OCR

AS
Chemistry
Questions and Answers
 Contents

Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Question 1: Isotopes; electron configuration; ionisation energy . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Question 2: Moles; test for a halide; decomposition of carbonates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
Question 3: Oxidation and reduction; bonding and structure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
Question 4: Electronegativity; hydrogen bonding . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Question 5: Group 7; empirical formulae; shapes of molecules . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Question 6: Bonding . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18
Question 7: Substitution reactions of alkanes; hydrolysis of halogenoalkanes . . . . . . 20
Question 8: Alcohols; oxidation of alcohols . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22
Question 9: Alcohols; alkenes; empirical formulae . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25
Question 10: Fuels; isomerism . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28
Question 11: Radical substitution of alkanes; isomerism; hydrolysis of
halogenoalkanes; oxidation of alcohols . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31
Question 12: Reactions of alcohols; percentage yield and atom economy
calculations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 35
Question 13: Electrophilic addition of alkenes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Question 14: Fuels . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40
Question 15: Shapes of molecules . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 42
Question 16: Boltzmann distribution . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 44
Question 17: Bond enthalpy and catalysts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 47
Question 18: Enthalpy of combustion; Hess’s law; catalytic converters . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 50
Question 19: Equilibria; ammonia as a base . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 53
Question 20: Activation energy and energy-profile diagrams;
Le Chatelier’s principle; acids . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 56
Question 21: Enthalpy changes using mcΔT; catalysts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 60
Question 22: CFCs and the ozone layer . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 63
Question 23: The greenhouse effect; removal of carbon dioxide;
principles of chemical sustainability . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 65

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 2

 Introduction

This section of the CD-ROM contains questions similar in style to those you can expect to find in
your AS examinations. It covers Unit 1: Atoms, bonds and groups and Unit 2: Chains, energy and
resources.

The Unit 1 examination lasts 60 minutes and there are 60 marks available. The Unit 2
examination is a longer paper worth 100 marks and lasting 1 hour 45 minutes. Time is tight in
examinations, so it is important that you practise answering questions under timed conditions.
Each question on this CD identifies the topic, the total marks and a suggested time that should
be spent writing out the answer.

The limited number of questions means that it is impossible to cover all the topics and question
styles, but they should give you a flavour of what to expect. The responses given by Candidate A
are, on average, A/B-grade standard; those of Candidate B are B/C-grade standard.

There are several ways of using this CD. You could print out the questions and:
I ‘hide’ the answers to each question and try the question yourself. It needn’t be a memory test
— use your notes to see if you can make all the necessary points
I check your answers against the candidates’ responses and make an estimate of the likely
standard of your response to each question
I take on the role of the examiner and mark each candidate’s response and check whether you
agree with the marks awarded by the examiner
I check your answers against the examiner’s comments to see whether you can appreciate
where you might have lost marks

In all the questions it is important to analyse where each candidate went wrong and to identify
what needs to be done to pick up the extra marks.

Examiner’s comments
All candidate responses are followed by examiner’s comments, indicated by the icon e, which
highlight where credit is due. In the weaker answers, they also point out areas for improvement,
specific problems and common errors, such as lack of clarity, irrelevance, misinterpretation of the
question and mistaken meanings of terms.

For further questions and answers, with examiner comments, and specific content guidance
on each unit, see our Student Unit Guides for OCR AS Chemistry (available from Autumn
2008). For more information and to order copies online, visit www.philipallan.co.uk, or
contact Bookpoint on 01235 827720.

OCR AS Chemistry Student Unit Guides

978-0-340-95756-1 OCR AS Chemistry Unit 1: Atoms, Bonds and Groups
978-0-340-95757-8 OCR AS Chemistry Unit 2: Chains, Energy and Resources

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 3

 Question 1: Isotopes; electron configuration;
ionisation energy
Time allocation: 10–12 minutes

A sample of potassium contains two isotopes: 39K and 41K.

a (i) Explain what is meant by the term ‘isotope’. (1 mark)

(ii) What is the difference between the two isotopes of potassium? (1 mark)
(iii) The relative atomic mass of the potassium is 39.1. Define the term ‘relative
atomic mass’. (2 marks)

b (i) Write the full electronic configuration of a potassium atom. (1 mark)

(ii) Explain what you understand by the first ionisation energy of potassium. (3 marks)
(iii) Write an equation, including state symbols, for the second ionisation
of potassium. (2 marks)
(iv) Explain why the ionisation energies of 39K and 41K are the same. (1 mark)

c The first and second ionisation energies of potassium are 419 and 3051 kJ mol−1
respectively. Why is there a large difference between the first and the second
ionisation energies of potassium? (3 marks)

Total: 14 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 1

Candidate A
a (i) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but
a different number of neutrons.

Candidate B
a (i) Same number of protons, different number of neutrons
e Each candidate gains the mark. Candidate A has written a sentence paying due regard to
spelling, punctuation and grammar. However, in such questions, marks are not awarded for
quality of written communication (QWC), so you can be brief and just stick to the facts.

Candidate A
a (ii) 41K has two more neutrons than 39K.
Candidate B
a (ii) 41K is heavier than 39K.
e Candidate A scores the mark. Candidate B is unlikely to score because he/she has missed
out simple quantitative detail. Always try to be as precise as possible. If numbers are given
in a question, you usually have to use them in your answer.

Candidate A
a (iii) The relative atomic mass is the weighted mean mass of an atom of the element
compared to 121 of the mass of an atom of carbon-12, which is taken as exactly 12.
–

Candidate B
a (iii) It is the average mass based on the carbon-12 scale.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 4

e Candidate A has learnt the definition of relative atomic mass and gains both marks. The
definition given by Candidate B does not take into account the amount of each isotope.
If this definition is applied to this sample of potassium, then the average mass of the two
isotopes (one with mass 39 and the other 41) is 40, not 39.1. Candidate B scores 1 mark.

Candidate A
b (i) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1
Candidate B
b (i) 2, 8, 8, 1
e Candidate A scores the mark, but Candidate B does not. The full electronic configuration
requires subshells as well as principal shells.

Candidate A
b (ii) The first ionisation energy is the energy required to remove one electron from one
mole of atoms in the gaseous state at s.t.p.

Candidate B
b (ii) It is the loss of an electron from the atom in the gaseous state.
e Candidate A gains 2 of the 3 marks available; Candidate B scores only 1 mark. Candidate
A implies that only a single electron would be removed from 1 mol (6.02 × 1023) of atoms.
Writing an equation can help to put the key points into words. Candidate B understands
the concept but has not bothered to learn the detail. This can be very costly.

Candidate A
b (iii) K+(g) → K2+ + e−
Candidate B
b (iii) K(g) → K2+(g) + 2e−
e Each candidate scores only 1 mark. Candidate A has been really careless and has lost a
mark by forgetting to write the state symbol (g) after K2+. Candidate B earns 1 mark for the
state symbols. However, the equation is incorrect as it includes both the first and second
ionisations.

Candidate A
b (iv) They have the same electron arrangement and they have the same number of
protons.

Candidate B
b (iv) The only difference is the number of neutrons and they are neutral.
e This is a difficult question, which both candidates have answered reasonably well. They
each gain the mark, even though neither has fully answered the question. Ionisation
energy depends on overcoming the attraction between the electron and the nucleus.This
attraction is the same for both isotopes of potassium.

Candidate A
c The first electron is easy to remove because it is further from the nucleus and is
shielded by an extra inner shell. The second ionisation energy is high because the
potassium now has a stable noble gas configuration.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 5

 Candidate B
c The first ionisation is easy because the electron is further from the nucleus and has
more shielding. The second electron is harder to remove because the nucleus is
bigger.
e Examiners are looking for three key points: distance from the nucleus, shielding and how
these affect the attraction between the nucleus and the electrons. The final key point is
often either not included or is misinterpreted by stating that ‘the nucleus gets bigger’ —
the nucleus remains the same size and the number of electrons changes.The best way to
answer this question is to compare the potassium atom, K, with the potassium ion, K+.The
K+ ion is smaller than the potassium atom, hence the electrons are held more tightly. The
K+ ion has fewer inner shells/less shielding than the K atom, hence the electrons are held
more tightly. Both candidates score 2 marks.
e Candidate A scores 11 out of 14 marks and Candidate B scores 7 marks. If Candidate
A maintained this standard throughout an examination paper, he/she would be just
below the grade-A threshold. Candidate B’s mark is equivalent to a grade D. However,
with a little care this score could have been pushed up by 3 or 4 marks, which, if
maintained throughout a paper, could have dramatic effect on the final grade.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 6

 Question 2: Moles; test for a halide; decomposition
of carbonates

Time allocation: 13–16 minutes

A student prepared magnesium chloride, MgCl2, by adding 8.43 g of magnesium carbonate to

2.00 mol dm−3 hydrochloric acid.
MgCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)

a Suggest two observations that could be made during this reaction. (2 marks)

b (i) What amount, in moles, of MgCO3 was used in the experiment? (2 marks)
(ii) Calculate the volume of 2.00 mol dm−3 hydrochloric acid needed to react
completely with this amount of magnesium carbonate. (2 marks)
(iii) Calculate the volume of CO2 gas that would be produced at r.t.p. (2 marks)

c What reagent(s) would you use to show the presence of chloride ions? State
what you would expect to observe. Write an ionic equation for the reaction. (4 marks)

d When the carbonates of magnesium, calcium and barium are heated, they decompose and
produce an oxide and carbon dioxide.
(i) Write an equation, including state symbols, for the decomposition of one of
these carbonates. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain the trend in the ease of decomposition of these carbonates. (3 marks)

Total: 17 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 2

Candidate A
a Bubbles of carbon dioxide are given off.
Candidate B
a The white solid fizzes and a colourless solution is formed.
e Candidate A scores 1 mark, but Candidate B scores both. The clue is in the question. By
looking carefully at the state symbols, you should be able to deduce what you would see.
Candidate A has ignored the instructions in the question, which ask for two observations,
hence 2 marks for this section.

Candidate A
b (i) 0.100 mol
Candidate B
b (i) Mr = 24.3 + 12.0 + 48.0 = 84.3
8.43 = 0.100 mol
84.3
e Each candidate gains 2 marks. However, Candidate B’s technique is better than that of
Candidate A. It is always advisable to show the working in any calculation. If a mistake is
made, some marks can still be awarded for the method. If you make a mistake but show
no working, the examiner cannot award any marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 7

 Candidate A
b (ii) 100
Candidate B
b (ii) moles of HCl = 0.100
0.100 = cV

∴ 0.100 = V = 0.05 dm3

2.00
e Candidate A has the correct value but scores only 1 mark because there are no units.
Candidate B has taken the reacting ratios to be 1:1 rather than 1:2. However, because
he/she has shown some working, 1 mark is awarded for the correct use of n = cV.

Candidate A
b (iii) 2400 cm3
Candidate B
b (iii) moles of CO2 = 0.100 × 24 = 2.4 dm3
e Each candidate scores 2 marks, but Candidate A runs the risk of losing marks by not
showing any working.

Candidate A
c Reagent: AgNO3(aq)
Observation: white precipitate
Ag+(aq) + Cl−(aq) → AgCl(s)

Candidate B
c Silver nitrate is the reagent. You would see a white solid.
The equation is Ag+ + Cl− → AgCl.
e Candidate A scores all 4 marks. Candidate B loses a mark because there is no reference to
water as the solvent. An aqueous solution is essential. If he/she had included state symbols
(Ag+(aq) + Cl−(aq) → AgCl(s)), Candidate B would have gained both the equation marks.

Candidate A
d (i) MgCO3(s) → MgO(s) + CO2(g)
Candidate B
d (i) CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g)
e Each candidate scores 2 marks.

Candidate A
d (ii) BaCO3 is the most stable because the barium ion is large and doesn’t polarise the
carbonate ion.

