Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
National Capital Region
SCHOOLS DIVISION OFFICE
QUEZON CITY
Nueva Ecija St., Bago Bantay, Quezon City
www.depedqc.ph
DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN SCIENCE GRADE 10
School Year 2020-2021

Name: __________________________________________ Score: _____________

Grade & Section: __________________________________ Date: ______________

Directions: Read each question carefully. Choose the letter of the BEST answer and
write the letter on your paper.

1. Which of the following statements explains the characteristics of the mantle and crust?
A. The crust is melting.
B. The mantle is colder than the crust.
C. The mantle causes earthquakes and volcanoes.
D. The less dense crust sits on the top of the mantle.

2. During the 1960s scientist were already equipped with gadgets needed to explore the deep Ocean.
What discovery about the ocean floor is associated with the seafloor spreading?
A. Mountains are denser than mantle.
B. The rotational poles of the Earth have migrated.
C. The crust of the continents is denser than the crust of the ocean.
D. The crust of the ocean is very young relative to the age of the crust of the continent

Use the diagram below to answer Questions 3 and 4

3. What geologic feature is shown in the diagram labelled F?

A. subduction zone B. ocean ridge C. continental lithosphere D. continental volcanic arc

4. What is the process occurring at the location labelled D?

A. Oceanic lithosphere being created. C. Continental lithosphere being created.
B. Oceanic lithosphere being subducted. D. A continental-continental collision occurring.

5. Why are there no P-waves or S-waves received in the P-wave shadow zone?
A. Both the P-waves and S waves are refracted by Earth’s outer core
B. P-wave are absorbed and S-waves are refracted by Earth’s outer core.
C. P-wave are refracted and S-waves are absorbed by Earth’s outer core.
D. Both the P-wave and S waves are absorbed by the Earth’s outer core.

6. How do we compare the densities of the Earth’s crust, mantle and core?
A. The mantle is less dense than the core but denser than the crust
B. The mantle is less dense than both the core and the crust.
C. The mantle is denser than the core but less dense than the crust.
D. The mantle is denser than both the core and the crust
7. When two tectonic plates collide, the oceanic crust usually subducts beneath the continental crust.
Why is this so?
A. Ocean crust is denser and thicker than continental crust
B. Ocean crust is less dense and thicker than continental crust
C. Ocean crust is less dense and thinner than continental crust
D. Ocean crust is denser and thinner than continental

8. Crustal Plates in the figure below are moving away from each other. What is the expected average
rate of motion of the plates?
A. a few centimeters per year
B. a few millimeters per century
C. a few meters per month
D. a few millimeters per day

9. What does Plate Tectonic Theory tell us?

A. It states that pieces of the Earth’s crust are moving very slowly.
B. It states that pieces of the Earth’s crust are moving quickly.
C. It states that pieces of the Earth’s crust are solid and unbroken.
D. It states that pieces of the Earth’s crust are shaped like puzzle pieces.

10. The diagram below shows a typical recording of an earthquake, what do you call this record?

A. Seismogram B. Seismologist C. Seismology D. Seismograph

11. There are many elements in the Earth’s crust. Which of the following elements is the most abundant
element in the Earth’s crust?
A. Oxygen B. Iron C. Helium D. Calcium

12. Divergence between the South American plate and African plate causes the Atlantic Ocean to
widen. If it is widening at a rate of 3cm/year, how far in kilometers will it spread in a million year.
A.3 Km B. 30 Km C. 300 Km D. 3000Km

13. The subduction of plate can cause earthquakes at varying depths. What do you call the depression
in the ocean floor where one plate is subducting under another plate?
A. Trench B. Rift Valley C. Ocean Basin D. Volcanic Arc

14. What is NOT necessary in the transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves?

A. Medium C. Electric field
B. Magnetic field D. Change in either a magnetic or an electric field

15. What would be the correct order of arrangement if gamma rays, visible light and radio waves are
arranged in the order of increasing wavelength?
A. Gamma, light, radio C. Gamma, radio, light
B. Light, radio, gamma D. Radio, gamma, light

