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org

MCQs of physiology

Increase in colloidal osmotic pressure:

a)are caused by increases in blood volume
b)cause an increase in the force that favors re-absorption of water from the interstitial
space into the blood
c)are antagonized by increase in interstitial hydrostatic pressure
d)increases capillary permeability
e)occurs most commonly follwing anaemia

volume of blood found in systemic veins is about:

a) 7%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%
e) 50%
arterial O2 content 20/100 ml,venous O2 content 12/100 ml, O2 concentration per minute
is 2800 ml
the cardiac out put is:
a)4 liters /min
6 liters /min
7liters/min
8liters/min
10 liters/min
if the radius of an artery is halfed its resistace will increase
a2 times
)4 times
8 times
16 times
32times

the primary forces moving water molecules from the interstitial fluid to plasma include
active trasport
interstitial colloid osmotic pressure
plasma colloid osmotic pressure
interstitiqal hydrostatic pressure
plasma hydrostatic pressure

in a normal 30 years old man the volume of disteribution of Deterim oxide,inulin and
Evan’s blue dye were found to be 42,14 and 4 liters repectively.this means:
body weigt is about 60 Kg
intracellular fluid volume is about 28 liters
total body water can not be calculated from this data
interstitial fluid volume is about 12 liters
plasma volume is about 4 liters

the intracellular fluid volume differs from the intracellular fluid in the following except:
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higer protein concentration
lower chloride concentration
lower osmolarity
lower pH
lower calcium concentration

the left ventricular volume is increase in all the following except:

an increse in preload
sympathetic load
an increase in the ejection fraction
an increase in venous return
an increase in afterload
Wed. 5/3/2003 Time allowed: 4 mins. For
each questions

Candidate’s Name:-------------------------------------------------------------- Index No.------------

Select the best correct answer:

1-During inspiration;
a. alveolar pressure decreases before pleural pressure
b. pressure in trachea decreases before alveolar pressure decreases
c. pressure in trachea decreases more than alveolar pressure
d. pleural pressure decreases more than alveolar pressure
e. transpulmonary pressure decreases
2-Diffusing capacity of O2 in the lung:
a. dose not change during exercise
b. is equal to diffusing capacity of CO2
c. is directly related to alveolar capillary surface area
d. is the same is in sea level residents and residents at 3000 m altitude
e. is usually measured using carbon dioxide
3-Reduced affinity of hemoglobin to O2
a. is known as the haldan’s seffect
b. favors uptake of O2 at the lung
c. can be caused by increased plasma (H+)
d. is signified by reduced P50
e. is signified by s left shift of the hemoglobin- O2 dissociation curve
4-The following information were obtained from a subject; tidal volume of 500 ml,
dead space volume of 100 ml, respiratory rate of 15 breath/minute and cardiac
output 6 liters/minute. All the following are correct except:
a. his alveolar ventilation 6 liters/minute
b. V/Q is 1
c. His pulmonary ventilation is 7.5 liters/minute
d. His vital capacity can be calculated from the data provided
e. His dead space ventilation is 1.5 liters/minute
5-Regarding the functional residual capacity (FRC), all statements below are
correct expect:
a. FRC increases when lung elasticity increases
b. FRC is higher in elderly than young adults
c. FRC reflects the balance between lung and chest wall elasticity
d. FRC can not be measured with simple spirometry
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e. FRC increases with emphysema
6-Bronchodilatation is likely to produced by:
a. cholinergic muscarinic agonists
b. ß2 adrenergic antagonists
c. ß2 adrenergic agonists
d. leukatriens
7-The peripheral chemoreceptors:
a. are activated only by hypoxia
b. quickly adapt to hypoxia
c. are the major site through which CO2 stimulate ventilation
d. are stimulated both by hypoxic and atagnant hypoxias
e. do not play a role in the hyperpnea high altitude
8-An increase in 2.3 diphosphoglycerate:
a. shift the hemoglobin – O2 dissociation curve to the same side as does metabolic
acidosis
b. shifts hemoglobin – O2 dissociation curve the same side as hypothermia
c. affects hemoglobin F more than hemoglobin A
d. reduces the P20 of hemoglobin
e. is expected to occur in metabolic acidosis
9-Surfactant:
a. is produced by type 1 alveolar epithelial cells
b. production is slow
c. increases lung compliance
d. is a glycoprotein
e. production starts only after deliver of term babies
10-In quite breathing expiration is:
a. passive and due to elastic lung tissue alone
b. passive and both to surface tension and elastic tissue
c. active due intercostals muscles
d. accompanied by an increase in the recoil force of the lung
e. accompanied by an increase in the transpulmonary pressure
11-Blood taken from the pulmonary artery is likely to have:
a. higher hematocrit than arterial blood
b. O2 percent saturation of 50%
c. Higher pH than arterial blood
d. PCO2 of about 40 mm Hg
e. None of the above
12-The V/Q of three alveoli were found to be as follows; alveolus A is 1 alveolus B is
0.5 alveolus C is 2. All the following are correct except:
a. blood leaving alveolus B will have PO2 higher than normal
b. blood leaving alveolus C will have PO2 lower than normal
c. blood leaving alveolus A will have PO2 of about 100 mm Hg
d. alveolus B represents wasted ventilation
e. alveolus A represents wasted ventilation
13-Cyanosis:
a. is caused by low hemoglobin concentration
b. is caused by high concentration of carboxyhemoglobin
c. may be caused by hypoxic or stagnant hypoxia
d. its occurrence is related to the proportion and not the absolute concentration of
reduced hemoglobin
14-The rhythemicity center:
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a. is located in the pons
b. is spontaneously active
c. activity causes expiration
d. activity is increased by pneumotaxic center
e. activity is increased by a rise in blood pressure
15-All the following afferent are in the vagus nerve except those enervating:
a. the carotid body
b. lung stretch receptors
c. aortic chemoreceptors
d. j receptors
16-Hypoventiation may lead to:
a. low plasma HCO3
b. low PCO2 in venous blood
c. high PCO2 in arterial blood
d. low ionized serum calcium
e. shift of the hemoglobin oxygen dissociation to the left
17-The vital capacity:
a. is higher in the elderly than young adults
b. increases following destruction of lung elastic fibers
c. more than 80% of it expired in the first second of forced expiration
d. is twice as much in females than in males
e. is increased by surfactant deficiency
18-Spontaneous respiration stops after:
a. transaction of the brain stem above the pons
b. transaction of the brain stem at the caudal end of the medulla
c. bilateral vagotomy combined with transaction of the brain stem above the pons
d. transaction of the spinal cord between the 6th and 7th cervical segments
e. cutting both the right and left phrenic nerves
19- Pulmonary fibrosis would be expected to produce:
a. hidtotoxic hypoxia
b. stagnant hypoxia
c. decreased vital capacity
d. emphysema
e. increased compliance
20-Which of the following has the greatest affect on the capacity of blood to
transport O2:
a. solubility of oxygen in blood
b. hemoglobin concentration
c. pH of plasma
d. PCO2 of blood
e. Temperature of the blood
21-In the body the metabolism of 10 grams of protein would produce
approximately:
a. 10 kcal
b. 53 kcal
c. 41 kcal
d. 90 kcal
e. 20 cal
22-For measurement of the basal metabolic rate all the following conditions are
required except:
a. mental rest
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b. physic rest
c. normal body temperature
d. 12 hours fasting prior to measurement
e. comfortable room temperature

23-Exposure to a cold a environment is excepted to cause the following except:

a. coetaneous vasoconstriction
b. peripheral cyanosis
c. acceleration of metabolism
d. reduction in blood pressure
e. acceleration of chemical thermogensis
24-If a naked person stand at environmental temperature of 21˚C ; most of the heat
will be lost from his body by:
a. evaporation
b. radiation
c. conduction
d. convection
e. excreta
25. Sweat:
a. is a filtrate
b. has sodium concentration as that of plasma
c. is an active secretion
d. secretion is enhanced by aldosterone
e. does not contain urea
26-Characteristics of heat stroke involve all of the following except:
a. hypotension
b. hypovolaemia
c. wet skin
d. tachycardia
e. high body temperature
27-The following is true about cell membrane transport mechanisms:
a. glucose enters the cell through channels
b. Na CI is actively transported
c. Water movement is mainly by active transport
d. Na+ goes out of the cell passively
e. K+ enters the cell by active transport
28-The resting membrane potential is generated by the following factors:
a. the selective permeability of the cell membrane to ins
b. the high concentration of Na+ in the ECF
c. the high concentration of phosphates in the cell nucleus
d. the low concentration of Ca2+ inside the cell
e. free movement of bicarbonate across the cell membrane
29-The following is not one of the functions of proteins in the cell membrane:
a. assist endocytosis
b. receptor for neurotransmitters
c. adhesion between cells
d. enzyme
e. hormone
30-The following is true about changes in cell membrane potential:
a. the action potential occurs in all tissues
b. local potential do not occur in excitable tissues
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c. local potential are all or none
d. active transport of Na+ is responsible for depolarization
e. repolarisation takes longer than depolarization
31-The following is true about the action potential:
a. an external stimulus is needed for its initiation in the SA node
b. the depolarization phase is due to Ca2+ influx in cardiac muscle proper
c. its duration in cardiac muscle is similar to that of skeletal muscle
d. it is essential for initiation of contraction in al types of muscle
e. k+ efflux is always the primary cause of repolarization
32-Which of the following is not essential for a muscle twitch in a skeletal muscle:
a. ATP
b. Myosin
c. Ca2+
d. Myoglobin
e. Troponin
33-Which of the following does not apply to chemical synapses:
a. more than one neurotransmitter may be released
b. neurotransmitter that open CI- channels are stimulatory to thepostsynaptic
neurons
c. the transmitter may be inhibitory
d. Ca2+is needed for the release of the transmitter from the pre-synaptic neurons
e. The activity of the post-synaptic neurone is determined by many pre-synaptic
neurons
34-Contraction of a cell:
a. is due to phospholipids interacting wit myosin
b. requires Ca2+
c. only muscle cell can contract
d. is always associated with an action potential
e. muscle contraction is a “all or none” response.
35-The nicotinic cholinergic receptors are:
a. activated by high concentration of nicotine
b. inhabited by high concentrations of acetlylcholine
c. blocked by atropine
d. ligand-gated CI- channels
e. located in the cell nucleus
36-The resting membrane potential:
a. decreased (depolarization) by hypokalaemia
b. deceased by hypocalcaemia
c. decreased by cl influx
d. not affected by the permeability of the cell membrane to k+
e. a feature of all cells
37-The duration of the action potential of axon A is 5 ms while that of axon B is 3
ms. This difference might be due to:
a. axon B has more sodium channels
b. axon A has potassium channels that respond quickly
c. axon B has less potassium channels
d. there is no influx of cl- in axon B during repolarization
e. axon B has more Na+- k+ pumps

38-Skeletal muscle cells:

a. depend on extracellular clcium for contraction
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b. have muscarinic cholinergic receptors
c. have calmodulin instead of troponin
d. act as a syncytium
e. can be tetanized

39-The following is not true about the endplate potential of skeletal muscle cell:
a. its magnitude is proportional to the amount of acetylcholine released by the
motor neurone
b. its magnitude is proportional to the number of acetylocoline receptors in the
endplate
c. is an action potential
d. it can be abolished by curare
e. is low in myasthenia gravis
40-The excitability of neurons is increased by:
a. hypocalcaemia
b. hyponatraemia
c. hypokalaemia
d. hypermagnesaemia
e. hypercalcaemia
41-Myelin:
a. is important in the peripheral nerves but not the central nervous system
b. is formed by the microglial cells
c. is an insulator
d. decreased the speed of transmission of action potentials
e. is carbohydrate in nature
42-The following is not a future of chemical synapses:
a. convergence
b. divergence
c. synaptic
d. transmission of impulse in both directions
e. postsynaptic inhibitory potential
43-The globin part of haemoglobin F consists of:
a. 2 and 2 chains
b. 2 and 2 chains
c. 2 and 2 chains
d. 2 and 2 chains
e. 2 and 2 chains
44-The following are natural anticoaguans except:
a. thromboxane A2
b. prostacycline
c. protein C
d. antithrombin III
e. plasminogen
45- Concearning vitamin B12:
a. is a fat soluble vitamin
b. is found in green vegetable
c. is absorbed in theduodenum
d. antagonized folic acid
e. is required for myelin formation
46-Physiological jaundice:
a. is due to rhesus incompatibility
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b. appears in the first 24 hours after birth
c. is treated by exchange transfusion
d. is due to excessive RBC break down
e. is less common in pre term babies

