46. Following an accident, the operator of an aircraft equipped with a flight recorder must keep the
original recordings for a minimum period of:

a) 60 days.
b) 30 days.
c) 90 days.
d) 45 days.

47. An operator is permitted to use an aircraft with certain items of equipment out of service if this is
permitted in:

a) JAR-OPS Subpart M.
b) the Maintenance Schedule, in the Approval Specifications Section.
c) the approval conditions for return to service following maintenance.
d) the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) or Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL)

48. The minimum visibility required by SA CAR to commence a special VFR flight is:

a) 1 500 m
b) 2 500 m
c) 5 000 m
d) 3 000 m

49. The minimum equipment list (MEL) gives the equipment which can be inoperative when
undertaking a flight and the additional procedures to be observed accordingly. This list is prepared
by:

a) the operator, and it is appended to the flight manual

b) the operator, and it is inserted in the operations manual
c) the manufacturer, and it is appended to the flight manual
d) the manufacturer, and it is inserted in the operations manual
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50. In accordance with SA CAR an operator shall ensure that a pilot does not operate an aeroplane as
commander unless:

a) he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane of
the same type/class or in a flight simulator of the aeroplane type to be used, in the
preceding 90 days
b) he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in an aeroplane or an
approved flight simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 30 days
c) he has carried out at least 3 flights as commander in an aeroplane or an approved flight
simulator of the type to be used, in the preceding 90 days
d) he has carried out at least 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying in any type of aeroplane
or an approved simulator, under the supervision of an examiner, in the preceding 60 days

51. The time of useful consciousness in case of an explosive decompression at an altitude of 40 000 ft
is:

a) 30 seconds.
b) 5 minutes.
c) 12 seconds.
d) 1 minute.

52. The minimum requirements for Supplemental Oxygen to be supplied in pressurised aeroplanes
during and following an emergency descent are that for pilots it shall be available for the entire
flight time that the cabin pressure altitude exceeds a minimum of

a) 15000 ft
b) 12000 ft
c) 25000 ft
d) 14000 ft

53. In accordance with SA CAR „ if the flight is to be carried out at FL 290, demonstration about
oxygen equipment must be completed before:

a) take-off.
b) the aircraft reaches FL 250.
c) the aircraft reaches FL 140.
d) the aircraft reaches FL 100.

54. In accordance with SA CAR, for a pressurised aircraft, the definition of supplemental oxygen is:

a) oxygen specifically carried for therapeutic purposes.

b) oxygen supplied to the aeroplane occupants in the case of cabin pressurisation
failure.
c) oxygen supplied to a passenger who needs oxygen for physiological reasons.
d) oxygen used for protection against smoke and carbon dioxide.

55. In accordance with SA CAR, the commander of a turbojet engine aeroplane should have a final
reserve fuel for:

a) 45 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.

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b) 45 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions.
c) 30 minutes of flight at holding speed at 1500 ft above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions.
d) 30 minutes of flight at cruising speed at FL140.

56. In accordance with SA CAR, an operator shall ensure that a copy of the operational flight plan is
stored in an acceptable form for at least:

a) 15 months
b) 12 months
c) 24 months
d) 3 months

57. In accordance with SA CAR, the purpose of the first aid oxygen is to:

a) provide the cabin attendants with respiratory protection.

b) supply all the passengers in case of depressurisation.
c) provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin
depressurisation.
d) provide the flight crew with respiratory assistance after depressurisation.

58. When requested by an Authority to produce the aircraft documentation required to be carried on
board, the commander:

a) can request a delay of 48 hours.

b) shall comply within a reasonable period of time.
c) shall only comply if authorised by the operator.
d) can refuse to present them.

59. In accordance with the fuel policy for isolated aerodromes for aeroplanes with turbine engines, the
amount of Additional Fuel should not be less than the fuel to fly after arriving overhead the
destination aerodrome for:

a) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel.

b) 30 minutes at normal cruise consumption, including final reserve fuel.
c) 30 minutes at holding consumption at 1 500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in
standard conditions.
d) 2 hours at holding consumption at 1 500 ft (450 m) above aerodrome elevation in standard
conditions.

60. In accordance with SA CAR 91, on board a non-pressurised aircraft, the crew and all the
passengers must be fed with oxygen throughout the flight period during which the pressure altitude
is greater than:

a) 11 000 ft
b) 12 000 ft
c) 10 000 ft
d) 13 000 ft

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61. In accordance with SA CAR 91, a commander shall ensure that the amount of usable fuel
remaining in flight is not less than the fuel required to proceed to an aerodrome where a safe
landing can be made with:

a) fuel to fly 20 minutes at best range speed.

b) 15 minutes of remaining fuel.
c) final reserve fuel remaining.
d) fuel to hold 30 minutes at 1500 ft above the aerodrome.

