PHYSICS

JEE-MAIN 2023

PHYSICS CHAPTERWISE QUESTION BANK

MAGNETIC EFFECT OF CURRENT AND MAGNETIC MATTERIAL
1. Two long straight wires P and Q carrying equal current 10 A each were kept parallel
to each other at 5 cm distance. Magnitude of magnetic force experienced by 10 cm
length of wire P is F1. If distance between wires is halved and currents on them are
doubled, force F2 on 10 cm length of wire P will be: [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 8 F1 (2) 10 F1 (3) F1/8 (4) F1/10
2. A circular loop of radius r is carrying current I A. The ratio of magnetic field at the
centre of circular loop and at a distance r from the center of the loop on its axis is:
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 1: 3 2 (2) 3 2 : 2 (3) 2 2 : 1 (4) 1: 2
3. A long solenoid is formed by winding 70 turns cm. If 2.0 A current flows, then the
magnetic field produced inside the solenoid is ______________

0 4 40 7 Tm A 1
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

(1) 1232 10 4 T (2) 176 10 4 T (3) 352 10 4 T (4) 88 10 4 T

4. A single turn current loop in the shape of a right angle triangle with sides 5 cm, 12
cm, 13 cm is carrying a current of 2A. The loop is in a uniform magnetic field of
magnitude 0.75 T whose direction is parallel to the current in the 13 cm side of the
x
loop. The magnitude of the magnetic force on the 5 cm side will be N. The value
130
of x is ___________. [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
5. For a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection in the coil is 0.05 rad when a current
of 10 mA is passed through it. If the torsional constant of suspension wire is 4.0 × 10–
5
Nm rad–1, the magnetic field is 0.01 T and the number of turns in the coil is 200,
2
the area of each turn (in cm ) is : [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 2.0 (2) 1.0 (3) 1.5 (4) 0.5
6. A solenoid of 1200 turns is wound uniformly in a single layer on a glass tube 2 m long
and 0.2 m in diameter. The magnetic intensity at the center of the solenoid when a
current of 2 A flows through it is: [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 2.4 103 A m 1
(2) 1.2 103 A m 1 (3) 1A m 1
(4) 2.4 10 3 A m 1
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-1

7. Math List I with List II
List – I List – II
(Current configuration) (Magnetic field at point O)
I. 0I
O
r B0 2
A 4 r
I I
I II. 0 I
B0
O 4 r
B I r

0I
B0 1
C O 2 r
r III.
I
O I
r 0
D IV. B0 1
I 4 r

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
8. Two long parallel wires carrying currents 8A and 15 A in opposite directions are
placed at a distance of 7 cm from each other. A point P is at equidistant from both
the wires such that the lines joining the point P to the wires are perpendicular to each
other. The magnitude of magnetic field at P is ____ × 10–6 T. (Given : 2 = 1.4)
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
9. A single current carrying loop of wire carrying current I flowing in anticlockwise
direction seen from +ve z direction and lying in xy plane in shown in figure. The plot
of ĵ component of magnetic field (By) at a distance ‘a’ (less than radius of the coil)
and on yz plane vs z coordinate look like
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
y

z
(0,0,0)

By (0, , z) By (0, , z)

z
(1) z (2)

By (0, , z) By (0, , z)

z z
(3) (4)

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-2

 2
10. A square loop of area 25 cm has a resistance of 10 . The loop is placed in uniform
agnetic field of magnitude 40.0 T. The plane of loop is perpendicular to the magnetic
field. The work done in pulling the loop out of the magnetic field slowly and uniformly
in 1.0 sec, will be [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
–3 –3 –4
(1) 2.5 × 10 J (2) 1.0 × 10 J (3) 1.0 × 10 J (4) 5 × 10–3 J
11. The magnetic moments associated with two closely wound circular coils A and B of
radius rA = 10 cm and rB = 20 cm respectively are equal if: (Where NA, IA and NB, IB
are number of turn and current of A and B respectively)
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 2NA IA = NB IB (2) NA = 2 NB (3) NA IA = 4NB IB (4) 4NA IA = NB IB
12. A massless square loop, of wire of resistance 10 . supporting a mass of I g. hangs
vertically with one of its sides in a uniform magnetic field of 103 G, directed outwards
in the shaded region. A dc voltage V is applied to the loop. For what value of V. the
magnetic force will exactly balance the weight of the supporting mass of 1g?
–2
(If sides of the loop = 10 cm, g = 10 m )
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

1
(1) V (2) 100 V (3) 1 V (4) 10 V
10
13. As shown in the figure, a current of 2A flowing in an equilateral triangle of side

4 3 cm. The magnetic field at the centroid O of the triangle is:

2A O 2A

2A

(Neglect the effect of earth’s magnetic field.)

[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

(1) 4 3 10 4 T (2) 4 3 10 5 T (3) 3 10 4 T (4) 3 3 10 4 T

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-3

14. A current carrying rectangular loop PQRS is made of uniform wire. The length PR =
QS = 5 cm and PQ = RS = 100 cm. If ammeter current reading changes from I to 2I,
the ratio of magnetic forces per unit length on the wire PQ due to wire RS in the two
cases respectively f 1PQ : f PQ
21
is :

[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

P Q
A
I

R S

(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 5 (4) 1 : 3

15. A bar magnet with a magnetic moment 5.0 Am2 is placed in parallel position relative
to a magnetic field of 0.4 T. The amount of required work done in turning the magnet
form parallel to antiparallel position relative to the field direction is ________.
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 4 J (2) 1 J (3) 2 J (4) Zero
16. A rod with circular cross-section area 2 cm2 and length 40 cm is wound uniformly with
400 turns of an insulated wire. If a current of 0.4 A flows in the wire windings, the
–6
total magnetic flux produced inside windings is 4 × 10 Wb. The relative
permeability of the rod is (Given: Permeability of vacuum 0 4 10 7 NA 2 )

[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

32 5
(1) 12.5 (2) (3) 125 (4)
5 16
17. A long conducting wire having a current I flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil
of N turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field is
calculated at the centre of coils in both the cases. The ratio of the magnetic field in
first case to that of second case is:
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
2 2 2 2
(1) N : n (2) n : N (3) N : n (4) n : N
18. The number of turns of the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is increased in order to
increase current sensitivity by 50%. The percentage change in voltage sensitivity of
the galvanometer will be:
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 100% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 0%

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-4

19. Find the magnetic field at the point P in figure. The curved portion is a semicircle
connected to two long straight wires. [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
i

P
r

0i 2 i
0 1 0i 1 1 i 1
0 1
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) (4)
2r 2r 2r 2 2 2r 2
20. A charge particle of 2 C accelerated by a potential difference of 100V enters a
region of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 4 mT at right angle to the direction of
field. The charge particle completes semicircle of radius 3 cm inside magnetic field.
–18
The mass of the charge particle is_____ × 10 kg. [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
21. As shown in the figure, a long straight conductor with semicircular arc of radius

m is carrying current I = 3A. The magnitude of the magnetic field. at the center O
10
of the arc is: (The permeability of the vacuum = 4 ×10–7 NA–2)
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]

O
I=3A I=3A
iop
(1) 6 T (2) 1 T (3) 4 T (4) 3 T
MODERN PHYSICS
22. From the photoelectric effect experiment, following observations are made. Identify
which of these are correct
A. The stopping potential depends only on the work function of the metal.
B. The saturation current increases as the intensity of incident light increases.
C. The maximum kinetic energy of a photo electron depends on the intensity of the
incident light.
D. Photoelectric effect can be explained using wave theory of light.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) B, C only (2) A, C, D only (3) B only (4) A, B, D only

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-5

23. Consider the following radioactive decay process
218
84 A A1 A2 A3 A4 A5 A6

The mass number and the atomic number A are given by: [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 210 and 82 (2) 210 and 84 (3) 210 and 80 (4) 211 and 80
24. Match List I with List II [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
LIST I LIST II
A. Planck’s constant (h) I. M1 L2 T 2

B. Stopping potential (Vs) II. M1 L1 T 1

C. Work Function ( ) III. M1 L2 T 1

D. Momentum (p) IV. M1 L2 T 3 A 1

(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
25. Assume that protons and neutrons have equal masses. Mass of a nucleon is
1.6 × 10–27 kg and radius of nucleus is 1.5 × 10–15 A1/3 m. The approximate ratio of
the nuclear density and water density is n × 1013. The value of n is _______ .
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
26. An – particle, a proton and an electron have the same kinetic energy. Which one of
the following is correct in case of their De-Broglie wavelength:
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) p e (2) p e (3) p e (4) p e

27. A photon is emitted in transition from n = 4 to n = 1 level in hydrogen atom. The

corresponding wavelength for this transition is (given, h = 4 × 10–15 eVs):
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 94.1 nm (2) 941 nm (3) 97.4 nm (4) 99.3 nm
240
28. The energy released per fission of nucleus of X is 200 MeV. The energy released
if all the atoms in 120g of pure 240
X undergo fission is _____ × 1025 MeV.
(Given NA = 6 × 1023) [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
29. Electron beam used in an electron microscope, when accelerated by a voltage of 20
kV. has a de-Broglie wavelength of o. If the voltage is increased to 40 kV. then the
de-Broglie wavelength associated with the electron beam would be:
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

