Collection of tests for the Final Examination of the course

“Biostatistics and Research Methodology”

II year students, spring semester, 2017-2018

Types of questions:

SQ: single-choice question (1 answer)

MQ: multiple-choice question (2 or 3 answers)

Materials:

1. Raevschi E., Tintiuc D. "Biostatistics and Research Methodology", Chisinau, 2012

2. Lectures presentations on Research Methodology (Penina O., 2018). (available in SIMU,
folder "Biostatistica, teoretic")

Total number of questions : 405;

Questions 1-153 were included in the Mid-term Test # 1;

Questions 242- 383 were included in the Mid-term Test # 2.

* Additional questions with images will be added to the given collection. The student will see these questions
for the first time during his/her examination.

Part I. Biostatistics
1. SQ Give a definition of a variable
a. a number of observational units in a sample
b. a number of observational units in a population
c. a measured characteristic of an observational unit
d. a value derived from population data
e. a value derived from sample data
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2. MQ Select the types of variable (data)
a. Crude
b. Specific
c. Qualitative
d. Quantitative
e. Standardized
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3. MQ Select the types of categorical data
a. Discrete
b. Continuous
c. Alternative
d. Non-alternative
e. Numerical
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4. MQ Select the types of numerical data
a. Discrete
b. Continuous
c. Alternative
d. Non-alternative
e. Dichotomous
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5. SQ How many categories has a dichotomous variable
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. more than two
e. many
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6. MQ Choose the scales of measurement for qualitative data
a. Interval
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Nominal
e. Rate
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7. MQ Choose the scales of measurement for quantitative data
a. Interval
b. Ordinal
c. Ratio
d. Nominal
e. Rate
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8. MQ State the type of variable and scale of measurement for the set of data "Blood type"
a. Alternative
b. Non-alternative
c. Nominal
d. Ordinal
e. Discrete
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9. MQ State the type of variable and the scale of measurement for the set of data "The level of
education: high school; college; postgraduate education"
a. Alternative
b. Non-alternative
c. Nominal
d. Ordinal
e. Discrete
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10. MQ State the type of variable and the scale of measurement for the set of data "Body
temperature of a patient measured by Celsius"
a. Discrete
b. Non-alternative
c. Continuous
d. Interval
e. Ratio
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11. MQ State the type of variable and the scale of measurement for the set of data "Apgar score of a
new-born"
a. Alternative
b. Non-alternative
c. Nominal
d. Ordinal
e. Discrete
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12. MQ State the type of variable and the scale of measurement for the set of data "Patient's income"
with the categories "below average", "average", "higher than average"
a. Alternative
b. Non-alternative
c. Nominal
d. Ordinal
e. Discrete
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13. MQ State the type of variable and the scale of measurement for the set of data "Patient’s weight"
a. Discrete
b. Nominal
c. Continuous
d. Interval
e. Ratio
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14. MQ State the type of variable and the scale of measurement for the set of data "Patient’s pulse"
a. Discrete
b. Nominal
c. Continuous
d. Interval
e. Ratio
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15. MQ State the type of variable and the scale of measurement for the set of data "Type of
anaemia":
a. Alternative
b. Non-alternative
c. Nominal
d. Ordinal
e. Discrete
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16. MQ State the type of variable and the scale of measurement for the set of data "Patient’s gender"
a. Alternative
b. Non-alternative
c. Nominal
d. Ordinal
e. Discrete
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17. MQ Select discrete variables
a. Severity disease level
b. Level of cholesterol
c. Number of children a woman has
d. Gender
e. Patient's pulse
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18. MQ Select continuous variables
a. Severity disease level
b. Level of cholesterol
c. Number of children a woman has
d. Blood pressure
e. Nationality
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19. MQ Select the non-alternative variables
a. Severity disease level
b. Level of cholesterol
c. Number of children a woman has
d. Apgar score of a new-born
e. Gender
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20. SQ Select the appropriate dichotomous variable
a. Severity disease level
b. Level of cholesterol
c. Number of children a woman has
d. Gender
e. Type of anaemia
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21. SQ What variable can take on any value on a continuum
a. Continuous
b. Discrete
c. Non-alternative
d. Alternative
e. Dichotomous
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22. SQ What variable can take on only whole numbers
a. Continuous
b. Discrete
c. Non-alternative
d. Alternative
e. Dichotomous
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23. SQ What is common for nominal scale data
a. ratio of two numbers is meaningful
b. distance is meaningful
c. order is meaningful
d. no relationship between subgroups
e. absolute zero is meaningful
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24. MQ What is common for ordinal scale data
a. ratio of two numbers is meaningful
b. distance is NOT meaningful
c. order is meaningful
d. no relationship between subgroups
e. absolute zero is meaningful
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25. MQ What is common for interval scale data
a. ratio of two numbers is meaningful
b. distance is meaningful
c. order is meaningful
d. no relationship between subgroups
e. absolute zero is meaningful
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26. MQ What is common for ratio scale data
a. ratio of two numbers is meaningful
b. distance is meaningful
c. order is NOT meaningful
d. no relationship between subgroups
e. absolute zero is NOT meaningful
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27. MQ Which graphs display a frequency distribution for qualitative data
a. Bar chart
b. Frequency polygon
c. Histogram
d. Scatter plot
e. Column chart
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28. MQ Which graphs display a frequency distribution for quantitative data
a. Bar chart
b. Frequency polygon
c. Histogram
d. Scatter plot
e. Column chart
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29. SQ Which graph displays a relationship between two numerical variables
a. Bar chart
b. Frequency polygon
c. Histogram
d. Scatter plot
e. Box plot
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30. SQ Which graph displays five summary statistics (min, Q1, Q2, Q3, max)
a. Bar chart
b. Frequency polygon
c. Histogram
d. Box plot
e. Line chart
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31. SQ Histogram is used for a graph presentation of
a. Rate
b. Ratio
c. Frequency distribution
d. Proportion
e. Five summary statistics
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32. SQ Frequency polygon is used for a graph presentation of
a. Rate
b. Ratio
c. Frequency distribution
d. Proportion
e. Five summary statistics
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33. MQ The measures of central tendency are
a. Variance
b. Mean
c. Mode
d. Median
e. Standard deviation
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34. SQ Select the definition of Median
a. a value with the lowest frequency
b. a value with the highest frequency
c. a value that divides a distribution into two equal halves
d. a difference between maximum and minimum
e. ratio of the standard deviation to the mean
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35. SQ Select the definition of Mode
a. a value with the lowest frequency
b. a value with the highest frequency
c. a value that divides a distribution into two equal halves
d. a difference between maximum and minimum
e. ratio of the standard deviation to the mean
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36. SQ The observation in an array with the highest frequency is
a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Median
d. Standard deviation
e. Coefficient of variation
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37. SQ The value which divides a distribution into two equal halves is
a. Mean
b. Mode
c. Median
d. Standard deviation
e. Coefficient of variation
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38. SQ Mode is the measure of
a. Variability
b. Central tendency
c. Correlation
d. Variance
e. Regression
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39. SQ Median is the measure of
a. Variability
b. Central tendency
c. Correlation
d. Variance
e. Regression
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40. SQ Mean is the measure of
a. Variability
b. Central tendency
c. Correlation
d. Variance
e. Regression
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41. SQ Under what conditions is the use of the Mean preferred?
a. numerical data if distribution is skewed
b. numerical data if distribution is normal
c. ordinal scale data
d. bimodal distribution
e. uniform distribution
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42. SQ Under what conditions is the use of the Mode preferred?
a. numerical data if distribution is skewed
b. numerical data if distribution is normal
c. ordinal scale data
d. bimodal distribution
e. uniform distribution
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43. MQ Under what conditions is the use of the Median preferred?
a. numerical data if distribution is skewed
b. numerical data if distribution is normal
c. ordinal scale data
d. bimodal distribution
e. uniform distribution
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44. MQ Mean can be calculated for the data with the following scales of measurement:
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Interval
d. Ratio
e. Rate
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45. MQ Median can be calculated for the data with the following scales of measurement:
a. Nominal
b. Ordinal
c. Numerical (interval and ratio)
d. Proportion
e. Rate
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46. SQ The relationship of central tendency measures in skewed to the left distribution is
a. Mean > Median>Mode
b. Mean < Median>Mode
c. Mean < Median<Mode
d. Mean = Median=Mode
e. Mean > Median=Mode
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47. SQ The relationship of central tendency measures in skewed to the right distribution is
a. Mean > Median>Mode
b. Mean < Median>Mode
c. Mean < Median<Mode
d. Mean = Median=Mode
e. Mean > Median=Mode
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48. SQ The relationship of central tendency measures in normal distribution is
a. Mean > Median>Mode
b. Mean < Median>Mode
c. Mean < Median<Mode
d. Mean = Median=Mode
e. Mean > Median=Mode
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49. SQ Which percentile marks the Median
a. 10th
b. 20th
c. 25th
d. 50th
e. 75th
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50. SQ Which percentile marks Q1
a. 10th
b. 20th
c. 25th
d. 50th
e. 75th
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51. SQ Which percentile marks Q3
a. 10th
b. 20th
c. 25th
d. 50th
e. 75th
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52. MQ Select measures sensitive to extreme scores (outliers)
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Mean
d. Range
e. IQR
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53. MQ What measures are NOT sensitive to extreme scores (outliers)
a. Mode
b. Median
c. Mean
d. Range
e. IQR
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54. MQ What characteristics refer to normal distribution
a. Skewed
b. Unimodal
c. Mean=Median=Mode
d. unsymmetrical
e. Mean<Median<Mode
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55. MQ In a distribution, the mean is higher than the mode. This distribution is
a. Normal
b. Skewed to left
c. Skewed to right
d. Positively skewed
e. Negatively skewed
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56. MQ In a distribution, the mean is lower than the mode. This distribution is
a. Normal
b. Skewed to left
c. Skewed to right
d. Positively skewed
e. Negatively skewed
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57. MQ In a distribution, the mean is lower than the median. This distribution is
a. Normal
b. Skewed to left
c. Skewed to right
d. Positively skewed
e. Negatively skewed
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58. MQ In a distribution, the mean is higher than the median. This distribution is
a. Normal
b. Skewed to left
c. Skewed to right
d. Positively skewed
e. Negatively skewed
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59. MQ What is the relative location of measures of central tendency in a skewed to the left
distribution
a. The Mean tends to be greater than the Mode
b. The Mean tends to be lower than the Mode
c. The Median tends to be greater than the mode
d. The Median tends to be lower than the Mode
e. Mean, Median and Mode are the same
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60. MQ What is the relative location of measures of central tendency in a skewed to the right
distribution
a. The Mean tends to be greater than the Mode
b. The Mean tends to be lower than the Mode
c. The Median tends to be greater than the mode
d. The Median tends to be lower than the Mode
e. Mean, Median and Mode are the same
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61. SQ The synonym of skewed to the right distribution is
a. Positively skewed
b. Negatively skewed
c. Normal
d. Symmetric
e. Gaussian
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62. SQ The synonym of skewed to the left distribution is
a. Positively skewed
b. Negatively skewed
c. Normal
d. Symmetric
e. Gaussian
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63. SQ In the distribution (58, 65, 65, 74, 74, 74, 83, 105), the Mode is
a. 105-58
b. 105
c. 74
d. 4
e. 4.5
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64. SQ In the distribution (58, 65, 65, 74, 74, 74, 83, 105), the Median is
a. 105-58
b. 105
c. 74
d. 4
e. 74.5
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65. MQ The measures of variability are
a. Arithmetic (simple) mean
b. Weighted mean
c. Standard deviation
d. Range
e. Mode
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66. SQ What does "Standard deviation" show
a. Difference between the smallest and the largest value
b. Difference between the largest and the smallest value
c. Average distance between the individual values and their mean
d. A value with the highest frequency
e. A value that divides a distribution into two equal halves
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67. SQ What does "Range" show
a. An extreme value (outlier)
b. Difference between the largest and the smallest value
c. Average distance between the individual values and their mean
d. A value with the highest frequency
e. A value that divides a distribution into two equal halves
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68. SQ Range is the measure of
a. Central tendency
b. Variability
c. Correlation
d. Standard deviation
e. Regression
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69. SQ In the normal distribution, what percent of observations fall within ± 1 standard deviation of
the mean
a. 45%
b. 55%
c. 68%
d. 95%
e. 99.7%
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70. SQ In the normal distribution, what percent of observations fall within ± 2 standard deviations of
the mean
a. 45%
b. 55%
c. 68%
d. 95%
e. 99.7%
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71. SQ In the normal distribution, what percent of observations fall within ± 3 standard deviations of
the mean
a. 45%
b. 55%
c. 68%
d. 95%
e. 99.7%
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72. SQ Select the formula for "Coefficient of Variation"
a. Ratio of the mean to the standard deviation
b. Ratio of the standard deviation to the mean
c. Ratio of the standard deviation to the mode
d. Variance squared
e. The square root of the variance
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73. SQ Select the formula for "Standard deviation"
a. Ratio of the mean to the standard deviation
b. Ratio of the standard deviation to the mean
c. Ratio of the standard deviation to the mode
d. Variance squared
e. The square root of the variance
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74. SQ Variability of scores for the coefficient of variation less than 10% is
a. Very low
b. Low
c. Medium
d. High
e. Very high
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75. SQ Variability of scores for the coefficient of variation higher than 35% is
a. Very low
b. Low
c. Medium
d. High
e. Very high
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76. SQ Variability of scores for the coefficient of variation = 25% is
a. Very low
b. Low
c. Medium
d. High
e. Very high
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77. SQ Variability of scores for the coefficient of variation = 15% is
a. Very low
b. Low
c. Medium
d. High
e. Very high
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78. SQ The square root of the variance is
a. Interquartile range
b. Standard deviation
c. Coefficient of variation
d. Coefficient of correlation
e. Range
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79. SQ What percent of scores in a distribution is lower than Q1
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 70
e. 75
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80. SQ What percent of scores in a distribution is higher than Q1
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 70
e. 75
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81. SQ What percent of scores in a distribution is lower than Q3
