IIT - JEE 2016 (Advanced)

(2) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

PART I PHYSICS
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks:18)

This section contains SIX questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks
: +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks
: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 1 In all other cases.

1. There are two Vernier calipers both of which have 1 cm divided into 10 equal divisions on
the main scale. The Vernier scale of one of the calipers (C1) has 10 equal divisions that
correspond to 9 main scale divisions. The Vernier scale of the other caliper (C2) has 10
equal divisions that correspond to 11 main scale divisions. The readings of the two
calipers are shown in the figure. The measured values (in cm) by calipers C1 and C2,
respectively, are

(A) 2.87 and 2.86

(B) 2.85 and 2.82

(C) 2.87 and 2.87

(D) 2.87 and 2.83

1. (D)
Reading of a vernier callipers = Main scale reading + n least count
For 1st callipers :
9
1 vernier scale division =
mm = 0.09 cm.
10
For 2nd callipers :
11
1 VSD =
mm = 0.11 cm
10
Reading of 1st calliper :
R1 = 3.5 7 0.09 = 3.5 0.63 = 2.87
Reading of 2nd calliper :
R2 = 3.6 7 0.11 = 0.77 = 2.83
2. The electrostatic energy of Z protons uniformly distributed throughout a spherical nucleus
of radius R is given by
3 Z(Z 1)e 2
E=
5 40 R
The measured masses of the neutron, 11 H ,

15
7 N

and

15
8 O

are 1.008665 u, 1.007825 u,

15.000109 u and 15.003065 u, respectively. Given that the radii of both the

15
7 N

and

15
8 O

nuclei are same, 1 u = 931.5 MeV/c2 (c is the speed of light) and e2/(40) = 1.44 MeV

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (3)
15
fm. Assuming that the difference between the binding energies of 15
7 N and 8 O is purely
due to the electrostatic energy, the radius of either of the nuclei is
(1 fm = 1015 m)
(A) 2.85 fm
(B) 3.03 fm
(C) 3.42 fm
(D) 3.80 fm
2. (C)
(BE)15 = 7mp 8mn m15
N
N
7

(BE)15

8 O

= 8m p 7m n m 15

8 O

(BE) = (m n m p ) m 15 O m 15 N
8

= 0.00084 + 0.002956
= 0.003796 u

141.44MeVf m
3
=R

5 0.003796931.5MeV

R = 3.42 fm

3. The ends Q and R of two thin wires, PQ and RS, are soldered (joined) together. Initially
each of the wires has a length of 1 m at 10C. Now the end P is maintained at 10C, while
the end S is heated and maintained at 400C. The system is thermally insulated from its
surroundings. If the thermal conductivity of wire PQ is twice that of the wire RS and the
coefficient of linear thermal expansion of PQ is 1.2 105 K1, the change in length of the
wire PQ is
(A) 0.78 mm
(B) 0.90 mm
(C) 1.56 mm
(D) 2.34 mm
3. (A)

Q, R
L = 1m

T=10C

Let temperature of junction = T

Rate of heat transfer =

L = 1m

T=400C

dQ 2KA(T 10) KA(400 T)

dt
L
L

2(T 10) = 400 T

3T = 420
T = 140C
for wire PQ
x

dx

T 140 10

130
x
1

Temp. at distance x
T = 10 + 130 x
T 30 = 130x
Inc. in length of small element
dy
T
dx
dy
(T 10)
dx

(4) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

dy
(130x)
dx
L

0
2

dy 130 xdx

130x
2
130 1.2 105
L
2

L 78 105 m 0.78mm

4. A small object is placed 50 cm to the left of a thin convex lens of focal length 30 cm. A
convex spherical mirror of radius of curvature 100 cm is placed to the right of the lens at a
distance of 50 cm. The mirror is tilted such that the axis of the mirror is at an angle
= 30 to the axis of the lens, as shown in the figure.

If the origin of the coordinate system is taken to be at the centre of the lens, the
coordinates (in cm) of the point (x, y) at which the image is formed are
(A) (25, 25 3 )
(B) (0, 0)
(C) (125/3, 25/ 3 ) (D) (50 25 3, 25 )
4. (A)
Suppose, to begin with, that the axis of the mirror & the axis of the lens are aligned
1
1
1
(i.e. = 0). I1 is the image formed by the lens

v1 75cm
v1 (50) 30

(0, 0)
I2

I1 (75, 0)

Coordinate P is (50, 0)

I1 is a virtual object for the mirror.

PI1 = 25 cm.
Focal length of mirror = 50
Using uvf formula for mirror.
1
1
1

v2 50; we find that the image I2 of I1 is formed at (0, 0) as shown in

v2 25 50
the figure.

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (5)
In the first approximation, we can now treat the mirror as plane mirror & then we note
that the rotation by ( = 30) deflects the image by 2 = 60, while keeping the distance of
the image constant (50 cm) from the pole of the mirror.
x-coordinate of find image = 50 cm 50 cos 60 = 25
y-coordinate of the final image = 50 sin 60 = 25
5. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a movable frictionless piston. Its initial
thermodynamic state at pressure Pi = 105 Pa and volume Vi = 103 m3 changes to a final
state at Pf = (1/32) 105 Pa and Vf = 8 103 m3 in an adiabatic quasi-static process, such
that P3V5 = constant. Consider another thermodynamic process that brings the system
from the same initial state to the same final state in two steps: an isobaric expansion at Pi
followed by an isochoric (isovolumetric) process at volume Vf. The amount of heat
supplied to the system in the two-step process is approximately
(A) 112 J
(B) 294 J
(C) 588 J
(D) 813 J
5. (C)
P

