MODULE 3 ( Practice of Pharmacy ): Attempt review 10/13/22, 7:10 PM

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Dashboard / Courses / COMPRE / EXAM / MODULE 3 ( Practice of Pharmacy )

Started on Wednesday, 28 September 2022, 1:11 PM

State Finished

Completed on Wednesday, 28 September 2022, 2:21 PM

Time taken 1 hour 9 mins

Grade 53.00 out of 100.00

Question 1
One which is noxious and unintended, and which occurs at doses normally used in man for
Correct the prophylaxis, diagnosis, or therapy of disease, or for the modi!cation of physiological
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 function.

a. Adverse drug reaction !

b. Adverse event

c. Medication error

d. Side e"ect

Adverse drug reaction

Medication error: Any preventable event that may lead to inappropriate medication use
or cause harm to the patient while the medication is in the control of health professional
Adverse event: Any injury caused by medical treatment and not necessarily due to drug
error

Adverse drug event: Any adverse event associated with the use of drugs in humans
Side e"ect: Undesired e"ects of drug byt stukk related to MOA

The correct answer is: Adverse drug reaction

Question 2
CYP450-mediated metabolism of drugs falls under what phase?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Functionalization phase

b. Conjugation phase "

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b. Conjugation phase "

c. Biotransformation phase

d. None of the above

Functionalization/Phase 1 involves unmasking of polar functional group of drug. It

includes three reactions: hydrolysis, oxidation, reduction. CYP450-mediated metabolism
is an example of oxidation reaction. Oxidation is considered the most dominant Phase 1
reaction.

The correct answer is: Functionalization phase

Question 3
Which of the following beta-blockers can be used in management of CHF?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Propranol

b. Carvedilol

c. Nevibolol "

d. Carteolol

The following beta blockers can also be used in the management of stable congestive
heart failure:
ü  Bisoprolol
ü  Carvedilol
ü  Metoprolol

The correct answer is: Carvedilol

Question 4
Freely !ltered, it limits tubular reabsorption of water and is useful in reducing cerebral
Incorrect edema and intracranial pressure.
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Methylxanthines

b. Furosemide "

c. Mannitol

d. Acetazolamide

All are diuretics.

Mannitol, when administered parentally, acts as an osmostic diuretic. It is used in
management of cerebral edema.
Furosemide: a sulfonamide-like loop diuretic, inh. Na-K-2Cl co-transporter in TAL

Acetazolamide: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor in PCT.

The correct answer is: Mannitol

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Question 5
Retrospective comparison of samples chosen based on the presence or absence of disease.
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Cohort

b. Case control !

c. Cross-sectional

d. Meta-analysis

Cohort: sample chosen based on the presence of risk factor, computes for RR
Cross-sectional/Prevalence study: looks for disease prevalence and prevalence of
factors; survey the population at a single point in time
Meta-analysis: systematic review that uses quantitative methods to summarize results
=.

The correct answer is: Case control

Question 6
Abstracting services
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Primary Source

b. Secondary Source !

c. Tertiary Source

d. Ternary Source

Primary Source: provide most current information ex: journal articles

Secondary Source: for quick and selective screening of primary literature ex. abstracting
and indexing services

Tertiary Source: provide easy and most convenient access, information may be outdated
ex. textbooks

The correct answer is: Secondary Source

Question 7
Which cannot be used in a patient experiencing anaphylactic reaction?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Dobutamine

b. Diphenhydramine "

c. Epinephrine

d. Hydrocortisone

Dobutamine is a B1-selective agonist. It is used as a 1st line inotropic agent for

cardiogenic shock and also in pharmacologic stress testing (also used: Dipyridamole).
The rest are used in anaphylaxis
The correct answer is: Dobutamine

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Question 8
This type of anemia results in microcytic blood cells.
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Pernicious anemia

b. Iron de!ciency anemia !

c. Aplastic anemia

d. AOTA

Types of Anemia based on cell morphology:

Macrocytic: Vit B9/Vit B12 de!ciency
                        Pernicious anemia
Microcytic:  Iron de!ciency anemia
                        Sickle cell anemia
Normocytic: Aplastic anemia
                          CKD

The correct answer is: Iron de!ciency anemia

Question 9
Which of the following causes hypercalcemia:
Incorrect
I. Paget’s disease
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
II. Glucocorticoids
III. Hydrochlorothiazide
IV. Metolazone
V. Hypoparathyroidism

a. I, II, III

b. I, III, IV

c. I, II, IV "

d. II, IV, V

Hypocalcemia: Hypoparathyroidism
                              Vit D De!ciency
Hypercalcemia: Malignancy
                              Hyperparathyroidism
                                 Paget’s disease(breakdown of bone)
                                Thiazide diuretics*
                                Vit D intoxication

*Thiazide diuretics:
Benzothidiazides: HCTZ
Thiazide-likediuretics: Chlorthalidone,

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Thiazide-likediuretics: Chlorthalidone,
 Metolazone,                           Indapamide

The correct answer is: I, III, IV

Question 10
Analgesic of choice for acute pancreatitis but may cause ↓ in seizure threshold.
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Meperidine !

b. Morphine

c. Apomorphine

d. Tramadol

Meperidine is the analgesic of choice for acute pancreatitis because it does not cause
biliary spasm. It’s metabolite, normeperidine, decreases seizure threshold, increasing risk
for seizure to occur. Meperidine does not also cause bradycardia and venodilation, unlike
other opioids.
The correct answer is: Meperidine

Question 11
Which of the following pairs of drugs and teratogenic e"ects are correctly matched?
Incorrect
I. Phenytoin: cryptorchidism
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
II. ACEIs and ARBs: Oligohydramnios

III. Methimazole: Ebstein’s Anomaly

IV. Lithium: Aplasia cutis
V. Valproic acid: Renal dysgenesis

a. I, II

b. I, II, V "

c. I only

d. None of the above

Lithium Ebstein’s Anomaly

Isotretinoin Heart and brain anomaly

Phenytoin -Fetal hydantoin syndrome

-cryptorchidism
(undescended testes)

