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Crosscountry Mocks 1

The document provides information about a cross-country mock exam series for KCSE candidates in Kenya. It includes: 1) Details of the subjects that will be covered in the mock exam including Mathematics, English, Kiswahili, Biology, Chemistry, Physics, CRE, History, Geography, Business Studies, Agriculture, Art & Design, French, and Homescience & Computer Studies. 2) Notification that this is the first series of cross-country mock exams that will be examined for all high school students in Kenya. 3) Contact information for how to obtain marking schemes/answers for the mock exams.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

2K views300 pages

Crosscountry Mocks 1

Uploaded by

Micah Isaboke

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CROSSCOUNTRY MOCK 1

ALL SUBJECTS
SUBJECTS COMPILED COUNTRYWIDE;
Mathematics,English,Kiswahili,Biology,Chemistry,Physics,CRE,
History,Geography,Business Studies,Agriculture,Art &Design,French,
Homescience &Computer Studies.

The 1st Series of Cross-Country Mock Exams to be Examined to

current KCSE Candidates by All High Schools in the Republic Of
Kenya.

SERIES 1

FOR MARKING SCHEMES/ANSWERS

CALL/TEXT/WHATSAPP 0705525657/0707550000

EDUCATION IS POWER
COMPILED BY MWALIMU PUBLISHERS
KCSE COUNTRY-MOCK EXAMS
SERIES 001
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231/1

BIOLOGY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1) Write your name and index number and school in the spaces provided above.
2) Sign and write date of the examination in the spaces provided above
3) Answer all the questions in section A and B

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY:

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1-29 80

SECTION A (40MARKS)
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Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. State the functions of each of the following structures in a cell.
Golgi apparatus (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Cell sap (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. Give two distinguishing characteristics of cervical vertebrae. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. (a) Name the carbon compound responsible for raising of the dough during baking of
bread. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) The diagram below represents an experiment set-up to determine a certain

physiological aspect of man. Air was breathed in and out several times at tube labelled T.
T

Clip 1 Clip 2

Lime water

A B

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(i) What was the aim of the experiment? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) State the observations made on lime water in tubes A and B. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. A child of blood group O is born to a woman of blood group A and a man of blood group
B. What are the genotypes of the parents? (2mks)
Mother
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Father
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. Name three parts of the nephron found in the cortex. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

6. State two symptoms of diabetes mellitus. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
7. The diagram below represents a longitudinal section of a plant.

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State three characteristics of cells found at the part labelled X. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

8. Name three classes of phylum chordate characterized by presence of scales. (1mk)

9. What is natural selection? (2mks)

10. Name the structure on the bodies of arthropods responsible for the intermittent growth
curve pattern. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

11. The diagram below represents a seedling growing horizontally in a moist cotton wool.

Moist cotton wool

Account for the results that would be observed on the radicle after 5 days of growth. (3mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

12. Give a reason for each of the following on a mammalian Red blood cell.
(a) Absence of the nucleus (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Biconcave shape (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

13. How is the pulp cavity adapted to its functions? (2mks)

14. (a) Name the tissue in higher plants responsible for transport of manufactured foods.(1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Give two importance of transpiration in plants. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

15. Distinguish between;

(a) Biomass and carrying capacity. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Interspecific and intraspecific competitions. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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……………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

16. Name two bacterial diseases controlled by boiling drinking water. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

17. State the function of nectarines in an insect pollinated flower. (2mks)

18. State two factors in a seed that causes seed dormancy. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

19. The equation below summarizes a reaction that occurs in a plant organ.
Sunlight
6CO2 + 6H20 Pigment A C6H1206 +X

(a) Name the pigment A and product X. (2mks)

Pigment A
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Product X
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Name the organelle in plants where the above reaction occurs. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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20. The diagrams below represent three types of muscles found on a mammalian body.

A C
B

Name the location of each of the three types of muscles on the body. (3mks)
A………………………………………
B………………………………………
C………………………………………
21. Give a reason why herbaceous plants remain upright. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

22. (a) State the significance of emulsification of fats in the bodies of human beings. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) Name the structure in the body of a mammal that stores bile. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

23. State two functions of a pollen tube. (2mks)

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24. The table below shows relative rates of transpiration in three different trees growing under
similar conditions.
Tree Relative rate of transpiration
A 195
B 20
C 70
(a) State the most likely habitat for plant B. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) State the structural adaptations of the stomata on the leaves of plant B. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

25. Name two hormones responsible for regulation of blood sugar. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

26. Account for the decrease in dry weight of endosperm of a cereal during germination.(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

27. A healthy plant was kept in dark for 24 hours. Two of its leaves were enclosed in glass
jars as shown in the diagram below. The plants were then exposed to light for shows.

Sodium Sodium hydrogen

Hydrogen carbonate

Flask A Flask B

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(i) Leaves in flask A and B were tested for a food substance. Name the food substance tested for
in each of the flasks. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) What were the results of the test started in (i) above. (2mks)
Flask A…………………………………………………………………
Flask B…………………………………………………………………
28. Name two main support tissues in woody plants. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

29. (a) State two functions of a synovial fluid at a movable joint. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) Name the structure at a movable joint responsible for secretion of synovial fluid. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

30. State two advantages of hybrid vigour. (2mks)

31. How is ascaris lumbricoides adapted to its parasitic mode of life? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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32. (a) At what stage of meiosis does crossing over take place. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) What is the importance of crossing-over? (1mk)

33. Explain the functions of the ear drum. (2mks)

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231/2

BIOLOGY
THEORY
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided.
2) Answer all the questions in Section A in the spaces provided.
3) In section B answer questions 6 (compulsory) and either question 7 or 8 in the spaces
provided
For Examiner’s Use Only:
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1 8
2 8
3 8
4 8
5 8
B 6 20
7 20
8 20
TOTAL 80

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SECTION A (40MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. In human beigns the phenotypes and genotypes with respect to the condition of sickle anaemia
are as follows

Phenotype Genotype

Unaffected SS
Sickle cell trait Ss
Sickle cell anaemia ss

a) Carry out a genetic cross to predict the outcome of a man and a woman with the sickle
cell trait. (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) What are the phenotypic and genotypic ratios. (2mks)

c) Name the two possible sets of chromosomes that can be found in a normal cell. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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2. The diagram below represents a unit of gaseous exchange in man. Study it carefully and
answer the questions that follow.

• B
A •
•
• GHG D
• •
E
• •
•

a) Name the blood vessel that brings blood to the lungs and the vessel which takes blood
away from the lungs. (2mks)

b) Name the structure above. (1mk)

c) Label A and E. (2mks)

A……………………………………………………………..…
E……………………………………………………………..…
d) In what form is carbon (IV) oxide transported in structure labeled E. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
e) Name the gas G. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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3. Gastrin is a hormone produced by mammals.
(a) (i) Where is the hormone produced? (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(ii) What is the function of gastrin? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(b) What stimulateds the production of gastrin. (1mk)

(c) The diagram below shows part of the human intestine.

(i) Identify the parts labeled A and B (1mk)

A…………………………………
B………………………………… (1mk)

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(ii) To which circulatory system does the part labeled B belong. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) State any two adaptations of the human large intestine to its function. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4 The diagram below represents part of a xylem tissue.

a) (i) Name the parts labeled P and Q (2mks)

P ……………………………………………………………………
Q ……………………………………………………………………
(ii) Give the function of the part labeled P. (1mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) State the function of the phloem tissue. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) (i) State how the functioning of the phloem tissue is affected if the companion cell is
destroyed. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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(ii) Give a reason for your answer. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) State any two structural differences between phloem and xylem tissues. (2mks)

5 The diagram below represents a food web from Lake Nakuru national park.

Green plants

Insects Squirel Rabbits Deers

Rats
Leopards

Birds
Snakes

a) With a reason, identify the organism with the largest biomass. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) From the food web isolate a food chain ending with snakes as tertiary consumer. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) (i) Name any two organisms not shown in the food web but would be present in the
ecosystem. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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(ii) What is the role of the organisms stated in (i) above in the ecosystem. (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
d) From the food web, snakes and leopards feed on rabbits. What name is given to this kind of
competition. (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
e) Name an organisms that may be both secondary and tertiary consumer. (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

SECTION B (40MARKS)
Answer questions 6(compulsory) and either questions 7 or 8
6. In an experiment to determine the effect of exercise on the concentration of lactic acid in
blood, the following data was obtained. Study the data and use it to answer the questions that
follow.
The lactic acid concentration was measured before, during and after the exercise.

Time minutes 0 10 20 25 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100

Lactic acid 0.5 0.5 5 13 12 8 6 4 3 2 1 0.9
conc.
(arbituary
units)
a) Using a suitable scale, plot a graph of the concentration of lactic acid against time.
(6mks)

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b) From the graph you have drawn determine
(i) The period of exercise . Explain. (2mks)

(ii) The time when oxygen debt occurred Explain. (2mks)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(iii) The duration it took to pay back the oxygen debt.Explain (2mk)

c) On the same set of axes plot a hypothetical curve for oxygen intake during the experiment
period of 90 minutes. (2mks)
d) Why does lactic acid level usually continue to rise in the blood after exercise ceases. (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
e) Suggest the two importance of anaerobic respiration to animals. (2mks)

d) What is oxygen debt? (2mks)

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7. What is the role of the liver in the maintance of a constant level of materials in the body.
(20mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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8 (a) What is organic evolution? (2mks)

(b) Distinguish between homologous and analogous structure. (2mks)

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231/3

BIOLOGY
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS
1. The information contained in this paper is to enable the head of school and the teacher in charge
of Biology to make adequate preparations for this Biology Practical examination. NO ONE
ELSE should have access to this paper or acquire knowledge of its contents. Great care MUST
be taken to ensure that the information here does not reach the candidates either directly or
indirectly.

2. The Biology teacher should note that it is his / her responsibility to ensure that each apparatus
acquired for this examination agrees with the specifications given.

3. The question paper will not be opened in advance.

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Each candidate will require.
1. A specimen labeled R (Potato)
2. Pestle and motor
3. 4 test tubes
4. 8mls of hydrogen peroxide solution
5. Scalpel / surgical blade
6. 10ml measuring cylinder
7. Means of heating
8. A beaker (50ml / 100ml beaker)
9. Wooden splint
10. 15cm / 30cm long ruler
11. A test tube rack

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231/3

BIOLOGY
(PRACTICAL)
PAPER 3
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, school, index number, signature and date in the spaces provided above.
2. Answer ALL the questions in spaces provided.
3. You are required to spend the first 15 minutes of the 1¾ allowed for this paper reading the
whole paper carefully before commencing your work.
4. Answers must be written in the spaces provided in the question paper.
5. Additional pages must not be inserted.
6. This paper consists of 6 printed pages.
7. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions
are missing.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 12

2 14

3 14

TOTAL SCORE 40

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1. You are provided with a potato labelled R. Cut 4 equal pieces of the potato about 1cm3.
(a) Place one piece in a test-tube and label it A.
(b) Place a second piece onto a white tile or petri-dish and crush it into a paste using a motor
or a glass rod. Put it into a second test-tube and label it B.
(c) To each of the two test tubes, add 2cm3 of hydrogen peroxide.
I.Record your observations. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

(d) Put a third piece of potato onto the white tile and crush it into a paste using the motor and
the pestle. Put it into a third test tube and label it C.
Add some little water to the paste and boil it for about 10 minutes. Let it cool.
Add 2cm3 of hydrogen peroxide.
II.Record your observations. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

III.Explain the results in (a) and (b) above. (4 marks)

IV.Crush the fourth piece of potato and put it into a test-tube, add 2cm3 of hydrogen peroxide to
it. Test the gas produced and record your observations. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

V.Make a conclusion based on results in (d) above. (1 mark)

VI.Write a word equation for the reaction that produces the gas. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

VII.Where in your body does such a reaction occur? (1 mark)

VIII.What is the importance of such a reaction in the body? (1 mark)

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2. You are provided with specimens labelled A, B, C, D, E, F and G.

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A dichotomous key shown below can be used to identify them
1. a) Jointed legs present ------------------------------------- go to 2
b) Jointed legs absent -------------------------------------- go to 6

2. a) Three pairs of legs -------------------------------------- go to 3

b) More than three pairs of legs -------------------------- go to 5

3. a) Wings present ------------------------------------------- go to 4

b) Wings absent -------------------------------------------- Bedbug

4. a) Two pairs of wings ------------------------------------- Batesian butterfly

b) One pair of wings --------------------------------------- Apis mellifera

5. a) Antennae present ---------------------------------------- Crab

b) Antennae absent ----------------------------------------- Scorpion

6. a) Shell present --------------------------------------------- Snail

b) Shell absent ---------------------------------------------- go to 7

7. a) Prominent clitellum ------------------------------------- Earthworm

b) No clitellum visible ------------------------------------- Leech

a) Use the dichotomous key to identify each of the animal specimens provided.
In each case show the sequence of steps that you followed to arrive at the identity of each
specimen. (7 marks)
Specimen Steps followed Identity

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E

b) i) Name the class to which specimen D belongs. (1 mark)

ii) Name two observable features used to classify specimen D in (b) (i) above.(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) i) Name the type of skeleton found in organism A. (1 mark)

ii) Name one function of the skeleton found in c(i) above. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) State two economic importance of specimen A in an ecosystem. (2 marks)

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3. Figure 1.1 below shows the lower surface of a dicotyledonous leaf.

a) Make a labelled drawing of the leaf.

Your drawing should be of the same size as that shown in the figure 1.1
(6 marks)

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b) Figure 1.2 below shows part of the lower surface of the leaf in figure 1.1 as seen under a light
microscope.

i) On the figure 1.2, label using lines two different types of cells. (2 marks)

ii) On the figure 1.2 put a circle around two of the cells where chloroplasts are normally present.

(2 marks)

c) Suggest how you could determine the number of stomata present on one surface of a whole
leaf.
(4 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

233/1

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 1
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your name and index no. in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the space provided above.
3. Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
4. Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
5. All working MUST be clearly shown where necessary.
6. This paper consists of 11 printed pages.
7. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are
missing.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

1  29 80 marks

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1. The table below shows the pH values of some solutions.
Solutions J K L M N

pH 6 13 2 10 7

a) Which solution is likely to be:

i) Potassium hydroxide. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) Lemon juice. (1 mark)

b) Explain why a solution of hydrogen chloride gas in methylbenzene was identified as N.

(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Compare the electrical conductivity of solution J and L. (1 mark)

2. Name the process that takes place when:

i) Sulphur is heated with natural rubber. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Fats or oils are hydrolysed using an alkali. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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3. a) Oxygen is obtained by fractional distillation of liquid air.
Name two other gases which are obtained from this process during distillation.(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Give two industrial uses of oxygen gas. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. The diagram below represents the apparatus used to react steam with magnesium.
Boiling tube
Magnesium ribbon
Wet cotton
wool
Gas C

Heat Heat

Water

a) State an observation made in the boiling tube. (1 mark)

b) Write an equation for the reaction that takes place in the boiling tube. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) State and explain one precaution required before the heating is stopped. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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5. State and explain how an increase in pressure will affect the equilibrium position in the
following reactions.
a) 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g) 2SO3 (g) (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) 2HCl (g) (1 mark)

6. Given a mixture of sodium chloride, silver chloride and ammonium chloride, describe how
each component can be obtained. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

7. A copper spoon was coated with silver metal as shown below.

Copper spoon
Silver metal

AgNO 3 (aq)

i) Write an equation for the reaction that occurs at the copper spoon (cathode). (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) How many grams of silver would be deposited on the spoon in two hours using steady current
of 0.03A? (IF = 96500C, Ag = 108.0) (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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8. Using dost () and crosses (X) to represent electrons, show bonding in
a) Ammonia molecule. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) Calcium oxide. (1 mark)

9. The curve below represents the changes in the concentration of substances E and F with time
in the equation.
E(g) F(g)

Concentration
Curve I
i Mole / dm 3
n
Curve II

t
Time (Sec)

a) Which curve represents the changes in the concentration of substance F? Give a reason.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Give a reason for the shapes of the curves after time (t) seconds. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

10. The following two tests were carried out on chlorine water contained in two test-tubes.
a) A piece of blue flower was dropped into the first test-tube. Explain why the flower
bleached. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) The second test-tube was corked and exposed to sunlight.
After a few days, it was found to contain a gas that rekindled a glowing splint.
Write an equation for the reaction which produced the gas. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

11. State any two differences between a luminous and a non-luminous flame. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

12. Potassium hydroxide of mass Yg was dissolved in distilled water to make 200cm3 of solution.
100cm3 of the solution required 100cm3 of 2M nitric acid for complete neutralization.
Calculate the value of Y. (K = 39, O = 16, H = 1) (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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13. Explain how electrical conductivity may be used to distinguish between magnesium oxide and
silicon (IV) oxide. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

14. In the nuclear reaction below:

235 90 x 1
U + 01 n Sr + Xe + 3 n + Energy
92 42 y 0

a) Identify the value of x and y.

x (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
y (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) State two applications for radioisotopes. (1 mark)

15. The diagram below shows the effect of heat on copper (II) nitrate.

e Gas R
ub
gt
ilin
Bo

Water trough
Copper (II)
nitrate Dilute NaOH (aq)

Heat
a) State two observations made in the boiling tube. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) Write the equation for the reaction that takes place in the water trough. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) How would you confirm the identity of gas R? (1 mark)

16. The structure below represents a cleaning agent which is said to have both an advantage and a
disadvantage.
O
=

R S O- Na +
=

O
a) Which type of cleaning agent does the structure above represent? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) State:
i) one advantage (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) one disadvantage (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

17. a) State and explain Boyle’s law on the behavior of gases. (2 marks)
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) State two conditions under which gases are likely to behave as ideal. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

18. Both diamond and graphite have giant atomic structures.

Explain why diamond is hard while graphite is soft. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
19. a) What is meant by the terms
i) Element (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) Atomic number (1 mark)

b) The formula for a chloride of Titanium is TiCl3. What is the formula for its sulphate?
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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20. A student investigated the effect of an electric current by passing it through some substances.
The student used inert electrodes and connected a bulb to the circuit.
The table below shows the substances used and their states.
Experiment Substance State
1 Potassium carbonate Solid

2 Copper (II) Sulphate Solution

3 Sugar Solution
4 Lead (II) Iodide Molten

a) In which experiment did the bulb not light? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Explain your answer in (a) above. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
21. a) Name one natural polymer. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Give one advantage of synthetic fibres over natural fibres. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

22. The table below gives the atomic numbers of elements, W, X, Y and Z. the letters do not
represent the actual symbols of the elements.
Element W X Y Z

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Atomic number 9 10 11 12

a) Which one of the elements is least reactive? Explain. (1 mark)

b) i) Which two elements would react most vigorously with each other? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) Give formula of the compound formed when the elements in b (i) react. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

23. a) Name two ores from which copper is extracted? (1 mark)

b) During extraction of copper metal, the ore is subjected to froth flotation.

Give a reason why this process is necessary. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) Name one alloy of copper and state its use. (1 mark)

24. The table below is part of the periodic table. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of
the elements. Study it and answer the questions that follow.

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C D E F

G H I

a) Select an element which is stored in paraffin in the laboratory. (1 mark)

b) How do the Ionic radii of E and I compare? Explain. (2 marks)

25. Use the information below to answer the questions that follow.
Equation Enthalpy of formation
H2 (g) + ½O2 (g) → H2O (l) ΔH1 = – 286 KJmol1
C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g) ΔH2 = – 394 KJmol1
2C (s) + 3H2 (g) + ½O2 (g) → C2H5OH (l) ΔH3 = – 277 KJmol1

a) Define the term enthalpy of formation of a compound. (1 mark)

b) Calculate the molar enthalpy of combustion ΔH4 of ethanol.