B
For adiabatic process
P3V5 = constant
5
PV 3

constant
5
3

gas is monoatomic

Process AC
5
5
Q1 nCp T n R T P V
2
2
5
Q1 105 (8 1) 103
2

Q1 17.5 102 J1750J

Process CD
3
3
Q2 nCV T n R T V(P)
2
2
3
1

Q2 8 103 1 105
2
32

93
Q2
102 11.625 102
8
Qnet 1750 1162588J

6. An accident in a nuclear laboratory resulted in deposition of a certain amount of

radioactive material of half-life 18 days inside the laboratory. Tests revealed that the
radiation was 64 times more than the permissible level required for safe operation of the
laboratory. What is the minimum number of days after which the laboratory can be
considered safe for use?
(A) 64
(B) 90
(C) 108
(D) 120

(6) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

6. (C)
Activity A N (Number of atoms)
n

1
N = N0
2
where n Number of half lives
N
If N = 0
64
n
N
1
N0 0
64
2
n

1 1
1


64 2
2
n=6
time = n T1/2

time = 6 18 days = 108 days

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks:32)

This section contains EIGHT questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE
of these four option(s) is(are) correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in the
ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks
: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is
(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option,
provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks
: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all
these three will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks;
and darkening (A) and (B) result in 2 marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

7. Two thin circular discs of mass m and 4m, having radii of a and 2a, respectively, are
rigidly fixed by a massless, rigid rod of length
= 24a through their centres. This
assembly is laid on a firm and flat surface, and set rolling without slipping on the surface
so that the angular speed about the axis of the rod is . The angular momentum of the
entire assembly about the point O is L (see the figure). Which of the following
statement(s) is(are) true?

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (7)
(A) The magnitude of angular momentum of the assembly about its centre of mass is
17 ma2 /2
(B) The centre of mass of the assembly rotates about the z-axis with an angular speed of
/5
(C) The magnitude of the z-component of L is 55 ma2
(D) The magnitude of angular momentum of centre of mass of the assembly about the
point O is 81 ma2
7. (A), (B)
z

L
C
L

X1 = 5a

tan =

a
=
L

m1a

1
24

4m, 2a

X1 = 5a

sin =

1
5

(A) Angular momentum

L = I
ma 2

L=

L=

4m(2a)2

17ma 2

L2 a 2
(B) X =
X = a 24 1
X = 5a
Velocity of Disc A,
VA = z .x
Disc performs pure rolling.
VP = VA a 0
VA = a z .x

8. A rigid wire loop of square shape having side of length L and resistance R is moving
along the x-axis with a constant velocity v0 in the plane of the paper. At t = 0, the right
edge of the loop enters a region of length 3L where there is a uniform magnetic field B0
into the plane of the paper, as shown in the figure. For sufficiently large v0, the loop
eventually crosses the region. Let x be the location of the right edge of the loop. Let v(x),
I(x) and F(x) represent the velocity of the loop, current in the loop, and force on the loop,
respectively, as a function of x. Counter-clockwise current is taken as positive.

(8) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

Which of the following schematic plot(s) is(are) correct? (Ignore gravity)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

8. (B), (D)
No current
I(x)
R

I(x)
F(x)

F(x)

(I) x

(II)

(III)
x

F(x) = I(x)LB =

(I)

d
dx

BL
(x)
R
d
B2 L2
d
B2 L2

m
dx
R
dx
mR

e = BL (x)

(II)
(III)

I(x) =

(i)
(ii)

Current is anticlockwise.
I(x) = 0 F(x) = 0 (x) = constant
Current is clockwise. Speed decreases linearly in accordance with Eq.(ii). Thus
current magnitude decreases linearly.
F is always in ve xdirection.

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (9)
9. In an experiment to determine the acceleration due to gravity g, the formula used for the
7(R r)
time period of a periodic motion is T = 2
. The values of R and r are measured
5g
to be (60 1) mm and (10 1) mm, respectively. In five successive measurements, the
time period is found to be 0.52 s, 0.56 s, 0.57 s, 0.54 s and 0.59 s. The least count of the
watch used for the measurement of time period is 0.01 s. Which of the following
statement(s) is(are) true?
(A) The error in the measurement of r is 10%
(B) The error in the measurement of T is 3.57%
(C) The error in the measurement of T is 2%
(D) The error in the determined value of g is 11%
9. (A)
Measured value of r = (10 1) mm
r = 1 mm
r 1
Relative error =
10%
r 10
n 5

Ti 0.52 0.56 0.57 0.54 0.59

Average value of T i 1
s
n

T 0.556s 0.56s

0.01
1.79%
0.56
Reported value of (R r) = (50 2) mm
2
Relative error in (R r) =
4%
50
7(R r)
g
T (R r)

2
T = 2

5g
g
T (R r)
g

7.57%
g
Relative error in time period

10. Light of wavelength ph falls on a cathode plate inside a vacuum tube as shown in the
figure. The work function of the cathode surface is and the anode is a wire mesh of
conducting material kept at a distance d from the cathode. A potential difference V is
maintained between the electrodes. If the minimum de Broglie wavelength of the
electrons passing through the anode is e, which of the following statement(s) is(are) true?