Valproic acid -Neutral tube defect (Spina

bi!da)
Tx: Vit B9 supplements

ACEIs & ARBs -Renal dysgenesis

-oligohydyramnios (no
amniotic fluid)

Methimazole Aplasia cutis

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Methimazole Aplasia cutis

Thalidomide Phocomelia

Alcohol Microcephaly

The correct answer is: I, II

Question 12
Systemic lupus erythematosus involves a hypersensitivity reaction which may be classi!ed
Incorrect as:
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Cytotoxic

b. Delayed "

c. Anaphylactic

d. Immune-complex mediated

Type I/Anaphylaxis: IgE mediated

Type II/Cytotoxic: complement-system activated = cell lysis, blood dyscrasias
Type III/Immune-complex mediated: Antigen-antibody complex = blood-soluble =
deposit in organs
Type IV/Delayed: tuberculin skin test, contact dermatitis
The correct answer is: Immune-complex mediated

Question 13
Coomb’s test
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

a. Pernicious anemia

b. Hemolytic anemia !

c. Carcinoid syndrome

d. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

Schilling’s test: Pernicious anemia

Carcinoid syndrome: tumor in ECL cells (DOC: Phenoxybenzamine)
Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia: Acid phosphatase elevation
The correct answer is: Hemolytic anemia

Question 14
Use of atropine will likely result in which of the following? I. Bronchodilation II. Sweating III.
Incorrect Diarrhea IV. Mydriasis V. Bradycardia
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. I, IV

b. I,II,III

c. IV, V

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d. II, III, V "

Atropine is an anticholinergic agent used in the management of symptomatic

bradycardia, antidote for cholinergic toxicity, mydriatic, and as an antidiarrheal agent.
E"ects include:

ü  Anti-M1:  H+ secretion

ü  Anti-M2: (+) chronotropy

                   (+) dromotropy 

ü  Anti-M3: “Alice in Wonderland” e"ect

>  Red as a beet: Cutaneous vasodilation

>  Blind as a bat: Mydriasis; loss of near vision

>  Mad as a ha$er: Pyschosis and agitation

>  Dry as a bone: ↓ secretions

>  Hot as a hare: ↑ Body temperature due to ↓ sweating

The correct answer is: I, IV

Question 15
Secondary Hyperthyroidism
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. High T3 and T4, Low TSH

b. High T3 and T4, High TSH !

c. Low T3 and T4, Low TSH

d. Low T3 and T4, High TSH

Primary: problem with the organ

Secondary: problem with pituitary gland

Hyper/Hypo: denotes whether there is an excessive/de!cient production of the hormone

The correct answer is: High T3 and T4, High TSH

Question 16
Simvastatin, when administered with which drug, will have relatively increased serum
Incorrect levels?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Rifampicin

b. Cimetidine

c. Carbamazepine "

d. Griseofulvin

Rifampicin, Cimetidine, and Griseofulvin are enzyme inducers which will hasten
metabolism of simvastatin, resulting to decreased serum levels. Cimetidine is an enzyme
inhibitor.

The correct answer is: Cimetidine

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Question 17
A person manifesting with symptoms of heart failure with ordinary exertion would be
Incorrect classi!ed under the New York Heart Association functional classi!cation?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Class I

b. Class II

c. Class III "

d. Class IV

Class I: occurs when performing under more than ordinary exertion

Class II: during ordinary exertion

Class III: during less than ordinary exertion

Class IV: occurs at rest

The correct answer is: Class II

Question 18
Beta-lactamase inhibitors, EXCEPT:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Tazobactam

b. Monobactam !

c. Sulbactam

d. None of the above

Monobactam is an antibiotic eg. Aztreonam. The rest are beta-lactamase inhibitors.

The correct answer is: Monobactam

Question 19
Acacia + Iron salts
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Cementation

b. Gelatinization !

c. Volatilization

d. Isomerization

The correct answer is: Gelatinization

Question 20
A patient who is a slow acetylator can be characterized by:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. slow metabolism and reduced therapeutic response "

b. slow metabolism and normal therapeutic response

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c. slow metabolism and enhanced therapeutic response

d. peripheral neuropathy resistant to pyridoxine therapy

Slow metabolism but with normal therapeutic response.

Acetylation: metabolism of drug containing a primary amino group, amino acids and
sulfonamides.
“HIPS”: drugs metabolized thru acetyl conjugation

The correct answer is: slow metabolism and enhanced therapeutic response

Question 21
Characterized by low protein intake with adequate caloric intake
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Secondary Malnutrition

b. Marasmus

c. Kwashiorkor !

d. Rickets

Marasmus: Low protein and caloric intake

Rickets: Vit D de!ciency

Secondary Malnutrition: adequate intake but problem with absorption, mastication,

digestion.

The correct answer is: Kwashiorkor

Question 22
Beta-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity and so should be avoided in chronic
Incorrect heart failure?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Carteolol

b. Metoprolol

c. Atenolol

d. Nadolol "

The following beta-blockers has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity resulting to less

episode of reflex tachycardia:
ü  Carteolol

ü  Labetalol
ü  Acebutalol

ü  Pindolol

The correct answer is: Carteolol

Question 23
Most appropriate when comparing programs and treatment alternatives that are life-
Correct
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Correct extending and with serious side e"ects. It considers patient preferences and related QALYs.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. cost-minimization analysis

b. cost-e"ectiveness analysis

c. cost-bene!t analysis

d. cost-utility analysis !

Cost-minimization: comparison of 2 or more treatments while assuming that outcomes

are equivalent

Cost-e"ectiveness: compare treatment alternative with cost measured and treatment

outcomes expressed in terms of therapeutic objectives

Cost-bene!t: identify and measure all costs of providing treatment and comparing
bene!ts with outcomes expressed in monetary units.

