Database Systems b) To increase data redundancy

c) To reduce database size

Concepts - d) To improve hardware performance

5. Which of the following is NOT a

Comprehensive MCQ characteristic of a relational

database?

Test Paper a) Data is stored in tables

b) Supports complex relationships
c) Uses pointers to navigate between
Book: Database Systems Concepts by records
Silberschatz, Korth, Sudarshan (McGraw Hill) d) Enforces integrity constraints
Course: BCA-Sem 4 6. The entity-relationship model is
Total Questions: 75 (15 per unit) primarily used for:
Difficulty Level: Moderate to Very Difficult a) Database implementation
Instructions: Attempt all questions. Each b) Database design
question carries equal marks. c) Query optimization
d) Transaction management
7. What does a double ellipse represent
in an ER diagram?
a) Weak entity
Unit 1: Database b) Multivalued attribute
Fundamentals c) Derived attribute
d) Composite attribute
1. What is the primary advantage of 8. Which of the following is true about
using a DBMS over file systems? weak entities?
a) Reduced data redundancy a) They have their own primary key
b) Faster arithmetic calculations b) They cannot exist without a strong
c) Easier website design entity
d) Better hardware compatibility c) They don't participate in
2. Which component of a DBMS is relationships
responsible for concurrency control? d) They are always optional
a) Data Manager 9. The process of converting an ER
b) Transaction Manager diagram into relational schema is
c) File Manager called:
d) Buffer Manager a) Normalization
3. In the three-schema architecture, the b) Denormalization
conceptual schema describes: c) Schema mapping
a) Physical storage details d) Logical design
b) The logical structure of the entire 10. Which constraint ensures that a
database foreign key matches a primary key
c) User-specific views in another table?
d) Network configurations a) Domain constraint
4. What is the main purpose of data b) Referential integrity
independence in DBMS? c) Entity integrity
a) To allow changes in one schema d) Check constraint
without affecting others
 11. What is the primary purpose of c) DROP
normalization? d) REMOVE
a) To increase data redundancy 18. The HAVING clause is used to:
b) To minimize data redundancy a) Filter rows before grouping
c) To improve query performance b) Filter groups after grouping
d) To reduce database security c) Sort the result set
12. A relation is in 1NF if: d) Join multiple tables
a) It has no repeating groups 19. Which join returns all rows from
b) All non-key attributes depend on the both tables, with NULLs where no
primary key match exists?
c) It has no transitive dependencies a) INNER JOIN
d) All attributes are atomic b) LEFT JOIN
13. Which normal form addresses c) RIGHT JOIN
transitive dependencies? d) FULL OUTER JOIN
a) 1NF 20. What is the purpose of the GROUP
b) 2NF BY clause?
c) 3NF a) To eliminate duplicate rows
d) BCNF b) To group rows that have the same
14. In database design, denormalization values
is sometimes used to: c) To sort the result set
a) Improve query performance d) To filter rows based on a condition
b) Reduce data integrity 21. Which SQL function returns the
c) Increase storage requirements number of rows in a table?
d) Simplify database design a) SUM()
15. The data dictionary stores: b) COUNT()
a) Actual user data c) AVG()
b) Metadata about the database d) MAX()
c) Backup copies of the database 22. A correlated subquery is:
d) Transaction logs a) A subquery that executes
independently
b) A subquery that references columns
from the outer query
c) A subquery that returns multiple
Unit 2: Relational Model and rows
SQL d) A subquery that uses aggregate
functions
16. In the relational model, a tuple is: 23. Which constraint ensures that a
a) A column in a table column cannot have NULL values?
b) A row in a table a) UNIQUE
c) A relationship between tables b) PRIMARY KEY
d) A constraint on a table c) NOT NULL
17. Which SQL command is used to d) CHECK
permanently remove a table from 24. What is the purpose of the WITH
the database? clause in SQL?
a) DELETE a) To create temporary result sets
b) TRUNCATE b) To delete records
 c) To grant permissions 31. A transaction is:
d) To encrypt data a) A single SQL statement
25. Which of the following is NOT a b) A logical unit of work
valid SQL data type? c) A database backup
a) VARCHAR d) A user session
b) INT 32. Which ACID property ensures that
c) FLOAT transactions are all-or-nothing?
d) LOOP a) Atomicity
26. The LIKE operator is used for: b) Consistency
a) Arithmetic operations c) Isolation
b) Pattern matching d) Durability
c) Joining tables 33. The dirty read problem occurs
d) Sorting results when:
27. Which statement about views is a) A transaction reads uncommitted
correct? data
a) Views store physical data b) Two transactions deadlock
b) Views can improve security c) A transaction reads committed data
c) Views cannot be updated d) A transaction fails to commit
d) Views slow down all queries 34. Which isolation level prevents dirty
28. What does the CASCADE option do reads but allows non-repeatable
in a DROP TABLE statement? reads?