62. According to SA CAR, the recent experience conditions of a commander assigned to a flight on an
aeroplane by an operator must not be less than:
a) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved
simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used
b) 6 take-offs and 6 landings during the last 6 months
c) 3 take-offs and 3 landings on this type of aeroplane during the last 6 months
d) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot flying on the same type of aeroplane or approved
simulator, of the aeroplane type to be used, in the preceding 90 days

63. According to SA CAR 91, on an IFR flight a commander shall not commence take-off unless the
expected weather conditions at the destination and/or required alternate aerodrome(s) are at or
above:

a) the aerodrome operating minima, at the estimated time of arrival, and for a reasonable period
before and after such a predicted time.
b) the aerodrome operating minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after
the estimated time of arrival at the aerodrome.
c) the planning minima, at the estimated time of arrival.
d) the planning minima, during a period from 1 hour before to 1 hour after the estimated time of
arrival at the aerodrome.

64. To conduct a special VFR flight, the minimum visibility required by Aerodrome Operating Minima is:

a) 5000 meters
b) 1500 meters
c) 3000 meters
d) 2500 meters

65. At which levels may Reduced Vertical Separation Minimum (RVSM) be used?

a) Between FL290 and FL410 inclusive.

b) Between FL245 and FL410 inclusive.
c) Between FL275 and FL400 inclusive.
d) Below FL290.

66. On a pressurised aeroplane, supplemental oxygen is used to:

a) provide selected passengers with oxygen

b) assist a passenger with breathing disorders
c) protect the aircrew fighting fires
d) provide passengers on board with oxygen following a cabin depressurisation

67. Aircraft using a VFR flight plan in controlled airspace shall be equipped:
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a) As is necessary for aircraft that operate in accordance with instrument flight rules.
b) Only as is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights.
c) With more anti-icing and/or de-icing devices (if one expects icy conditions).
d) As is necessary for aircraft that make VFR flights, and such aircraft must also possess
indicators of attitude and course, along with a precise barometric altimeter.

An aircraft flying above the sea between 4 500 feet MSL and 9 000 feet MSL outside controlled airspace
under VFR, must remain on principle at least:

• 2 000 feet horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.

• 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility.
• 1 500 m horizontally, 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.
• Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8 km visibility.

An aircraft specified to have a Flight Data Recorder may commence a flight with the FDR inoperative,
from an aerodrome where the FDR can be repaired;

• but must be fixed within 48 hours

• can depart if no on the MEL
• cannot depart until FDR is replaced or repaired

68. An operator must ensure that, for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground a copy of the:

a) ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan.

b) operation flight plan.
c) flight plan processing.
d) flight route sheet.

69. An operator must ensure that for the duration of each flight, be kept on the ground, if required:

a) a copy of the calculated take-off performances.

b) the calculation of the airborne fuel quantity.
c) a copy of the weight and balance sheet.
d) the aircraft equipment report (logbook).

70. During a flight, the chief steward informs the crew that a passenger is using a portable device
suspected to disturb the aircraft electronic systems. The captain:

a) must not authorize any person to use such a device on board.

b) authorizes its use except during take-off and landing phases.
c) authorizes its use during the whole flight phase.
d) may authorize the use of this device, as an exception.

71. The captain is asked by the authority to present the documents of the aircraft. He

a) can request a delay of 48 hours.

b) can refuse to present them.
c) can only do so after having consulted the operator.
d) must do so, within a reasonable period of time.

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72. When refueling is being performed while passengers are boarding or disembarking the aircraft, it is
necessary that:

a) Communications be maintained between ground personnel and qualified personnel on

board.
b) The aircraft's stairs be completely extended.
c) Refueling is prohibited while passengers are boarding and/or disembarking.
d) All the flight crew be on board.

73. At least one hand fire extinguisher must be conveniently located on the flight deck for use by flight
deck crew. This must be of the following type:

a) CO 2.
b) Halon 1211.
c) Dry Chemical.