(10) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

(A) For large potential difference (V >> /e), e is approximately halved if V is made
four times
(B) e decreases with increase in and ph
(C) e increases at the same rate as ph for ph < hc/
(D) e is approximately halved, if d is doubled
10. (A)
K max

hc
eV
ph

[Kmax = maximum energy e reaching the anode]

hc

eV

2m e2 ph

h2

(i)

From Equation (i) (A) follows

hc

decreases

ph

if increases and ph increases then

As a result c increases e is independent of d and clearly e and ph do not increase at

the same rate.
11. Consider two identical galvanometers and two identical resistors with resistance R. If the
internal resistance of the galvanometers RC < R/2, which of the following statement(s)
about any one of the galvanometers is(are) true?
(A) The maximum voltage range is obtained when all the components are connected in
series
(B) The maximum voltage range is obtained when the two resistors and one galvanometer
are connected in series, and the second galvanometer is connected in parallel to the
first galvanometer
(C) The maximum current range is obtained when all the components are connected in
parallel
(D) The maximum current range is obtained when the two galvanometers are connected in
series and the combination is connected in parallel with both the resistors
11. (B), (C)
Let the maximum allowed current through the galvanometers be iG
RC
VS

RC

iG
iG

RC

VP

VS = 2iG [R + RC]

VP = iG [RC + 4R]
iG

RC

R C 4R
VP

VS 2 R R C

VP R C R 3R

VS
2R RC

VP 1 3
R

VS 2 2 R R C

RC

R
3R
1
2
R RC

2
2
R R C 3R

10

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (11)

3R
1
2R RC

VP > VS

iG
iG
RC
iP

R
iG C
R
iG

R
i P 2iG 1 C
R

RC
R

R
RC

iG

RC
RC

iS

R
2iG C
R

2iG

4R C
iS iG 1
R

RC
R

i P 2 R R1 2 R R C

iS R 4R C
R 4R C

i P 1 R 4R C 3R 1
3R

1

iS 2 R 4R C 2 R 4R C
R
1
1
3
R C R 4R C 3R

1.
2
R 4R C 3R
R 4R C
i P iS Hence (C).

12. While conducting the Young's double slit experiment, a student replaced the two slits with
a large opaque plate in the x-y plane containing two small holes that act as two coherent
point sources (S1, S2) emitting light of wavelength 600 nm. The student mistakenly placed
the screen parallel to the xz plane (for z > 0) at a distance D = 3m from the mid-point of
S1S2, as shown schematically in the figure. The distance between the sources d = 0.6003 mm.
The origin O is at the intersection of the screen and the line joining S1S2. Which of the
following is(are) true of the intensity pattern on the screen?

(A) Hyperbolic bright and dark bands with foci symmetrically placed about O in the xdirection
(B) Straight bright and dark bands parallel to the x-axis
(C) Semicircular bright and dark bands centered at point O
(D) The region very close to the point O will be dark

11

(12) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

12. (C), (D)

d 0.6003 103 0.6003 10 4 6003

1000.5

6
6
600 109
1

d 1000 Hence (D)

2

s1 s2

13. A block with mass M is connected by a massless spring with stiffness constant k to a rigid
wall and moves without friction on a horizontal surface. The block oscillates with small
amplitude A about an equilibrium position x0. Consider two cases : (i) when the block is
at x0; and (ii) when the block is at x = x0 + A. In both the cases, a particle with mass
m (< M) is softly placed on the block after which they stick to each other. Which of the
following statement(s) is (are) true about the motion after the mass m is placed on the
mass M?
M
(A) The amplitude of oscillation in the first case changes by a factor of
, whereas
mM
in the second case it remains unchanged.
(B) The final time period of oscillation in both the cases is same
(C) The total energy decreases in both the cases
(D) The instantaneous speed at x0 of the combined masses decreases in both the cases
13. (A), (B), (D)
In case (i) :

k
Speed of M = A0
0

After the block 'm' is placed on 'M'.

m
Speed of the combination =
A0
mM

m
m
m
A
=
0 New amplitude =
A
mM mM
mM

newfrequence

Energy remains the same in case (ii)

The instantaneous speed is decreased clearly at x0 in both cases.
14. In the circuit shown below, the key is pressed at time t = 0. Which of the following
statement(s) is(are) true?

12

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (13)
(A) The voltmeter displays 5 V as soon as the key is pressed, and displays + 5 V after a
long time
(B) The voltmeter will display 0 V at time t = ln 2 seconds
(C) The current in the ammeter becomes 1/e of the initial value after 1 second
(D) The current in the ammeter becomes zero after a long time
14. (A), (B), (C), (D)
It is assumed in the following that the voltmeter is ideal.
The voltmeter measures (VD VB)
For t

At time t = 0

B (0 V)

B (+5V)
A

+5V

0V

+5V

D (0 V)

D (5V)

VD VB = 5V
40 F
+5V

VD VB = + 5V
50 k

25 k
0V

0V

+5V

i1(t)

20 F
0V

i2(t)

5V t/ 1
5V t/ 2
e
i2 (t)
e
25k
50k
1 = 25 103 40 106 s
2 = 50 103 20 106 s
1 = 1000 103 s = 1s
2 = 1s
5V
5V
VB t log 2 log 2 2.5V
VD t log 2 5V log 2 2.5V
e
e
Voltmeter read 0 at t = log 2 sec.
Initial value of current through the ammeter = i1 (0) i 2 (0) .
i (0) i (0)
After 1s, current through ammeter = i1 (1s) i 2 (1s) 1 2
e
e
It follows that (C) is also correct.
(D) is obvious from the expressions of i1(t) & i2(t)
i1 (t)

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks:12)

This section contains TWO paragraphs.

Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks
: +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer is darkened.
Zero Marks
: 0 If all other cases.