Candidate B
d (ii) The stability of the carbonates increases down the group.
e Candidate B simply states the trend down the group, rather than following the instruction
in the question to explain it, and scores only 1 mark. Candidate A’s answer is better and
scores 2 of the 3 marks available.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 8

e Both candidates have given good answers. However, they need to revise the thermal
stability of carbonates. Candidate B should practise mole calculations using
balanced equations and the mole ratio given in the balanced equation. Candidate A
would do better by showing all the working in calculations and not merely quoting
the answer from the calculator. Candidate A scores 14 marks out of 17; Candidate B
scores 13 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 9

 Question 3: Oxidation and reduction; bonding and
structure

Time allocation: 11–13 minutes

a A chemist reacts oxygen separately with magnesium and with sulphur to form
MgO and SO2 respectively. Write an equation for:
(i) the reaction of magnesium and oxygen (1 mark)
(ii) the reaction of sulphur and oxygen (1 mark)

b The reactions in a are both redox reactions, in which reduction and oxidation take
place. Explain, using the changes in oxidation number for sulphur, whether sulphur
undergoes oxidation or reduction. (2 marks)

c The chemist adds water to MgO and to SO2, forming two aqueous solutions.
Write equations for the reactions that take place and suggest a value for the pH
of each solution. (4 marks)

d Magnesium oxide is a solid with a melting point of 2852°C; sulphur dioxide has
a melting point of −73°C. Explain, in terms of structure and bonding, why there is
such a large difference between the melting points of these two oxides. (5 marks)

In this question, 1 mark is available for the quality of written communication. (1 mark)

Total: 14 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 3

Candidate A
a (i) Mg(s) + –12 O2(g) → MgO(s)
Candidate B
a (i) 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
e Each candidate scores the mark.

Candidate A
a (ii) S + O2(g) → SO2(s)
Candidate B
a (ii) S + O2 → SO2
e Candidate A could have lost a mark by missing out the state symbol for sulphur, but state
symbols are not required here. However, if you do include them, the examiner may
penalise you if they are wrong or partly omitted. The best advice is that unless you are
asked for state symbols, don’t include them in your answer.

Candidate A
b Initial oxidation state of sulphur is 0 and the final oxidation state of sulphur is +4.
Therefore, sulphur has undergone oxidation.

Candidate B
b The oxidation state of sulphur changes from 0 to 4.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 10

e Candidate A scores both marks but Candidate B only scores 1 because he/she does not
state that the sulphur had, therefore, been oxidised. Oxidation number has a sign as well
as a value.The minus sign should always be included for negative oxidation numbers. If the
oxidation number is positive, the plus sign should be written, but if there is no sign, the
examiner will assume the number to be positive.

Candidate A
c MgO + H2O → Mg(OH)2 pH of the aqueous solution = 11

SO2 + H2O → H2SO3 pH of the aqueous solution = 2

Candidate B
c MgO + H2O → MgOH2 pH = 9

SO2 + 2H2O → H2SO4 + H2 pH = 5

e Candidate A scores all 4 marks.The pH depends on the concentration, so a value between
8 and 13 is acceptable for Mg(OH)2, as is a value between 2 and 6 for H2SO3. Candidate B
gets 2 marks for the pH predictions but loses both equation marks. The first equation is
almost correct, but the formula of magnesium hydroxide must have brackets around the
OH. The second equation is incorrect, as the candidate tries to form H2SO4 instead of
H2SO3.

Candidate A
d MgO has a high melting point because it has a giant ionic lattice. SO2 has a low melting
point because it is a covalent molecule with weak intermolecular forces.

Candidate B
d MgO has strong ionic bonds throughout the lattice which need a lot of energy to break
them. SO2 has covalent bonds that are weak and, therefore, little energy is required to
melt it.
e The mark scheme is shown below:

I Marking points for magnesium oxide are:

– ionic lattice 
– strong bonds throughout 
– requires high energy to break these bonds/melt MgO 
I Marking points for sulphur dioxide are:
– covalent 
– polar 
– weak intermolecular/dipole–dipole/van der Waals forces 
– requires low energy to break these bonds/melt SO2 
Although there are seven marking points, only 1 mark is available for the amount of energy
required. For quality of written communication, the examiner is looking for the correct use
of chemical terms such as lattice, intermolecular forces, van der Waals, polar etc.To gain the
mark, at least two terms must be used and spelt correctly.

Candidate A scores 3 chemistry marks. The ionic nature of magnesium oxide is awarded
1 mark, but the second mark is lost because there is no mention of the strength of the ionic
bonds. Two of the 3 marks available for sulphur dioxide are awarded, but a mark is lost
because there is no reference to its polar nature. The amount of energy required to

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 11

 overcome the intermolecular forces is not mentioned. Candidate A makes correct use of
the terms ‘lattice’ and ‘intermolecular bonds’ and, therefore, scores 1 mark for quality of
written communication.

Candidate B scores 4 chemistry marks. All 3 marks are awarded for magnesium oxide, but
only 1 mark for the description of sulphur dioxide.The most common incorrect answer to
this type of question is demonstrated by Candidate B, who describes covalent bonds as
weak.This is not the case — covalent bonds are strong bonds. Candidate B did not gain a
mark for quality of written communication because only one term,‘lattice’, is used correctly.

The free-response question proves difficult for many students, and here both candidates
lose marks. When attempting to answer free-response questions it is essential that you
devise a plan based on the information given in the question.There are 6 marks available,
one of which is for quality of written communication.This leaves 5 marks for commenting
on the melting points of the two substances. It is safe to assume that the examiner will split
these marks between the two compounds and it would be sensible to give three points
for each as follows:

Magnesium oxide has a giant ionic lattice with strong bonds throughout. Hence, a great
deal of energy is needed to melt it.

Mg2+

O2–

Sulphur dioxide has polar covalent molecules with weak intermolecular forces. Hence, only
a small amount of energy is needed to melt it.

δ+
S
δ– δ–
Weak intermolecular forces O O
δ+ δ+
S S
δ– δ– δ– δ–
O O O O

e Both candidates have answered the structured parts well, with Candidate A scoring
the maximum 8 marks and Candidate B scoring 6. On the free-response question,
Candidate A scores 4 marks out of 6 and Candidate B scores 3. Overall, Candidate A
scores 12 marks and Candidate B scores 9.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 12

 Question 4: Electronegativity; hydrogen bonding

Time allocation: 9–10 minutes

a Explain what is meant by the term ‘electronegativity’. (2 marks)

b (i) Draw a diagram to show hydrogen bonding between two molecules of

water. Your diagram must include dipoles and lone pairs of electrons. (4 marks)
(ii) State the bond angle in a water molecule. (1 mark)

c State and explain two properties of ice that are a direct result of hydrogen
bonding. (4 marks)

Total: 11 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 4

Candidate A
a Attraction for electrons within a covalent bond
Candidate B
a Different atoms have different attractions for electrons.
e Candidate A gains both marks. Candidate B scores only 1 mark, for a partly correct answer
that does not mention the covalent bond.

Candidate A
b (i) δ–
••
••

O
H bond
H H
δ+ H δ+
δ+ δ–
••
••

O
H δ+

Candidate B
b (i) δ+ H bond
H O δ–
δ+
O O H
δ– δ–
O δ–

e The four marking points are:

I correct dipoles with Oδ− and Hδ+ 
I water drawn as non-linear 
I the hydrogen bond between a hydrogen atom in one water molecule and the
oxygen atom in an adjacent water molecule 
I the involvement of the lone pair of electrons on oxygen and the linear shape of
O—H O  |||||

Candidate A gives the perfect answer and earns all 4 marks. To obtain full marks, the
hydrogen bond must be drawn carefully so that the sketch shows clearly the involvement
of a lone pair of electrons on the oxygen atom, which many candidates fail to do.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 13

 A substantial minority of candidates draw water as HO2, not H2O. Should Candidate B lose
all 4 marks? The dipoles are correct, the shape is correct and a hydrogen bond has been
drawn between the hydrogen in one water molecule and the oxygen in another water
molecule. However, there is no indication of the involvement of the lone pair of electrons,
and the H—O H is not drawn as linear. Candidate B scores 1 mark (maximum 2), but
|||||

he/she could have gained 3 marks by drawing the structure of water correctly. It is easy to
lose marks through carelessness.

Candidate A
b (ii) Approximately 104°
Candidate B
b (ii) 104.5°
e Both candidates score the mark for this simple recall question.

Candidate A
c Ice floats on water because air is trapped between the water molecules. Ice has a
higher melting point than expected because of the hydrogen bonds.

Candidate B
c Ice is less dense than water because the hydrogen bonds hold the molecules further
apart. Ice has a high melting point because of the hydrogen bonds.
e Each candidate scores 3 marks, for different reasons. Candidate A gets 2 marks for the two
properties of ice, but the explanation for the fact that ice floats on water is incorrect.
Candidate B almost gains 4 marks. However, the statement that ‘ice has a high melting
point’should be qualified by writing ‘a higher melting point than expected’in order to earn
the mark.
e Candidates A and B seem to have similar ability, but often the outcome does not
reflect this with Candidate A scoring more marks than Candidate B. This is usually
down to either examination technique or carelessness. In this question, Candidate A
scores 10 marks out of 11, whereas Candidate B scores only 6 marks. Candidate A
could achieve a grade A; Candidate B’s scores fluctuate between grade A and grade D.
It is useful to look at Candidate B’s responses and identify the sort of errors/slips. If
you can recognise the mistakes made by others, you may avoid making them
yourself.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 14

 Question 5: Group 7; empirical formulae; shapes of
molecules

Time allocation: 9–10 minutes

a Chlorine bleach is made by the reaction of chlorine with aqueous sodium hydroxide.
In this reaction the oxidation number of chlorine changes and it is said to undergo
disproportionation.
Cl2(g) + 2NaOH(aq) → NaClO(aq) + NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
(i) Determine the oxidation number of chlorine in Cl2, NaClO and NaCl. (3 marks)
(ii) State what is meant by the term ‘disproportionation’. (1 mark)
–
(iii) The bleaching agent is the ClO ion. In the presence of sunlight, this ion
decomposes to release oxygen gas. Construct an equation for this reaction. (2 marks)

b The sea contains a low concentration of bromide ions. Bromine can be extracted from
seawater by first concentrating the seawater and then bubbling chlorine through this
solution.
(i) Suggest how seawater could be concentrated. (1 mark)
(ii) The chlorine oxidises bromide ions to bromine. Construct a balanced ionic
equation for this reaction. (1 mark)

c Vinyl chloride is a compound of chlorine, carbon and hydrogen. It is used to make

polyvinylchloride (PVC). Vinyl chloride has the following percentage composition by mass:
chlorine 56.8%; carbon 38.4%; hydrogen 4.8%.
(i) Show that the empirical formula of vinyl chloride is C2H3Cl. Show your working. (2 marks)
(ii) The molecular formula of vinyl chloride is the same as its empirical formula.
Draw a possible structure, including bond angles, for a molecule of vinyl
chloride. (2 marks)

Total: 12 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 5

Candidate A
a (i) Cl2(g) + 2NaOH(aq) → NaClO(aq) + NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
0 +1 −1

Candidate B
a (i) Cl2(g) + 2NaOH(aq) → NaClO(aq) + NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
0 1 1
e Candidate A scores all 3 marks and Candidate B scores 2 marks. Oxidation number has a
sign as well as a value. It is always necessary to include the minus sign for negative
oxidation numbers. If the oxidation number is positive, the ‘+’ sign should be written, but
the examiner will assume that the number is positive.

Candidate A
a (ii) Chlorine is not proportional.
Candidate B
a (ii) Chlorine will displace bromine and iodine.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 15

e Neither candidate scores the mark. The question word ‘State...’ indicates that this is recall
and that you should have learnt the definition. In Unit 1, disproportionation is defined as
‘a reaction in which an element is simultaneously oxidised and reduced’.

Candidate A
a (iii) ClO− → Cl− + –12 O2
Candidate B
a (iii) 2ClO− → 2Cl + O2
e Candidate A scores both marks, while Candidate B loses a mark by not balancing the
equation for charge. There is a net charge of 2− on the left-hand side of the equation, so
there must also be a net charge of 2− on the right-hand side. The 2Cl should be 2Cl–.

Candidate A
b (i) Evaporation
Candidate B
b (i) Heat
e Both candidates score the mark because both methods would work.

Candidate A
b (ii) Cl2 + 2Br− → Br2 + 2Cl
Candidate B
b (ii) Cl2 + Br2 → 2Cl− + 2Br−
e Neither candidate scores the mark. Candidate A has made the same mistake that
Candidate B made in part a(iii) and has forgotten to balance the net charges. He/she has
not made use of the information in the question.

Questions on displacement reactions should be straightforward recall of knowledge.