47-Vitamin K deficiency leads to decrease production of the following factor:

a. I
b. VII
c. VIII
d. IX
e. XII
48-In a 30 years old man red marrow will be found at all these sites except:
a. skull
b. ribs
c. pelvic bones
d. shaft of the femur
e. sternum
49-Reticulocyte count in normal blood is:
a. not present
b. 1%
c. 3%
d. 5%
e. 10%
50-In obstructive jaundice:
a. bilirubin is excreted in urine
b. stool colour is dark
c. urobilinogen in urine is increased
d. reticulocyte count is increased
e. van den berg test is indirect
51-Which of the following s not an action of thrombin:
a. activation of factor XIII
b. stimulation of tissue plasminogen activator
c. activation of factor X
d. activation of protein C
e. action of factor VIII
52-Cardiac muscle between as a synacytium because:
a. of sympathetic supply
b. presence of gap rumction
c. it has a difference of parkinque fibres
d. of Ca2+ enflux
e. it has cross striation
53-Cardiac muscle has a long refectory period because:
a. the impish takes about 0.2 sec to travel from SA nude to AV nude
b. it obeys the all-or- non low
c. of the delay in Na influx
d. of cast influx
e. it is more permash to K
54-In the diagnose provided the pacemaker potential (prepotential) is due to
calcium influx in the early phase:
a. K influx
b. Decreased Na influx
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c. Decreased K influx
d. decreased N influx
55-on increase in extracellulan potassium leads to:
a. showing of the heart
b. cardio spasm
c. stopping of t he heart in systole
d. rapid repolarization of the SA noch

56-The diagnom shown einthoveis triangle. The lead marked X is:

a. lead I
b. lead II
c. lead III
d. V1
e. V6
57-In the ECG diagram the dmatrs:
a. a trial contrition
b. a trail depolarization
c. ventricular repolaization
d. SA node depolarization
e. Ventincular contraction
58-In the avove ECG the PQ interal dmotes:
a. the duration of atrnal contraction
b. the duration of the action potential of atrial muscle
c. the conduction tme from SA node to the ventricles
d. the duration of venticule contraction
e. conduction in the AV node
59-In the ECG record provided:
a. in figure (a) there is atial fibrillation
b. in figure (b) there is complete heart block
c. in figure (c) there is a 3:1 block
d. in figure (b) there is incomplete heart block
e. in figure © there incomplete heart block
60-In the cardiac cycle:
a. closur of the semiluar values occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole
b. opening of the atrioventicular values occurs at the end of ventricular diastole
c. the atrioventricular values open at the beginning of the isometric isometic
relaxation
d. the semilure values open at the beginning of venticula syptor
e. the semilumar values open at the end of the isometic contraction phase
61-Ventricular filling:
a. occur the atria contract
b. stants in mid- diastole
c. takes place mainly passively
d. is not affected by the least rate
e. is indicated by the end-syptolic volume
62-The pressure in the left ventricle:
a. varies between 0 am 120 minutes
b. rises rapidly during ventricular filling
c. show a maximum of 80 mmHg
d. falls rapidly during diastole.
e. Falls rapidly the isometric relaxation phases
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63-The pressure changes in the pulmonary artery include:
a. systolic pressure of 80 mmHg.
b. Diastolic pressure of 10 mmHg.
c. Pulse pressure of 40 mmHg.
d. End diastolic pressure of 0 mmHg.
e. End mid systolic pressure of 40 mmHg.
64-The ECG correlation with the cardiac
a- the P wave corresponds to isometric cycle:
b- the P wave comes after relaxation phase atial cystate
c- the P wave corresponds to early vindicator diastale
d- the QRS proceeds ventricular
e- the QRS occurs the first heart sound
65- which of the following statement is true about heart sounds
a- the first heart sound is high pitched
b- the first heart sound has a of 0.2 sec
c- the joint heart sound occurs at the beginning of sy
d- the second heart sound is normally split during inspiration
e- the second heart sound occurs during the isometric contraption phase
66. The cardiac output:
a. is the amount of blood pumped by each ventich per unit time.
b. can be measured by imulin infusion using the fick principle.
c. may increase by 100% during heavy exercise.
d. is not affected by the arterial blood pressure.
e. is directly proportional to the end systolic volume
67.. The fick principla in measurement of cardiac output depends upon:
a. measurement of curculatia time.
b. frequent anterial blood sampling for min.
c. use of a dye injected into a large artery.
d. measurement of uptake of a substance during a given time.
e. calculation of blood from using formula V= Q
C
68. The heart rate:
a. is influenced by sympathetic tone more than vagal tone.
b. is increased when the arterial pressure falls.
c. falls on decreases stimulation of baroceptos.
d. is increased when the intraual pressure increases.
e. decreases when the vasomotor centre is stimulated.
69. Neutrophils:
a. contains heparin.
b. are produced mainly in the spleen in adults.
c. can produce hydrogen peroxide.
d. have life span of few days.
e. increases in viral infections.
70. Red blood cell (RBC) :
a. have few organelles.
b. in adults are produced in the spleen & bone marrow.
d. their size increases in iron deficiency anaemia.
e. their mean heamoglobin concentration increases in folic acid deficiency.
71. the following is true about iron:
a. it is mainly absorbed in the duobenum.
b. daily loss in males is less than 1 mg.
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c. serum ferritin is a good index of iron storage.
d. milk is a good dietary source.
e. vitamin C reduces its absorption.
72. Erythropoietin:
a. stimulated by increased oxygen tension.
b. increases Hb synthesis
c. reduces maturation time of red blood cells.
d. its level is increased in people living at high altitudes
e. its level is reduced in chronic kidney failure.
73. Immunogloblin:
a. D has the largest size.
b. E is found in milk.
c. G is found mainly in primary response.
d. M is found mainly in secondary response.
e. A is found in large amounts in the respiratory tract.
74. Hb S:
a. contains 2 ? 2 ß chains:
b. the ? –chains are abnormal.
c. glutamic acid is replaced by valine in the chains.
d. is more common in the Mediterranean area.
e. has iron in the oxidized state.
75. the following are true about platelets except:
a. are derived from mega karyocytes.
b. life span in 5 -11 days.
c. increase in number after splentectomy.
d. have anti-infammatory role.
e. size is 4 times the RBC.
76. regarding iron absorption:
a. is reduced by excess secretion of HCL.
b. is reduced by absence of the intrinsic factor.
c. is increased by tetracycline.
d. iron from meat is absorbed better than iron in plants.
e. absorption takes place mainly in the ileum.

77. Haemoglobin:
a. forms 80% of haemoglobin in adults.
b. consists of 2 ? & 2y chains.
c. has higer affinity for O2 than haemoglobinF.
d. contains iron in the oxidized form.
e. its amount in each red cell is 30 picogram.
78. A stained normal blood film shows:
a. 50-70% nuetrophils.
b. 4% basophils.
c. 2-8% lymphocytes.
d. 0-4% moncyted.
e. 0-0.4 % eosinophils.
79. lymphocytes:
a. forms 5-15% of lymphocytes.
b. have no nuclei.
c. produce IgM antibodies.
d. convert to plasma cell when activated.
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e. produce perforins.
80. Immunoglobulin M (IgM):
a. are called secretory immunoglobulin.
b. most abundant in the secondary immune response.
c. can cross the placenta.
d. constitutes the antibodies in the ABO blod group system.
e. consist of 4 light chains.
81. A person who is group O:
a. has both A & B antigens.
b. has both anti- A & B anti bodies.
c. act as universal reciepient.
d. can not be a father of child whose group is B.
e. his genotype is AB.
82. Acetylcholine:
a. is a steroid.
b. produced by all preganglionic autonomic fibers.
c. formation is catalized by the wnzyme choline transferase.
d. has receptors on the skeletal muscle.
e. is found normaly in the blood.
83. nor adrenaline:
a. is formed from the amino acid glycine.
b. has less affinity to alpha receptors than adrenaline.
c. is produced by the adrenal cortex.
d.is antagonized by antropine.
e. is found normaly in the blood.
84. stimulation of the parasympathetic may lead to:
a. inhibition of saliva secretion.
b. increases gastric movement.
c. dilation of the eye pupil.
d. increase blood flow to the skeletal muscle.
e. piloercetion.