13

(14) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

PARAGRAPH 1
A frame of reference that is accelerated with respect to an inertial frame of reference is called
a noninertial frame of reference. A coordinate system fixed on a circular disc rotating about
a fixed axis with a constant angular velocity is an example of a noninertial frame of
reference. The relationship between the force Frot experienced by a particle of mass m
moving on the rotating disc and the force Fin experienced by the particle in an inertial frame
of reference is
Frot Fin 2m rot m( r) ,

where rot is the velocity of the particle in the rotating frame of reference and r is the
position vector of the particle with respect to the centre of the disc.
Now consider a smooth slot along a diameter of a disc of radius R rotating counterclockwise
with a constant angular speed about its vertical axis through its centre. We assign a
coordinate system with the origin at the center of the disc, the xaxis along the slot, the
. A small
yaxis perpendicular to the slot and the zaxis along the rotation axis ( k)
block of mass m is gently placed in the slot at r (R / 2)i at t = 0 and is constrained to move
only along the slot.

15. The distance r of the block at time t is

(A)

R 2t
e e2t
4

(B)

R t
e et
4

R
cos 2t
2

(C)

(D)

R
cos t
2

15. (B)
Let (v) be the radial speed. Only the last term in the expression of Frot causes change in
radial speed.
dv
= 2r
dr
dr

R
r 2
2

r=

= .dt

R
. secx
2

secxdx

v = r
2

R
dr
= .sec x.tan x
2
dx
dr

= sec x dx
R
tan x
2

= t

log (sec x + tan x) = t

14

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (15)

sec x + tan x = et

2r
2r
t
1 = e
R
R

2r
2R
2 t
t 2r
1 =
e 2e
R
R

R
2r
2et = 1e2t
R
R t
r = e et
4

16. The net reaction of the disc on the block is

1
m2R e2t e2t j mgk
2
1
(D) m2R et et j mgk
2

(A) m2Rcos tj mg k

(B)

(C) m2Rsin tj mg k

16. (D)
R t
e et

4
R
r = et et

4
R
2mr = m2 et et

2
The second term 2m Vrot (coriolis term) is clearly in j direction.

r=

PARAGRAPH 2
Consider an evacuated cylindrical chamber of height h having rigid conducting plates at the
ends and an insulating curved surface as shown in the figure. A number of spherical balls
made of a light weight and soft material and coated with a conducting material are placed on
the bottom plate. The balls have a radius r << h. Now a high voltage across (HV) is
connected across the conducting plates such that the bottom plate is at + V0 and the top plate
at V0. Due to their conducting surface, the balls will get charged, will become equipotential
with the plate and are repelled by it. The balls will eventually collide with the top plate,
where the coefficient of restitution can be taken to be zero due to the soft nature of the
material of the balls. The electric field in the chamber can be considered to be that of a
parallel plate capacitor. Assume that there are no collisions between the balls and the
interaction between them is negligible. (Ignore gravity)

15

(16) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

17. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(A) The balls will bounce back to the bottom plate carrying the opposite charge they went
up with
(B) The balls will stick to the top plate and remain there
(C) The balls will execute simple harmonic motion between the two plates
(D) The balls will bounce back to the bottom plate carrying the same charge they went up
with
17. (A)
Initially when balls are in contact with lower plate
Potential V = V0 =

KQ
R

Q = + ve
Direction of E.F. is upwards.
Hence balls move in upward direction.
When balls are in contact with upper plate
Potential V = V0 =

V0

KQ
R

Q = ve
Hence balls move in downward direction.

+V0

18. The average current in the steady state registered by the ammeter in the circuit will be
(A) proportional to V01/2
(B) zero
(C) proportional to V02
18. (A)
E.F.

E=

(D) proportional to the potential V0

2V0
h

Force on each ball F = QE

Acceleration a =

F
QE
=
m
m
1
2

h = at 2
Current

t =

2h
=
a

2mh
=
QE

mh 2
QV0

Q
t
iV01/2

i=

PART II : CHEMISTRY
SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 18)

This section contains SIX questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks
: +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is
darkened.
Zero Marks
: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 1 In all other cases.

16

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (17)
19. The correct order of acidity for the following compounds is

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) III > I > II > IV (C) III > IV > II > I (D) I > III > IV > II
19. (A)
COOH
HO

COOH
OH

COOH

COOH
OH

>

>

>
OH

OH

20. The major product of the following reaction sequence is

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

20. (A)
CH3
O
C

CH3
CH
CH3
CH3

C
O

OCH2

CH

C
CH3

OH

CH
O

CH3

CH2OH
C

CH

CH2O

C
CH3
CH2OH

CH3

17

(18) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

21. In the following reaction sequence in aqueous solution, the species X, Y and Z,
respectively, are

Ag
S2O32

Ag

withtime

clearsolution
whiteprecipitate
blackprecipitate
3
(A) [Ag(S2O3)2] , Ag2S2O3, Ag2S
(B) [Ag(S2O3)3]5, Ag2SO3, Ag2S
3
(C) [Ag(SO3)2] , Ag2S2O3, Ag
(D) [Ag(SO3)3]3, Ag2SO4, Ag

21. (A)

Ag
Ag
S2O32
Ag(S2O3 )2
Ag 2S2O3
Ag 2S(blackppt)
3

(Y)

(X)

(Z)

22. The qualitative sketches I, II and III given below show the variation of surface tension
with molar concentration of three different aqueous solutions of KCl, CH3OH and
CH3(CH2)11 OSO3 Na at room temperature. The correct assignment of the sketches is

(A) I : KCl

II : CH3OH

III : CH3(CH2)11 OSO3 Na

(B) I : CH3(CH2)11 OSO3 Na

II : CH3OH

III : KCl

(C) I : KCl
(D) I : CH3OH
22. (D)

II :

