PRESTORMING - 2021

TEST 6 - CURERNT AFFAIRS

EXPLANATION

Q.1) With reference to the law-making process in India, consider the following statements:

1. A bill that is passed by the Parliament and is presented to the President must be approved by him
within six months.

2. A bill that gets the president’s approval must be notified in the official gazette within a period of
one month of the date of assent by the President.

3. The process of framing rules and regulations under the law is delegated by the parliament to the
executive.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1,2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Article 111 of the Constitution specifies that the President can either sign off on the Bill or withhold
his assent. However, the Constitution does not specify a time limit for the VPresident to approve a
Bill.
Over the years, Parliament has repealed several laws. But there have also been examples when the
government has not brought an already passed law into force.
Two such examples are the National Environment Tribunal Act and the Delhi Rent Control Act which
Parliament passed in 1995 but had never brought these laws into force
So, statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Q.2) With respect to ‘e-EPIC’, recently seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are
correct?

1. It is an electronic version of the Electoral Photo Identity Card which is available in editable PDF
version and can be stored in the Digi locker app.

2. The voter must have a valid Aadhar card in order to be able to download the electronic card.

Select the correct answer using th code given below:

(a) 1 only

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 (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

It is an Electronic version of the Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC). It would be a non-editable PDF
version of the EPIC that can be downloaded on the phone and stored on the DigiLocker app or
printed from a computer.
All general voters who have valid EPIC numbers would be able to download the electronic version of
the Electoral Photo Identity Card.
Aadhar Card is not mandatory to avail the e-card.
So, statement 2 is incorrect

Q.3) With reference to FCRA rules recently announced under Foreign Contribution (Regulation)
Act,2010, consider the following statements:

1. All donations received in Indian rupees by the NGOs and associations from any foreign source will
not be treated as foreign donations if the source is located within India.

2. The new rules cover all NGOs, whether they are registered or granted prior permission under the
FCRA

3. Donations made by a Person of Indian origin holding an OCI card are exempted from the
provisions of the FCRA act.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

What are the new FCRA rules announced by the Home Ministry?

The donations received in Indian rupees by the NGOs and associations from any foreign source
should be treated as a foreign contribution. Even if that source is located in India at the time of such
donation.
It will include the contributions by foreigners of Indian origin like OCI or PIO cardholders, in Indian
rupees (INR).

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 As per the existing rules, Banks need to report any receipt or utilization of any foreign contribution,
by any NGO, association, or person. Banks should submit these reports to the Central government
within 48 hours.
Rules cover all NGOs, whether they are registered or granted prior permission under the FCRA.
So, statements 1 and 3 are incorrect.

Q.4) Consider the following statements with respect to STARS Project, recently seen in the news:

1. It is a central sector scheme that aims to improve the overall monitoring and measurement
activities in the Indian school education system

2. Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of Education (MOE) will be the
main implementing agency at the national level.

3. It is a World bank aided scheme.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

STARS project:

The project would be implemented as a new Centrally Sponsored Scheme.

Aim: To improve the overall monitoring and measurement activities in the Indian school education
system through interventions in selected states.
The project covers 6 States: Himachal Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Kerala,
and Odisha.
Implementation:
At the National level, the Department of School Education and Literacy (DoSEL), Ministry of
Education (MOE) will be the main implementing agency.
At the State level, the project will be implemented through the integrated State Implementation
Society (SIS) for Samagra Shiksha.
So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Q.5) Consider the following statements with respect to the recently launched SAATHHE Portal:

1. .It is a Management Information System(MIS) portal that will facilitate real-time monitoring of the
progress of implementation of various Energy Conservation endeavors at the State level.

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 2. The portal has been designed and developed by Energy Efficiency Services Limited(EESL) under
the Ministry of Power.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

SATHEE Portal: It has been launched by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency(BEE). SAATHI stands for
State-wise Actions on Annual Targets and Headways on Energy Efficiency

Q.6) With respect to Global Housing Technology Challenge-India, recently seen in the news, consider
the following statements:

1. . It aims to transform the ecosystem of the housing construction sector in India through

lighthouse projects built using advanced proven technologies.

2. LightHouse Projects(LHPs) are the houses built through alternate technology suitable to the geo-
climatic and hazard conditions of the region.

3. The initiative has been launched by NITI Aayog along with Israel as the technology partner.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

It was launched in 2019 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs under the Pradhan Mantri
Awas Yojana Urban (PMAYU). It aims to transform the ecosystem of the housing construction sector
in India through lighthouse projects built using advanced proven technologies.
LightHouse Projects(LHPs): These are model housing projects with houses built with shortlisted
alternate technology suitable to the geo-climatic and hazard conditions of the region.
So, statement 3 is incorrect.

Q.7) The United States (US) administration has amended its H-1B visa regime. Consider the following
statements in this regard:

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 1. It is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ foreign workers in occupations that
require theoretical or technical expertise

2. The selection of the H1B visas will now be done through a randomized lottery system under the
amended rules.

3. The amended rules will be applicable only to the workers coming from India and China to the
United States.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

It is a non-immigrant visa that allows US companies to employ foreign workers in occupations that
require theoretical or technical expertise. They are generally approved for three years after which
holders often change employers and continue working for other companies based in the US.
According to the amended rules, US Citizenship and Immigration Services(USCIS) will first select
registrations where the proffered wage equals or exceeds the prevailing level in that area of
employment.
Until now, the selection of H-1B work visas was done by a randomized lottery system, which did not
take into account factors such as wage, experience, or any other requirements and demands.

Q.8) The Grand Renaissance Dam project, recently seen in the news is located on which of the following
rivers?

(a) Yangtze river

(b) Colorado river

(c) Rhone river

(d) Nile river

EXPLANATION:

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 Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GER(D) which was formerly known as the Millennium Dam is
located in Ethiopia, on the Blue Nile River about 40km east of Sudan.
The dam will be the largest hydroelectric power plant in Africa when completed as well as the
seventh-largest in the world

Q.9) With regard to One Planet Summit, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. Identifying the links between deforestation and the health of humans and animals is one of the
components of the summit.

2. The summit is organized by the United States in cooperation with the United Nations and the
World Bank.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

One Planet Summit: It has been organized by France in cooperation with the United Nations and the
World Bank.
The summit focuses on four major topics 1) protecting terrestrial and marine ecosystems; promoting
agroecology 2) more sustainable ways to grow food (c) increasing funding to protect biodiversity and
4) identifying links between deforestation and the health of humans and animals.

Q.10) Consider the following statements with respect to the recently launched Digital Payment
Index(DPI):

1. The index score is calculated on the basis of five parameters with all having equal weights
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 2. The index shall be published by RBI on a semi-annual basis from March 2021 onwards with a lag
of 4 months

3. The DPI index for 2020 crossed the 200 mark with 100 assigned to March 2018 value.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 only

EXPLANATION:

The DPI index aims to capture the extent of digitization of payments across the country given the
sharp pick-up in digital transactions seen in the recent past.
The index comprises five broad parameters with varying weights to measure the penetration of digital
payments. The five key parameters include:
1. Payment enablers (25%).
2. Payment infrastructure—demand-side factors (10%).
3. Payment infrastructure—supply-side factors (15%).
4. Payment performance (45%).
5. Consumer centricity (5%).
The index has been constructed with March 2018 as the base period. At a base of 100 for March
2018, the RBI has measured that the index rose to 153.47 and 207.84 in 2019 and 2020
respectively.

Q.11) ‘Bare Necessities Index(BNI), recently seen in the news, has been released by which of the
following?

(a) NITI Aayog

(b) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment

(c) Economic Survey 2020-21

(d) UNDP

EXPLANATION:

Bare Necessities Index(BNI): The index has been released in the Economic Survey 2020-21.It has
been developed as a means of assessing economic development using the basic needs approach
which summarises the 26 basic necessities in five dimensions — water, sanitation, housing, micro-
environment and other facilities.

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Q.12) Consider the following:

1. India Innovation Index

2. Jayant Kumar Dash Committee

3. Payments Infrastructure Development Fund(PIDF) Scheme

4. Financial Stability report

Which of the above is/are released by or related to RBI?

(a) 1,2 and 4 only

(b) 2,3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

India Innovation Index: It has been released by the NITI Aayog along with the Institute for
Competitiveness.The Index is aimed at providing an effective tool to track the state of innovation at
both the national and the state level
Jayant Kumar Dash Committee: It has been constituted by the Reserve Bank of India(R(B) to study
digital lending activities in the regulated and unregulated financial sector so that an appropriate
regulatory approach can be put in place.
Payments Infrastructure Development Fund(PIDF) Scheme: It has been launched by the Reserve
Bank of India(RBI).The fund aims to (a) increase the number of acceptance devices multi-fold in the
country (b) benefit the acquiring banks / non-banks and merchants by lowering overall acceptance
infrastructure cost and (c) increase payments acceptance infrastructure across the country.