a) Drops all dependent objects a) Read Uncommitted
b) Creates a backup of the table b) Read Committed
c) Encrypts the table before dropping c) Repeatable Read
d) Prompts for confirmation d) Serializable
29. Which SQL command is used to 35. Two-phase locking consists of:
change the structure of an existing a) Growing and shrinking phases
table? b) Reading and writing phases
a) MODIFY c) Locking and unlocking phases
b) CHANGE d) Committing and aborting phases
c) ALTER 36. A deadlock occurs when:
d) UPDATE a) Two transactions wait indefinitely
30. What is the purpose of the for each other
DISTINCT keyword? b) A transaction reads dirty data
a) To sort results c) The system crashes
b) To eliminate duplicate rows d) A transaction commits successfully
c) To join tables 37. Which algorithm is used for
d) To filter rows deadlock detection?
a) Wait-for graph
b) Round-robin
c) First-come-first-served
d) Shortest job next
Unit 3: Transaction 38. The write-ahead logging protocol
Management ensures:
a) Logs are written before data
b) Data is written before logs
 c) Transactions are serializable 9. d) Logical design
d) Deadlocks are prevented Explanation: Process of converting
39. Which recovery technique uses ER to relational.
checkpoints? 10. b) Referential integrity
a) Immediate update Explanation: Ensures FK-PK
b) Deferred update relationships.
c) Shadow paging 11. b) To minimize data redundancy
d) ARIES Explanation: Primary goal of
40. In two-phase commit protocol, the normalization.
phases are: 12. a) It has no repeating groups
a) Voting and decision Explanation: 1NF requires atomic
b) Read and write values.
c) Lock and unlock 13. c) 3NF
d) Commit and abort Explanation: Addresses transitive
dependencies.
Answer Key & Explanations 14. a) Improve query performance
Unit 1 Explanation: Trade-off for faster
1. a) Reduced data redundancy queries.
Explanation: DBMS minimizes 15. b) Metadata about the database
redundancy through normalization. Explanation: Data dictionary stores
2. b) Transaction Manager schema info.
Explanation: Handles concurrency
control.
3. b) The logical structure of the entire
database
Explanation: Conceptual schema
describes the overall design.
4. a) To allow changes in one schema
without affecting others
Explanation: Key benefit of data
independence.
5. c) Uses pointers to navigate
between records
Explanation: Relational databases
use keys, not pointers.
6. b) Database design
Explanation: ER model is a design
tool.
7. b) Multivalued attribute
Explanation: Double ellipse =
multivalued.
8. b) They cannot exist without a strong
entity
Explanation: Weak entities depend
on strong entities.
INSTRUCTIONS: C) Relation
D) Tuple
6. In a database environment, what does
• Total Questions : 75
the term "instance" refer to?
• All questions are Multiple Choice
A) Logical structure
Questions (MCQs)
B) Physical storage layout
• Each question has four options: A, B,
C) Snapshot of data at a point in time
C, D
D) User-defined functions
• Only one option is correct
7. Which of the following is a
• Attempt all questions
disadvantage of the hierarchical
model?
A) Supports many-to-many
relationships easily
UNIT 1: Introduction B) Requires complex joins
C) Difficult to represent multiple
1. Which of the following best describes parent-child relationships
the purpose of a database management D) Slower query performance
system (DBMS)? 8. Which model allows representing data
A) To manage spreadsheets efficiently as a collection of relations?
B) To provide an interface for A) Network model
hardware interaction B) Object-oriented model
C) To store and manage data in a C) Relational model
structured way D) Hierarchical model
D) To design user interfaces 9. What does the acronym ACID stand
2. What is the main advantage of using a for in the context of transactions?
DBMS over file systems? A) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation,
A) Faster disk access Durability
B) Reduced data redundancy B) Access, Control, Integrity, Data
C) Lower software cost C) Application, Communication,
D) Easier programming Interface, Design
3. Which component of a DBMS is D) Accuracy, Clarity, Independence,
responsible for defining the schema? Direction
A) Query processor 10. Who among the following is primarily
B) Storage manager responsible for managing and
C) Data dictionary controlling the database?
D) Transaction manager A) End user
4. Which of the following is NOT a B) Database administrator
characteristic of a relational database? C) Application programmer
A) Tables D) System analyst
B) Keys
C) Pointers between records
D) Attributes
5. The term that refers to the logical UNIT 2: Entity-Relationship
design of a database is:
A) Schema Model
B) Instance
11. Which of the following represents a C) Always requires a junction table
real-world object or concept in an ER D) Cannot exist in the relational model
diagram? 18. Which type of attribute uniquely
A) Attribute identifies an entity instance?