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 70
e. 75
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82. SQ What percent of scores in a distribution is higher than Q3
a. 20
b. 25
c. 50
d. 70
e. 75
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83. MQ The types of relative values used to summarize categorical data are
a. Mean
b. Ratio
c. Proportion
d. Rate
e. Median
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84. MQ The main characteristics of Rate are
a. Extensive indicator
b. Intensive indicator
c. It shows the structure of the phenomenon
d. It shows the dynamics of the phenomenon
e. It is a measure of variability
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85. MQ The main characteristics of Proportion are
a. Extensive indicator
b. Intensive indicator
c. It shows the structure of the phenomenon
d. It shows the dynamics of the phenomenon
e. It is a measure of variability
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86. SQ The main characteristics of Ratio is
a. Numerator is included in denominator
b. It is a ratio of two independent phenomena
c. Extensive indicator
d. Intensive indicator
e. It shows the structure of the phenomenon
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87. SQ Select the main types of “Rate”
a. General, specific, standardized
b. Crude, specific, standardized
c. General and special
d. General and standardized
e. Special and standardized
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88. MQ Select the examples of specific rates
a. Annual crude death rate
b. Death rate at age 40-44 years old
c. Cancer prevalence rate among females
d. Annual crude birth rate
e. Medical supply
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89. SQ Select the example of “Ratio”
a. Incidence rate of pulmonary chronic diseases
b. Cancer prevalence rate
c. Medical supply
d. Annual crude death rate
e. Annual crude birth rate
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90. SQ What indicator shows the intensity (level) of a phenomenon?
a. Ratio
b. Proportion
c. Rate
d. Percentage
e. Mean
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91. SQ What indicator shows the structure of a phenomenon?
a. Ratio
b. Proportion
c. Rate
d. Standard deviation
e. Mean
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92. SQ What indicator is called intensive?
a. Ratio
b. Proportion
c. Rate
d. Standard deviation
e. Mean
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93. SQ What indicator is called extensive?
a. Ratio
b. Proportion
c. Rate
d. Standard deviation
e. Mean
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94. SQ Which of the following indicators is static?
a. Prevalence rate
b. Proportion
c. Mortality rate
d. Incidence rate
e. Standardized death rate
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95. SQ Numerator is NOT included in denominator for
a. Rate
b. Proportion
c. Ratio
d. Percentage
e. Mode
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96. SQ Select the formula for the Ratio
a. a/(a+b)
b. a/b
c. a/(a+b)*base
d. (a+b)/a
e. (a+b)/b
---------------------------------------------------------------------
97. SQ Select the formula for the Proportion
a. a/(a+b)
b. a/b
c. a/(a+b)*base
d. (a+b)/a
e. (a+b)/b
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98. SQ Select the formula for the Rate
a. a/(a+b)
b. a/b
c. a/(a+b)*base
d. (a+b)/a
e. (a+b)/b
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99. SQ Graph presentation of Proportion is
a. Line chart
b. Scatter plot
c. Pie chart
d. Histogram
e. Frequency polygon
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100. MQ Graph presentation of Rate is
a. Line chart
b. Bar chart
c. Pie chart
d. Histogram
e. Box plot
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101. MQ Graph presentation of Ratio is
a. Line chart
b. Bar chart
c. Pie chart
d. Histogram
e. Box plot
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102. SQ ”10 doctors per 10,000 population” is an example of
a. Rate
b. Proportion
c. Ratio
d. Percentage
e. Mode
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103. SQ ”2 men per one woman” is an example of
a. Rate
b. Proportion
c. Ratio
d. Percentage
e. Mode
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104. SQ ”53% of deaths under 5 years old in the total number of deaths” is an example of
a. Rate
b. Proportion
c. Ratio
d. Standard deviation
e. Mode
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105. SQ ”10 deaths per 1,000 population in a year” is an example of
a. Rate
b. Proportion
c. Ratio
d. Percentage
e. Mode
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106. SQ ”10 new cases of stomach cancer per 1,000 population in 2014” is an example of
a. Crude death rate
b. Specific incidence rate
c. Specific prevalence rate
d. Ratio
e. Percentage
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107. SQ ”20 all cases of uterus cancer per 1,000 population aged 40-44 years old” in 2014 is
a. Specific incidence rate
b. Specific prevalence rate
c. Crude incidence rate
d. Crude prevalence rate
e. Annual crude death rate
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108. SQ ”35% of deaths from cardiovascular diseases in the total number of deaths” is an example
of
a. Rate
b. Proportion
c. Ratio
d. Standard deviation
e. Mode
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109. SQ ”15 deaths from stomach cancer per 1,000 population” in 2014 is
a. Crude death rate
b. Specific death rate
c. Crude incidence rate
d. Crude prevalence rate
e. Medical supply
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110. SQ In regions A and B, crude death rates are the same, but standardized death rate is higher in
region B. Where mortality is lower?
a. Mortality is the same in both regions
b. Mortality is low in both regions
c. Region A
d. Region B
e. Mortality is high in both regions
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111. SQ In regions A and B, crude death rates are the same, but standardized death rate is higher in
region B. Where mortality is higher?
a. Mortality is the same in both regions
b. Mortality is high in both regions
c. Region A
d. Region B
e. Mortality is low in both regions
---------------------------------------------------------------------
112. SQ How many steps does the direct method of standardization include?
a. 2 steps
b. 3 steps
c. 4 steps
d. 5 steps
e. 6 steps
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113. SQ Select the first step of the direct method of standardization
a. Selection of the standard population
b. Calculation of the total of deaths in two regions
c. Calculation of specific rates
d. Calculation of adjusted rates
e. Calculation of expected number of events
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114. SQ Select the second step of the direct method of standardization
a. Selection of the standard population
b. Calculation of the total of deaths in two regions
c. Calculation of specific rates
d. Calculation of adjusted rates
e. Calculation of expected number of events
---------------------------------------------------------------------
115. SQ Select the third step of the direct method of standardization
a. Selection of the standard population
b. Calculation of the total of deaths in two regions
c. Calculation of specific rates
d. Calculation of adjusted rates
e. Calculation of expected number of events
---------------------------------------------------------------------
116. SQ Select the last step of the direct method of standardization
a. Selection of the standard population
b. Calculation of the total of deaths in two regions
c. Calculation of specific rates
d. Calculation of adjusted rates
e. Calculation of expected number of events
---------------------------------------------------------------------
117. SQ The standard population for age-adjusted death rates in two regions is
a. The sum of deaths by age from both regions
b. The sum of populations by age from both regions
c. Distribution of deaths by age from the first region
d. Distribution of deaths by age from the second region
e. Distribution of population by age from the first region
---------------------------------------------------------------------
118. SQ What does Incidence mean
a. Only pre-existing cases of diseases
b. Only new cases of diseases
c. Both new and pre-existing cases of disease
d. All cases of births
e. All cases of deaths
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119. SQ What does Prevalence mean
a. Only pre-existing cases of diseases
b. Only new cases of diseases
c. Both new and pre-existing cases of disease
d. All cases of births
e. All cases of deaths
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120. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 50,000 males. In 2014,
500 live-births and 1,000 deaths, including 550 deaths in males, were registered. Annual crude death
rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
121. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 50,000 males. In 2014,
500 live-births and 1,000 deaths, including 550 deaths in males, were registered. Annual crude birth
rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
122. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 50,000 males. In 2014,
500 live-births and 1,000 deaths, including 550 deaths in males, were registered. Annual specific
death rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
123. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 50,000 males. In 2014,
200 new cases of diseases were registered, including 50 new cases of lung cancer. In males, the
number of new cases of lung cancer is 40. Crude incidence rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
124. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 50,000 males. In 2014,
200 new cases of diseases were registered, including 50 new cases of lung cancer. In males, the
number of new cases of lung cancer is 40. Cause-specific incidence rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
125. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 50,000 males. In 2014,
200 new cases of diseases were registered, including 50 new cases of lung cancer. In males, the
number of new cases of lung cancer is 40. Cause- and sex-specific incidence rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
126. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 30,000 females. In
2014, the number of all cases of diseases is 500, including 30 cases of uterus cancer. The number of
new cases of uterus cancer is 15. The number of doctors is 200. Medical supply is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
127. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 30,000 females. In
2014, the number of all cases of diseases is 500, including 30 cases of uterus cancer. The number of
new cases of uterus cancer is 15. The number of doctors is 200. Crude prevalence rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
128. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 30,000 females. In
2014, the number of all cases of diseases is 500, including 30 cases of uterus cancer. The number of
new cases of uterus cancer is 15. The number of doctors is 200. Cause-specific prevalence rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
129. SQ The number of population in a locality is 80,000 persons, including 30,000 females. In
2014, the number of all cases of diseases is 500, including 30 cases of uterus cancer. The number of
new cases of uterus cancer is 15. The number of doctors is 200. Cause-specific incidence rate is
a. The formula will be given
b.
c.
d.
e.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
130. MQ The direction of the correlation between two variable can be
a. Strong
b. Positive
c. Normal
d. Negative
e. Weak
---------------------------------------------------------------------
131. MQ Positive correlation between two variables means
a. The higher is value for X, the lower is value for Y
b. The higher is value for Y, the lower is value for X
c. The lower is value for X, the lower is value for Y
d. The higher is value for X, the higher is value for Y
e. Variables X and Y have only positive values
---------------------------------------------------------------------
132. MQ Negative correlation between two variables means
a. The higher is value for X, the lower is value for Y
b. The higher is value for Y, the lower is value for X
c. The lower is value for X, the lower is value for Y
d. The higher is value for X, the higher is value for Y
e. Variables X and Y have only negative values
---------------------------------------------------------------------
133. SQ Under what conditions Pearson's correlation coefficient is used
a. Two numerical variables, normal distribution for X and Y
b. Two numerical variables, normal distribution only for X
c. Two numerical variables, normal distribution only for Y
d. Two numerical variables, skewed distribution for X and Y
e. Two ordinal variables, normal distribution for X and Y
---------------------------------------------------------------------
134. MQ Select conditions under which Spearman's rank correlation coefficient is used
a. Two numerical variables, normal distribution for X and Y
b. Two numerical variables, normal distribution only for X
c. Two numerical variables, normal distribution only for Y
d. Two numerical variables, skewed distribution for X and Y
e. Two dichotomous variables
---------------------------------------------------------------------
135. MQ Spearman's rank correlation coefficient is used for
a. Two numerical variables, normal distribution for X and Y
b. Two dichotomous variables
c. Two ordinal variables
d. Two numerical variables, skewed distribution for X or/and Y
e. One ordinal and one numerical variables
---------------------------------------------------------------------
136. SQ For the statement “the higher is salt intake, the higher is blood pressure”, the correlation is
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Discrete
d. Continuous
e. Strong
---------------------------------------------------------------------
137. SQ For the statement “the higher is cigarette consumption, the lower is the average length of
life”, the correlation is
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. Discrete
d. Continuous
e. Strong
---------------------------------------------------------------------
138. SQ The value of the correlation coefficient varies between
a. -2 to +2
b. 0 to -1
c. 0 to +1
d. -1 to +1
e. -3 to +3
---------------------------------------------------------------------
139. SQ If two variables are NOT correlated, r is
a. -1
b. +1
c. 0
d. 100%
e. -100%
---------------------------------------------------------------------
140. MQ If the correlation is excellent (perfect), r is
a. -1
b. +1
c. 0
d. 100%
e. -100%
---------------------------------------------------------------------
141. MQ r= - 0.6 The correlation is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. A little degree of relationship
d. A fair degree of relationship
e. A good degree of relationship
---------------------------------------------------------------------
142. MQ r= + 0.45 The correlation is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. A little degree of relationship
d. A fair degree of relationship
e. A good degree of relationship
---------------------------------------------------------------------
143. MQ r= + 0.30 The correlation is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. A little degree of relationship
d. A fair degree of relationship
e. A good degree of relationship
---------------------------------------------------------------------
144. MQ r= - 0.20 The correlation is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. A little degree of relationship
d. A fair degree of relationship
e. A good degree of relationship
---------------------------------------------------------------------
145. SQ The sign of the correlation coefficient (+ or -) shows
a. The strength of the relationship between two variables
b. The direction of the relationship between two variables
c. The centre of the distribution
d. Variability of scores in a distribution
e. Prediction of one variable on the basis of another variable
---------------------------------------------------------------------
146. SQ The size of the correlation coefficient shows
a. The strength of the relationship between two variables
b. The direction of the relationship between two variables
c. The centre of the distribution
d. Variability of scores in a distribution
e. Prediction of one variable on the basis of another variable
---------------------------------------------------------------------
147. MQ Which statements about correlation coefficient are TRUE
a. It is a dimensionless number
b. The closer to 0, the weaker is the correlation
c. It can take on only positive values
d. It can take on only negative values
e. The closer to 1, the weaker is the correlation
---------------------------------------------------------------------
148. MQ r= - 0.80 The correlation is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. A fair degree of relationship
d. A good degree of relationship
e. A very good degree of relationship
---------------------------------------------------------------------
149. MQ r= + 0.80 The correlation is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. A fair degree of relationship
d. A good degree of relationship
e. A very good degree of relationship
---------------------------------------------------------------------
150. SQ Coefficient of determination is calculated as
a. r squared
b. r squared minus 1
c. The square root of r
d. Ratio of r to the mean
e. Ratio of the mean to r
---------------------------------------------------------------------
151. SQ The study finds r = 0.4 between salt intake and blood pressure. The coefficient of
determination is
a. 0.4%
b. 4%
c. 8%
d. 16%
e. 32%
---------------------------------------------------------------------
152. SQ The study find r = 0.5 between salt intake and blood pressure. The coefficient of
determination is
a. 0.5%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 25%
e. 50%
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
153. SQ The study find r = 0.3 between salt intake and blood pressure. The coefficient of
determination is
a. 0.3%
b. 3%
c. 9%
d. 18%