However, candidates seem to find ionic equations difficult and even able candidates get
them wrong. Many students are confused by the names ‘bromide’ and ‘bromine’. It is worth
spending some time ensuring that you know and understand these reactions and that you
recognise that a word ending in -ide is an ion and has a negative charge and a word
ending in -ine is an atom or a diatomic molecule.

Candidate A
c (i) Divide the percentage of each element by its relative atomic mass:
chlorine (56.8/35.5) = 1.6, carbon (38.4/12.0) = 3.2, hydrogen = (4.8/1.0) = 4.8
Ratio is 1.6 : 3.2 : 4.8
Divide by the smallest: 1.6/1.6 : 3.2/1.6 : 4.8/1.6
Therefore, the ratio is 1 : 2 : 3, which is equivalent to ClC2H3.
So the empirical formula is C2H3Cl.

Candidate B
c (i) Mr of ClC2H3 is 35.5 + 24.0 + 3.0 = 62.5
amount of Cl = 56.8 × 62.5 = 35.5 therefore 1 Cl
100

amount of C = 38.4 × 62.5 = 24 therefore 2 C

100

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 16

 amount of H = 4.8 × 62.5 = 3 therefore 3 H
100
Therefore, the ratio is 1 : 2 : 3 , which is equivalent to ClC2H3. So the empirical
formula is C2H3Cl.
e Each candidate scores 2 marks. Candidates A and B use different methods to calculate the
empirical formula, but both are valid and hence earn the marks.

Candidate A
c (ii) H H

C C 120°

Cl H

Candidate B
c (ii) H Cl

C C

H H

e A C=C double bond automatically earns 1 mark. The second mark is for the rest of the
sketch and the bond angle. Each candidate scores 1 mark. Candidate A loses a mark
because there is no C=C double bond; Candidate B loses a mark because the shape is not
correct and a bond angle has not been included
e Overall, Candidate A scores 9 out of 12 marks; Candidate B scores 7.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 17

 Question 6: Bonding

Time allocation: 12–14 minutes

Chlorine reacts with sodium to form sodium chloride.

a Describe the bonding in chlorine, sodium and sodium chloride. (7 marks)

b Relate the physical properties of chlorine and sodium chloride to their structure
and bonding. (8 marks)

In this question, 1 mark is available for the quality of written communication. (1 mark)

Total: 16 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 6

Candidate A
a Sodium contains a giant metallic bond. This is formed by the close packing of the
atoms so that their outer-shell electrons overlap and the electrons are free to move
anywhere in the lattice. The free electrons are like a ‘glue’ that holds the lattice
together.

Chlorine is a covalent molecule made by sharing electrons.

xx
x Cl x Cl
x
xx

Sodium chloride forms ionic bonds. An ionic bond is the electrostatic attraction
between oppositely charged ions which results from the transfer of an electron from
the sodium to the chlorine.
xx
x
x Na x Cl
xx

Candidate B
a Sodium Chlorine Sodium chloride
Metallic bonding Covalent bonding Ionic bonding
e
e
e xx xx + –
e e e x x x
e x Cl x Cl x Na x x Cl
e e e e
e xx xx
e e e

There is a giant lattice of There is a shared pair The sodium transfers an

positive ions surrounded of electrons in the electron to the chlorine
by a sea of free electrons bond

e The mark scheme is shown below:

I sodium — metallic ; lattice of positive ions ; delocalised/free electrons 
I chlorine — covalent ; sharing electrons 
I sodium chloride — ion ; electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions 

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 18

 Candidate A scores 5 of the 7 marks available. In the bonding of sodium, Candidate A has
missed out ‘positive ions’ in the description of the lattice and the diagram drawn for the
structure of sodium chloride contradicts the description in words. Candidate A explains
ionic bonding correctly but draws a diagram showing shared electrons, making it
covalent. Candidate A’s answer is ambiguous — it does not make it clear whether or not
NaCl is ionic or covalent. The examiner will not select the correct response for you. If you
give two pieces of information that are contradictory, the examiner will always mark the
incorrect answer first.There was no need to draw the diagram — if diagrams are required,
the question will usually ask for them. Candidate B scores all 7 marks. In these
circumstances, a table is an acceptable way of answering the question.

Candidate A
b Chlorine is a gas because the bonds between the Cl2 molecules are very weak van der
Waals forces. It is a poor conductor because it contains no mobile electrons.

Sodium chloride has a high melting point because there are strong ionic bonds
throughout the lattice. It conducts electricity when molten or aqueous but not when
solid. This is because when molten or aqueous the electrons are free to move.

Candidate B
b Substance Property
Chlorine Gas; poor conductor; insoluble in water
Sodium chloride Solid; conducts when molten or aqueous; dissolves in water

e The mark scheme is shown below:

I chlorine — two properties (2); two reasons explaining the properties (2)
I sodium chloride — two properties (2); two reasons explaining the properties (2)

Students often find free-response questions difficult. However, there are always clues in the
question. Here, you are given two substances, chlorine and sodium chloride, and asked to
relate the physical properties to their structure and bonding.There are 8 marks available,
so it is logical to give two properties for each along with explanations of each property, i.e.
eight different points for 8 marks.

Candidate A scores all 4 marks for chlorine but loses a mark for sodium chloride because
sodium chloride conducts electricity by the movement of ions not electrons.

Candidate B has again chosen to use a table, which is a valid way to answer the question.
However, he/she has made several errors.Three general properties of covalent substances
are listed but the third, with respect to chlorine, is incorrect. Chlorine is slightly soluble in
water and reacts with water to produce a mixture of HCl and HClO. Therefore,
Candidate B obtains only 1 mark for the properties, even though two properties are correct
(remember the third property is wrong). For sodium chloride, Candidate B lists three
properties that are all correct and so gains 2 marks. He/she has forgotten to give
explanations for the properties and automatically loses 4 marks.
e Examiners accept that chemists communicate in various ways: equations, diagrams
and tables. However, whenever there are marks for quality of written
communication, you must write at least two consecutive sentences that are relevant
to the question. Candidate A gains the mark for quality of written communication
and scores a total of 13 marks out of 16. Candidate B loses the mark for quality of
written communication because the answer contains no continuous prose.
Candidate B scores 10 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 19

 Question 7: Substitution reactions of alkanes;
hydrolysis of halogenoalkanes

Time allocation: 6–7 minutes

Ethane, C2H6, reacts with chlorine, Cl2, in the presence of sunlight to form a mixture of
chlorinated products. One possible product is C2H4Cl2.

a (i) State the type of mechanism involved in this reaction. (2 marks)

(ii) The initiation step involves the homolytic fission of the Cl–Cl bond.
What is meant by the term ‘homolytic fission’? (2 marks)

b Name the two possible isomers of C2H4Cl2. (2 marks)

c When C2H4Cl2 is treated with aqueous sodium hydroxide, NaOH, it undergoes substitution
reactions to form both C2H4(OH)Cl and C2H4(OH)2.
(i) State the role of OH−(aq) in these reactions. (1 mark)
(ii) Draw the structure of C2H4(OH)2. (1 mark)

Total: 8 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 7

Candidate A
a (i) Radical substitution
Candidate B
a (i) Radical
e Candidate A gains both marks, but Candidate B loses a mark. The clue is in the question.
There are 2 marks available, so two marking points required: radical and substitution.

Candidate A
a (ii) The bond breaks (i.e. fission) so that each atom in the bond retains one of the
bonded electrons. For example:
Cl–Cl → 2Cl•

Candidate B
a (ii) Radicals are produced by homolytic fission.
e Candidate A gives a perfect answer and scores both marks. Unfortunately, Candidate B fails
to score. He/she has missed the point of the question and has given a consequence of
homolytic fission, rather than explaining what is meant by homolytic fission.

Candidate A
b 1,2-dichloroethane and 1,1-dichloroethane
Candidate B
b 1,1-dichloroethane and 1,2-dichloroethane
e Both candidates score 2 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 20

 Candidate A
c (i) Nucleophile
Candidate B
c (i) Nucleophile
e Both candidates gain the mark.

Candidate A
c (ii)
C C OH

OH

Candidate B
c (ii) H H

OH C C OH

H H

e The correct response is either ethane-1-1-diol (Candidate A) or ethane-1-2-diol.

Unfortunately, neither of them scores the mark. Candidate A is penalised for not
including the Hs. Candidate B loses the mark for an incorrect bond linkage on the left-
hand side:
| |
OH–C should be HO–C
| |

e Overall, Candidate A scores 7 out of 8 marks and Candidate B scores 4 marks. The
response to this question places Candidate B on a grade D. A little care could have
pushed up the score by 2 or 3, i.e. to borderline A/B. By looking carefully at Candidate
B’s responses it should be possible to identify where marks could be picked up.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 21

 Question 8: Alcohols; oxidation of alcohols

Time allocation: 9–10 minutes

Compound A contains two functional groups:

H O H

H C C C OH

H H
Compound A

a Identify the functional groups. (3 marks)

b State the molecular formula of compound A. (1 mark)

c Compound A can be oxidised to produce a mixture of compound B, molecular formula

C3H4O2, and compound C, molecular formula C3H4O3.
(i) Identify which of the functional groups can be oxidised. (1 mark)
(ii) Suggest a suitable oxidising mixture. (2 marks)
(iii) State what you would observe during the oxidation. (2 marks)
(iv) Identify compound B. (1 mark)
(v) Write a balanced for the formation of compound C from compound A.
Use [O] to represent the oxidising agent. (2 marks)

Total: 12 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 8

Candidate A
a Primary alcohol and a ketone
Candidate B
a Ketone and an alcohol
e Candidate A scores all 3 marks, but Candidate B drops 1 mark by not classifying the
alcohol. Each part of a question tells you how many marks are allocated and it is essential
to use this information. Here there are 3 marks available, so three points are needed:
ketone , alcohol  and primary .

Candidate A
b C3H6O2
Candidate B
b C3H6O2
e Both candidates gain the mark.

Candidate A
c (i) Alcohol
Candidate B
c (i) Alcohol

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 22

e Both candidates gain the mark.

Candidate A
c (ii) Acidified dicromate
Candidate B
c (ii) H+/Cr2O7
e Candidate A scores both marks, while Candidate B loses a mark for giving an incorrect
formula for the dichromate ion. Candidate A spelt dichromate incorrectly but is unlikely to
be penalised. Incorrect spelling is only penalised if it states in the question that marks have
been allocated for quality of written communication (QWC). However, the same tolerance
is not extended to incorrect formulae.The formula is Cr2O72−; Candidate B has omitted the
charge on the ion.

Candidate A
c (iii) Colour change
Candidate B
c (iii) Turns green
e Candidate A fails to score, while Candidate B scores 1 out of 2 marks. Candidate A’s
response is too vague. Candidate B has not used the information in the question.
Remember that if there are 2 marks available, two points are needed. The answer should
read ‘a colour change from orange (1) to green (1)’.

Candidate A
c (iv) H O H

H C C C O

Candidate B
c (iv) Compound B is CH3COCOH.
e Candidate A scores the mark but Candidate B does not. Candidate A has made good use
of the information in the question and used the displayed formula of compound A to
deduce the structure of compound B. Candidate B’s approach is also good but perhaps a
little too clever. The final part of CH3COCOH indicates an alcohol. If the formula had been
written as CH3COCHO, then it would have scored the mark. Candidate B clearly has
potential but needs to take more care.

Candidate A
c (v) H O H H O OH

H C C C OH + [O] H C C C O + H2

H H H

Candidate B
c (v) C3H6O2 + 2[O] → C3H4O3 + H2O

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 23

e The correct answer is:
H O H H O OH

H C C C OH + 2[O] H C C C O + H2O

H H H

There is 1 mark for the correct formulae and 1 mark for a balanced equation.

Each candidate scores 1 out of 2 marks. Candidate A is careful and makes good use of
information in the question. However, hydrogen is not formed in the presence of an
oxidising agent; water is always produced. Candidate B is trying to be too clever. The
equation is essentially correct and balanced. However, he/she uses molecular formulae, so
the product has not been identified correctly — C3H4O3 is ambiguous and could be any
of several isomers.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 9 out of 12 marks; Candidate B scores 7.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 24

 Question 9: Alcohols; alkenes; empirical formulae

Time allocation: 8–9 minutes

Steroids are compounds that contain four rings. Cholesterol is a steroid and it has the
following percentage composition by mass: carbon 83.93%; hydrogen 11.92%; oxygen 4.15%.

a Show that this is consistent with the molecular formula C27H46O and that
cholesterol has a relative molecular mass of 386.0. (3 marks)

b Cholesterol has the structure shown below. R represents an alkyl group.