16. Which of the following is NOT an application of gamma rays?

A. Used to kill cancer cells
B. Used in sterilizing medical equipment
C. Induce mutation in plants and animals
D. Use in the activation of Vitamin D in our body
17. What do you think will happen to the ray after hitting the mirror when light is incident at the mirror’s
surface at 30 degrees?
A. It will bounce off the surface at 30 degrees with the normal line.
B. It will bounce off the surface at 60 degrees with the normal line.
C. The light ray will be refracted away.
D. The light ray will be absorbed

18. What type of mirror do you think has been used by Marcy when he observed that his image is
virtual, upright and the height stays the same at different distances?
A. Plane B. Convex C. Concave D. Two-way

19. Electromagnet gains its magnetism by means of current. What will happen to the strength of an
electromagnet if it will be connected to a higher voltage source?
A. It will be increased. B It will be decreased. C. It remains the same. D. Both A and B.

20. A coil moves away from the magnet. Consider the following factors:
I. Strength of the magnet
II. Number of turns in the coil
III.Speed at which the magnet move

Which of the aforementioned factors affect the electromotive force?

A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. I, II and III

21. It is too warm inside the room, so you turned on the electric fan. What transformation of energy
takes place in the fan’s electric motor?
A. Electrical to mechanical energy C. Chemical to electrical energy
B. Mechanical to electrical energy D. Electrical to chemical energy

22. A certain transformer has 50 turns in the primary coil and 1000 turns in the secondary coil. The
amount of voltage in each portion is 110V and 2200V, primary and secondary respectively. What type of
transformer has been described by the statement above?
A. Step-up transformer C. Step-down transformer
B. Speed-up transformer D. Slow - down transformer

23. The amount of voltage induced when a conductor and a magnetic field are in relative motion
depends on the length (L) of the conductor or the number of turns in the coil, the strength and
orientation of the magnetic field (B) and relative velocity (V) of the changing magnetic field. What
happens to the amount of voltage induced when the number of turns in the coil increases?
A. Also increases C. It is constant
B. It decreases D. It could either increase or decrease

24. What is the wavelength of the wave with a frequency of 3.0 x 10 9 Hz?
A. 1.0x 10 -1 m B. 1.0x 10 -1 m C.3.0 x10 -1m D. 3.0x 10 1 m

25. High frequency radio waves called RF radio frequency carriers can be modulated to match the
electronic signal. What is being changed in order to match that of the audio frequency signal?
A. Frequency Modulation C. Amplitude Modulation
B. Wavelength Modulation D. Frequency and wavelength modulation

26. In what order do nerve impulses travel through the parts of a neuron?
A. dendrites, axon, axon C. dendrites, axon, cell body
B. axon, cell body, dendrites D. dendrites, axon, axon

27. What is the neuron that carries impulses away from the nervous system?
A. Effector B. Sensory nerve C. Receptor D. Interneuron

28. What gland caused cretinism/dwarfism?

A. Pituitary B. Thyroid C. Adrenal gland D. Thymus gland

29. What causes the growth and maturation of ovum in mammals?

A. FSH B. Progesterone C. FSH and LH D. Luteinizing hormones only
30. Which part of the human brain contains the component that is responsible for the regulation of body
temperature and urge for eating?
A. Cerebrum B. Cerebellum C. Hypothalamus D. Medulla Oblongata

31. Deoxyribonuclei Acid (DNA) present on the chromosome is responsible for ________
A. life of cells B. mitosis of cells C. location of cells D. characteristics of cells

32. Which condition results to gain of chromosomes 21?

A. Cri du chat B. Down syndrome C. Edwards’s syndrome D. Turner’s syndrome

33. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Organs that are not used may disappear, while organs that are constantly used may develop.
B. In nature, the organism with desirable characteristics may survive, while those weaker traits may not.
C. Organisms develop desirable structure to survive in a given environment.
D. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring

34. Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is necessary?
A. To give way for other organisms to develop C. To know who is the fittest
B. To let other organisms evolve and progress D. All of the above

35. Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary relationships?
A. They have varied and different ancestry.
B. They have similar pattern during their early stage of development.
C. They have a common ancestor and have the same kind of proteins.
D. They possess same vestigial structure that made their evolutionary relationship closer.