C2H5OH (l) + 3O2 (g) → 2CO2 (g) + 3H2O (l) (2 marks
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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26. Nitrogen forms many compounds in which its oxidation state varies.
a) What is meant by oxidation state? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) What is the oxidation state of nitrogen in Mg3N2? (1 mark)

c) Explain why high temperature is required for nitrogen to react with oxygen. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
27. Draw and name the isomers of pentane. (3 marks)

28. When a student was stung by a nettle plant a teacher applied an aqueous solution of ammonia
to the affected area of the skin and the student was relieved of pain. Explain. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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29. Distinguish between ionization energy and electron affinity of an element. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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KCSE COUNTRY-MOCK EXAMS
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

233/2

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 2
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS:
(a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer ALL the questions in the spaces provided.
(d) Mathematical tables and silent electronic calculators may be used.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 12
2 12

3 8
4 12
5 15
6 12
7 9
Total score 80
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1. Study the table below and answer the questions that follow.
Element Atomic number Relative atomic mass Melting point (oC)

Aluminum 13 27.0

Calcium 20 40.0 850

Carbon __ 12.0 3730

Hydrogen __ 1.0 - 259

Magnesium 12 24.0 650

Neon __ 20.0 - 249

Phosphorous 15 31.0 44.2 white

590 red

sodium __ 23 97.8

a) Complete the table by filling in the missing atomic numbers. (2 marks)

b) Write the electron arrangement for the following ion. (2 marks)

i) Ca2+
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) P3
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) What is the melting point of hydrogen in Kelvin? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) Which of the allotropes of phosphorous has a higher density? Explain. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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e) The mass numbers of three isotopes of magnesium are 24, 25 and 26.
What is the mass number of the most abundant isotope of magnesium? Explain.(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

f) Give the formula of the compound formed between aluminum and carbon. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

g) Explain the difference in the melting points of magnesium and sodium. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. a) The diagram below shows the Frasch process used for extraction of sulphur.
Use it to answer to answer the questions that follow.
X

Molten sulphur
Super heated
o
water at 170 C

Sulphur deposits

i) Identify X. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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ii) Why is it necessary to use super-heated water in this process? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii) State two physical properties of sulphur that makes it possible for it to be extracted by
this method. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) The diagram below shows part of the process in the manufacture of suphuric (VI) acid.
Study it and answer the questions that follow.
Concentrated
sulphuric (VI) acid
Air

Sulphur CHAMBER Sulphur (IV)

(IV) oxide PURIFIER
A oxide + air

Sulphur (VI)
oxide
HEAT
EXCHANGER Concentrated
CATALYTIC
sulphuric (VI) acid
CHAMBER
B

ABSORPTION
TOWER

i) Write an equation for the formation of sulphur (IV) oxide from sulphur. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) What it the role of concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid in chamber A? (1 mark)
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………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii) Name two catalysts that can be used in the catalytic chamber B. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iv) State two roles of the heat exchanger. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) Explain one way in which sulphur (IV) oxide is a pollutant. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
d) What observation will be made when a few drops of concentrated sulphuric (VI) acid are
added to crystals of sugar? Explain your answer. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. a) State two factors that should be considered when choosing a fuel for cooking.(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) The diagram below represents a set-up that was used to determine the molar heat of
combustion of ethanol.

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Thermometer

Metallic container

Water

Tripod stand

Ethanol Lamp

During the experiment the data given below was recorded.

Volume of water = 450cm3
Initial temperature of water = 25oC
Final temperature of water = 46.5oC
Mass of ethanol + lamp before burning = 125.5g
Mass of ethanol + lamp after burning = 124.0g

Calculate the:
i) Heat evolved during the experiment.
(Density of water = 1g/cm3 specific heat capacity of water = 4.2Jg1K1). (2 marks)
ii) Molar heat of combustion of ethanol (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) Write the equation for the complete combustion of ethanol. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
d) The value of the molar heat of combustion of ethanol obtained in b (ii) above is lower
than the theoretical value. State one source of error in the (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

4. a) Crude oil is a source of many compounds that contain carbon and hydrogen only.
i) Name the process used to separate the components of crude oil. (1 mark)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) State two physical properties of the above components that determine the separation.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) Under certain conditions, Heptane can be converted to two products.

The formula of one of the products is C3H8.
i) Write the formula of the other product. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) Determine a simple chemical reaction to show the difference between the two products
formed in b(i) above. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) Butyne C4H6 is another compound found in crude oil. One mole of butyne was reacted
with one mole of hydrogen chloride gas and a product P1 was formed. P1 was then reacted with
excess hydrogen gas to form P2. Draw the structure of P1 and P2. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

d) The set up below was used to prepare and collect ethene gas.
Study it and answer the questions that follow.

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Concentrated
sulphuric (VI) acid

Ethene

Mixture of concentrated
sulphuric (VI) acid and
substance T

Water

Heat

i) Name substance T. (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Give the property of ethene that allows it to be collected as shown in the set-up.(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
e) One of the reactions undergone by ethene is addition polymerization.
Give the name of the polymer and one disadvantage of the polymer it forms.(2 marks)
Name
_____________________________________________________________________
Disadvantage
____________________________________________________________________

5. a) The standard electrode potentials for the elements chloride and magnesium are:
Cl2 (aq) + 2e → 2Cl (aq) Eθ = +1.36V
Mg2+ (aq) + 2e → Mg(s) Eθ = –2.36V
i) Which one for the two elements will act as an oxidizing agent? Explain your choice.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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ii) Calculate the electromotive force of a cell where the overall reaction is:
Cl2 (aq) + Mg (s) → MgCl2 (aq) (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) The table below gives the standard electrode potentials for divalent metals represented by
the letters P, Q, R and S (not their symbols of elements). Use it to answer the question that
follow.
Metal Eθ (volts)
P +1.50
Q +0.44
R +0.34
S –0.76
i) Which one of the metals cannot be displaced from a solution of its ions by any other
metals in the table? Explain. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Metals P and Q were connected to from a cell as shown in the diagram below.

NaNO 3 (aq)
Salt bridge

Cotton
wool

I. On the diagram label the metals P and Q and indicate the ions in solution. (2 marks)

II. Write equations (half equations) of the reactions taking place at the electrodes.
Electrode P (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
Electrode Q (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
III. State two functions of the salt bridge. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
IV. What must be observed about the choice of a salt bridge? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii) A metallic couple of the metal S and Z produced a voltage of +1.71volts.
(Assume that S has the higher negative electrode potential)
I. Calculate the standard electrode potential (S.E.P) for metal Z. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
II. Arrange the metals P, Q, R and Z in their decreasing order of reactivity. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

6. a) Define the term solubility. (1 mark)

b) In an experiment to determine the solubility of two salts X and Y at different

temperatures, a candidate recorded her observations as shown below.
Temperature (oC) 0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90
Solubility of X in g/100g 14.3 17.4 20.7 25.0 28.5 33.3 40.0 47.0 55.0 64.0
of H2O

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Solubility of Y in g/100g 25.0 27.5 30.0 32.5 35.0 37.6 40.1 42.4 45.0 48.0
of H2O
On the same axes plot the solubility curves of X and Y against temperature. (5 marks)

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c) From the graph determine;
i) Solubility of X and Y at 47oC.
Solubility of X. (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Solubility of Y. (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) The temperature at which the two salts have the same solubility in water. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
d) If 60g of X is dissolved in 100g of water and heated to 90oC, calculate the amount of salt
that crystallized out if cooled to 20oC. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
e) State what would happen if a mixture of salt X in 100g of water and 30g of Y in 100g of
water were cooled from 90oC to 70oC. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
f) State one application of solubility. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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7. In an experiment, a piece of magnesium ribbon was cleaned with steel wool. 2.4g of the clean
magnesium ribbon was placed in crucible and completely burnt in oxygen.
After cooling, the product weighed 4.0g.
a) Explain why it is necessary to clean the magnesium ribbon. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) What observation was made in the crucible after burning? (1 mark)

c) Why was there an increase in mass? (1 mark)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
d) Write the equation for the reaction which took place in the crucible. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

e) The product in the crucible was shaken with water and filtered.
Explain the observation which was made when blue and red litmus papers were dropped into
the filtrate. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
f) Calculate the volume of oxygen gas used during the burning.
(O = 16, molar volume of gas = 24000cm3 at room temperature) (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

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233/3

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3
(PRACTICAL)

CONFIDENTIAL
INSTRUCTIONS TO ALL SCHOOLS
1. The information contained in this paper is to enable the head of school and the teacher in charge
of Chemistry to make adequate preparations for this Chemistry Practical examination. NO
ONE ELSE should have access to this paper or acquire knowledge of its contents. Great
care MUST be taken to ensure that the information herein does not reach the candidates
either directly or indirectly.

2. The Chemistry teacher should note that it is his / her responsibility to ensure that each
apparatus acquired for this examination agrees with the specifications given.

3. The teacher in charge of Chemistry should not perform any of the experiments in the same
room as the candidates nor make the results of the experiments available to the candidates or
give any other information related to the experiments to the candidates. Doing so will constitute
on examination irregularity which is punishable.

4. The question paper will not be opened in advance.

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In addition to the fittings and apparatus found in a chemistry laboratory,
each candidate will require.
1. About 120cm3 of solution A
2. About 120cm3 of solution B
3. About 100cm3 of solution C
4. One pipette 25.0ml
5. One pipette filler
6. One volumetric flask 250ml
7. One burette 0 – 50ml
8. Two conical flasks
9. 6 clean dry test-tubes
10. Test-tube rack
11. One thermometer – 10°C – 110°C
12. Two boiling tubes
13. About 0.5g of solid Q in a stoppered container
14. About 0.5g of solid Y in a stoppered container
15. One 10ml measuring cylinder
16. One 100 ml beaker
17. About 500ml of distilled water in a wash bottle
18. One metallic spatula
19. 1g of sodium hydrogen carbonate (solid)
20. One label

Access to:
1. Methyl orange indicator supplied with a dropper.
2. Bunsen burner.
3. 2M aqueous ammonia
4. 2M sodium hydroxide supplied with a dropper.
5. 0.5M barium nitrate solution.
6. 0.5M lead (II) nitrate.
7. 2M nitric (V) acid.
8. Acidified potassium manganate (VII) solution supplied with a dropper.

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Preparations:
1. Solution A is prepared by dissolving 88cm3 of 1.18g/cm3 (35%) concentrated hydrochloric
acid in about 600cm3 of distilled water and diluting to one litre of solution.
2. Solution B is prepared by dissolving 8.0g sodium carbonate in about 500cm3 of distilled water
and diluting to one litre of solution.
3. Solution C is prepared by dissolving 60.0g of sodium hydroxide pellets in about 700cm3 of
distilled water and diluting to one litre of solution.
4. Acidified potassium manganate (VII) is prepared by dissolving 3.16g of solid
potassium manganate (VII) in about 600cm3 of 2M Sulphuric (VI) acid and adding distilled
water to make 1litre.
5. Solid Q is aluminum chloride.
6. Solid Y is maleic acid.

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

233/3

CHEMISTRY
PAPER 3
(PRACTICAL)
𝟏
TIME: 2𝟒 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2) Answer ALL questions in the spaces provided.
1
3) You are NOT allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first 15minutes of the 2 4 hours
allowed for this paper. This time will enable you read through the question paper and make sure
you have all the chemicals and apparatus required.
4) Mathematical tables and electronic calculators may be used.
5) All working must be clearly shown where necessary.
6) This paper consists of 8 printed pages
7) Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are
missing
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 21
2 12
3 07
TOTAL SCORE 40

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1. You are provided with;
• Aqueous hydrochloric acid labeled solution A.
• Solution B containing 8.0 g per litre of sodium carbonate.
• An aqueous solution of substance C labeled solution C.

You are required to determine the;

• Concentration of solution A.
• Enthalpy of reaction between hydrochloric acid and substance C.

Procedure I
Using a pipette and pipette filler, place 25.0cm3 of solution A into a 250ml, volumetric flask.
Add distilled water to make 250cm3 of solution. Label this solution D.

Place solution D in a burette. Clean the pipette and use it to place 25.0cm3 of solution B into a
conical flask. Add 2 drops of methyl orange indicator provided and titrate with solution D.
Record your results in table 1. Repeat the titration two more times and complete the table.

Table 1
I II III
Final burette reading
Initial burette reading
Volume of solution D used (cm3)
(4 marks)
Calculate;
i) Average volume of solution D used. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
ii) Concentration of sodium carbonate in solution B.
(Na = 23.0, O = 16.0, C = 12.0) (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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iii) Concentration of hydrochloric acid in solution D. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
iv) Concentration of hydrochloric acid in solution A. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

Procedure II
Using a clean burette, place 2 cm3 of solution A into a boiling tube. Take the initial temperature
of the solution in the boiling tube and record it in table 2. Using a clean measuring cylinder,
measure 14 cm3 of solution C into 100cm3 beaker and add it to a solution A in the boiling tube.
Stir the mixture immediately with a thermometer and record in table 2 the highest temperature
reached. Repeat the experiment with the other sets of volumes of A and C in the table and
complete it.
(Rinse the thermometer and the boiling tube with distilled water after each experiment)

Table 2
Volume of solution A (cm3) 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
Volume of solution C (cm3) 14 12 10 8 6 4 2
Initial temperature of solution C (°C)
Highest temperature of solution C
(°C)
Change in temperature ΔT (°C)
(5 marks)

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i) On the grid provided, draw a graph of ΔT (vertical axis) against volume of solution A used .
(3 marks)

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ii) From the graph, determine;
I The maximum change in temperature. (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
II. The volume of solution A required to completely neutralize solution C. (½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
iii) Calculate the;
I. Number of moles of hydrochloric acid required to completely neutralize solution C.(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
II. Molar enthalpy of reaction between hydrochloric acid and substance C (in kilojoules per mole
of hydrochloric acid). Assume the specific heat capacity of the solution is 4.2 Jg 1K1 and
density of solution is 1.0 gcm3. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. You are provided with solid Q. Carry out the following tests on Q and record your observations
and inferences in the spaces provided.
a) Place a spatula of solid Q into a boiling tube and add 12 cm3 of distilled water.
Shake the mixture thoroughly. Divide the mixture into five portions.
Observations Inferences

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(1 mark) (1 mark)

b) To the first portion, add 5 cm3 of 2M Nitric (V) acid.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

c) To the second portion, add four drops of lead (II) nitrate solution.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

d) To the third portion, add four drops of Barium nitrate solution.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

e) To the fourth portion, add sodium hydroxide solution dropwise until in excess.
Observations Inferences

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(1 mark) (1 mark)

f) To the fifth portion, add ammonia solution dropwise until in excess.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

3. You are provided with substance Y.

Carry out the following tests on Y and record your observations and inferences in the spaces
provided.
a) Describe the appearance of solid Y. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
b) Scoop a little solid Y with a clean metallic spatula and ignite it using non-luminous part of the
Bunsen burner flame.
Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

c) Add about 10 cm3 of distilled water to the remaining solid Y in a boiling tube.
Divide the resulting mixture into 2 portions.
i) To the portion one, add 3 drops of acidified potassium manganate (VII) solution.
Observations Inferences

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(1 mark) (1 mark)

ii) To portion two, add sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Observations Inferences

(1 mark) (1 mark)

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232/1

PHYSICS
PAPER 1
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS
1. Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of two sections, section A and B.
4. Answer ALL the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided.
5. ALL answers and working MUST be clearly shown.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 113 25
B 14 12
15 12
16 11
17 11
18 09
TOTAL 80

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Where necessary take - g = 10 ms–2
- Specific heat capacity of copper = 400 Jkg1k1
- Specific heat capacity of oil = 2400 J/kg1k1
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336000 Jkg

SECTION A (25 MARKS)

Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. The micrometer screw gauge represented in figure 1 below has a thimble scale of 50 divisions.

0 35
30
25

Figure 1
What is the reading shown? (1 mark)

2. Two identical tubes A and B held horizontally contain air and water respectively. A small
quantity of coloured gas is introduced at one end of A while a small quantity of coloured water
is introduced to one end of B. State with reasons the tube in which the colour will reach the
other end faster. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. In the study of free fall, it is assumed that the force F acting on a given body of mass, m, is
gravitational, given by F = ma. State two other forces that act on the same body.(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. Figure 2 below shows a uniform metre rule of weight, 1N with two weights of 0.18N and 0.12N
suspended from its ends.

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0 50cm 100cm

W = 1N
Figure 2 0.18 0.12N

Determine how far from the 0.18N a pivot should be placed in order to balance the metre rule.
(3 marks)
5. Sketch a velocity time graph for a body moving down a viscous fluid. (1 mark)

6. State the reason why banking of a circular part of road is necessary. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
7. A lady of mass 80kg walks up a flight of 10 stairs each 20cm high in 5 seconds.
Determine the power she develops. (3 marks)

8. Figure 3 shows a fire alarm circuit.

Terminal T
Bell
Mercury

Figure 3
Explain how it works. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
9. A light spiral spring extends by 4mm when loaded with a weight W. The spring is connected
in series with an identical spring. The combination is loaded with weight W.
Determine the extension of the combination. (2 marks)

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10. In an experiment to demonstrate atmospheric pressure, a plastic bottle is partially filled with
hot water and the bottle is then tightly corked. After some time the bottle starts to get deformed.
i) State the purpose of hot water. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) State the reason why the bottle gets deformed. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii) Explain your answer in (ii) above. (2 marks)

11. Define the term angular velocity. (1 mark)

12. Tall buildings are built with lighter materials at the upper part. Explain. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………………………………………………………………………..

13. State how the pressure in a moving fluid varies with speed of the fluid. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.
14. a) When a bullet of mass 0.02kg was fired into a block of ballistick pendulum of mass 1.98kg,
the block rose through a height of 15cm as in the figure 4 below.

15cm

Figure 4
Determine:
i) The potential energy of the block and the bullet. (2 marks)

ii) The velocity of the bullet and block. (2 marks)

b) A trolley of mass 1kg moving at 1 ms1 collides with a stationary block of wood of mass
2kg.
If the trolley and the block of wood are stuck together and moved a distance of 0.1m before
coming to rest. Find the,
i) Velocity of the system after collision. (2 marks)

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ii) Kinetic energy after collision. (2 marks)

iii) The frictional force. (2 marks)

c) In the figure 5 below shows a velocity time graph for an object in a certain motion.

V (ms1)

t (s)

Figure 5
Describe the motion of the body. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

15. a) Explain why bodies in circular motion undergo acceleration even when their speed in
constant. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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b) A particle moving along a circular path of radius 5m describes an arc length 2m every 2
seconds.
Determine:
i) Its angular velocity. (2 marks)

ii) Its periodic time. (2 marks)

c) A stone of mass 40g tied to the end of a string of 50cm and whirled in a vertical circle at 2
revolutions per second. Calculate the maximum tension in the string. (3 marks)

d) Figure 6 below shows a container with small holes at the bottom in which wet clothes have
been put.

Holes

Container Wet clothes

Figure 6
When the container is whirled at high speed, it is observed that the clothes dry faster.
Explain how the rotation of the container causes the clothes to dry faster. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

e) State two factors affecting centripetal force. (2 marks)

16. a) Distinguish between heat capacity and specific heat capacity. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) Figure 7 below shows a set up that may be used to determine specific heat capacity of the
liquid.

A
V
Thermometer
Cardboard
Stirrer

Liquid Copper calorimeter

Figure 7
i) Outline the measurements that should be taken in the experiment. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

ii) Explain how the measurements in (i) above are used to determine the specific heat capacity
of the liquid. (3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii) State one precaution one would take in modifying the setup for accurate results.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

c) An electric heater rated 2kW is used to heat a 400g aluminium container filled with 1kg of
water. Assuming no heat is lost to surrounding; calculate the time taken to raise the
temperature of the water by 10oC.
Take specific heat capacity of aluminium as 900Jkg1k1 and that of water as 4200Jkg1k1.

(3 marks)

17. a) Define the term work and state its SI units. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) A crane lifts a load of 500kg through a vertical distance of 4m in 8 seconds. Determine

i) Work done by the crane. (2 marks)

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ii) Power developed by the crane. (2 marks)

iii) Efficiency of the crane given that it’s operated by an electric motor rated 2.8kW. (3 marks)

iv) State two factors that contribute to the efficiency being less than 100%. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

18. The graph below shows force F applied to a spring and the corresponding length h of the spring.

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a) Use the graph above to find;
i) The length of the unloaded spring. (1 mark)

ii) The gradient of the graph. (2 marks)

iii) The spring constant in SI unit. (2 marks)

b) A body weighing 25N displaces 1.4kg of water when totally immersed in it.

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Find the reading of a spring balance supporting the body in water. (2 marks)

c) When a stone is placed on water, it sinks. But when the same stone is placed on a block of
wood, both are found to float. Explain this observation. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCK
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

232/2

PHYSICS
PAPER 2
(THEORY)
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of two sections, section A and B.
4. Answer all the questions in section A and B in the spaces provided.
Where necessary take: - g = 10N/kg
- Plank’s constant, h = 6.63 × 1034 J.S
- Speed of light, C = 3.0 × 108 ms1
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Section Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
A 113 25
14 11
15 09
B 16 14
17 11
18 10
Total 80

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. An object 10cm tall is placed 20cm infront of a diverging lens of focal length 15cm.
Determine the nature, position and magnification of the image by calculation. (3 marks)

2. Explain why the image formed in a pinhole camera gets blurred when the hole is enlarged.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

3. Figure 1 shows a cell of e.m.f 2.5V connected in series with a resistor R and a switch S.
Voltmeter, V1 and V2 are connected across the cell and the resistor respectively.
V2

S
2.5v

V1
Figure 1
a) State the reading of V1with S open. (1 mark)

b) With S closed, V1 reads 1.6V. State the reading of V2. (1 mark)

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4. Figure 2 shows the image of an object formed by reflection in a converging mirror.
C is the centre of curvature of the mirror.

Figure 2
Complete the diagram to show:
a) How incident rays are reflected to form the image. (2 marks)

b) The object position. (1 mark)

5. The equation below represents a nuclear reaction in which two deuterium nuclei fuse to form
helium and X.
2 2 4 a
1H + 1H 2He + bX

a) Determine the values of a and b. (1 mark)

b) Identify X. (1 mark)

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6. Figure 3 shows a simple transformer connected to a 24v a.c source and an a.c voltmeter.

Secondary
coil V
24V
Primary
coil

Figure 3
By counting the number of turns in each coil, determine the reading on the voltmeter.
(2 marks)

7. In domestic wiring systems lamps in the lighting circuit are required to be in parallel and not
in series. Sate two reasons for this requirement. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

8. Figure 4 shows a narrow beam of x-rays passing between two metal plates in air.
The plates are connected in series with a switch, a cell and a milliameter.