---------------------------------------------------------------------
154. SQ State the appropriate graph to display the following data of the distribution of major
causes of death: Cardiovascular Diseases - 31%, Communicable, maternal, perinatal and
nutritional conditions - 27%, Injuries - 9%, other diseases - 33%.
a) Pie chart
b) Bar chart
c) Histogram
d) Geographical map
e) Frequency Polygon

---------------------------------------------------------------------
155. MQ “Rate” is an indicator that shows:
a) Structure of a phenomenon
b) Frequency (level) of a phenomenon over a period of time
c) Ratio (rapport) of two independent phenomena
d) Level of mortality and morbidity in a population
e) Composition of a phenomenon at a specified point in time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
156. MQ Select rates that are NOT specific:
a) Death (mortality) rate at age 40-44 years old
b) Crude birth rate
c) Birth rate by area of residence of a mother
d) Death (mortality) rate by gender
e) Crude death (mortality) rate
---------------------------------------------------------------------
157. MQ Select the characteristics of an extensive statistical indicator:
a) It is the ratio of a part of the phenomenon to the whole of the phenomenon
b) It shows the relationship between the environment and phenomenon
c) It is expressed as promile or prodecimile
d) It evaluates dynamic changes of a phenomenon
e) It shows only the structure of a phenomenon at a specified moment in time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
158. MQ What characteristics of a phenomenon does indicator “Rate” show:
a) Structure
b) Frequency over a period of time
c) Limit
d) Central tendency
e) Level or intensity over a period of time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
159. MQ What characteristics of a phenomenon does indicator “Proportion” show:
a) Structure
 b) Frequency over a period of time
c) Part of a phenomenon from the whole of a phenomenon
d) Central tendency
e) Level (intensity) over a period of time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
160. SQ Select the indicator “Ratio”:
a) Incidence of pulmonary chronic diseases
b) Medical supply
c) Mortality by ischaemic heart diseases
d) Cardiovascular diseases prevalence
e) Structure of doctor visits

---------------------------------------------------------------------
161. MQ What does intensive statistical indicator characterize:
a) Structure of a phenomenon
b) Frequency of a phenomenon over a period of time
c) Limit of a phenomenon
d) Central tendency
e) Level (intensity) of a phenomenon over a period of time

---------------------------------------------------------------------
162. SQ Choose a characteristic of Ratio:
a) It associates a phenomenon and medium
b) It determines the level of a phenomenon in the medium which produced it
c) It expresses a part of the whole phenomenon
d) It represents the rapport between two independent totalities
e) It determines the causality of a phenomenon
---------------------------------------------------------------------
163. MQ Choose the main measures of morbidity:
a) Prevalence
b) Ratio
c) Coefficient of variation
d) Incidence
e) Standard deviation
---------------------------------------------------------------------
164. MQ Rate indicates the following characteristics of a phenomenon:
a) Intensity
b) Variability
c) Level
d) Limits
e) Homogeneity
---------------------------------------------------------------------
165. MQ Choose characteristics of Rate:
a) It expresses the rapport between two independent totalities
b) It compares different mediums by the level of a phenomenon
c) It expresses a part of the whole phenomenon
d) It expresses the dynamics of a phenomenon
e) It expresses the statics of phenomenon
---------------------------------------------------------------------
166. MQ Select the characteristics of adjusted (standardized) rate:
a) It is a conventional (not real) value
b) It can calculated by direct method of standardization
c) It can be calculated by general method of standardization
d) It is used to make a comparison between two different population groups
e) It is used to show the central tendency of a phenomenon
---------------------------------------------------------------------
167. MQ Choose characteristics of Intensive indicator:
a) It makes an association between a medium and a phenomenon
b) It is a static indicator
c) It expresses the structure of a phenomenon
d) It expresses the dynamics of a phenomenon
e) It expresses a part of the whole phenomenon
---------------------------------------------------------------------
168. MQ Choose characteristics of Extensive indicator:
a) It is a dynamic indicator
b) It makes an association between a medium and a phenomenon
c) It expresses a part from the whole phenomenon
d) It detects the dynamic changes in a phenomenon
e) It is a static indicator
---------------------------------------------------------------------
169. MQ Choose the characteristics of Ratio:
a) Population medical supply is an example of ratio
b) It shows the rapport between 2 independent totalities
c) It shows the structure of the phenomenon
d) It shows the rapport between 2 dependent totalities
e) It is similar to the rate
---------------------------------------------------------------------
170. MQ List the types of values used in scientific research:
a) Variation
b) Absolute
c) Relative
d) Approximation
e) Central
---------------------------------------------------------------------
171. MQ List the types of relative values used to summarize categorical data:
a) Rate
b) Mean
c) Ratio
d) Proportion
e) Variation
---------------------------------------------------------------------
172. SQ Choose the statistical indicator “Proportion”:
a) Prevalence level of ischemic heart diseases
b) Level of population supply with hospital beds
c) Structure of patient's visits
d) Annual dynamics of incidence
e) Mortality level
---------------------------------------------------------------------
173. MQ Select the characteristics of intensive indicator:
a) It determines the rapport between the part of phenomenon and the whole phenomenon
b) It makes the relationship between the environment and phenomenon
c) It determines the rapport between two independent phenomena
d) It permits the evaluation of dynamic changes
e) It determines only a statics balance at a specified moment
---------------------------------------------------------------------
174. MQ Choose the statistical indicator of frequency:
a) Crude birth rate
b) Level of medical supply of the population
c) The structure of patient's visits
d) Annual dynamics of incidence rate
e) Crude mortality rate
---------------------------------------------------------------------
175. SQ Choose the statistical indicator of rapport:
a) Prevalence Rate
b) Population's medical supply
c) The structure of patient's visits
d) Annual dynamics of Incidence
e) Mortality rate
---------------------------------------------------------------------
176. MQ Select the crude rate:
a) Infant mortality rate
b) Birth rate
c) Birth rate by place of residence of the mother
d) Mortality rate by age groups
e) Mortality rate
---------------------------------------------------------------------
177. MQ Select vital statistics indicators:
a) Mortality
b) Proportion
c) Prevalence
d) Incidence
e) Ratio
---------------------------------------------------------------------
178. MQ Select the appropriate statements about prevalence:
a) It is the main measure of mortality
b) It is the main measure of morbidity
c) It is used to evaluate the health status of a population
d) It is defined as the number of new cases that have occurred during the specified time period
divided by the number of people who were at risk in the same period of time
e) It is defined as the number of persons with the given disease at the moment divided by the
number of people at risk for that disease at that time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
179. MQ Select the appropriate statements for incidence:
a) It is the main measure of mortality
b) It is the main measure of morbidity
c) It is used to evaluate health status of population
d) It is defined as the number of new cases that have occurred during the specified time period
 divided by the number of people who were at risk in the same period of time
e) It is defined as the number of persons with the given disease at the moment divided by the
number of people at risk for that disease at that time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
180. MQ The graph presentations of Rate are:
a) Pie chart
b) Bar chart
c) Histogram
d) Frequency polygon
e) Line graph
---------------------------------------------------------------------
181. MQ The graph presentations of Ratio are:
a) Pie chart
b) Bar chart
c) Histogram
d) Frequency polygon
e) Line graph
---------------------------------------------------------------------
182. SQ The graph presentation of Proportion is:
a) Pie chart
b) Bar chart
c) Histogram
d) Frequency polygon
e) Line graph
---------------------------------------------------------------------
183. SQ Choose the right calculation of adjusted death rate:
a) To divide the total expected number of deaths by the observed number of deaths
b) To divide the total expected number of deaths by the total standard population
c) To divide the total expected number of deaths by the total population from region A
d) To multiply the total expected number of deaths by the total standard population
e) To subtract the total expected number of deaths from the total standard population
---------------------------------------------------------------------
184. MQ “Rate” is the following indicator:
a) Absolute
b) Relative
c) Intensive
d) Extensive
e) Rapport
---------------------------------------------------------------------
185. MQ “Proportion” is the following indicator:
a) Absolute
b) Relative
c) Intensive
d) Extensive
e) Rapport
---------------------------------------------------------------------
186. MQ “Ratio” is the following indicator:
a) Absolute
b) Relative
 c) Intensive
d) Extensive
e) Rapport
---------------------------------------------------------------------
187. SQ The mean of a resting heart rate for a sample of 200 medical students is 70 beats/min,
standard deviation is 10. What percent of the medical students has a resting heart rate between
60 and 80 beats/min taken into account the normal distribution of the data?
a) 68%
b) 75%
c) 85%
d) 95%
e) 99%
---------------------------------------------------------------------
188. SQ The mean of a resting heart rate for a sample of 200 medical students is 70 beats/min,
standard deviation is 10. What percent of the medical students has a resting heart rate between
50 and 90 beats/min taken into account the normal distribution of the data?
a) 68%
b) 75%
c) 85%
d) 95%
e) 99%
---------------------------------------------------------------------
189. SQ The mean of a resting heart rate for a sample of 200 medical students is 70 beats/min,
standard deviation is 10. What percent of the medical students has a resting heart rate between
40 and 100 beats/min taken into account the normal distribution of the data?
a) 68%
b) 75%
c) 85%
d) 95%
e) 99%
---------------------------------------------------------------------