B) Relationship A) Descriptive attribute
C) Entity B) Composite attribute
D) Key C) Key attribute
12. An attribute that can be divided into D) Derived attribute
smaller subparts is known as: 19. A relationship where an entity is
A) Derived attribute related to itself is called:
B) Composite attribute A) Recursive relationship
C) Multivalued attribute B) Binary relationship
D) Single-valued attribute C) Ternary relationship
13. In an ER diagram, how are weak D) Unary relationship
entities represented? 20. The mapping cardinality from entity A
A) Double rectangle to entity B indicates:
B) Rectangle with double border A) How many entities in A relate to
C) Diamond with double border how many in B
D) Ellipse with dashed line B) Whether A depends on B
14. What is a participation constraint in an C) If A is a weak entity
ER model? D) The inheritance hierarchy
A) It specifies the number of entities
involved in a relationship
B) It defines whether all entities must
participate in a relationship UNIT 3: Relational Model
C) It limits the number of attributes per
entity 21. What is a domain in the relational
D) It enforces primary key uniqueness model?
15. What does a total participation A) Set of allowed values for an
constraint imply? attribute
A) Every entity participates in at least B) Primary key of a relation
one relationship C) Foreign key constraint
B) Some entities may not participate D) Table name
C) Participation is optional 22. Which of the following is NOT a valid
D) Only foreign keys can participate integrity constraint in the relational
16. A derived attribute in an ER diagram is model?
usually represented by: A) Domain constraint
A) Dashed ellipse B) Referential integrity
B) Double ellipse C) View constraint
C) Solid rectangle D) Entity integrity
D) Underlined ellipse 23. In relational algebra, which operation
17. Which of the following is true about a returns only the rows that appear in
ternary relationship? both relations?
A) Involves three entities A) Union
B) Can be converted to binary without B) Intersection
loss
 C) Difference
D) Cartesian product
24. What does the projection operator (∏) UNIT 4: SQL
do in relational algebra?
A) Selects specific columns 31. Which command is used to remove a
B) Selects specific rows table from the database?
C) Joins two tables A) DELETE
D) Renames a relation B) DROP
25. Which of the following is used to C) TRUNCATE
rename a relation or its attributes in D) REMOVE
relational algebra? 32. Which of the following commands
A) σ modifies existing data in a table?
B) ρ A) INSERT
C) ∪ B) SELECT
D) × C) UPDATE
26. In SQL, which clause is used to group D) CREATE
rows that share a common value? 33. What does the COUNT() function
A) WHERE return when applied to a column?
B) HAVING A) Number of rows including NULLs
C) GROUP BY B) Number of distinct values
D) ORDER BY C) Number of non-null entries
27. Which of the following is a unary D) Total sum of numeric values
operation in relational algebra? 34. Which keyword is used to eliminate
A) Join duplicate rows in a SELECT
B) Selection statement?
C) Union A) DISTINCT
D) Division B) UNIQUE
28. Which of the following statements C) SINGLE
about a superkey is true? D) NO_REPEAT
A) It always contains a single attribute 35. Which of the following clauses is used
B) It uniquely identifies a tuple to filter groups after grouping?
C) It cannot include non-key attributes A) WHERE
D) It is minimal B) HAVING
29. What is a candidate key in a relational C) ON
schema? D) AND
A) Any key that can be used as a 36. Which SQL command is used to create
primary key a new table?
B) A key with the most attributes A) NEW TABLE
C) A key that allows duplicates B) MAKE TABLE
D) A foreign key C) BUILD TABLE
30. Which of the following is NOT a D) CREATE TABLE
function of a database schema? 37. Which of the following is NOT a DML
A) Define tables command?
B) Specify constraints A) SELECT
C) Store actual data B) INSERT
D) Define relationships
 C) GRANT 45. Which of the following is a string
D) DELETE function in SQL?
38. Which of the following is a DDL A) LENGTH
command? B) SUM
A) SELECT C) COUNT
B) INSERT D) AVG
C) ALTER
D) UPDATE
39. What is the purpose of the COMMIT
command in SQL? UNIT 5: Normalization &
A) Roll back changes Transactions
B) Save transaction permanently
C) Delete transaction logs
46. Which normal form eliminates partial
D) Start a new transaction
dependencies?
40. Which of the following is used to join
A) First Normal Form
two tables on matching values?