Plate
X-rays
Plate

mA
Figure 4
It is observed that when the switch is closed a current flows in the milliameter.
Explain this observation. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

9. The anode of an x-ray tube becomes hot when the tube is in use. State the reason for this.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
10. Draw a ray diagram to show how a ray of light may be totally internally reflected two times in
an isosceles right-angled glass prism. (Assume that the critical angle of glass is 42oC.)
(2 marks)

11. Given that the velocity of sound in air is 330ms1.

Calculate the wavelength of sound produced by a turning fork rated 0.44 kHz. (2 marks)

12. Figure 5 below shows two bar magnets and soft iron ring placed between the magnets.

S N S N

Figure 5
Complete the diagram to show the magnetic field pattern through the soft iron ring.
(1 mark)

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13. Determine the power of a lens whose focal length is 40cm. (2 marks)

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SECTION B (55 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.
14. a) Explain how a negatively charged electroscope gets discharged when the cap is touched
with a finger using a simple diagram. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

b) Figure 6 shows capacitors A and B connected in series with a battery of e.m.f 4V.

A B

3F 6F

4V
Figure 6
Determine:
i) The effective capacitance of the circuit. (3 marks)

ii) The quantity of charge in capacitor A. (3 marks)

iii) The quantity of charge in capacitor B. (1 mark)

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c) Figure 7 shows an isolated positive point charge Q.

+
Figure 7 Q
On the figure, sketch the electric field pattern around the charge.
(2 marks)
15. a) Figure 8 below shows a cathode ray tube in which a beam of electrons is cast on the screen.
Grid Anodes
Cathode
Screen
A1
A2

-600v
-450v

High voltage
Figure 8 supply

i) State how the electrons are produced in the tube. (1 mark)

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________
ii) State how the electron beam is detected. (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________
iii) State the reason for having a variable potential difference (p.d) at the:
I. grid (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________
II. anodes (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________
b) Figure 9 below shows the wave form of a signal applied at the y-plates of an oscilloscope
whose time base is switched to the scale of 20 milliseconds per centimeter.
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cm

1 2 3 4 5 6 cm

Figure 9
Determine:
i) The period of the signal. (2 marks)

ii) The frequency of the signal. (3 marks)

16. An X-ray tube requires an anode potential of 105V and a current of 0.02A to operate.
Determine:
a) The number of electrons hitting the target per second. (3 marks)

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b) The velocity with which the electrons hit the target.
(e = 1.6 × 1019c, Me = 9.0 × 1031kg) (2 marks)

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c) In an experiment to investigate the relationship between energy of radiation and stopping
potential, the results were shown in a graph below. (Velocity of light = 3 x 10 8 ms1 and e
= 1.6 x 1019c).

5
Stopping potential, Vs (V)

0 x
2 4 6 8 10 12 14
1 Frequency, f (× 1014Hz)

2

From the graph determine:

i) The threshold frequency. (1 mark)

ii) The threshold wavelength. (2 marks)

iii) Planck’s constant. (3 marks)

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iv) The work function. (3 marks)

17. a) A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror as shown in figure 9 below.

o
75
Figure 9
What is the angle of reflection? (1 mark)

b) The mirror is then rotated clockwise through 20 o. Determine:

i) The angle through which the reflected ray is turned. (2 marks)

ii) The angle between the incident ray and new reflected ray. (2 marks)

c) Explain two ways in which power loss is reduced in transmission of mains electricity.
(2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________________
d) The diagram below shows resistors connected in a circuit diagram.

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2.0v
A
2
3
4
i) Determine the effective resistance of the above circuit.
(2 marks)

ii) Determine the ammeter reading. (2 marks)

18. a) The figure 10 shows two coils A and B placed close to each other.
A is connected to a steady D.C supply and a switch, B is connected to a sensitive
galvanometer.

Coil A
Coil B G

i) The switch is now closed. State the observation made on the galvanometer.
(1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________
ii) State what would be observed if the switch is then opened. (1
mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________
b) Define the term electromotive force (e.m.f) of a cell. (1
mark)

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___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________
c) The graph in figure 11 shows how the voltage, v, varies with the current, I for a filament
y
lamp.

Voltage (V)
3

x
0 0.2 0.4 0.6 0.8
Figure 11 I (A)

i) From the graph, determine the resistance of the lamp when a current of 0.4A flows.
(2 marks)

ii) State with a reason whether the device is ohmic or non-ohmic.

(1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________
d) Figure12 shows the variation of voltage against current.

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V (Volts)
1.5

0.2 0.4
I (Amperes)

Given that E = V + Ir
Find from the graph,
i) The e.m.f, E of the cell. (1 mark)

ii) The internal resistance, r, of the cell. (3 marks)

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCK
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

232/3

PHYSICS
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
CONFIDENTIAL
INSTRUCTIONS TO SCHOOLS
1. The information contained in this paper is to enable the head of school and the teacher in charge
of Physics to make adequate preparations for this year’s Physics practical examination. NO
ONE ELSE should have access to this paper or acquire knowledge of its contents. Great
care MUST be taken to ensure that the information herein does not reach the candidates
either directly or indirectly.
2. The Physics teacher is NOT expected to perform the experiments.

3. The apparatus required by each candidate for the Physics practical examination are set out on
page 2.
It is expected that the ordinary apparatus of a Physics laboratory will be available.
The Physics teacher should note that it is his/ her responsibility to ensure that each apparatus
acquired for this examination agrees with the specification on pages 2.

4. The question paper will NOT be opened in advance.

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QUESTION 1
Each candidate to be provided with
- A pendulum bob with a piece of thread (70cm long) attached
- Two pieces of wooden block
- A clamp, boss and retort stand
- A metre rule
- Half metre rule attached to a wooden block
- Cellotape about 15cm long
- A stop watch

QUESTION 2
Part A
- A Nichrome wire, 1m long, mounted on mm scale and labelled PQ at the ends
- A Nichrome wire of length 15cm labelled X
- A 10 ohm resistor labelled Y
- Two dry cells (New – size D)
- A switch
- A voltmeter (0 – 2.5V or any other range)
- 8 connecting wires (4 with crocodile clips)

Part B
- Five optical pins and four office pins
- A plain white A4 piece of paper
- Soft board
- Glass slab

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SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

232/3

PHYSICS
PAPER 3
(PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of two questions.
4. Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the question paper.
5. All working must be clearly shown.
6. You are not allowed to start working with the apparatus for the first ¼ hours of the 2½ hours
allowed for this paper. This time is to enable you read the question paper and make sure you
have all the apparatus you may need.
7.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
Question 1 a(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) b(i) (ii) Total
Maximum score 1 6 5 2 1 2 3
Candidate’s
score

Question 2 a(iv) b(iii) c d(i) (ii) e h(i) h(ii) h(iii) h(iv) Total Grand total
Maximum 2 2 6 1 1 2 2 2 1 1
score
Candidate’s
score

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1. You are provided with:
- A pendulum bob with a piece of thread attached
- Two wooden blocks
- Clamp, boss and retort stand
- Metre rule
- Half metre rule attached to wooden block
- Cellotape about 10cm long
- Stop watch

Proceed as follows
a) Fix the thread between the two wooden blocks and fasten in the clamp. Adjust the thread so
that the length L shown below is 50.0cm. Fix the metre rule horizontally to the bench using the
cellotape provided. Adjust the clamp so that the pendulum bob is next to the end of the metre
rule as shown. String

Wooden block

Half-metre rule
L

Pendulum h Wooden
Metre rule
bob block

i) Displace the marble by a horizontal distance x = 20cm and measure the corresponding vertical
displacement h = _____________________cm
(1 mark)
ii) Repeat the experiment to find h for each of the following values of x : 25cm, 30cm, 35cm,
40cm and 45cm. Complete the table below.
(6 marks)
x (cm) h (cm) x2 (cm2) x2
(cm)
h

20 400

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25 625

30 900

35 1225

40 1600

45 2025

x2
iii) Plot the graph of (y – axis) against h. (5 marks)
h

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iv) Determine the slope of the graph. (2 marks)

x2
v) From the graph, find the value of when h = 0. (1 mark)
h

b) Raise the clamp slightly without changing the length L so that the pendulum is free to swing.
i) Determine the period, T, for one oscillation by timing 20 oscillations.
Time for 20 oscillations = _______________________seconds (1 mark)

ii) Period T = _________________________ seconds

(1 mark)

iii) Calculate the value of P from the following equation. (3 marks)

P
T = 2π √ where g = 10ms2
g

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2. Part A
You are provided with:
- A Nichrome wire, 1m long, mounted on mm scale and labelled PQ at the ends.
- A Nichrome wire of length 15cm labelled X
- A 10 ohm resistor labelled Y
- A dry cell (New)
- A switch
- A voltmeter (0 – 2.5V) and
- 8 connecting wires (4 with crocodile clips)

Proceed as follows
a) i) Set up your apparatus as shown.
Cell
Switch

P L Q
Jockey

X
Y
i) Close the switch, place the jockey at P and then at Q. (The voltmeter deflects in opposite
directions)
iii) Place the contact J, 5cm from Q and record the voltmeter reading.
iv) Repeat this for values of L indicated in table 2. Record the corresponding values of V.
Length (cm) 5 15 25 35 45

V (volts)

Table 2
(2 marks)
b) i) Interchange the voltmeter terminals. Place jockey at P and make sure the voltmeter pointer
deflects to the right.
ii) Place the jockey on the wire 95cm from Q and record the voltmeter reading.
iii) Repeat this for values of L given in table 3.
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Length (cm) 95 90 85 80 75

V (volts)

Table 3 (2 marks)
c) On the same axis plot two graphs of V(y – axis) against L using the values in table 2 and table
3.
(6 marks)

d) From your graphs determine.

i) The value of V when L = 0 (1 mark)

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ii) The value of L where the two graphs intersect. (1 mark)
L = ____________________________________

e) Work out the value of the unknown resistance of wire X, RX using the expression.
Where Ry is the resistance of resistor y.
(2 marks)
RX L
=
RY 100−L

Part B
f) You are provided with the apparatus below.
- Five optical pins and four office pins
- A plain white A4 piece of paper
- Soft board
- Glass slab

Place the glass slab on the white piece of paper and trace its outline. Secure it in place (In its
position) by the office pins A, B, C, D as shown in the diagram below.

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P4
E2 P3 A B

Q P (Pin)

P1
P2
E1 D C

g) i) Fix the pin P firmly at the end of the slab and with your eye E 1 at the opposite of the slab
fix pin P1 and then P2 in line with the image I of the pin (See diagram)
Remove the pins P1 and P2 and mark their positions P1 and P2 respectively.
ii) Similarly fix P3 and then P4 so that they are in line with the image I of P. Again remove
the pins P3 and P4 and mark their positions respectively. Remove the glass slab and pins
ABCD
h) Join P1P2 produced with the tracing of the slab outline. Join P3P4 produced to intersect line
P1P2.
Label this point of intersection I, the supposed position of the image of pin P.
i) Submit the plain paper used in the experiment. (2 marks)

ii) Measure the lengths QP and QI

QP (1 mark)

QI (1 mark)

QP
iii) Determine the ratio (1 mark)
QI

iv) What is the significance of the ratio in (II) above? (1 mark)

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443/1

AGRICULTURE
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.
4) Answer all the questions in section A and B and any two questions from section C.
5) All answers must be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
6) This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
7) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1  17 30
B 18  21 20
20
C
20
TOTAL SCORE 90

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SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section.
1. Give four methods of applying fertilizers to crops. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2. State four beneficial biotic factors that influence agriculture. (2 marks)

3. Give four branches of Agriculture. (2 marks)

4. State four advantages of co-operative land tenure system. (2 marks)

5. State four benefits of organic mulch in crop production. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

6. State four conditions under which shifting cultivation is practiced. (2 marks)

7. Give four effects of mass wasting. (2 marks)

8. Give four factors that affect the rooting of cuttings. (2 marks)

9. Name four details that are included in a farm marketing record. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

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10. Give four examples of product-product relationships in the management of agricultural
enterprises.
(2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

11. State three entries that are made in a journal. (1½ marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

12. Give two reasons for cutting back pyrethrum. (1 mark)

13. State three parameters used to indicate national development. (1½ mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

14. State four symptoms of viral diseases in crops. (2 marks)

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15. Give four reasons for draining land as part of land reclamation. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

16. State two reasons for topping a pasture. (1 mark)

17. State two advantages of metal pipes over plastic pipes in piping water in the farm.(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

SECTION A (30 MARKS)

Answer ALL questions in this section.
18. Study the following weeds and answer questions that follow.

a) Give the identity of weeds J and K. (2 marks)

J ________________________________________________
K ________________________________________________
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b) What makes weed K difficult to control? (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) Give the economic importance of weed J. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
d) State one reason that makes weeds excellently adapted to various environments.(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
19. Study the diagram below of a method of compost making and answer the questions that
follow.

a) Identify the methods of compost making. (1 mark)

b) State four factors to consider when siting the structure. (2 marks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
c) What is the function of the following materials in preparation of compost manure?
i) Top soil (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
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ii) Wood ash (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

20. Two maize pests are shown in the diagram below. Study them and answer questions that
follow.

a) Identify the pests in the diagram labeled A and B. (1 mark)

A ______________________________________
B ______________________________________
b) At what stage of maize production does each pest damage the crop? (2 marks)
A ______________________________________
B ______________________________________
c) Give one way of controlling each of the pests in the field. (2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
21. The diagram below represents a vegetative material used to prepare a certain crop.
Study them and answer the questions that follow.

i) Give the name of the material illustrated above. (1 mark)

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ii) Give the name of the preparation done on the material to make it ready for planting.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

iii) State three advantages of carrying out the practice in (ii) above before planting.(3 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………………….

SECTION C (40 MARKS)

Answer ANY TWO questions from this section in the spaces provided
22. a) Describe the growing of dry bean seeds under the following subheadings.
- Selection and preparation of planting materials (3 marks)
- Planting (4 marks)
- Weeding (3 marks)
b) Describe the environmental conditions that may lead to low crop yields. (10 marks)

23. a) Explain six factors considered in designing a crop rotation programme (6 marks)
b) Explain the factors that influence the type of irrigation to be used in a farm.(8 marks)
c) Explain six post-harvest practiced carried out on production of maize. (6 marks)

24. a) Explain five advantages of budgeting in farming. (10 marks)

b) Explain five various types of risks and uncertainties. (5 marks)
c) Describe the importance of pruning perennial crops. (5 marks)

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SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

443/2

AGRICULTURE
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
2) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
3) This paper consists of three sections: A, B and C.
4) Answer all the questions in section A and B and any two questions from section C.
5) All answers must be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
6) This paper consists of 12 printed pages.
7) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

SECTION QUESTIONS MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATES SCORE
A 1  18 30
B 19  22 20
20
C
20
TOTAL SCORE 90

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SECTION A (30 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.
1. Give three factors that affect the quality of honey. (1½ marks)
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2. State three conditions that make a cow to withhold milk during milking. (1½ marks)
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3. State four signs of furrowing observed in pigs. (2 marks)

4. Give three factors that may make birds to lay eggs on the floor in a deep litter. (1½ marks)
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5. Give three characteristics of clean and high quality milk. (1½ mark)
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6. Outline four control measures of round worms. (2 marks)
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7. State four signs of liver fluke infestation in cattle. (2 marks)

8. Give four reasons of breeding in cattle. (2 marks)

9. List four methods of preserving fish. (2 marks)

10. Name two classes of livestock feedstuffs. (1 mark)

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11. Give two roles of ovaries in cows’ reproductive system. (l mark)

12. Give two reasons for flushing in sheep. (1 mark)

13. Give four reasons for treating timber used in construction of farm buildings. (2 marks)
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14. State four factors that influence the daily water intake in an animal. (2 marks)
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15. Name two functions of a clutch in the tractors transmission system. (1 mark)
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16. Give four characteristics of a good calf pen. (2 marks)
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17. State four factors that influence the choice of the poultry system of rearing to use. (2 marks)
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18. State four routine management practices carried out on a replacement stock that is a heifer.
(2 marks)
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SECTION B (20 MARKS)
Answer ALL questions in this section in the spaces provided.
19. The diagram below is a cross section of part of a cow's udder.

C D

a) Name the parts marked A, B, C and D. (2 marks)

A _________________________________________
B _________________________________________
C _________________________________________
D _________________________________________
b) Name two hormones that control milk let down in a dairy cow. (2 marks)
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c) What is a dry cow therapy? (1 mark)

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20. The diagram below shows the head of a chicken having symptoms of a poultry disease.

Lessions

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a) Identify the disease. (1 mark)
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b) Give two reasons why the disease is of economic importance. (2 marks)

c) Outline two methods of controlling the above disease. (2 marks)

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21. The following diagram shows parts of a roof. Study it carefully and answer the questions that
follow.

Q R

a) Name the parts labeled P, Q, R and S.

(2 marks)
P _________________________________________
Q _________________________________________
R _________________________________________
S _________________________________________
b) State the functions of P and Q. (2 marks)
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c) Give two chemical preservatives for treating timber before use in the construction of farm
structures. (2 marks)
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22. Below is a diagram of power transmission system of tractor engine.
Study it and answer the question that follows.
G
Gear box
Gear level
E F

Connecting rod

Axle
H
a) Name the parts labeled E, F, G and H. (2 marks)
E _________________________________________
F _________________________________________
G _________________________________________
H _________________________________________
b) State the functions of E and H. (2 marks)
E
___________________________________________________________________________
H
___________________________________________________________________________

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SECTION C (40 MARKS)
Answer ANY TWO questions from this section.
23. a) Describe five pre-disposing factors of livestock diseases. (5 marks)
b) Describe six mechanical methods of controlling ticks. (6 marks)
c) Describe the factors that affect milk composition of a cow. (9 marks)

24. a) State five advantages of farm mechanization. (5 marks)

b) Explain five advantages of using a mould board plough in seed bed preparation.(5 mks)
c) Describe the use of various materials in construction of a Kenya Top bar hive.(5 marks)
d) Outline the care and maintenance of a tractor water cooling system. (5 marks)

25. a) State four physical characteristics of a dairy cow. (4 marks)

b) State nine factors to consider when selecting livestock for breeding. (9 marks)
c) Describe milk fever in dairy cattle under the following sub-headings.
i) The cause of the disease (1 mark)
ii) Symptoms of the disease (4 marks)
iii) Control measures (2 marks)
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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCK
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

565/1

BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS OF CANDIDATES
a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
c) Answer ALL the questions.
d) ALL answers must be written in the spaces provided in this booklet.
e) Do not remove any pages from this booklet.
f) This paper consists of 7 printed pages.
g) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

QUESTIONS 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
MARKS

QUESTIONS 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
MARKS

GRAND
TOTAL

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1. Highlight four advantages of using modern technology in production. (4 marks)
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2. State four types of complaints that a consumer organization may receive from consumers.
(4 marks)
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3. Outline four features of parastatals. (4 marks)

4. State four reasons why ethical practice is necessary in product promotion. (4 marks)
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5. Outline four advantages of hire purchase to the buyer. (4 marks)
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6. State the ledger in which of the following accounts are kept. (4 marks)

Account Ledger

Rent a/c
Cash a/c
Debtors a/c
Creditors a/c

7. Outline four factors that may make a producer to by-pass a wholesaler when distributing
goods. (4 marks)
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8. Country X is experiencing unfavorable terms of trade.
State four factors that are likely lead to such a situation. (4 marks)
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9. The following are some of the source documents used in accounting: credit note issued, cash
sale receipt, credit note received and invoice issued. Match each of the following books of original
entry with the relevant source document. (4 marks)

Book of original entry Source document

Sales returns book

Sales daily book

Purchases return book

Cash book

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10. State four reasons why flower exporters would transport their produce by air rather than by
sea. (4 marks)
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11. Outline four circumstances that may necessitate re-insurance. (4 marks)

12. The following balances were extracted from the books of Saku traders on 31 st march 2010.
Fixed assets 300,000
Current assets 123, 700
Creditors 84,500
5 year loan 125,000
Determine the net worth of the business as at 31st march 2010 . (4 marks)

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13. State four problems associated with development planning. (4 marks)
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14. Outline four demerits of indirect tax. (4 marks)

15. List four factors that may limit entrepreneurs in an area. (4 marks)
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16. Outline four challenges that may be encountered when measuring national income using the
output approach. (4 marks)
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17. The table below represents the demand schedule for tea leaves in 6 months in 2015.
Months 1 2 3 4 5 6
Quantity 200 400 600 800 1000 1200
(kgs)

Outline four causes of the trend in the table. (4 marks)

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18. State four basic features of a market. (4 marks)

19. Sate four external factors that may negatively influence the operation of a business.(4 marks)
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20. Highlight four negative effects of inflation. (4 marks)

21. Outline four benefits to a business that uses its own warehouse. (4 marks)
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22. The following balances were extracted from the books of Wekesa Traders on 31 st December
2009.
Item Sh
Capital 500,000
Cash in Hand 20,000
Building 200,000
Furniture 25,000
Motor vehicle 400,000
Creditors 18,000
Debtors 36,000
Bank 100,000
Bank loan 263,000
Using the above information prepare Wekesa traders trial balance as at 31st December 2009 .
(4 marks)

23. Outline four reasons why hypermarkets are becoming increasingly popular in Kenya.
(4 marks)
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24. The table below shows the age distribution of a country.
Age in Years % population
0 – 15 45
16 – 55 31
56 and above 24
Highlight four negative economic implication of this age distribution to the country.
(4 marks)
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25. Outline four measures that a manager can take to improve the working environment in an
office.
(4 marks)
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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

565/2

BUSINESS STUDIES
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of 6 questions.
4. Answer any five questions.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Question Maximum score Candidate’s score
1 20
2 20
3 20
4 20
5 20
6 20
Total score

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1. a) Discuss five causes of unemployment in Kenya today. (10 marks)
b) Explain five roles of transport to the economy of a country. (10 marks)

2. a) Discus five roles of public finance. (10 marks)

b) Explain five barriers to effective communication. (10 marks)

3. a) Highlight four problems likely to be faced by consumers when a firm operates as a

Monopoly. (8 marks)
b) The following trial balance was extracted from the books of Tumaini Traders as at 30 th
June 2015.
DETAILS DR CR
Stock on 1st July 2014 180,000
Debtors and creditors 195,000 120,000
Discounts 75,000 96,000
Sales and purchases 1,200,000 1,740,000
Premises 1,630,000
Carriage outwards 24,000
Returns 60,000 150,000
Fixture and fittings 300,000
Carriage inwards 100,000
Machinery 600,000
Commissions 48,000 42,000
Capital 2,454,000
Wages & salaries 90,000
Cash in Bank 420,000
Rent income 110, 000
4,712,000 4,712,000

Additional information
Closing stock was valued at sh 210,000.