190. SQ Give a definition of a sample:

a) A group of persons
b) The whole population
c) A segment of the population selected to represent the population
d) A large segment of the population
e) Population
---------------------------------------------------------------------
191. SQ To make conclusions about a larger population from which a sample was drawn, a
sample should be:
a) Expressive
b) Representative
c) Comprehensive
d) Unbiased
e) No requirements
---------------------------------------------------------------------
192. MQ Choose the main types of sampling:
a) Individual
 b) Collective
c) Probability
d) Non-probability
e) Random
---------------------------------------------------------------------
193. MQ Select the main characteristic of non-probability sampling:
a) Observational units are selected at random from the entire population
b) Probability that a unit is selected into a sample is known
c) Probability that a unit is selected into a sample is unknown
d) Systematic sampling is an example of a non-probability sampling
e) Convenience sampling is an example of non-probability sampling
---------------------------------------------------------------------
194. MQ List the types of probability sampling:
a) Simple random sampling
b) Convenience sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Cluster sampling
e) Quota sampling
---------------------------------------------------------------------
195. СM List the types of non-probability sampling:
a) Simple random sampling
b) Convenience sampling
c) Stratified sampling
d) Cluster sampling
e) Quota sampling
---------------------------------------------------------------------
196. SQ What is common for simple random sampling:
a) Every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected
b) Population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as age groups and random samples
are drawn from each group.
c) Population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as blocks, and the researcher draws
a sample of the group to interview.
d) The researcher selects the easiest population members to obtain information.
e) The researcher uses his/her opinion to select population members who are good prospects
for accurate information.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
197. SQ What is common for stratified random sampling:
a) Every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected
b) Population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as age groups and random samples
are drawn from each group
c) Population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as blocks, and the researcher draws
a sample of the group to interview
d) The researcher selects the easiest population members to obtain information
e) The researcher uses his/her opinion to select population members who are good prospects
for accurate information
---------------------------------------------------------------------
198. SQ What is common for cluster sampling:
a) Every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected
b) Population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as age groups and random samples
 are drawn from each group.
c) The population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as blocks, and the researcher
draws a sample of the group to interview.
d) The researcher selects the easiest population members to obtain information.
e) The researcher uses his/her opinion to select population members who are good prospects
for accurate information.
---------------------------------------------------------------------
199. SQ What is common for convenience sampling:
a) Every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected
b) Population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as age groups and random samples
are drawn from each group.
c) The population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as blocks, and the researcher
draws a sample of the group to interview.
d) The researcher selects the easiest population members to obtain information.
e) The researcher finds and interviews a prescribed number of people
---------------------------------------------------------------------
200. SQ What is common for systematic sampling:
a) Every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected
b) Population is divided into mutually exclusive groups such as age groups and random samples
are drawn from each group.
c) It involves selecting the elements in a systematic way (e.g., every fith patient admitted to the
hospital)
d) The researcher selects the easiest population members to obtain information.
e) The researcher finds and interviews a prescribed number of people
---------------------------------------------------------------------
201. MQ Select the main types of alternative hypothesis:
a) Directional
b) Non-directional
c) Null
d) Non-null
e) Semi-directional
---------------------------------------------------------------------
202. SQ Which of the following is the definition of directional hypothesis?
a) It states that relation or difference between variables exists
b) It states the expected direction of the relation or difference
c) It states that there is no significant relation or difference between variables
d) It is a second statement that contradicts the null hypothesis
e) It states that relation or difference between variables do not exist
---------------------------------------------------------------------
203. SQ Which of the following is the definition of null hypothesis?
a) It states that relation or difference between variables exists
b) It states that expected direction of the relation or difference is positive
c) It states that there is no significant relation or difference between variables
d) It is a second statement that contradicts the null hypothesis
e) It states that expected direction of the relation or difference is negative
---------------------------------------------------------------------
204. SQ Which of the following is the definition of non-directional hypothesis?
a) It states that relation or difference between variables exists
b) It states the expected direction of the relation or difference
 c) It states that there is no significance relation or difference between variables
d) It is a second statement that contradicts the null hypothesis
e) It states that expected direction of the relation or difference is positive
---------------------------------------------------------------------
205. MQ Select the steps of hypothesis testing:
a) Formulate the hypotheses
b) Select a statistical test
c) Calculate the measurement of association
d) Select the level of significance
e) Calculate the standard deviation
---------------------------------------------------------------------
206. MQ Select types of hypothesis testing errors:
a) Type I or alpha error
b) Type II or alpha error
c) Type II or beta error
d) Type I or beta error
e) Type I or gamma error
---------------------------------------------------------------------
207. MQ Select TRUE statements about type I error:
a) It rejects the false Null hypothesis
b) Alpha is a probability of making type I error
c) It rejects the true Null hypothesis
d) Beta is a probability of making type I error
e) It accepts the false Null hypothesis
---------------------------------------------------------------------
208. MQ Select TRUE statements about type II error:
a) It rejects the false Null hypothesis
b) Alpha is a probability of making type II error
c) It rejects the true Null hypothesis
d) Beta is a probability of making type II error
e) It accepts the false Null hypothesis
---------------------------------------------------------------------
209. MQ Which of the following is related to significance (α) level of a test?
a) This is a probability that a statistical test rejects the true Null hypothesis
b) This is a probability that a statistical test rejects the false Null hypothesis
c) Conventionally, it is set at the level 0.05 or less
d) Conventionally, it is set at the level 0.05 or more
e) It is found after calculating the statistical test
---------------------------------------------------------------------
210. MQ Which of the following is related to p-value?
a) If p-value is less than α-level, the Null hypothesis is rejected
b) If p-value is more than α-level, the Null hypothesis is rejected
c) It is found after calculating the statistical test
d) It is found before calculating the statistical test
e) It is defined as 1-β
---------------------------------------------------------------------
211. SQ Confidence level is defined as:
a) 1- α
b) 1-β
 c) α-1
d) 1+α
e) β-1
---------------------------------------------------------------------
212. SQ Power of the study is defined as:
a) 1- α
b) 1-β
c) α-1
d) 1+α
e) β-1
---------------------------------------------------------------------
213. MQ Choose true statements about a parameter:
a) Parameter is a value/values derived from a sample data
b) Parameter is a value/values derived from a population data
c) Greek symbols are used to denote a parameter
d) Roman symbols are used to denote a parameter
e) Parameter is a measured characteristic of an observational unit
---------------------------------------------------------------------
214. MQ Choose true statements about a statistic:
a) Statistic is a value/values derived from a sample data
b) Statistic is a value/values derived from a population data
c) Greek symbols are used to denote a statistic
d) Roman symbols are used to denote a statistic
e) Statistic is a measured characteristic of sampling
---------------------------------------------------------------------
215. MQ Choose true examples that the null hypothesis suggests:
a) The mean of a resting heart rate of a sample will not be different from the mean of a resting
heart rate in a population
b) The mean height of boys and girls in a population will not be different
c) The mean height of boys and girls in a population will be different
d) Education and income will not be related to each other in a population
e) Education and income will be related to each other in a population
---------------------------------------------------------------------
216. MQ Choose true examples that the alternative hypothesis suggests:
a) The mean of a resting heart rate of a sample will not be different from the mean of a resting
heart rate in a population
b) The mean height of boys and girls in a population will not be different
c) The mean height of boys and girls in a population will be different
d) Education and income will not be related to each other in a population
e) Education and income will be related to each other in a population
---------------------------------------------------------------------
217. MQ Choose true statements about alternative hypothesis:
a) It is alternative to the null hypothesis and predicts that there is significant difference between
the groups
b) It always confirms the null hypothesis
c) Directional alternative hypothesis speculates which value will be larger (e.g., a sample mean
or a population mean)
d) Directional alternative hypothesis provides no information about which value will be larger
(e.g., a sample mean or a population mean)
 e) Non-directional alternative hypothesis provides no information about which value will be
larger (e.g., a sample mean or a population mean)
---------------------------------------------------------------------
218. MQ What is type I error in hypothesis testing?
a) It is called α error
b) It is called β error
c) It accepts the false alternative hypothesis
d) It accepts the false null hypothesis
e) It rejects the true null hypothesis
---------------------------------------------------------------------
219. MQ What is type II Error in hypothesis testing?
a) It is called α error
b) It is called β error
c) It accepts the false alternative hypothesis
d) It accepts the false null hypothesis
e) It rejects the true alternative hypothesis
---------------------------------------------------------------------
220. MQ Choose true statements about significance level (α):
a) It is the probability of making type I error
b) In medical sciences, significance level conventionally is equal to 0.05, but it can be smaller
c) In medical sciences, significance level conventionally is equal to 0.1, but it can be larger
d) The smaller you make significance level, the less likely you are to make type I error
e) The larger you make significance level, the less likely you are to make type I error
-------------------------------------------------------------------
221. MQ Select TRUE statements about Confidence Interval (CI):
a) It is an interval that contains a population parameter with a certain degree of confidence
b) It is an interval that contains a sample statistic with a certain degree of confidence
c) The ends of confidence interval are called confidence limits
d) Confidence interval can be computed for any population parameters
e) Confidence interval can be computed only for selected population parameters, like the Mean
-------------------------------------------------------------------
222. SQ Probability to find a population mean in the interval plus/minus one standard error of a
sample mean is:
a) 68%
b) 75%
c) 95%
d) 99.7%
e) 100%
-------------------------------------------------------------------
223. SQ Probability to find a population mean in the interval plus/minus two standard errors of a
sample mean is:
a) 68%
b) 75%
c) 95%
d) 99.7%
e) 100%
-------------------------------------------------------------------
224. SQ The mean heart rate of a sample of 200 medical students is 70 beats per minute. Select
the limits of 95% confidence interval, if the standard error is 10:
 a) 60-80
b) 55-85
c) 50-90
d) 45-95
e) 40-100
-------------------------------------------------------------------
225. MQ Select TRUE statements about the Central Limit Theorem:
a) The mean of the sampling distribution is identical to the population mean
b) The mean of the sampling distribution differs from the population mean
c) Provided that the number of trials is large enough, the shape of the sampling distribution is
close to the normal
d) The shape of the sampling distribution is always skewed
e) The shape of the sampling distribution is always uniform
-------------------------------------------------------------------
226. SQ What does the Standard error show:
a) The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of the means
b) The Mode of the sampling distribution of the means
c) The Median of the sampling distribution of the means
d) The Mean of the sampling distribution of the means
e) The population mean
-------------------------------------------------------------------
227. SQ Give the definition of a probability:
a) Number of likely outcomes divided by number of all possible outcomes
b) Number of likely outcomes multiplied by number of all possible outcomes
c) Number of likely outcomes minus number of all possible outcomes
d) Number of all possible outcomes divided by number of likely outcomes
e) Number of all possible outcomes minus number of likely outcomes
-------------------------------------------------------------------
228. SQ A fair coin was tossed 100 times, heads appeared on 40% of the tosses. The probability
of heads is calculated as:
a) 40/100
b) 100/40
c) 100-40
d) 40*100
e) 100-40
-------------------------------------------------------------------
229. SQ A fair coin was tossed 100 times, heads appeared on 40% of the tosses. The probability
of tails is calculated as:
a) 1-(40/100)
b) 1+(40/100)
c) 1-(60/100)
d) (40/100)+(60/100)
e) 100+(60/100)
-------------------------------------------------------------------
230. SQ Choose the equation for a probability of an event not occurring:
a) 1-p
b) 1+p
c) 1-q
d) p+q
 e) 1+q
-------------------------------------------------------------------
231. MQ Choose the main types of statistical tests:
a) Crude
b) Specific
c) Parametric
d) Non-paramentric
e) General
-------------------------------------------------------------------
232. SQ For which type of data are Parametric tests used:
a) Ordinal
b) Nominal
c) Numerical
d) All types of data
e) Categorical
-------------------------------------------------------------------
233. MQ For which types of data are Non-parametric tests used:
a) Ordinal
b) Nominal
c) Discrete
d) Continuous
e) All types of data
-------------------------------------------------------------------
234. SQ What does it mean “Statistical significance”:
a) The comparison of two means
b) The comparison of two indicators
c) The comparison of the control and experimental groups
d) The comparison of population parameter and sample statistic
e) The concept by which the results are judged as due to a chance or not
-------------------------------------------------------------------
235. SQ For “p<0.05” the difference between two groups is:
a) Good
b) Bad
c) Linear
d) Not significant
e) Significant
-------------------------------------------------------------------
236. SQ Difference between two groups has “the highest significance” if:
a) p=0.05
b) p>0.05
c) p<0.01
d) p=1
e) p<0.001