B) Second Normal Form
A) INNER JOIN
C) Third Normal Form
B) LEFT JOIN
D) Boyce-Codd Normal Form
C) RIGHT JOIN
47. Which normal form ensures that every
D) FULL OUTER JOIN
determinant is a candidate key?
41. What is the result of a full outer join
A) 1NF
between two tables?
B) 2NF
A) Only matching rows
C) 3NF
B) All rows from left table
D) BCNF
C) All rows from right table
48. What is the purpose of normalization in
D) All rows from both tables
databases?
42. Which of the following is NOT a valid
A) Improve query speed
aggregate function in SQL?
B) Reduce data redundancy
A) AVG
C) Increase disk space usage
B) SUM
D) Simplify indexing
C) MAX
49. Which of the following anomalies can
D) CONCAT
occur due to poor database design?
43. Which of the following is used to
A) Insertion anomaly
specify a condition for a field in SQL
B) Update anomaly
queries?
C) Deletion anomaly
A) GROUP BY
D) All of the above
B) ORDER BY
50. Functional dependency X → Y means:
C) WHERE
A) X determines Y
D) HAVING
B) Y determines X
44. Which of the following is used to sort
C) X and Y are independent
the output of a SELECT query?
D) X and Y are multivalued
A) GROUP BY
51. Which of the following is a property of
B) ORDER BY
a functional dependency?
C) WHERE
A) Reflexivity
D) HAVING
B) Symmetry
 C) Transitivity C) Time taken to execute a query
D) Both A and C D) Execution plan of a query
52. In a relation R(A,B,C), if A→B and 59. Which of the following ensures that
B→C, then which of the following either all operations of a transaction are
holds? done or none?
A) A→C A) Isolation
B) C→A B) Consistency
C) B→A C) Atomicity
D) None of these D) Durability
53. What is a lossless decomposition? 60. What is a deadlock in a database
A) Decomposition that preserves data system?
B) Decomposition that reduces size A) Two users trying to update the same
C) Decomposition that increases record
redundancy B) A transaction waiting indefinitely
D) Decomposition that improves speed for a resource
54. Which of the following is NOT a goal C) A transaction rolled back
of normalization? automatically
A) Eliminate redundant data D) A corrupted database
B) Minimize insertion anomalies 61. Which protocol helps avoid deadlocks
C) Maximize disk usage by requiring transactions to lock all
D) Ensure functional dependencies required items before execution?
55. Which of the following is a property of A) Timestamp ordering
a transaction? B) Two-phase locking
A) Redundancy C) Conservative two-phase locking
B) Atomicity D) Graph-based locking
C) Scalability 62. What is meant by serializability in
D) Portability transaction scheduling?
56. Which problem occurs when one A) Transactions run one after another
transaction reads uncommitted data B) Schedule is equivalent to some
from another? serial schedule
A) Dirty read C) Transactions have no overlapping
B) Non-repeatable read D) Transactions are isolated
C) Phantom read completely
D) Lost update 63. Which of the following is a recovery
57. What does the isolation level "Read technique in databases?
Committed" prevent? A) Shadow paging
A) Dirty reads B) Indexing
B) Non-repeatable reads C) Hashing
C) Phantom reads D) Query optimization
D) Deadlocks 64. What is the role of a log in a database
58. What is a schedule in the context of system?
transactions? A) Track query execution time
A) List of queries executed B) Record transaction history for
B) Order of operations from multiple recovery
transactions C) Optimize index usage
D) Monitor user activity
65. Which of the following ensures that attributes
once a transaction is committed, it B) A unique identifier
remains so even in case of failure? C) A foreign key
A) Atomicity D) A derived key
B) Consistency 72. Which of the following is a valid
C) Isolation reason for denormalization?
D) Durability A) To reduce redundancy
B) To improve query performance
C) To simplify updates
D) To enforce constraints
THEORETICAL QUESTIONS 73. Which of the following is a valid use of
a trigger in a database?
66. Which of the following best describes a A) Automatically update related tables
schema in a database? B) Perform batch processing
A) Actual data stored C) Enforce referential integrity
B) Logical structure of the database D) Replace primary keys
C) Backup copy of the database 74. Which of the following is NOT a valid
D) Physical storage layout reason to use indexes?
67. Which of the following is NOT a part A) Speed up search
of the query processor? B) Improve sorting
A) DDL interpreter C) Reduce disk space
B) Query optimizer D) Enhance query performance
C) Storage manager 75. Which of the following best defines a
D) Execution engine clustered index?
68. Which of the following is NOT a A) An index where the physical order
concurrency control mechanism? of data matches the index order
A) Locking B) An index that can be created on
B) Timestamping multiple columns
C) Logging C) An index that allows duplicate
D) Validation values
69. Which of the following is a benefit of D) An index used only for large tables
using views in SQL?