PART 92

74. Which of the following items, required to be on board an aircraft for operating reasons in
accordance with the relevant CARs, are classified as dangerous goods?
1. Fire extinguishers
2. Self-inflating life jackets
3. Portable oxygen supplies
4. First-aid kits.
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1.3,4;
b) 1,2,3,4;
c) 2,4;
d) 1,3;

The authorization for the transport of hazardous materials is specified on the:

• insurance certificate.
• air carrier certificate.
• registration certificate.
• airworthiness certificate.

75. From the following list :

1. Fire extinguishers
2. Portable oxygen supplies
3. First-aid kits
4. Passenger meals
5. Alcoholic beverages
Which are classed as Dangerous Goods that are required to be on the aeroplane in accordance
with relevant CAR's for operating reasons:

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a) 3,4,5
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,3
d) 1,2,5

76. The dangerous goods transport document shall be drawn up by:

a) the handling agent.

b) the shipper.
c) the operator.
d) the captain.

77. As a pilot in command, during flight preparation, if you are notified that a dangerous package has
been damaged during its loading, you:

a) mention it on the Notification to Captain

b) accept it after a visual inspection
c) mention it on the shipper's declaration
d) ensure that arrangements are made for its removal

78. When offering dangerous goods for transportation by air, who initially is responsible for compliance
with the regulations?

a) The station manager.;

b) The shipper.;
c) The pilot in command.;
d) The aerodrome manager.;

79. Products or materials are considered to be dangerous goods if the products or materials in
question are defined as such by:

a) The IATA document entitled "Regulations governing the transportation of dangerous goods
by air".
b) The ICAO document entitled "Technical Instructions for the safe transport of
dangerous goods by air".
c) The UNO document entitled "Dangerous Goods Regulations".
d) The directives of the Community Union.

80. A passenger is allowed to carry match-boxes:

1. on himself/herself
2. in his/her hand luggage
3. in his/her checked luggage
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

a) 1,2,3
b) 1
c) 2,3
d) 1,2

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81. Where dangerous goods are carried on a flight which takes place wholly or partly outside the
territory of a State, which language must be used on the transport document in addition to any
other language?

a) French
b) Spanish
c) English, French, Spanish, Russian, Chinese
d) English

PART 135

82. According to SA CAR for operations under IFR or at night the minimum flight crew is 2 pilots for:

a) all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of

more than 19 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
b) all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
c) all turbo-propeller aeroplanes with a maximum approved passenger seating
configuration of more than 9 and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes
d) all turbo-propeller aeroplanes and for all turbo-jet aeroplanes with a maximum approved
passenger seating configuration of more than 9

83. For turbo-jet aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance at the scheduled
destination aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

a) 0.6
b) 0.7
c) 0.5
d) 0.8

84. Selecting an alternate aerodrome the runway of this facility must be sufficiently long to allow a full
stop landing from 50 ft above the threshold (jet type aircraft, dry runway) within:

a) 60% of the landing distance available.

b) 70% of the landing distance available.
c) 80% of the landing distance available.
d) 50% of the landing distance available.

85. For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate
aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

a) 0.6
b) 0.5
c) 0.8
d) 0.7

For turbo-propeller aircraft, in the flight preparation stage, the landing distance on at alternate aerodrome
shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of:

• 0.8
• 0.7
• 0.6
• 0.5
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ENR

ENR 1.4

Uncontrolled airspace is classified as:

1. Class A
2. Class F
3. Class G
The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

• 1, 2, 3
• 1, 3
• 2, 3

Air Traffic Control operates in:

• Control zones, Aerodrome traffic zones and in upper airways.

• Aerodrome traffic zones, Advisory airways and Terminal Control areas.
• Advisory areas, Terminal Control Areas.
• Control zones, aprons, Control areas

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic control
service and IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and from VFR flights VFR flights are
separated from IFR flights and receive traffic information in respect of other VFR flights, is classified as:

• Airspace B
• Airspace C
• Airspace D
• Airspace E

Airspace in which aircraft only receive Flight Information services is classified as:

• Class A
• Class F
• Class G

Class G airspace. IFR and VFR flights are permitted and all the flights receive:

• Air Traffic Control Services.

• Only Traffic Information.
• Flight Information Services, if permitted.
• Terrain clearance from information services

In Class F and G airspace, the pilot maintains radio contact with an information or advisory service,
these services:

• Issue clearance, which must be strictly adhered to.

• Give information regarding other traffic, and weather if possible.
• Only offer information if the pilot requests it.
• Will give instructions to avoid other IFR traffic.

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Airspace in which aircraft only receive air traffic control services is classified as;

• Class G
• Class A
• Class F

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all participating IFR flights receive an air
traffic advisory service and all flights receive flight information service if requested, is classified

• Airspace D
• Airspace E
• Airspace F
• Airspace G

Which does ATC Term "Radar contact" signify?