Required
i) Prepare a trading, profit and loss account for the year ended 30 th June 2015.(8 marks)

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ii) Prepare Tumaini Trades balance sheet as at 31st June 2015. (4 marks)

4. a) Explain five ways in which the nature of a commodity may influence its distribution.
(10 marks)
b) Outline five differences between a public limited company and partnership form of a
business. (10 marks)
5. a) Explain five reasons for continued existence of small firms alongside large firms.
(10 marks)
b) Explain five benefits enjoyed by a firm that has expanded its scale operations.
(10 marks)

6. a) Explain five instruments of monetary policy a central bank may use to reduce money
supply in a country. (10 marks)
b) On January 2005 Njeri traders had the following transactions.
2005
January 1: Started business with capital sh.80,000 cash and sh.200,000 at the bank
2: Bought furniture by cheque sh.20,000
3: Bought goods by cheque sh.70,000
8: Received cash from Chemai sh.19,000 having allowed him a cash discount of
sh.1,000
9: Paid the following accounts by cheque:-
Muthoni sh.30,000, Salim sh.15,000 and Kiptoo sh.26,000 having
deducted 10% discount in each case
12: Cash sales sh.14,000, paid for postage in cash sh.2,000
16: Received a cheque of sh.27,500 from Ngondi in full settlements of his
account of sh.30,000
20: Received cheque of the following amounts from: Adijah sh.18,000,
Adongo sh.28,800 and Maranga sh.12,600. The business had allowed each of them a discount of
10%
Required:
Prepare a three column cashbook and balance it off. (10 marks)

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NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

313/1

CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION

PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of six questions.
4. Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.
5. This paper consists of 2 printed pages.
6. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions
are missing.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 Candidates total score

Candidates Score

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1. a) Give reasons why the Bible is referred to as a library. (5 marks)
b) Outline five effects of translation of the Bible into local languages. (10 marks)
c) State five ways through which the church is spreading the word of God in Kenya.(5 mks)

2. a) State the characteristics of the covenant between God and Abraham. (5 marks)
b) Explain the importance of God’s covenant with Abraham. (10 marks)
c) What lessons do Christians learn from the incident when Abraham was willing to
sacrifice his son Isaac? (5 marks)

3. a) Describe the contest between prophet Elijah and the prophets of Baal at Mount Carmel
(1st kings 18:17 – 40). (7 marks)
b) Give four conditions that made it difficult for Prophet Elijah to stop idolatry in Israel.
(8 marks)
c) Identify five qualities of Prophet Elijah that a Christian leader should possess.(5 marks)

4. a) Give four similarities between prophets in the Old Testament and Traditional African
Communities. (8 marks)
b) State four ways in which the rich oppressed the poor during the time of Prophet Amos.
(8 marks)
c) State the relevance of Prophet Amos’ teaching on election of Israel to Christians in
Kenya today. (4 marks)

5. a) Outline the stages followed in the renewal of the covenant during the time of
Nehemiah. (8 marks)
b) Give six reasons why Nehemiah carried out the renewal of the covenant in Judah.(6 mks)
c) What lessons do Christians learn from renewal of the covenant by Nehemiah?(6 marks)

6. a) Describe the Traditional African views of a community. (8 marks)

b) Explain six factors that have affected the Traditional African people’s dependence
on God. (6 marks)
c) Outline six similarities between Christian and traditional African ways of showing
respect to God. (6 marks)

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SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

313/2
CHRISTIAN RELIGIOUS EDUCATION
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1. Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
2. Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided above.
3. This paper consists of six questions.
4. Answer any five questions in the answer booklet provided.
5. This paper consists of 2 printed pages.
6. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions
are missing.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 Candidates total score

Candidates Score

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1. a) Basing your answer on the infancy narratives in Luke 1:5 – 56, describe what took
place when Mary visited Elizabeth. (6 marks)
b) Identify six lessons that Christians learn from the lives of Zachariah and Elizabeth.
(6 marks)
c) State eight ways through which Christians in Kenya express their joy for the birth
of Jesus. (8 marks)

2. a) Explain the reasons why Jesus used parables in His teachings. ( 8 marks)
b) Why were people amazed or astonished at the way Jesus taught? (6 marks)
c) What lessons can Christians learn from the parable of the Mustard Seed? (6 marks)

3. a) With reference to the sermon on the plain, state five teachings of Jesus on how
human beings should relate to one another. (5 marks)
b) Describe the incident in which Jesus calmed the storm in Luke 8:22 – 25. (10 marks)
c) Identify five virtues that Christians learn from the miracle of the feeding of the five
thousand. (5 marks)

4. a) Identify five fruits of the Holy Spirit taught by Saint Paul in Galatians 5:22 – 23.(5 mks)
b) Explain the teachings of Jesus about the Vine and the Branches in
John 15:1 – 10 reveal about the unity of believers. (8 marks)
c) Give seven ways in which Christians prevent division in the church today (7 marks)

5. a) Outline eight Christian teachings on work. (8 marks)

b) State the role and professional ethics in a work place. (6 marks)
c) Identify six ways which the church is helping to reduce the rate of unemployment
in Kenya today. (6 marks)

6. a) Give six reasons why it is important to have laws in a country. (6 marks)

b) Outline eight problems related to maintenance of law and order. (8 marks)
c) Identify ways in which Kenya help those who have been released from prison.
(6 marks)

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311/1

HISTORY & GOVERNMENT

PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
2) Answer ALL the questions in section A, THREE questions from section B and TWO
questions from Section C.
3) Answers to all the questions must be written in the answer booklet provided.
4) This paper consists of 2 printed pages.
5) Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions
are missing.
6) Candidates should answer the questions in English.

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
1. Identify one advantage of using oral traditions as a source of information in History
and Government. (1 mark)
2. Which Kalenjin speakers remained at Mt. Elgon during their migration and settlement during
19th century? (2 marks)
3. Give the main reason why the Portuguese conquered East Africa so easily. (1 mark)
4. Give two political rights of the youth guaranteed in the new constitution of Kenya.
(2 marks)
5. How does the constitution guarantee national unity? (2 marks)
6. State one way in which East Africa slave trade undermined local industries. (1 mark)
7. What was the main reason for calling of the Anglo-Germany treaty of 1890? (1 mark)
8. What was the main outcome of the Devonshire White Paper of 1923? (1 mark)
9. Give two reasons for the calling of the Second Lancaster House Conference of 1962.
(2 marks)
10. State the importance of affiliation of the Kenya Federation of Labour under Tom Mboya
to the International Trade Union. (1 mark)
11. What was the main reason why the British compelled the Africans to pay hut tax?(1 mark)
12. Give two reasons why the Akamba exhibited mixed reaction to establishment of colonial
rule. (2 marks)
13. What is contained in a national budget? (2 marks)
14. Give one house committee of parliament which deals with government financial matters.
(1 mark)
15. Give two occasions when the president attends parliament. (2 marks)
16. Identify two political events that threatened the stability of Kenya between 1975 and 1978.
(2 marks)
17. Name the fund into which all government revenue is paid. (1 mark)

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SECTION B (45 MARKS)
Answer any three questions from this section.
18. a) Give three social reasons for the coming of the Christian missionaries to Kenya. (3 mks)
b) Explain six factors that facilitated the spread of Christianity in Kenya. (12 marks)

19. a) Highlight five reasons leading African communities to collaborate with colonialists.
(5 marks)
b) Explain the results of the Maasai collaboration with the British. (10 marks)

20. a) State three political development which hastened the achievement of independence in
Kenya between 1945 and 1963. (3 marks)
b) Discuss six roles of Wangari Maathai in the history of Kenya. (12 marks)

21. a) State five internal factors that led to the revival of Multi-party politics in Kenya from
1991. (5 marks)
b) Explain five challenges experienced in implementing multi-party democracy in Kenya.
(10 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section.
22. a) How does the Kenyan government ensure that rule of law is upheld in the country?
(3 marks)
b) Explain six efforts made by the government of Kenya to promote national unity.(12Mks)

23. a) Outline three responsibilities of the secretary to the Cabinet. (3 marks)

b) Discuss the functions of the Supreme Court. (12 marks)

24. a) Identify five duties of a returning officer. (5 marks)

b) Discuss the electoral process in Kenya. (10 marks)

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311/2

HISTORY & GOVERNMENT

PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section.
1. Name one distinct stage in which evolution of man took place. (1 mark)
2. Mention one chemical dating method used by the archeologists. (1 mark)
3. Identify two hunting methods used by early man. (2 marks)
4. State two theories that explain the origin and spread of agriculture. (2 marks)
5. What was the main reason behind the spread of agriculture in USA? (1 mark)
6. Give two characteristic of currency as a method of trade. (2 marks)
7. Apart from Ghana and Mali, name any other empire that developed as a result of
Trans-Saharan Trade. (1 mark)
8. Define “space age”. (1 mark)
9. Name the people accredited to the invention of stone tablets as a means of communication.
(1 mark)
10. Highlight two major factors that contributed to the decline of Meroe as an urban centre.
(2 marks)
11. Mention one activity that took place during the Odwira festival. (1 mark)
12. Name two leaders who prepared African forces in majimaji rebellion. (2 marks)
13. State two types of nationalism expressed in South Africa. (2 marks)
14. Identify the rival movement formed in Mozambique to counter FRELIMO in 1965.
(1 mark)
15. Name two weapons that were introduced in a bid to end the stalemate during the
First World War. (2 marks)
16. Name two wars that occurred because of Cold War. (2 marks)
17. Identify the organ that keeps annual register of voter in Britain. (1 mark)

SECTION B (45 MARKS)

Answer any three questions from this section.
18. a) State five factors that favoured the beginning of early agriculture during the
New Stone Age. (5 marks)
b) Explain five effects of early agriculture in Egypt. (10 marks)

19. a) Identify three sub-groups of the Shona. (3 marks)

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b) Discuss the political organization of the Shona. (12 marks)

20. a) Identify three factors that led to the industrial recovery of West Germany after
World War II. (3 marks)
b) Explain six challenges facing industrialization in India. (12 marks)

21. a) Outline three economic factors that led to the scramble and partition of Africa.(3 mks)
b) Explain six reasons why the Mandika resistance took long to suppress. (12 marks)

SECTION C (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section
22. a) Identify three main bodies of the League of Nations. (3 marks)
b) Explain six problems faced by the League of Nations. (12 marks)

23. a) State five causes of Second World War. (5 marks)

b) Explain five reasons why the Axis were defeated during the Second World War.
(10 marks)

24. a) State five symbolic and ceremonial significance of the British Monarch. (5 marks)
b) Explain five ways in which powers of an American president are checked. (10 marks)

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312/1

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS 45 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) This paper has two sections, A and B.
2) Answer all the questions in section A.
3) Answer question 6 and any other two questions from section B.
4) All answers must be written in the answer booklet provided.
5) This paper consists of 4 printed pages.
6) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section
1. a) State briefly three ways how air pressure influences the weather of a place. (3 marks)
b) Identify two Global winds that influence the climate of Kenya. (2 marks)

2. a) Give two examples of chemically formed sedimentary rocks. (2 marks)

b) State three conditions necessary for the growth of coral. (3 marks)

3. a) Name the two theories that explain the origin of the earth. (2 marks)
b) Give three proofs that the earth is oblate spheroid. (3 marks)

4. a) Name the categories of lakes formed by earth movement. (2 marks)

b) Give two examples from East Africa of each category named in (a). (2 marks)

5. a) Define of hydrological cycle. (2 marks)

b) State four factors that determine the amount of water that sinks into the ground or flows
on the surface. (4 marks)

SECTION B (75 MARKS)

Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section.
6. Study the map of Kitale 1:50,000 (sheet 75/3) provided and answer the following questions.
a) i) Identify two human made features found at the grid square 2320. (2 marks)
ii) What is the altitude of the highest point in the area covered by the map? (2 marks)
iii) Give three types of natural vegetation found in the area East of Easting 40 and North of
Northing 27. (3 marks)
b) i) What is the bearing of air photo principle point at grid square 2931 from the air photo
principle point at grid square 3426. (2 marks)
ii) Measure the distance of the dry weather road (C640) from the junction at point
M(345142) to the junction at N(416200) give your answer in kilometres. (2 marks)

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c) i) Draw a rectangle measuring 3 cm by 4 cm to represent the area in the map extract
bounded by Easting’s 28 and 31 and Northing’s 11 and 15. (1 mark)
ii) On the rectangle drawn, mark and name the following;
 Loose surface road (1 mark)
 Air photo principle point (1 mark)
 Swamp (1 mark)
 Pond (1 mark)

d) i) Identify four social services offered in Kitale Municipality. (4 marks)

ii) Describe the drainage of the area covered by the map. (5 marks)

7. Use the map below to answer questions (a) and (b).

Q Q
Q
Q

S
R

a) Name;
i) The type of climate found in the shaded area marked Q. (1 mark)
ii) The ocean current marked R and S. (2 marks)
b) Describe the characteristics of the type of climate found in the shaded area marked T.
(8 marks)
c) Explain how the following factors influence climate.
i) Altitude (4 marks)
ii) Distance from the sea (4 marks)
d) i) Explain two effects of climate change to the physical environment. (4 marks)
ii) State two climatical conditions experienced in the Sahara desert. (2 marks)

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8. a) i) Identify two factors that influence glacial erosion. (2 marks)
ii) The diagram below shows the long profile of a glacial trough.
Study it carefully and answer the questions that follow.

1
Steep trough end

2
3 4 5
6

Name the parts labeled 1 to 6. (6 marks)

b) Describe the four various ways in which tills are formed at the coast. (8 marks)
c) i) What is an erratic? (2 marks)
ii) Give three examples of areas with erratics. (3 marks)
d) A field study was carried out in an area affected by wind action.
i) List two types of interviews the study would have made use of. (2 marks)
ii) Give two problems the researcher would have experienced. (2 marks)

9. a) What is natural vegetation? (2 marks)

b) i) Give the types of grassland vegetation found in the following countries. (3 marks)
- New Zealand
- Argentina
- South Africa
ii) State two factors why mountain tops have no vegetation. (2 marks)
c) i) Explain four ways in which coniferous forest is adapted to the climatic conditions.
(8 marks)
ii) Explain how the following factors influence the distribution of vegetation.
- Altitude (2 marks)
- Human beings (2 marks)
d) You are planning to carry out a fieldstudy on the forest vegetation near your school.
i) State four reasons why it is necessary to have a route map. (4 marks)
ii) Give two reasons why you need a tape measure. (2 marks)

10. a) i) What is soil? (2 marks)

ii) Give three components of soils. (3 marks)

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b) The diagram below shows different layers of soil. Use it to answer questions b) i), ii), iii).

Humus

++ + + +
+ B
+ + + + +
C

A SOIL PROFILE

i) Name the soil layers marked B, C, and D. (3 marks)

ii) Give two main processes of soil formation which takes place in horizon A. (2 marks)
iii) Name four characteristics of soil in horizon B. (4 marks)
c) Explain how the following helps in the maintenance of soil fertility and quality.
- Crop rotation (2 marks)
- Mixed farming (2 marks)
- Bush fallowing (2 marks)
d) State five significances of soils to human activities. (5 marks)

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312/2

GEOGRAPHY
PAPER 2
TIME: 2 HOURS 45 MINUTES

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SECTION A (25 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions in this section
1. a) Name any two underground mining methods. (2 marks)
b) State any three negative effects of mining on the environment. (3 marks)

2. a) List down three human factors that favour wildlife conservation. (3 marks)
b) State two advantages of domestic tourism in Kenya. (2 marks)

3. a) What are floods? (2 marks)

b) Name three rivers in Kenya which cause large scale flooding. (3 marks)

4. a) Define the following terms;

i) Fertility rate (1 mark)
ii) Mortality rate (1 mark)
b) State three types of information that may be derived from an age-sex pyramid. (3 marks)

5. Use the map of East Africa below to answer the questions that follow.

Kampala
S

Q Mombasa

P
R
Dar es salam

a) Name the towns marked P, Q and R. (3 marks)

b) State two major functions of the town marked S. (2 marks)

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SECTION B (75 MARKS)
Answer question 6 and any other two questions from this section
6. The table below shows the value of export crops from Kenya in the year 1995.
Use it to answer the questions below.
Crop / Year 1995

Maize 224,000,000
Coffee 168,000,000

Tea 320,000,000

Horticultural 190,000,000

TOTAL 902,000,000

a) i) Draw a divided rectangle measuring 15cm to represent the above data. (9 marks)
ii) State three advantages of using divided rectangles to represent geographical data.
(3 marks)
b) State four physical conditions that favour coffee growing in Kenya highlands. (4 marks)
c) Describe the processing of coffee from harvesting to marketing. (6 marks)
d) List three ways in which planted coffee is taken care by farmers. (3 marks)

7. Use the map of Kenya below to answer question 7. a) i), ii) and iii).

L. Baringo
Y Z
X

a) i) Identify the irrigation schemes marked X, Y and Z and in each case the main crop grown.
(6 marks)

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ii) Explain four factors that led to the location of irrigation scheme Y. (8 marks)
iii) State four problems that are experienced in the irrigation marked Z. (4 marks)
b) What is a polder? (2 marks)
c) Give five benefits of the Zuyder Zee project. (5 marks)

8. a) i) Name two types of fishing grounds in Kenya. (2 marks)

ii) Give two types of fishing methods. (2 marks)
ii) Give four reasons why marine fishing industry in east Africa is not well developed.
` (4 marks)

b) Explain four ways in which marine fisheries are being conserved in Kenya. (8 marks)
c) Use the map of North America below to answer questions (i) and (ii).

i) Name one method of fishing used in the shaded area. (1 mark)

ii) Name ocean currents marked Q and R. (2 marks)
d) Explain why major fishing grounds of the world are located in the temperate latitudes
of the northern hemisphere. (6 marks)

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9. a) Distinguish between manufacturing and tertiary industries. (2 marks)
b) i) Name four agricultural food processing industries in Kenya. (4 marks)
ii) Explain four factors that influenced the location of the iron and steel industries in
the Ruhr region of Germany. (8 marks)
c) Give five reasons why the government of Kenya encourages the establishment of Jua
Kali industries. (5 marks)
d) You intend to carry out a field study in a coffee factor near your school.
i) State three reasons why you would visit the area of study in advance. (3 marks)
ii) You have prepared a working schedule for your study.
State three items you would include in your schedule. (3 marks)

10. a) Draw an outline map of Kenya. (2 marks)

b) On the map indicate the following forests. (3 marks)
i) Kakamega forest
ii) Mt. Kenya forest
iii) Arabuko sokoke forest
c) i) Name three natural causes of forest depletion. (3 marks)
ii) Describe four problems facing forests in Kenya. (8 marks)
d) i) State three factors favouring production of soft wood forests in Canada. (3 marks)
ii) Explain three reasons why the Kenyan government should conserve her forests.
(6 marks)

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101/1

ENGLISH
(FUNCTIONAL WRITING)
PAPER 1
TIME: 2 HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
1) Write your name, index number, signature and date in the spaces provided above.
2) Answer ALL the questions in this paper.
3) All answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
4) This paper consists of 7 printed pages.
5) Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are
missing.
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
1 20
2 10
3 30
TOTAL SCORE 60

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1. FUNCTIONAL WRITING (20 marks)
Imagine that you are the secretary of the Drama club in your school. The club is organizing an
Annual Drama club party. The chairperson of the club in the previous year was a candidate
and performed exemplary well in the KCSE and was admitted in one of the public universities
in Kenya.
a) Design an invitation card to be sent to her. (12 marks)
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Write a congratulatory note to her to be presented that day. (8 marks)

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CLOZE TEST (10 marks)
Read the passage below and fill in each blank space with an appropriate word.
Many of our villages are greatly (1)__________________ by the rising rate of insecurity.
Barely does a day (2)__________________ before one hears of burglary here or a car-jacking
there. Majority of the (3)__________________ are innocent citizens (4)__________________
have, toiled for years to acquire the property they have. What is particularly
(5)__________________ is that despite the efforts of the authorities (6)_______________ still
needs to be done. Although the police (7)_______________ has come up with the idea of
community policing, a lot still remains to be done. Sometimes it’s (8)__________________
for people to reveal the identity of the culprits even if they are members of their families.
(9)__________________, this is the only way we can root out the bad elements from our
communities. (10)__________________ this doesn’t happen, we will always cry over spilt
milk.