R
CH3

CH3

HO
Identify the two functional groups present in cholesterol. (2 marks)

c All the compounds shown below have similar structures to cholesterol.

R R

CH 3 CH 3

A B
CH3 CH 3

R
HO O
R CH3

CH3

D CH3
C
CH3

HO
Br R
R
Br
CH3 CH3

E CH3 F CH3

CH 3CO 2 Br
Br
H
Suggest, by letter, which compound(s) might be made by reacting cholesterol with each of
the following reagents. Each letter may be used once, more than once or not at all.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 25

 (i) bromine (1 mark)
(ii) ethanoic acid (1 mark)
(iii) hydrogen (1 mark)
(iv) acidified dichromate(VI) ions (1 mark)
(v) concentrated sulphuric acid at about 170°C (1 mark)
(vi) hydrogen bromide (1 mark)

Total: 11 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 9

Candidate A
a C H O
%/r.a.m. 83.93/12.0 = 6.99 11.92/1.0 = 11.92 4.15/16.0 = 0.259
Divide by smallest 6.99/0.259 = 27 11.92/0.259 = 46 0.259/0.259 = 1
C27H46O

Candidate B
a
C H O
7 12 0.25
27 48 1
C27H46O
e Candidate A scores 2 of the 3 marks; Candidate B fails to score. Neither candidate
demonstrates that the empirical formula is also the molecular formula.To award this mark
the examiner would expect working along the lines of:

(27 × 12.0) + 46.0 + 16.0 = 386.0

Hence the empirical unit is equivalent to the molecular formula.

Candidate A shows good examination technique by presenting the working, but

Candidate B has rushed the question and made approximations that are not justified.The
value given for oxygen (i.e. 4.15/16 = 0.0259) cannot be rounded down to 0.25. Candidate
B then makes matters worse by ignoring the values and changing the answer to match the
question. Candidate B’s answer would give the empirical formula C28H48O.

Candidate A
b Secondary alcohol and alkene
Candidate B
b C=C double bond and an alcohol
e Each candidate scores 2 marks.The question asks you to identify the functional groups —
either formulae or names are acceptable.There are two groups to identify and 2 marks, so
on this occasion the classification of the alcohol is not required.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 26

 Candidate A
c (i) D
(ii) E
(iii) A
(iv) B
(v) C
(vi) D

Candidate B
c (i) D
(ii) E
(iii) A
(iv) B
(v) C
(vi) F
e Such questions are common because a lot of chemistry can be tested in a single question.
Both candidates do well, with Candidate B getting all six answers correct, for 6 marks.
Candidate A scores 5 marks, having incorrectly identified compound D as a product of the
reaction of cholesterol with sodium bromide and sulphuric acid.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 9 out of 11 marks and Candidate B scores 8.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 27

 Question 10: Fuels; isomerism

Time allocation: 12–14 minutes

The hydrocarbons in crude oil can be separated by fractional distillation.

a Explain what is meant by the terms:

(i) hydrocarbon (1 mark)
(ii) fractional distillation (1 mark)

b Dodecane, C12H26, can be isolated by fractional distillation. Calculate the

percentage composition by mass of carbon in dodecane. (3 marks)

c Dodecane can be cracked into octane and ethene only. Write a balanced
equation for this reaction. (2 marks)

d Isomerisation of octane produces a mixture of isomers.

(i) Name the isomers of C8H18.
A CH3 CH3

H3C CH CH2 CH CH2 CH3

B CH3 CH3

H3C CH C CH2 CH3

CH3

C CH3

H3C CH2 CH2 CH CH2 CH2 CH3

(3 marks)
(ii) Isomers A, B and C can be separated by fractional distillation. State the
order, lowest boiling point first, in which they would distil. (1 mark)
(iii) Justify the order stated in d(ii). (2 marks)
(iv) Write a balanced equation for the complete combustion of octane, C8H18. (2 marks)
(v) Why do oil companies isomerise alkanes such as octane? (1 mark)

Total: 16 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 10

Candidate A
a (i) C and H only
Candidate B
a (i) A hydrocarbon is a compound that contains carbon and hydrogen.
e Candidate A gains the mark but Candidate B does not. The key word missing from
Candidate B’s response is only. Many compounds, such as ethanol (C2H5OH), contain
carbon and hydrogen but they are not hydrocarbons.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 28

 Candidate A
a (ii) Separation due to differences in boiling point
Candidate B
a (ii) Liquids with different boiling points can be separated by fractional distillation.
e Both candidates score the mark.

Candidate A
b C12H26 = 144.0 + 26.0 = 170.0
144.0
%C= × 100 = 84.7%
170.0
Candidate B
b 84.7%
e Each candidate gains 3 marks for the correct answer, but Candidate A displays better exam
technique by showing the working. If Candidate B had made a mistake, no marks could
have been awarded. If Candidate A had made a mistake, credit would have been given for
the method. Remember, always show your working.

Candidate A
c C12H26 → C8H18 + 2C2H4
Candidate B
c C12H26 → C8H18 + C2H4
e Candidate A scores both marks. Candidate B scores 1 mark for the correct formulae of
octane and ethane, but loses the other mark because the equation is not balanced.

Candidate A
d (i) A = 2,4-dimethylhexane
B = 2-methyl-3,dimethylpentane
C = 4-methylheptane

Candidate B
d (i) A = 2,4-dimethylpentane
B = 2,3,3-trimethylpentane
C = 3-methylheptane
e Candidate A scores 2 marks for compounds A and C and Candidate B scores 1 mark for
compound B. Candidate B seems to have lost marks through carelessness and has made
mistakes either when counting the length of the carbon chain or when counting the
position of the side chain.

Candidate A
d (ii) CBD
Candidate B
d (ii) CBD
e Both candidates are correct and gain the mark.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 29

 Candidate A
d (iii) The longer the carbon chain, the more van der Waals forces there are and hence
the higher boiling point.

Candidate B
d (iii) Branched chains have lower boiling points
e Candidate A scores both marks. A structural feature is related to the trend in boiling point
and the amount of intermolecular bonding. Candidate B gains only 1 mark.

Candidate A
d (iv) 2C8H18 + 25O2 → 16CO2 + 18H2O
Candidate B
d (iv) C8H18 + 12 –12 O2 → 8CO2 + 9H2O
e Both candidates score full marks. It is acceptable to have fractions in a balanced equation.

Candidate A
d (v) Smaller chains are more useful.
Candidate B
d (v) Isomers are used as additives in petrol to increase the octane rating.
e Candidate B gives a good answer and scores the mark. Candidate A confuses
‘isomerisation’ with ‘cracking’ and fails to score.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 14 out of 16 marks, while Candidate B scores 11.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 30

 Question 11: Radical substitution of alkanes; isomerism;
hydrolysis of halogenoalkanes; oxidation of alcohols

Time allocation: 15–16 minutes

Ethane, C2H6, reacts with chlorine, Cl2, in the presence of sunlight to form a mixture of
chlorinated products. One possible product is C2H5Cl, formed as shown in the following
equation:
C2H6 + Cl2 → C2H5Cl + HCl

a Describe, with the aid of equations, the mechanism of this reaction. (4 marks)

b One other possible product of the reaction between ethane and chlorine is compound A,
shown below.
H Cl

H C C H

Cl H
(i) Name compound A. (1 mark)
(ii) Draw an isomer of compound A. (1 mark)

c Chloroethane reacts with a solution of sodium hydroxide as shown in the following

equation:
C2H5Cl + OH− → C2H5OH + Cl−
(i) State the solvent in which the sodium hydroxide is dissolved. (1 mark)
(ii) State and explain the role of the hydroxide ion (OH−) in this reaction. (2 marks)

d Ethanol, C2H5OH, is refluxed with an acidified solution of potassium dichromate(VI) to

produce ethanoic acid. The acidified potassium dichromate(VI) acts as an oxidising agent.
(i) Explain what is meant by the term ‘reflux’. (1 mark)
(ii) State what colour changes take place in during the oxidation. (2 marks)
(iii) Write a balanced equation for the oxidation of ethanol to ethanoic acid.
The oxidising agent can be represented as [O] in your equation. (2 marks)

e An infrared spectrum of ethanoic acid was obtained. By referring to your Data Sheet,
identify two peaks in the infrared spectrum that confirm the presence of the carboxylic
acid functional group.
100
Transmittance/%

50

0
4000 3000 2000 1500 1000
Wavenumber/cm–1

(4 marks)

Total: 18 marks

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 31

Candidates’ answers to Question 11
Candidate A
a Cl2 → 2Cl•
C2H6 + Cl• → HCl + C2H5•
C2H5• + Cl2 → C2H5Cl + Cl•
Cl• + Cl• → Cl2

Candidate B
a Cl2 → 2Cl•
C2H6 + Cl• → H• + C2H5Cl
H• + Cl2 → HCl + Cl•
C2H5• + Cl• → C2H5Cl
e Candidate A scores all 4 marks. Candidate B earns only the first and the final marks because
the propagation steps are incorrect. The initial reaction of Cl• with any alkane always
produces an alkyl radical and HCl.

Candidate A
b (i) 1,2-dichloroethane
Candidate B
b (i) 1,2-dichloroethane
e Both candidates score the mark.

Candidate A
H H

C C
Cl H

Cl H

Candidate B
Cl Cl

H C C H

H H

e Candidate A gains the mark. Candidate B has made a common mistake. It is not possible
to get an E/Z isomer (cis–trans) unless there is a C=C double bond. The isomer drawn by
Candidate B is identical to the one given in the question because the atoms can rotate
about the C–C single bond.

Candidate A
c (i) Water
Candidate B
c (i) (aq)
e Both candidates score the mark.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 32

 Candidate A
c (ii) A nucleophile
Candidate B
c (ii) Donates a lone pair of electrons
e Each candidate scores only 1 mark. Neither has used the information in the question.There
are 2 marks available, so two separate points are needed. You should state that the
hydroxide ion behaves as a nucleophile  and explain that it is because it donates a lone
pair of electrons .

Candidate A
d (i) Heat with a condenser
Candidate B
d (i) Evaporates and then condenses
e Neither candidate scores the mark. You must state that refluxing involves continuous
evaporation and condensation so that the volatile reagents/products are retained in the
reaction vessel. Candidate B is almost correct, but has omitted the key word ‘continuous’.
Candidate A recalls that a condenser is needed but the answer is too vague to gain the
mark. If you find it difficult to put into words, a diagram of a reflux condenser would score
the mark.

Candidate A
d (ii) Orange to green
Candidate B
d (ii) Turns green
e Candidate A scores both marks. Yet again, Candidate B has lost a mark by not paying
attention to the mark allocation.

Candidate A
d (iii) C2H5OH + [O] → CH3CO2H + H2O
Candidate B
d (iii) C2H6O + [O] → C2H4O2 + H2
e Candidate A scores 1 mark for the correct products but loses a mark because the equation
is not balanced.When trying to balance equations students often forget the O in the –OH
of the alcohol. Candidate B writes the most common incorrect answer and loses both
marks. At first glance the equation looks good because it is balanced, but hydrogen is not
a product of this reaction. Water is always formed. The correct equation is:
C2H5OH + 2[O] → CH3CO2H + H2O

Candidate A
e Peak 1: 2500–3300 cm−1. It is an OH bond.
Peak 2: 1680–1750 cm−1. It is a C=O bond.