• ATC is receiving your transponder and will furnish vectors and traffic advisories until you are
advised that contact has been lost.
• Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight instructions will
be provided until radar identification is terminated.
• Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in
contact with this radar facility.
• You will be given traffic advisories until advised that the service has been terminated or that
radar contact has been lost.

Which statement regarding approach control service is correct?

• During a visual approach an aircraft is maintaining its own separation;

• If it is anticipated that an aircraft has to hold for 10 minutes or more, an Expected
Approach Time will be transmitted by the most expeditious means to the aircraft
• Approach control have to advise the aircraft operators about substantial delays in departure
in any event when they are expected to exceed 15 minutes;
• An approach sequence shall be established according to the sequence of initial radio contact
between aircraft and approach control;

Air Traffic Services: do not prevent collisions with terrain.

• Except when an aircraft is flying IFR in IMC.

• Correct, expect when an IFR flight is vectored by radar.
• Prevent collisions with terrain
• Do not prevent collisions with terrain

An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR are permitted and receive flight information service if requested, is
classified as

• Airspace C
• Airspace E
• Airspace G
• Airspace F

A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is:
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• Advisory airspace.
• Flight Information Region.
• Control area.
• Control zone.

The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10 000 feet MSL are:

• nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
• clear of clouds; 8 km visibility
• mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility
• 1000 metres horizontally, 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility

Control Area (CTA) is defined as follows:

• A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 1000 feet above the earth.
• A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth.
• A controlled airspace extending upwards from a height of 900 feet above the earth.
• A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified limit.

A CTA always has an upper limit:

• only when located at an airfield

• sometimes
• never

ENR 1.5

Noise abatement procedures apply to:

• Aircraft on SID
• All aircraft departing and arriving, according to specified procedures
• Aircraft with turbo-engines only
• All departing aircraft

86. In VMC, a runway should not be chosen as preferential for noise abatement procedures when:

a) Tail wind component, including gusts, is less than 4 kt

b) Cross-wind component, including gusts, is 10 kt or less
c) It has no ILS or visual approach slope guidance
d) It has a tail wind regardless its magnitude

Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?

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• These procedures are applied in case of instrument approach only.

• These procedures prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
• These procedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
• There are no noise abatement procedures for landing.

87. In accordance with AIP ENR, the take-off climb procedures for noise abatement to be specified by
the operator should be:

e) for all aeroplane types, the same for all aerodromes.

f) for all aeroplane types, the same for a specific aerodrome.
g) different according to aerodromes and aeroplane types.
h) for any one aeroplane type, the same for all aerodromes.

88. Which statement is correct about noise abatement procedures during landing?

a) These procedures are applied in case of instrument approach only.

b) These procedures prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
c) These procedures shall not prohibit the use of reverse thrust.
d) There are no noise abatement procedures for landing.

Who has the responsibility for establishing operating procedures for noise abatement purposes during
instrument flight, the:

• operator
• state of the operator
• commander
• state in which the aeroplane is operating

A so called " Visual Approach" can be performed:

• during IFR and VFR flights in VMC;

• during IFR flights, if there is permanent sight on the movement area and the
underlying ground;
• during IFR flights, if the cloudbase is 1000 ft more than the appropriate DA or MDA for that
procedure;
• as in above, but in addition there should be a visibility of 5,5 km or more

Which statement is correct? During a "Visual Approach" in Controlled Airspace (Class C):

• ATC will apply separation with other arriving traffic

• ATC will apply separation with other traffic
• the pilot to apply separation with other traffic;
• ATC will apply separation only with other IFR-traffic

During flight through the transition layer the vertical position of the aircraft should be expressed as

• altitude above mean sea level during climb

• flight level during descent
• either altitude above mean sea level or flight level during climb
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• altitude above mean sea level during descent

The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10 000 feet MSL are:

• 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility

• nautical mile horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 5 km visibility
• 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility
• 1500 m horizontally and 1 000 feet vertically from clouds; 8 km visibility.

Blind transmission shall be made:

• On the designated frequency (frequency in use)

• To all available aeronautical stations
• On regional guard frequencies only
• During IFR flights only

ENR 1.6

When an aircraft carries a serviceable transponder, the pilot shall operate the transponder:

• Only when the aircraft is flying within airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.
• Only when the aircraft is flying within controlled airspace.
• Only when directed by ATC.
• At all times during flight, regardless of whether the aircraft is within or outside
airspace where SSR is used for ATS purposes.