-------------------------------------------------------------------
237. MQ To reject the Null hypothesis, p-value should have the values:
a) p>0.5
b) p>0.05
c) p<0.01
 d) p=1
e) p<0.001
-------------------------------------------------------------------
238. MQ Choose TRUE statements about the Standard Error (SE):
a) It represents the measure of central tendency
b) It represents the standard deviation of the distribution of the sample means
c) It is the ratio of the standard deviation to the square root of the number of observations
d) It is the ratio of the standard deviation to the Mean
e) It is the ratio of the standard deviation to the Mode

---------------------------------------------------------------------
239. SQ In a city X, number of population is 75.000 persons. In 2014 year, 900 births and 1.200
deaths were registered. Choose the formula for Crude Death Rate (regardless the multiplier):
a) 900/(900+1200)
b) 1.200/75.000
c) 900/75.000
d) (1.200-900)/75.000
e) (900+1.200)/75.000
---------------------------------------------------------------------
240. SQ In a city X, number of population is 75.000 persons. In 2014 year, 1.200 deaths were
registered, including 660 from cardiovascular diseases. Choose the formula for Cause-specific
death rate (regardless the multiplier):
a) 660/1.200
b) (1.200-660)/75.000
c) 660/75.000
d) 1.200/75.000
e) 1.200-660
---------------------------------------------------------------------
241. SQ In a city X, number of population is 75.000 persons. In 2014 year, 1.200 deaths were
registered, including 660 from cardiovascular diseases. Choose the formula for Proportion
(regardless the multiplier):
a) 660/1.200
b) (1.200-660)/75.000
c) 660/75.000
d) 1.200/75.000
e) 1.200-660