Candidate B
e Peak 1: 3000 cm−1. It is an OH bond.
Peak 2: 1700 cm−1. It is a C=O bond.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 33

e Each candidate scores all 4 marks. Candidate A again displays better examination
technique. The absorptions are listed on the data sheet supplied in the exam. Candidate
A has used this sheet and copied out the values, while Candidate B has relied on memory.
There are many peaks in the spectrum. Candidate B has memorised the two needed.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 15 out of 18 marks, while Candidate B scores 10.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 34

 Question 12: Reactions of alcohols; percentage yield
and atom economy calculations

Time allocation: 9–10 minutes

Alcohols are converted into chloroalkanes by reaction with hydrochloric acid, HCl. 2-Chloro-2-
methylbutane can be prepared by shaking together 5.3 cm3 (4.4 g) of 2-methylbutan-2-ol with
20 cm3 of concentrated HCl. After 10 minutes, two separate layers begin to form. One of the
layers is aqueous and the other contains the organic product.

a (i) What is the molecular formula of 2-methylbutan-2-ol? (2 marks)

(ii) Write a balanced equation for the reaction between 2-methylbutan-2-ol
and HCl. (1 mark)

Use the data in the table below to answer the questions that follow.
Compound Relative molecular mass Density/g cm–3 Boiling point/°C
2-methylbutan-2-ol 88.0 0.83 91.5
2-chloro-2-methylpropane 106.5 0.89 67
Water 18.0 1.00 100

b Suggest whether, in the preparation of 2-chloro-2-methylbutane (described above),

it is the upper or lower layer that is likely to contain the organic product. Explain
your reasoning. (1 mark)

c The separated organic layer was shaken with a dilute solution of sodium hydrogen-
carbonate, NaHCO3. A gas was given off.
(i) Identify the gas. (1 mark)
(ii) Suggest the chemical that could have reacted with the NaHCO3 to form
the gas. (1 mark)

d The resulting impure organic liquid was dried with anhydrous calcium chloride and then
distilled. 3.73 g of pure 2-chloro-2-methylpropane was produced.
(i) At what temperature would you expect the pure organic product to distil? (1 mark)
(ii) Calculate the percentage yield of 2-chloro-2-methylpropane in this
experiment. (3 marks)
(iii) Calculate the atom economy of the reaction. (2 marks)

Total: 12 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 12

Candidate A
a (i) C5H12O
Candidate B
a (i) C5H11OH
e Candidate A scores both marks, while Candidate B scores only 1 mark. C5H11OH is a correct
formula, but it is not the molecular formula. Molecular formulae should be written in the
form CxHyOz.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 35

 Candidate A
a (ii) CH3 CH3
H3C CH2 H3C CH2
C + HCl C + H2O
CH3 CH3

OH Cl

Candidate B
a (ii) C5H11OH + HCl → C5H11Cl + H2O
e Both candidates score the mark. All that is required is that the equation is balanced.
Candidate B has made good use of the answer to a(i).

Candidate A
b The organic compounds would be in the upper layer because their densities are lower
than the density of water.

Candidate B
b Upper
e Candidate A scores the mark because the prediction is correct and is justified correctly.
Candidate B fails to score.When the answer is simply a choice from two options, marks are
only awarded for a correct explanation of that choice.

Candidate A
c (i) HCl
Candidate B
c (i) H2
e Both candidates are incorrect and fail to score. The only gas likely to be given off from
NaHCO3 is CO2. Remember that an acid plus carbonate produces a salt, water and carbon
dioxide.

Candidate A
c (ii) 2-methylbutan-2-ol
Candidate B
c (ii) Water
e Neither candidate scores the mark.The question tells you that concentrated HCl is used in
the reaction. The NaHCO3 is added to react with and remove any unreacted HCl.

Candidate A
d (i) 67°C
Candidate B
d (i) 67°C
e Both candidates are correct, for 1 mark.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 36

 Candidate A
4.4
d (ii) = 0.050
88.0

3.73
= 0.0350
106.5

0.0350
× 100 = 70%
0.050

Candidate B
5.3
d (ii) = 0.060
88.0

3.73
= 0.0350
106.5

0.0350
= 58%
0.060
e Candidate A gains all 3 marks. Candidate B makes a mistake in the first line of the
calculation by taking the mass of 2-methylbutan-2-ol to be 5.3, rather than 4.4. However,
even though this means that Candidate B has the wrong answer, because the working is
shown the examiner can see that the subsequent steps have been carried out correctly.
Examiners can award marks consequentially. Candidate B scores 2 marks.

Candidate A
d (iii) Mass of all products (C5H11Cl + H2O) = 106.5 + 18.0 = 124.5
Mass of C5H11Cl = 106.5
106.5
Atom economy = × 100 = 85.5%
124.5
Candidate B
d (iii) 85%
e Candidate A scores both marks. Candidate B simply quotes an answer to two significant
figures. The correct answer is 85.5%, which is 86% to two significant figures. Candidate B
scores 1 mark.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 10 out of 12 marks, while Candidate B scores 6 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 37

 Question 13: Electrophilic addition of alkenes

Time allocation: 6–7 minutes

Describe and explain how propene reacts with bromine. You should include in your answer:
I any observations
I the name of any organic products
I a full description of the mechanism (8 marks)

In this question, 1 mark is available for the quality of written communication. (1 mark)

Total: 9 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 13

Candidate A
When bromine reacts with propene, it undergoes electrophilic addition . As the Br–Br
molecule approaches the C=C double bond, it induces a temporary dipole  in the Br2
and the Brδ+ end is attracted to the alkene. The Br–Br bond is broken by heterolytic
fission  and results in the formation of a carbocation . The Br– then attacks the
carbocation to form the product . The product is 1,2-dibromopropane .

Candidate B
✓
H H H H
✓
C C δ+ δ–
Br Br H3C C C H
δ– ✓
H3C H Orange
Br ✓ Br δ–
✓

1,2-dibromopropane ✓
H H

H3C C C H

Br Br
Colourless ✓

e Students often find free-response questions difficult to answer. In this question you are
asked to state any observations, to name any organic products and you are informed that
1 mark is available for the quality of written communication. This accounts for 3 of the
available 9 marks, leaving 6 marks for the mechanism. Therefore, six possible separate
points are required.

Both candidates have tackled this question well but in different ways. B has omitted to
state that the mechanism is an electrophilic addition and therefore loses 1 mark.

Candidate A writes in prose and describes the mechanism well. Describing a mechanism
in this way is difficult and requires thought, planning and care. Candidate A clearly
understands the mechanism, but has failed to show or describe the movement of
electrons. He/she has concentrated so hard on describing the mechanism that the

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 38

 observation has been omitted. Candidate A scores 6 chemistry marks and 1 mark for
quality of written communication. Candidate B takes the opposite approach — few or no
words — and many candidates communicate in this way. Candidate B scores 5 of the 6
marks for the mechanism, 1 mark for stating the observation and 1 mark for naming the
organic product. 1 mark is lost for forgetting to write a full negative charge on the bromide
ion. ••Br δ– should have been written as ••Br–. However, the mark for quality of written
communication is lost. Examiners accept that chemists communicate in a variety of ways,
such as equations, diagrams and tables. However, when there are marks for quality of
written communication, you must write at least two consecutive sentences that are
relevant to the question.

The marking points are:

I observation: (bromine is) decolorised (not clear) 
I product is 1,2-dibromoethane 
I electrophilic addition 
I induced dipole in the Br2/dipoles shown correctly on the Br–Br bond and curly arrow on
the Br–Br bond as shown/heterolytic fission 
I curly arrow from the π-bond to the bromine (or words to that effect) 
I intermediate carbonium ion/carbocation 
I curly arrow from Br– back to the carbonium ion/carbocation/nucleophilic attack/Br–
forms a covalent bond with the carbocation 
I lone pair of electrons shown on the Br– (and curly arrow from lone pair to the
carbonium ion/ carbocation)/Br– acts as a lone pair donor 
I quality of written communication mark for the description/layout of the mechanism,
making use of appropriate chemical terms/symbols 
e Overall, both candidates score 7 out of 9 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 39

 Question 14: Fuels

Time allocation: 6–7 minutes

The fractions from crude oil can be processed further by cracking, reforming and
isomerisation. Outline, with the aid of suitable examples and equations, each of
these processes. Explain the industrial importance of each process. (7 marks)

In this question, 1 mark is available for the quality of written communication. (1 mark)

Total: 8 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 14

Candidate A
Cracking is used to break down long-chain hydrocarbons into shorter-chain hydrocar-
bons. High temperature and a catalyst are used . The shorter-chain molecules are in
higher demand.

C10H22 → C8H18 + C2H4 

Isomerisation is used to convert straight-chain hydrocarbons into branched-chain hydro-

carbons. The branched-chain hydrocarbons are added to petrol and increase the octane
rating .

Reforming is the conversion of chain hydrocarbons into ring hydrocarbons. Ring

compounds are also added to petrol because they burn more efficiently .

C6 H14 + H2

Candidate B
Crude oil is a complex mixture of hydrocarbons. The mixture varies throughout the
world. The oil found in the North Sea around the UK is rich in gasoline and low in
residues. American oil is the opposite. The crude oil undergoes fractional distillation,
which separates the mixture by their boiling points. Small-chain hydrocarbons have low
boiling points while longer-chain molecules have higher boiling points. The difference in
boiling points can be explained by the extent of van der Waals forces between the
molecules.

When the crude oil is fractionally distilled, it is first vaporised by passing it through pipes
at about 400°C. The vapour then goes into a large column about 100 metres high and it
slowly rises up the column, passing over trays as it does so. There is a temperature
gradient in the column — it is hot at the bottom and cools down as the vapour rises.
This causes different fractions to condense at different points in the column. The most
volatile fractions condense at the top and the least volatile at the bottom.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 40

 The following fractions are all separated out by fractional distillation: gases, gasoline,
naphtha, kerosine, diesel, oil and residue. The residue is used for waxes and bitumen.

The most useful fraction is the gasoline, which is used as petrol. The demand for the
gasoline fraction outstrips the amount of gasoline produced by fractional distillation and
therefore longer-chain hydrocarbons are cracked into smaller-chain gasoline-type
molecules. Cracking is carried out at high temperature  using a fluidised bed where the
vaporised oil fraction and the zeolite catalyst behave as a fluid. When cracking takes
place alkenes are always produced.

C10H22 → C8H18 + C2H4 

Ethene, C2H4, has many uses. It can be reacted with steam in the presence of a
phosphoric acid catalyst at about 300°C and 200 atm pressure to produce ethanol.
Ethanol is widely used as a solvent and as the starting material for the production of
many other useful chemicals. Ethene can also be polymerised to produce polythene .

Reforming is another technique used by the petrochemical industry to change chain

hydrocarbons into
e Candidate A demonstrates good examination technique, following the guidelines given in
the question.There are three processes, each requiring an explanation, an equation and a
statement as to their importance.

Candidate A’s answer has three separate paragraphs, three equations and a brief
statement about industrial importance.The use of the products from cracking is too vague
and the equation given for isomerisation is incorrect. Skeletal formulae are a good way of
showing isomerisation but the equation must balance. In Candidates A’s response the
reagent contains 9 carbons (C9H20) but the product is wrong as it contains 10 carbons,
hence C10H22.

Correct answer:

The reactant and product both contain 9 carbons.

Candidate B clearly knows a lot about crude oil as a source of hydrocarbons. Unfortunately,
the opening three paragraphs relate to the fractional distillation of crude oil, but the
question is about cracking, reforming and isomerisation. Consequently, Candidate B gains
no credit for these comments.The part of the answer that relates to cracking shows good
understanding and Candidate B scores 3 marks. It is clear from the fact that Candidate B
stopped ‘mid-sentence’ that time ran out. If Candidate B had read the question carefully
and planned the response, there would have been enough time to complete the answer,
which would probably have increased the overall mark.
e Both candidates gain the mark for quality of written communication. They clearly
know this area of the specification well but the outcomes are different. Overall,
Candidate A scores 6 out of 8 marks while Candidate B only scores 4 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 41

 Question 15: Shapes of molecules

Time allocation: 8–10 minutes

Electron-pair repulsion theory can be used to predict the shape of covalent

molecules. State what is meant by the term ‘electron-pair repulsion theory’ and
use it to determine the shapes of four molecules of your choice. Choose molecules
to illustrate four different shapes. State the bond angle in each shape. (10 marks)

In this question, 1 mark is available for the quality of written communication. (1 mark)

Total: 11 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 15

Candidate A
The shape of a molecule depends on the number of electron pairs around the central
atom. Each pair repels the others but lone pairs of electrons repel more than bonded
pairs.
H
Cl Cl 180º N
109º 28′
C B H H
120º O C O
H
H H 107º
H Cl
Tetrahedral Triangular Linear Pyramidal

Candidate B
Electron-pair repulsion theory is a theory that tells us about electron-pair repulsion. It
tells us that electrons repel each other and therefore electrons do not pair up because
they repel each other.

The shape of molecules depends on the number of bonds in a molecule.