CH3(CH2)11 OSO3 Na

II : KCl

III : CH3OH
III : CH3(CH2)11 OSO3 Na

23. The geometries of the ammonia complexes of Ni2+, Pt2+ and Zn2+, respectively, are
(A) octahedral, square planar and tetrahedral
(B) square planar, octahedral and tetrahedral
(C) tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral
(D) octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar
23. (A)
[Ni(NH3)6]2+ = octahedral
[Pt (NH3)4]+2
square planar
+2
[Zn (NH3)4]
tetrahedral
24. For the following electrochemical cell at 298 K,
Pt(s) | H2(g, 1 bar) | H+ (aq, 1M)|| M4+(aq), M2+ (aq) | Pt(s)
M 2 (aq)
= 10x.
Ecell = 0.092 V when 4
M (aq)

RT
Given : E 0M4 /M2 = 0.151 V; 2.303
= 0.059 V
F
The value of x is
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 1

18

(D) 2

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (19)
24. (D)
Anode : H2(s) 2H+ + 2e
Cathode : Mn+4 + 2e Mn+2
Mn+4 + H2 Mn+2 + 2H+
Mn 2 H 2
0.059

E = E
log10
4

2
Mn PH 2

0.059
log10 (10x)
2
0.059
0.092 = 0.151
x=2
x
2
0.092 = 0.151

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 32)

This section contains EIGHT questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN
ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in
the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks
: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is
(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option,
provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks
: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening
all these three will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2
marks; and darkening (A) and (B) result in 2 marks, as a wrong option is also
darkened.

25. According to Molecular Orbital Theory,

(A) C 22 is expected to be diamagnetic
(B) O 22 is expected to have a longer bond length than O2
(C) N 2 andN 2 have the same bond order
(D) He2 has the same energy as two isolated He atoms
25. (A), (C)
(A) True
(B) O 22 (Bond order = 3)
O2 (Bond order = 2)
Bond length : O2 > O 22
(C) True

19

(20) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

26. The CORRECT statement(s) for cubic close packed (ccp) three dimensional structure
is(are)
(A) The number of the nearest neighbours of an atom present in the topmost layer is 12
(B) The efficiency of atom packing is 74%
(C) The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids per atom are 1 and 2, respectively
(D) The unit cell edge length is 2 2 times the radius of the atom
26. (B),(C),(D)
27. Reagent(s) which can be used to bring about the following transformation is(are)

(A) LiAlH4 in (C2H5)2O

(C) NaBH4 in C2H5OH
27. (C)

(B) BH3 in THF

(D) Raney Ni/H2 in THF

28. Extraction of copper from copper pyrite (CuFeS2) involves

(A) crushing followed by concentration of the ore by froth-flotation
(B) removal of iron as slag
(C) self-reduction step to produce blister copper following evolution of SO2
(D) refining of blister copper by carbon reduction
28. (A), (B), (C)
29. The nitrogen containing compound produced in the reaction of HNO3 with P4O10
(A) can also be prepared by reaction of P4 and HNO3
(B) is diamagnetic
(C) contains one N-N bond
(D) reacts with Na metal producing a brown gas
29. (B), (D)
4HNO3 P4 O10
2N 2 O5 4HPO3
P4 20 HNO3
4H3PO4 20 NO2 4H 2O

ONONO

O
O

is diamagnetic

N 2O5 Na
NaNO3 NO2

30. Mixture(s) showing positive deviation from Raoults law at 35C is (are)
(A) carbon tetrachloride + methanol
(B) carbon disulphide + acetone
(C) benzene + toluene
(D) phenol + aniline
30. (A), (B)

20

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (21)
31. For invert sugar, the correct statement(s) is (are)
(Given : specific rotations of (+)-sucrose, (+)-maltose, L-()-glucose and L-(+)-fructose in
aqueous solution are +66, +140, 52 and +92, respectively)
(A) invert sugar is prepared by acid catalyzed hydrolysis of maltose
(B) invert sugar is an equimolar mixture of D-(+)-glucose and D-()-fructose
(C) specific rotation of invert sugar is 20
(D) on reaction with Br2 water, invert sugar forms saccharic acid as one of the products
31. (B), (C)
(A) false
(B) factual
H
Invertose

(C) C12 H 22O11H 2OC6 H12O6 C6 H12O6

Sucrose

DGlucose

DFructose

Net specific Rotation of an equimolar mixture of

5292
40
Invert =
=
= 20
2
2
32. Among the following, reaction(s) which gives(give) tert-butyl benzene as the major
product is(are)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

32. (B), (C), (D)

(B)

Cl

(C)

2 4

(D)

3
2
OH

AlCl

H SO

BF .OEt

21

(22) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

This section contains TWO paragraphs.

Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If all other cases.

PARAGRAPH 1
Thermal decomposition of gaseous X2 to gaseous X at 298 K takes place according to the
following equation : X 2 (g)

2X(g)

The standard reaction Gibbs energy, rG, of this reaction is positive. At the start of the
reaction, there is one mole of X2 and no X. As the reaction proceeds, the number of moles
of X formed is given by . Thus, equilibrium is the number of moles of X formed at
equilibrium. The reaction is carried out at a constant total pressure of 2 bar. Consider the
gases to behave ideally. (Given : R = 0.083 L bar K1 mol1)
33. The equilibrium constant Kp for this reaction at 298 K, in terms of equilibrium , is
2
2
2
2
8equilibrium
equilibrium
equilibrium
8equilibrium
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
2
2equilibrium
4equilibrium
equilibrium
4equilibrium
33. (B)
X2(g)