0 0
(1) 3 0 (2) 9 0 (3) (4)
2 2

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-6

 16 4
30. The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus O and helium nucleus He is
8 2
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 4:1 (2) 8:1 (3) 1:1 (4) 2:1
31. The wavelength of the radiation emitted is 0 when an electron jumps from the
second excited state to the first excited state of hydrogen atom. If the electron jumps
from the third excited state to the second orbit of the hydrogen atom, the wavelength
20
of the radiation emitted will be 0 . The value of x is_____.
x
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
32. The energy levels of an atom is shown is figure. Which one of these transitions will
result in the emission of a photon of wavelength 124.1 nm?
Given (h = 6.62 × 10–34 Js) [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
A B D
1 0.0 eV
C
2 –2.2 eV

3 –5.2 eV

–10.0 eV
4

(1) B (2) A (3) C (D) D

33. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Stopping potential in photoelectric effect does not depend on the power
of the light source.
Statement II : For a given metal, the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectron
depends on the wavelength of the incident light.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below. Options : [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
34. A nucleus disintegrates into two smaller parts, which have their velocities in the ratio
1
x 3
3 : 2. The ratio of their nuclear sizes will be . The value of ‘x’ is :
3
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-7

35. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from a material is 5500 Ǻ.
Photoelectrons will be emitted, when this material is illuminated with monochromatic
radiation from a
A. 75 W infra-red lamp B. 10 W infra-red lamp
C. 75 W ultra-violet lamp D. 10 W ultra-violet lamp
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) B and C only (2) A and D only (3) C only (4) C and D only
36. If a radioactive element having half-life of 30 min is undergoing beta decay, the
fraction of radioactive element remains undecayed after 90 min. will be:
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
8 16 4 2
242
37. A radioactive element 92 X emits two – particles, one electron and two positrons.

234
The product nucleus is represented by Y. The value of P is____
P

[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

38. Substance A has atomic mass number 16 and half life of 1 day. Another substance B
1
has atomic mass number 32 and half life of day. If both A and B simultaneously
2
start undergo radio activity at the same time with initial mass 320 g each, how many
total atoms of A and B combined would be left after 2 days. [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 3.38 × 1024 (2) 6.76 × 1024 (3) 6.76 × 1023 (4) 1.69 × 1024
39. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of an -particle and a proton accelerated from
1
rest by the same potential is , the value of m is [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
m
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 8 (4) 2
40. A small object at rest, absorbs a light pulse of power 20 mW and duration 300 ns.
Assuming speed of light as 3 × 108 m/s. the momentum of the object becomes equal
to : [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
17 17
(1) 0.5 10 kg m / s (2) 2 10 kg m / s
17 17
(3) 3 10 kg m / s (4) 1 10 kg m / s

41. Speed of an electron in Bohr’s 7th orbit for Hydrogen atom is 3.6 × 106 m/s. The
corresponding speed of the electron in 3rd orbit, in m/s is: [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

(1) 1.8 106 (2) 7.5 106 (3) 3.6 106 (4) 8.4 106

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-8

42. A point source of light is placed at the centre of curvature of a hemispherical surface.
The source emits a power of 24 W The radius of curvature of hemisphere is 10 cm
and the inner surface is completely reflecting. The force on the hemisphere due to
–8
the light falling on it is _______ × 10 N. [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
43. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : The nuclear density of nuclides
10 N N N N N
5 B, 36 Li,56 20 209
26 Fe, 10 Neand 83 Bi can be arranged as Bi Fe Ne B Li .
1/3
Reason R : The radius R of nucleus is related to its mass number A as R = R0 A ,
where R0 is a constant.
In the light of the above statement, choose the
correct answer from the options given below :
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
44. An electron accelerated through a potential difference V1 has a de-Broglie
wavelength of .When the potential is changed to V2, its de-Broglie wavelength

V1
increases by 50%. The value of is equal to:
V2

[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

9 3
(1) 3 (2) (3) (4) 4
4 2
45. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different process. The half life of the first
process is 5 minutes and that of the second process is 30s. The effective half-life of

the nucleus is calculated to be s. The value of is _______.

11
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
46. A free neutron decays into a proton but a free proton does not decay into neutron.
This is because
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) neutron is an uncharged particle
(2) proton is a charged particle
(3) neutron is a composite particle made of a proton and an electron
(4) neutron has larger rest mass than proton

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-9

47. For hydrogen atom, 1 and 2 are the wavelengths corresponding to the transitions 1
x
and 2 respectively as shown in figure. The ratio of 1 and 2 is . The value of x is
32
______. [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
n=3
Excited states
n=2
2 1
2 Ground
n=1
state

48. If the two metals A and B are exposed to radiation of wavelength 350 nm. The work
functions of metals A and B are 4.8 eV and 2.2 eV. Then choose the correct option
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) Metal B will not emit photo-electrons
(2) Both metals A and B will emit photo-electrons
(3) Both metals A and B will not emit photo- electrons
(4) Metal A will not emit photo-electrons
49. The radius of electron's second stationary orbit in Bohr's atom is R. The radius of 3rd
orbit will be [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
R
(1) (2) 2.25R (3) 3R (4) 9R
3
50. If the binding energy of ground state electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, then,
the energy required to remove the electron from the second excited state of Li2+ will
–1
be: x × 10 . eV. The valueof x is _______. [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
51. A proton moving with one tenth of velocity of light has a certain de Broglie
wavelength of . An alpha particle having certain kinetic energy has the same de-
Brogle wavelength . The ratio of kinetic energy of proton and that of alpha particle
is: [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 4 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 4
52. The mass of proton, neutron and helium nucleus are respectively 1.0073 u, 1.0087 u
and 4.0015u. The binding energy of helium nucleus is:
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 14.2 MeV (2) 28.4 MeV (3) 56.8 MeV (4) 7.1 MeV
53. A light of energy 12.75 eV is incident on a hydrogen atom in its ground state. The
atom absorbs the radiation and reaches to one of its excited states. The angular
x 17
momentum of the atom in the excited state is 10 eVs. The value of x is

________ (use h = 4.14 × 10–15eVs, c = 3 ×108 ms–1). [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-10

54. An electron of a hydrogen like atom, having Z = 4, jumps from 4th energy state to 2nd
energy state, The energy released in this process, will be: (Given Rch = 13.6 eV)
Where R = Rydberg constant c = Speed of light in vacuum h = Planck's constant
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 10.5 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 40.8 eV
55. The threshold frequency of metal is f0. When the light of frequency 2f0 is incident on
the metal plate,the maximum velocity of photoelectron is 1. When the frequency of
incident radiation is increased to 5f0. the maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted
is 2. The ratio of 1 to 2 is: [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 2 8 2 16 2 4

56. Nucleus a having Z = 17 and equal number of protons and neutrons has 1.2 MeV
binding energy per nucleon. Another nucleus B of Z = 12 has total 26 nucleons and
1.8 MeV binding energy per nucleons. The difference of binding energy of B and A
will be ____MeV. [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
CAPACITOR
57. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plate has a capacitance of 15pF. The
separation between the plate becomes twice and the space between them is filled
x
with a medium of dielectric constant 3.5. Then the capacitance becomes pF. The
4
value of x is __________. [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
58. A parallel plate capacitor has plate area 40 cm2 and plates separation 2 mm. The
space between the plates is filled with a dielectric medium of a thickness 1 mm and
dielectric constant 5. The capacitance of the system is: [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
3 10
(1) 24 0F (2) 0 F (3) 0 F (4) 10 0F
10 3
59. A uniform electric field of 10 N/C is created between two parallel charged plates (as
shown in figure). An electron enters the field symmetrically between the plates with a
kinetic energy 0.5 eV. The length of each plate is 10 cm. The angle ( ) of deviation
of the path of electron as it comes out of the field is ___(in degree).

++++++++++++++

E
10 cm

[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-11

60. A capacitor has capacitance 5μF when it’s parallel plates are separated by air
medium of thickness d. A slab of material of dielectric constant 1.5 having area
d
equal to that of plates but thickness is inserted between the plates. Capacitance
2
of the capacitor in the presence of slab will be _____μF. [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
61. Two isolated metallic solid spheres of radii R and 2R are charged such that both
have same charge density . The spheres are then connected by a thin conducting
'
wire. If the new charge density of the bigger sphere is '.The ratio is:

[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

9 4 5 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 3 3 6
62. A capacitor of capacitance 900 µF is charged by a 100 V battery. The capacitor is
disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged identical
capacitor such that one plate of uncharged capacitor connected to positive plate and
another plate of uncharged capacitor connected to negative plate of the charged
capacitor. The loss of energy in this process is measured as x × 10–2 J. The value of
x is _____. [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
63. Two parallel plate capacitors C1 and C2 each having capacitance of 10 F are
individually charged by a 100 V D.C. source. Capacitor C1 is kept connected to the
source and a dielectric slab is inserted between it plates. Capacitor C2 is
disconnected from the source and then a dielectric slab is inserted in it. Afterwards
the capacitor C1 is also disconnected from the source and the two capacitors are
finally connected in parallel combination. The common potential of the
combination will be ________V. (Assuming Dielectric constant = 10)
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
64. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Two metallic spheres are charged to the same
potential. One of them is hollow and another is solid, and both have the same radii.
Solid sphere will have lower charge than the hollow one. Reason R : Capacitance of
metallic spheres depend on the radii of spheres. In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the options given below. [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-12