H
F F
O H N H
H C H B 104.5º
120º H H
H 107º
H F
Tetrahedral Triangular Angular

e Candidate A gives an excellent answer scoring 2 marks for the description of electron-pair
repulsion theory and 2 marks each for the four shapes. The quality of written
communication mark is awarded because specific chemical terms are used in the correct
context with due regard to spelling, punctuation and grammar. Candidate B clearly has not
done enough revision and does not know the straightforward definition of the electron
pair repulsion theory. In what appears to be a rushed answer, the question has been
restated. This fails to score. Candidate B’s sketches for methane and ammonia are
insufficient to gain the marks. It is particularly important to show the three-dimensional
shape of these molecules. This is best done by using wedge-shaped bonds. Candidate B
also loses a mark for not quoting the bond angle in methane but does earn the mark for
quality of written communication. Candidate B’s score for the four shapes is 5 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 42

e Overall, Candidate A scores the full 11 marks, while Candidate B scores 6. Often
chemists do not write in continuous prose but communicate by symbols, equations
and specific chemical terms. It is possible to gain the quality of written
communication mark without writing at great length. Often as little as two
consecutive sentences may be regarded as continuous prose.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 43

 Question 16: Boltzmann distribution

Time allocation: 6–7 minutes

The diagram below shows the energy distribution of reactant molecules at a temperature T1.

Number of molecules
with a given energy
Ea = activation energy
of the reaction

Ea Energy/kJ mol–1

a Explain what is meant by the term ‘activation energy’. (1 mark)

b Copy the diagram above and mark the activation energy in the presence of a
catalyst, Ec, on your diagram. (1 mark)

c Explain, in terms of the distribution curve, how a catalyst speeds up the rate of
a reaction. (2 marks)

d (i) Raising the temperature can also increase the rate of this reaction. Draw a
second curve to represent the energy distribution at a higher temperature.
Label your curve T2. (2 marks)
(ii) Explain how an increase in temperature can speed up the rate of a reaction. (2 marks)

Total: 8 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 16

Candidate A
a The activation energy is the minimum energy needed to start a reaction.
Candidate B
a The energy needed for a collision to be successful.
e Candidate A scores the mark, but Candidate B does not. The key word missing from
Candidate B’s response is ‘minimum’.

Candidate A
b
Number of molecules
with a given energy

Ea = activation energy
Ea = of the reaction

Ec Ea Energy/kJ mol–1

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 44

 Candidate B
b

Number of molecules
with a given energy
Ea = activation energy
Ea = of the reaction

Ec Ea Energy/kJ mol–1

e Both candidates gain the mark.The activation energy for the catalyst must be lower than
the original activation energy.

Candidate A
c The mode of action of any catalyst is to provide an alternative mechanism of lower
activation energy so that more particles have enough energy to react.

Candidate B
c A catalyst is a substance that speeds up a reaction without itself being altered.
Catalysts can be homogeneous (same phase) or heterogeneous (different phase).
Catalysts can be reused.
e Candidate A gains both marks but Candidate B fails to score. Candidate B has not read the
question carefully and has simply written down (correct) information about catalysts, none
of which is relevant to the question.

Candidate A
d (i)
Number of molecules
with a given energy

Ea = activation energy
Ea = of the reaction

T2

Ec Ea Energy/kJ mol–1

Candidate B
d (i)
Number of molecules
with a given energy

Ea = activation energy
Ea = of the reaction

T2

Ec Ea Energy/kJ mol–1

e Candidate A gains both marks, but Candidate B scores only 1. For 1 mark, both candidates
show that at increased temperature the distribution moves to the right (to higher energy).
However, as the distribution moves to the right, the curve also flattens out. This is shown
in Candidate A’s sketch, but not in that of Candidate B.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 45

 Candidate A
d (ii) Increasing temperature increases energy. Therefore, more particles will have
energy greater than or equal to the minimum energy required, so the reaction will
speed up.

Candidate B
d (ii) Increasing temperature lowers the activation energy and therefore more particles
exceed the activation energy.
e Candidate A gives the perfect response and scores both marks. Candidate B has
misunderstood the effect that increasing temperature has on the activation energy and
has probably confused it with a catalyst. Catalysts lower the activation energy; changing
the temperature has no effect on the activation energy. Unfortunately, Candidate B fails to
score.
e Overall, Candidate A scores the full 8 marks, while Candidate B scores only 2 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 46

 Question 17: Bond enthalpy and catalysts
Time allocation: 15–16 minutes

Bond enthalpies can provide information about the energy changes that accompany a
chemical reaction.

a What do you understand by the term ‘bond enthalpy’? (2 marks)

b (i) Write an equation, including state symbols, to represent the bond enthalpy
of hydrogen chloride. (2 marks)
(ii) Write an equation, including state symbols, to represent the bond enthalpy
of methane. (3 marks)

The table below shows some average bond enthalpies.

Bond Average bond enthalpy/kJ mol–1

C–C 350
C=C 610
H–H 436
C–H 410

c (i) Use the information in the table to calculate the enthalpy change for the
hydrogenation of ethene:
H H H H

C C + H2 H C C H

H H H H
Ethene(g) Ethane(g) (3 marks)
(ii) The enthalpy change of this reaction is found by experiment to be
−136 kJ mol−1. Explain why this value is different from that determined above. (2 marks)

d (i) In the above reaction, nickel is used as a catalyst. Define ‘catalyst’. (1 mark)
(ii) Catalysts can be homogeneous or heterogeneous. Explain which is the case
for nickel in this reaction. (1 mark)
(iii) Explain the mode of action of nickel in this reaction. (3 marks)

Total: 17 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 17

Candidate A
a The enthalpy change when one mole of a covalent bond is broken in the gaseous state.
Candidate B
a The energy needed to break one mole of a bond in the gas state.
e Bond enthalpy is difficult to define.There are certain key elements that must be included:
namely ‘breaking a bond’, ‘in the ‘gaseous state’ and ‘1 mole’. It would be helpful to illustrate
your definition with the equation:
X–Y(g) → X(g) + Y(g)

This shows that you also know that bond enthalpy relates to covalent molecules and
involves homolytic fission. However, both candidates score the 2 marks.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 47

 Candidate A
b (i) HCl(g) → H(g) + Cl(g)
Candidate B
b (i) HCl → H + Cl
e Candidate A scores both marks. Candidate B loses a mark for not including the state
symbols that were asked for in the question.

Candidate A
b (ii) CH4(g) → CH3(g) + H(g)
Candidate B
b (ii) CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g)
e Neither candidate scores all 3 marks. Part b(i) merits 2 marks, 1 mark for the equation and
1 mark for the state symbols. In b(ii), there are 3 marks so the answer needs to be more
extensive than that for b(i). Candidate A has used the definition of bond enthalpy literally
and has ‘broken one bond in the gaseous state’. However, methane has four C–H bonds, so
the bond enthalpy is the average of all four bond enthalpies. Candidate A scores 2 marks.
Candidate B has shown the enthalpy change for breaking four C–H bonds, not one, and
also scores 2 marks. Each gets 1 mark for the state symbols.

The equation the examiner is looking for is:

–41 [CH4(g) → C(g) + 4H(g)]
which indicates clearly that the bond enthalpy in methane is the average bond enthalpy
when all four C–H bonds are broken. This is detailed below:
CH4(g) → CH3(g) + H(g) ΔH = +425 kJ mol−1
CH3(g) → CH2(g) + H(g) ΔH = +470 kJ mol−1
CH2(g) → CH(g) + H(g) ΔH = +416 kJ mol−1
CH(g) → C(g) + H(g) ΔH = +335 kJ mol−1

The total enthalpy change is 425 + 470 + 416 + 335 = +1646 kJ mol−1, which is the enthalpy
change when four C–H bonds are broken in methane. Therefore, the enthalpy change
when one C–H bond is broken is +1646/4 = 411.5 kJ mol−1.You are not expected to quote
numerical values, but you are expected to realise that the bond enthalpy quoted is the
average value.

Candidate A
c (i) Bonds broken: (610 + 1640 + 436) = +2686
Bonds formed: (−350 − 2460) = −2810
Enthalpy change: = −124 kJ mol−1

Candidate B
c (i) Bonds broken: C=C = +610
Bonds formed: 2 × C–H = −820; 1 × C–C = −350
Enthalpy change: −560 kJ mol−1
e There are two ways of carrying out this calculation. Candidate A has opted for the safer way
and calculated the enthalpy change for breaking every bond in the reactants and then for
forming every bond in the product.A sensible way to set this out is to simply list every bond:
Bonds broken: 1 × C=C = +610; 4 × C–H = +1640; 1 × H–H = +436
Bonds formed: 1 × C–C = −350; 6 × C–H = −2460
Enthalpy change: −124 kJ mol−1

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 48

 Candidate B has looked at the overall change and attempted to identify the net change in
bonds broken and formed. He/she has correctly worked out that if four C–H bonds are
broken and six C–H bonds are formed, then the net change is the formation of two C–H
bonds. However, the candidate has forgotten that H2 contains an H–H bond that also has
to be broken. Candidate A scores all 3 marks and Candidate B scores 2, even though the
answer is incorrect.The answer has been marked ‘consequentially’ and as there is only one
the error in the calculation, Candidate B loses only 1 mark.

Candidate A
c (ii) The bond energies used in the calculation are average values for the bonds.
Candidate B
c (ii) Experiments are not very accurate and heat will be lost.
e Candidate A gains 1 mark. The second mark is for an explanation that the C–H bond in
ethene is not the same as the C–H bond in ethane because they are in different
environments. Candidate B has made assumptions about the accuracy of the experiment
that are not justified and fails to score.

Candidate A
d (i) Speeds up a reaction without being used up.
Candidate B
d (i) Speeds up a reaction by providing a route with a lower activation energy.
e Both candidates score the mark.

Candidate A
d (ii) Heterogeneous
Candidate B
d (ii) Heterogeneous
e Both candidates are correct in that the catalyst is heterogeneous. However, neither scores
the mark because neither has explained why this is the case.

Candidate A
d (iii) The ethene and hydrogen gases are absorbed by the nickel, the reaction takes
place and the ethane is desorbed .

Candidate B
d (iii) The reactants bind to the surface of the nickel (adsorb)  and the bonds are
weakened . The reaction takes place and the product leaves the surface of the
nickel (desorbs) .
e The marking points are:
I adsorbs to the nickel surface 
I weakens bonds/lowers activation energy 
I desorbs from nickel surface 

Candidate A scores only 1 mark. The word ‘absorbed’ loses the first mark and there is no
reference to how the bonds are weakened. Candidate B scores all 3 marks.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 12 out of 17 marks, while Candidate B scores 11.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 49

 Question 18: Enthalpy of combustion; Hess’s law;
catalytic converters

Time allocation: 9–10 minutes

Octane, C8H18, is one of the hydrocarbons present in petrol.

a Define the term ‘standard enthalpy change of combustion’. (3 marks)

b Use the data below to calculate the standard enthalpy change of combustion of
octane.

Compound ΔH/kJ mol–1

C8H18(l) –250.0
CO2(g) –393.5
H2O(l) –285.9

C8H18(l) + 121–2 O2(g) → 8CO2(g) + 9H2O(l) (3 marks)

c Combustion in a car engine also produces polluting gases, mainly carbon

monoxide, unburnt hydrocarbons and oxides of nitrogen, such as nitrogen
monoxide, NO. Explain, with the aid of equations, how CO and NO are
produced in a car engine. (2 marks)

d (i) A catalytic converter removes many of these potential pollutants through

a series of reactions. Write an equation to show the removal of CO and
NO gases. (1 mark)

(ii) The removal of CO and NO gases involves a redox reaction. Use your answer
to d(i) to identify the element being reduced and state the change in its
oxidation number. (2 marks)

Total: 11 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 18

Candidate A
a It is the enthalpy change when 1 mole of a substance is burnt completely, in an excess
of oxygen, under standard conditions of 298 K and 1 atmosphere pressure.