85. Extracellular fluid can be measured using all the following substances except:
a. inulin.
b. mannitol.
c. sucrose.
d. evans blue.
e. radioactive thiocyanate.
86. Infustion 1 litre of 0.9% saline intravenously to a subject will immediately:
a. increased intracellular fluid volume.
b. increased extraculluer fluid volume.
c. increased both intra and extraceullar fluid volume.
d. increase urine volume.
e. increased extracellular fluid volume but decrease intracellular fluid volume.
87. if K+ concentration in ECF is increased the following may happen:
a. the resting membrane potential become less negative.
b. the resting membrane potential will not change.
c. rapid sodium channel will open.
d. an action potential will occur spontaneously.
e. the action potential will occur.
88. Which of the following substances contributes more to plasma osmolarity:
a. Na +
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b. K+
c. albumin.
d. urea.
e. glucose.
89. The following is a function of protein in the cell except;
a. water channel.
b. lons channels.
c. hormone receptors.
d. nutrition of the cell.
e. antigen.
90. which of the following can lead to oedma:
a. increase in the oncotic pressure.
b. increase in venous pressure.
c. increase in the concentration of atrial natriuretic peptide.
d. contraction of the precapillary sphincter.
e. decrease in ADH secretion.
91. Excessive loss of fluid from the body will increase:
a. bororecptors discharge.
b. chemoreceptor discharge.
c. volume recptor discharge.
d. angiotensin II formation.
e. pulse pressure.
92. What is the most highly time answer regarding the following action potential:
a. results from changes in membrane voltage .
b. obeys the principle of generator potential.
c. characterized by the fading conduction.
d. has the same amplitude in different types of nerve fibers
e. has the same form in neural fibers and myocardial fibers
93. the resting membrane potential:
a has the same magnitude in all tissues.
b. result from potassium efflux.
c. needs energy.
d. it depends on voltage gated sodium channels.
e. sodium –potassium ATPase play an important role in it.
94. Pain sensation:
a. receptors are free nerve endings.
b. is transmitted by posterior col?
c. fast pain is tramsmitted by C fibers.
d. is appreaciated in sensory cortex .
e. localization is the function of the thalamus.
95. The centers for these reflexes are as follows:
a. biceps reflex in C 5 –C6
b. plantar in S 1 –S 2.
c. ankle jerk reflex in S 1 –S 2 –S 3
d. Knee jerk reflex in L2 & L3.
e. bladder emptying reflex in L1 –L2
96. Paralysis or weakness results from:
a. upper motor neuron lesions
b. lesions of the crocipiltal brain
c. bune disease
d. lesions ofbasal ganglia
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e. lesions of cerebellum

97. Lower motor neuron lesion:

a. is characterized by loss of voluntary movement and preservation of reflex
movements
b. is always a later stage in the development of upper motor neuron lesions
c. if long standing is typically associated with wasting of affected muscles.
d. if long standing is associated with fasiculatuion
e. is associated with worm extremities
98. Parkinson’s disease is characterized by:
a. paralysis of one side of the body
b. tremors which are worse when a skilled movement is being carried out
c. decreased muscle tone which is maintained through out passive flexion and
extension of joints.
d. a clumsy gait which improve if the closes his/ her eyes
e. loss of position sense
99. The spinal cord acts as centre for:
a. the tonic neak reflex
b. the labyimthine reflex
c. the hopping reaction
d. the pacing reaction
e. the positive supporting reaction
100. The medulh acts as centre for:
a. the strctch reflex
b. the righting reflexs
c. the hopping reaction
d. the tonic neck reflex refelxs
e. the negative supporting reaction
101. The dersol them tracts:
a. serves as pathology for prain
b. serves as pathology for terpsative
c. serves as pathology for tench
d. serves as pathology for smele
e. serves as pathology for taste
102. lesion of the bsalgnghia:
a. kinetir tremor
b. muscle wosting
c. muscle weaknen
d. hyperfcinesin
e. paste pointing
103. The following represents cerebella function:
a. planning of movements
b. invtlatim of movement
c. control of skillfunl motro activity
d. control of muscle tone
e. control of bladder function
104. Cerebeller lesions results in:
a. resting tremor
b. muscle wcalenen
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c. dysmeteria
e. exagyrated reflexes