2. ORAL SKILLS (30 marks)

I. Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow.
Keep it Dark
Keep it dark!
Don’t tell your wife
For your wife is a log
Who will burst into flame!
Keep it dark!

Keep it dark!
Don’t tell your wife
For your wife is a pot
That is blown by the breeze
And then bang!
It’s all out and about

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Questions
a) Identify two aspects that make the poem to be categorized as oral. (2 marks)
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b) Which aspect of style enhances the message? (1 mark)

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c) How would you make the recitation of this poem lively? (2 marks)
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d) How would you recite the second line of the first stanza? (1 mark)
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e) Which words would you stress in the third line of the first stanza? Explain. (1 mark)
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II. Identify the word with a different sound. (4 marks)

a) Excited Packet Laughed
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b) Leisure Measure Pressure

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c) Echoes Arch Monarchy

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d) Leaf Dough Rough
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III. Read the items below and answer the questions that follow.
a) Hurry hurry has no blessings.
b) He who laughs last laughs the loudest.

Questions
a) Name the category to which the items belong. (1 mark)
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b) Identify and illustrate two aspects of sound used in each of the items above. (4 marks)
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c) Give two characteristics of the above genre. (2 marks)

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IV. Provide the homophones of these words. (2 marks)
i) Bow………………………………………………………………………………………
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ii) Fir…………………………………………………………………………………………
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iii) Tale…………………………………………………………………………………………
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iv) Eight
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V. You intend to take part in a debate. What should you observe before and during the debate?
(4 marks)
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VI. Read this interview and fill the missing parts. (6 marks)
Interviewer:
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Interviewee: I am fine, thank you.
Interviewer: Welcome and be seated.
Interviewee:……………………………………………………………………………………
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Interviewer:……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)
Interviewee: I only know Mr. Tembo, who was once our principal. It is a surprise to find him
in this panel.
Interviewer:……………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)

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Interviewee: I believe I will be a big asset to your company. I have done sales and marketing
and it is my intention to promote the products of this company.
Interviewer:
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………… (1 mark)
Interviewee: I have a lot of experience in this field since I worked in the same capacity just
before I went to the university for my post graduate studies.
Interviewer: Alright we will get in touch with you as soon as possible.
Interviewee……………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………(1 mark)

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101/2

ENGLISH
PAPER 2
(COMPREHENSION, LITERARY APPRECIATION AND GRAMMAR)
TIME: 2 ½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name and index number index the spaces provided
(b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided
(c) Answer all the questions in this question paper
(d) Answers to all questions must be written in the spaces provided in this booklet
(e) Candidates should check to ascertain that all paged are printed as indicated and that no
questions are missing.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Question Maximum Score Candidates Score

1 20

2 25

3 20

4 15

TOTALSCORE 80

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QUESTION 1- 20 MARKS
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:
Domestic workers.
Most households, especially those in urban areas, employ domestic workers. But this workforce is
frequently invisible because each one of them is employed separately and works in the seclusion
of private house unlike people working in a factory or in the streets.

The term and conditions of their employment are often exploitative and illegal. Often, their
personal documents such as identity cards are confiscated, they are employed while underage,
salaries are below the minimum wage, and they often have no time off as required by the law. They
are also subjected to illegal deductions or they may be paid through third parties.

It is estimated that there are as many as 200,000 child domestic workers in Kenya. Out of these,
90% are girls working in homes unfortunately, they are not protected by the law and they do not
exist as a group. As a result, they do, not have the power to negotiate for better terms and conditions
of work.

Due to their ‘invisibility’ domestic workers are regarded as belonging to the informal labour
market, are unregistered and do not feature in employment statistics. They are a group that never
come together to discuss issues arising from their work’ in other situation and this may be the
reason why their call for protection may never be heard.

The younger domestic workers face greater difficulty because employers often insist on paying
them in kind claiming to ‘take care of them in return for their work’. In other instances, the pay
for an under – age worker may go directly to the parent or guardian without the knowledge or
consent of the employee.

The domestic worker also experiences physical, psychological and emotional torture, living in so
much poverty among people who enjoy luxurious lives. In some households, they are only allowed
to eat what is left over by the family members and to sleep on the kitchen floor.

The law is, however, silent on the plight of the domestic worker especially those who are too young
to enter into a valid employment contract. What is needed at the moment are clear cut labour laws
that would effectively address the situation. Besides, the public needs to be sensitized on the right
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of domestic workers. The prevailing harsh economic times have seen more children dropping out
of school to look for work to supplement family incomes.

Questions.
a) Why does the writer refer to domestic workers as an invisible workforce? (2mks)

b) How does the writer describe the working conditions of domestic workers? (2mks)

c) How many domestic workers are there in Kenya? (1mk)

d) Why are domestic workers unable to negotiate for better working conditions? (2mks)

e) What are the unique problems of younger domestic worker? (2mks)

f) What example of adverse conditions does the writer give that domestic worker can live in
despite luxury around them? (2mks)

g) What solution does the writer suggest to the problem? (2mks)

h) Make notes listing the exploitative condition the of work that domestic workers face
(4mks)

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i) Laws is, however, silent on the plight of the domestic workers (Begin: However……)
(1mk)

j) Explain the meaning of the following words and phrases in the passage:
Negotiate (1mk)

Paying them in kind (1mk)

2. Read the passage below and answer the questions after it. (25 marks)
Mrs Linde: Do you mean never to tell him about it?
Nora: (meditatively, and with half smile) Yes – someday, perhaps, after many years, when I am no
longer as nice-looking as I am now. Don’t laugh at me! I mean, of course, when Tovald is no longer
as devoted as he is now; when my dancing and dressing-up and reciting have palled on him; then
it may be a good thing to have something in reserve – (breaking off) What nonsense! That time
will never come. Now, what do you think of my great secret, Christine? Do you still think I am of
no use? I can tell you, too, that this affair has caused me a lot of worry. It has by no means easy for
me to meet my engagements punctually. I may tell you that there is something called, in business,
quarterly interest, and another thing called payment in installments, and it is always so dreadfully
difficult to manage them. I have had to save a little here and there, where I could, you understand.
I have not been able to put aside much from my housekeeping money, for Tovald must have a
good table. I couldn’t let my children be shabbily dressed; I have felt obliged to use up all he gave
me for them, the sweet little darlings!
Mrs. Linde: So it has all had come out of your own necessaries of life, poor Nora?
Nora: Of course. Besides, I was the one responsible for it. Whenever Tovald has given me money
for new dresses and such things, I have never spent more than half of it; I have always bought the
simplest and the cheapest things. Thank Heaven, any clothes look well on me, and so Tovald has
never noticed it. But it was often very hard for me, Christine – because it is delightful to be well
dresses, isn’t it?
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Mrs. Linde: Quite so.
Nora: Well, then I have found other ways of earning money. Last winter I was lucky enough to do
a lot of copying to do; so I locked myself up and sat writing every evening until quite late at night.
Many times I was desperately tired; but all the same it was a tremendous pleasure to sit there
working and earning money. It was like being a man.
Mrs. Linde: How much have you been able to pay off in that way?
Nora: I can’t tell you exactly. You see it is very difficult to keep an account of a business mater of
that kind. I only know that I have paid every penny that I could scrape together. Many a time I was
wits’ end (smiles) Then I used to sit there and imagine that a rich old gentleman had fallen in love
with me –
Mrs. Linde: What! Who was it!
Nora: Be quiet! – that he died; and that when his will was opened, it contained, written in big
letters, the instruction: “The lovely Mrs. Nora Helmer is to have all I poses paid over to her at once
in cash.”
a) Where and when does this encounter take place? (2marks)

b) What is this secret that Nora wants to guard so jealously? Explain with evidence from
elsewhere in the play. (3 marks)

c) Describe Nora’s Mood as she tells Mrs. Linde her story. (3 marks)

d) Why is it necessary that Nora tells Mrs. Linde her story. (2 marks)

e) Comment on any two themes that are highlighted in this extract. (4 marks)

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f) “Be quiet!” ( Rewrite this in reported speech.) (1 mark

g) Give an example of “wishful thinking” found in this extract. (1 mark)

h) Referring to Nora’s first speech in the extract, identify and comment on any two traits
of hers. (4 marks)

i) “It was like being a man” Basing your observation on this statement, briefly comment
on the society’s attitude towards women. (2 marks)

j) Explain the meaning of the following expressions as used in the extract: (3marks)
i) palled:
ii) save a little here and there.
iii) housekeeping money.

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3. POETRY (20MKS)
Read the poem below and answer the questions that follow:
Don’t Cry, My Child

Don’t cry my child

Don’t let me bear your sobs
Don’t even let me bear the growling
The rumbling complain of your empty stomach
Suckle your finger my child, keep your screams restrained

Suckle your finger my child, keep your screams restrained

Keep the knives of pity from tearing my heart
Don’t cry my child
Suckle your tiny finger
I will lullaby you to sleep
Once more we shall cheat this monster that is hunger.

Sleep well my child

Papa loves you, papa cars
Papa is broken in body and soul
But don’t worry my child
Sleep is a good meal
Sleep well my child
Dream the sweetest dreams
Dream of abundant fruit
Feast well my child
Feast on your tiny dreams
Yet another day is gone.
Hush!
Don’t cry my child
Wake up! It’s a new dawn
Smile; today is a feast
Suckle your mother’s breast
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There is a trickle of milk
From the furbished breast.
By P.C Njuguna
a) Classify this oral poem. (2mks)

b) Who is the persona in the poem? (2mks)

c) Identify any two present by the persona in this oral poem. (2mks)

d) Highlight any two character traits of the persona as portrayed in the poem. (4mks)

e) What is the persona‘s attitude towards the child? (2mks)

f) Show how the poet uses any two stylistic devices to effectively convey his message.
(4mks)

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g) Give another word with a similar phonetical sound as the word below. (2mks)
i) Soul
ii) Bear

h) Explain the meaning of the following lines as used in the poem:

Cheat this monster that is hunger (1mk)

i) Feast on your tiny dreams. (1mk)

4. GRAMMAR
15 MARKS
a) Re write the following sentences according to the instructions given after each.
Do not change the meaning. (3mks)
I) We would not have succeeded if David had not helped us. (Being: were…..)

iii) You should not leave your house unlocked at any time. (Being: At……………)

i) The cow produces a lot of milk. (supply a question tag)

b) Join the following sentences using a relative pronoun. (2mks)

(i) Yesterday I met a very beautiful girl. I had never met her before

ii) Mrs. Hart left her baby with her neighbor. She could rely on her.

c.) Use the right form of words in brackets. (3mks)

i) The modern world today has many ……………………………………….form

of communication. (Sophistication)
ii) There are several factors which contribute to ahealth……………………(exist)
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iii) Victims of drug abuse become social…………………………………….(fit)

d) Use a dash ( - ) to punctuate the following sentences where necessary.

(2mks)
i) The river swept away her one year old child
ii) The fallen politician displayed a down to earth attitude to life.

e) Complete the sentences below by filling in the correct prepositions.(3mks)

i) Fulani is good …………………………………………………Mathematics.
ii) I was congratulated ……………………………………..my graduation.
iii) She did not reply ………………………………the manager’s letter as required.

f) Explain the ambiguity in this sentence. (2mks)

We saw her duck.

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101/3

ENGLISH
Paper 3
(Imaginative Compositions and Essays Based on Set Texts)
2 ½ hours
Instructions to Candidates
(a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) Answer three questions in this question paper.
(d) In question 1, choose either a or b.
(e) Question 2 and 3 are compulsory

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

Questions Maximum Score Candidate’s Score

1 20
2 20
3 20
TOTAL

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1 (a) Write an essay ending with the sentence
………… that is the day I realized the beauty of hard work.
(20marks)
Or
(b) Write an essay to illustrate the saying
“The sweetness of sugar is not in its colour (20mks)

2. Compulsory Text
BLOSSOMS OF SAVANNAH
Help can come when least expected. Discuss basing your discussion from the blossoms of
savanna (20 marks)

3. Optional Text Answer any of the following questions

a) The Pearl, John Steinbeck, (20 marks)
Greed for worldly possessions can lead to incontrollable madness. Using Kino, draw
illustrations from John Steinbeck’s The Pearl.

Or
b) Chris Wanjala (Ed.), Memories We Lost and Other Stories
Memories We Lost and other stories (Compiled by Chris Wanjala) (20MARKS)

‘In the short story, How Much Land Does Man Need, the author shows human greed’.
Write an essay to support the above statement.

c) Inheritance (20 marks)

Write an essay on the character traits of King Kutula XV basing your arguments on
the play, Inheritance by David Mulwa.

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102/1

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA 1
INSHA
MUDA: SAA 1¾

MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA

a) Andika insha mbili.
b) Insha ya kwanza ni ya lazima.
c) Chagua insha nyingine moja kutoka kwa hizo tatu zilizobakia.
d) Lugha ya Kiswahili sanifu itumike kujibia maswali
e) Kila insha isipungue maneno 400.
f) Kila insha ina alama 20.
g) Unadhifu wa hati unachangia kueleweka rahisi.
h) Karatasi hii ina kurasa mbili.
i) Watahiniwa ni lazima waangalie kama kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

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1. INSHA YA LAZIMA
Wewe ni mkuu wa Polisi Idara ya Trafiki Wilaya ya Muembe Mmoja. Kutokana na visa vingi
vya ajali barabarani, waandikie ilani madereva na wananchi katika Wilaya yako kuhusu
kutozingatia sheria za trafiki. Ilani hii itokee katika gazeti la ‘Sauti’.

2. Vijana wengi nchini hawana ajira. Jadili mbinu mbalimbali za kubuni nafasi za kazi nchini
Kenya kwa vijana.

3. Mchuma janga hula na wakwao. Andika kisa kudhibitisha methali hii.

4. Andika Insha inayoanza kwa maneno yafuatayo:

Nilipowakumbuka wenzangu, macho yaliingia kiwi, machozi yakanilengalenga…

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102/2

KISWAHILI
KARATASI YA PILI
LUGHA
MUDA: SAA 2½

MAAGIZO KWA WATAHINIWA

1. Andika jina lako, shule na nambari yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
2. Andika tarehe ya mtihani na utie sahihi yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa hapo juu.
3. Jibu maswali yote.
4. Andika majibu yako katika nafasi ulizoachiwa baada ya kila swali katika kijitabu hiki cha
maswali.
KWA MATUMIZI YA MTAHINI PEKEE
SWALI UPEO ALAMA
1 15
2 15
3 40
4 10
JUMLA 80

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1. UFAHAMU (ALAMA 15)
Soma kifungu kifuatacho kisha ujibu maswali uliyopewa
Kila mmoja wetu anafahamu jukumu muhimu linalotekelezwa na mashirika yasiyo ya
kiserikali almaarufu kama NGOs katika shughuli ya kuleta maendeleo muhimu humu nchini.
Ni dhahiri kuwa maendeleo mengi ambayo tunajivunia kama jamii - hasa katika sehemu
za mashinani - yametekelezwa na mashirika haya ambayo hufadhiliwa na serikali na mashirika
ya kigeni. Sio tu miradi ya kupambana na ugonjwa hatari wa Ukimwi, maji ya kunywa, kilimo,
ufadhili wa kimasomo n.k, bali hata inayohusu uhifadhi wa mazingira.
Hata hivyo, uchunguzi unaonyesha kuwa ingawa mashirika haya yanajivunia kutekeleza
mengi, maendeleo ni machache mno ikilinganishwa na kiasi cha pesa ambacho kimetolewa na
wafadhili. Madai yaliyotolewa na wanaharakati wa kutetea haki za kibinadamu nchini majuma
kadhaa yaliyopita kuwa walaghai wa kitaalamu wameingia sekta hii kuwapora wafadhili pesa
zao yana ukweli fulani.
Kuna mbinu kadhaa ambazo zinatumiwa na mashirika laghai kuwapora wafadhili pesa zao.
Mbinu ya kwanza ni kupitia uandishi wa mapendekezo ya miradi isiyokuwepo. Mengi ya
mapendekezo hayo huandikwa kwa lugha ya mvuto kuwashawishi wafadhili watoe fedha zao.
Kuna uwezekano umewahi kukutana na wasomi waliobobea katika taaluma ya kuandika
mapendekezo ya miradi kwa malipo. Hao ndio wajuao mambo ya kujumuishwa kwenye
mapendekezo ya miradi ili kuwateka wafadhili. Kile wafanyacho ni kuandika mapendekezo na
baadaye hupewa sehemu yao ya pesa hizo punde zinapotolewa.
Njia ya pili sio wizi wa wazi kwani huhusisha matumizi ya pesa kwa njia ambazo
hazikukusudiwa. Badala ya kutumia pesa za wafadhili kutekeleza miradi ya maendeleo
iliyopendekezwa, baadhi ya wasimamizi wa mashirika haya huweka pesa mifukoni mwao.
Viongozi wa mashirika mengine hutumia ufadhili huo kuzuru mataifa ya kigeni kwa
kisingizio cha kuhudhuria makongamano ya maendeleo. Baadhi yao huwa hawaendi mbali;
wao huandaa makongamano ya kukata na shoka kila mwezi katika hoteli kubwa kubwa nchini.
Kinaya kilioje kuwa pesa zilizotafutwa kusaidia wajane katika vijiji vya mashambani
zinatekeleza miradi bandia mijini? Inasemekana miradi ya baadhi ya mashirika hutekelezwa
kimaandishi tu na maafisa wanaosimamia mashirika haya bila kuwahusisha waliolengwa.
Isitoshe, baadhi ya mashirika haya hutumia nyingi ya pesa zake kwa masulala ya utawala
na usimamizi badala ya miradi ya maendeleo

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Maswali
a) Taja jukumu muhimu linalotekelezwa na mashirika yasiyo ya kiserikali. (alama 2)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

b) Ni miradi ipi ambayo imetekelezwa na mashirika haya? (alama 5)

c) Ni kwa nini maendeleo ambayo yametekelezwa na mashirika haya ni machache? (alama 2)

d) Ni mbinu zipi zinazotumiwa na mashirika laghai kuwapora wafadhili pesa zao? (alama 4)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

e) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kama yalivyotumika kifunguni. (alama 2)

i) walaghai
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
ii) kuwapora
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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2. MUHTASARI (ALAMA 15)
Mfumo wa elimu wa 8.4.4 ulipoanzishwa nchini mnamo 1983, lengo kuu lilikuwa ni
kuwapa wanafunzi maarifa ya kielimu hasa ya kiutendakazi ili kuwawezesha kijitegemea
baada ya kumaliza masomo. Hata hivyo, wakosoaji wa mfumo huu wanasema kwamba
yaliyomo kwenye mtaala ni mengi mno na kwamba mtaala wenyewe ni mzigo mzito kwa
wanafunzi kando na kuegemea mno mitihani.
Hata baada ya kupunguzwa kwa idadi ya masomo ya kutahiniwa kwenye mfumo huu,
mambo yalikuwa changamano zaidi wakati serikali ya NARC ilipoingia mamlakani na
kuanzisha mfumo wa elimu ya msingi bila malipo mnamo 2003. Hatua hiyo ilisababisha idadi
ya wanafunzi waliojiunga na shule za msingi kuongezeka maradufu-kutoka wanafunzi milioni
5 hadi wanafunzi milioni 8 mnamo 2009.
Licha ya kwamba mfumo wa elimu ya msingi bila malipo umesifiwa hapa na pale,
wadadisi wa mambo hata hivyo wanatilia shaka masuala fulani kuuhusu. Mojawapo ya
masuala haya ni viwango vya ubora wa elimu wanayopata watoto wetu. Kwa mujibu wa utafiti
uliofanywa na taasisi ya Uwezo Kenya mnamo Oktoba mwaka 2009, ilibainika kwamba
mwanafunzi mmoja kati ya wanafunzi wanne katika kiwango cha shule ya msingi hufika katika
darasa la tano bila ya kuwa na uwezo wa kujibu maswali ya masomo ya mwanafunzi wa darasa
la pili.
Pamoja na hayo, uchunguzi huo ulibainisha kwamba takriban asilimia nne ya wanafunzi
chini ya mfumo wa elimu ya msingi bila malipo husoma na kukamilisha masomo ya darasa la
nane bila kupata maarifa ya kimsingi ya kusoma na kuandika au hata ujuzi wa kufanya hisabati
za kimsingi
Hatua ambazo zimekwisha kuchukuliwa na serikali mpaka sasa-hasa ujenzi wa madarasa
na amara ya kukidhi mahitaji ya idadi kubwa ya wanafunzi katika mfumo wetu wa elimu-
hazijafanikiwa sana.
Aidha, ingawa serikali imeamua kuwaajiri walimu kwa mpango wa kandarasi, ili kukidhi
nakisi ya takriban walimu 60,000 katika shule za msingi na upili, hatua hizo bado hazijatatua
lolote!
Hali hii imesababisha uwiano kati ya mwalimu na wanafunzi kuwa 1:80 katika baadhi ya
sehemu nchini na kufanya walimu kushindwa kutoa huduma bora kwa kila mwanafunzi.
Katika hali ya kawaida, mwalimu mmoja anapaswa kuwafundisha wanafunzi kati ya 35 hadi
40. Hii inamaanisha kwamba mwalimu mmoja hushughulika idadi maradufu ya kiwango
kilichoidhinishwa kote ulimwenguni. Katika mazingira kama haya, inakuwa vigumu mno kwa

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mwalimu kufundisha na kuwaridhisha wanafunzi-hasa wale ambao si wepesi wa kushika
mambo.
Kuhusiana na vifaa vya kufundishia, bado kuna mushkili hasa ikichukuliwa kwamba
kashfa iliyowakumba Waziri wa Elimu, Prof. Sam Ongeri, na aliyekuwa katibu katika wizara
hiyo, Prof. Karega Mutahi, haikusuluhishwa. Kwenye kashfa hiyo, fedha zilizonuiwa kununua
vifaa kama vile vitabu au kugharimia mpango wa elimu bila malipo zilitoweka kwa njia ya
ajabu sana.
Hivi sasa, serikali imekaa tutwe huku watoto wetu wakiumia shuleni kana kwamba hakuna
lolote lililotendeka. Shule nyingi hasa za msingi zina maktaba zilizojaa vitabu vya kiada. Hali
hii bila shaka haiwachochei wanafunzi kuwa na msukumo wa kusoma kwa lengo la kujua
mambo, husoma ili kupita mitihani tu. Utamaduni wa kusoma nchini unatiliwa shaka sana na
hatujui ni lini utakapoimarika.
Watoto wanapaswa kukuzwa katika mazingira ya mfumo wa elimu unaothamini kusoma
kwa minajili ya kupata maarifa na kupanua mtazamo wao, kinyume na sasa ambapo wanafunzi
wanaotia fora katika mitihani hawajui chochote nje ya mitihani hiyo.
Tangu 2001, wadau katika sekta ya uandaaji na uchapishaji wa vitabu nchini Kenya,
Uganda na Tanzania chini ya mwavuli wa Mradi wa Ustawishaji wa Vitabu Afrika ya
Mashariki wamekuwa wakifanya juhudi za kimakusudi za kukuza na kupalilia utamaduni wa
kusoma.
Nina wasiwasi kwamba kutokana na mlipuko wa ‘teknohama’ kote ulimwenguni, huenda
watoto wetu wakaweka vitabu pembezoni na kushabikia mtandao wa intaneti na runinga badala
ya kuchangamkia vitabu, majarida, magazeti na maandishi mengine kwenye karatasi.