Candidate B
a It is the enthalpy change when 1 mole of a substance is burnt in oxygen, under
standard conditions.
e Candidate A scores all 3 marks. The marking points are:
I 1 mole 
I burnt in an excess of oxygen 
I standard conditions are 298 K/25°C and 100 kPa/1 atm 

Candidate B scores only 1 mark. This is probably because of carelessness and poor
examination technique, rather than lack of knowledge.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 50

 Candidate A
b C8H18(g) + 121–2 O2(g)
A
8CO2(g) + 9H2O(l)

B C D

C(s) H2(g) O2(g)

A = C + D − B = −5471.1 kJ mol−1

Candidate B
b C8H18(g) + 121–2 O2(g)
A
8CO2(g) + 9H2O(I)

B C D
−250 8(−393.5) 9(285.9)

C(s) H2(g) O2(g)

A=C+D−B
= (−3148.0) + (2573.1) − (−250.0)
= −3148.0 + 2573.1 + 250.0
= −324.9 kJ mol−1

e Candidate B shows good examination technique by showing all the working.

Unfortunately, he/she has made a careless slip by forgetting to put the minus sign in front
of 285.9 for the formation of water. The examiner can see this error clearly and is able to
follow it through. Therefore, Candidate B gains 2 of the 3 marks. Candidate A gains all
3 marks. However, if the numerical value had been incorrect, Candidate A would score only
1 mark, or possibly no marks. It is always better to show all your working in any calculation.

Candidate A
c C8H18(l) + 8 –12 O2(g) → 8CO(g) + 9H2O(l)
N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g)

Candidate B
c C8H18 + 9 –12 O2 + N2 → 8CO + 9H2O + 2NO
e Each candidate scores 2 marks. Candidate B’s response is unusual but is nevertheless
correct.

Candidate A
d (i) 2NO(g) + 2CO(g) → N2(g) + 2CO2(g)
Candidate B
d (i) 2NO + 2CO → N2 + 2CO2
e Each candidate gains the mark. Marks for state symbols are only awarded if they are asked
for in the question.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 51

 Candidate A
d (ii) Nitrogen has been reduced because its oxidation state has changed from +2 to
zero

Candidate B
d (ii) Reduced

+2 –2 +2–2 0 +4 –2
2NO + 2CO N2 + 2CO2

e Each candidate scores 2 marks. Candidate A has not shown any working and would have
lost both marks if the answer had been wrong. Candidate B demonstrates better
examination technique by writing the oxidation numbers along the top of the equation
so that the examiner can follow the working.
e Overall, Candidate A scores the full 11 marks, while Candidate B scores 8 marks.

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 Question 19: Equilibria; ammonia as a base

Time allocation: 16–17 minutes

Sulphuric acid, H2SO4, is made industrially by the Contact process. It involves the formation of
SO3 and is an example of a dynamic equilibrium.

2SO2(g) + O2(g)  2SO3(g) ΔH = −98 kJ mol−1

a State two features of a reaction at dynamic equilibrium. (2 marks)

b State and explain what happens to the equilibrium position of this reaction as:
(i) the temperature is raised (2 marks)
(ii) the pressure is increased (2 marks)

c (i) Consider your answers to part b and suggest the optimum conditions for
the Contact process. (2 marks)
(ii) The conditions used for the Contact process are a temperature between
450°C and 600°C and a pressure of about 10 atmospheres. Explain why the
optimum conditions are not used. (3 marks)
(iii) Vanadium(V) oxide is used as a catalyst. What effect does this have on the
conversion of SO2(g) into SO3(g)? (2 marks)
(iv) At least three catalyst chambers are used to ensure maximum conversion
of SO2(g). The conversion yield can exceed 98%. State two advantages of
this high conversion rate. (2 marks)

d Much of the sulphuric acid produced is reacted with ammonia to make fertilisers
such as ammonium sulphate, (NH4)2SO4. This is an acid–base reaction.
(i) Ammonia is a base. Explain what is meant by the term ‘base‘. (1 mark)
(ii) Construct an equation for the acid–base reaction of ammonia with
sulphuric acid. (2 marks)
(iii) Farmers use ammonium sulphate for its nitrogen content. Calculate the
percentage of nitrogen in (NH4)2SO4. Quote your answer to three significant
figures. (3 marks)

Total: 21 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 19

Candidate A
a The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are the same, so the amount of each
chemical remains the same.

Candidate B
a The amount of each chemical in the system remains constant. The reagents react at
the same rate as the products.
e Each candidate gains 2 marks.

Candidate A
b (i) The equilibrium position moves to the left because the forward reaction is
exothermic.

OCR AS Chemistry Questions and Answers © Philip Allan Updates 53

 Candidate B
b (i) The reaction is much faster because more particles now exceed the activation
energy.
e Candidate A scores both marks. He/she has sensibly used the words ‘equilibrium position’
that were used in the question. Unfortunately, Candidate B has either misread or
misunderstood the question and has explained the effect of increasing temperature on
reaction rate. The explanation is correct but scores no marks because it does not answer
the question set. This is a common error. Many candidates lose valuable marks by not
reading the question carefully.

Candidate A
b (ii) The equilibrium moves to the right because there are fewer molecules of gas on
the right-hand side.

Candidate B
b (ii) Increasing the pressure effectively increases the concentration. Therefore, the
reaction will go faster.
e Candidate A gains both marks. Candidate B has again misread the question and made the
same mistake as in b(i), costing another 2 marks.

Candidate A
c (i) Low temperature and high pressure
Candidate B
c (i) Low temperature and high pressure
e Each candidate scores 2 marks.This shows that Candidate B understands equilibrium and
should not have lost marks in parts b(i) and b(ii).

Candidate A
c (ii) At low temperature the conversion is high but the rate of reaction is too slow.
High pressure is too expensive.

Candidate B
c (ii) Temperature — a compromise is reached between rate and conversion. At low
temperature the rate is too slow.
Pressure — a compromise is reached between cost and conversion.
Catalyst — a catalyst is used to speed up the rate of conversion so that it is cost
effective to work at low pressure.
e Candidate B gives the perfect answer and scores 3 marks. The response demonstrates
understanding and indicates that marks should not have been lost in part b. Candidate A
gains 2 marks. The explanation for temperature is fine but the explanation regarding
pressure is inadequate. The key to the answer is the compromise between rate and
percentage SO3, cost and percentage SO3 together with the use of a catalyst.

Candidate A
c (iii) The catalyst speeds up the reaction but does not change the equilibrium position
because it speeds up the forward and reverse reactions equally.

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 Candidate B
c (iii) It speeds up the reaction by providing a mechanism of lower activation energy.
e Candidate A scores 2 marks. Candidate B seems to have rushed the answer and has not
fully addressed the question. He/she scores 1 mark.

Candidate A
c (iv) It is more cost-effective and reduces the amount of SO2 pollution.
Candidate B
c (iv) It is more profitable and makes more money.
e Candidate A gives a good answer and gains both marks. Candidate B says the same thing
twice and so only scores 1 mark.

Candidate A
d (i) It can accept a proton.
Candidate B
d (i) H+ acceptor
e Both candidates score the mark.

Candidate A
d (ii) 2NH3 + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4
Candidate B
d (ii) 2NH4OH + H2SO4 → (NH4)2SO4 + H2O
e Both candidates have made a good attempt. There is 1 mark for the correct formulae,
which is gained by both candidates. Ammonia can be represented as either NH3 or, less
acceptably, as NH4OH. It is usually dissolved in water and is best represented as NH3(aq).
The second mark is for a correctly balanced equation. Therefore, Candidate A scores 2
marks and Candidate B scores 1 mark.

Candidate A
d (iii) Mr of (NH4)2SO4 = 14.0 + 14.0 + 8.0 + 32.1 + 64.0 = 132.1
28.0
%N = × 100 = 21.1960635
132.1
Candidate B
d (iii) 22.1%
e Candidate A displays good examination technique by showing all the working but has not
quoted the answer to three significant figures. He/she has written out the ‘full’ value from
the calculator and therefore loses a mark. Candidate B shows poor examination technique
and fails to score. It is likely that Candidate B has copied the answer from the calculator
incorrectly. However, the examiner cannot assume this and cannot award any marks. If the
working had been shown, it would have been possible to award up to 2 marks, even with
an incorrect answer. In any calculation, it is sensible to show all the working, no matter how
trivial.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 19 out of 21 marks, while Candidate B scores 11.

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 Question 20: Activation energy and energy-profile
diagrams; Le Chatelier’s principle; acids

Time allocation: 16–17 minutes

In the Haber process, hydrogen is reacted with nitrogen in the presence of a catalyst to make
ammonia:
N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

The activation energy for the forward reaction is +68 kJ mol−1.

The activation energy for the reverse reaction is +160 kJ mol−1.

a (i) Use this information to sketch the energy-profile diagram. Label clearly the
activation energy for the forward reaction, Ef , and the activation energy for
the reverse reaction, Er. (3 marks)
(ii) Explain what is meant by ‘activation energy’. (1 mark)
(iii) Calculate the enthalpy change for the forward reaction. (1 mark)

Much of the ammonia produced is oxidised to nitric acid using the Ostwald process, which
involves three stages.
Equation Enthalpy change
Stage 1 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) ΔH = −950 kJ mol−1
Stage 2 2NO(g) + O2(g)  2NO2(g) ΔH = −114 kJ mol−1
Stage 3 3NO2(g) + H2O(g)  2HNO3(g) + NO(g) ΔH = −117 kJ mol−1

b (i) With reference to the oxidation number of nitrogen in NH3 (stage 1) and
HNO3 (stage 3) show clearly that this is an oxidation process. (3 marks)
(ii) State Le Chatelier’s principle. (2 marks)
(iii) In stage 1, use Le Chatelier’s principle to predict and explain the temperature
and pressure that would give maximum yield. (4 marks)
(iv) Suggest what happens to the NO produced in stage 3. (1 mark)

c The nitric acid produced in stage 3 is a strong acid. Explain, with the aid of an
equation, what is meant by the term ‘strong acid’. (2 marks)

d Write a balanced equation, including state symbols, for the reaction between
nitric acid and calcium carbonate. Describe what you would see in this reaction. (4 marks)

Total: 21 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 20

Candidate A
a (i)
Energy/kJ mol–1

Ef = +68
N2 + 3H2
E r = +160
ΔH = −92
2NH3

Progress of reaction

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 Candidate B
a (i)

Energy/kJ mol–1
Ef

Er

Progress of reaction

e The marking points are:

I products at a lower enthalpy than the reactants 
I activation energy of forward reaction correctly labelled 
I activation energy of reverse reaction correctly labelled 

Candidate A gives the perfect answer and even goes on to work out ΔH for part a(iii).
Candidate B scores 1 mark. The enthalpy change for the reverse reaction is incorrect and
because the energy levels are not labelled, it is not possible to award the first marking
point.

Candidate A
a (ii) Activation energy is the minimum energy required for a reaction to occur.
Candidate B
a (ii) It is the minimum energy needed for a reaction to occur.
e Each candidate gains the mark. The key phrase is ‘minimum energy’.

Candidate A
a (iii) −92 kJ mol−1
Candidate B
a (iii) 92
e Candidate A scores the mark but Candidate B does not because the sign of the enthalpy
change for the forward reaction is negative, not positive.

Candidate A
b (i) The oxidation state of nitrogen in NH3 is –3 and in HNO3 it is +5. An increase in
oxidation number involves electron loss, which is oxidation (OILRIG).

Candidate B
b (i) –3 to +5; N−3 → N+5 + 8e−
e Both candidates score full marks for correctly deducing the oxidation numbers and
stating/showing the loss of electrons.

Candidate A
b (ii) Le Chatelier’s principle states that if a closed system at equilibrium is subject to a
change, the system will move to minimise the effect of the change.

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 Candidate B
b (ii) If concentration, temperature and pressure are changed, the system will move to
oppose the change. If we increase the concentration, the system moves to
decrease the concentration. If we increase the temperature, the system moves to
decrease the temperature. If we decrease the pressure, the system tries to move
to increase the pressure.
e Each candidate gains 2 marks. Candidate A gives a textbook answer, while Candidate B
explains Le Chatelier’s principle fully with respect to each variable.

Candidate A
b (iii) The forward reaction is exothermic and so is favoured by low temperature. There
are fewer products than reactants, so high pressure is required.

Candidate B
b (iii) Low temperature and high pressure, but in industry a temperature of about 450°C
and a pressure of 200 atm are used.
e Candidate A scores 3 marks. Both conditions are correct and the reason why a low
temperature is required is also correct.The final mark is lost because Candidate A does not
refer to the relative number of gas molecules on each side of the equation. Candidate B
gains 2 marks for the correct conditions but scores no marks for the explanation.
Candidate B has simply memorised the industrial conditions.

Candidate A
b (iv) Reused in stage 2
Candidate B
b (iv) Recycled
e Each candidate gains the mark.