The correct answer is: cost-utility analysis

Question 24
The following are factors directly a"ecting drug-food interaction, EXCEPT.
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. ingested relative time of food and drug intake

b. formulation characteristics

c. type of food

d. renal injury !

Factors a"ecting Dr ug-Food Interaction

1.Formulation characteristics

2.Type of food
3.Ingested relative time of food and drug intake

As a general rule this interaction is minimized if drug is taken 1 hr before and 2 hrs after a
meal

The correct answer is: renal injury

Question 25
Palliative care in cancer patients:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Use of chemotherapeutic agents to eliminate cancer cells

b. Subjecting to radiation therapy

c. Manage symptoms to improve patient’s quality of life

d. Both a and b "

Palliative care is specialized medical care for people living with a serious illness. This
type of care is focused on relief from the symptoms and stress of a serious illness. The
goal is to improve quality of life for both the patient and the family.

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The correct answer is: Manage symptoms to improve patient’s quality of life

Question 26
A clinically noticeable drug interaction resulting from the displacement of drug A by drug B
Correct from common plasma protein-binding sites is most often seen when:
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. Drug B has a low associate constant for binding the protein and is given in large dose

b. Drug A has high association constant for binding the protein

c. Drug B is more toxic than Drug A

d. Drug B has a high association constant for binding the protein and is given in large !
dose

Drug with higher association constant will displace another drug with relatively lower
association constant.

The correct answer is: Drug B has a high association constant for binding the protein and
is given in large dose

Question 27
pH is equal to pKa at which of the following?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. pH 1

b. pH 7 "

c. neutralization point

d. half-neutralization point

In the middle of this gradually curve the half-neutralization occurs. At this point the
concentration of weak acid is equal to the concentration of its conjugate base. Therefore
the pH=pKa. This point is called the half-neutralization because half of the acid has been
neutralized.
The correct answer is: half-neutralization point

Question 28
What will be observed in a patient undergoing anticoagulant therapy with warfarin who also
Incorrect took cholestyramine?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Increase in INR due to pharmacodynamic interaction "

b. Increase in INR due to pharmacokinetic interaction

c. Decrease in INR due to pharmacodynamic interaction

d. Decrease in INR due to pharmacokinetic interaction

INR measures the time it takes for your blood to clot. In general, the higher the number,
the longer it takes for your blood to clot.

Cholestyramine treatment decreased the biological half-life of plasma warfarin (from a

mean value of 2 days -1.3 days) and increased the total clearance of this drug.

The correct answer is: Decrease in INR due to pharmacokinetic interaction

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The correct answer is: Decrease in INR due to pharmacokinetic interaction

Question 29
Hospitals are classi!ed according to the following, except:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Number of beds

b. Ownership

c. Functional capacity "

d. None of the above

Hospitals can be classi!ed according to:

ü  Number of beds

ü  Ownership
ü  Functional capacity

ü  Scope of services
ü  Length of stay

The correct answer is: None of the above

Question 30
A pregnant woman decided to take Doxycycline after she treaded in floody waters. Her child
Incorrect developed permanent yellow-gray-brown discoloration of the teeth and enamel
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 hyperplasia. What medication error category occurred?

a. Category D "

b. Category G

c. Category F

d. Category H

Category G:

An error occurred that may have contributed to or resulted in permanent

The correct answer is: Category G

Question 31
A 52-year-old male taking Coumadin® daily for prevention of stroke with atrial !brillation
Correct
develops a skin infection. The patient receives a diagnosis of cellulitis and a prescription for
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Bactrim®, to be taken twice daily. Several days later, the patient is admi$ed to the hospital
with an acute bleed and an elevated international normalized ratio (INR). What medication
error category occurred?

a. Category D

b. Category G

c. Category F !
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c. Category F !

d. Category H

A medication was prescribed (Cotrimoxazole) that was known to impair the CYP2C9
metabolism of warfarin and to substantially increase the warfarin plasma concentration
and the anticoagulant e"ect.

Category F
An error occurred that may have contributed to temporary harm to the patient and
required initial or prolonged hospitalization
The correct answer is: Category F

Question 32
Essential drugs are those deemed to satisfy the health care needs of the majority of the
Correct population. Criteria for the selection of essential drugs include:
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. proven safety and e"icacy

b. availability as a single compound

c. relevance to pa$ern of prevalent diseases

d. all of the above !

Criteria for selection of essential drugs

ü  Relevance to the pa$ern of prevalent diseases

ü  Proven safety and e"icacy

ü  Adequate scienti!c data and evidence of performance in a variety of se$ings
ü  Adequate quality
ü  Favorable cost-bene!t ratio

ü  Preference for drugs that are well-known, with good pkin properties and possibilities
for local manufacture

ü  Availability as a single compound

The correct answer is: all of the above

Question 33
A 54-year-old woman presented with signs and symptoms consistent with an early stage of
Correct rheumatoid arthritis. The decision was made to initiate NSAID therapy.Which of the
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 following patient characteristics is the most compelling reason for avoiding celecoxib in the
treatment of her arthritis?

a. History of alcohol abuse

b. History of gout

c. History of myocardial infarction !

d. History of peptic ulcer disease

History of myocardial infarction

Celecoxib is a COX-2-selective inhibitor. Although the COX-2 inhibitors have the

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Celecoxib is a COX-2-selective inhibitor. Although the COX-2 inhibitors have the

advantage over nonselective NSAIDs of reduced gastrointestinal toxicity, clinical data
suggest that they are more likely to cause arterial thrombotic events. A history of
myocardial infarction would be a compelling reason to avoid a COX-2 inhibitor. The
answer is C.