 GRAVITATION
65. The weight of a body at the surface of earth is 18 N. The weight of the body at an
altitude of 3200 km above the earth’s surface is (given, radius of earth R = 6400 km)
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 9.8 N (2) 4.9 N (3) 19.6 N (4) 8 N
66. If the distance of the earth from Sun is 1.5 × 106 km. Then the distance of an
imaginary planet from Sun, if its period of revolution is 2.83 years is:
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
7 6 6 7
(1) 6 × 10 km (2) 6 × 10 km (3) 3 × 10 km (4) 3 × 10 km
67. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Acceleration due to earth's gravity decreases as you go 'up' or 'down'
from earth's surface.
Statement II: Acceleration due to earth's gravity is same at a height 'h' and depth 'd'
from earth's surface, if h = d.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer form the
options given below [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Both Statement I and II are correct
68. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: A pendulum clock when taken to Mount Everest becomes fast.
Reason R: The value of g (acceleration due to gravity) is less at Mount Everest than
its value on the surface of earth.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) A is not correct but R is correct
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
69. T is the time period of simple pendulum on the earth's surface. Its time period
becomes x T when taken to a height R (equal to earth's radius) above the earth's
surface. Then, the value of x will be: [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
1 1
(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) (4)
2 4
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-13

70. Assume that the earth is a solid sphere of uniform density and a tunnel is dug along
its diameter throughout the earth. It is found that when a particle is released in this
tunnel, it executes a simple harmonic motion. The mass of the particle is 100 g. The
–2
time period of the motion of the particle will be (approximately) (take g = 10 ms ,
radius of earth = 6400 km) [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 24 hours (2) 1 hour 24 minutes
(3) 1 hour 40 minutes (4) 12 hours
71. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. Troposphere I. Approximate 65-75 km over Earth’s surface

B. E-Part of Stratosphere II. Approximate 300 km over Earth’s surface

C. F2-Part of Thermosphere III. Approximate 10 km over Earth’s surface

D. D-Part of Stratosphere IV. Approximate 100 km over Earth’s surface

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
72. A body of mass is taken from earth surface to the height h equal to twice the radius
of earth (Re), the increase in potential energy will be : (g = acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of Earth) [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
1 2 1
(1) 3mgRe (2) mgRe (3) mgRe (4) mgRe
3 3 2
73. Every planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit :
A. The force acting on a planet is inversely proportional to square of distance from
sun.
B. Force acting on planet is inversely proportional to product of the masses of the
planet and the sun
C. The centripetal force acting on the planet is directed away from the sun.
D. The square of time period of revolution of planet around sun is directly
proportional to cube of semi-major axis of elliptical orbit.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
Options: [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) A and D only (2) C and D only (3) B and C only (4) A and C only

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-14

74. Two particles of equal mass ‘m’ move in a circle of radius ‘r’ under the action of their
mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle will be:
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
GM 4 GM GM GM
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2r r r 4r
75. The time period of a satellite of earth is 24 hours. If the separation between the earth
and the satellite is decreased to one fourth of the previous value, then its new time
period will become. [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 4 hours (2) 6 hours (3) 12 hours (4) 3 hours
K
76. If the gravitational field in the space is given as . Taking the reference point to
r2
be at r = 2 cm with gravitational potential V = 10 J/kg. Find the gravitational potential
at r = 3 cm in SI unit (Given, that K = 6 J cm/kg) [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 9 (2) 11 (3) 12 (4) 10
77. An object is allowed to fall from a height R above the earth, where R is the radius of
earth. Its velocity when it strikes the earth’s surface, ignoring air resistance, will be :
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
gR
(1) 2 gR (2) gR (3) (4) 2gR
2
78. At a certain depth "d" below surface of earth. Value of acceleration due to gravity
becomes four times that of its value at a height 3R above earth surface. Where R is
Radius of earth (Take R = 6400 km). The depth d is equal to
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 5260 km (2) 640 km (3) 2560 km (4) 4800 km
79. A body weight W, is projected vertically upwards from earth's surface to reach a
height above the earth which is equal to nine times the radius of earth. The weight of
the body at that height will be: [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
W W W W
(1) (2) (3) (4)
91 100 9 3
80. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I: Acceleration due to gravity is different at different places on the surface
of earth.
Statement-II: Acceleration due to gravity increases as we go down below the earth's
surface.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-15

81. If earth has a mass nine times and radius twice to the of a planet P. Then

e 1
x ms will be the minimum velocity required by a rocket to pull out of
3
gravitational force of P, where e is escape velocity on earth. The value of x is
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 18 (4) 1
82. For a body projected at an angle with the horizontal from the ground, choose the
correct statement.
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) Gravitational potential energy is maximum at the highest point.
(2) The horizontal component of velocity is zero at highest point.
(3) The vertical component of momentum is maximum at the highest point.
(4) The kinetic energy (K.E.) is zero at the highest point of projectile motion.
83. The escape velocities of two planets A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2. If the ratio of their
radii respectively is 1 : 3, then the ratio of acceleration due to gravity of planet A to
the acceleration of gravity of planet B will be:
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
4 3 2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 3 4
ELASTICITY AND THERMAL EXPANSION
84. A 100 m long wire having cross-sectional area 6.25 × 10–4 m2 and Young’s modulus
is 1010 Nm–2 is subjected to a load of 250 N, then the elongation in the wire will be:
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 6.25 × 10–3 m (2) 4 × 10–4 m (3) 6.25 × 10–6 m (4) 4 × 10–3 m
85. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Steel is used in the construction of buildings and bridges.
Reason R: Steel is more elastic and its elastic limit is high.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-16

86. As shown in the figure, in an experiment to determine Young's modulus of a wire, the
extension-load curve is plotted. The curve is a straight line passing through the origin
and makes an angle of 45° with the load axis. The length of wire is 62.8 cm and its
diameter is 4 mm. The Young's modulus is found to be x ×104 Nm–2. The value of x
is _____. [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

Extension (m)
45°
Load (N)

87. The pressure (P) and temperature (T) relationship of an ideal gas obeys the equation
PT2 = constant. The volume expansion coefficient of the gas will be:
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
3 3 3
(1) 3 T 2 (2) (3) (4)
T2 T3 T
88. Choose the correct relationship between Poisson ratio ). bulk modulus (K) and
modulus of rigidity ( ) of a given solid object: [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
3K 2 6K 2 3K 2 6K 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6K 2 3K 2 6K 2 3K 2
89. A force is applied to a steel wire ‘A’, rigidly clamped at one end. As a result
elongation in the wire is 0.2 mm. If same force is applied to another steel wire ‘B’ of
double the length and a diameter 2.4 times that of the wire ‘A’, the elongation in the
wire ‘B’ will be (wires having uniform circular cross sections)[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 6.06 × 10–2 mm (2) 2.77 × 10–2 mm (3) 3.0 × 10–2 mm (4) 6.9 × 10–2 mm
90. A thin rod having a length of 1 m and area of cross-section 3 × 10–6 m2 is suspended
vertically from one end. The rod is cooled from 210°C to 160°C. After cooling, a mass
M is attached at the lower end of the rod such that the length of rod again becomes 1
m. Young's modulus and coefficient of linear expansion of the rod are 2 × 1011 N m–
2
and 2 × 15–5 K–1, respectively. The value of M is______ kg. (Take g = 10 m s–2)
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
11 –2
91. For a solid rod, the Young's modulus of elasticity is 3.2 × 10 Nm and density is 8
× 103. kg m–3. The velocity of longitudinal wave in the rod will be.
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 145.75 × 103 ms–1 (2) 3.65 × 103 ms–1
3 –1 3 –1
(3) 18.96 × 10 ms (4) 6.32 × 10 ms
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-17

 –5 2
92. Under the same load, wire A having length 5.0 m and cross section 2.5 × 10 m
stretches uniformly by the same amount as another wire B of length 6.0 m and a
cross section of 3.0 × 10–5 m2 stretches. The ratio of the Young's modulus of wire A
to that of wire B will be: [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 1 : 4 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 2
93. A certain pressure 'P' is applied to 1 litre of water and 2 litre of a liquid separately.
Water gets compressed to 0.01% whereas the liquid gets compressed to 0.03%. The
3
ratio of Bulk modulus of water to that of the liquid is . The value of x is _________.
x
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
94. The Young's modulus of a steel wire of length 6 m and cross-sectional area 3 mm2, is
2 × 1111 N/m2. The wire is suspended from its support on a given planet. A block of
mass 4 kg is attached to the free end of the wire. The acceleration due to gravity on
1
the planet is of its value on the earth. The elongation of wire is (Take g on the
4
earth = 10 m/s2): [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 1 cm (2) 1 mm (3) 0.1 mm (4) 0.1 cm
THERMODYNAMICS
95. 1g of a liquid is converted to vapour at 3 × 105 Pa pressure. If 10% of the heat
supplied is used for increasing the volume by 1600 cm3 during this phase change,
then the increase in internal energy in the process will be: [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
8
(1) 4320 J (2) 432000 J (3) 4800 J (4) 4.32 × 10 J
96. A hole is drilled in a metal sheet. At 27°C, the diameter of hole is 5 cm. When the
sheet is heated to 177°C, the change in the diameter of hole is d ×10–3 cm. The value
of d will be _______ if coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is 1.6 × 10–5/°C.
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
97. Given below are two statements :
Statements I : The temperature of a gas is – 73°C. When the gas is heated to 527°C,
the root mean square speed of the molecules is doubled.
Statement II : The product of pressure and volume of an ideal gas will be equal to
translational kinetic energy of the molecules.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-18

98. Let 1 be the ratio of molar specific heat at constant pressure and molar specific heat
at constant volume of a monoatomic gas and 2 be the similar ratio of diatomic gas.