Candidate A
c An acid is a proton donor. A strong acid dissociates totally into its ions.
HNO3(aq) → H+(aq) + NO3−(aq)

Candidate B
c HNO3(aq)  Η+(aq) + NO3−(aq)
An acid is a proton donor and it totally dissociates into its ions.
e Candidate A scores both marks but Candidate B loses a mark. The equation shows the
dissociation as reversible, which contradicts the statement that ‘it totally dissociates’.
Examiners always mark contradictions wrong.They do not select the right answer for you.

Candidate A
d CaCO3(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(s)
A gas is given off.

Candidate B
d CaCO3 + 2HNO3 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O + CO2
The solid dissolves and it effervesces.
e Scoring full marks is often about examination technique. There are 4 marks allocated to
this question part, so four points are required.There is 1 mark for the equation and 1 mark

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 for the state symbols, so there must be 2 marks for the observations. Candidate A scores
3 marks: 1 mark for the correct equation, 1 for the state symbols and 1 for the evolution of
CO2 gas. Candidate B also scores 3 marks: 1 mark for a correct equation and 2 marks for two
correct observations.The final mark is lost because the state symbols have been omitted.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 16 out of 21 marks, while Candidate B scores 14 marks.

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 Question 21: Enthalpy changes using mcΔT; catalysts

Time allocation: 14–15 minutes

In an investigation to find the enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol, C2H5OH, a student

finds that burning 1.60 g of ethanol heats 150 g of water from 22.0°C to 71.0°C. The specific
heat capacity of the apparatus is 4.2 J g−1 K−1.

a Use the student’s results to calculate a value for the enthalpy change of
combustion of ethanol. (6 marks)

b The theoretical value of the standard enthalpy change of combustion of ethanol

is −1367.3 kJ mol−1. Give two reasons for the difference in values and suggest an
improvement that could be made to the experiment in order to minimise the
most significant error. (3 marks)

c Catalysts have great economic importance. Give an example of a catalyst that is

in the same state as the reactants and an example of one that is in a different
state from the reactants. State why the reaction you have chosen is important
and explain how the catalyst is able to increase the rate of reaction. (5 marks)

In this question, 1 mark is available for the quality of written communication. (1 mark)

Total: 15 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 21

Candidate A
a Q = − mcΔT
= −(150 × 4.2 × 49.0)
= −30 870 J = −30.87 kJ
1.60
moles of ethanol = = 0.035
46.0
–30.87
ΔH =
0.035
= −882.8 kJ mol−1

Candidate B
b Q = −mcΔT = −(1.60 × 4.2 × 49.0) = −329.28 J
1.60
moles of ethanol = = 0.03478
46.0
–329.28
ΔH =
0.03478
= −9468
e The marking points are:
I use of the equation Q = −mcΔT 
I mass = 150 
I calculates value of ΔH 
I moles of ethanol 
I divides value of Q by moles of ethanol 
I correct units 

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 The correct answer is −887 kJ mol−1. Candidate A has not obtained this answer because
he/she has rounded the number of moles of ethanol to 0.035 and used this value in the
next step of the calculation. This is an incorrect procedure — the full number should be
held in the calculator to be used in subsequent steps. Nevertheless, Candidate A scores
5 marks. Candidate B uses incorrectly the mass of ethanol instead of the mass of water and
does not quote any units for the final value. However, Candidate B still scores 4 marks even
though the answer is wrong, because all the working is shown and the examiner can
award marks consequentially by following the initial mistake through the calculation.

Candidate A
b Heat is lost to the surroundings. The thermometer is not very accurate. I would use a
more accurate thermometer to reduce the error.

Candidate B
b Heat loss. Incomplete combustion — CO or C may have been formed. Increase the
supply of oxygen to ensure that CO2 is always produced.
e Candidate B gives a good answer and scores all 3 marks. Candidate A scores 2 marks.
Students often criticise apparatus without carefully considering the error. Given that the
temperature rise here is approximately 50°C, if the thermometer used measured to the
nearest degree, then the percentage error in measuring the temperature rise is of the
order (±2/50) × 100 = ±4%. Given the inaccuracy of the experiment this is not of great
significance.

Candidate A
c Catalysts speed up the rate of reactions and therefore reduce costs. Sulphuric acid is
used in the production of esters . The acid is in the same state as the reactants and is
known as a homogeneous catalyst. Heterogeneous catalysts, such as Fe, which is used
in the Haber process, are catalysts that are in a different state to the reactants . Both
types of catalyst work by providing an alternative mechanism of lower activation
energy  for the reaction.

Candidate B
c Esters are made by the reaction between alcohols and carboxylic acids in the
presence of an acid  catalyst. The acid and the reactants are all liquids and the
catalyst is a homolytic catalyst. Esters are important as they are used in flavourings .
Platinum  is used in a catalytic converter to reduce the amount of CO and NO 
emitted. The platinum is a solid and the reactants are both gases. This is a heterolytic
catalyst. Catalysts speed up reactions, without being themselves used up, by providing
an alternative route with lower activation energy .
e The marking points are:
I identification of a suitable example of a homogeneous catalyst
I suitable use for product
I identification of a suitable example of a heterogeneous catalyst
I suitable use for product
I catalysts provide an alternative mechanism of lower activation energy

The quality of written communication mark is awarded for appropriate spelling,

punctuation, grammar and correct use of at least two of homogeneous, heterogeneous
and activation energy.

Candidate A gives a good answer but forgets to state a use for each process and therefore
loses 2 marks. Candidate A scores a mark for each example, a mark for the explanation of

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 how the catalyst works and gains the mark for quality of written communication.
Candidate B scores 5 marks for an example and use of each type of catalyst and a correct
explanation of how catalysts work. The mark for quality of written communication is lost
because Candidate B has confused homolytic and heterolytic (which refer to bond fission)
with homogeneous and heterogeneous.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 11 out of 15 marks, while Candidate B scores 12.

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 Question 22: CFCs and the ozone layer

Time allocation: 10–12 minutes

At one time, CFCs were widely used. However, their production is now banned because of
their damaging effect on the ozone layer.

a CFCs used to be used as propellants in aerosols. Give three properties of CFCs that
make them suitable for this purpose. (3 marks)

b CFCs damage the ozone layer by disturbing the equilibrium between oxygen and
ozone in the stratosphere.
(i) Write an equation for this equilibrium. (1 mark)
(ii) Explain how this equilibrium is maintained in the stratosphere. (2 marks)
(iii) By using appropriate equations, explain how a CFC (represented by the
formula RCl) causes destruction of the ozone layer. (3 marks)
(iv) Explain why a single molecule of RCl can cause the destruction of many
molecules of ozone. (2 marks)

c The use of CFCs is now banned although it is expected that destruction of the
ozone layer will continue for many more years. Explain why this is expected. (2 marks)

Total: 13 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 22

Candidate A
a They are unreactive. They are not poisonous. They evaporate easily.
Candidate B
a You can spray them safely and they are easy to manufacture. They don’t react.
e Candidate A has learned the necessary work from the specification and scores all 3 marks.
The answer is not perfect — some explanation of ‘evaporate easily’in terms of the volatility
of the CFC in the aerosol would make it clearer. However, as the question does not require
an explanation, the answer is adequate. Candidate B is probably guessing. One mark is
awarded for lack of reactivity but, although ‘spray them safely’ is close to non-toxic, it is
insufficient for a further mark.

Candidate A
b (i) O2 + O  O3
Candidate B
b (i) O3  O2 + O
e Both candidates gain the mark.

Candidate A
b (ii) Ultraviolet radiation from the sun has many different energies. One wavelength
causes ozone to breakdown and another wavelength causes it to reform.

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 Candidate B
b (ii) Absorption of UV maintains the equilibrium.
e Candidate A picks up both marks. Candidate B obtains 1 mark for mentioning UV.There is
no explanation of how the reaction is maintained as an equilibrium.

Candidate A
b (iii) RCl first loses its chlorine to form the radical R.
The following reactions then occur:
R + O3 → RO + O2
RO + O → R + O2

Candidate B
b (iii) (1) RCl → R + Cl
(2) R + O3 → RO2 + O
(3) RO2 + 2O → R + 2O2
e Candidate A obtains only 2 marks because the first statement is not an equation and is also
vague in the use of the word ‘chlorine’. Candidate B scores 1 mark for the first equation.The
other two equations have the merit that the radical R is regenerated but they are
otherwise incorrect.

Candidate A
b (iv) R is a catalyst and is reformed during the reactions.
Candidate B
b (iv) In equations (2) and (3), R is formed again and can be recycled through the
reactions. This means lots of ozone molecules will be destroyed before the
reaction stops.
e Candidate A has not really answered the question. However, the mention of ‘catalyst’ and
‘reforming’ is sufficient to earn 1 mark. Candidate B scores 2 marks. Even though the
wording is not clear, the answer contains the essential points.

Candidate A
c The molecules of CFCs are not destroyed in the atmosphere because they are
unreactive. They drift up to the ozone layer over many years and so will continue to
destroy it.

Candidate B
c It takes a long time for the molecules to make their way up to the ozone layer and so it
is not destroyed immediately.
e Both candidates understand why destruction of the ozone layer is likely to continue,There
are 2 marks available, so two points are needed. Candidate A mentions two points and
scores both marks. Candidate B covers only one idea and scores 1 mark.
e It is probable that the candidates are of similar ability. However, Candidate A
recognises the importance of being able to recall specific facts, whereas Candidate
B knows broadly about CFCs and the ozone layer but cannot support this broad
knowledge with detailed information. Overall, Candidate A scores 11 out of 13
marks, while Candidate B scores 7.

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 Question 23: The greenhouse effect; removal of
carbon dioxide; principles of chemical sustainability

Time allocation: 8–9 minutes

Many manufacturing processes, such as the production of calcium oxide from limestone,
produce carbon dioxide as an unwanted by-product. Carbon dioxide contributes to global
warming.

a Using carbon dioxide as your example, outline how global warming occurs. (3 marks)

b Explain one possible way that waste carbon dioxide could be removed. (2 marks)

c Treatment of waste products is sometimes necessary in industrial processes but it

is usually expensive. It is better to design processes that are more environmentally
friendly. Suggest three features that could be incorporated into the design of a
manufacturing process to cause less damage to the environment. (3 marks)

Total: 8 marks

Candidates’ answers to Question 23

Candidate A
a Carbon dioxide absorbs infrared radiation and this does not allow it to escape into
outer space. The infrared radiation then causes the atmosphere to heat up.

Candidate B
a Carbon dioxide acts as a blanket above the atmosphere. It traps escaping heat and
keeps the Earth warm. It does it by vibrating its bonds.
e Both answers have some general merit but neither candidate has appreciated the detail
that is expected. The marking points are
I the C=O bond in carbon dioxide absorbs infrared  by causing the bond to vibrate 
I some infrared is trapped and causes increased heating of the atmosphere 

On this basis, Candidate A gains 1 mark for mentioning the heating of the atmosphere.
Candidate B might be allowed 1 mark, but is more likely not to score. It is essential for the
‘environmental’ sections of the specification that you learn specific points so that your
answers are not simplistic.

Candidate A
b Carbon dioxide can be removed using carbon capture and storage. The gas is liquefied
and then injected into rocks deep beneath the oceans.

Candidate B
b The carbon dioxide can be absorbed into an alkali.
e Both answers give a correct method. Candidate A provides sufficient detail to obtain the
2 marks. Candidate B’s response is superficial and is worth only 1 mark. A suitable balanced
equation would have secured the second mark.

Candidate A
c Use a catalyst where possible.
Use renewable materials for the process.
Minimise the formation of unwanted waste products.

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 Candidate B
c Don’t design processes that require lots of energy.
Make sure the product you are making doesn’t have side-effects.
Don’t dump waste materials.
e Candidate A has taken more trouble to study the appropriate section of the specification.
The answer is worth 2 of the 3 marks. The use of a catalyst in this context should be
justified in terms of the likelihood that this would lead to a lower energy requirement.
Without a supporting comment, the first statement of Candidate A’s answer is insufficient
to score a mark. Candidate B makes the point about low energy requirements and scores
1 mark. The other two points raise sensible issues but they do not answer the question,
which is about the design of a manufacturing process.
e Overall, Candidate A scores 5 out of 8 marks, while Candidate B scores 2.

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