The correct answer is: History of myocardial infarction

Question 34
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What type of error is commi$ed in the sample prescription?

a. Erroneous !

b. Violative

c. Impossible

d. No error

Erroneous prescription:

ü  Brand name precedes the generic name

ü  Generic name is the one in parenthesis
ü  Brand name is not in parentheses
ü  Where more than one drug product is prescribed in one prescription form.

The correct answer is: Erroneous

Question 35
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

What should be done by the pharmacist when he/she encountered this type of prescription?
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What should be done by the pharmacist when he/she encountered this type of prescription?

I. Fill the prescription

II. Do not !ll the prescription
III. Keep prescription
IV. Inform buyer of generic options

a. II, III

b. I only

c. I, III, IV !

d. I, IV

Erroneous prescriptions shall be !lled. Such prescriptions shall also be kept and reported
by the pharmacist of the drug outlet or any other interested party to the nearest DOH
O"ice for appropriate action.
The correct answer is: I, III, IV

Question 36
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00

What is indicated in the transcription part of the prescription?

a. Biogesic 500 mg tab "

b. take 1 tab q4h or as needed

c. Rx

d. #12

Transcription: Direction to the patient

The correct answer is: take 1 tab q4h or as needed

Question 37
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

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Toxicity that may be caused by accidental overdose of the drug wri$en in the prescription is
likely to be:

a. Loss of hearing

b. Hypoprothrombinemia

c. Hepatic necrosis !

d. Optic neuropathy

Patients with liver damage should not take paracetamol. Metabolite of paracetamol
(NAPQI) is considered to be hepatotoxic
The correct answer is: Hepatic necrosis

Question 38
CMIV
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. 1004

b. 1106

c. 904 !

d. 504

M=1000
D=500

C=100
L=50
X=10
V=5

I=1
The correct answer is: 904

Question 39
½ tab Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 μg. hs prn for insomnia
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Take ½ tablet of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 nanograms after dinner for insomnia

b. Take 1/2 tablet of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 micrograms at bedtime as needed for !
insomnia

c. Take 1/2 capsule of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 micrograms at bedtime as needed for
insomnia

d. Take 1/2 tablet of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 micrograms every night at bedtime for
insomnia

The correct answer is: Take 1/2 tablet of Alprazolam (Xanor) 500 micrograms at bedtime
as needed for insomnia

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Question 40
Beta blocker overdose may lead to bradycardia. This type of adverse drug reaction can be
Incorrect classi!ed as:
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Type A

b. Type B

c. Type C

d. Type D "

Type A: Augmented
-Rationalizable from drug’s pharmacological reaction/MOA

a. Dose-dependent, predictable, common and reproducible

I.Toxicity = exaggerated e"ects of drug/extension e"ects
B-blockers = bradycardia

The correct answer is: Type A

Question 41
The following can cause hemolytic anemia, EXCEPT:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Methylene blue

b. Methyldopa

c. Naphthalene

d. Acetaminophen !

Aspirin, Methylene blue, naphthalene, and methyldopa may cause hemolytic anemia
The correct answer is: Acetaminophen

Question 42
Cushing’s syndrome caused by use of steroids is classi!ed under what type of adverse drug
Correct reaction?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. Type E

b. Type C !

c. Type A

d. Type B

Type C: long-term e"ect of cumulative dose of a drug

The correct answer is: Type C

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Question 43
It is the most non-toxic fat-soluble vitamin.
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Vit A

b. Vit D

c. Vit E !

d. Vit K

Vit A = most teratogenic and most toxic

Vit K = antidote to warfarin toxicity

The correct answer is: Vit E

Question 44
Pregnancy risk category characterized with no evidence of harm to animal studies but no
Correct adequate and well-controlled studies for in pregnant women?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. Category A

b. Category B !

c. Category C

d. Category D

Category A: Adequate and well-controlled studies have failed to demonstrate a risk to

the fetus in the !rst trimester of pregnancy (and there is no evidence of risk in later
trimesters).

Category B: no evidence of harm to animal studies but no adequate and well-controlled

studies for in pregnant women.

Category C: Animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse e"ect on the fetus and
there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in humans, but potential bene!ts may
warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.
Category D: There is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data
from investigational or marketing experience or studies in humans, but potential bene!ts
may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.
Category X: Studies in animals or humans have demonstrated fetal abnormalities and/or
there is positive evidence of human fetal risk based on adverse reaction data from
investigational or marketing experience, and the risks involved in use of the drug in
pregnant women clearly outweigh potential bene!ts.
The correct answer is: Category B

Question 45
Air exposure of epinephrine will result to:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Pink coloration

b. Rancidi!cation "

c. Precipitate formation

d. Resini!cation

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Upon oxidation,
Fats = randi!cation

Resin= resini!cation
Epinephrine = pinkish coloration
Vit C = brownsh coloration

The correct answer is: Pink coloration

Question 46
Immunologic reaction involving IgG and IgM is also known as:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Anaphylactic reaction

b. Cytotoxic reaction !

c. Immune complex mediated reaction

d. Cell-mediated reaction

Humoral:

ü  Anaphylactic : IgE-mediated
ü  Cytotoxic: IgG and IgM
ü  Immune-complex: IgG

Type IV: T-cells

The correct answer is: Cytotoxic reaction

Question 47
The following act as serotonin receptor agonists, EXCEPT:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Sumatriptan

b. Ondansetron

c. Ergotamine

d. Cisapride "

5HT1A Buspirone:
(Brain) -partial agonist, as anxiolytic

5HT1D “-triptans”
(Blood Agonist, used against migraines
vessels)

5HT2A Vasoconstriction of BV,

postpartum bleeding
(Blood
vessels “-ergot”
Uterus) Agonists:
ergotamine, ergonovine

Antagonist: Methysergide (vs.

migraine)

5HT3 “-setron”

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5HT3 “-setron”
Brain Antagonist, used for
(Vomiting chemotherapy-induced emesis
center)