A) Improved security
B) Increased redundancy
C) Faster backups ANSWERS WITH
D) More disk usage
70. Which of the following is a limitation EXPLANATIONS
of the network model?
A) Complex structure Note: Correct answers are bolded and
B) Easy navigation followed by brief explanations.
C) Efficient querying
D) Good support for modern 1. C – DBMS stores and manages data in
applications a structured format.
71. Which of the following best describes a 2. B – DBMS reduces duplication
composite key? through centralized management.
A) A key made up of multiple 3. C – Data dictionary defines schema.
4. C – Relational model avoids pointers. 43. C – WHERE applies row conditions.
5. A – Schema is the logical structure. 44. B – ORDER BY sorts final output.
6. C – Instance shows current state. 45. A – LENGTH is string function.
7. C – Hierarchical model struggles with 46. B – 2NF removes partial dependencies.
multiple parents. 47. D – BCNF requires determinants to be
8. C – Relations are central to this model. keys.
9. A – Standard definition of ACID. 48. B – Normalization reduces
10. B – DBA controls and maintains the redundancy.
DB. 49. D – All anomalies can occur.
11. C – Entities represent real-world 50. A – X determines Y.
objects. 51. D – Reflexivity and transitivity apply.
12. B – Composite attributes break down 52. A – By transitivity, A→C.
further. 53. A – Preserves all data during split.
13. B – Weak entities shown with double 54. C – Not a goal of normalization.
border. 55. B – Atomicity is a core ACID property.
14. B – Defines mandatory participation. 56. A – Reading uncommitted data = dirty
15. A – Total participation implies all must read.
join. 57. A – Read Committed prevents dirty
16. A – Dashed ellipse = derived attribute. reads.
17. A – Ternary involves three entities. 58. B – Schedule = interleaved operations.
18. C – Key attribute uniquely identifies. 59. C – Atomicity = all or nothing.
19. A – Recursive links entity to itself. 60. B – Waiting indefinitely = deadlock.
20. A – Shows how many entities relate. 61. C – Conservative locks all upfront.
21. A – Domain = allowed values. 62. B – Serializable = behaves like serial.
22. C – View constraint isn't standard. 63. A – Shadow paging aids recovery.
23. B – Intersection finds common rows. 64. B – Logs help recover lost data.
24. A – Projection selects columns. 65. D – Durability ensures permanence.
25. B – ρ renames relations/attributes. 66. B – Schema = logical structure.
26. C – GROUP BY organizes rows. 67. C – Storage manager is not part of
27. B – Selection filters rows. query processor.
28. B – Superkey uniquely identifies. 68. C – Logging tracks, but doesn’t control
29. A – Candidate keys qualify as PK. concurrency.
30. C – Schema doesn’t store actual data. 69. A – Views restrict access = security.
31. B – DROP removes table structure. 70. A – Network model has complex
32. C – UPDATE modifies existing data. structure.
33. C – COUNT ignores NULLs. 71. A – Composite = multiple parts.
34. A – DISTINCT removes duplicates. 72. B – Denormalization trades
35. B – HAVING filters grouped results. redundancy for speed.
36. D – CREATE TABLE builds new 73. A – Triggers automate actions.
table. 74. C – Indexes increase space.
37. C – GRANT is DCL, not DML. 75. A – Clustered index = data order
38. C – ALTER modifies schema. matches index.
39. B – COMMIT saves changes.
40. A – INNER JOIN matches values.
41. D – Full join includes all rows.
42. D – CONCAT is string, not aggregate.
Database System Concepts – MCQ C. Backup and recovery
Test Paper (Total Questions: 75) D. Performance tuning
6. A database model that uses pointers
Time: 90 Minutes to navigate between records is the:
A. Relational Model
Attempt all questions. Each question
B. Network Model
carries equal marks. C. Hierarchical Model
D. Object-Oriented Model
7. In a relational database, relations
are:
UNIT I: Introduction to Database A. Classes
Concepts (Q1–Q15) B. Objects
C. Tables
1. Which of the following best describes D. Files
data independence? 8. Which type of language is SQL?