Part II. Research Methodology

---------------------------------------------------------------------
242. MQ Case-series study design is classified as:
a) Observational
b) Experimental
c) Descriptive
d) Analytic
e) Social
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
243. MQ Cross-sectional study design is classified as:
a) Observational
b) Experimental
c) Analytic
d) Descriptive
e) Social
---------------------------------------------------------------------
244. MQ Case-control study design is classified as:
a) Observational
b) Experimental
c) Descriptive
d) Analytic
e) Social
---------------------------------------------------------------------
245. MQ Cohort study design is classified as:
a) Observational
b) Experimental
c) Descriptive
d) Analytic
e) Social
---------------------------------------------------------------------
246. MQ Clinical trial study design is classified as:
a) Observational
b) Experimental
c) Descriptive
d) Analytic
e) Social
---------------------------------------------------------------------
247. MQ List the types of the observational study designs:
a) Case-series
b) Cohort
c) Meta-analysis
d) Clinical Trials with controls
e) Clinical Trials without controls
---------------------------------------------------------------------
248. SQ Name the type of the experimental study design:
a) Case-series
b) Cohort
c) Cross Sectional
d) Case Control
e) Clinical Trial
---------------------------------------------------------------------
249. MQ List the types of descriptive study design:
a) Case-series
b) Cohort
c) Cross-sectional
d) Case Control
e) Clinical Trial
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
250. MQ List the types of the analytic study design:
a) Case-series
b) Cohort
c) Social
d) Case Control
e) Clinical Trial
---------------------------------------------------------------------
251. SQ Which type of study design is the best for a therapy question?
a) Case series
b) Cross-sectional
c) Controlled Clinical Trial
d) Cohort
e) Case-control
---------------------------------------------------------------------
252. SQ Which type of study design is the best for a diagnosis/screening question?
a) Case series
b) Cross-sectional
c) Controlled Clinical Trial
d) Cohort
e) Case-control
---------------------------------------------------------------------
253. SQ Which type of study design is the best for a prognosis question?
a) Case series
b) Cross-sectional
c) Controlled Clinical Trial
d) Cohort
e) Case-control
---------------------------------------------------------------------
254. MQ Which type of study design is the best for an occurrence question?
a) Case series
b) Cross-sectional
c) Controlled Clinical Trial
d) Cohort
e) Case-control
---------------------------------------------------------------------
255. MQ Which types of study design answer to a causation question?
a) Case series
b) Cross-sectional
c) Social
d) Cohort
e) Case-control
---------------------------------------------------------------------
256. SQ Which type of research question is solved using clinical trial study design:
a) Therapy
b) Diagnosis/screening
c) Prognosis
d) Occurrence
e) Causation
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
257. MQ Which type of research question is solved using cross-sectional study design:
a) Therapy
b) Diagnosis/screening
c) Prognosis
d) Occurrence
e) Causation
---------------------------------------------------------------------
258. MQ Which type of research question is solved using cohort study design:
a) Therapy
b) Diagnosis/screening
c) Prognosis
d) Occurrence
e) Causation
---------------------------------------------------------------------
259. SQ Which type of research question is solved using case-control study design:
a) Therapy
b) Diagnosis/screening
c) Prognosis
d) Occurrence
e) Causation
---------------------------------------------------------------------
260. SQ "Incidence" of a disease can be estimated within which study design?
a) Case series
b) Cross sectional
c) Case-control
d) Cohort
e) Controlled clinical trial
---------------------------------------------------------------------
261. SQ "Prevalence" of a disease can be estimated within which study design?
a) Case series
b) Cross sectional
c) Case-control
d) Cohort
e) Controlled clinical trial
---------------------------------------------------------------------
262. SQ State which observational study design is the best (that is the most efficient and logical)
in the following scenario: Identifying the causes of a rare disease.
a) Case-control
b) Cohort
c) Clinical Trial
d) Cross-Sectional
e) Case series
---------------------------------------------------------------------
263. SQ State which observational study design is the best (that is the most efficient and logical)
in of the following scenario: Identifying the effects of a rare exposure.
a) Case-control
b) Cohort
c) Clinical Trial
 d) Cross-Sectional
e) Case series
---------------------------------------------------------------------
264. SQ Which type of study is described in the following scenario? - A study that compares the
prevalence of back pain among current members of the plumbers and pipe fitters union with that
of current members of the bakers and confectionary union.
a) Case-control
b) Cohort
c) Clinical Trial
d) Cross-Sectional
e) Case series
---------------------------------------------------------------------
265. SQ Which type of study is described in the following scenario? - A study that evaluates two
methods of treatments of breast cancer. Women with stage 1 breast cancer are randomized to
undergo either lumpectomy alone or lumpectomy with breast radiation. Women are followed up
for 5 years to determine if there are any differences in breast cancer recurrence and survival.
a) Case-control
b) Cohort
c) Clinical Trial
d) Cross-Sectional
e) Case series
---------------------------------------------------------------------
266. MQ Choose the experimental study characteristics:
a) It studies prevention and treatments of diseases; an investigator manipulates actively which
groups receive the agent under study
b) It studies causes, prevention, and treatments of diseases. An investigator observes passively
as nature takes its course
c) It examines multiple health effects of an exposure; subjects are defined according to their
exposure levels and followed for disease occurrence
d) It examines multiple exposures in relation to a disease; subjects are defined as cases and
controls, and exposure histories are compared
e) It involves an intervention – an investigator-controlled manoeuvre, such as a drug, a
procedure or a treatment
---------------------------------------------------------------------
267. MQ Choose the observational study characteristics:
a) It studies prevention and treatments of diseases; an investigator manipulates actively which
groups receive the agent under study
b) It studies causes, prevention, and treatments of diseases. An investigator observes passively
as nature takes its course
c) It examines multiple health effects of an exposure; subjects are defined according to their
exposure levels and followed for disease occurrence
d) It examines multiple exposures in relation to a disease; subjects are defined as cases and
controls, and exposure histories are compared
e) It involves an intervention – an investigator-controlled manoeuvre, such as a drug, a
procedure or a treatment
---------------------------------------------------------------------
268. MQ Choose the cohort study characteristics:
a) It studies prevention and treatments of diseases; an investigator manipulates actively which
groups receive the agent under study
 b) It studies causes, prevention, and treatments of diseases. An investigator observes passively
as nature takes its course
c) It examines multiple health effects of an exposure; subjects are defined according to their
exposure levels and followed for disease occurrence
d) It examines multiple exposures in relation to a disease; subjects are defined as cases and
controls, and exposure histories are compared
e) It examines relationship between exposure and disease prevalence in a defined population at a
single point in time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
269. SQ Choose the case-control study characteristics:
a) It studies prevention and treatments of diseases; an investigator manipulates actively which
groups receive the agent under study
b) It studies causes, prevention, and treatments of diseases. An iinvestigator observes passively
as nature takes its course
c) It examines multiple health effects of an exposure; subjects are defined according to their
exposure levels and followed for disease occurrence
d) It examines multiple exposures in relation to a disease; subjects are defined as two matched
groups, and exposure histories are compared
e) It examines relationship between exposure and disease prevalence in a defined population at a
single point in time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
270. SQ Choose the cross-sectional study characteristics:
a) It studies preventions and treatments of diseases; an investigator manipulates actively which
groups receive the agent under study
b) It studies causes, prevention, and treatments of diseases. An investigator observes passively
as nature takes its course
c) It examines multiple health effects of an exposure; subjects are defined according to their
exposure levels and followed for disease occurrence
d) It examines multiple exposures in relation to a disease; subjects are defined as cases and
controls, and exposure histories are compared
e) It examines relationship between exposure and disease prevalence in a defined population at a
single point in time
---------------------------------------------------------------------
271. MQ Which study designs are able to test an exposure-outcome relationship hypothesis:
a) Cohort
b) Case-control
c) Case series
d) Cross sectional
e) Social
---------------------------------------------------------------------
272. MQ Which study designs can only suggest an exposure-outcome relationship hypothesis:
a) Cohort
b) Case-control
c) Case series
d) Cross sectional
e) Clinical Trial
---------------------------------------------------------------------
273. SQ Which type of study designs suggests a hypothesis about cause-and-effect relationship:
a) Analytic
 b) Descriptive
c) Statistical
d) Meta-analysis
e) Clinical Trial
---------------------------------------------------------------------
274. SQ Which type of study designs tests a hypothesis about cause-and-effect relationship:
a) Analytic
b) Descriptive
c) Statistical
d) Cross sectional
e) Case series
---------------------------------------------------------------------
275. MQ Select the main types of study designs:
a) Observational
b) Experimental
c) Meta-analysis
d) Social
e) Statistical
---------------------------------------------------------------------
276. MQ List the descriptive study design characteristics:
a) To describe the occurrence of a disease
b) To report undescribed adverse effect of a drug
c) To suggest a cause-and-effect hypothesis
d) To test a cause-and-effect hypothesis
e) To assess causality
---------------------------------------------------------------------
277. MQ List the analytic study design characteristics:
a) To describe the natural history of a disease
b) To report undescribed adverse effect of a drug
c) To suggest a cause-and-effect hypotheses
d) To test a cause-and-effect hypotheses
e) To assess causality
---------------------------------------------------------------------
278. MQ Name the cross-sectional study advantages:
a) Useful to find out a prevalence rate
b) Cheap and fast
c) It can study long term effects of an exposure in a short period of time
d) Useful to find out an incidence rate and risk
e) It gives a strong evidence of causality
---------------------------------------------------------------------
279. MQ Name the most common cross-sectional study disadvantages:
a) Ethical issues
b) It does not provide any data on the flow of events
c) Long time to complete
d) Losses to follow-up
e) It is not useful to search causes of the outcome
---------------------------------------------------------------------
280. MQ State the disadvantages of cross-sectional study:
a) It does not provide any information on incidence
 b) It does not provide any information on the flow of events
c) Ethical issues
d) It is inefficient for studying causes of the outcome
e) It needs a long follow-up period
---------------------------------------------------------------------
281. MQ Name the case-control study advantages:
a) Useful to find out a prevalence rate
b) Cheap and fast
c) It can study long-term effects of an exposure in a short period of time
d) Useful to find out an incidence rate and risk
e) It allows examination of several risk factors
---------------------------------------------------------------------
282. СM Which of the following is not an advantage of a сase-сontrol study?
a) It is useful to study multiple risk factors
b) It is useful to assess an association between a risk factor and a disease
c) It takes less time to complete because the disease has already occurred
d) It is useful to study multiple outcomes
e) It gives the strongest causality evidence among the observational studies
---------------------------------------------------------------------
283. MQ State the disadvantages of case-control study:
a) It does not provide any information on incidence or prevalence
b) It does not provide any information on the flow of events
c) It is expensive
d) It is inefficient for studying rare outcomes
e) It is sensitive to recall biases
---------------------------------------------------------------------
284. MQ Name the most common case-control study disadvantages:
a) It cannot determine the incidence and prevalence of a disease
b) Ineffective for rare diseases
c) Long time to complete
d) Selecting a comparable control group is a difficult task
e) It is sensitive to recall biases
---------------------------------------------------------------------
285. MQ Name the cohort study advantages:
a) Useful to find out a prevalence rate
b) Cheap and fast
c) It can study long-term effects of an exposure in a short period of time
d) Useful to find out an incidence rate and risk
e) It gives evidence of causality
---------------------------------------------------------------------
286. MQ Name the most common cohort study disadvantages:
a) Expensive
b) Ineffective for rare diseases
c) It is sensitive to recall biases
d) Losses to follow-up
e) It is not useful to search causes of the outcome
---------------------------------------------------------------------
287. MQ State the disadvantages of cohort study:
a) It does not provide any information on incidence
 b) It does not provide any information on the flow of events
c) It is expensive
d) It is inefficient for studying rare outcomes
e) It is sensitive to recall biases
---------------------------------------------------------------------
288. MQ Name the clinical trial study advantages:
a) Useful to find out prevalence rate
b) It is less sensitive to bias
c) It can study long-term effects of an exposure in a short period of time
d) Useful to find out incidence rate and risk
e) It gives a strong evidence of causality
---------------------------------------------------------------------
289. MQ Name the most common clinical trial study disadvantages:
a) Ethical issues
b) Ineffective for rare diseases
c) Losses to follow-up
d) They depend on the quality of registries
e) Expensive
---------------------------------------------------------------------
290. MQ Name the appropriate synonyms for cross-sectional study:
a) Prospective study
b) Transversal study
c) Prevalence study
d) Incidence study
e) Survey study
---------------------------------------------------------------------
291. SQ Name an appropriate synonym for case-control study:
a) Prospective study
b) Retrospective study
c) Prevalence study
d) Social study
e) Survey study
---------------------------------------------------------------------
292. MQ Name the appropriate synonyms for cohort study:
a) Prospective study
b) Retrospective study
c) Prevalence study
d) Incidence study
e) Longitudinal study
---------------------------------------------------------------------
293. SQ Which of the following study designs is longitudinal:
a) Cross-sectional
b) Case-control
c) Case series
d) Cohort
e) Meta-analysis
---------------------------------------------------------------------
294. SQ Which of the following study designs is transversal:
a) Cross-sectional
 b) Case-control
c) Case series
d) Cohort
e) Meta-analysis
---------------------------------------------------------------------
295. MQ Name the appropriate association measures of cohort study:
a) Odds Ratio
b) Number Needed to Treat
c) Relative Risk
d) Relative Risk Reduction
e) Attributable Risk
---------------------------------------------------------------------
296. SQ Name an appropriate association measure of case-control study:
a) Odds Ratio
b) Number Needed to Treat
c) Relative Risk
d) Relative Risk Reduction
e) Attributable Risk
---------------------------------------------------------------------
297. SQ State the weakest study design according the evidence strength:
a) Cross-sectional
b) Case -control
c) Case-series
d) Clinical-trial
e) Cohort
---------------------------------------------------------------------
298. SQ State the strongest study design according the evidence strength:
a) Cross-sectional
b) Case -control
c) Case-series
d) Clinical-trial
e) Cohort
---------------------------------------------------------------------
299. MQ Name the appropriate association measures of clinical trials study:
a) Odds Ratio
b) Number Needed to Treat
c) Relative Risk
d) Relative Risk Reduction
e) Attributable Risk
---------------------------------------------------------------------
300. SQ Odds ratio (OR)is used to analyze:
a) Case series study
b) Cohort study
c) Unontrolled clinical trial study
d) Controlled clinical trial study
e) Case-control study
---------------------------------------------------------------------
301. MQ Relative Risk (RR) ratio is used to analyze:
a) Case series study
 b) Cohort study
c) Cross-sectional study
d) Clinical trial study
e) Case-control study
---------------------------------------------------------------------
302. SQ Select the interpretation appropriate for RR=1:
a) No difference in disease between exposed and unexposed groups
b) Hazardous exposure
c) Beneficial exposure
d) Multiple exposures
e) Multiple outcomes
---------------------------------------------------------------------
303. SQ Select the interpretation appropriate for RR>1:
a) No association
b) Hazardous exposure
c) Beneficial exposure
d) Multiple exposures
e) Multiple outcomes
---------------------------------------------------------------------
304. SQ Select the interpretation appropriate for RR<1:
a) No association
b) Hazardous exposure
c) Beneficial exposure
d) Multiple exposures
e) Multiple outcomes
---------------------------------------------------------------------
305. SQ Which of the following interpretation of RR= 4.2 would you prefer?
a) Those with the disease are 4.2 times more likely not to have had the exposure compared to
those without the disease
b) Those with the exposure are 4.2 times more likely not to develop the disease compared to
those without the exposure
c) 4.2 % of the people with outcome among exposed are attributed to their exposure.
d) Those with the exposure are 4.2 times more likely to develop the disease compared to those
without the exposure
e) Those with the disease are 4.2 times more likely to have had the exposure compared to those
without the disease
---------------------------------------------------------------------
306. SQ Which of the following interpretation of OR= 4.2 would you prefer?
a) Those with the disease are 4.2 times more likely to have had the exposure compared to those
without the disease
b) Those with the exposure are 4.2 times more likely not to develop the disease compared to
those without the exposure
c) 4.2 % of the people with outcome among exposed are attributed to their exposure
d) Those with the exposure are 4.2 times more likely to develop the disease compared to those
without the exposure
e) Those with the disease are 4.2 times more likely not to have had the exposure compared to
those without the disease
---------------------------------------------------------------------
307. SQ Which of the following interpretation of AR= 80% would you prefer?
 a) Those with the disease are 80 % more likely to have had the exposure compared to those
without the disease
b) Those without the disease are 80% more likely to have had the exposure compared to those
with the disease
c) 80 % of the people with outcome among exposed are attributed to their exposure
d) 80 % of the people without outcome among exposed are attributed to their exposure
e) Those with the exposure are 80% more likely to develop the disease compared to those
without the exposure
---------------------------------------------------------------------
308. SQ Which measure of association is related to the interpretation "Those with the brutal sun
radiation are 4.2 times more likely develop the skin cancer compared to those without the brutal
sun radiation":
a) Relative Risk
b) Attributable Risk
c) Odds Ratio
d) Relative Risk Reduction
e) Absolute Risk Reduction
---------------------------------------------------------------------
309. SQ Which measure of association is related to the interpretation "Those with the skin cancer
are 4.2 times more likely to have had the brutal sun radiation compared to those without the skin
cancer":
a) Relative Risk
b) Attributable Risk
c) Odds Ratio
d) Relative Risk Reduction
e) Absolute Risk Reduction
---------------------------------------------------------------------
310. SQ Which measure of association is related to the interpretation "Those with the diabetes are
4.2 times more likely to develop the myocardial infarction compared to those without the
diabetes":
a) Relative Risk
b) Attributable Risk
c) Odds Ratio
d) Relative Risk Reduction
e) Absolute Risk Reduction
---------------------------------------------------------------------
311. SQ Which measure of association is related to the interpretation "Those with the myocardial
infarction are 4.2 times more likely to have been exposed to the diabetes compared to those
without the myocardial infarction":
a) Relative Risk
b) Attributable Risk
c) Odds Ratio
d) Relative Risk Reduction
e) Absolute Risk Reduction
---------------------------------------------------------------------
312. SQ Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) is used to analyze:
a) Case series study
b) Cohort study
c) Cross-sectional study
 d) Clinical trial study
e) Case-control study
---------------------------------------------------------------------
313. MQ Name the appropriate association measures of a clinical trial study:
a) Odds ratio
b) Number needed to treat
c) Attributable risk
d) Absolute risk reduction
e) Relative risk reduction
---------------------------------------------------------------------
314. MQ List two major types of clinical trials:
a) Clinical trials with controls
b) Clinical trials without controls
c) Clinical trials with case-control
d) Clinical trials without case-control
e) Clinical trials with experimental control
---------------------------------------------------------------------
315. MQ List the types of clinical trial study with control:
a) Clinical trials with parallel (concurrent) controls
b) Clinical trials with sequential controls
c) Clinical trials with external controls
d) Clinical trials with case-control
e) Clinical trials with experimental control
---------------------------------------------------------------------
316. SQ Crossover is a clinical trial study:
a) With parallel (concurrent) controls
b) Without parallel (concurrent) controls
c) With sequential controls
d) Without sequential controls
e) With external controls
---------------------------------------------------------------------
317. SQ Which type of clinical trial study has "a washout" period?
a) Clinical trial with parallel (concurrent) controls
b) Clinical trial with sequential controls or crossover
c) Clinical trial without parallel (concurrent) controls
d) Clinical trial with external controls
e) Clinical trials without external controls
---------------------------------------------------------------------
318. SQ In clinical trial study randomization means:
a) Subjects are assigned to experimental and control groups by chance
b) Subjects are assigned only to an experimental group by chance
c) Subjects are assigned only to a control group by chance
d) Subjects are retrieved from an experimental group by chance and assigned to a control group
e) Subjects are retrieved from a control group by chance and are assigned to an experimental
group
---------------------------------------------------------------------
319. SQ Arrange the following study designs in increasing order (from left to right) according to
evidence strength:
a) Сase-series, cross-sectional, case-control, cohort, clinical trial
 b) Case-control, case-series, cross-sectional, cohort, clinical trial
c) Cross-sectional, case-control, cohort, clinical trial, case-series
d) Clinical trial, case-series, cross-sectional, case-control, cohort
e) Clinical trial, cohort, case-control, case-series, cross-sectional
---------------------------------------------------------------------
320. SQ A case-control study is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a) It is relatively inexpensive compared with most other epidemiological study designs
b) Patients with the disease (cases) are compared with persons without the disease (controls)
c) Incidence rates may be computed directly
d) Assessment of past exposure may be biased
e) Definition of controls may be a difficult task
---------------------------------------------------------------------
321. SQ In a study begun in 1995, a group of 4000 adult males in a city were asked about
alcohol consumption. The occurrence of liver cases of cancer between 1995 and 2010 was
studied in this group. This is an example of:
a) A cross-sectional study
b) A cohort study
c) A case-control study
d) A case-series study
e) A clinical trial
---------------------------------------------------------------------
322. SQ In a small study, 20 women with cancer of uterus and 20 women with no apparent
disease were examined and asked if they had ever used estrogen. Each woman with cancer was
matched by age, race and number of children born to a woman without disease. This is an
example of:
a) A cross-sectional study
b) A cohort study
c) A case-control study
d) A case-series study
e) A clinical trial
---------------------------------------------------------------------
323. SQ In which one of the following types of clinical trials designs does a subject serve as
his/her own control?
a) Crossover
b) Clinical trials with external controls
c) Case-control study
d) Clinical trials with parallel controls
e) Cohort study
---------------------------------------------------------------------
324. MQ Choose true statements about Relative Risk (RR):
a) It states how many times exposure to the risk factor increases the risk of contracting the
disease
b) It is the ratio of the incidence of the disease among exposed persons to the incidence of the
disease among unexposed persons
c) It is the ratio of the incidence of the disease among unexposed persons to the incidence of the
disease among exposed persons
d) It is a typical measure calculated in case-control study designs
e) If RR is equal to 1 it means that the association between exposure to the risk factor and the
disease is very strong
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
325. MQ Choose true statements about attributable risk (AR):
a) It is defined as a proportion of disease incidence that can be attributed to a specific exposure
b) It is computed in case-control study designs
c) It is computed in cohort study designs
d) To compute AR one needs to know incidence of a disease among exposed persons and
incidence of a disease among unexposed persons
e) To compute AR one needs to know prevalence of a disease among exposed persons and
prevalence of a disease among unexposed persons
---------------------------------------------------------------------
326. СM Choose true statements about Relative Risk (RR) computed in Clinical Trials:
a) It is computed as a ratio of Experimental Event Rate to Control Event Rate
b) It is computed as a ratio of Control Event Rate to Experimental Event Rate
c) It is computed as a difference between Control Event Rate and Experimental Event Rate
d) If RR > 1, it means that the intervention has a beneficial effect
e) If RR < 1, it means that the intervention has a beneficial effect
--------------------------------------------------------------------
327. СM Choose true statements about Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR):
a) It is computed directly in Clinical Trials study designs
b) It is computed as a difference between Control Event Rate and Experimental Event Rate
c) It is computed as a difference between Experimental Event Rate and Control Event Rate
d) If ARR is 8%, it means that if 100 patients were treated, 8 would be prevented from
developing bad outcomes
e) If ARR is 8%, it means that if 100 patients were treated, 8 would develop bad outcomes
---------------------------------------------------------------------
328. СM Choose true statements about Number Needed to Treat (NNT):
a) It is computed directly in Case-Control study designs
b) It is computed directly in Clinical Trials study designs
c) It is defined as 1/ARR
d) It is defined as 1/RRR
e) It is defined as RRR-ARR
---------------------------------------------------------------------
329. SQ Select the corresponding study design for the presented below schematic diagram:

a) Clinical Trial with parallel controls

b) Cross sectional
c) Case-control
d) Cohort
e) Clinical Trial with sequential
controls

---------------------------------------------------------------------
330. SQ Select the corresponding study design for the presented below schematic diagram
a) Clinical Trial with parallel controls
b) Cross sectional
c) Case-control
d) Cohort
e) Clinical Trial with sequential
controls

---------------------------------------------------------------------
331. SQ Select the corresponding study design for the presented below schematic diagram

a) Clinical Trial with parallel

controls
b) Cross sectional
c) Case-control
d) Cohort
e) Clinical Trial with sequential
controls

---------------------------------------------------------------------
332. SQ Select the corresponding study design for the presented below schematic diagram

a) Clinical Trial with parallel

controls
b) Cross sectional
c) Case-control
d) Cohort
e) Clinical Trial with sequential
controls
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
333. SQ Select the corresponding study design for the presented below schematic diagram

a) Clinical Trial with

parallel controls
b) Cross sectional
c) Case-control
d) Cohort
e) Clinical Trial with
sequential controls

---------------------------------------------------------------------
334. SQ Select the corresponding study design for the presented below schematic diagram

a) Clinical Trial with parallel controls

b) Clinical Trial with sequential
controls
c) Clinical Trial with external
controls
d) Cohort
e) Case-control

---------------------------------------------------------------------
335. SQ Looking at 2x2 table presented below, choose the right equation for OR

a) a/(a+c)
b) ad/bc
c) ab/cd
d) ac/bd
e) b/(b+d)

---------------------------------------------------------------------
336. SQ Looking at 2x2 table presented below, choose the right equation for incidence of a
disease among exposed persons:

a) a/(a+b)
b) a/(a+c)
c) c/(c+d)
d) b/(b+d)
e) a/b

---------------------------------------------------------------------
337. SQ Looking at 2x2 table presented below, choose the right equation for incidence of a
disease among unexposed persons:

a) a/(a+b)
b) a/(a+c)
c) c/(c+d)
d) b/(b+d)
e) a/b

---------------------------------------------------------------------
338. SQ The picture below presents the incidence of a disease among exposed and unexposed
persons calculated in frame of a cohort study. The red part of the incidence among exposed
persons is attributable to:

a) risk factor among unexposed

b) risk factor among exposed
c) disease among exposed
d) disease among unexposed
e) risk factor among all subjects

---------------------------------------------------------------------
339. SQ Looking at 2x2 table presented below, choose the right equation for Experimental Event
Rate (EER):
a) c/(a+c)
b) a/(a+c)
c) c/(c+d)
d) b/(b+d)
e) a/b

---------------------------------------------------------------------
340. SQ Looking at 2x2 table presented below, choose the right equation for Control Event Rate
(CER):

a) a/(a+c)
b) a/(a+c)
c) c/(c+d)
d) b/(b+d)
e) a/b

---------------------------------------------------------------------
341. SQ The picture below presents the incidence of a disease among exposed and unexposed
persons calculated in frame of a cohort study. The red part of the incidence among exposed
persons is called:

a) Relative risk
b) Attributable risk
c) Odds Ratio
d) Experimental Event Rate
e) Control Event Rate

---------------------------------------------------------------------
342. СM Clinical Trial with parallel controls has the following two major types:
a) Self-control
b) Crossover
c) Randomized
d) Non-randomized
e) External controls
---------------------------------------------------------------------
343. СM Clinical Trials with sequential controls have the following two major types:
a) Self-control
b) Crossover
c) Randomized
d) Non-randomized
e) External controls
---------------------------------------------------------------------
344. СM In Clinical Trials with external controls, the results about the effect of a placebo among
the controls can be taken from:
a) Another research
b) Previous research
c) Experimental group from the same research
d) Experimental group from another research
e) Experimental group from the previous research
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345. СM Choose the TRUE statements about a double-blind randomized controlled clinical trial:
a) Only subjects do not know what the receive
b) Only doctor does not know the subjects receive
c) Nether doctor, nor subjects know what the subjects receive
d) Subjects were allocated to an experimental and control groups by chance
e) Subjects were NOT allocated to an experimental and control groups by chance
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346. СM Choose the TRUE statements about a blind non-randomized controlled clinical trial:
a) Only subjects do not know what the receive
b) Only doctor does not know the subjects receive
c) Nether doctor, nor subjects know what the subjects receive
d) Subjects were allocated to an experimental and control groups by chance
e) Subjects were NOT allocated to an experimental and control groups by chance
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347. СM Choose the TRUE statements about clinical trials with parallel controls:
a) The interventions are produced first in an experimental group and then in a control group
b) The interventions are produced in two groups at the same time
c) The results about the effect of placebo are taken from the previous research
d) The subjects can be selected into an experimental and control groups at random OR not
e) The subjects can be selected into an experimental and control groups ONLY at random
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348. СM Choose the TRUE statements about randomization:
a) If Clinical Trials are randomized, subjects have the same chance to be selected into an
experimental or control groups
b) Randomization takes place in Clinical Trials with parallel controls
c) Randomization takes place in Clinical Trials with external controls
d) Randomization reduces the risk of biases
e) Randomization increases the risk of biases
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349. СM Select the characteristics of Randomized Controlled Clinical Trials (RCT):
a) RCT provides the strongest evidence about cause-and-effect relationship
b) In RCT, the influence of confounding factors is higher among Controls
c) In RCT, confounding factors are equally distributed in both groups
d) In RCT, the influence of confounding factors is higher in Experimental group
 e) RCT provides the weakest evidence about cause-and-effect relationship
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350. SQ A published research article describes various characteristics of patients admitted with a
rare type of stomach cancer, including gender, age, history of smoking and drinking habits. This
type of study is:
a) Case series
b) Cross-sectional
c) Cohort
d) Case-control
e) Clinical trial
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351. MQ What are the advantages of a case series study:
a) Easy to write
b) Incidence of a disease can be determined
c) Formulation of a hypothesis about the relationship between exposure and outcome
d) Lack of recall biases
e) Losses to follow-up
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352. MQ What are the disadvantages of a case series study:
a) Recall biases
b) It cannot provide any evidence about the causality
c) Time-consuming
d) Expensive
e) Losses to follow-up
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353. SQ Cross-sectional study is designed to answer to what question:
a) What happened?
b) What will happen?
c) What is happening right now?
d) Whether will it happen again?
e) How could it happen?
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354. SQ Cohort study is designed to answer to what question:
a) What happened?
b) What will happen?
c) What is happening right now?
d) Whether will it happen again?
e) How could it happen?
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355. SQ Case-control study is designed to answer to what question:
a) What happened?
b) What will happen?
c) What is happening right now?
d) Whether will it happen again?
e) How could it happen?
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356. SQ In a cross-sectional study, a researcher collects the information about the exposure and
outcome:
a) At the same time
 b) First a researcher knows about the exposure, and then s/he looks for the outcome
c) First a researcher knows about the outcome, and then s/he loos for the exposure
d) Researcher collects the information about the exposure and outcome in the past
e) Researcher look for the exposure and outcome in the future
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357. SQ In a case-control study, a researcher collects the information about the exposure and
outcome:
a) At the same time
b) First a researcher knows about the exposure, and then s/he looks for the outcome
c) First a researcher knows about the outcome, and then s/he loos for the exposure
d) Researcher collects the information about the exposure and outcome in the past
e) Researcher look for the exposure and outcome in the future
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358. SQ In a cohort study, a researcher collects the information about the exposure and outcome:
a) At the same time
b) First a researcher knows about the exposure, and then s/he looks for the outcome
c) First a researcher knows about the outcome, and then s/he loos for the exposure
d) Researcher collects the information about the exposure and outcome in the past
e) Researcher look for the exposure and outcome in the future