5HT4 Tegaserod, Cisapride

(GI tract) Agonists, vs IBS

The correct answer is: Ondansetron

Question 48
Which of the following drug combinations demonstrate synergism?
Incorrect
I. Sulfadoxime + pyrimethamine
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
II. Levodopa + carbidopa

III. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim

IV. Alcohol + CNS depressant
V. Propranolol and Verapamil

a. I, IV, V

b. I, III, V "

c. I, III

d. I, II, III, IV, V

Synergism: Response greater than combined individual responses

I. Sulfadoxime + pyrimethamine : Synergism (Fansidar®)

II. Levodopa + carbidopa: Potentiation (another ex. Co-amoxiclav)
III. Sulfamethoxazole + Trimethoprim: Synergism (Bactrim®)

IV. Alcohol + CNS depressant: Addition

V. Propranolol and Verapamil: Addition (B blockers + non-DHP CCbs results to heart
block)

The correct answer is: I, III

Question 49
Ingestion of sodium hypochlorite in large amounts may lead in which of the following
Incorrect conditions?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. coagulative necrosis

b. Hairy tongue syndrome "

c. achlorhydria

d. liquefactive necrosis

Ingestion of basic substances causes liquefactive necresosis.

Acidic substances = coagulative necrosis
Hairy tongue syndrome = excessive ingestion of H2O2
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Hairy tongue syndrome = excessive ingestion of H2O2

Achlorhydria = absence of HCl in stomach

The correct answer is: liquefactive necrosis

Question 50
Which of the following is NOT a harmful/unwanted food-drug interaction?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Green leafy vegetables for patients on warfarin therapy as deep vein thrombosis
prophylaxis

b. Omeprazole beads in applesauce for patient with trouble swallowing capsules

secondary to GERD

c. Grapefruit juice and cyclosporine to prevent organ transplant rejection

d. Antiosteoporosis drug, alendronate, taken with food to minimize GI irritation "

Green leafy vegetables + warfarin = cancels out e"ect of warfarin/decrease

anticoagulant activity.
Grapefruit juice is a potent enzyme inhibitor. Increase plasma conc. of cyclosporine may
lead to toxic e"ects.
Antiosteoporosis drugs (bisphosphonates) should be taken 1 hr before breakfast. Food
intake with the drug may cause decrease BA.

The correct answer is: Omeprazole beads in applesauce for patient with trouble
swallowing capsules secondary to GERD

Question 51
The following drugs have label warnings against their use in pregnant women, except:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Ibuprofen

b. Aspirin

c. Fondaparinux !

d. Warfarin

Fondaparinux = synthetic LMWH and is preferred anticoagulant therapy for pregnant

women. The rest have adverse e"ects either to the mother or to the baby.
The correct answer is: Fondaparinux

Question 52
Which of the following is an example of irrational medicine use?
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. anabolic steroids for growth/appetite stimulation

b. Use of antibiotics for treatment of URTI in minors

c. All of the above !

d. None of the above

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Irrational Medicine Use examples

ü  No medicine needed: use of antibiotics in URTI of minors

ü  Wrong medicines: acute diarrhea treated with antibiotics/antidiarrhealsinstead of ORS
ü  Ine"ective medicines/ doubtful e"icacy: excessive & unnecessary use of multivitamin
preparations & tonics
ü  Unsafe medication: anabolic steroids for growth/appetite stimulation

ü  Underuse of available e"ective medicines: serious mental disorders do not receive any
treatment (Demy$enaere, 2004)

ü  Incorrect use: self medication, taking only as much as needed to feel be$er & saving
the rest for future use

The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 53
Active medical sta" responsible for taking care of patient and who has direct involvement
Correct with the sta" organizational and administrative duties.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. A$ending Medical Sta" !

b. Consulting Medical Sta"

c. Honorary Medical Sta"

d. Associate Medical Sta"

Consulting Medical Sta": w/ recognized professional ability, passed a specialty board

exam
Honorary Medical Sta": Former sta" members, retired or emeritus

Associate Medical Sta": Junior medical sta", being considered for promotion to active
medical sta"

The correct answer is: A$ending Medical Sta"

Question 54
The following are manifestations of opioids poisoning, EXCEPT:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Pinpoint pupils

b. Unconsciousness

c. Increased respiration !

d. None of the above

Due to their e"ect on the part of the brain which regulates breathing, opioids in high
doses can cause respiratory depression and death. An opioid overdose can be identi!ed
by a combination of three signs and symptoms referred to as the “opioid overdose triad”.
The symptoms of the triad are:

ü  pinpoint pupils
ü  unconsciousness
ü  respiratory depression

The correct answer is: Increased respiration

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The correct answer is: Increased respiration

Question 55
The following factors increase gastric emptying rate:
Incorrect
I. High-fat meal
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
II. Strenuous exercise
III. Metoclopramide

IV. Lying on the right side

V. Opioids

a. II, III "

b. III, IV

c. I, II, III

d. II,III, IV, V

Increase GER, Decrease GET

ü  Extremes of food temperature

ü  Mild exercise
ü  Lying on the right side
ü  Gastrectomy

ü  Cholinergics
ü  Prokinetic agents (Metoclopramide)
Decrease GER, Increase GET
ü  High protein and fat meal

ü  Strenuous exercise
ü  Lying on the left side
ü  Anticholinergics, opioids, antidiarrheal

The correct answer is: III, IV

Question 56
The following occurs at the therapeutic dose of the drug, EXCEPT:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Hypersensitivity reaction

b. Side e"ects

c. Idiosyncratic reactions "

d. Toxicity

The rest occurs at the therapeutic dose of the drug. Toxicity occurs upon
accumulation/excessive amount of drug in the body.
The correct answer is: Toxicity

Question 57
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Question 57
Type of prescription in which generic name precedes the brand name.
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Erroneous "

b. Violative

c. Impossible

d. No error

The correct answer is: No error

Question 58
Which of the following is an anticoagulant? I. Aspirin II. Clopidogrel III. Cilostazol IV. Warfarin
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. I, IV

b. I, II, IV

c. IV only !

d. All of the above

Anticoagulants target secondary hemostasis. Secondary hemostasis involves activation

of clo$ing factors in the coagulation cascade.