A. Ability to change application A. Procedural
without changing data B. Object-oriented
B. Ability to change data without C. Declarative
changing application D. Functional
C. Redundancy elimination 9. Which one of the following is not a
D. Data encryption technique goal of a DBMS?
2. A DBMS that allows simultaneous A. Data Redundancy
access to multiple users is known as B. Data Integrity
a: C. Data Security
A. Single-user system D. Data Sharing
B. Distributed system 10. Data redundancy is minimized in a
C. Multi-user system database through:
D. Mainframe system A. Indexing
3. Which component of a DBMS B. Constraints
handles query optimization? C. Normalization
A. Storage Manager D. Aggregation
B. Query Processor 11. Logical schema defines:
C. Transaction Manager A. Physical storage
D. Buffer Manager B. Constraints on data
4. The three-schema architecture C. Hardware configuration
includes: D. Actual data files
A. Internal, Conceptual, External 12. Which command is used to define a
B. Primary, Secondary, Tertiary new relation in SQL?
C. Physical, Logical, Virtual A. ALTER
D. View, Table, Record B. INSERT
5. Which of the following is not a C. SELECT
responsibility of a database D. CREATE
administrator? 13. The abstraction level that views data
A. Granting user permissions as stored in memory is:
B. Designing algorithms A. External
B. Conceptual
 C. Physical A. Foreign Key
D. Logical B. Primary Key
14. Which one of these is not a level in C. Null Value
data abstraction? D. Functional Dependency
A. Internal 21. Which operator is used to rename
B. Conceptual relations in relational algebra?
C. Abstract A. ρ
D. View B. π
15. Which among the following is most C. σ
closely related to the term D. μ
“metadata”? 22. In relational algebra, which operator
A. User Data results in all combinations of tuples?
B. Data about Data A. Natural Join
C. Encryption Keys B. Theta Join
D. Backup Logs C. Cartesian Product
D. Union
23. A candidate key is:
A. Always a foreign key
UNIT II: Relational Model, B. A primary key subset
C. A super key with no extra attribute
Algebra, and Calculus (Q16–Q30)
D. A redundant constraint
24. The difference operation in
16. Which relational algebra operation
relational algebra is:
combines tuples from two relations?
A. Commutative
A. Select
B. Non-commutative
B. Project
C. Associative
C. Join
D. Idempotent
D. Rename
25. Which query returns the names of
17. The symbol σ in relational algebra
employees with a salary > 50000?
represents:
A. σ salary>50000 (Employee)
A. Projection
B. π salary<50000 (Employee)
B. Selection
C. σ name=50000 (Employee)
C. Join
D. ρ salary=Employee (50000)
D. Cartesian product
26. A query language is said to be
18. Which of the following is not a basic
complete if it can express:
operation of relational algebra?
A. Union, Intersection, Difference
A. Union
B. Select, Project, Join
B. Intersection
C. All algebraic operations
C. Select
D. All computable queries
D. Add
27. Which of the following is false about
19. Tuple Relational Calculus uses:
relational algebra?
A. Procedural approach
A. It is procedural
B. Mathematical logic
B. It has six fundamental operations
C. Programming loops
C. It uses loop constructs
D. Query trees
D. It is the theoretical basis of SQL
20. Which of the following ensures
uniqueness in a relational model?
 28. Relational Calculus is more: B. UNION
A. Implementation-specific C. CONNECT
B. Declarative D. SELECT+
C. Hardware-oriented 35. Which type of JOIN returns only
D. Logical only matching rows from both tables?
29. Which expression lists names of A. OUTER JOIN
customers with balance > 5000? B. LEFT JOIN
A. C. NATURAL JOIN
π_name(σ_balance>5000(Customer)) D. INNER JOIN
B. σ_name(balance>5000(Customer)) 36. Which of the following is not a DDL
C. command?
π_balance(σ_name>5000(Customer)) A. CREATE
D. π(Customer.balance>5000) B. ALTER
30. Which one is a derived relational C. DROP
algebra operation? D. INSERT
A. Selection 37. Which SQL keyword is used to sort
B. Intersection the result-set?
C. Union A. ORDER BY
D. Projection B. GROUP BY
C. SORT
UNIT III: SQL, Constraints, and D. RANK BY
Normalization (Q31–Q50) 38. The purpose of foreign key in a table
is to:
31. Which SQL clause is used to A. Enforce primary key
eliminate duplicate rows in a query? B. Establish relationship
A. DISTINCT C. Provide index
B. UNIQUE D. Duplicate records
C. HAVING 39. A relation in 2NF must first satisfy:
D. GROUP BY A. BCNF
32. Which command removes all rows B. 1NF
from a table without logging C. 3NF
individual row deletions? D. 4NF
A. DELETE 40. Transitive dependency can be
B. DROP eliminated by:
C. TRUNCATE A. Normalizing to 1NF
D. REMOVE B. Using SQL joins
33. The CHECK constraint in SQL is C. Decomposing to 3NF
used to: D. Merging tables
A. Check syntax 41. Which of these is not a valid SQL
B. Limit data values constraint?
C. Check table structure A. NOT NULL
D. Validate database users B. AUTO INCREMENT
34. Which keyword is used to combine C. UNIQUE
rows from two or more tables in D. DOMAIN
SQL? 42. Which of the following anomalies is
A. LINK addressed by normalization?
 A. Syntax errors 50. Which of the following operations
B. Update anomalies can violate referential integrity?
C. Logic errors A. SELECT
D. System crashes B. INSERT
43. Normalization is primarily aimed at: C. DELETE
A. Query optimization D. CREATE
B. Backup efficiency
C. Redundancy reduction
D. Data encryption
44. If a relation has partial dependency, UNIT IV: Transactions, Recovery,
it is in: and Concurrency Control (Q51–Q65)
A. 1NF
B. 2NF
51. Which property ensures that a
C. 3NF
transaction is all-or-nothing?
D. BCNF
A. Atomicity
45. Which normal form does not allow
B. Consistency
multivalued dependencies?
C. Isolation
A. 2NF
D. Durability
B. 3NF
52. A transaction that reads
C. 4NF
uncommitted data from another is
D. BCNF
experiencing:
46. In SQL, which keyword is used to
A. Dirty read
group rows sharing a property?
B. Phantom read
A. ORDER BY
C. Lost update
B. GROUP BY
D. Consistency anomaly
C. CLASSIFY
53. The 'commit' command is used to:
D. BATCH
A. Save changes permanently
47. Which of the following will create a
B. Cancel the transaction
table?
C. Restore data
A. CREATE TABLE employee;
D. Lock the table
B. MAKE TABLE employee();
54. Which schedule allows concurrent
C. INIT TABLE employee;
execution while preserving
D. ADD TABLE employee();
consistency?
48. Which SQL clause is used for
A. Serial
aggregate filtering?
B. Serializable
A. WHERE
C. Cascading
B. HAVING
D. Recoverable
C. LIMIT
55. Which technique ensures atomicity
D. CHECK
of transactions?
49. What does the keyword DEFAULT
A. Indexing
do in SQL?
B. Logging
A. Creates a primary key
C. Caching
B. Assigns a value if none provided
D. Compression
C. Sets access level
56. A transaction is said to be in a failed
D. Deletes existing data
state when:
A. It commits
 B. It rolls back C. Non-serializable
C. It aborts D. Serializable
D. It is locked 65. Two-phase locking protocol ensures:
57. What is a lost update problem? A. High availability
A. When changes by one transaction B. Deadlock detection
are overwritten by another C. Conflict serializability
B. When data is permanently lost D. Fast execution
C. When backup fails
D. When commit is missed
58. Which one is not a concurrency
problem? UNIT V: File Organization and
A. Dirty read Indexing (Q66–Q75)
B. Lost update
C. Atomic write
66. Which file organization stores
D. Unrepeatable read
records in order of a key field?
59. Locks are used to:
A. Heap
A. Prevent power loss
B. Sequential
B. Ensure security
C. Clustered
C. Control concurrency
D. Hashed
D. Create backups
67. Which index uses a tree structure?
60. Which schedule avoids cascading
A. Hash Index
rollbacks?
B. B+ Tree Index
A. Non-recoverable
C. Inverted Index
B. Recoverable
D. Sparse Index
C. Strict
68. In B+ Tree, leaf nodes are:
D. Serializable
A. Not used
61. Durability ensures that:
B. Linked sequentially
A. Data remains in cache
C. Only used for insertions
B. Committed changes survive failures
D. Disconnected
C. Transactions don’t abort
69. Dense index has an index entry for:
D. Queries always return same result
A. Each block
62. A write-ahead log ensures:
B. Each record
A. Logs are always up-to-date
C. Each table
B. Data is compressed
D. Each field
C. Logs are written after changes
70. The term 'fan-out' in indexing refers
D. Logs are written before changes
to:
63. A transaction that violates
A. Number of child nodes
serializability results in:
B. Number of parents
A. High performance
C. Degree of joins
B. Dirty reads
D. Size of record
C. Inconsistent data
71. Which is not true about hashing?
D. Deadlocks
A. Ideal for range queries
64. Which of these is not a serializable
B. Uses hash functions
schedule?
C. Supports fast lookups
A. Conflict-serializable
D. May lead to collisions
B. View-serializable
72. The primary goal of indexing is to:
A. Reduce redundancy
B. Increase storage
C. Speed up data access
D. Improve normalization
73. Which one is not a type of index?
A. Sparse
B. Dense
C. Primary
D. Logical
74. Which of the following is true about
overflow pages in hashing?