1
Considering the diatomic gas molecule as a rigid rotator, the ratio, is
2

[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

27 35
(1) (2)
35 27
25 21
(3) (4)
21 25
99. In an Isothermal change, the change in pressure and volume of a gas can be
represented for three different temperature; T3 > T2 > T1 as:
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
T1
T2
T2 T1 T3
P P

T3
(1) (2)

V V

T3
T2 T3
T1 T1 T2
P P

(3) (4)

V V

100. A Carnot engine with efficiency 50% takes heat from a source at 600 K. In order to
increase the efficiency to 70%, keeping the temperature of sink same, the new
temperature of the source will be :
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 360 K (2) 1000 K (3) 900 K (4) 300 K
101. According to law of equipartition of energy the molar specific heat of a diatomic gas
at constant volume where the molecule has one additional vibrational mode is :-
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
9 5 3 7
(1) R (2) R (3) R (4) R
2 2 2 2

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-19

102. The graph between two temperature scales P and Q is shown in the figure. Between
upper fixed point and lower fixed point there are 150 equal divisions of scale P and
100 divisions on scale Q. The relationship for conversion between the two scales
is given by : [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

Temperature (°P) 180°

tp = 150°

tq = 100°
Temperature (°Q)

tQ tp 180 tQ tP 30
(1) (2)
150 100 100 150
t t Q 40 tP t Q 180
(3) P (4)
180 100 100 150
103. Match List I with List II :
List I List II
A. Isothermal Process I. Work done by the gas decreases
internal energy

B. Adiabatic Process II. No change in internal energy

C. Isochoric Process III. The heat absorbed goes partly to
increase internal energy and partly
to do work

D. Isobaric Process IV. No work is done on or by the gas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
104. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : If dQ and dW represent the heat supplied to the system and the work
done on the system respectively. Then according to the first law of thermodynamics
dQ = dU dW.
Reason R : First law of thermodynamics is based on law of conservation of energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given
below: [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) A is correct but R is not correct
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-20

105. Heat is given to an ideal gas in an isothermal process.
A. Internal energy of the gas will decrease.
B. Internal energy of the gas will increase.
C. Internal energy of the gas will not change.
D. The gas will do positive work.
E. The gas will do negative work.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) A and E only (2) B and D only (3) C and E only (4) C and D only
106. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Efficiency of a reversible heat engine will be highest at –273°C
temperature of cold reservoir.
Reason R : The efficiency of Carnot’s engine depends not only on temperature of
cold reservoir but it depends on the temperature of hot reservoir too and is given as

T2
1 .
T1

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below : [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) A is true but R is false
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
107. The pressure of a gas changes linearly with volume from A to B as shown in figure. If
no heat is supplied to or extracted from the gas then change in the internal energy of
the gas will be
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

50 B
P 40
(Kpa) 30
20
A
10

50 100 150 200

V(cc)

(1) 6 J (2) Zero (3) 4.5J (4) 4.5 J

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-21

 CP
108. The correct relation between and temperature T is: [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
CV
1 1
(1) (2) T (3) (4) T
T T
109. Heat energy of 735 J is given to a diatomic gas allowing the gas to expand at
constant pressure. Each gas molecule rotates around an internal axis but do not
oscillate. The increase in the internal energy of the gas will be:
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 525 J (2) 441 J (3) 572 J (4) 735 J
110. A hypothetical gas expands adiabatically such that its volume changes from 08 litres
16
to 27 litres. If the ratio of final pressure of the gas to initial pressure of the gas is .
81
CP
Then the ratio of will be [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
CV
4 3 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 1 2 2
111. A sample of gas at temperature T is adiabatically expanded to double its volume. The
3
work done by the gas in the process is given, : [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
2
T
(1) 2 : 1 (2) W 2 2
R
R
(3) W 2 2 (4) W RT 2 2
T
1
112. A Carnot engine operating between two reservoirs has efficiency . When the
3
1
temperature of cold reservoir raised by x, its efficiency decreases to . The value of
6
x, if the temperature of hot reservoir is 99° C, will be: [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 16.5 K (2) 33 K (3) 66 K (4) 62 K
113. For three low density gases A, B, C pressure versus temperature graphs are plotted
while keeping them at constant volume, as shown in the figure.
P(atm)
Gas A
Gas B
Gas C
Temperature (°C)
K 0°C

The temperature corresponding to the point 'K' is: [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) –273°C (2) –100°C (3) –373°C (4) –40°C

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-22

 COMMUNICATION
114. A modulating signal is a square wave, as shown in the figure.

If the carrier wave is given as c(t) = 2 sin (8 t) volts, the modulation index is :
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 1/4 (2) 1 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/2
115. A message signal of frequency 5 kHz is used to modulate a carrier signal of
frequency 2 MHz. The bandwidth for amplitude modulation is:
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 5 kHz (2) 20 kHz (3) 10 kHz (4) 2.5 kHz
116. Match List I with List II
LIST I LIST II
A. AM Broadcast I. 88-108 MHz
B. FM Broadcast II. 540 – 160 kHz
C. Television III. 3.7 – 4.2 GHz
D. Satellite Communication IV. 54MHz – 590MHz
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (4) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
117. If the height of transmitting and receiving antennas are 80 m each, the maximum line
6
of sight distance will be: Given : Earth’s radius = 6.4 × 10 m.
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 32 km (2) 28 km (3) 36 km (4) 64 km
118. The modulation index for an A.M. wave having maximum and minimum peak to peak
voltages of 14 mV and 6 mV respectively is:
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 1.4 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.6
119. Match List I with List II:
List I List II
A Attenuation I. Combination of a receiver and transmitter.
B Transducer II. Process of retrieval of information from the
carrier wave at received
C Demodulation III. Converts one form of energy into another
D Repeater IV Loss of strength of a signal while propagating
through a medium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-23

120. The amplitude of 15 sin (1000 t) is modulated by 10 sin (4 t) signal. The amplitude
modulated signal contains frequency(ies) of
(A) 500 Hz (B) 2 Hz (C) 250 Hz (D) 498 Hz (E) 502 Hz
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) A only (2) A, D and E only (3) B only (4) A and B only
121. Given below are two statements
Statement I: For transmitting a signal, size of antenna (l) should be comparable to

wavelength of Signal (at least I = in dimension).

4
Statement II: In amplitude modulation, amplitude of carrier wave remains constant
(unchanged).
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below. [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
122. Which of the following frequencies does not belong to FM broadcast.
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 106 MHz (2) 64 MHz (3) 99 MHz (4) 89 MHz
123. In an amplitude modulation, a modulating signal having amplitude of X V is
superimposed with a carrier signal of amplitude Y V in first case. Then, in second
case, the same modulating signal is superimposed with different carrier signal of
amplitude 2Y V. The ratio of modulation index in the two case respectively will be:
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 (4) 4 : 1
SEMICONDUCTOR
124. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A : Photodiodes are preferably operated in reverse bias condition for light
intensity measurement.
Reason R : The current in the forward bias is more than the current in the reverse
bias for a p – n junction diode.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) A is false but R is true
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-24

125. The logic gate equivalent to the given circuit diagram is:
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

+5V

A1
1 (Glow)
B1 Y

(1) OR (2) NAND (3) NOR (4) AND

126. Given below are two statements : one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Photodiodes are used in forward bias usually for measuring the light
intensity.
Reason R: For a p-n junction diode, at applied voltage V the current in the forward
bias is more than the current in the reverse bias for Vz V V0 where Vo is the

threshold voltage and Vz is the breakdown voltage.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation A
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation A
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) A is true but R is false
127. Statement I : When a Si sample is doped with Boron, it becomes P type and when
doped by Arsenic it becomes N-type semi conductor such that P-type has excess
holes and N-type has excess electrons.
Statement II : When such P-type and N-type semi-conductors, are fused to make a
junction, a current will automatically flow which can be detected with an externally
connected ammeter. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below. Options: [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(3) Both Statement I and statement II are correct
(4) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-25

128. Which of the following statement is not correct in the case of light emitting diodes?
A. It is a heavily doped p-n junction.
B. It emits light only when it is forward biased.
C. It emits light only when it is reverse biased.
D. The energy of the light emitted is equal to or
slightly less than the energy gap of the semiconductor used.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) C and D (2) A (3) C (4) B
129. For the given logic gates combination, the correct truth table will be
A

B
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
A B X A B X A B X A B X
0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0
0 1 0 0 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1
(1) 1 0 0 (2) 1 0 1 (3) 1 0 1 (4) 1 0 1
1 1
1 1 1 0 1 1
1 1 1 0 1 1
1 1 1 0 1
1 11 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
130. The output waveform of the given logical circuit for the following inputs A and B as
shown below, is:

Y
B

t1 t2 t3 t 4 t5 t6

Inputs [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t1 t 2 t3 t4 t5 t6
1
(1) (2) 1
0 0

t1 t 2 t3 t4 t5 t6 t1 t2 t3 t4 t5 t6
1 1
(3) (4)
0 0

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-26

131. The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is given by
A

Input Y = Output

B
Truth table of the shown circuit is : [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
A B Y A B Y A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
(1) 0 1 1 (2) 0 1 0 (3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 0 1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0
1 1 1 1
132. The effect of increase in temperature on the number of electrons in conduction band
(ne) and resistance of a semiconductor will be as: [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) Both ne and resistance decrease (2) Both ne and resistance increase
(3) ne increases, resistance decreases (4) ne decreases, resistance increases
133. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In a typical transistor, all three regions emitter, base and collector have
same doping level.
Statement II: In a transistor, collector is the thickest and base is the thinnest
segment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
134. Match the List I with List II
List I List II
A. Intrinsic Semiconductor I. Fermi-level near
conduction band
B. n-type semiconductor II. Fermi-level at middle
C. p-type semiconductor III. Fermi-level near valence
band
D. Metals IV. Fermi-level inside
conduction band
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) (A) I, (B) II, (C) III, (D) IV (2) (A) II, (B) I, (C) III, (D) IV
(3) (A) II, (B) III, (C) I, (D) IV (4) (A) III, (B) I, (C) II, (D) IV
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-27

135. Choose the correct statement about Zener diode: [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) It works as a voltage regulator in reverse bias and behaves like simple pn junction
diode in forward bias.
(2) It works as a voltage regulator in both forward and reverse bias.
(3) It works a voltage regulator only in forward bias.
(4) It works as a voltage regulator in forward bias and behaves like simple pn junction
diode in reverse bias.
WAVE AND SOUND WAVES
136. A travelling wave is described by the equation y(x, t) = [0.05 sin (8x – 4t] m
The velocity of the wave is : [all the quantities are in SI unit][24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 4 ms–1 (2) 2 ms1 (3) 0.5 ms–1 (4) 8 ms–1
137. A train blowing a whistle of frequency 320 Hz approaches an observer standing on
the platform at a speed of 66 m/s. The frequency observed by the observer will be
(given speed of sound = 330 ms–1) _______ Hz. [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
138. A person observes two moving trains, ‘A’ reaching the station and ‘B’ leaving the
station with equal speed of 30 m/s. If both trains emit sounds with frequency 300 Hz,
(Speed of sound : 330 m/s) approximate difference of frequencies heard by the
person will be: [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 33 Hz (2) 55 Hz (3) 80 Hz (4) 10 Hz
139. The displacement equations of two interfering waves are given by

y1 10 sin t cm, y2 5 sin t 3 cos t cm respectively. The amplitude of

3
the resultant wave is _______cm.
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
–3 –1
140. A steel wire with mass per unit length 7.0 × 10 kg m is under tension of 70 N. The
speed of transverse waves in the wire will be:
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 200 m/s (2) 100 m/s (3) 10 m/s (4) 50 m/s
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
141. As shown in the figure, a network of resistors is connected to a battery of 24 V with
an internal resistance of 3 . The currents through the resistors R4 and R5 are I4 and
I5 respectively. The values of I4 and I5 are: [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
R1 = 2 R4 = 2
R3 = 2 R6 = 2

R2 = 2 R5 = 2

–
+
(24V,3 )
8 2 24 6
I4 A andI5 A
(1) 5 5 (2) I4 A andI5 A
5 5
6 24 2 8
(3) I4 A andI5 A (4) I4 A andI5 A
5 5 5 5
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-28

142. With the help of potentiometer, we can determine the value of emf of a given cell.
The sensitivity of the potentiometer is [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(A) directly proportional to the length of the potentiometer wire
(B) directly proportional to the potential gradient of the wire
(C) inversely proportional to the potential gradient of the wire
(D) inversely proportional to the length of the potentiometer wire
Choose the correct option for the above statements:
(1) B and D only (2) A and C only (3) A only (4) C only
143. In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of the quality factor and the band width is
______ s. [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
10

230 V
S

27 F

3.0H

144. A hollow cylindrical conductor has length of 3.14 m, while its inner and outer
diameters are 4 mm and 8 mm respectively. The resistance of the conductor is n ×
–3 –8
10 . If the resistivity of the material is 2.4 × 10 m. The value of n is ______ .
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
145. A cell of emf 90 V is connected across series combination of two resistors each of
100 resistance. A voltmeter of resistance 400 is used to measure the potential
difference across each resistor. The reading of the voltmeter will be:
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 40 V (2) 45 V (3) 80 V (4) 90 V
146. If a copper wire is stretched to increase its length by 20°%. The percentage increase
in resistance of the wire is __________ %. [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
147. A uniform metallic wire carries a current 2 A. when 3.4 V battery is connected across
it. The mass of uniform metallic wire is 8.92 × 10–3 kg. density is 8.92 ×103 kg/m3 and
resistivity is 1.7 × 10–8 – m. The length of wire is:
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) l = 6.8 m (2) l = 10 m (3) l = 5 m (4) l = 100 m
148. In the given circuit, the equivalent resistance between the terminal A and B
is_____ . [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
3 2 4
A

2 2

B
6 4

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-29

149. The resistance of a wire is 5 . It’s new resistance in ohm if stretched to 5 times of
it’s original length will be: [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 625 (2) 5 (3) 125 (4) 25
150. Two cells are connected between points A and B as shown. Cell 1 has emf of 12 V
and internal resistance of 3 . Cell 2 has emf of 6V and internal resistance of 6 . An
external resistor R of 4 is connected across A and B. The current flowing through R
will be ______ A. [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

4
12 V Cell 1

A B
6V 6 Cell 2

151. Ratio of thermal energy released in two resistor R and 3R connected in parallel in an
electric circuit is: [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 27
152. In a metre bridge experiment the balance point is obtained if the gaps are closed by
2 and ms 3 . A shunt of X is added to 3 resistor to shift the balancing point
by 22.5 cm. The value of X is ____ [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
153. When two resistance R1 and R2 connected in series and introduced into the left gap
of a meter bridge and a resistance of 10 is introduced into the right gap, a null
point is found at 60 cm from left side. When R1 and R2 are connected in parallel and
introduced into the left gap, a resistance of 3 is introduced into the right-gap to get
2
null point at 40 cm from left end. The product of R1 R2 is _____
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
154. A null point is found at 200 cm in potentiometer when cell in secondary circuit is
shunted by 5 . When a resistance of 15 is used for shunting null point moves to
300 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is ______ .
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
155. The charge flowing in a conductor changes with time as Q t t t2 t3 . Where

, and are constants. Minimum value of current is:

[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
2 2 2 2
3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-30

156. In the following circuit, the magnitude of current I1, is _____ A.
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
2 I3

I1
1
I2
2V
1 5V
1
I1
2

157. The equivalent resistance between A and B is …… [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

2 1 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 2 2 3
1
158. If the potential difference between B and D is zero, the value of x is . The value of
n
n is …….. [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

3 1

1
x

159. The drift velocity of electrons for a conductor connected in an electrical circuit is Vd.
The conductor in now replaced by another conductor with same material and same
length but double the area of cross section. The applied voltage remains same. The
new drift velocity of electrons will be [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
Vd Vd
(1) Vd (2) (3) (4) 2Vd
2 4

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-31

160. Two identical cells, when connected either in parallel or in series gives same current
in an external resistance 5 . The internal resistance of each cell will be ________
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
161. The H amount of thermal energy is developed by a resistor in 10 s when a current of
4A is passed through it. If the current is increased to 16A, the thermal energy
developed by the resistor in 10 s will be:
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
H
(1) H (2) 16H (3) (4) 4H
4
162. For the given circuit, in the steady state, VB VD ________V.

[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

163. The equivalent resistance between A and B of the network shown in figure:
R

3R
A B
2R 9R

6R

[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]

2R 8
(1) 11 (2) 14R (3) 21 R (4) R
3 3
164. In an experiment to find emf of a cell using potentiometer, the length of null point for
a cell of emf 1.5 V is found to be 60 cm. If this cell is replaced by another cell of emf
x
E. the length-of null point increases by 40 cm. The value of E is V. The value of x
10
is __________.
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-32

165. Equivalent resistance between the adjacent corners of a regular n-sided polygon of
uniform wire of resistance R would be: [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
n 1R n 1R n2 R n 1R
(1) 2
(2) (3) (4)
n 2n 1 n 1 n
166. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : For measuring the potential difference across a
resistance of 600 , the voltmeter with resistance 1000 will be preferred over
voltmeter with resistance 4000 .
Reason R : Voltmeter with higher resistance will draw smaller current than voltmeter
with lower resistance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below. [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) A is not correct but R is correct
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(4) A is correct but R is not correct
I1 I3
167. In the given circuit the value of is : [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
I2

WAVES OPTICS
168. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : If the Brewster’s angle for the light
propagating from air to glass is B, then Brewster’s angle for the light propagating

from glass to air is B .