36. What is the part of the atom that is involved in chemical bonding?
A. Nucleus B. Protons C. Energy Level D. Valence electrons

37.What is the bond where electrons are transferred in?

A. Covalent bond B. Ionic bond C. Transfer bond D. Metallic bond

38. In a test tube tests, in which type of gas does a glowing splint relight?
A. Nitrogen B. Hydrogen C. Oxygen D. Helium

39. How many moles of alanine, C3H7NO2, are there in 159 g of alanine?
A. 1.42 x 104 moles B. 1.78 moles C. 0.992 mole D. 0.560 mole

40. Which of the following shows the mathematical statement of Charles’ law?
A. P1 V1 = P2V2 B. V1/T1 = V2/T2 C. PT = P1 = P2 = P3 D. V1P1/T1 = V2P2/T2

41. Which is the strongest acid?

A. HClO4 B. HClO3 C. HClO2 D. HClO

42. Which one of the following represents the net ionic equation for the reaction of nitric acid with
aluminum hydroxide?
A. 3H+ + Al(OH)3 Al3+ + 3H2O
B. 3HNO3 + Al(OH)3 Al(NO3)3 + 3H2O
- -
C. HNO3 + OH NO3 + H2O
D. H+ + OH- H2O

43. The combustion of ethane (C2H6) is represented by the equation:

2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)What happens to this reaction?
A. The rate of consumption of ethane is seven times faster than the rate of consumption of oxygen.
B. The rate of formation of CO2 equals the rate of formation of water.
C. Water is formed at a rate equal to two-thirds the rate of formation of CO2.
D. CO2 is formed twice as fast as ethane is consumed.

44. Which of the following is NOT true for the halogens?

A. They are nonmetals.
B. Their compounds with metals are generally ionic in nature.
C. They show the -1 oxidation number in most of their compounds.
D. The electronic configuration of their outermost electrons is ns 2 np6.
45.Balance the following equation with the smallest whole number coefficients. What is the sum of the
coefficients in the balanced equation below?
PtCl4 + XeF2 PtF6 + ClF + Xe
A. 16 B. 22 C. 24 D. 26

46. In a chemical reaction, what is the relationship between the total mass of the reactants and the total
mass of the products?
A. They must be equal.
B. The mass of the products must be greater
C. The mass of the reactants must be greater.
D. There is no general relationship between the two.

47. Which of the following demonstrates the law of conservation of mass in a chemical reaction?
A. Atoms are created. C. Atoms only rearrange.
B. Atoms are destroyed. D. Atoms turn into other atoms.

48. Which of the following statements correctly describes the law of conservation of mass as it applies
to a burning log, the remains of which is ash? How can the law of conservation of mass apply to a
burning log, if the remains are ash?
A. The ash has the same mass as the log, although a large percentage of it blows away.
B. The law of conservation of mass applies to changes of state but not to chemical reactions.
C. The law of conservation of mass applies to substitution and displacement reactions, but not to
combustion reactions.
D. The masses of the gases and water vapor released into the air by the combustion
reaction plus the mass of ash equal the mass of the log before burning.

49. Which information is required to write a chemical equation for a chemical reaction?
A. The chemical names of the reactants and products.
B. The formulas of the reactants and products.
C. The mole ratio of reactants and products.
D. The activation energy for the reaction.

50. Which of the following word equations represents the reaction between iron nail and copper (II)
sulfate solution?
A. iron + copper (II) sulfate iron copper + sulfate
B. iron + copper (II) sulfate copper (II) iron + sulfate
C. iron + copper (II) sulfate copper + iron (II) sulfate
D. iron + copper (II) sulfate copper (II) + iron sulfate