Q.13) Which of the following is/are the constituents of the Biogas?

1. Methane

2. Carbondioxide

3. Hydrogen Sulphide

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Biogas is produced through anaerobic decomposition of biomass.

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 Anaerobic Process: It is a sequence of processes by which microorganisms break down biodegradable
material in the absence of oxygen.The process is used for industrial or domestic purposes to manage
waste or to produce fuels.
Second Step: Since biogas contains 55 to 60% methane, 40 to 45% carbon dioxide (CO2) and trace
amounts of hydrogen sulphide, the second process involves purifying the gas to remove carbon
dioxide and hydrogen sulphide gases to prepare CBG.

Q.14) Consider the following statements with respect to Indian star tortoises, recently seen in the news:

1. It is a species of tortoise found in dry areas and scrub forests of the Indian sub continent.

2. It is listed under schedule I of the Wildlife protection act, 1972 and Appendix I of CITES.

3. The IUCN status of Indian star tortoise is Vulnerable.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Indian star tortoise (Geochelone elegans): It is a species of tortoise found in dry areas and scrub
forests of India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. It is accustomed to monsoon seasons.
These tortoises are easily recognizable by their star-patterned shells.
IUCN Status: Vulnerable
Wild Life Protection Act 1972: Schedule IV
CITES: Appendix I

Q.15) Which of the following is/are the components of the Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats
(IDWH?

1. Project Tiger

2. Support to protected areas including national parks and wildlife sanctuaries

3. Recovery Programme for Critically Endangered Species program

4. Project Snow Leopard

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

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 (c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

Integrated Development of Wildlife Habitats (IDWH)- It was started in 2008-09 as a Centrally

sponsored Scheme. It is meant for providing support to protected areas (national parks, wildlife
sanctuaries, conservation reserves and community reserves except tiger reserves), protection of
wildlife outside protected areas and recovery programmes for saving critically endangered species and
habitats.

Q.16) Consider the following statements with respect to Gangetic River Dolphin:

1. Female dolphins are larger in size than the male dolphins.

2. They are blind species and navigate by the use of ultrasonic waves.

3. They are also called as indicator species.

4. They are listed as critically endangered in the IUCN red list.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 2,3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The female Gangetic Dolphins are larger than males. They are generally blind and catch their prey in
a unique manner. They emit an ultrasonic sound which reaches the prey.
They are popularly known as ‘Susu’ which refers to the noise the dolphin is said to make when it
breathes.
They prefer deep waters in and around the confluence of rivers and can be an indicator of the health
of the freshwater ecosystem as they can only live in freshwater.
The Government of India has recognised them as National Aquatic Animal and is the official animal of
the Indian city of Guwahati.
IUCN Status: Endangered
CITES: Appendix I

Q.17) Which of the following is/are the name of the cyclones which recently occurred in the Indian
Ocean region?

1. AMPHAN

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 2. NISAGRA

3. GATI

4. BUREVI

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 ,3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

Five cyclones formed over the North Indian Ocean in 2020 including the Super cyclonic Storm
AMPHAN, Very Severe Cyclonic Storms NIVAR & GATI, Severe Cyclonic Storm NISARGA, and Cyclonic
Storm ‘BUREVI’. Among these, NISARGA & GATI formed over Arabian Sea while the remaining three
cyclones formed over the Bay of Bengal

Q.18) Consider the following statements with respect to Natural Capital Accounting and Valuation of the
Ecosystem Services (NCAVES) Project, recently seen in the news:

1. It has been launched jointly by UN statistics division, UNEP, Convention on Biological diversity
and European Union.

2. India is one of the five participating partner countries.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.19) Consider the following statements with respect to M-Sand, a term seen in the news, recently:

1. M-Sand is produced from hard granite stone by crushing and is used for concrete construction.

2. Increased use of M-Sand can lead to depletion and exploitation of river sand.

3. Rajasthan government has recently announced to give industry status to units producing M-Sand
for construction use.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

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 (b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Manufactured sand (M-Sand) is a substitute of river sand for concrete construction.It is produced
from hard granite stone by crushing.
The crushed sand is of cubical shape with rounded edges, washed and graded to as a construction
material.The size of manufactured sand (M-Sand) is less than 4.75mm.
Due to the fast-growing construction industry, the demand for sand has increased tremendously
causing deficiency of suitable river sand in most parts of the world.
Hence, to avoid the depletion of good quality river sand for the use of construction, the use of
manufactured sand has been increased.
The Rajasthan government has brought a policy on manufactured sand (M-sand) giving industry
status to the units producing it for construction work and reducing the dependence on bajri

Q.20) With reference to Ruthenium-106, an element seen in the news recently, which of the following
statements is/are correct?

1. It is a radioactive form of the rare heavy metal ruthenium

2. It is produced from the fission or splitting of uranium-235, the type of uranium used in nuclear
fission reactors

3. It is used in medicine for cancer radiation therapy, especially for eye and skin tumors

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Ruthenium-106: It is a radioactive form of the rare heavy metal ruthenium. It is a "platinum group"
metal similar to platinum.
It is produced from the fission or splitting of uranium-235, the type of uranium used in nuclear
fission reactors, so it's found in spent nuclear fuel.
It is used in medicine for cancer radiation therapy, especially for eye and skin tumors. It is also used
in radioisotope thermoelectric generators that power satellites.High doses of ruthenium are toxic and
carcinogenic when ingested.

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Q.21) With respect to inflation targeting regime in India, consider the following statements:

1. The target for inflation is set by the central government in consultation with the RBI and it is a
legal process in India.

2. If the average inflation is more than the upper tolerance level of the inflation target for any three
consecutive quarters, it constitutes failure of the inflation targeting.

3. The chairman of the Monetary Policy committee must resing in case of failure of inflation targeting
framework.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The Central Government notified the following as factors that constitute failure to achieve the
inflation target:(a) the average inflation is more than the upper tolerance level of the inflation target
for any three consecutive quarters; or (b) the average inflation is less than the lower tolerance level for
any three consecutive quarters.
The MPC heade by the RBI governor has to give an explanation to the government for the reasons of
failure and corrective measures to be taken to improve the situation. He need not resign from the
post.

Q.22) Which of the following is/are included in the capital receipts of the Union budget in India?

1. Funds from Public Provident Fund

2. Borrowing from market and RBI.

3. Proceeds from disinvestment

4. Interest and dividend on government investment

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1,2 and 3 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

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 EXPLANATION:

Government receipts which either (i) create liabilities (e.g. borrowing) or (ii) reduce assets (e.g.
disinvestment) are called capital receipts. Thus when govt. raises funds either by incurring a liability
or by disposing off its assets, it is called a capital receipt.
Two examples of Capital Receipts which create liability are Borrowing and raising of funds from
Public Provident Fund and Small savings deposits.
Two examples of Capital Receipts which reduce assets are Disinvestment and Recovery of Loans.
Disinvestment by government means selling a part or whole of its shares of public sector
undertakings. Funds raised from disinvestment reduce government assets

Q.23) With regard to Development Finance Institutions (DFIs), consider the following statements:

1. Development Finance Institutions provide risk capital for economic development projects mainly
on commercial basis.

2. The Union Budget 2021-22 has announced the setting up of DFI for funding the long term
infrastructure projects in India.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

The government’s latest Budget proposes to set up a Development Finance Institution soon to fund
the ambitious national infrastructure pipeline.
A development finance institution (DFI) also known as a development bank is a financial institution
that provides risk capital for economic development projects on a non-commercial basis.

Q.24) With respect to tax revenue trends under Union Budget 2021-22, consider the following
statements:

1. In 2020-21, Goods and Services Tax(GST) was the biggest tax revenue source in India

2. The top receipts under the non-tax revenue for the Union Government are interest and dividends
and profits received from public sector companies.

3. The Union budget 2021-22 announced bringing petroleum products under the GST regime.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

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 (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

After the new indirect tax regime was introduced in 2017, the Centre’s major source of indirect tax
collection changed to GST.
In 2020-21, 28.5% of the revenue came from GST followed by corporate tax and personal income tax,
28.1%, and 28.3% respectively.
The non-tax revenue is the recurring income earned by the government from sources other than
taxes. The top receipts under this are interest and dividends and profits received from public sector
companies.

Q.25) The new disinvestment policy announced by the government identfied which of the following as
strategic sectors?