A. Always used
B. Never needed
C. Used when collisions occur
D. Used for backups
75. Secondary index is:
A. Based on non-primary attributes
B. Always unique
C. Based on primary key only
D. Not used in search
Answers & Explanations Q.No Ans Explanation
Add is not part of relational
18 D
Q.No Ans Explanation algebra's core operations.
Data independence means Tuple relational calculus is based
19 B
1 B changing data storage without on predicate logic.
affecting application programs. Primary key ensures uniqueness of
20 B
Multi-user DBMS allows each tuple.
2 C concurrent access by multiple ρ (rho) is the rename operator in
21 A
users. relational algebra.
The query processor optimizes Cartesian product generates all
22 C
3 B queries and generates efficient tuple combinations.
execution plans. A candidate key is a minimal
23 C
The three-schema architecture super key, with no extra attributes.
4 A includes internal, conceptual, and Set difference (A−B) is not
external levels. 24 B
commutative, i.e., A−B ≠ B−A.
DBAs do not design algorithms; The correct relational algebra
5 B 25 A
developers do. syntax for condition on salary.
The network model uses pointers A query language is complete if it
6 B
for navigation between records. 26 D can express all computable
In relational databases, relations queries.
7 C
are equivalent to tables. Relational algebra is non-
27 C
SQL is a declarative language, procedural and doesn’t use loops.
8 C
focusing on what data to retrieve. Relational calculus is declarative,
28 B
Data redundancy is a problem specifying what data, not how.
9 A
DBMS tries to minimize. Correct syntax: projection after
29 A
Normalization reduces redundancy selection.
10 C
by organizing data properly. Intersection is derived from
30 B
Logical schema defines structure union and difference.
11 B
and constraints of data. 31 A DISTINCT removes duplicate rows.
CREATE is used to define a new TRUNCATE is faster and doesn't log
12 D 32 C
table or relation in SQL. row deletions individually.
Physical (internal) schema CHECK constraints validate column
13 C concerns how data is physically 33 B
values with conditions.
stored.
UNION merges result sets,
Abstract is not a standard level in 34 B
14 C removing duplicates by default.
data abstraction.
INNER JOIN returns only rows
Metadata means data about data, 35 D
15 B with matches in both tables.
such as schema definitions.
INSERT is a DML (not DDL)
JOIN combines related tuples from 36 D
16 C command.
two relations.
ORDER BY is used to sort SQL
σ denotes the selection operation 37 A
17 B query results.
in relational algebra.
Q.No Ans Explanation Q.No Ans Explanation
Foreign key links one table to A failed transaction is one that
38 B 56 C
another, establishing relationships. aborts.
A table must be in 1NF before it Lost update occurs when
39 B
can be in 2NF. 57 A concurrent updates overwrite each
3NF removes transitive other.
40 C
dependencies. Atomic write is not a concurrency
58 C
DOMAIN is not a valid SQL issue.
constraint (though it exists in Locks control concurrent access to
41 D 59 C
theory, it's rarely implemented as ensure data consistency.
SQL constraint). Strict schedules ensure changes
Update anomalies are removed 60 C are visible only after commit,
42 B
using normalization. avoiding cascading rollbacks.
Normalization eliminates data Durability means changes persist
43 C
redundancy. 61 B after a successful commit, even
Partial dependency exists in 1NF, after system failures.
44 A
not 2NF. In write-ahead logging, log records
62 D
4NF removes multivalued are written before data changes.
45 C
dependencies. Non-serializable schedules can
63 C
GROUP BY groups rows for cause inconsistent data.
46 B
aggregation functions. Non-serializable schedules don’t
64 C
CREATE TABLE is the correct SQL maintain database consistency.
47 A
command. Two-phase locking guarantees
65 C
HAVING filters on aggregate results conflict-serializability.
48 B Sequential file organization stores
(unlike WHERE). 66 B
DEFAULT assigns values when none data sorted by key.
49 B B+ Trees are commonly used for
are provided. 67 B
DELETE may violate referential
indexing due to balanced search.
50 C Leaf nodes in B+ Trees are linked
integrity if foreign keys exist. 68 B
Atomicity ensures that all for range queries.
51 A operations in a transaction are Dense index has one entry per
69 B
completed. record.
Dirty reads occur when one Fan-out is the number of children
70 A
52 A transaction reads uncommitted a node in an index can have.
data. Hashing doesn’t support range
71 A
COMMIT finalizes and saves all queries well.
53 A
changes. 72 C Indexing speeds up data retrieval.
Serializable schedules ensure Logical index is not a standard
73 D
54 B correctness in concurrent index type.
execution. Overflow pages handle collisions
74 C
Logging helps maintain atomicity in hashing.
55 B
and durability.
Q.No Ans Explanation
Secondary indexes are on non-
75 A
primary attributes.