When radar identification of aircraft has been achieved, ATC unit shall:

• Inform the aircraft only if communication's load permits it.

• not advise the aircraft before issuing instructions.
• Inform the aircraft prior to issue any instructions or advice based on the use of radar.
• Inform the aircraft only if radar identification has been achieved without availability of SSR.

Where a " Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by
one of the following procedures:

• To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.

• To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.
• To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
• To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.

89. What transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft which is being
subjected to unlawful interference:

a) code 7600
b) code 7500
c) code 7700

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d) code 2000

90. What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to
unlawful interference (hijacked)?

a) 7800
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700

91. What is the transponder code to be used by the commander of an aircraft that is subject to
unlawful interference (hijacked)?:

a) 7500
b) 7800
c) 7700
d) 7600

92. Whenever practicable, what transponder code should be used to provide recognition of an aircraft
which is being subjected to unlawful interference:

a) 2000
b) 7500
c) 7600
d) 7700

Pilots shall not operate the SSR special position indicator (IDENT) feature unless:

• They operate within non controlled airspace.

• Requested by ATC.
• They operate within controlled airspace.
• They operate a transponder with Mode C.

When the transponder appears to be unserviceable prior to departure and re-storage is impossible, then:

• departure to the nearest suitable airport where repair can be effected is allowed
• you must indicate the failure in the fight plan, after which the ATC will endeavour to provide
for continuation of the flight;
• the flight can only continue in the most direct manner;
• you are not allowed to commence the flight

The air traffic control unit has reported 'radar contact', what does that mean to the pilot?

• The radar identity of the aircraft has been established

• The pilot does not have to follow up the position of the aircraft
• The aircraft is subject to positive control
• Position reports may be omitted

Where a "Secondary Surveillance Radar" (SSR) is not available, radar identification may be achieved by
one of the following procedures:

• To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 30° or more.

• To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 20° or more.
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• To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 10°.
• To instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of 45°.

When the aircraft carries serviceable Mode C equipment, the pilot:

• Shall continuously operate this mode only when directed by ATC.

• Shall continuously operate this mode unless otherwise directed by ATC.
• Shall continuously operate this mode regardless of ATC instructions.
• Shall continuously operate this mode only when the aircraft is within controlled airspace.

ENR 1.7

When flying below transition altitude, the aircraft is flown according to:

• Flight levels
• Altitude
• Both

QNH is the Q-code to indicate:

• The atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation (or at runway threshold).

• The atmospheric pressure measured at the aerodrome reference point (ARP).
• The altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground.
• The atmospheric pressure referred to the highest obstacle located on the surface of an
aerodrome.

Transition from altitude to flight level, and vice-versa is done:

• at transition level during climb and transition altitude during descent.

• only at transition altitude.
• only at transition level.
• at transition altitude during climb and transition level during descent.

The vertical position of an aircraft at or below the transition altitude will be reported:

• according pilot's choice.

• as altitude.
• as height.
• as flight level.

In the vicinity of an aerodrome that is going to be used by the aircraft the vertical position of the aircraft
shall be expressed in:

• flight level on or below the transition level

• flight level on or below the transition altitude
• altitude above sea level on or below the transition altitude
• altitude above sea level on or above the transition altitude
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The transition level:

• shall be the lowest available flight level above the transition altitude that has been
established
• shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been
established
• for the aerodrome is published in the AGA section of the AIP
• is calculated and decided by the commander

The transition level:

• Is published on the approach and landing chart for each aerodrome

• Is calculated by the commander
• Will be distributed via NOTAM
• Is calculated by ATS

The vertical position of an aircraft at or above the transition level will be reported:

• as flight level.
• as height.
• as altitude.
• according to pilot's choice.

Transition altitude means:

• The altitude at which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to
Altitude
• The altitude at which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to flight
levels
• The altitude where the pilot must put QFE into the altimeter
• The altitude where the pilot must put QNHE into the altimeter

93. The semi-circular rule is based on:

a) Magnetic track.
b) Magnetic heading.
c) True track.
d) True heading.

Given: AGL = above ground level AMSL = above mean sea level FL = flight level within uncontrolled
airspace, the first usable level in IFR must provide a 500 ft margin above the following two levels:

• 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 500 ft AGL.

• FL 30 or 100 ft AGL.
• FL 30 or 1 500 ft AGL.
• 3 000 ft AMSL or 1 000ft AGL.

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