105. Regarding thecerebral centre:

a. acts as centre for the placing reaction
b. acts ascentre for the oplisal righting reflex
c. acts as centre for the stretch reflex
d. acts as centre for the tonic labyriltor reflex
e. acts as centre for the body on body righting reflex
106. Regarding the physiology of vision:
a. cones are resprisble for dimlight vision
b. rods are responsible for colour vision
c. sympathetic stimulation constricts the pupril:
d. myopria is corrected by voing glan with convex lens
e. lesions of the opic radiation caures hemarmones hemionepin
107. cecerncing tst for heaving:
a. renniex test is positive in conductive deafnen
b. weber test is positive in nerve deafren
c. auidimenly is useful in deaf children
d. auditry exolud paterntial is useful
e. in opthalmoscopy is of great help
108. The generation potential:
a. is all or none
b is an action potential
c. it’s amplitude increases when the luteresity of simulation decreases
d. is a receptor potential
e. is stimulated by na eflbuse
109. during exercise the sorke volume is mainly regulation by:
a. hormonal mechomism
b. parsympathtic mnervation
c. adrenergic B, receptor stimulation
d. venens return
e. muscle pump
110. one of the following is important for venous reaction:
a. high prosner gradient between the enua cavesand the right adrium
b. preasence of valves is the infection vena cave
c. rise of the diaphrgram duringexpiration
d. the effects of graviting on lower limb muscles
e. negativeintra therasic personeduring imspiration
111. neural effects on the stroke volume include:
a. a positive imotropic effect ofsympathetic stimulation
b. trappephenonenen a negative effectof vagal stimulation on ventialar condration
c. the bainbride reflex
d. starting law of the luant
e. a direc length tenstion relationship
112. a patient with loss of function of the posterior column tracts may have:
a. diminished temperatine
b. loss of pain sensation
c. plantar flexion in response to strong stimulation of the sole of the foot
d. a clumsy gait which improves if he closes his / her eyes
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e. loss of position sense

113.Increasese in colloidal osmotic pressure:

a. are caused by increases in blood volume
b. cause an increase in the force that favours reabsorption of water from the
interstitial space into the blood
c. are anagonized by increase in interstitial hydeostatic pressure
d. increases capillary permeability
e. occurs most commonly follwing anaemia
114.volume of blood found in systemic veins is about:
a. 7%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 40%
e. 50%
115.arterial O2 content 20/100 ml,venous O2 content 12/100 ml, O2 concentration
per minute is 2800 mlthe cardiac out put is:
a. 4 liters /min
b. 6 liters /min
c. 7liters/min
d. 8liters/min
e. 10 liters/min
116.if the radius of an artery is halfed its resistace will increase
a. 2 times
b. 4 times
c. 8 times
d. 16 times
e. 32 times
117.the primary forces moving water molecules from the interstitial fluid to plasma
include
a. active trasport
b. interstitial colloid osmotic pressure
c. plasma colloid osmotic pressure
d. interstitiqal hydrostatic pressure
e. plasma hydrostatic pressure
118.in a normal 30 years old man the volume of disteribution of Deterim
oxide,inulin and Evan’s blue dye were found to be 42,14 and 4 liters repectively.this
means:
a. body weigt is about 60 Kg
b. intracellular fluid volume is about 28 liters
c. total body water can not be calculated from this data
d. interstitial fluid volume is about 12 liters
e. plasma volume is about 4 liters
119.the intracellular fluid volume differs from the intracellular fluid in the following
except:
a. higer protein concentration
b. lower chloride concentration
c. lower osmolarity
d. lower pH
e. lower calcium concentration
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120.the left ventricular volume is increase in all the following except:
a. an increse in preload
b. sympathetic load
c. an increase in the ejection fraction
d. an increase in venous return
e. an increase in afterload

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