1. Transport and telecommunications

2. Banking and insurance

3. Space and defence

4. Coal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2,3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

The government in the Budget unveiled the Disinvestment/Strategic Disinvestment Policy and
identified four sectors -- Atomic energy, Space and Defence; Transport and Telecommunications;
Power, Petroleum, Coal and other minerals; and Banking, Insurance and financial services -- as
strategic sectors, where bare minimum CPSEs would be retained.
The strategic sectors have been classified in four broad baskets -- national security, critical
infrastructure, energy and minerals and financial services.

Q.26) The Postal ballot facility under the Indian election system is available to which of the following?

1. Members of the armed forces

2. Voters under preventive detention

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 3. Persons employed in essential services

4. Persons with disabilites

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,3 and 4 only

(b) 1,2 and 3 only

(c) 1,2,3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

Who can avail the Postal Ballot facility currently?

Members of the armed forces like the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
Members of the armed police force of a state (serving outside the state)
Government employees posted outside India and their spouses
Voters under preventive detention
Special voters such as the President of India, Vice President, Governors, Cabinet ministers, Speaker
of the House, and government officers on poll duty have the option to vote by post. But they have to
apply through a prescribed form to avail of this facility.
Absentee Voters: These are voters who are unable to cast their vote due to their service conditions or
other conditions. They include voters (a) employed in essential services (b) Persons with disabilities
and (c) senior citizens above 80 years of age.

Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to 16th Census of India:

1. The census is conducted by the Registrar general unde the aegis of Ministry of statistics and
Programme implementation

2. The 16th census will be conducted in all the 22 schedule languages under the constitution along
with English language.

3. It will be the first digital census in India.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Key Features of the Upcoming 16th Census of India:

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 India’s last census or 15th Census of India was carried out in 2011.
The data collected by the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India during
the Census will be stored electronically.
The census will be conducted in 18 languages out of the 22 scheduled languages (under
the 8th schedule) and English.
The option of “Other” under the gender category will be changed to “Third Gender”

Q.28) With respect to United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC), recently seen in the news, which
of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was established in established in 2006 by replacing the the former United Nations Commission
on Human Rights

2. The member countries of the council are elected for a period of three years and they can hold

office for a maximum of two consecutive terms.

3. The UNHRC resolutions are not legally binding on the member countries.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The UNHRC is a United Nations body established in 2006. It replaced the former United Nations
Commission on Human Rights.
Aim: To promote and protect human rights around the globe. Apart from that, the UNHRC also
investigate alleged human rights violations in countries.
Members: The council has 47 members elected for a 3-year term. 5 Regional groups elect these 47
members
The members are elected for a period of three years. Each member can hold office for a maximum of
two consecutive terms

Q.29) Essential Digital Infrastructure and Services Network(EDISON) Alliance, recently seen in the news,
has been launched by which of the following?

(a) World Bank

(b) World Economic Forum

(c) International Telecommunciation Union

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 (d) United Nation Development Programme

EXPLANATION:

The World Economic Forum has announced the launch of an Essential Digital Infrastructure and
Services Network(EDISON) Alliance.
It aims to work towards ensuring global and equitable access to the digital economy
The alliance will work with governments and industries. It will accelerate digital inclusion and will
ensure cross sectoral collaboration between the technology industry and other critical sectors of the
economy.

Q.30) With regard to Environment Impact Assessment (EI(A) in Indian context, consider the following
statements:

1. Environment Impact Assessment in India is statutory backed by the Environment Protection Act in
1986

2. The objective of the EIA is to Identify the environmental, social and economic impacts of a project
prior to taking a decision on its implementation.

3. Public consultation is an important component of the EIA process in India.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q.31) With respect to Biofuels, consider the following statements:

1. Ethanol and biodiesel represent the first generation of biofuel technology

2. Biodiesel can be produced by combining alcohol with new and used vegetable oils, animal fats or
recycled cooking grease.

3. Biofuels cannot be used as rocket fuels

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

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 EXPLANATION:

On January 31, Stardust 1.0 was launched from Loring Commerce Centre in Maine, US, becoming
the first commercial space launch powered by biofuel, which is non-toxic for the environment as
opposed to traditionally used rocket fuels.
Biofuels are obtained from biomass, which can be converted directly into liquid fuels that can be
used as transportation fuels. The two most common kinds of biofuels in use today are ethanol and
biodiesel and they both represent the first generation of biofuel technology.

Q.32) Asiatic lions and Indian Wild Asses can be found in which of the following states of India?

(a) West Bengal

(b) Rajasthan

(c) Gujarat

(d) Maharashtra

EXPLANATION:

Gujarat, the world’s only abode of Asiatic lions, is also the sole home of Indian wild asses.
The Wild Ass Sanctuary in the Little Rann of Kutch was added to the tentative list of Unesco’s
Natural World Heritage Sites in 2006.
Indian wild asses have been pulled back from the brink of extinction with years of effort. Indian Wild
Ass Sanctuary is one of the last places on earth where the Indian Wild Ass can be spotted.

Q.33) Gastrodia agnicellus, sometimes seen in the news, is a?

(a) A coral species found in temperate regions

(b) Ugliest orchid species

(c) Medicinal plant recently discovered in Andaman islands

(d) Newly discovered frog species from the Western Ghats

EXPLANATION:

Orchids are not often called ugly, but that is how the Royal Botanic Gardens in Kew, London,
described a new species of the normally vibrant and delicate flower discovered in the forests of
Madagascar.
Gastrodia agnicellus, one of 156 plants and fungal species named by Kew scientists and their
partners around the world in 2020, has been crowned “the ugliest orchid in the world”

19
Q.34) Consider the following statements regarding the Swachh Iconic Places (SIP) Initiative, recently seen
in the news:

1. It is an initiative of the Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of

Jal Shakti under Swachh Bharat Mission (Grameen).

2. It aims to improve the sanitation and cleanliness standards at and around the important cultural
heritage sites of India.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.35) With respect to recently launched AGNIi – Accelerating Growth of New India’s Innovations, which of
the following statements is/are correct?

1. The initiative will help commercialize Indian technological innovations by connecting owners of
innovative and new solutions with the market

2. It has been launched under the Prime Minister's Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory
Council(PM-STIA(C) scheme.

3. NITI Aayog is the implementing agency of the scheme.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

AGNIi – Accelerating Growth of New India’s Innovations

Nodal Agency: It is a program of the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of
India and a Mission under the Prime Minister's Science, Technology, and Innovation Advisory
Council(PM-STIAC).
Purpose: It helps commercialize Indian technological innovations. It supports technology initiatives
by connecting owners of innovative and new solutions with the market.
Implementation: It is executed at Invest India, India's National Investment Promotion Agency.

20
Q.36) Consider the following statements:

1. The city of Hyderabad was recently recognized as the tree city of the world by the UN-HABITAT.

2. Haritha Haram is a flagship program of the Andhra Pradesh state government for large-scale
plantations across the state to increase the green cover

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

The Arbor Day Foundation and the UN's Food and Agriculture Organisation have recognized
Hyderabad as '2020 Tree City of the World'.
Tree Cities of the World program is an international program. It recognizes cities and towns for
properly and sustainably maintaining their urban forests and trees.
Hyderabad is selected as a Tree City because of its initiatives like the Haritha Haram program and
Urban Forest Parks plan.
Haritha Haram is a flagship program of the state government for large-scale
plantations across the state to increase the green cover

Q.37) Consider the following statements with respect to the Nurturing Neighbourhoods Challenge
initiative, recently launched by the government:

1. The challenge aims to enable Indian cities to focus on early childhood development

2. It has been launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in partnership with World
Resources Institute (WRI) India.

3. The challenge is open to all Smart Cities, capitals of States and UTs, and other cities with a
population above 5 lakhs.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

21
 EXPLANATION:

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs shortlisted 25 cities for the ‘Nurturing Neighbourhoods
Challenge’. This challenge is covered under the Smart Cities Mission
It is a three-year initiative hosted by the Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs,
in collaboration with the Bernard van Leer Foundation and World Resources Institute (WRI) India.
All cities with a population above 5 lakhs are eligible to participate

Q.38) Global Education Monitoring Report, sometimes seen in the news, is released bt which of the
following organizations?

(a) UNESCO

(b) UNDP

(c) WEF

(d) World Bank

EXPLANATION:

Global Education Monitoring Report(GEM Report): It is an annual report published by UNESCO. The
report was formerly known as the Education for All Global Monitoring Report. The report aims to
monitor progress towards Sustainable Development Goal 4 (SDG 4) on education. It also targets
education-related goals in the SDG agenda.

Q.39) The island of Borneo, recently seen in the news, is divided between which of the following
countries?