2X(g)
t = 0 (No. of moles)
1
0

t=t

1
2
eq
t = teq
eq
1

eq
eq
eq
Px = 2
nTotal = 1
eq = 1

2
2

1 eq

2
1 eq/2
Px2 = 2

1 eq/2

KP =

(Px) 2
=
Px 2

eq
2

1 eq / 2

2
2eq

2
8eq

2
2
2
4 eq
eq
1 eq / 2
1

4
1 eq / 2
34. The INCORRECT statement among the following, for this reaction, is
(A) Decrease in the total pressure will result in formation of more moles of gaseous X.
(B) At the start of the reaction, dissociation of gaseous X2, takes place spontaneously.
(C) equilibrium = 0.7.
(D) KC < 1.
34. (C)
If eq = 0.7

22

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (23)
8 (0.7) 2 3.92

1
4 (0.7) 2 3.51
which cant be possible as Go > 0 ( Kp < 1).
Therefore, option (C) is incorrect.
Kp

PARAGRAPH 2
Treatment of compound O with KMnO4/H+ gave P, which on heating with ammonia gave
Q. The compound Q on treatment with Br2/NaOH produced R. On strong heating, Q gave
S, which on further treatment with ethyl 2bromopropanoate in the presence of KOH
followed by acidification, gave a compound T.

35. The compound R is

(A)

36. The compound T is

(A) glycine
35. (A),

(B)

(C)

(D)

(B) alanine

(C) valine

(D) serine

36. (B)
COOH

Pr
KMnO

COONH4
NH3

Pr

COOH

(P)

COONH4

2O
CONH2

NH2
Br / NaOH

NH2

(R)

(Q)

CONH2

Heat
Br
|
O
CH3 CH C O Et
CH3
C
||
O
N CH
C

O
C

+ CH3 CH COOH Et OH

23

N H
C

COOH

NH2
(T)
Alanine

KOH
K
H 2O

COOH

COOEt

H 3O

(24) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

PART III MATHEMATICS

SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 18)

This section contains SIX questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks
: +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is
darkened.
Zero Marks
: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 1 In all other cases.

1 0 0
37. Let P = 4 1 0 and I be the identity matrix of order 3. If Q = [qij] is a matrix such
16 4 1
q q
that P50 Q = I, then 31 32 equals
q 21
(A) 52
(B) 103
(C) 201
(D) 205
37. (B)
1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0
2
P 4 1 0 4 1 0 8 1 0
16 4 1 16 4 1 48 8 1
1 0 0 1
P 8 1 0 4
48 8 1 16

n
P 4n
2
8(n n)
3

0 0 1 0 0
1 0 12 1 0
4 1 96 12 1
0 0

1 0

4n 1

1
0 0

1 0
P 200
8 50(51) 200 1
P50 Q = I
Equate we get
200 q21 = 0 q21 = 200
400 51 q31 = 0
q31 = 400 51
200 q32 = 0 q32 = 200
q31 q32 400 51 200

2(51) 1 103
q 21
200
50

24

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (25)
13

38. The value of

(A) 3
38. (C)

1
is equal to

(k

1)

k 1 sin

sin
6
4

4 6
(B) 2(3 3 )
(C) 2( 3 1)

(D) 2(2 +

3)

sin( 6)
k 1 sin (k 1) sin k

6
4
4 6
k (k 1)
sin

6
4 6 4
= 2
k 1 sin (k 1) .sin k

6
4
4 6
Use compound angle formula and make a telescopic series
13
(k 1)
k
= 2 cot
cot
6
4
4 6
K 1

13
= 2 cot cot

6
4
4
13

=
=

2 1 (2 3)
2( 3 1)

39. Let bi > 1 for i = 1, 2, , 101. Suppose loge b1 loge b2, , loge b101 are in Arithmetic
Progression (A.P.) with the common difference loge 2. Suppose a1, a2, , a101 are in A.P.
such that a1 = b1 and a51 = b51. If t = b1 + b2 + + b51 and s = a1 + a2 + + a51, then
(A) s > t and a101 > b101
(B) s > t and a101 < b101
(C) s < t and a101 > b101
(D) s < t and a101 < b101
39. (B)
log (b2) log (b1) = log (2)
b
2 =2
b1, b2, are in GP with common ratio 2
b1
t = b1 + 2b1 + +250 b1 = b1 (251 1)
51
51
51
S = a1 + a2 + + a51
=
=
(b1 + b2)
=
b1 (1 + 250)
(a1 a 51 )
2
2
2
51

S t = b1 51 249 251 1
2

53

= b1 249 47 S > t
2

100
b101
= 2 b1
a101 = a1 + 100 d = 2 (a1 + 50d) a1
= 2a51 a1
= 2b51 b1
= (2 251 1) b1
= (251 1) b1
b101 > a101

25

(26) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

40. The value of

x 2 cosx
1 ex

2
(A)
2
4
40. (A)
/2

2
(B)
2
4

x 2 cos x
1 ex

/2
/2

dx is equal to

(C)
2

e2

(D) +
2

e2

(1)

dx

x 2 cos x
dx

1
/2 1
ex

/2

x 2 cos x.e x

/2

1 ex

dx

(2)

(1) and (2)

/2

2I
I

x 2 cos x dx

/2
/2
2

x cos x dx (even fn)

.sin x |0/2

/2

2x sin xdx

/2

/2

2 ( x cos x)0 ( cos x)dx

4

2
2 0 sin x |0/2

4
2
2

2 1
2
4
4

41. Let P be the image of the point (3, 1, 7) with respect to the plane x y + z = 3. Then the
x
y
z
equation of the plane passing through P and containing the straight line
=
= is
1
2
1
(A) x + y 3z = 0
(B) 3x + z = 0
(C) x 4y + 7z = 0 (D) 2x y = 0
41. (C)
Let image (x, y, z)
x 3 y 1 z 7
3 1 7 3
= 2 2 2 2