Maswali
a) Eleza kasoro za mfumo wa 8.4.4 kulingana na kifungu. (Maneno 25) (alama 4)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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b) Mfumo huu wa elimu ya msingi bila malipo unatiliwa shaka kwa sababu ya mambo kadhaa.
Fafanua. (Maneno 75) (Alama 11, 2 za mtiririko)
Matayarisho
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Jibu
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3. MATUMIZI YA LUGHA (ALAMA 40)

a) Ukirejelea mkondo wa hewa kutoka mapafuni, eleza sifa za kimatamshi za ving’ong’o.
(alama 2)
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b) Kwa kuzingatia sehemu zilizopigiwa mstari, toa dhana inayojitokeza katika sentensi hii.
(alama 2)
Alisugua meno, akaoga akala kisha akaondoka.
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c) Tumia neno vile kama (alama 3)
i) Kivumishi
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ii) Kiwakilishi
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iii) Kielezi
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d) Yakinisha sentensi hii. (alama 1)

Kanisani simo wapatikanapo wezi.

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i) Andika sentensi hii katika kinyume. (alama 1)

Mvua iliponyesha baba alienda kondeni.
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ii) Andika hali ya ukubwa wingi. (alama 2)
Nyoka yule alimuuma mtoto mkono.
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e) Tunga sentensi moja kudhihirisha kihusishi cha ‘na’ ya mtenda. (alama 2)
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f) Onyesha dhana mbili zinazojitokeza baada ya kitenzi kunyambuliwa katika kauli ya
kutendeka. (alama 2)
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g) Eleza matumizi ya viambishi vilivyopigiwa mstari. (alama 2)
Amkeni mwende dukani!
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h) Andika sentensi ifuatayo katika usemi wa taarifa. (alama 2)
Kasisi alitushauri, “Yafaa tamaduni ambazo hazitufai ziachwe”.
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i) Tumia kitenzi ‘alikuwa’ katika sentensi kama
i) Kitenzi kisaidizi. (alama 1)

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ii) Kitenzi kishirikishi kikamilifu. (alama 1)
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j) Tofautisha sentensi hizi. (alama 2)
i) Ningalimwona jana ningalifurahi
ii) Ningemuona jana ningefurahi
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k) Kwa kuzingatia sehemu iliyopigwa mstari, toa maana inayojitokeza.
i) Wao huenda msikitini kila ijumaa (alama 1)
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ii) Watoto wacheza majini. (alama 1)
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l) Tambua chagizo katika sentensi hii. (alama 1)
Yeye huchapwa na mkewe mara kwa mara.
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m) Weka shadda katika maneno haya. (alama 1)
i) Mtoto
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ii) Mto
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n) Huku ukitoa mfano eleza maana ya
i) Silabi wazi (alama 1)
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ii) Silabi funge (alama 1)
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o) Nyambua vitenzi hivi katika kauli ya kufanyiza.
i) Jua (alama 1)
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ii) Kana (alama 1)
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p) Onyesha viambishi katika sentensi hii. (alama 3)
Nitamtafutisha
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q) Tunga sentensi moja kuonyesha maana ya maneno haya
i) Figo (alama 1)
ii) Pigo (alama 1)
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r) Pambanua sentensi hii ukitumia kielelezo matawi.
Japo alifanya kazi zote hakulipwa. (alama 3)

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s) Tunga sentensi ukitumia ‘O’ rejeshi ya tamati. (alama 1)
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4. ISIMU JAMII (ALAMA 10)

a) Eleza mitazamo miwili kuhusu chimbuko la lugha ya kiswahili nchini Kenya. (alama 2)
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b) Eleza mambo manne yaliyochangia kuenea kwa lugha ya kiswahili zama za ukoloni.
(alama 8)
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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCKS
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

102/3

KISWAHILI
Karatasi ya 3
FASIHI
Muda: Saa 2 ½

MAAGIZO
(a) Jibu maswali manne pekee.
(b)Swali la kwanza ni la lazima.
(c)Maswali hayo mengine matatu yachaguliwe kutoka sehemu nne zilizobaki..
(d)Usijibu maswali mawili kutoka sehemu moja.
(e)Majibu yote lazima yaandikwe kwa lugha ya Kiswahili
(f)Watahiniwa ni lazima wahakikishe kwamba kurasa zote za karatasi hii zimepigwa chapa
sawasawa na kuwa maswali yote yamo.

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SEHEMU A: Riwaya
1. LAZIMA
Assumpta K. Matei: Chozi la heri
“Hili lilimtia …………. uchungu, akajiona kama aliyedhalilishwa na mwanamke.”

(a) Yaweke maneno haya katika muktadha wake (alama 4)

(b) Taja suala linalodokezwa katika dondoo hili (alama 1)

SEHEMU B: Tamthilia
Kigogo (Pauline Kea) Jibu swali la pili au la tatu
2. “Kubali pendekezo letu la kufungwa kwa soko……… huoni hii ni fursa nzuri ya kulipiza
kisasi?”

(a) Fafanua muktadha wa dondoo hili (alama 4)

(b) Kufungwa kwa soko ni ukatili. Mbali na ukatili huu, toa mifano mingine ya ukatili
kwenye tamthilia. (alama 9)

3. (a) Fafanua mbinu kumi anazotumia Majoka katika kuuendeleza uongozi wake
(alama 10)

(b) Eleza namna mbinu ya ishara ilivyotumiwa katika tamthilia ya Kigogo (alama 10)

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SEHEMU C: Hadithi Fupi
Tumbo Lisiloshiba na Hadithi Nyingine ( Alifa Chokocho na Dumu Kayanda) Jibu
swali la 4 au la 5
4. “…………… Ningeondoka ….. mapema niende niibe au niue ili niwe mtu wa maana.”
(a) Eleza muktadha wa maneno haya (alama 4)

(b) Onyesha vile Kinaya kinavyojitokeza katika dondoo hili (alama 2)

(d) Eleza umuhimu wa msemaji katika hadithi hii (alama 5)

5. (a) Eleza namna maudhui ya ndoa yalivyosawiriwa katika hadithi ya Masharti ya Kisasa
(alama 13)

(b) Kwa kurejelea hadithi ya Shibe inatumaliza, eleza namna maudhui ya ufisadi
yanavyojitokeza (alama 7)

SEHEMU D: Fasihi Simulizi

6. Soma utungo ufuatao kisha ujibu maswali
Heri ujue mapema
Nasaba yetu haina woga
Woga haumei kwetu, humea kwa kina mamako.
Tulichinja jogoo na fahali ili uwe mwanaume.

Ah! Kisu cha ngariba ni kikali ajabu.

Iwapo utatikisa kichwacho. Uhamie kwa
wasiotahiri, Ama tukwite njeku.

Mpwangu kumbuka hili,

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Wanaume wa mlango wetu
Si waoga wa kisu
Wao hukatwa mchana hadi usiku Wala
hawalalamiki.

Siku nilipokatwa
Nilisimama tisti
Nikacheka ngariba kwa tashtiti Halikunitoka
chozi.

Iwapo utapepesa kope

Wasichana wa kwetu na wa mbali
Wote watakucheka Ubaki ukinuna.

Sembe umepokea
Na supu ya makongoro ukabugia
Sema unachotaka
Usije kunitia aibu

Maswali;
(a) Taja na uthibitishe shughuli zozote za kiuchumi za jamii ya wimbo
huu
(alama 4)

(b) Ni nani mwimbaji wa wimbo huu na anawaimbia nani? (alama 2)

(c) Huu ni wimbo wa aina gani? Thibitisha (alama 2)

(d) Mwimbaji wa wimbo huu ana taasubi ya kiume. Thibitisha kauli (alama 2)
hii.

(e) Eleza wajibu wa nyimbo katika jamii (alama 6)

(f) Ijapokuwa nyimbo ni nzuri, zina ubaya wake. Thibitisha kauli hii (alama 4)

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SEHEMU E: Ushairi (alama 20)
Jibu swali la 7 au la 8

7. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali

Kama dau baharini, duniya inavyoyumba,
Limeshamiri tufani, kila mmoja lakumba, Viumbe tu
hali gani!

Duniya yatishika, utahisi kama kwamba, Vilima

vyaporomoka, na kuvurugika myamba, Viumbe tu
hali gani!

Tufani hilo la kusi, languruma na kutamba, Linapuliza

kwa kasi, hapana kisichoyumba, Viumbe tu hali gani!

Mujiwe ni kubwa sana, mfanowe kama nyumba, Yazuka

na kugongana, wala hatuna la kwamba, Viumbe tu hali
gani!

Mibuyu hata mivule, kama usufi na pamba,

Inarusha vilevile, seuze hiyi migomba Viumbe tu
hali gani!

Ni kipi kilotuliya, tuwazeni na kudumba, Mandovu

kiangaliya, yagongana na masimba, Fisi wako hali
gani!

Hata papa baharini, tufani limewakumba, Walioko

mikondoni, kila mmoja asamba, Dagaa wa hali
gani!

Mashehe wa mdaduwa, kwa ubani na uvumba,

Tufani hilo kwa kuwa, kusoze kwake kutamba,
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Itokee afueni!
(Shairi la ‘Tufani’ la Haji Gora Haji, katika Tamthilia ya Maisha, uk 62)

Maswali;
(a) Taja na ueleze mikondo ya shairi hili (alama 4)

(b) Eleza dhamira ya shairi hili (alama 2)

(c) Taja tamathali za usemi zilizotumiwa katika shairi hili. (alama 2)

(d) Eleza muundo wa shairi hili (alama 4)

(e) Eleza ujumbe unaojitokeza katika ubeti wa tano. (alama 3)

(f) Onyesha matumizi ya idhini ya kishairi . (alama 3)

(g) Eleza maana ya maneno yafuatayo kwa mjibu wa shairi hili (alama 2) (i) Mdaduwa :
(ii) Kutamba :

8. Soma shairi lifuatalo kisha ujibu maswali

Daima alfajiri na mapema
Hunipitia na jembe na kotama
Katika njia iendayo Kondeni
Kama walivyofanya babuze zamani;
Nimuonapo huwa anatabasamu
Kama mtu aliye na hamu Kushika
mpini na kutokwa jasho Ili kujikimu
kupata malisho.

Anapotembea anasikiliza
Videge vya anga vinavyotumbuiza
Utadhani huwa vimemngojea
Kwa usiku kucha kuja kumwimbia

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Pia pepo baridi kumpepea
Rihi ya maua zikimtetea
Nao umande kumbusu miguuni;

Na miti yote hujipinda migogo

Kumpapasa, kumtoa matongo;
Na yeye kundelea kwa furaha Kuliko
yeyote ninayemjua
Akichekelea ha ha ha ha ha ha …….

Na mimi kubaki kujiuliza

Kuna siri gani inayomliwaza? Au ni
kujua au kutojua?
Furaha ya mtu ni furaha gani? Katika
dunia inayomhini?
Ukali wa jua wamnyima zao
Soko la dunia lamkaba koo;

Dini za kudhani zamsonga roho Ayalimia

matumbo ya waroho.
Kuna jambo gani linalomridhisha?
Kama si kujua ni kutojua Lait angalijua,
laity angalijua!
Maswali:

a) Eleza hali ya mzungumziwa katika shairi hili. (alama 2)

b) Huku ukitoa mifano, onyesha aina mbili za uhuru wa kishairi uliotumiwa katika shairi hili
(ala. 4)
c) Fafanua aina tatu za taswira ukirejelea ubeti wa pili (alama 3)

d) Maswali ya balagha katika shairi hili yanasisitiza maudhui yapi? (alama 2)

e) Kwa kutoa mifano, bainisha vipengele vitatu vya Kimtindo katika shairi hili
(alama 3)
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f) Eleza toni ya shairi hili (alama 2)

g) Bainisha nafsineni katika shairi hili (alama 1)

h) Eleza muundo wa shairi hili (alama 3)

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCKS
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

121/1

MATHEMATICS
PAPER 1
TIME: 2½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of two sections, section I and section II.
d) Answer all the questions in section I and only five questions from section II.
e) All answers and working must be written on the question paper in the spaces provided below
each question.
f) Show all the steps in your calculations, giving your answers at each stage in the spaces below
each question.
g) Marks may be given for correct working even if the answer is wrong.
h) Non- programmable silent calculators and KNEC mathematical tables may be used except
where stated otherwise.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
GRAND TOTAL

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SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions from this section.
1. Find the reciprocals of 0.216 correct to 3 decimal places hence evaluate;
3
√0.512
(3 marks)
0.216

2. Without using a calculator, evaluate;

1 1
1 −1 7
5 3
1 1 2
− of 2 (4 marks)
− (− ) 15
8 2

3. Three bells ring at intervals of 9 minutes, 15 minutes and 21 minutes.

The bells will next ring together at 11.00pm. Find the time the bells had last rang together.
(3 marks)

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4. Simplify the expression.
6x2 −13x+6
(3 marks)
4x2 −9

5. Without using a calculator or mathematical tables, solve the equation

2 log 10 x − 3 log10 2 + log10 32 = 2 (4 marks)

6. A line L passes through point (3, 1) and is perpendicular to the line 2y = 4x + 5.

Determine the equation of line L. (3 marks)

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7. A forex bureau in Kenya buys and sells foreign currencies as shown below.
Buying Selling

Currency (Ksh) (Ksh)

Chinese Yuan 12.34 12.35

South African rand 11.28 11.37

A businesswoman from China converted 195,250 Chinese Yuan into Kenya shillings.

a) Calculate the amount of money in Kenya shillings that she received. (1 mark)

b) While in Kenya, the businesswoman spent Ksh.1,258,000 and then converted the balance
into South African Rand. Calculate the amount of money to the nearest Rand that she
received. (3 marks)

8. The seventh term of an A.P is 20 and the sum of the first 20 terms is 610.
Find the first term and the common difference. (3 marks)

9. The points P, Q and R lie on a straight line. The position vectors of P and R are 2i + 3j + 13k
and

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5i – 3j + 4k respectively. Q divides PR internally in the ratio 2 : 1. Find
a) The position vector of Q. (2 marks)

b) Distance of Q from the origin. (1 mark)

10. In the figure below, MNO = 54o, PLM = 50o, PN = NM and PO is parallel to LM.
Find the value of LPM. (3 marks)
L M
o
50

o
54
P N O

11. Two matrices A and B are such that A = (k 4) and B = (1 2

).
3 2 3 −4
Given that the determinant of AB = 10, find the value of k. (3 marks)

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12. Two pipes A and B can fill an empty tank in 3 hours and 5 hours respectively. Pipe C can
empty the full tank in 4 hours. If the three pipes A, B and C are opened at the same time, find
how long they will take to fill the tank. (3 marks)

13. Determine the equation of the normal to the curve y = x2 – 3x + 1 at a point (-2, 3) giving your
answer in the form ax + by = c. (3 marks)

14. The size of each interior angle of a regular polygon is five times the size of exterior angle.
Find the number of sides of the regular polygon. (3 marks)

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15. Find the integral values of x which satisfy the inequalities.
x + 8 > 4x – 6 ≥ 3(4 – x) (2 marks)

16. John had two bags A and B containing sugar. If he removed 2kg from bag A and added to bag
B, the mass of sugar in bag B would be four times the mass of sugar in bag A. If he added 10kg
of sugar to the original amount of sugar in each bag, the mass of sugar in B would be twice the
mass of the sugar in bag A.
Calculate the original mass of sugar in each bag. (3 marks)

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SECTION II (50 MARKS)
Answer any FIVE questions from this section
17. The table below shows the height measured to the nearest cm of 101 pawpaw trees.
Height in cm 20 – 24 25 – 29 30 – 34 35 – 39 40 – 44 45 – 49 50 – 54 55 – 59

Frequency 2 15 18 25 30 6 3 2

a) State the modal class. (1 mark)

b) Calculate to 2 decimal places.

i) The mean height (4 marks)

ii) The difference between the mean height and the median height. (5 marks)

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18. Three pegs R, S and T are on the vertices of a triangular plan field. R is 300m from S on a
bearing of 300o and T is 450m directly South of R.
a) Using a scale of 1cm to represent 60m, draw a diagram to show the position of the pegs.
(3 marks)

b) Use the scale drawing to determine;

i) The distance between T and S in metres. (2 marks)

ii) The bearing of T from S. (1 mark)

c) Find the area of the field in hectares correct to one decimal place. (4 marks)

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19. Mr. Mutuku owns a bicycle which he sometimes rides to go to work. Out of 21 working days
in a month he only rides to work for 18 days. If he rides to work the probability that he is bitten
4 1
by a rabid dog is otherwise it is only . When he is bitten by the dog, the probability that
15 13
4
he will get treatment is and if he does not get treatment the probability that he will get rabies
5
5
is
7

a) Draw a tree diagram to show the events. (3 marks)

b) Using the tree diagram above determine the probability that

i) Mr. Mutuku will not be bitten by a rabid dog. (2 marks)

ii) He will get rabies. (2 marks)

iii) He will not get rabies. (3 marks)

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20. The volume Vcm3 of a solid depends partly on r2 and partly on r3 where r is one of the
dimensions of the solid.
When r = 1, the volume is 54.6cm3 and when r = 2, the volume is 226.8cm3.
a) Find the expression for V in terms of r. (5 marks)

b) Calculate the volume of solid when r = 4. (3 marks)

c) Find value of r for which the two parts of the volume are equal. (2 marks)

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1
21. The equation of a curve is given by y = 5x  2x2
1
a) Draw the curve of y = 5x  x2 for 0 ≤ x ≤ 6 . (3 marks)
2

b) By integration find the area bounded by the curve, the line x = 6 and the x-axis. (3 marks)

c) i) On the same graph in (a) draw the line y = 2x (1 mark)

ii) Determine the area bounded by the curve and the line y = 2x (3 marks)

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22. The diagram below shows a cross section of a bottle. The lower part ABC is a hemisphere of
radius 5.2cm and the upper part is a frustum of a cone. The top radius of the frustum is one
third of the radius of the hemisphere. The hemisphere part is completely filled with water as
shown in the diagram.