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359. SQ A published research article describes various characteristics pertaining to 5 patients
admitted with pneumonia, inclusive of the gender, age, smoking status and number of prior
admission for pneumonia. This type of study would constitute a:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
e) Clinical trials with controls
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360. SQ A published research article reports the manifestation, investigation and management of
5 cases of paediatric stroke at the Department of Paediatrics. This type of study would constitute
a:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
e) Clinical trials with controls

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361. SQ A published paper considers patients seen in a clinic one week after discharge for acute
appendicitis managed by laparoscopic appendectomy. They are grouped into those with and
without wound infection. A medical doctor looks at factors that were present at admission one
week ago such as age, gender, presence of right lower quadrant pain, temperature. This type of
study would be termed a:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
 e) Clinical trials with controls

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362. SQ A study was conducted to determine if an association exists between workers in
uranium mines and loss of fertility due to reduced sperm count. A group of 150 men with low
sperm count were identified from clinics located in areas with uranium mines. Each selected
case was matched with a randomly selected male control on the following factors: race, age,
area of residence, and smoking status. This type of investigation is a:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
e) Clinical trials without controls

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363. SQ A study was conducted to uncover the relationship between maternal exposure to
diethylstilbestrol (DES) and carcinoma of the vagina in women. Eight females with this rare
cancer were each compared with four matched cancer-free controls on a wide range of
variables, including the use of DES in early pregnancy. This type of investigation is a:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
e) Clinical trials without controls

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364. SQ A study compares patients who had a surgical site infection following laminectomy
with patients who developed no infection. The investigators found that length of hospital stay
and postoperative incontinence were greater with patients with infections. This type of
investigation is a:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
e) Clinical trials with external controls

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365. SQ A study examined the relation between use of estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) and
ovarian cancer mortality. Of 24,000 eligible women, none had a prior history of cancer,
hysterectomy, or ovarian surgery at the beginning of the study. During 12 years of follow-up, 44
deaths from ovarian cancer occurred. This type of investigation is a:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
e) Clinical trials

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366. SQ A researcher was interested in determining whether aspirin was associated with an
 increased risk of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. She identified 600 patients at a hospital who
were taking a daily dose of aspirin and 600 other patients who were not taking aspirin. Subjects
were followed for 1 year to detect any occurrences of GI bleeding. This type of investigation is
a:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
e) Clinical trials

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367. SQ New Yorkers were surveyed to determine if they smoke and if they have morning
cough. The study found a smoking prevalence of 50%. Among respondents, 25% reported
morning cough. This study design is:
a) Case-control study
b) Cross-sectional study
c) Case-series study
d) Cohort study
e) Clinical trials

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368. SQ A case-control study of the relationship between high-fat diet and diabetes was
performed. What is the most appropriate measure of association to present when reporting the
results of this study?
a) Relative risk
b) Attributable risk
c) Odds Ratio
d) Incidence rate in exposed persons
e) Incidence rate in unexposed persons

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369. SQ According to the results of a cohort study, 50% of heavy smokers develop a lung cancer
within 5 years and 10% of non-smokers get a lung cancer within 5 years. Relative risk is:
a) 10/50
b) 50/10
c) 50-10
d) (50-10)/50
e) (50-10)/10

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370. SQ According to the results of a cohort study, 50% of heavy smokers develop a lung cancer
within 5 years and 10% of non-smokers get a lung cancer within 5 years. Attributable risk is:
a) 10/50
b) 50/10
c) 50-10
d) (50-10)/50
e) (50-10)/10

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371. SQ According to the results of a cohort study, 50% of heavy smokers develop a lung cancer
within 5 years and 10% of non-smokers get a lung cancer within 5 years. Incidence of lung
cancer among exposed persons is:
a) 10
b) 50
c) 50-10
d) (50-10)/50
e) (50-10)/10

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372. SQ According to the results of a cohort study, 50% of heavy smokers develop a lung cancer
within 5 years and 10% of non-smokers get a lung cancer within 5 years. Incidence of lung
cancer among unexposed persons is:
a) 10
b) 50
c) 50-10
d) (50-10)/50
e) (50-10)/10

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373. SQ A study investigates an association of smoking with lung cancer. AR is equal to 80. It
means that:
a) 80% of cases of lung cancer among smokers could have been prevented
b) 80% of cases of lung cancer among non-smokers could have been prevented
c) Incidence of lung cancer among smokers was 80%
d) Incidence of lung cancer among non-smokers was 80%
e) Prevalence of lung cancer among smokers was 80%

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374. SQ A study investigates an association of brutal sun radiation with skin cancer. AR is equal
to 85. It means that:
a) 85% of cases of skin cancer among those unexposed could have been prevented
b) 85% of cases of skin cancer among those exposed could have been prevented
c) Incidence of skin cancer among those unexposed was 80%
d) Incidence of skin cancer among those exposed was 80%
e) Prevalence of skin cancer among those exposed was 80%

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375. SQ In a case-control study of maternal cigarette smoking as a risk factor for low birth
weight, the investigators concluded that mothers of children with low birth weight were 1.5
times more likely to report smoking during pregnancy relative to mothers of children with
normal birth weight. The reporting findings are based on the calculation of:
a) RR
b) AR
c) RRR
d) OR
e) ARR

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376. SQ A matched case-control study of healthy diet and stroke results in an odds ratio of 0.4.
The results suggest:
a) Hazardous effect of exposure
b) Beneficial effect of exposure
c) No association between stroke and exposure
d) Positive correlation between stroke and exposure
e) Negative correlation between stroke and exposure

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377. SQ A matched case-control study of smoking and stroke results in an odds ratio of 2.5. The
results suggest:
a) Hazardous effect of exposure
b) Beneficial effect of exposure
c) No association between outcome and exposure
d) Positive correlation between outcome and exposure
e) Negative correlation between outcome and exposure

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378. SQ A matched case-control study of sunscreen use and melanoma results in an odds ratio of
1.0. The results suggest:
a) Hazardous effect of sunscreen use
b) Beneficial effect of sunscreen use
c) No association between sunscreen use and melanoma
d) Positive correlation between sunscreen use and melanoma
e) Negative correlation between sunscreen use and melanoma

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379. SQ Which study design is often used in new diseases with unclear cause?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Cohort study
c) Case-series
d) Clinical trials with controls
e) Clinical trials without controls

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380. MQ Which study design is suitable for rare diseases?
a) Cross-sectional study
b) Cohort study
c) Case-series
d) Case-control study
e) Clinical trials

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381. MQ A cohort is a group of people selected by the researcher that
a) has an outcome of interest
b) does not have an outcome of interest
c) includes only exposed persons
d) includes only unexposed persons
e) includes both exposed and unexposed persons
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
382. SQ In a cohort study, incidence rate of a disease can be calculated for
a) only exposed persons
b) only unexposed persons
c) both for exposed and unexposed persons
d) external controls
e) cases

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383. SQ The study starts with a definition of those with a specific disease outcome, and compare
these persons to those without the outcome of interest. A wide range of exposures can be
included for the retrospective assessment. The study design is:
a) case series
b) cross-sectional study
c) cohort study
d) case-control study
e) clinical trials
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384. MQ Select the statements appropriate to the definition of "Research":
a) A structured activity
b) An activity that utilizes scientific methodology
c) Every oral activity
d) An activity to create new knowledge
e) Every writing activity
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385. MQ Characteristics of Research are as follows:
a) To be pure
b) Repeatability
c) Validity
d) To be applied
e) Systematic
---------------------------------------------------------------------
386. MQ There are the following categories of Research from the point of view of application:
a) Historical
b) Quantitative
c) Pure
d) Descriptive
e) Applied
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387. MQ There are the following categories of Research from the point of view of undertaken
objectives:
a) Applied
b) Descriptive
c) Exploratory
d) Quantitative
e) Correlational
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388. MQ Under which criteria can Research be classified:
 a) Satisfaction
b) Application
c) Undertaken objectives
d) Understanding
e) Process adopted to find an answer to research questions
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389. MQ There are the following categories of Research from the point of view of the process
adopted to find out an answer to research question:
a) Applied
b) Qualitative
c) Exploratory
d) Quantitative
e) Correlational
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390. MQ What are the objectives of a Descriptive Research:
a) To discover the existence of a relationship
b) To describe systematically a situation
c) To make conclusions about trends, causes or effects of past events
d) To determine the current practices
e) To test the reliability and predictive validity
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391. SQ What is the purpose of A Historical Research:
a) To discover the existence of a relationship
b) To describe systematically a situation
c) To make conclusions about trends, causes or effects of past events
d) To determine the current practices
e) To test the reliability and predictive validity
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392. MQ What are the objectives of a Correlational Research:
a) Discover the existence of a relationship
b) Report systematically on the state of a problem
c) Come to conclusions concerning trends, causes or effects of past occurrences
d) Determine the current practices
e) Test the reliability and predictive validity
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393. SQ Name the first step of the Research process:
a) Extensive literature review
b) Development of objectives
c) Formulation of research problem
d) Preparation of the research design
e) Analysis of data
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394. SQ Name the first step in the formulation of a research problem:
a) To dissect a broad field of interest into subareas
b) To raise research questions
c) To identify a broad field of interest to you
d) To establish of the hypotheses
e) To double check
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 395. SQ Name the second step in the formulation of a research problem:
a) To dissect a broad field of interest into subareas
b) To raise research questions
c) To identify a broad field of interest to you
d) To put forward a hypothesis
e) To double check
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396. MQ Procedures for the literature review are as follows:
a) To search for existing literature in your area of the study
b) To find clarity
c) To develop a theoretical framework
d) To develop a practical framework
e) To bring reality
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397. MQ The functions of the literature review are as follows:
a) To improve study methodology
b) To broaden investigator's knowledge
c) To bring results
d) To contextualize investigator's findings
e) To contribute to the first operational step
---------------------------------------------------------------------
398. MQ The most important systems for citing references are:
a) Boston
b) Harvard
c) Cambridge
d) Vancouver
e) Letter-number (hybrid)
---------------------------------------------------------------------
399. MQ State the types of research by application:
a) Pure
b) Qualitative
c) Applied
d) Historical
e) Descriptive
---------------------------------------------------------------------
400. MQ State the types of research according to the process adopted to find an answer to
research questions:
a) Pure
b) Qualitative
c) Applied
d) Quantitative
e) Descriptive
---------------------------------------------------------------------
401. MQ State the types of research by undertaken objectives:
a) Pure
b) Historical
c) Correlational
d) Quantitative
e) Descriptive
 ---------------------------------------------------------------------
402. MQ Select the steps of formulation of a research problem:
a) Select what subareas is most interest
b) Literature review
c) Raise research question
d) Determine a sampling type
e) Collecting the data
---------------------------------------------------------------------
403. MQ Select research design steps:
a) Developing the aim and objectives
b) Determining a sample design
c) To adopt a study design
d) To elaborate tools for data collection
e) Collecting data
---------------------------------------------------------------------
404. MQ Under what conditions is the use of open questions preferred?
a) Respondents are able to provide answers
b) Choices can be anticipated
c) Respondents wish to answer only if it is easy and quick
d) Reporting results are statistical data
e) Reporting results are individual or grouped responses
---------------------------------------------------------------------
405. MQ Under what conditions is the use of closed questions preferred?
a) Respondents are able to provide answers
b) Choices can be anticipated
c) Reporting results are individual or grouped responses
d) Reporting results are statistical data
e) Respondents wish to answer only if it is easy and quick
---------------------------------------------------------------------