Direct thrombin (CF 2a) inhibitors

Hirudin and Lepirudin

Bivalirudin

Argatroban

Dabigatran

Indirect thrombin inhibitors

Oral Parenteral

Apixaban, Heparin
Rivaroxaban

Warfarin  

 
The rest are antiplatelets which targets primary hemostasis.

TXA2 synthesis Aspirin

inhibitor

ADP inhibitors 1.     Thienopyridines:

Ticlopidine, Clopidogrel
2.     Non-thienopyridine:

Ticagrelor
 

Phosphodiesterase Dipyridamole
inhibitors (Persantine®)
Cilostazol (Pletaal®)

Glycoprotein Efti!batide
IIb/IIIa inhibitors Abciximab
Tiro!ban

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Tiro!ban

The correct answer is: IV only

Question 59
The most appropriate or most advantageous delivery system in the hospital.
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Floor Stock "

b. Individual Prescription Order System

c. Unit Dose Drug Delivery System

d. Bulk Ward

UDDS: medication dose in single-unit packaging for not more than 24 hrs supply.
Advantages:
ü  Cheaper
ü  Decrease medication errors
ü  Nurse has more time for patient care
ü  Eliminate excessive paperwork

The correct answer is: Unit Dose Drug Delivery System

Question 60
Insulin that can be administered IV.
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Lente

b. Isophane

c. Regular Insulin !

d. Glargine

All other insulin should be administered subcutaneously.

The correct answer is: Regular Insulin

Question 61
Which is not an example of physical incompatibility?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Polymorphism

b. Optical Isomerism

c. Volatilization

d. Sorption "

Physical Incompatibility:
-Liquefaction/Melting, Insolubility, Polymorphism, Sorption, Volatilization, Water loss
Chemical Incompatibility:

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Chemical Incompatibility:
-RedOx, Photochemical degradation, Optical isomerism, hydrolysis, gelatinization,
cementation
The correct answer is: Optical Isomerism

Question 62
Advantages of floor stock system, except:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Less medication error !

b. Reduction of pharmacy personnel

c. Readily available drugs

d. Elimination of drug returns to central pharmacy

The rest are advantages of floor stock. Disadvantages include: increase in medication
errors, drug inventory, pilferage, hazards of drug deterioration, and added job to nurses.
The correct answer is: Less medication error

Question 63
A patient taking nonselective beta-blockers should not be used or should be cautiously
Correct used in patients with:
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. Asthma

b. Diabetes

c. Partial atrioventricular block

d. All of the above !

Asthma: beta blockers can cause bronchoconstriction

Diabetes: beta blockers mask symptoms of hypoglycemia

Partial atrioventricular block: beta blockers can lead to heart suppression, beta 1
receptors
The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 64
Principle behind the combination of Imipinem and Cilastatin (Primaxin®).
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Antagonism "

b. Potentiation

c. Synergism

d. Additive

Imipinem is degraded by the enzyme renal dehydropeptidase. Cilastatin prevents

premature degradation of imipinem by inhibiting the enzyme.

The correct answer is: Potentiation

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Question 65
Who among the following can write a prescription?
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Doctor

b. Veterinarian

c. Dentist

d. All of the above !

A doctor, veterinarian, and dentist are authorized to write and issue prescriptions.
The correct answer is: All of the above

Question 66
Which of the following statements are true regarding food and drug interaction;
Incorrect
I. As a general rule, interaction is minimized if drug is taken 1 hr before or 2 hrs after meal
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
II. Decreases gastric emptying rate

III. Reduce gastric irritation

IV. Itraconazole + fa$y meal results in increase drug absorption

a. I, II, III "

b. II, IV

c. III, IV

d. I, III, IV

As a general rule, this interaction is minimized if drug is taken 1 hour before or 2 hours
after a meal
Physiological e"ects of food

1. Reduce gastric irritation

-intervention for drugs that cause gastric irritation (NSAIDS)

2. Increase gastric emptying rate

-rate at which stomach would empty its contents

-In general, food and large volume of fluid improves the dissolution characteristics that
will stimulate GER and minimizes degradation and improved absorption

The correct answer is: I, III, IV

Question 67
Drug interaction that may occur supported with some good data but needs more study
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Probable

b. Suspected !

c. Possible

d. Established

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d. Established

Established Proven to occur in well-

controlled studies

Probable Very likely but not proven

clinically

Suspected May occur, some good date but

needs more study

Possible Could occur, data very limited

Unlikely Doubtful, no good evidence of

altered clinical e"ect

The correct answer is: Suspected

Question 68
The following is expected in a patient with diabetes insipidus:
Incorrect
I. High ADH
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
II. High speci!c gravity of urine

III. Low ADH

IV. Low speci!c gravity of urine

a. II, III "

b. I,IV

c. III, IV

d. I, II

Diabetes insipidus is a disease with de!ciency in ADH. ADH is responsible for H2O
reabsorption, ADH de!ciency causes increase amount of H2O in urine, thus, low speci!c
gravity. Diabetes mellitus, however, causes glucosuria, increasing the speci!c gravity of
urine.