1. Indonesia

2. Philippines

3. Malaysia

4. Brunei

5. Thailand

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,3 and 4 only

(b) 2,3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2,4 and 5 only

22
 EXPLANATION:

Borneo Island is the third-largest island in the world and the largest in Asia. The island is politically
divided among three countries: Malaysia and Brunei in the north, and Indonesia to the south.

Q.40) Which of the following lakes of North America are the part of Great Lakes?

1. Lake Ontario

2. Lake Superior

3. Lake Malawi

4. Lake Huron

5. Lake Michigan

Selec the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2,3 and 4 only

(b) 1,2,3,4 and 5

(c) 4 and 5 only

(d) 1,2,4 and 5 only

23
 EXPLANATION:

Q.41) Consider the following pairs:

Places in news Country

1. Aleppo Iraq

2. Kirkuk Syria

3. Hagia Sophia Turkey

4. Baku Azerbaijan

Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Q.42) Which of the following dimensions of hunger and malnutrition are used while ranking countries in
the Global Hunger Index(GHI) 2021 recently released?

1. Undernourishment

2. Child wasting

3. Child stunting

4. Infant mortality

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

24
 (b) 1,2,3 and 4

(c) 2,3 and 4 only

(d) 1,3 and 4 only

EXPLANATION:

The Global Hunger Index is a peer-reviewed annual report, jointly published by Concern Worldwide
and Welthungerhilfe, designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger at the global, regional,
and country levels.
The GHI scores are calculated each year to assess progress and setbacks in combating hunger. It is
calculated on the basis of four indicators — undernourishment, child wasting, the share of children
under the age of five who are wasted (that is, who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute
undernutrition); child stunting, children under the age of five who have low height for their age,
reflecting chronic undernutrition; and child mortality, the mortality rate of children under the age of
five.

Q.43) World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS), sometimes seen in the news, is organised by
which of the following ?

(a) United Nation Development Programme

(b) World Economic Forum

(c) The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI)

(d) United Nation Environment Programme

EXPLANATION:

World Sustainable Development Summit:

It is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI).

It is the sole Summit on global issues taking place in the developing world.

It provides a platform for global leaders and practitioners to discuss and deliberate over climatic
issues of universal importance

Q.44) Consider the following statements with respect to National Security Council (NSC):

1. NSC is a three-tiered organization headed by the National Security Advisor(NSA).

2. It was formed recently after the Uri attacks.

3. Strategic Policy Group (SPG) chaired by the Cabinet Secretary is the principal forum for inter-
ministerial coordination and integration of the relevant inputs to NSC.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

25
 (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The National Security Council (NSC) comprises the three tier structure- Strategic Policy Group
(SPG), the National Security Advisory Board (NSAB) and the National Security Council
Secretariat.
India formed a National Security Council (NSC) in 1999, where all aspects of national security are
deliberated upon by it.
NSC acts as the apex body, headed by the Prime Minister.
The Ministers of Home Affairs, Defence, External Affairs and Finance are its members and the
National Security Adviser acts as its Secretary. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
The SPG chaired by the Cabinet Secretary is the principal forum for inter-ministerial coordination
and integration of the relevant inputs. The NSAB undertakes long-term analysis and provides
perspectives on issues of national security.

Q.45) Consider the following statements with respect to inert waste, recently seen in the news:

1. Inert waste is neither biologically nor chemically reactive and does not decompose or decompose
very slowly.

2. Construction and demolition material such as metal, masonry is a type of inert waste

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Inert waste is waste which is neither biologically nor chemically reactive and is waste which will
not decompose or decompose very slowly. These wastes usually don't pose a threat to the
environment, or the health of animals or other people and will not endanger the quality of
watercourses. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

26
 Inert waste includes, but is not limited to: construction and demolition material such as metal,
wood, bricks, masonry, and cement concrete; asphalt concrete; metal; tree branches; bottom ash
from coal-fired boilers; and waste coal fines from air pollution control equipment

Q.46) With respect to European Southern Observatory’s Very Large Telescope (ESO’s VLT), recently seen
in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is one of the world's most advanced optical telescopes.

2. ESO’s VLT is located at Paranal Observatory in the Atacama Desert.

3. The astronomers recently discovered the most distant ‘Radio-Loud’ Quasar with the help of ESO’s
VLT

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The Very Large Telescope used to observe the P172+18 is located at Paranal Observatory in the
Atacama Desert.
The four Unit Telescopes boast 8.2-meter (27 feet) mirrors.
Just one of these instruments can spot objects that are 4 billion times fainter than what can be seen
with the unaided eye.
According to the European Southern Observatory, the Very Large Telescope is the world's most
advanced optical telescope.

Q.47) Consider the following statements with respect to Leadership Group on Industry Transition
(LeadIT), recently seen in the news:

1. LeadIT gathers countries and companies that are committed to action to achieve the Paris
Agreement.

2. It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in
September 2019

3. It is supported by the World Economic Forum

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

27
 (c) 1,2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Recently Indian Prime Minister held a Virtual Summit with the Prime Minister of Sweden to discuss
bilateral issues and other regional and multilateral issues of mutual interest. In this summit, they
agreed to continue their outreach to expand the membership of the Leadership Group on Industry
Transition (LeadIT).
The Leadership Group for Industry Transition (LeadIT) gathers countries and companies that are
committed to action to achieve the Paris Agreement.
It was launched by the governments of Sweden and India at the UN Climate Action Summit in
September 2019 and is supported by the World Economic Forum.
LeadIT members subscribe to the notion that energy-intensive industry can and must progress on
low-carbon pathways, aiming to achieve net-zero carbon emissions by 2050

Q.48) With reference to the National Pharmaceuticals Pricing Authority (NPPA), which of the following
statements is/are correct?

1. It is a statutory organization under the administrative control of the Ministry of Commerce and
Industry.

2. It revises the prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations and enforces prices and availability
of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 1995.

3. It does not have any power to monitor the prices of decontrolled drugs

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

National Pharmaceuticals Pricing Authority (NPPA) is an organization under the Department of

Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers which was set up in 1997.
It revises the prices of controlled bulk drugs and formulations and enforces prices and availability
of the medicines in the country, under the Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 1995.
The prices are now fixed/revised under Drugs (Prices Control) Order (DPCO), 2013.
It also monitors the prices of decontrolled drugs in order to keep them at reasonable levels.

28
Q.49) Consider the following statements with respect to the recently launched Pradhan Mantri Swasthya
Suraksha Nidhi (PMSSN):

1. It is a non-lapsable reserve fund for Health in the Public Account.

2. The proceeds of share of health in the Health and Education Cess will be credited into PMSSN

3. The administration and maintenance of the PMSSN are entrusted to NITI Aayog.

4. The funds under PMSSN will only be used for funding Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-
PMJAY) only.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2,3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Salient Features of the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Nidhi (PMSSN):

• It is a non-lapsable reserve fund for Health in the Public Account. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
Proceeds of the share of health in the Health and Education Cess will be credited into PMSSN.
 Accruals into the PMSSN will be utilized for the flagship schemes of the Ministry of
Health & Family Welfare namely,
Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY).
 Ayushman Bharat - Health and Wellness Centres (AB-HWCs).
 National Health Mission.
 Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY).
 Emergency & disaster preparedness and responses during health emergencies.
 Any future program/scheme that targets to achieve progress towards SDGs and
the targets set out in theNational Health policy 2017
• The administration and maintenance of the PMSSN are entrusted to the Ministry of Health
& Family Welfare (MoHFW).

Q.50) With respect to Science and Engineering Board (SERB), consider the following statements:

1. It is a statutory body under the administrative control of Ministry of Education.

2. The board is chaired by the Prime Minister

3. It has recently set up a portal called PRoject Information System & Management (PRISM) that
offers real time information on the various research projects supported by it.

29
 Which of the above-given statements is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) None

EXPLANATION:

Science and Engineering Board (SER(B) is a statutory body under the Department of Science and
Technology, Ministry of Science and Technology established by an Act of the Parliament of India in
2009.
It was set up for promoting basic research in science and engineering and to provide financial
assistance to scientists, academic institutions, Research and Development laboratories, industrial
concerns and other agencies for such research.
It has a mandate to plan, promote and fund internationally competitive research in emerging areas.
SERB is chaired by the Secretary to the Government of India in the Department of Science and
Technology and has other senior government officials and eminent scientists as members

Q.51) With reference to seabuckthorn, a spacies seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a plant species of dry desert region and mainly found in the states of Rajasthan and Gujarat.

2. Seabuckthorn is a soil-binding plant which prevents soil-erosion and preserves floral biodiversity.

3. It is an important source of fuelwood and fodder.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

It’s a shrub which produces an orange-yellow coloured edible berry.