2
Statement II : The Brewster’s angle for the light
propagating from glass to air is tan–1 ( g) where g is the refractive index of glass.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below : [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) Both Statements I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-33

169. In Young's double slits experiment, the position of 5th bright fringe from the central
maximum is 5 cm. The distance between slits and screen is 1 m and wavelength of
used monochromatic light is 600 nm. The separation between the slits is:
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 60 m (2) 48 m (3) 12 m (4) 36 m
170. The distance between two consecutive points with phase difference of 60° in a wave
of frequency 500 Hz is 6.0 m. The velocity with which wave is traveling is______
km/s [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
171. As shown in figures, three identical polaroids P1, P2 and P3 are placed one after
another. The pass axis of P2 and P3 and are inclined at angle of 60º and 90º with
W
respect to axis of P1. The Sorce S has an intensity of 256 . The intensity of light
m2
W
at point O is --------- . [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
m2
z
60°
90°
S O
y

P1 P2 P3 x

172. In a Young’s double slit experiment, two slits are illuminated with a light of
wavelength 800 nm. The line joining A1P is perpendicular to A1A2 as shown in the
figure. If the first minimum is detected at P, the value of slits separation ‘a’ will be:

The distance of screen from slits D = 5 cm [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

(1) 0.4 mm (2) 0.5 mm (3) 0.2 mm (4) 0.1 mm
173. In Young’s double slit experiment, two slits S1 and S2 are ‘d’ distance apart and the
separation from slits to screen is D (as shown in figure). Now if two transparent slabs
of equal thickness 0.1 mm but refractive index 1.51 and 1.55 are introduced in the
path of beam ( = 4000Å) from S1 and S2 respectively. The central bright fringe spot
will shift by ________ number of fringes. [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
P
S1

d Screen

S2 D

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-34

174. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensities at two points, for the path

difference and ( being the wavelength of light used) are I1 and I2 respectively.
4 3
If I denotes the intensity produced by each one of the individual slits, then
I1 I2
......... [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
I0

175. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as

Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The beam of electrons shows wave
nature and exhibit interference and diffraction.
Reason R : Davisson Germer Experimentally verified the wave nature of electrons.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) A is correct but R is not correct
(2) A is not correct but R is correct
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
176. Two polaroide A and B are placed in such a way that the pass-axis of polaroids are
perpendicular to each other. Now, another polaroid C is placed between A and B
bisecting angle between them. If intensity of unpolarised light is I0 then intensity of
transmitted light after passing through polaroid B will be:
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
I0 I0 I0
(1) (2) (3) (4) Zero
4 2 8
177. Two light waves of wavelengths 800 and 600 nm are used in Young's double slit
experiment to obtain interference fringes on a screen placed 7 m away from plane of
slits. If the two slits are separated by 0.35 mm, then shortest distance from the
central bright maximum to the point where the bright fringes of the two wavelength
coincide will be __________mm.
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
178. ‘n’ polarizing sheets are arranged such that each makes an angle 45° with the
proceeding sheet. An unpolarized light of intensity I is incident into this arrangement.
I
The output intensity is found to be . The value of n will be:
64
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-35

179. As shown in the figure, in Young's double slit experiment, a thin plate of thickness t =
10 m and refractive index is inserted infront of slit S1. The experiment is
conducted in air ( = 1) and uses a monochromatic light of wavelength = 500 nm.
Due to the insertion of the plate, central maxima is shifted by a distance of x 0. 0 is
the fringe-width before the insertion of the plate. The value of the x is_____.
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]

KINEMATICS
180. The maximum vertical height to which a man can throw a ball is 136 m. The
maximum horizontal distance upto which he can throw the same ball is
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 192 m (2) 136 m (3) 272 m (4) 68 m
181. The velocity time graph of a body moving in a straight line is shown in figure.
8
6
4
–1
v(ms ) 0 2 4 6 8 10
–2
–4
–6 time(s)
The ratio of displacement to distance travelled by the body in time 0 to 10s is
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 1:1 (2) 1:4 (3) 1:2 (4) 1:3
182. A car travels a distance of 'x' with speed V1 and then same distance 'x' with speed V2
in the same direction. The average speed of the car is: [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
v1 v 2 v1 v 2 2x 2 v1 v 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 v1 v 2 2 v1 v 2 v1 v2
183. The distance travelled by a particle is related to time t as x = 4t2. The velocity of the
particle at t = 5s is.
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 40 ms–1 (2) 25 ms–1 (3) 20 ms–1 (4) 8 ms–1
184. Two objects are projected with same velocity ‘u’ however at different angles and
with the horizontal. If + = 90°, the ratio of horizontal range of the first object to
the 2nd object will be:
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 1
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-36

185. A tennis ball is dropped on to the floor from a height of 9.8 m. It rebounds to a height
5.0 m. Ball comes in contact with the floor for 0.2s. The average acceleration during
2 –2
contact is ____ ms . [Given g = 10 ms ] [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
186. Match Column-I with Column-II:
Column-I Column-II
(x-t graphs) (v-t graphs)

A. x I. v

t t

B. x x0 II. v
0
t t

C. III. v
x t
–v

D. x IV. v
t
–v v0
t 0
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) A- II B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A- I. B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A- II B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A- I, B-III. C-IV, D-II
187. A horse rider covers half the distance with 5 m/s speed. The remaining part of the
distance was travelled with speed 10 m/s for half the time and with speed 15 m/s for
other half of the time. The mean speed of the rider averaged over the whole time of
motion is x/7 m/s. The value of x is [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
188. A vehicle travels 4 km with speed of 3 km/h and another 4 km with speed of 5 km/h,
then its average speed is: [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 4.25 km/h (2) 3.50 km/h (3) 4.00 km/h (4) 3.75 km/h
189. The initial speed of a projectile fired from ground is u. At the highest point during its
3
motion, the speed of projectile is u. The time of flight of the projectile is:
2
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
u u 2u 3u
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2g g g g

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-37

 –1
190. The speed of a swimmer is 4 km h in still water. If the swimmer makes his strokes
normal to the flow of river of width 1 km, he reaches a point 750 m down the stream
on the opposite bank. The speed of the river water is _______km h–1.
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
191. Two bodies are projected from ground with same speeds 40 ms–1 at two different
angles with respect to horizontal. The bodies were found to have same range. If one
of the body was projected at an angle of 60°, with horizontal then sum of the
maximum heights, attained by the two projectiles, is _______m. (Given g = 10 ms–2)
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
192. An object moves with speed 1, 2, and 3 along a line segment AB, BC and CD
respectively as shown in figure. Where AB = BC and AD = 3 AB, then average speed
of the object will be : [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]

A B C D

1 2 3 1 2 3
(1) (2)
3 3 1 2 2 3 3 1

3 1 2 3 1 2 3
(3) (4)
1 2 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 3

193. A child stands on the edge of the cliff 10 m above the ground and throws a stone
horizontally with an initial speed of 5 ms–1. Neglecting the air resistance, the speed
with which the stone hits the ground will be _____ ms–1.(given, g = 10 ms–2).
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 20 (2) 15 (3) 30 (4) 25
194. For a train engine moving with speed of 20 ms–1. the driver must apply brakes at a
distance of 500 m before the station for the train to come to rest at the station. If the
brakes were applied at half of this distance, the train engine would cross the station
with speed x ms 1. The value of x is ______ (Assuming same retardation is
produced by brakes) [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
10
195. A conducting loop of radius cm is placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic

field of 0.5T. The magnetic field is decreased to zero in 0.5 s at a steady rate. The
induced emf in the circular loop at 0.25 s is: [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) emf = 1 mV (2) emf = 10 mV (3) emf = 100 mV (4) emf = 5 mV
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-38

196. A metallic rod of length 'L' is rotated with an angular speed of ‘ ’ normal to a uniform
magnetic field 'B' about an axis passing through one end of rod as shown in figure.
The induced emf will be: [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
(1) BL (2) BL (3) BL (4) BL
4 4 2 2
197. Three identical resistors with resistance R = 12 and two identical inductors with self
inductance L = 5 mH are connected to an ideal battery with emf of 12 V as shown in
figure. The current through the battery long after the switch has been closed will
be________ A. [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
L R

R L

()
12 V K

198. A certain elastic conducting material is stretched into a circular loop. It is placed with
its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B = 0.8 T. When released the
radius of the loop starts shrinking at a constant rate of 2 cm–1. The induced emf in
the loop at an instant when the radius of the loop is 10 cm will be ____ mV.
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
199. A wire of length 1 m moving with velocity 8 m/s at right angles to a magnetic field of
2T. The magnitude of induced emf, between the ends of wire will be _______ :
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 20 V (2) 8 V (3) 12 V (4) 16 V
200. The magnitude of magnetic induction at mid-point O due to current arrangement as shown in
Fig will be: [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

I
0 I0 0I
(1) (2) 0 (3) (4)
2 a 4 a a
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-39

201. Find the mutual inductance in the arrangement, when a small circular loop of wire of
radius ‘R’ is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L (L >> R). The loops
are coplanar and their centres coincide : [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

2 0R2 2 2 0R 2 2 0R2 2 0R
(1) M (2) M (3) M (4) M
L L L L2
202. The electric current in a circular coil of four turns produces a magnetic induction 32 T
at its centre. The coil is unwound and is rewound into a circular coil of single turn, the
magnetic induction at the centre of the coil by the same current will be:
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 8T (2) 4T (3) 2T (4) 16T
16
203. If a source of electromagnetic radiation having power 15 kW produces 10 photons
per second, the radiation belongs to a part of spectrum is. (Take Planck constant
34
h = 6 × 10– Js) [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) Micro waves (2) Ultraviolet rays (3) Gamma rays (4) Radio waves
204. A coil is placed in magnetic field such that plane of coil is perpendicular to the
direction of magnetic field. The magnetic flux through a coil can be changed:
A. By changing the magnitude of the magnetic field within the coil.
B. By changing the area of coil within the magnetic field.
C. By changing the angle between the direction of magnetic field and the plane of the
coil. [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
D. By reversing the magnetic field direction abruptly without changing its magnitude.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only (2) A, B and C only
(3) A, B and D only (4) A and C only
2
205. A square shaped coil of area 70 cm having 600 turns rotates in a magnetic field of
0.4 wbm–2, about an axis which is parallel to one of the side of the coil and
perpendicular to the direction of field. If the coil completes 500 revolution in a minute,
the instantaneous emf when the plane of the coil is inclined at 60° with the field, will
22
be ____ V. Take [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
7

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-40

 WORK POWER ENERGY
206. A spherical body of mass 2 kg starting from rest acquires a kinetic energy of 10000 J
at the end of 5th second. The force acted on the body is ____ N.
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
207. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force

F tiˆ 3t 2 ˆj N. where ˆi and ˆj are the unit vectors along x and y axis. The power

developed by above force, at the time t = 2s. will be _______W.