1
1
1
1 1 1
= 4
P (x, y, z) = (1, 5, 3)
Plane passing through P(1, 5, 3) is
a (x + 1) + b (y 5) + c (z 3) = 0
(1)
Given (0, 0, 0) satisfy a 5b 3c = 0
(2)

26

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (27)
a1+b2+c1=0
a + 2b + c = 0
a b c
from (2) and (3)
1 4 7
put in (1) (x + 1) 4 (y 5) + 7 (z 3) = 0
x 4y + 7z = 0
and

42. Area of the region (x,y)

1
6

(A)

(B)

(3)

: y x3 ,5yx915 is equal to

4
3

(C)

3
2

(D)

5
3

42. (C)
y

x3
x 3 if x 3
y2
x 3 if x 3
(4, 1)
U

3,
5

P
Q
(4, 0) (3, 0)

(1, 2)
S

R
(1, 0)

(6, 3)

x=6

3
1

A = A trapezium PQTU x 3 dx A trapezium QRST x 3 dx

4
3

11 2 16 3
= =
10 3 15 2

SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 32)

This section contains EIGHT questions.

Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN
ONE of these four option(s) is(are) correct.
For each question, darken the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) in
the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks
: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct option(s) is
(are) darkened.
Partial Marks : +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option,
provided NO incorrect option is darkened.
Zero Marks
: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening
all these three will result in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2
marks; and darkening (A) and (B) result in 2 marks, as a wrong option is also
darkened.

27

(28) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

43. Let P be the point on the parabola y2 = 4x which is at the shortest distance from the center
S of the circle x2 + y2 4x 16y + 64 = 0. Let Q be the point on the circle dividing the
line segment SP internally. Then
(A) SP = 2 5
(B) SQ : QP = ( 5 1) : 2
(C) the x-intercept of the normal to the parabola at P is 6
1
(D) the slope of the tangent to the circle at Q is
2
43. (A), (C), (D)
x2 + y2 4x 16y + 64 = 0
Centre S (2, 8)
r 4 64 64 2
Normal y = mx 2m m3
As shortest distance common normal
It passes S(2, 8)
8 = 2m 2m m3
m = 2
Normal at P y = 2x + 12
Point P (am2, 2am) (4, 4)
SP =

S(2,8)
Q
y2 = 4x
P(4,4)

(4 2) 2 (8 4) 2 2 5

SQ : QP = 2 : 2 5 2

Slope of tangent at Q is

1
2

1
. Given that there
(i j2k)
6
3
(u ) = 1. Which of the following
exists a vector in such that u = 1 and
statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) There is exactly one choice for such
(B) There are infinitely many choices for such
(C) If u lies in the xy-plane then |u1| = |u2|
(D) If u lies in the xz-plane then 2|u1| = |u3|
44. (B), (C)
44. Let u u1iu 2ju 3k be a unit vector in

and

u
is perpendicular to u v
Given condition
As u v 1 and angle between u and v can change
infinitely many choice for such v.
w is u u1 + u2 + 2u3 = 0

28

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (29)
If u in xy plane u3 = 0.
|u1| = |u2|
45. Let a, b and f : be defined by f(x) = a cos (|x3 x|) + b |x| sin(|x3 + x|). Then f
is
(A) differentiable at x = 0 if a = 0 and b = 1
(B) differentiable at x = 1 if a = 1 and b = 0
(C) NOT differentiable at x = 0 if a = 1 and b = 0
(D) NOT differentiable at x = 1 if a = 1 and b = 1
45. (A), (B)
f(x)= a cos ( |x3 x| ) + b |x| sin ( |x3 + x| )
[A]
If a = 0, b = 1,
f(x)= |x| sin ( |x3 + x| )
f(x)= x sin (x3 + x)
xR
Hence f(x) is differentiable.
f(x)= cos ( |x3 x| )
f(x)= cos (x3 x)
Which is differentiable at x = 1 and x = 0.

[B], [C]

If a = 1, b = 0,

[D]

If a = 1, b = 1

f(x)= cos (x3 x) + |x| sin ( |x3 + x| )

= cos (x3 x) + x sin (x3 + x)
Which is differentiable at x = 1
x

46. Let f(x) =

1
(A) f
2
46. (B), (C)

n
n
n
n n (xn)(x )...(x )

2
n

, for all x > 0. Then

lim
2
2
n
n
n
2 n 2 )(x 2 )...(x 2 2 )
n!(x
4

n
f '(3) f '(2)
1
2
f(1)
(B) f f
(C) f (2) 0
(D)

f (3) f (2)
3
3

n
n
x
r
x r 1
nf (x) lim
n n
.
2 n2
n n
x 2
r
r 1

n
r
n
r 1

1
x r

x 1
r 1

n
x
n

n . 1 x lim 1
nf (x) lim
n n
n 2

n n
n

n r 1
1
r
r

2
n

r r 1 n
r 1

1 tx
dt
= x n
2 2
1

t
x

0
Put, tx = p, we get
x
1 p
nf (x) n
dp
2
1

29

(30) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

f '(x)
1 x
n

f (x)
1 x2
sign scheme of f '(x)

+
1

Also. f '(1) 0 .