5.2cm
52cm
A C

When the container is inverted, the water now completely fills on the frustum part.
a) Determine the height of the frustum part.
(7 marks)

b) Find the surface area of the frustum part of the bottle. (3 marks)

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23. A bus left Nairobi at 7.00a.m and travelled towards Eldoret at average speed of 80km/h. At
7.45am, a car left Eldoret towards Nairobi at an average speed of 120km/hr. The distance
between Nairobi and Eldoret is 300km. Calculate
a) The time the bus arrives at Eldoret. (2 marks)

b) The time of the day the two vehicles met. (4 marks)

c) The distance from Nairobi to where the two vehicles met. (2 marks)

d) The distance of the bus from Eldoret when the car arrived at Nairobi. (2 marks)

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24. a) Complete the table below for the function y = 2x3 + 5x2 – x – 6. (3 marks)
x 4 3 2 1 0 1 2

2x3 128 54

5x2

-x 4 3

-6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6

y 50 6 0

b) Draw the graph of y = 2x3 + 5x2 – x – 6 for −4 ≤ x ≤ 2 (3 marks)

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c) By drawing a suitable line, use the graph in (b) to solve the equations
i) 2x3 + 5x2 + x – 4 = 0 (2 marks)

ii) 2x3 + 5x2 – x + 2 = 0 (2 marks)

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCKS
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

121/2

MATHEMATICS
PAPER 2
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above.
b) Sign and write the date of examination in the spaces provided above.
c) This paper consists of two sections, section I and section II.
d) Answer ALL the questions in section I and only five questions from section II.

FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY

SECTION I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 TOTAL

SECTION II
17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 TOTAL
GRAND TOTAL

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SECTION I (50 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions from this section.
1. Use logarithms to evaluate, (4 marks)

3 45.3 ×0.00697
√
0.534

2. Make P the subject of the formula

3 P
d = √q−P (3 marks)

3. Find the circle centre and radius whose equation is

3x2 + 3y2 + 18x – 6y + 18 = 0 (3 marks)

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4. The volumes of two similar cylindrical containers are 27cm3 and 64cm3 respectively. Given
that the height of the smaller container is 12cm, find the height of the larger container.(2 mks)

5. 3cm3 of water is added to 2cm3 of a certain medicine which costs sh.12 per cm3.
The chemist sells the diluted medicine at sh.6 per cm3. Calculate the percentage profit.
(3 marks)

2
6. Given that 4y = 3 sin 5 for 0 < θ < 360o. Determine
a) The amplitude of the curve (1 mark)

b) The period of the curve. (1 mark)

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7. Find the length BC of the following triangle if AC = 3.7cm, AB = 4cm and angle ABC = 63 o.
(3 marks)
A

3.7cm
4cm

o
63
B C

8. Solve for x in the equation

27x  1 × 3x + 1 = 729 (3 marks)

9. In the figure below ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral. Point O is the centre of the circle.
ABO = 30o and BCD = 110o.
A

O
o
30

o D
110
B
C
Calculate the size of angle ADB. (2 marks)

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10. Three people Mutua, Wanza and Kiilu contributed money to start a business. Mutua
contributed a quarter of the money and Wanza two fifths of the reminder. Kiilu’s contribution
was one and a half times that of Mutua. They borrowed the rest of the money from a bank
which was sh.60,000 less than Kiilu’s contribution. Find the total amount required to start the
business. (4 marks)

√3
11. Simplify (3 marks)
√3− √2

1 5
12. Expand (2 − 4 x) and use the first three terms to find the value of 1.9755 to four significant
figures. (4 marks)

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13. The radius of a spherical ball is measured as 7cm correct to the nearest centimeter. Determine
to 2 decimal places, the percentage error in calculating the surface area of the ball. (3 marks)

1
14. Given that tan θ = where θ is an acute angle, find without using tables or calculator
√5

sin(90 − θ) leaving your answer in the simplified surd form. (4 marks)

m
15. Given that a = 1.2, b = 0.02 and c = 0.2, express ac ÷ b in the form n
where m and n are

integers. (3 marks)

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16. The diagram below shows sector AOB of a circle centre O.
AOB = 1.5C and arc AB is of length 12cm.
A

12cm
c
1.5
O

a) Determine the radius OA of the circle. (1 mark)

b) Calculate the area of the shaded region. Give your answer correct to 3 s.f. (3 marks)

SECTION II (50 MARKS)

Answer any FIVE questions from this section
17. The table below shows the taxation rates.
Income (£ per month) Rate %

0 – 382 10

383 – 754 15

755 – 1126 20

1127 – 1498 25

1499 – 1870 30

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1871 – 2242 35

Over 2242 40

Mueni is housed by her employer but pays a nominal rent of sh.1200 per month. She is entitled
to a personal relief of sh.950 per month. If her monthly P.A.Y.E is sh.7024,
a) Calculate her gross income. (5 marks)

b) In addition to the tax the following monthly deductions are also made
Sacco shares Ksh. 1200
Coop loan Ksh.1500
Union dues Ksh.300
Calculate
i) Her monthly salary. (3 marks)

ii) Net monthly salary (2 marks)

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18. Use a ruler and compasses only for all construction in this question.
1o
a) Construct a triangle ABC in which AB = 8cm, BC = 7.5cm and ABC = 112 . (3 marks)
2

b) Measure the length of AC. (1 mark)

c) By shading the unwanted region show the locus of P within the triangle ABC such that AP
≤ BP, AP > 3cm. Mark the required region as P. (3 marks)

d) Construct a normal from C to meet AB produced at D. (1 mark)

3
e) Locate the locus of R in the same diagram such that the arc of triangle ARB is the arc of
4

the triangle ABC. (2 marks)

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19. In the triangle PQR below, L and M are points on PQ and QR respectively such that PL : LQ
= 1 : 3 and Qm : mR = 1 : 2. Pm and RL intersect at X. Given that PQ = b and PR = c
P

L X

Q R
m
a) Express the following vectors in terms of b and c.
i) QR (1 mark)

ii) Pm (1 mark)

iii) RL (1 mark)

b) By taking PX = hPm and RX = kRL where h and k are constants. Find two expressions of
PX in terms of h, k, b and c. Hence determine the values of the constants h and k.
(6 marks)

c) Determine the ratio LX : XR. (1 mark

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20. OABC is a parallelogram with vertices O(0, 0), A(2, 0), B(3, 2) and C(1, 2).
−2 0
OIAIBICI is the image of OABC under a transformation matrix ( ).
0 −2
a) i) Find the coordinates of OIAIBICI (2 marks)

ii) On the graph provided, draw OABC and OIAIBICI (2 marks)

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1 0
b) i) Find OIIAIIBIICII, the image of OIAIBICI under the transformation matrix ( ).
0 −2
(2 marks)

ii) On the same grid, draw OIIAIIBIICII. (1 mark)

c) Find the single matrix that maps OIIAIIBIICII onto OABC. (3 marks)

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21. An aircraft leaves town P (30oS, 17oE) and moves directly towards Q (60 oN, 17oE). It then
moved at an average speed of 300 knots for 8 hours Westwards to town R. Determine
a) The distance PQ in nautical miles. (2 marks)

b) The position of town R. (4 marks)

c) The local time at R if local time at Q is 3.12p.m (2 marks)

d) The total distance moved from P to R in kilometers. (Take 1nm = 1.853km) (2 marks)

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22. The figure below is a sketch of a curve whose equation is y = x2 + x + 5.
It cuts the line y = 11 at points P and Q.
y - axis y = x2 + x + 5
P Q
y = 11

y - axis
-3 0 2

a) Find the area bounded by the curve y = x2 + x + 5 and the line y = 11 using the trapezium
rule with 5 strips.
(5 marks)

b) Calculate the difference in the area if the mid-ordinate rule with 5 ordinates was used
instead of the trapezium rule. (5 marks)

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23. The figure below represents a rectangular based pyramid VABCD. AB = 12cm and AD =
16cm.
Point O is vertically below V and VA = 26cm.
V

cm
26
B C

12cm

A D
16cm

Calculate:
a) The height, VO, of the pyramid. (4 marks)

b) The angle between the edge VA and the plane ABCD. (3 marks)

c) The angle between the planes VAB and ABCD. (3 marks)

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24. The distances S metres from a fixed point O, covered by a particle after t seconds is given by
equation
S = t3 – 6t2 + 9t + 5
a) Calculate the gradient to the curve at t = 0.5 seconds. (3 marks)

b) Determine the values of S at the maximum and minimum turning points of the curve.
(4 marks)

c) On the space provided, sketch the curve of S = t3 – 6t2 + 9t + 5. (3 marks)

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCKS
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

451/1

COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 1
THEORY
TIME: 2½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
1) Write your name, index number and school in the spaces provided above.
2) Write the date of examination and sign in the spaces provided.
3) This paper consists of two sections.
4) Answer all the questions in section A.
5) Answer question 16 (compulsory) and any other three questions from section B.
6) All answers must be written in the spaces provided in this question paper.
7) Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are
missing.
FOR EXAMINER’S USE ONLY
SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE ACTUAL SCORE
A 1 – 15 40
16 15
17 15
B 18 15
19 15
20 15
TOTAL SCORE

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided
1. State the two functions of the control unit. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
___________________________
2. Explain four reasons which make microcomputers suitable for personal computing work.
(2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
3. State the functions of the following keyboard key combinations. (3 marks)
a) CTRL + ESC
___________________________________________________________________________
b) ALT + F4
___________________________________________________________________________
c) CTRL + ALT + DEL
___________________________________________________________________________
4. Distinguish between an integrated software and a software suite. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

5. Differentiate between embedded computers and dedicated computers. (2 marks)

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6. Give three reasons why a company may prefer a tailor made software over off the shelf
software. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

7. Explain the function of the following registers. (2 marks)

a) Instruction registers
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
b) Address registers
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
8. a) Explain how a computer system can be protected from intruders. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
___________________________
b) State any two laws governing protection of information. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
9. a) What is the meaning of graphics as used in word processing? (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
b) Give two sources of graphics in the computer. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
10. a) State the cursor action when the following keyboard keys are pressed. (2 marks)
i) Delete key
___________________________________________________________________________
ii) Insert key
___________________________________________________________________________

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iii) Pgup (page up) key
___________________________________________________________________________
iv) Pgdwn (page down) key
___________________________________________________________________________

11. Identify the parts of the following e-mail address labeled A, B, C and D.
(4 marks)
Ict@kenyaonline.co.ke

A B C D

A
___________________________________________________________________________
B
___________________________________________________________________________
C
___________________________________________________________________________
D
___________________________________________________________________________

12. a) What is a search engine? (1 mark)

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

b) Give four examples of search engines you know. (2 marks)

13. a) Define the following terms as used in a worksheet. (2 marks)

i) Columns
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________

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ii) Rows
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________
b) Distinguish between absolute cell reference and relative cell reference. (2 marks)
Relative Referencing
__________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
Absolute referencing;
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

14. a) State one data processing file. (l mark)

___________________________________________________________________________
b) Explain the function of the file named above in 14 (a). (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
__________________________________________________________________________
___________________________
15. Give one reason to the growth of communication industry in Kenya. (l mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

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SECTION B: (60 MARKS)
Answer question 16 and any other three questions from this section
16. a) List two examples of;
i) Third generation languages. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
ii) Object oriented languages. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
b) Define (2 marks)
i) Object code
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
ii) Source code
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
c) Differentiate between a compiler and an interpreter. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

d) A car rental firm leases its cars for Kshs. 2500.00 per day. The manager gives a discount
based on the number of days that the car is rented. If the rental period is greater than or equals
to 7 days then a 25% discount is given. Write a pseudocode to accept a car number and the rental
period, and calculate the total amount earned by the company when a car is leased.(7 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
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___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

17. a) State three parameters that determines the magnitude of a number. (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

b) Using two’s complement, show how the arithmetic below would be carried out on a 8 - bit
computer system (+54) – (+29). (5 marks)

c) Using one’s complement, perform the following binary arithmetic leaving the answer in
decimal notation. (5 marks)
11012 – 1001012

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d) Differentiate between a word and a word length. (2 marks)
__________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

18. a) State the meaning of the following operating systems terms:

i) Interrupt (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
ii) Trouble shooting. (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
iii) Clock speed. (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
b) Differentiate the following. (4 marks)
i) Disk compression and disk defragmentation.
__________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

ii) Disk partitioning and disk formatting.

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ii) Resource control and allocation (3 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
d) Computer can fail to work due to problems associated with operating system.
Explain how the following problems can be corrected. (2 marks)
i) Runtime problems
___________________________________________________________________________

ii) Corrupted registry

___________________________________________________________________________

19. a) Giving examples, differentiate between hard system and soft system. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

b) Explain the following system characteristics. (2 marks)

i) System control.
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
ii) Sub-systems
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
c) i) What is a closed system? (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________

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20. a) Define the term Multiplexing as used in networking. (1 mark)

b) Describe the following signal wave properties. (3 marks)

i) Frequency of a wave
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
iii) Wavelength

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d) Give one advantage and one disadvantage of each of (c) above. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
e) i) What is virtual reality? (1 mark)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
ii) Describe four essential equipment to achieve virtual reality. (4 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCKS
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

451/2

COMPUTER STUDIES
PAPER 2
(PRACTICAL)
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) This paper has two questions.
(b) Answer all the questions.
(c) All questions carry equal marks.
(d) Type your name and index number at the right hand corner of each print out.
(e) Write your name and index number on the storage medium provided.
(f) Write your name and version of software used for each question attempted.
(g) Passwords should not be used while saving in your work.
(h) Make a printout of the answers on the answer sheets provided
(i) Hand all the print outs and the storage medium
(j) This paper consists of 4 printed pages
(k) Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are
missing.

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1. a) Kirui’s milling company limited has given you the details below to be used in calculating
expenses incurred during two quarters of the year as indicated. Use a spreadsheet package to
enter the details, and save your work as Expenses 1. (10 marks)
A B C D E F G
1 KIRUI’S MILLING COMPANY LIMITED
2 P.O BOX 625 NAKURU
3 First quarter Second quarter
4 January February March April May June
5 Production cost 15642 14687 18741 19457 15412 15441
6 Transportation 1564 1469 1874 1946 1541 1544
7 Warehousing 1125 1056 1347 1398 1107 1109
8 Promotion 2564 2407 3071 3188 2525 2530
9 Salary 4525 4248 5420 5626 4456 4465

b) i) Copy the details of Kirui’s milling company limited to sheet 2 of your worksheet.
(2 marks)
ii) Add a column called “Total” and calculate the Total production cost of the two
Quarters. (4 marks)
iii) Use relative referencing to calculate the total for the other expenses. (4 marks)
c) i) Calculate the total expenses for each month so as to give the results as “Total
expenses” on row 10. (4 marks)
ii) On the paper provided, write the formula used to calculate the expenses for the month
of April. (2 marks)
d) i) Use absolute referencing to calculate the cumulative total expenses for the two
quarters in cell H10. (4 marks)
ii) Write the formula used to get the cumulative total on the paper provided.(2 marks)
iii) Calculate the percentage of total expenses of the respective months and display the
results on row 11 as “percentage of total expenses”. (4 marks)
iv) Write the formulae used to get the percentage of May. (2 marks)
v) Draw a line graph to illustrate the percentage of the total expenses for the six months
indicating the months. Save your work as Expenses 2. (10 marks)
vi) Print Expenses 1 and Expenses 2. (2 marks)

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2. a) A hospital uses a database to maintain data about its employees.
Create a database file named EMPLOYEE. (1 mark)
b) Create a table called EMPLOYEE 1 with the following fields and hence enter data into
it as shown in fig 1 below. NB: Choose an appropriate primary key. (14 marks)
 EMP NO
 NAME
 DATE OF BIRTH
 DEPARTMENT
 BASIC PAY
Fig 1
Emp Name Date of Department Gross pay
birth
01 John Kirui 16/2/1972 Computer 28000
02 Margaret Wairimu 2/2/1960 Medical 30000
03 Jane Cherono 2/5/1970 Management 15000
04 Victor Oduor 8/12/1981 Accounts 25000
05 Harry Wanyama 23/6/1983 Medical 30000
06 Jacob Kiprono 19/4/1973 Management 45000
07 Ali Mohammed 1/1/1969 Medical 30000
08 Daniel Omondi 3/5/1983 Accounts 25000
09 Everlyne Kitune 11/3/1971 Medical 20000
10 Nancy Kerubo 22/9/1980 Medical 20000

c) i) Insert two new fields to hold the employee’s profession and deductions.
(4 marks)
ii) Data for included fields is as follows;
Profession
Mohammed, Wanyama and Wairimu are Doctors. Oduor and Omondi are accountants.
Kiprono is an Administrator, Kirui is a systems analyst and Cherono is a secretary.
Deductions
Emp no Amount
07, 05, 02 8,000
04, 08 7,500
06 10,000
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01 12,000
03 3,500
09, 10 4,000
Enter the above data into the respective fields. (6 marks)
iii) Sort the records in ascending order based on the name field and save as EMPLOYEE
2. (3 marks)
d) i) From EMPLOYEE 2, extract a list of employees who were born between 1960 and
1972 both years inclusive and are accountants, nurses or doctors. Write down on paper
provided the query expression you used to extract the data. Save the extracted list as
LIST1. (8 marks)
ii) Remove the date and occupation criteria on LIST 1. Add a calculated field to calculate
the Net pay of all employees as Gross Pay - Deductions. Save as LIST 2. (5 marks)
e) Generate a columnar report based on LIST 2 with the following fields; Emp no, Name,
Department and Net Pay. Sum up the Net Pay for all employees in the report. Save your report as
REPORT.
(6 marks)
f) Print EMPLOYEE1, EMPLOYEE2, LIST1, LIST 2 and REPORT. (3 marks)

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCKS
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

441/1

HOMESCIENCE
PAPER 1
THEORY
TIME: 2½ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
(a) Write your name, school and index number in the spaces provided above.
(b) Sign and write the date of the examination in the spaces provided above.
(c) This paper consists of three sections A, B and C.
(d) All the questions in Section A and B are compulsory.
(e) Answer any other two questions in section C.
(f) Answers to all the questions must be written in the spaces provided.
(g) This paper consists of 8 printed pages.
(h) Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions
are missing
FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY
SECTION QUESTION MAXIMUM SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE
A 1  20 40
B 21 20
20
C
20
TOTAL SCORE 100

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SECTION A (40 MARKS)
Answer ALL the questions from this section in the spaces provided
1. Give two reasons for folding clothes when storing. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________________
2. Give two reasons for thawing frozen food completely before cooking. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________________
3. State two points to note on the care of ears when cleaning your face daily. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________________
4. Give two importance of classifying clothes before storage. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________________
5. Identify two ways of preventing insect bites and stings. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________________
6. Mention two disadvantages of cross method of ventilating a room. (2 marks)
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________________
7. State two disadvantages of roasting as a method of cooking food. (2 marks)

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9. Differentiate between a dart and a pleat in clothing construction. (2 marks)

___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________
________________________________
10. State two ways of saving energy when lighting a home. (2 marks)
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11. Define simmering in cookery. (1 mark)
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12. List two food substances used for coating food during deep frying of foods. (2 marks)
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13. Identify two characteristics of fabric which develop static electricity. (2 marks)
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14. State two advantages of using self-neatening seams in garment construction. (2 marks)
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15. Give two causes of drowning in children. (2 marks)
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16. Give two reasons why aluminium is widely used in making kitchen equipment (2 marks)
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17. Give two functions of water in the body. (2 marks)

18. State two properties that make linen suitable for making kitchen tea towels. (2 marks)
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19. Mention three qualities of a well-made seam. (3 marks)
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20. Give two reasons why hot water is not suitable for cleaning wooden surfaces. (2 marks)
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SECTION B (20 MARKS)

COMPULSORY
21. You are to visit your grandmother over the weekend. Describe how you would;
a) Launder her acrylic sweater. (10 marks)
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b) Clean her earthen water pot. (5 marks)
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c) Clean her gourd for storing porridge. (5 marks)
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SECTION C (40 MARKS)
Answer any TWO questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 24
22. a) State six signs of pregnancy. (6 marks)
b) Identify any six problems that may arise during pregnancy which need to be reported to
the doctor.
(6 marks)
c) Mention any three points on meeting the following needs of an expectant woman.
i) Physical needs (3 marks)
ii) Emotional needs (3 marks)
d) Define haemorrhoids and give their cause in pregnancy. (2 marks)

23. a) Give five reasons for caring for the stick at home.
(5 marks)
b) Mention five factors to consider when packing meals. (5 marks)
c) State five factors to consider when choosing fastenings. (5 marks)
d) Discuss five ways of conserving nutrients when cooking vegetable. (5 marks)

24. a) State six desirable qualities of fabric for making curtains. (6 marks)
b) Explain four uses of openings in garment construction. (8 marks)
c) Explain three reasons for ironing / pressing garments at every stage of construction.
(6 marks)

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCKS
SERIES 001
SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

441 / 2
HOMESCIENCE
PAPER 2
CLOTHING AND TEXTILES (PRACTICAL)

CONFIDENTIAL

Each candidates is required to have the following

a) Poplin material
b) Sewing thread
c) Embroidery thread

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SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

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441/2

HOME SCIENCE
(CLOTHING CONSTRUCTION)
PAPER 2
PRACTICAL
TIME: 2½ HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
a) This paper consists of three printed pages.
b) Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that all the pages are printed as
indicated and that no questions are missing.
c) Candidates are advised to ensure that the pattern pieces match with sketches shown on question
paper.

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A pattern of a pair of shorts is provided. You are advised to study the sketches, instructions and the
layout carefully before you begin the test.