In India, it is found above the tree line in the Himalayan region, generally in dry areas such as the
cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti.
In Himachal Pradesh, it is locally called chharma and grows in the wild in Lahaul and Spiti and
parts of Kinnaur.
A major part is covered by this plant in Himachal Pradesh, Ladakh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and
Arunachal Pradesh.

30
Q.52) With reference to the IBSA dialogue forum, recently seen in the news, consider the following
statements:

1. It is a tripartite grouping of India, Brazil and South Africa for promoting cooperation among these
countries

2. It was formed thorough Fortzela declaration of 2014.

3. The forum is meant to promote only economic and technological cooperation between the member
countries.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 2 only

EXPLANATION:

The IBSA Dialogue Forum is a tripartite grouping (India, Brazil, South Afric(a) for promoting
cooperation among these countries.
The grouping was formalized and named the IBSA Dialogue Forum when the Foreign Ministers of the
three countries met in Brasilia (Brazil) on 6th June 2003 and issued the Brasilia Declaration.
Headquarters: IBSA does not have a headquarters or a permanent executive secretariat. At the
highest level, it counts on the Summits of Heads of State and Government.
Joint naval exercise IBSAMAR (IBSA Maritime Exercise) is an important part of IBSA trilateral
defence cooperation. Six editions of IBSAMAR have been held so far, the latest one being off the coast
of South Africa in October, 2018.

Q.53) With respect to inflation index in India, consider the following statements:

1. The WPI does not include services while CPI includes service.

2. Both the indexes are issued by the National Statistics Office (NSO).

3. Headline CPI is the nominal inflation anchor used by RBI to control money supply in the economy.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

31
 EXPLANATION:

Wholesale Price Index

It measures the changes in the prices of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses to
other businesses.
It is the most widely used inflation indicator in India.
The base year of All-India WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in 2017.
Consumer Price Index

It measures price changes from the perspective of a retail buyer.

The CPI calculates the difference in the price of commodities and services such as food, medical
care, education, electronics etc, which Indian consumers buy for use.
Base Year for CPI is 2012.
WPI is published by the Office of Economic Adviser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry whereas
CPI is released by the National Statistical Office (NSO).

Q.54) ‘2001 FO32’, a term seen in the news, is the name of?

(a) Exoplanet discovered by ISRO

(b) An asteroid

(c) A genetically modified organism

(d) A white dwarf

EXPLANATION:

The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NAS(A) has predicted that the asteroid ‘2001
FO32’ is the largest to pass by Earth in 2021. It will be at its closest on 21st March.
It will provide a rare opportunity for astronomers to get a good look at a rocky relic that formed at
the dawn of our solar system.
The asteroid ‘2001 FO32’ was discovered 20 years ago and ever since scientists have been tracking
its orbital path around the Sun very accurately

Q.55) It originates at the Singar Chouri peak in the northern slopes of the Vindhya mountains (Indore,
Madhya Pradesh). From there, it flows in the North direction in Madhya Pradesh for a length of about
346 km and then follows a north-easterly direction for a length of 225 km through Rajasthan. It enters
U.P. and flows for about 32 km before joining the Yamuna River.

Which of the following rivers is being described in the above passage?

(a) Ken

(b) Betwa

(c) Chambal

32
 (d) None of these

EXPLANATION:

It originates at the Singar Chouri peak in the northern slopes of the Vindhya mountains (Indore,
Madhya Pradesh). From there, it flows in the North direction in Madhya Pradesh for a length of about
346 km and then follows a north-easterly direction for a length of 225 km through Rajasthan.
It enters U.P. and flows for about 32 km before joining the Yamuna River in Etawah District.
It is a rainfed river and its basin is bounded by the Vindhyan mountain ranges and the Aravallis. The
Chambal and its tributaries drain the Malwa region of northwestern Madhya Pradesh. Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
The Hadauti plateau in Rajasthan occurs in the upper catchment of the Chambal River to the
southeast of the Mewar Plains.
Tributaries: Banas, Kali Sindh, Sipra, Parbati, etc.
Main Power Projects/ Dam: Gandhi Sagar Dam, Rana Pratap Sagar Dam, Jawahar Sagar Dam, and
Kota Barrage.

Q.56) With respect to fuel prices in India, consider the following statements:

1. Taxes imposed by the Centre and states combined are more than the base price of the fuel.

2. The base price of the fuel includes only the cost of refinery processing and margins.

3. VAT on the fuel is imposed uniformly across all the states.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Taxes imposed by the Centre and states are a significant contributor to the price of petrol and diesel
that consumers pay. To the base price of the fuel (which includes the cost of refinery processing and
margins, and oil marketing company margins and cost of freight et(c) is added excise and cess levied
by the Centre, VAT imposed by the states, and commission to the dealer.
VAT varies from state to state, which accounts for the fact that fuel is more expensive in some
states than in others. Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh impose the heaviest VAT
burdens among all states in the country.

33
Q.57) WIth respect to trends in the tax to GDP ratio in India, which of the following statements is/are
correct?

1. The total tax to GDP ratio in India has steadily increased in the last 10 years.

2. Indirect tax to GDP ratio has always remained above the direct tax to GDP ratio in the last 10
years.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Q.58) Consider the following statements:

1. Interest rate growth rate differential (IRG(D) is a key indicator of an economy’s long-run debt

sustainability.

2. In India, higher GDP growth causes the ratio of debt to GDP to decline.

3. Printing currency is a method of deficit financing.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

34
 (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

A key indicator of an economy’s long-run debt sustainability is the differential between interest paid
on government debt and the economy’s nominal growth rate. When the cost of raising debt is lower
than the gross domestic product (GDP) growth rate, public debt comes with low fiscal costs. In such a
situation, the debt-to-GDP ratio of the economy declines as debts are rolled over.
As per Economic survey 2020-21, evidence over the last two-and-a-half decades demonstrates clearly
that in India, higher GDP growth causes the ratio of debt-to-GDP to decline but not vice-versa.

Q.59) In the context of the FRBM act as amended from time to time, which of the following is/are the
conditions for the government to invoke the escape clause?

1. National calamity

2. Collapse of agriculture

3. The decline in real output growth of a quarter by at least three percentage points below the average
of the previous four quarters.

4. National security

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1,2 and 4 only

(d) 1,2,3 and 4

EXPLANATION:

Under Section 4(2) of the FRBM Act, the Centre can exceed the annual fiscal deficit target citing
grounds that include national security, war, national calamity, the collapse of agriculture,
structural reforms, and decline in real output growth of a quarter by at least three percentage
points below the average of the previous four quarters.

Q.60) With respect to Wildlife Crime Control Bureau, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following
statements:

1. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body created under the provisions
of the Environment Protection Act, 1986
35
 2. It is mandated to collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to
disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies

3. It has the power to establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Wildlife Crime Control Bureau is a statutory multi-disciplinary body established by the

Government of India under the Ministry of Environment and Forests, to combat organized wildlife
crime in the country.
Under Section 38 (Z) of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972,
it is mandated to collect and collate intelligence related to organized wildlife crime activities and to
disseminate the same to State and other enforcement agencies for immediate action so as to
apprehend the criminals;
to establish a centralized wildlife crime data bank;
co-ordinate actions by various agencies in connection with the enforcement of the provisions of the
Act;
assist foreign authorities and international organizations concerned to facilitate co-ordination and
universal action for wildlife crime control;

Q.61) Which of the following airborne chemical pollutants are released in a thermal power plant that
runs on coal?

1. Lead

2. Sulfur dioxide

3. Nitrogen oxides

4. Mercury

5. Ozone

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2,3 and 4 only

(b) 2,3 and 5 only

(c) 1,4 and 5 only

(d) 1,2 and 3 only

36
 EXPLANATION:

When coal is burned it releases a number of airborne toxins and pollutants. They include Carbon
dioxide, mercury, lead, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, particulates, and various other heavy
metals.
Health impacts can range from asthma and breathing difficulties to brain damage, heart problems,
cancer, neurological disorders, and premature death.

Q.62) With respect to rare earth minerals, consider the following statements:

1. All the rare earth minerals are radioactive in nature.

2. China’s Rare Earths deposits account for more than three-fourth of identified global reserves

3. Cerium is the most abundant rare earth element and is used in NASA’s Space Shuttle Programme

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Rare Earth Elements or Rare Earth Metals are a set of 17 chemical elements in the periodic table
— the 15 lanthanides, plus scandium and yttrium, which tend to occur in the same ore deposits as
the lanthanides, and have similar chemical properties.
Despite their classification, most of these elements are not really “rare”. One of the Rare Earths,
promethium, is radioactive.
These elements are important in technologies of consumer electronics, computers and networks,
communications, clean energy, advanced transportation, healthcare, environmental mitigation,
and national defense, among others.