1
1
2
f f (1),f f , f '(2) 0
2
3
3
f '(3) f '(2)
4
3
Also,

n n
f (3) f (2)
10
5
f '(3) f '(2)
4
= n 0

f (3) f (2)
6
47. Let f : (0,) and g : be twice differentiable functions such that f and g
are continuous functions on . Suppose f (2) = g(2) = 0, f (2) 0, and g(2) 0.
f (x)g(x)
If lim
1, then
x 2 f (x)g(x)
(A) f has a local minimum at x = 2
(B) f has a local maximum at x = 2
(C) f (2) > f(2)
(D) f(x) f (x) = 0 for at least one x
47. (A), (D)

f x g x
=1
x 2 f x g x
f x g x g x f x
lim
=1
x 2 f x g x f x g x
f 2 g 2 g 2 f 2
g 2 f 2
As Limit 1
=1
= 1 f(2) = f(2)
f 2 g 2
f 2 g 2 f x g 2
Hence option (D)
As f(2) = f(2) and range of f(x) (0, )
f(2) > 0
f has local min. at x = 2
Hence (A)
1

48. Let a, b
and a2 + b2 0. Suppose S z : z
t , t 0 , where
a ibt '

i 1 . If z = x + iy and z S, then (x, y) lies on

1
1
(A) the circle with radius
and centre , 0 for a > 0, b 0
2a
2a
1
1
(B) the circle with radius and centre , 0 for a < 0, b 0
2a
2a
(C) the x-axis for a 0, b = 0
(D) the y-axis for a = 0, b 0
48. (A), (C), (D)
1
z
a ibt
a ibt
x iy 2
a b2 t 2
lim

30

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (31)
x

,y

bt

a b t
a b2 t 2
Eliminating t, we get
2

2 2

x
1
1
x y2
a
2a

2a
(A) is correct.
(C), (D) can be verified by putting b = 0 and a = 0 respectively.
x 2 y2

49. Let a, , . Consider the system of linear equations

ax + 2y =
3x 2y =
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) If a = 3, then the system has infinitely many solutions for all values of and
(B) If a 3, then the system has a unique solution for all values of and
(C) If + = 0, then the system has infinitely many solutions for a = 3
(D) If + 0, then the system has no solution for a = 3
49. (B), (C), (D)
x + 2y =
3x 2y =
2

2 6
3 2
= 0 = 3
2
1
2 2 2( )
2
3
2
3 3 3( )
3

1
1
50. Let f : , 2
and g : , 2 be functions defined by f(x) = [x2 3] and
2
2
g(x) = |x| f(x) + |4x 7| f(x), where [y] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to y
for y . Then
1
(A) f is discontinuous exactly at three points in , 2
2
1
(B) f is discontinuous exactly at four points in , 2
2
1
(C) g is NOT differentiable exactly at four points in , 2
2
1
(D) g is NOT differentiable exactly at five points in , 2
2
50. (B), (C)
f(x) = [x2 3] = [x2] 3
f(x) is discontinuous at x = 1, 2,
g(x) = (| x | + |4x 7|) ([x2] 3)

1
1

3, 2
1
2

31

3 2

(32) Vidyalankar : IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution

g(x)

15x 21

x<0

9x 21

0x1

6x 14

1x<

3x 7

2x<

3x<2

x=2

g(x) is not differentiable,

at x = 0, 1,

2,

SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)

This section contains TWO paragraphs.

Based on each paragraph, there are TWO questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four
options is correct.
For each question, darken the bubble corresponding to the correct option in the ORS.
For each question, marks will be awarded in one of the following categories:
Full Marks : +3 If only the bubble corresponding to the correct option is darkened.
Zero Marks : 0 If all other cases.

PARAGRAPH 1
Football teams T1 and T2 have to play two games against each other. It is assumed that the
outcomes of the two games are independent. The probabilities of T1 winning, drawing and
1 1
1
losing a game against T2 are , and , respectively. Each team gets 3 points for a win,
3
2 6
1 point for a draw and 0 point for a loss in a game. Let X and Y denote the total points
scored by teams T1 and T2, respectively, after two games.
51. P(X > Y) is
1
(A)
4

(B)

5
12

(C)

1
2

(D)

7
12

(D)

1
2

51. (B)

1 1 1 1 1 1
P (X > Y) =
2 2 2 6 6 2
52. P(X = Y) is
11
(A)
36

(B)

1
3

(C)

52. (C)

1 1 1 1
P(X = Y) = 2
2 3 6 6

13
36

32

5
12

13
36

IIT JEE 2016 Advanced : Question Paper & Solution (Paper II) (33)

PARAGRAPH 2
x 2 y2
= 1.

9
8
Suppose a parabola having vertex at the origin and focus at F2 intersects the ellipse at
point M in the first quadrant and at point N in the fourth quadrant.
Let F1(x1, 0) and F2(x2, 0), for x1 < 0 and x2 > 0, be the foci of the ellipse

53. The orthocentre of the triangle F1MN is

9

2
(A) , 0
(B) , 0
10
3

9
(C) ,0
10

2
(D) ,
3

53. (A)
a=3
1
e=
3
F1 (1, 0)
F2 (1, 0)
So, equation of parabola is y2 = 4x
3

Solving simultaneously, we get , 6

2

9
Orthocentre is ,0
10

F1

F2

(1, 0)

(1, 0)

54. If the tangents to the ellipse at M and N meet at R and the normal to the parabola at M
meets the x-axis at Q, then the ratio of area of the triangle MQR to area of the
quadrilateral MF1NF2 is
(A) 3 : 4
(B) 4 : 5
(C) 5 : 8
(D) 2 : 3
54. (C)

x 3
y 6

=1
2 9
8
Put y = 0 as intersection will be on x-axis.
R (6, 0)
Equation of tangent at M is

Equation of normal at M is
Put y = 0, x = 2 +

7
Q , 0
2

3 3
3

x+y= 2

2 2
2

3
7
=
2
2

1
7
6
2
2

5
6 sq. units.
4
1
Area of quadrilateral (MF1NF2) = 2 Area ( F1F2M) = 2
2
6 = 2 6 sq. units
2
5/ 4 5
Required Ratio =
=
8
2
Area ( MQR) =

33

6 =