The correct answer is: III, IV

Question 69
When dispensing Metronidazole, patients must be advised with the following:
Correct
I. Avoid alcoholic beverages consumption
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
II. Discoloration of urine while using the drug

III. Take only on an empty stomach

a. I only

b. I, II !

c. I, II, III

d. I, III

When dispensing Metronidazole, patients must be advised with the following:

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When dispensing Metronidazole, patients must be advised with the following:

I. avoid alcoholic beverages consumption

II. discoloration of urine while using the drug

III. Taken with food to decrease GI upset

The correct answer is: I, II

Question 70
Phase of drug development which assess safety in healthy human volunteers.
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Preclinical studies

b. Phase 1

c. Phase 2

d. Phase 3 "

Preclinical studies: animal studies

Phase 1: assess safety in healthy human volunteers

Phase 2: evaluate e"ectiveness of drugs in patients with disease and condition

Phase 3: large scale multicenter clinical studies (safety and e"icacy)

Phase 4: post marketing studies

The correct answer is: Phase 1

Question 71
Machine operators with allergy should be given:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Diphenhydramine "

b. Piperazine

c. Fexofenadine

d. Hydroxyzine

Fexofenadine belongs to the 2nd generation antihistamine: true non-sedating. The rest
are examples of 1st generation antihistamine.

The correct answer is: Fexofenadine

Question 72
A patient on heparin therapy may be monitored with?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Activated partial thromboplastin time

b. Prothrombin time "

c. Complete blood count

d. International normalized ratio

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Activated partial thromboplastin time

Heparin can be monitored with Activated partial thromboplastin time while warfarin can
be monitored by ge$ing the Prothrombin time.

The correct answer is: Activated partial thromboplastin time

Question 73
Warfarin, an anticoagulant, is bound to albumin when it is administered to the body. What
Incorrect will happen if phenylbutazone, an NSAID, was administered after?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Diminished e"ect of warfarin "

b. Diminished e"ect of phenylbutazone

c. Enhanced e"ect of warfarin

d. Enhanced e"ect of phenylbutazone

Enhanced e"ect of warfarin

Phenylbutazone displaces warfarin, increasing anticoagulant activity.

The correct answer is: Enhanced e"ect of warfarin

Question 74
Metformin, an oral hypoglycemic agent has a prominent side e"ect which could increase
Incorrect levels of what substance?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Insulin "

b. Uric acid

c. Hydrochloric acid

d. Lactic Acid

Metformin is a biguanide hypoglycemic which can also cause an increase in lactic acid.

The correct answer is: Lactic Acid

Question 75
Which of the following is not an invasive test or procedure?
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Ultrasonography !

b. Venipuncture

c. Endoscopy

d. Paracentesis

Ultrasonography is the use of ultrasound to produce an image or a photograph of an

organ.

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The correct answer is: Ultrasonography

Question 76
Paramater used for dose adjustment of renally impaired patients.
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Alanine transferase

b. Creatinine clearance

c. Alkaline phosphatase "

d. Lactate dehydrogenase

Creatinine clearance is an approximation of glomerular !ltration rate and is used for

dose adjustment of renally impaired patients.

The correct answer is: Creatinine clearance

Question 77
It is the primary initial intervention in the management of COPD
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Breathing regimen

b. Exercise

c. Smoking cessation !

d. Proper diet

COPD is a common lung disease which have two main forms: chronic bronchitis (long
term cough with mucus) and emphysema (involves damage to lungs over time).
Smoking is the biggest risk factor for COPD.

The correct answer is: Smoking cessation

Question 78
Miglitol and Acarbose are examples of:
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Antihypertensive agents

b. Antiplatelet agents

c. Antibacterial agents

d. Oral hypoglycemic agent !

Miglitol and acarbose are oral hypoglycemic agents which lowers glucose level by
inhibiting α-glucosidase. Side e"ect includes flatulence.

The correct answer is: Oral hypoglycemic agent

Question 79
Which of the following drugs will exist in its non-ionized form inside the stomach?
Correct
I. Asprin

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I. Asprin
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
II. Chlorpheniramine

III. Diclofenac

a. I, III !

b. I only

c. I, II, III

d. II only

Weak acids exist in their non-ionized form when placed in an acidic environment. Aspirin
and diclofenac are weak acids (In general, NSAIDs, except nabumetone, are weak acids).
Chlorpheniramine, a 1st generaltion alkylamine antihistamine, is a weak base used as a
nasal decongestant.

The correct answer is: I, III

Question 80
If a patient misses a dose of his maintenance drug, which of the following is the most
Correct appropriate thing to do?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. Double the dose at the next scheduled time

b. Stop taking the drug immediately then return to normal regimen after 3 days

c. Shift to another medication.

d. Continue with the normal drug regimen !

If a patient misses a dose of his maintenance drug, he/she should take the next dose at
the normal time and in the normal amount.
The correct answer is: Continue with the normal drug regimen

Question 81
Pregnancy kits are designed to detect which substance?
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Lutenizing hormone

b. Progesterone

c. Human choriogenic gonadotropin (hCG) !

d. Estrogen

Pregnancy kits are designed to detect Human choriogenic gonadotropin. hCG can be
detected in the urine or blood after implantation (6-12 days after fertilization).

The correct answer is: Human choriogenic gonadotropin (hCG)

Question 82
This drug increase serum level of penicillin and prolongs its activity by blocking penicillin’s
Correct
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This drug increase serum level of penicillin and prolongs its activity by blocking penicillin’s
Correct
tubular secretion.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00

a. Probenecid !

b. Indomethacin

c. Propranolol

d. Methyldopa

Probenecid inhibits tubular secretion of Penicillin, increasing its serum concentration and
prolonging its action.
 

The correct answer is: Probenecid

Question 83
Decreased urinary recycling results to increased elimination rate hence:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. increases drug’s half-life

b. longer duration of pharmacologic response "

c. shorter duration of pharmacologic response

d. decrease in drug clearance

Increased in elimination rate = increased drug clearance resulting to shorter duration of

action

The correct answer is: shorter duration of pharmacologic response

Question 84
It occurs when drugs are mixed in syringes or infusion fluids prior to administration.
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Pharmacodynamic interaction

b. Pharmaceutical interaction

c. Pharmacokinetic interaction

d. All of the above "

Pharmaceutical interactions a"ects physicochemical characteristic of the drug and

occurs outside the body.