Q.63) Consider the following statements with respect to Autism Spectrum Disorder (AS(D) , recently seen
in the news:

1. Autism is a bio-neurological developmental disability that generally appears in childhood.

2. There is no known cure for ASD.

3. Evidence-based psychosocial interventions, such as behavioral treatment and parent skills

training programs, can help relieve the symptoms.

37
 Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Autism, or autism spectrum disorder (ASD) , refers to a broad range of conditions characterized by
challenges with social skills, repetitive behaviors, speech and nonverbal communication
ASDs begin in childhood and tend to persist into adolescence and adulthood.
While some people with ASD can live independently, others have severe disabilities and require life-
long care and support.
Evidence-based psychosocial interventions, such as behavioural treatment and parent skills training
programs, can reduce difficulties in communication and social behaviour, with a positive impact on
well-being and quality of life for persons with ASD and their caregivers.

Q.64) With reference to ‘Annual Survey of Industries’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the

following statements:

1. It provides information on important characteristics of the registered manufacturing sector

2. It covers all organized manufacturing establishments with power connections that employ at least
10 workers and those engaging 20 and more without the aid of power.

3. The survey is conducted by Labour Bureau

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

It is conducted by National Sample Survey Office (NSSO)

It provides information on important characteristics of the registered manufacturing sector.
ASI is considered the most comprehensive and reliable source of organised manufacturing sector
data providing disaggregated industry-specific details of production, investment, employment, and
costs.
It does not cover unorganized or unregistered or informal sector enterprises.

38
 From 2010-11 onwards, the Survey is conducted annually under the statutory provisions of the
Collection of Statistics Act 2008.
ASI data comes with a lag of two years.

Q.65) Consider the following statements with respect to the ‘Network for Spectrum’ project of the Indian
government, recently seen in the news:

1. It aims at creating an exclusive Optical Fibre based ‘Nationwide Communication Network’ for

Defense Services.

2. It is being implemented by Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL).

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Network For Spectrum (NFS) has been planned as an Exclusive Optical Fibre-based ‘Nationwide
Communication Network’ for Defence Services.
This will be a Countrywide Secure, Multiservice, and Multi protocol Converged Next Generation
Network based on Exclusive and Dedicated Tri-services Optical Transport Backbone.
The Union Defence Ministry and Department of Telecommunication (DoT), the highest decision-
making body in the Telecom Ministry had signed an agreement in 2009-10 to set up an exclusive
defense network for its communication services.
Under it, DoT had agreed to vacate 25 MHz of 3G spectrum and 20 MHz of 2G spectrum in phases
solely for defense communication purposes.

Q.66) With respect to "HSN code", recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. The HSN Code is a six-digit identification code that provides an international nomenclature for the
classification of products

2. It is developed globally by World Customs Organisation.

3. It is now mandatory for a GST taxpayer having a turnover of more than Rs 5 crore in a financial
year to have an HSN code.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

39
 (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The Government has made the 6-digit HSN (Harmonized System of Nomenclature) code
mandatory for a GST taxpayer having a turnover of more than Rs 5 crore in a financial year. This rule
comes into effect from April 1, 2021.
The HSN Code is a six-digit identification code. The World Customs Organization (WCO)
developed this code in 1988.
It is an international nomenclature for the classification of products. It allows participating countries
to classify traded goods on a common basis for customs purposes.
The code also called the universal economic language for goods, is a multipurpose
international product nomenclature.

Q.67) "Pre-Pack Insolvency Resolution", recently seen in the news, is related to which of the following
sectors in India?

(a) MSME sector

(b) Banking companies

(c) Special Economic Zones

(d) Startup Sector

EXPLANATION:

A pre-pack resolution is a form of restructuring that allows creditors and debtors to work on an
informal plan and then submit it for approval.
Under this system, financial creditors will agree to the terms of a potential investor. Further, they will
seek approval of the resolution plan from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT).
However, the resolution plan cannot be submitted directly to NCLT. It requires approval of a
minimum of 66% of financial creditors that are unrelated to the corporate debtor before submission
of a resolution plan.
IBC Amendment Ordinance 2021 amends the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
The Amendment allows the use of Pre-Packaged insolvency resolution as an alternative resolution
mechanism for MSMEs. The threshold limit to trigger the Pre-Packaged insolvency resolution is
between Rs 10 lakh to 1 Crore.

Q.68) Sudarshan Sen Committee, recently seen in the news, is related to which of the following?

(a) Digital lending

(b) Central bank digital currency

40
 (c) Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs)

(d) Governance reforms in Public sector banks

EXPLANATION:

The Reserve Bank of India(RBI) has set up the Sudarshan Sen committee to review the working of
Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) Comprehensively. It will recommend suitable measures for
enabling them to meet the growing requirements. The committee will be headed by Sudarshan Sen,
the former executive director of, Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Q.69) With respect to Blue Nature Alliance, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. The alliance aims to safeguard global ocean biodiversity, build resilience to climate change,
promote human well-being and enhance ecosystem connectivity

2. It is a global partnership founded and led by Conservation International, Pew Charitable Trusts,
Global Environment Facility (GEF), and others.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Blue Nature Alliance is a global partnership. It was founded and led by Conservation International,
Pew Charitable Trusts, Global Environment Facility (GEF), Minderoo Foundation, and Rob & Melani
Walton Foundation.
Aim: To safeguard global ocean biodiversity, build resilience to climate change, promote human well-
being and enhance ecosystem connectivity.
The alliance has a target to:
1. Conserve 18 million square kilometers of ocean in five years.
2. Protect 5% of the world's ocean in five years.
3. Help the world achieve 30% ocean conservation by 2030.

Q.70) With respect to GloLitter Partnerships Project, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following
statements:

1. It was launched by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) and the Food and Agriculture
Organization of the United Nations (FAO)

41
 2. The project aims to help the maritime transport and fishing sectors to adapt to a low-plastic
future.

3. India is one of the participating countries under the project.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

GloLitter Partnerships Project: GloLitter Partnerships Project was launched by the International
Maritime Organization (IMO) and the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO).
The Government of Norway provided initial funding for the project.
The project aims to help the maritime transport and fishing sectors to adapt to a low-plastic future.
To achieve this goal, this initiative will assist developing countries to apply best practices for
prevention, reduction, and control of marine plastic litter from those sectors.
30 Countries will be participating in the project. India is one of the participating countries.

Q.71) With respect to ‘E9 Initiative’, a global initiative recently seen in the news, consider the following
statements:

1. It is a global partnership that aims to accelerate digital learning in all countries and societies.

2. It was launched in 1993 at the UNESCO's Education For All (EF(A) Summit in New Delhi.

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

About E9 Partnership:

Launched in: 1993 at the UNESCO's Education For All (EF(A) Summit in New Delhi.
Member Countries: The United Nations is spearheading the initiative with nine countries namely
Bangladesh, Brazil, China, Egypt, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Nigeria, and Pakistan.
Purpose: The E9 forum aims to achieve the goals of UNESCO's Education For All (EF(A) initiative. It
strengthens political will and collective effort to ensure quality education and lifelong learning
opportunities for all.
42
Q.72) Supply Chain Resilience Initiative, recently seen in the news, has been launched by which of the
following countries?

1. India

2. China

3. U.S.A

4. Japan

5. Australia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,4 and 5 only

(b) 3,4 and 5 only

(c) 1,3 and 4 only

(d) 1,2 and 5 only

EXPLANATION:

India, Japan, and Australia have launched the SCRI or Supply Chain Resilience Initiative in a virtual
Trilateral Ministerial Meeting.
It is the capability of the supply chain of a country to handle any kind of disruption and function
normally in difficult times. One approach is diversifying the source of supply across a group of
supplying nations instead of being dependent on just one or a few
The initiative aims to create a virtuous cycle of enhancing supply chain resilience to attain strong,
sustainable, balanced, and inclusive growth in the region.

Q.73) Project DANTAK, recently seen in the news, is a joint partnership between?

(a) India and Nepal

(b) India and Myanmar

(c) India and Bhutan

(d) India and Maldives

43
 EXPLANATION:
Project DANTAK is commemorating its Diamond Jubilee i.e 60 years in Bhutan.
Project DANTAK was established in 1961 under the leadership of the Third King of Bhutan and then
Indian Prime Minister Jawahar Lal Nehru

Q.74) The health ministry recently announced the "National Policy for Rare Diseases 2021". Which of the
following is/are examples of rare diseases?