[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
208. An object of mass 'm' initially at rest on a smooth horizontal plane starts moving
under the action of force F = 2N. In the process of its linear motion, the angle (as
shown in figure) between the direction of force and horizontal varies as = kx,
where k is a constant and x is the distance covered by the object from its initial
n
position. The expression of kinetic energy of the object will be E sin . The value
k
of n is___.
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

Smooth horizontal surface

209. A body of mass 1 kg collides head on elastically with a stationary body of mass 3 kg.
After collision, the smaller body reverses its direction of motion and moves with a
speed of 2m/s. The initial speed of the smaller body before collision is _______ ms–1.
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
210. A stone is projected at angle 30º to the horizontal. The ratio of kinetic energy of the
stone at point of projection to its kinetic energy at the highest point of flight will be :
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 4 : 3
211. A 0.4 kg mass takes 8s to reach ground when dropped from a certain height ‘P’
above surface of earth. The loss of potential energy in the last second of fall is ____
J. [Take g = 10 m/s2]
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-41

212. Identify the correct statements from the following:
(A) Work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the
bucket is negative.
(B) Work done by gravitational force in lifting a bucket out of a well by a rope tied to
the bucket is negative.
(C) Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane is positive.
(D) Work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane
with uniform velocity in zero.
(E) Work done by the air resistance on an oscillating pendulum in negative.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) B and E only (2) A and C only (3) B, D and E only (4) B and D only
213. As per the given figure, a small ball P slides down the quadrant of a circle and hits
the other ball Q of equal mass which is initially at rest. Neglecting the effect of friction
and assume the collision to be elastic, the velocity of ball Q after collision will be:
(g = 10 m/s2)
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

P
20 cm

Q v=?

(1) 0 (2) 0.25 m/s (3) 2 m/s (4) 4 m/s

214. The figure represents the momentum time (p-t) curve for a particle moving along an
axis under the influence of the force. Identify the regions on the graph where the
magnitude of the force is maximum and minimum respectively ? If (t3 – t2) < t1.

b
a

t3 t
t1 t2

[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

(1) c and a (2) b and c (3) c and b (4) a and b

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-42

215. A body of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. It starts moving unidirectionally under the
1 2
influence of a source of constant power P. Its displacement in 4s is P m. The
3
value of will be …… [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
216. Spherical insulating ball and a spherical metallic ball of same size and mass are
dropped from the same height. Choose the correct statement out of the following
{Assume negligible air friction} [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) Time taken by them to reach the earth's surface will be independent of the
properties of their materials
(2) Insulating ball will reach the earth's surface earlier than the metal ball
(3) Both will reach the earth's surface simultaneously
(4) Metal ball will reach the earth's surface earlier than the insulating ball.
217. 100 balls each of mass m moving with speed v simultaneously strike a wall normally
and reflected back with same speed, in time t s. The total force exerted by the balls
on the wall is [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
100mv 200mv mv
(1) (2) (3) 200 mvt (4)
t t 100 t
–1
218. A lift of mass M = 500 kg is descending with speed of 2 ms . Its supporting cable
–2
begins to slip thus allowing it to fall with a constant acceleration of 2 ms . The kinetic
energy of the lift at the end of fall through to a distance of 6 m will be ____kJ.
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
219. A ball is dropped from a height of 20 m. If the coefficient of restitution for the collision
between ball and floor is 0.5, after hitting the floor, the ball rebounds to a height
of_________m. `
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
220. A force F = (5 + 3y2) acts on a particle in the y - direction, where F is newton and y is
in meter. The work done by the force during a displacement from y = 2 m to y = 5 m
is ______ j.
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION
221. A block of mass 2 kg is attached with two identical springs of spring constant 20 N/m
each. The block is placed on a frictionless surface and the ends of the springs are
attached to rigid supports (see figure). When the mass is displaced from its
equilibrium position, it executes a simple harmonic motion. The time period of

oscillation is in SI unit. The value of x is ____________.

x
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-43

222. A body of mass 200g is tied to a spring of spring constant 12.5 N/m, while the other
end of spring is fixed at point O. If the body moves about O in a circular path on a
smooth horizontal surface with constant angular speed 5 rad/s, then the ratio of
extension in the spring to its natural length will be : [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 1:2 (2) 1:1 (3) 2:3 (4) 2:5
223. A mass m attached to free end of a spring executesSHM with a period of 1s. If the
mass is increased by 3 kg the period of oscillation increases by one second, the
value of mass m is ________ kg. [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
224. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = –A and x = +A. If time taken
A
by particle to go from x = 0 to is 2s; then time taken by particle in going from
2
A
X= to A is : [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
2
(1) 3 s (2) 2 s (3) 1.5 s (4) 4 s
225. Two simple harmonic waves having equal amplitudes of 8 cm and equal frequency of
10 Hz are moving along the same direction. The resultant amplitude is also 8 cm.
The phase difference between the individual waves is _____ degree.
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
226. A particle of mass 250 g executes a simple harmonic motion under a periodic force
F = (–25 x) N. The particle attains a maximum speed of 4m/s during its oscillation.
The amplitude of the motion is ______cm. [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
227. The general displacement of a simple harmonic oscillator is x A = sin t. Let T be its
time period. The slope of its potential energy (U) – time (t) curve will be maximum
T
when t . The value of is ____. [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

228. For a simple harmonic motion in a mass spring system shown, the surface is
frictionless. When the mass of the block is 1 kg, the angular frequency is 1. When
the mass block is 2 kg the angular frequency is 2. The ratio 2 / 1. Is:
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

Block

1 1
(1) 2 (2) (3) 2 (4)
2 2

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-44

 2
229. The velocity of a particle executing SHM varies with displacement (x) as 4v = 50 –
x 22
x2. The time period of oscillations is s. The value of x is ……… Take
7 7
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
230. The maximum potential energy of a block executing simple harmonic motion is 25 J.

A is amplitude of oscillation. At A , the kinetic energy of the block is

2
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 37.5 J (2) 9.75 J (3) 18.75 J (4) 12.5 J
231. In the figure given below. a block of mass M = 490 g placed on a frictionless table is
connected with two springs having same spring constant (K = 2 N m–1). If the block is
horizontally displaced through 'X'm then the number of complete oscillations it will
make in 14 seconds will be________ [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

M
K K

232. The amplitude of a particle executing SHM is 3 cm. The displacement at which its
kinetic energy will be 25% more than the potential energy is: ________ cm.
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
2
233. Choose the correct length (L) versus square of time period (T ) graph for a simple
pendulum executing simple harmonic motion.
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]

2
T2 T

(1) (2)

O L O L

T2 T2

(3) (4)

O L O L

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-45

234. A block is fastened to a horizontal spring. The block is pulled to a distance x = 10 cm
from its equilibrium position (at x = 0) on a frictionless surface from rest. The energy
–1
of the block at x = 5 cm is 0.25 J. The spring constant of the spring is ____Nm .
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
GEOMETRICAL OPTICS
235. As shown in the figure, a combination of a thin plano concave lens and a thin plano
convex lens is used to image an object placed at infinity. The radius of curvature of
both the lenses is 30 cm and refraction index of the material for both the lenses is
1.75. Both the lenses are placed at distance of 40 cm from each other. Due to the
combination, the image of the object is formed at distance x = _______ cm, from
concave lens. [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

40 Cm

Q X

236. When a beam of white light is allowed to pass through convex lens parallel to
principal axis, the different colours of light converge at different point on the principle
axis after refraction. This is called: [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) Scattering (2) Chromatic aberration
(3) Spherical aberration (4) Polarisation
237. An object is placed on the principal axis of convex lens of focal length 10 cm as
shown. A plane mirror is placed on the other side of lens at a distance of 20 cm. The
image produced by the plane mirror is 5 cm inside the mirror. The distance of the
object from the lens is ____ cm. [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

20 cm
L M

238. The light rays from an object have been reflected towards an observer from a
standard flat mirror, the image observed by the observer are :-
A. Real B. Erect [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
C. Smaller in size then object D. Laterally inverted
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) B and D only (2) B and C only
(3) A and D only (4) A, C and D only
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-46

239. A convex lens of refractive index 1.5 and focal length 18 cm in air is immersed in
water. The change in focal length of the lens will be_____ cm. (Given refractive index
4
of water = ) [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
3