MATERIALS PROVIDED.
1. Pattern pieces.
A short front
B Short back
C Pocket
D Waistband
E Front short facing
F Back short facing
2. Plain light weight cotton fabric 50cm long by 90cm wide.
3. Cotton sewing thread to match the fabrics
4. One large envelope

THE TEST
Using the materials provided cut out and make the left leg of the short to show the following
processes.
a) Making of the back dart.
b) Preparing and attaching the pocket.
c) Working of the inner leg seam using machine fell seam.
d) Working of the side seam using an open seam.
e) Attaching the facings onto the lower edge of the shorts.
f) Preparing and attaching the waistband.
g) Finishing the waistband using hemming stitches.

At the end of the examination firmly sew on your work on a single fabric a label bearing your name
and index number. Remove the needles and pins from your work then fold your work neatly and
place it in the envelope provided. Do not put scrapes of fabric in the envelope.

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VIEW OF PAIR OF SHORTS

FRONT
BACK

LAYOUT (NOT DRAWN TO SCALE)

90 cm

A
B

F E

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441/ 3

HOMESCIENCE
(FOODS AND NUTRITION)
PAPER 3
PRACTICAL
TIME: 1¾ HOURS
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
PLANNING SESSION: 30 MINUTES
PRACTICAL TEST SESSION: 1¼ HRS
1. Read the test carefully
2. Write your name, school, index number, signature and date on every sheet of paper used.
3. You are advised to spend 30 minutes to come up with a plan of work which will be used for the
practical.
4. Textbooks and recipes may be used during the planning session as reference materials.
5. You will be expected to keep to your order of work during the practical session.
6. You are only allowed to take away your reference materials at the end of the planning session.
7. You are not allowed to bring additional notes to the practical session.
8. This paper consists of 2 printed pages.
9. Candidates should check to ensure that all pages are printed as indicated and no questions are
missing.

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THE TEST
Your two cousins spent the night at your house. Using all the ingredients listed below prepare,
cook and present two suitable items for breakfast for the three of you. Include a beverage.

INGREDIENTS
 Oil
 Salt
 Eggs
 Sugar
 Tea leaves
 Self-raising wheat flour / plain wheat flour
 Milk
 Sweet potatoes / Arrow roots

PLANNING SESSION: 30 MINUTES

For each task listed below, use separate sheets of paper and make duplicate copies using carbon
paper.

Then proceed as follows:

1. Identify the dishes and write the recipes
2. Write your order of work.
3. Make list of the foodstuff and equipment you will require.

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SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

501/1

FRENCH
PAPER 1
(LISTENING COMPREHENSION AND DICTATION)
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS FOR DICTATION:

 The passage is read through once. Don’t write at this stage. You must listen carefully.
 The passage will then be read in short sections, each section being repeated once.
You will write down each section (without the repeats) as it is read. You must think carefully
about what you are writing paying attention to spelling and grammatical constructions.
 Finally the passage will be read straight through once again. During this final reading you will
be able to correct your work and you will also be given five minutes after the final reading to
complete your checking.

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INSTRUCTIONS FOR LISTENING COMPREHENSION
 You have five minutes to read through the question paper before the exam begins.
 You will hear several recorded passages
 Answer all the questions in the spaces provided in the answer sheet.
 At the end of the recording, you have 5 minutes to go through your work.

SECTION I
Listening Comprehension

Write answers to questions 1-7 in the spaces provided.

Passage I

1. (a) D’après l’annonce, quelle est la première émission du soir que vous pouvez voir et
a quelle heure ?

Nom...............................................................................................................(½pt)
L’heure...........................................................................................................(½pt)

(b) Le match international de football est entre …………………………. et

…………………………………………………………….................................(1pt)
(c) La dernière transmission sera un film, qui s’appelle ……………………. à
……………………………..heures ………………………. (1pt)

Passage II

2. (a) Dans l’annonce, on parle d’un.......................................................( ½ pt)

(b) Il est entre............................voitures et...............................camions(½pt)

Passage III : Annonce A.

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3. (a) Où est-ce qu’on arrive dans dix minutes ?
à ............................................................................................................. (
½ pt)
(b) Qu’est-ce qu’on demande aux voyageurs de faire?
......................................................................................................................( ½ pt)

Annonce B

(c) Donnez deux détails sur le petit garçon

(i)..................................................................................................................( ½ pt)
(ii).................................................................................................................( ½ pt)
(d) Qui doit se présenter ?
....................................................................................................................................( ½ pt)

Annonce C
(e) D’après l’annonce, il y aura un concours de dance le..................................(i)
au………………………………………….(ii)municipal. Seulement
les..................................................................(iii) peuvent y participer. Un prix
sera offert au...................................................(iv) (2 pts)

Passage IV
4. (a) D’après la conversation, on peut chercher……………………………au magasin
Jourdin.
( ½ pt)
(b) Le magasin ouvre l’après midi à .........................................................( ½ pt)
(c) Il faut payer............................................................................................( ½ pt)

Passage V

5. (a) L’auditeur préfère..........................................(i) mais il a mal

au..............................................................(ii) ( 1pt)
(b) Le meilleur sport pour éviter ce mal c’est

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................................................................................................................................

Passage VI

6. (a) Cet hiver on peut aller à ..................................................................... ( ½ pt)

(b) Ça fait combien cette offre ?................................................................... ( ½ pt)

(c) Cette offre exceptionnelle est valable du........................................................

à …………………………………………(1 pt)

Passage VIII

7. (a) Il pleuvra dans quelles parties ? :

(i).............................................................................................................................

(ii) ..........................................................................................................( 1pt)

SECTION II
Dictation
Write the dictation passage in the spaces provided. (5pts)

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SECTION III
Composition
Write your two compositions in the pages provided.:
1. In 120-150 words, write in French on:
Either
a) Vous êtes le /la guide touristique et vous êtes sur le point d’accueillir les touristes
canadiens dans votre pays. Ecrivez l’itinéraire.
(10pts)
or
b) Vous êtes logé à l’hôtel Stem à Nakuru et vous n’êtes pas du tout content(e) avec la
chambre et les services offerts. Rédigez une lettre pour porter plainte.
(10pts)
2. In 150-180 words, write in French a composition :
Either; beginning as follows:
a) J’étais tout juste sur le point de monter dans le bus … (15pts)
or
b) Ending as follows.
……………et c’est pourquoi je n’y irais jamais. (15pts)

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KCSE CROSS-COUNTRY MOCKS
SERIES 001
NAME……………………………………………………………………………………

SCHOOL………………………………………… INDEX NO………………………

SIGN…………………………………………….. DATE…………………………….

501/2

FRENCH
PAPER 2
(READING COMPREHENSION AND GRAMMAR)
TIME: 2 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your name and index number in the spaces provided above
 This paper consists of two sections
 Answer all questions in the spaces provided

For examiner’s use only

SECTION MAX SCORE CANDIDATE’S SCORE

I 15
II 15
TOTAL SCORE

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SECTION I (15mks)
Reading Comprehension
PASSAGE 1

Après le coup d’état militaire au pays KAFIRA, le calme est finalement revenu. Le seul fait
justifiable de ces derniers jours a été la libération : Le 2 novembre ; c’est –à- dire deux jours
après le coup d’état, le président de la République de KAFIRA a pu retourner chez lui, dans la
capitale, grâce à l’action énergique de ses députés.
Les militaires qui avaient pris le pouvoir avaient demandé aux députés de continuer à server le
pays ceux- ci ont accepté à la seul condition: que le président soit libéré; ce qui été fait
immédiatement:

1. (a) Où se trouve le président actuellement ? (½

pnt)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Quel jour a eu lieu le coup d’état? ( ½ pnt)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
…
( c) Qu’est-ce que ça veut dire ‘La république ? (1pnt)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Comment les députés ont-ils pu obtenir la libération du président ? (1pnt)
………………………………………………………………………………………………

PASSAGE II
L’ALGERIE ET LA FRANCE
L’Algérie est un pays d’Afrique du nord. De 1830 à 1962, l’Algérie est un territoire français,
mais à partir de 1956, une guerre éclate. Les algériens veulent été libres et ne plus appartenir à la
France. En 1962, après plusieurs années de guerre, l’Algérie devient libre mais les relations entre
la France et l’Algérie restent fortes. En effet beaucoup d’algériens viennent vivre en France. Les

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deux pays continuent à faire des affaires ensemble. Depuis 1992, la situation est devenue très
dure en Algérie et les relations avec la France plus difficile à cause de la guerre.
2 (a) Quels sont les sens de ces mots?
i) ….. l’Algérie est un territoire français
……………………………………………………………………………….(½pt)
ii) …. Libre
…………………………………………………………………………………… (½pt)
(b) Donnez deux points dans le passage qui montre que les relations entre la France et
l’Algérie restent fortes (1pt)

(i)………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii)………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) La guerre a causé quoi après 1992 ?
(i)
………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii)………………………………………………………………………………

PASSAGE III
Une française de 29 ans vivait à Londres. Mitchelle Vilimek est portée disparue depuis dimanche
dernier et la police britannique a lancé un appel aux témoins pour la retrouver, rapport le
parisien-Dimanche. Inquiet, un ancien petit ami de la femme, qui travaille comme serveur dans la
capitale britannique, a prévenu la police de Twickenham, quartier où elle réside, précise le
journal.
3. (a) Dans ce texte, quel est le problème ?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….(½
pt)
(b) Qu’est-ce que la police fait pour résoudre ce problème?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(½pt)
( c) Qu’est-ce qui a fait l’ancien petit ami de Mitchelle et pourquoi?

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…………………………………………………………………………………………….(1pt)
(d) Qu’est-ce que l’ancien ami de Mitchelle fait pour gagner la vie?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(½pt)
(e) Où habite Mitchelle?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(½
pt)

PASSAGE IV
Il y avait dans un pays, un jeune homme dont les parents, à sa naissance, avaient consulté Ifa,et
Ifa avait dit: “Cet enfant ne doit pas se marier.”
Il grandissait quand un jour, au marché, passant prés de l’étalage d’une jeune femme, il a entendu
quelqu’un qui lui adressait la parole ainsi: “jeune home, je veux devenir ta femme.” Il connaissait
l’ordre d’Ifa et s’est contenté de répondre: “Je ne peux pas me marier.”
La jeune femme a écouté, mais résolu à devenir sa femme, elle a passé outre. Apprenant un jour
que le jeune homme ne demeurait pas loin de là, la jeune femme est allée le trouver, lui a parlé et
a fait tant si bien qu’il a accepté de la prendre pour épouse.

4. (a) Quel a été l’ordre d’Ifa?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(1p
t)
(b) Où travaillait la jeune femme?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(1pt)
(c) Pourqoui le jeune homme n’a pas respecté l’ordre d’Ifa?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(1p
t)
( d) Trouvez dans le texte les synonymes de:
(i) habitait
……………………………………………………………………………………(½pt)

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(ii) épouse

…………………………………………………………………………………………(½pt)..

PASSAGE V
“ICl ON LIVRE”
Sous le titre amusant “ici on livre” se cache une opération lancée en France au printemps dernier,
en visant à collecter quantité de livres en bon état. Romans, livres éducatifs ou scientifiques,
romans policiers et autres trouveront ainsi une deuxième vie dans les bibliothèques des pays
francophones les plus défavorisés. Ce geste illustre la volonté des chefs d’état de la francophonie
d’orienter leurs actions vers le concert et la coopération.

5. (a) De quoi s’agit-il dans le texte?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(½pt)
( b) Qui sont responsable de l’opération dont on parle?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(½
pt)
(c) Quelle sera la destination des livres mentionnés?

……………………………………………………………………………………………(1pt)

SECTION II (15 MARKS)

6. Beginning as indicated, complete the sentences below, making all appropriate changes.
Avoid unnecessary repetitions.
Example.
- Tu vois toujours tes amis?
- Non,____________________________
- Non, je ne les vois plus.
(a) Les vacances dernières, toute la famille est allée à Mombasa.

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Les vacances
prochaines,………………………………………………………………(1pt)
(b) Qu’est-ce qu’elle fait? On ne sait pas
Ils ne savent
pas.……………………………………………………………………… (1pt)
(c) Pierre est très malade; il va à l’école quand même.
Bien
qu’il....................................................................................................................... (1pt)
(d) Je ne peux pas aller à l’école, parce que je suis malade.
Si
..................................................................................................................................(1pt).
(e) Le facteur délivre les lettres chaque matin
Les
lettres……………………………………………………………………………….(1pt)
(f) Hélène, fais ton travail!
Hélène, il faut
que……………………………………………………………………(1pt).
(g) Avez-vous trouvé quelqu’un en classe?

Non,……………………………………………………………………………………(1pt)

3. Rearrange the following telephone conversation to make a coherent conversation. ( 3

points)
(i) Moi aussi
(ii) Allo! C’est le 07-21- 65-42- 46 ?
( iii) bonjour Linda, ici Elizabeth.
(iv) Oui, Qui est à l’appareil?
( v) Ah! Eliza…….. ça va? Moi je vais bien Merci. Et toi?

Les réponses
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………
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4. Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate word. (5points)

(a) Voici le bureau dans…………………………………………… j’ai mis les cahiers.

(b) Janine joue très bien…………………………………..netball.
(c) C’est le vol du matin…………………………………..me convient.
(d) ………………………………. te plaît de jouer au volleyball?
(e) Heureusement, cela …………………………………arrive que deux fois par
semaine.
(f) De nos jours, beaucoup de nos jeunes
sont…………………………………chômage.
(g) Aujourd’hui il…………………………..mauvais à Shinyalu.
(h) Hier, le directeur a proposé……………étudiants……………… aller dormir un peu
plus tôt.
(i) Quelle heure………………….il? Je ne suis pas sûr, je n’avais pas de montre.

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501/3/
FRENCH
SECTION I

Reading Aloud

CARD A

Deux ou trois ans après les élections, les populations regardent les chefs politiques avec
suspicion. Ils avaient promis des lendemains chantants aux gens pendant les élections mais une
fois élus, ils ont oublié les promesses ! Mais de quelles promesses s’agit-il ?
Les promesses comprennent des meilleures routes, des meilleures salaires, la gratuite de
l’éducation et de la santé, la transparence et la responsabilité financière, la fin de corruption, la
justice sociale, la démocratie …… et la liste continue. Mais pourquoi les populations sont-elles
déçues ?
Le premier problème est le manque d’éducation civique qui aurait permis aux électeurs de
comprendre leurs responsabilités. Beaucoup vont aux élections sans savoir comment évaluer les
candidats politiques. De plus, beaucoup sont illettrés et très pauvres. Avec des populations
pauvres et illettrées, il est possible de les manipuler avec un peu d’argent et bien sur avec des
mensonges.

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501/3/French
July 2016

SECTION I

Reading Aloud

CARD B

Un ou deux mois après être sortis de l’école, les étudiants semblent être sans direction précise.
Ceux qui n’ont pas encore décidé quoi faire de leur vie tournent soit vers leurs parents soit leurs
amis pour le conseil. Malheureusement, la plupart perdent direction grâce au mauvais conseil
qu’ils reçoivent de leurs camarades.
Pour ceux qui sont assez chanceux d’avoir choisi leurs carrières avant de quitter l’école, ils
entrent dans les collèges tout en attendant leurs résultats. De nos jours, on doit se munir des
connaissances supplémentaires à part ses bons résultats. C’est ainsi qu’ils rejoignent des cours de
l’informatique ou entrent à l’auto-école. Quelques-uns ont même la chance d’être embauchés à
mi-temps dans certaines entreprises.
Cependant, on a entendu parler de quelques filles qui jettent leur avenir à la poubelle au profit
de se marier avec des types qui ne s’intéressent pas du tout à elles ! Quelle catastrophe ! Il faut
les conseiller contre une telle action qui est dirigée par des fausses promesses du paradis à la
perte éternelle de leur rêve.

501/3/French
July 2016

SECTION II

Expose

Instructions to Candidates.

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1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

SECTION II

Expose

Instructions to Candidates.
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

SECTION II

Expose

Instructions to Candidates.
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

SECTION II

Expose

Candidate’s Card A
Les Avantages et les Inconvénients des Industries dans Votre Pays.

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SECTION II
Expose
Candidate’s Card B
Quelle est la relation entre les maladies et l’économie ?

SECTION II
Expose

Candidate’s Card C
Quelle est la relation entre l’environnement et la santé ?

501/3/French

SECTION II
Expose

Instructions to Candidates.
1. You will talk on the topic given overleaf.
2. You will have ten minutes to prepare for the task.
3. You will have two minutes to talk on the topic.

SECTION II
Expose

Candidate’s Card D
Les inconvénients de la nouvelle technologie.

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442/1

ART AND DESIGN

PAPER 1
TIME: 1 HR 30 MIN
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 Write your Name ,admission and name of school in the spaces provided above
 Sign and write date of the exam in the spaces provided above
 This paper consists of three sections A,B and C
 Answer all questions in the both Section A and B
 Answer any one questions from section C
 All answers must be written in the provided space
 Candidates should check the question paper to ascertain that All the pages are printed as indicated
and that NO question is missing
 Answer all questions in section A and B and any one question from section C

FOR EXAMINERS USE ONLY

QUESTION MAXIMUM CANDIDATE’S SCORE

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SECTION A(25 MKS)
Answer all questions in this section
1. State one similarity and two differences between the illustrated Typefaces (3mks)

A……………………………………………………………………………………………
…..
B……………………………………………………………………………………………
……
C……………………………………………………………………………………………
……

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D……………………………………………………………………………………………
……
E……………………………………………………………………………………………
…….
F……………………………………………………………………………………………
…….

On what principle does the above process operate? (1mk)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………

3. Why is grog used in the production of ceramic ware? (2mks)

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………….
4. In the given illustration ,identify M: (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………
Which type of loom is this? (1mk)

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5. Distinguish between subjective and objective use of color (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………
6. With the aid of illustration, briefly explain COIL and SLAB hand building techniques in
Pottery (4mks)

7. Construct the word PLUM in 3D and Downward Left oblique View (6mks)

8. Why should we use paste ink for relief printing whereas use liquid inks for intaglio printing
(2mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

SECTION B 20 MARKS
1. What is a POSTER? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………..
2. Define UNITY in Art and Design (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Outline any 2 approaches of estimating proportions of the Human figure in drawing(2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………..
4. What is TYPOGRAPHY? (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………

5. State at least 2 Elements of Art that are responsible for creating 3D forms (2mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………….
6. Blue +little white =Light Blue
State one word for this process (1mk)

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…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
………..
7. Draw the human head in Profile view (4mks)

8. Indicate the stems for the word POINT to be used in Stencil printing (4mks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………
9. Mention 2 appropriate surfaces for painting (1mk)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………..

SECTION C (15 MARKS)

Attempt ANY ONE Question in this Section
EITHER
CERAMICS
1. a) Define clay as a material for potting (2mks)
b) Why should freshly dug clay undergo preparation before using it? (2mks)
c) Outline the 3 properties of good quality clay (3mks)

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d) Complete the table below (8mks)

STAGE DESCRIPTION REASON

Collection (i) To be used for potting

(ii) Crush and grind into (iii)

powder

Slaking (iv) To form a homogeneous

mass

(v) ‘Doughing’ and mixing Make it soft, smooth;

into plastic state. expel air and impurities.

Wedging (vi) (vii)

Storage (vii) (ix)

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OR
DRAWING

2. a) What is meant by the term PERSPECTIVE? (2mks)

b) Mention the 2 kinds of perspective (2mks)

Study the pictures above and describe it under the following guidelines.

(i) Type of Art (2mks)

(ii) Format and space (2mks)
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(iii) Shape and proportion (2mks)
(iv) Depth and distance (2mks)
(v) Theme (2mks)

OR
WEAVING
3. a) Define the term weaving (2mks)

b) State 4 weaving techniques (4mks)

c) State and explain 3 functions of woven articles in contemporary Kenya (3mks)
d) Describe the process of weaving with serrated card loom. Illustrate your work (6mks)

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442/2

ART AND DESIGN

PAPER 2
TIME: 3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
 This paper contains TWO alternatives A and B. Both the alternatives have TWO options
Choose any ONE option from any one of the alternative.
 This paper will be given to you ONE HOUR before the start of the exam to enable you to
make your choice.
 Clearly write your name ,index number, the alternative and the number of option chosen in
that order on the right-hand corner of an unpainted 4cm margin running across the bottom
of the paper.
 At end of the exam, pass your work to the supervisor WITHOUT ROLLING or FOLDING.

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ALTERNATIVE A: DRAWING OR PAINTING
Either
1. Create an imaginative or memory pictorial composition using soft (B)range pencils ,or
coloured pencils, or ink and pen based on the following scene;
A TAX COLLECTOR IN A BUSY OPEN MARKET.

Or
2. Compose a picture I color from memory based on the theme

A CAPTIVATING NARRATIVE BESIDES THE BONFIRE AT NIGHT.

ALTERNATIVE B: GRAPHIC DESIGN
Either
1. Using calligraphy re-write the following text accompanied with an appropriate illustration to
support the message:

A HOUSEHOLD TIP!
If the tips of your knitting needles get worn out, dip them in a nail polish and then dry. Needles
will be as good as new!
The illustration should be in 2 colors only
Work in area of (30 x 21) cm
Or
2. Design a mofif derived from organic source. The mofif will be used for a repeated pattern of
Fabric Decoration meant for an aquatic firm dealing with marine animals and plants;
(a) Produce a separate mofif in an area of (10 x 10)cm
(b) Repeat the mofif in 16 grid of (5 x 5)cm

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KCSE PREDICTIONS TOO AVAILABLE!

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