1. HIV AIDS

2. Haemophilia

3. Thalassemia

4. Sickle cell anemia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3 only

(b) 2,3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

WHO defines a rare disease as a lifelong disease or disorder that often highly weakens an individual.
It has a prevalence of 1 or less per 1000 population.
Example: Haemophilia, Thalassemia, Sickle cell anaemia, auto-immune diseases among others.
However, every country has its own definition for rare diseases.
The US defines rare diseases as a disease or condition that affects fewer than 200,000 patients in the
country.
Likewise, the EU defines rare diseases as life-threatening or chronically debilitating (weakening)
conditions. It should affect no more than 5 in 10,000 people

Q.75) InSight mission, sometimes seen in the news is a space mission of which of the following?

(a) ISRO

(b) Japanese Space agency

(c) NASA

(d) European Space agency

44
 EXPLANATION:

InSight is short for Interior Exploration using Seismic Investigations, Geodesy and Heat Transport. It
is a NASA Mission.
The Mission aims to study the deep interiors of Mars. It is the first program to analyze the interior of
the Red Planet, beneath its surface i.e. its crust, mantle, and core.
Part of: InSight mission is part of NASA’s Discovery Program (1992). o Discovery Program is a series
of Solar System exploration missions. NASA funds these missions through its Planetary Missions
Program Office

Q.76) With respect to Coal gasification, consider the following statements:

1. Coal gasification is the process of converting coal into syngas, which is a mixture of hydrogen,
carbon monoxide, and carbon dioxide.

2. Low-grade coal can be used in the process

3. It reduces dependence on imported Liquified Natural Gas

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Coal gasification is the process of converting coal into synthesis gas (also called syngas), which is a
mixture of hydrogen (H2), carbon monoxide (CO), and carbon dioxide (CO2). The syngas can be used
in a variety of applications such as in the production of electricity and making chemical products,
such as fertilizers.
According to the International Energy Agency’s Energy Technology Systems Analysis Programme
(ETSAP), the coal gasification process holds good potential in the future, with coal being the most
abundantly available fossil fuel across the world, and that even low-grade coal can be used in the
process.
According to the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilisers, urea is currently produced using pooled
natural gas, which comprises both domestic natural gas and imported LNG. The usage of locally
available coal for making fertilisers would help reduce the import of LNG

45
Q.77) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to ‘Net Zero emissions’?

1. Net-zero emission means that a country would bring down its greenhouse gas emissions to near
zero.

2. Reducing dependence on fossil fuels and increasing afforestation are the main methods to achieve
net zero.

3. The idea of net-zero was adopted in the Paris climate agreement of 2015.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Net-zero, which is also referred to as carbon-neutrality, does not mean that a country would bring
down its emissions to zero. Rather, net-zero is a state in which a country’s emissions are
compensated by absorption and removal of greenhouse gases from the atmosphere.
The net-zero goal does not figure in the 2015 Paris Agreement, the new global architecture to fight
climate change. The Paris Agreement only requires every signatory to take the best climate action it
can.

Q.78) Namdapha national park, recently seen in the news, is located in which of the following states?

(a) Assam

(b) Manipur

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Sikkim

EXPLANATION:

Namdapha, a National Park and Tiger Reserve, lies in the international border between India and
Myanmar (Burm(a) within Changlang District in the state of Arunachal Pradesh in northeast India.
Namdapha National Park is located a few kilometers away from Miao amidst misty blue hills along
the turbulent Noa-Dihing river lies in the sprawling tropical rain forest.
It is the only park in the World to have the four Feline species of big cat namely the Tiger (Panthera
Tigris), Leopard (Panthera Pardus), Snow Leopard (Panthera Uncia), and Clouded Leopard (Neofelis
Nebulosa).

46
Q.79) Which of the following could be the possible reasons for the decline in the population of migratory
birds in India as highlighted by several reports?

1. Disturbance, especially around the habitats for the migratory birds

2. Cultivation of water chestnuts at water bodies

3. The increasing water level of water bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q.80) Individuals in India can be designated as terrorists by the government under which of the following
legislations?

(a) National Securities act, 1980

(b) National Investigation Agency act, 2008

(c) Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002

(d) The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Act, 2019

EXPLANATION:

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MH(A) can designate individuals as “terrorists” under the amended
anti-terror law that was passed by the Parliament in 2019.
The Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), enacted in 1967, was first amended in 2004, 2008,
and 2013.
The UAPA as amended in August 2019 gave the MHA the power to designate individuals as terrorists.
Initially, in 1967, the Act concerned itself with banning “unlawful” associations alone and had no
mention of terrorism. “Unlawful activity” was defined as activities including speeches, writings, etc
that supported secessionist claims or questioned India’s sovereignty.

Q.81) Consider the following statements:

1. It has been listed as one of the ‘Important Coastal and Marine Biodiversity Areas’ and ‘Important
Marine Turtle Habitats’ in the country

2. It houses a range of forest types, has one of the best preserved tropical rainforests in the

World

3. It is part of Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve which is included in the list of Man and

47
 Biosphere program of UNESCO.

4. Giant leatherback turtle is found here.

Identify the protected area from the above given information:

(a) Bhitarkanika national park

(b) Sundarban tiger reserve

(c) Galathea National Park

(d) Saddle peak national park

EXPLANATION:

Galathea National Park is a National Park located in the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
Islands. It is located on the island of Great Nicobar in the Nicobar Islands.
India's National Marine Turtle Action Plan that was under preparation then (it was released on
February 1, 2021)
had listed Galathea Bay as one of the ‘Important Coastal and Marine Biodiversity Areas’ and
‘Important Marine Turtle Habitats’ in the country. It is included in Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)-I,
the zone with maximum protection

Q.82) The term “Ecocide”, recently seen in the news, is best described by which of the following
statements?

(a) Any action capable of producing an ecological disaster

(b) Economic impact of a biological disaster

(c) Economic impact of strict lockdown

(d) Causing Environmental pollution by burning fossil fuels

EXPLANATION:

The French National Assembly on Saturday approved the creation of an “ecocide” offence as part of a
battery of measures aimed at protecting the environment and tackling climate change.
Ecocide is “the massive contamination of air, land and water,” or “any action capable of producing an
ecological disaster.

Q.83) Which of the following is/are recognised as natural disasters according to the National Disaster
Management Authority (NDM(A) act of 2005?

1. Forest fires

2. Landslide

3. Heatwave

4. Locust attack
48
 5. Floods

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 4 only

(b) 2,3 and 5 only

(c) 1,2,3 and 5 only

(d) 3,4 and 5 only

EXPLANATION:

India's National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) has not recognised forest fires and locust
attack as natural hazards.
On its website, it has listed cyclone, tsunami, heatwave, landslide, floods and earthquakes under
such category.
The reason why we have not listed forest fires as natural hazards is because in India most of such
fires are deliberately caused by people mainly for agricultural purposes and, therefore, it is an
anthropogenic [man-made] hazard," said a member of the NDMA.

Q.84) With respect to SMAWITVA scheme, recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. The scheme aims to update rural land records, providing record of rights to village households and
issue property cards.

2. It is an initiative of Ministry of Rural development

3. The scheme focuses on mapping rural-inhabited lands using drones as land records are inaccurate
or do not exist for vast areas across India

Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

SVAMITVA (Survey of villages and mapping with improvised technology in village areas) scheme is a
new initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
The aim to update rural land records, providing record of rights to village households and issue
property cards.

49
 SVAMITVA will be implemented across the country in a phased manned over the next four years,
covering around 6.62 lakh villages.
The scheme focuses on mapping rural-inhabited lands using drones as land records are
inaccurate or do not exist for vast areas across India.

Q.85) With respect to the tiger reserves of India, arrange the following from north to south:

1. Sariska tiger reserve

2. Dudhwa tiger reserve

3. Mukundra tiger reserve

4. Ranthambore tiger reserve

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 2-1-4-3

(b) 1-2-4-3

(c) 2-1-3-4

(d) 1-2-3-4

50
 EXPLANATION:

Q.86) Consider the following statements with respect to Voluntary retention route scheme, recently seen
in the news:

1. The scheme aims to attract long-term and stable FPI investments into debt markets

2. Investment through this route is subjected to stricter macro prudential norms and other
prudential requirements.

3. Any entity registered as an FPI with SEBI is eligible to participate through this Route

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

51
 (c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

The VRR was introduced in March 2019 to enable FPIs invest in debt.
Broadly, investments through the route are free of the macro-prudential and other regulatory norms
applicable to FPI investments in debt, provided FPIs voluntarily commit to retain a required minimum
percentage of their investments in India for a certain period.
The minimum retention period for these investments is three years.
The objective of the VRR channel is to attract long-term and stable FPI investments into debt markets
while providing FPIs with operational flexibility to manage their investments.
Any entity registered as an FPI with SEBI is eligible to participate through this Route.