The correct answer is: Pharmaceutical interaction

Question 85
Intake of ginseng with oral hypoglycemic agents may result to:
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Additive hypoglycemia

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Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Additive hypoglycemia

b. Hyperglycemia

c. Sedation

d. Hepatotoxicity "

Ginseng taken with oral hypoglycemic can result to additive hypoglycemia.

The correct answer is: Additive hypoglycemia

Question 86
Question 86
What kind of antagonism occurs between acetylcholine and epinephrine?
Incorrect

Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 a. Chemical antagonism

b. Functional antagonism

c. Competitive antagonism "

d. Irreversible antagonism

Functional antagonism 2 Agonist drugs that act independently of each other but has
opposite e"ects that cancels out each other’s e"ects.

The correct answer is: Functional antagonism

Question 87
Question 87
A patient develops “bu$erfly rash” and ws found to be caused by a drug-induced systemic
Correct lupus erythematosus. Which of the following drugs is not likely to cause the patient’s
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 condition?

a. Sulfonamide

b. Hydralazine

c. Isoniazid

d. Prilocaine !

Hydralazine, Isoniazid, Procainamide, and Sulfonamides can cause drug-induced

systemic lupus erythematosus.

The correct answer is: Prilocaine

Question 88
Question 88
37ºC to F
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. 118.2

b. 98.6 !

c. 245

d. 143

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9C = 5F – 160

The correct answer is: 98.6

Question 89
Question 89
The following precautions should be observed when handling antineoplastic agents,
Incorrect EXCEPT:
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. Use of Luer-lock syringe !$ings

b. Use of PPEs

c. Use of horizontal laminar flow hoods

d. None of the above "

Vertical laminar flow hoods should be used to protect the operator from the
antineoplastic agents.

The correct answer is: Use of horizontal laminar flow hoods

Question 90
Question 90
Which of the following drug inhibits binding of angiotensin to its receptor?
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. Hydrochlorothiazide

b. Triamterene

c. Abciximab

d. Telmisartan !

Hydrochlorothiazide: thiazide diuretic

Triamterene: K+ sparing diuretic

Abciximab: Antiplatelet(Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors)

The correct answer is: Telmisartan

Question 91
Question 91
15 fl. oz
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. 444 mL !

b. 430 mL

c. 144 mL

d. 225 mL

The correct answer is: 444 mL

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The correct answer is: 444 mL

Question 92
Question 92
How many drops should would be prescribed in each dose of a liquid medicine if 15 mL
Correct contained 60 doses? The dispensing dropper calibrates 32 drops/mL.
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. 9 drops

b. 7 drops

c. 8 drops !

d. 10 drops

The correct answer is: 8 drops

Question 93
Question 93
Calculate for the volume of diluent that should be mixed in a syringe with 1 mL of 1:1000
Incorrect (w/v) solution in order to obtain a 1:2500 (w/v) dilution?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. 2.5 mL "

b. 1.5 mL

c. 2 mL

d. 1.75 mL

The correct answer is: 1.5 mL

Question 94
Question 94
A patient is to receive 23 mg of NaCl per kg of body weight. If a person weighs 170 lbs, how
Correct many mL of NaCl (MW: 58.5) solution containing 0.5 mEq/mL should be administered?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. 15.19 mL

b. 60.67 mL !

c. 51.99 mL

d. 60.76 mL

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MODULE 3 ( Practice of Pharmacy ): Attempt review 10/13/22, 7:10 PM

The correct answer is: 60.67 mL

Question 95
Question 95
A patient presented himself in a clinic complaining of a cough that won’t go away. On his
Correct checkup, you have learned that he smokes 16 sticks of cigare$e for 15 years. What is the
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 patient’s pack year?

a. 12 pack years !

b. 20 pack years

c. 24 pack years

d. 15 pack years

The correct answer is: 12 pack years

Question 96
Question 96
A prescription calls for the dispensing of a 4% pilocarpine HCl solution with the signa, “1 g$
Incorrect o.u. tid”. How many mg of the drug is being used per day if the dropper is calibrated to
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 deliver 20 drops to the mL?

a. 0.012 mg

b. 12 mg

c. 0.3 mg

d. 80 mg "

The correct answer is: 12 mg

Question 97
Question 97
15 mL of 10% Calcium Gluconate injection and 10 mL of a multivitamin infusion are mixed
Incorrect with 500 mL of NSS. The infusion is to be administered over a period of 5 hours. If the infusion
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 set is calibrated at 15 drops per mL, at what rate in drops per minute should the flow rate be
adjusted in order to administer the infusion over the desired time interval?

a. 25 g$/min "

b. 26 g$/min

c. 0.12 g$/min

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MODULE 3 ( Practice of Pharmacy ): Attempt review 10/13/22, 7:10 PM

c. 0.12 g$/min

d. 7 g$/min

The correct answer is: 26 g$/min

Question 98
Question 98
How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000 w/v
Correct solution?
Mark 1.00 out of 1.00
a. 1125 mL

b. 1100 mL

c. 2000 mL

d. 1250 mL !

C1V1 = C2V2
The correct answer is: 1250 mL

Question 99
Question 99
How many proof gallons are contained in 3 wine gallons of a 50% v/v alcohol?
Correct

Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 a. 1.5 proof gallons

b. 3 proof gallons !

c. 6 proof gallons

d. 15 proof gallons

The correct answer is: 3 proof gallons

Question 100
Question 100
What is the !nal concentration of ethanol in a solution prepared by mixing 500 mL of 70%
Incorrect ethanol, 300 mL of 85% ethanol and 200 mL of 95% ethanol?
Mark 0.00 out of 1.00
a. 79.5 %

b. 80%

c. 83.33% "

d. 85%

The correct answer is: 79.5 %

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MODULE 3 ( Practice of Pharmacy ): Attempt review 10/13/22, 7:10 PM

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