Q.87) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to ‘African Swine Fever’ (ASF),
recently seen in the news?

1. It is a severe viral disease affecting domestic and wild pigs.

2. ASF is not a threat to human beings since it only spreads from animals to other animals

3. There is no approved vaccine against ASF

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

African swine fever (ASF) is a severe viral disease affecting domestic and wild pigs.
It is caused by a large DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family, which also infects ticks of the genus
Ornithodoros.
It is responsible for serious production and economic losses.
This transboundary animal disease (TA(D) can be spread by live or dead pigs, domestic or wild, and
pork products.
Furthermore, transmission can also occur via contaminated feed and fomites (non-living objects)
such as shoes, clothes, vehicles, knives, equipment etc., due to the high environmental resistance of
ASF virus.
There is no approved vaccine against ASF (unlike classical swine fever (‘Hog Cholera’) which is caused
by a different virus).

52
Q.88) Which of the following countries has declared ‘Toman’ as its national currency?

(a) Iran

(b) Malaysia

(c) Sri Lanka

(d) Yemen

EXPLANATION:

Iran's parliament has passed a bill allowing the government to slash four zeros from the rial, Iranian
state media reported on Monday, after a sharp fall in the value of the currency as a result of crippling
U.S. sanctions. Iran's national currency will be changed from the rial to the Toman, which is equal to
10,000 rials, under the bill.

Q.89) Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Mission Sagar – Mission to deliver COVID-19 Assistance including medicines, medical personnel,
food items to Maldives, Mauritius, Madagascar, Comoros and Seychelles

2. ‘Operation Samudra Setu’ - New Delhi’s efforts to repatriate citizens stranded abroad.

3. Operation Sanjeevani- Supply of essential medicines by India to Maldives

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Q.90) With respect to the process to create new districts in any state in India, which of the following
statements is/are correct?

1. The proposal to create a new district or change the name of an existing district must be approved
by the legislative assembly of the state.

2. The creation of new district can not be done without the approval of the central government Select
the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

53
 EXPLANATION:

The power to create new districts or alter or abolish existing districts rests with the State
governments. This can either be done through an executive order or by passing a law in
the State Assembly.
Many States prefer the executive route by simply issuing a notification in the official Gazette
The Centre has no role to play in the alteration of districts or creation of new ones.
States are free to decide.

Q.91) Consider the following statements with respect to Net Zero Producers Forum:

1. The Net Zero Producers Forum has been formed for the oil and gas producing countries to discuss
the ways to achieve net zero carbon emission targets to limit global warming.

2. The United States, Canada and Saudi Arabia are the members of the forum.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Saudi Arabia has announced that it will be joining Canada, the US, Qatar and Norway in the
formation of the Net Zero Producers Forum.
The Net Zero Producers Forum has been formed for the oil and gas producing countries.
The Forum aims to discuss the ways to achieve net zero carbon emission targets to limit global
warming.
The countries will also discuss ways to support the implementation of the Paris Agreement on
Climate Change

Q.92) Consider the following statements with respect to White-Bellied Heron, a species seen in the
news:

1. It is a species of bird and the second-largest living species of heron

2. It is found in most parts of the Indian subcontinent including the northern plains.

3. The species is listed as vulnerable under the IUCN red list.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

54
 (c) 1,2 and 3

(d) 3 only

EXPLANATION:

The White-bellied Heron is a rare and elusive bird. It is the second-largest living species
of heron.
The White-bellied Heron is extremely shy to human presence. It is plain dark grey in colour except for
the white belly part. It has a long neck.
It is one of the rarest birds in the world. At present, it is found only in Bhutan, Myanmar and the
Namdapha Tiger Reserve in Arunachal Pradesh, India.
But the bird has also been recorded in the Kamlang Tiger Reserve in Lohit district in Arunachal
Pradesh through camera trap images.
IUCN Status: Critically Endangered

Q.93) Consider the following statements with respect to Network for Greening the Financial
System(NGFS), recently seen in the news:

1. The NGFS aims to accelerate the scaling up of green finance and develop recommendations for
central banks' role in climate change.

2. The Reserve Bank of India is a member of the group.

3. NGFS was formed on the sidelines of the Paris climate summit in 2015.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

EXPLANATION:

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined the Network for Greening the Financial System (NGFS) as a
Member.
NGFS was launched at the Paris One Planet Summit in December 2017. It is a group of Central
banks and financial supervisors.
The NGFS aims to accelerate the scaling up of green finance and develop recommendations for
central banks' role in climate change

Q.94) P-8I patrol aircraft, recently seen in the news, has been purchased by India from which of the
following countries?

(a) U.S.A
55
 (b) France

(c) Russia

(d) Israel

EXPLANATION:

P-8I is a long-range, multi-mission maritime patrol aircraft. US-based manufacturer Boeing

developed this aircraft.
The aircraft is based on the Boeing 737 commercial aircraft and India is its first international
customer.
The design of the aircraft is such, it protects the vast coastline and territorial waters of India. It can
also conduct anti-submarine warfare (ASW), anti-surface warfare (AsuW), intelligence, maritime
patrol and surveillance, and reconnaissance missions.
The US State Department has approved the proposal for the sale of six P-8I patrol aircraft and
related equipment to India. According to the estimates, the deal has cost India around $2.42
billion.

Q.95) Consider the following statements with respect to Arctic Council:

1. It is an intergovernmental forum for promoting cooperation, coordination and interaction among

the Arctic States established in 1996 by the Ottawa Declaration.

2. While Russia is a member of the council, the United States has an observer status in the council.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

The Arctic Council was formally established in 1996 by the Ottawa Declaration.
The members of the Arctic Council include Canada, Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Russia,
Sweden and the United States.
Observer Status: Since 2013, India has enjoyed ‘Observer’ status in the Arctic Council. Twelve other
observer countries are Japan, China, France, Germany, UK, Italy, Switzerland, Poland, Spain,
Netherlands, Singapore, and South Korea

56
Q.96) "Dahla dam", recently seen in the news, is located in which of the following countries?

(a) Iran

(b) Saudi Arabia

(c) Afghanistan

(d) Turkmenistan

EXPLANATION:

Taliban has captured Afghanistan's second-biggest dam named Dahla Dam.

Dahla dam is also known as Arghandab Dam. It is located in the Kandahar Province in Afghanistan.
Secondly, the dam was built by the United States nearly 70 years ago (1952).
Thirdly, the dam is built on the Arghandab River. It provides irrigation to farmers via a network of
canals as well as drinking water for the provincial capital.

Q.97) Consider the following statements with respect to Water Hyacinth, a species seen in the news:

1. It is native to the South Asian continent.

2. Water hyacinth is a free-floating and flowering invasive aquatic plant

3. Water Hyacinth is also referred to as the Bengal terror

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

EXPLANATION:

Water hyacinth is a free-floating and flowering invasive aquatic plant that originated from Amazon
Basin, South America.
It grows rapidly and can form thick layers over the water. So Water hyacinth is considered invasive
throughout the world.
These mats shade out the other aquatic plants. Eventually, these shaded plants die and decay.
The decaying process depletes the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water. As oxygen levels decline,
many fish are unable to survive. Hence, often the waters below water hyacinth masses witness the
absence of life.

57
 Water Hyacinth is also referred to as the Bengal terror. This is because of its effect on the local
ecology and lives of the people

Q.98) Consider the following pairs:

Report Published by

1. Global Happiness Index World Economic Forum

2. Corruption Perception Index Transparency International

3. World Population Report 2021 United Nations Population Fund

Which of the above given pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1,2 and 3

(d) 2 only

EXPLANATION:

The World Happiness Report 2021 has been released by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions
Network and Finland was once again crowned as the world's happiest country.
United Nations Population Fund’s (UNFP(A) flagship State of World Population Report 2021 titled ‘My
Body is My Own’.

Q.99) With respect to the countries of central Asian region, arrange the following capital cities from north
to south:

1. Astana

2. Bishkek

3. Tashkent

4. Ashgabat

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1-2-3-4

(b) 2-3-1-4

(c) 1-2-4-3

(d) 3-1-2-4

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 EXPLANATION:

Q.100) With respect to "Project Pyrasol’’, recently in then news, consider the following statements:

1. The aim is to transform urban organic waste into biochar and energy in smart cities of India.

2. It is a joint partnership between India and Israel.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

EXPLANATION:

Project Pyrasol is a part of the Indo-German Science & Technology Centre (IGST(C) flagship program
2+2 Project( 2+2 project of Indo-German Science & Technology Centre).
The aim is to transform urban organic waste into biochar (charcoal produced by pyrolysis) and
energy in smart cities.

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