240. A ray of light is incident from air on a glass plate having thickness 3 cm and
refractive index 2 . The angle of incidence of a ray is equal to the critical angle for
glass-air interface. The lateral displacement of the ray when it passes through the
plate is ___×10–2 cm.(given sin 15° = 0.26) [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
241. Which of the following are true?
A. Speed of light in vacuum is dependent on the direction of propagation.
B. Speed of light in a medium in independent of the wavelength of light.
C. The speed of light is independent of the motion of the source.
D. The speed of light in a medium is independent of intensity.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below: [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) A and C only (2) B and D only (3) B and C only (4) C and D only
242. A scientist is observing a bacteria through a compound microscope. For better
analysis and to improve its resolving power he should. (Select the best option)
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) Increase the wave length of the light
(2) Increase the refractive index of the medium between the object and objective lens
(3) Decrease the focal length of the eye piece
(4) Decrease the diameter of the objective lens
243. In an experiment of measuring the refractive index of a glass slab using travelling
microscope in physics lab, a student measures real thickness of the glass slab as
5.25 mm and apparent thickness of the glass slab at 5.00 mm. Travelling microscope
has 20 divisions in one cm on main scale and 50 divisions on Vernier scale is equal
to 49 divisions on main scale. The estimated uncertainty in the measurement of
x
refractive index of the slab is 10 3 , where x is _________
10
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
244. Unpolarised light is incident on the boundary between two dielectric media, whose
dielectric constants are 2.8 (medium –1) and 6.8 (medium – 2), respectively. To
satisfy the condition, so that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to
1

1 10 2
each other, the angle of incidence should be tan 1 the value of is _____.

(Given for dielectric media, r = 1)

[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-47

245. In an experiment for estimating the value of focal length of converging mirror, image
of an object placed at 40 cm from the pole of the mirror is formed at distance 120 cm
from the pole of the mirror. These distances are measured with a modified scale in
which there are 20 small divisions in 1 cm. The value of error in measurement of
focal length of the mirror is 1/K cm. The value of K is ______.
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
246. A person has been using spectacles of power-1.0 diopter for distant vision and a
separate reading glass of power 2.0 diopters. What is the least distance of distinct
vision for this person: [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 10 cm (2) 40 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 50 cm
247. A thin prism P with an angle 6° and made of glass of refractive index 1.54 is
combined with another prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72 to produce
dispersion without average deviation. The angle of prism P2 is:
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 6° (2) 1.3° (3) 7.8° (4) 4.5°
248. In a medium the speed of light wave decreases to 0.2 times to its speed in free space
The ratio of relative permittivity to the refractive index of the medium is x : 1. The
value of x is _____. (Given speed of light in free space = 3 × 108 m s –1 and for the
given medium r = 1) [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
249. A microscope is focused on an object at the bottom of a bucket. If liquid with
5
refractive index is poured inside the bucket. then microscope have to be raised by
3
30 cm to focus the object again. The height of the liquid in the bucket is:
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 75 cm (2) 50 cm (3) 18 cm (4) 12 cm
250. A thin cylindrical rod of length 10 cm is placed horizontally on the principle axis of a
concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The rod is placed in a such a way that mid
point of the rod is at 40 cm from the pole of mirror. The length of the image formed by
x
the mirror will be cm. The value of x is _________.
3
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
251. Two objects A and B are placed at 15 cm and 25 cm from the pole in front of a
concave mirror having radius of curvature 40 cm. The distance between images
formed by the mirror is:
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 40 cm (2) 60 cm (3) 160 cm (4) 100 cm
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-48

 ROTATIONAL MOTION
252. Solid sphere A is rotating about an axis PQ. If the radius of the sphere is 5 cm then
its radius of gyration about PQ will be x cm . The value of x is ______.
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
P
A

Dd d
10cm

253. A uniform solid cylinder with radius R and length L has moment of inertia I1, about
R L
the axis of cylinder. A concentric solid cylinder of radius R ' and length L ' is
2 2
caned out of the original cylinder. If I2 is the moment of inertia of the carved out
I1
portion ot the cylinder then = __________ (Both I1 and I2 are about the axis of the
I2
cylinder)
[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
254. ICM is moment of inertia of a circular disc about an axis (CM) passing through its
centerand perpendicular to the plane of disc. IAB is it's moment of inertia about an
2
axis AB perpendicular to plane and parallel to axis CM at a distance R from center.
3
Where R is the radius of the disc. The ratio of IAB and ICM is x: 9. The value of x
is___. [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
C A

M B

255. If a solid sphere of mass 5 kg and a disc of mass 4 kg have the same radius. Then
the ratio of moment of inertia of the disc about a tangent in its plane to the moment of
x
inertia of the sphere about its tangent will be . The value of x is _______.
7
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-49

256. A solid sphere of mass 2kg is making pure rolling on a horizontal surface with kinetic
energy 2240 J.The velocity of centre of mass of the sphere will be ____ ms–1.
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
257. A particle of mass 100 g is projected at time t = 0 with a speed 20 ms–1 at an angle
45° to the horizontal as given in the figure. The magnitude of the angular momentum
of the particle about the starting point at time t = 2s is found to be K kgm2 / s. The
value of K is ________. (Take g = 10 ms–2) [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

258. A thin uniform rod of length 2m. cross sectional area ‘A’ and density ‘d’ is rotated
about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to its length with angular
E
velocity . If value of in terms of its rotational kinetic energy Eis then the
Ad
value of is _________. [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
259. A solid sphere of mass 1 kg rolls without slipping on a plane surface. Its kinetic
energy is 7 × 10–3 J. The speed of the center of mass of the sphere is ______ cm
s–1. [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
260. A uniform disc of mass 0.5 kg and radius r is projected with velocity 18 m/s at t = 0 s
on a rough horizontal surface. It starts off with a purely sliding motion at t = 0 s. After
2s it acquires a purely rolling motion (see figure). The total kinetic energy of the disc
after 2s will be ________ J (given, coefficient of friction is 0.3 and g = 10 m/s2).

18 m/s

t=0 t = 2s

[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

261. Two discs of same mass and different radii are made of different materials such that
their thicknesses are 1 cm and 0.5 cm respectively. The densities of materials are in
the ratio 3:5. The moment of inertia of these discs respectively about their diameters
x
will be in the ratio of . The value of x is_______. [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
6
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-50

262. A solid cylinder is released from rest from the top of an inclined plane of inclination
30° and length 60 cm. If the cylinder rolls without slipping, its speed upon reaching
the bottom of the inclined plane is __________ ms–1 Given g = 10 ms–2)
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]

30°

263. Moment of inertia of a dise of mass M and radius 'R' about any of its diameter is
MR2
. The moment of inertia of this disc about an axis normal to the disc and
4
x
passing through a point on its edge will be, MR2 . The value of x is _____.
2
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
VECTORS
264. Vectors aiˆ bjˆ kˆ and 2iˆ 3jˆ 4kˆ are perpendicular to each other when 3a + 2b =

x
7, the ratio of a to b is .The value of x is _______. [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
2
265. If two vectors P ˆi 2mjˆ mkˆ and Q 4iˆ 2jˆ mkˆ are perpendicular to each other.
Then, the value of m will be: [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) 1 (2) –1 (3) – 3 (4) 2
266. If P 3iˆ 3jˆ 2kˆ and Q 4iˆ 3jˆ 2.5kˆ then,The unit vector in the direction of

1
P Q is 3 ˆi ˆj 2 3 kˆ . The value of x is [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
x

267. A small particle moves to position 5iˆ 2jˆ kˆ from its initial position 2iˆ 3ˆj 4kˆ

under the action of force 5iˆ 2jˆ 7kˆ N. The value of work done will be _________J.
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
ELECTROSTATICS
268. If two charges q1 and q2 are separated with distance ‘d’ and placed in a medium of
dielectric constant K. What will be the equivalent distance between charges in air for
the same electrostatic force? [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

(1) d k (2) k d (3) 1.5d k (4) 2d k

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-51

 q C
269. A stream of a positively charged particles having 2 1011 and velocity
m kg

v0 3 107 ˆi m / s is deflected by an electric field 1.8 ĵ kV/m The electric field exists in
a region of 10 cm along x direction. Due to the electric field, the deflection of
the charge particles in the y direction is _____ mm. [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
270. The electric potential at the centre of two concentric half rings of radii R1 and R2,
having same linear charge density is [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
0 2 0 4 0 0

271. A point charge of 10 μC is placed at the origin. At what location on the X-axis should
point charge of 40μC be placed so that the net electric field is zero at x = 2 cm on the
X-axis ? [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) x = 6 cm (2) x = 4 cm (3) x = 8 cm (4) x = –4 cm
272. In a cuboid of dimension 2L × 2L L, a charge q is placed at the centre of the
surface ‘S’ having area of 4 L2 . The flux through the opposite surface to ‘S’ is given
by [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
q q q q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 0 3 0 2 0 6 0
273. A point charge q1 4q0 is placed at origin. Another point charge q2 q0 is placed at

x = 12 cm. Charge of proton is q0. The proton is placed on x-axis so that the
electrostatic force on the proton in zero. In this situation, the position of the proton
from the origin is _____ cm. [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
274. A point charge 2 × 10 C is moved from P to S in a uniform electric field of 30 NC–1
–2

directed along positive x-axis. If coordinates of P and S are (1, 2, 0) m and (0, 0, 0) m
respectively, the work done by electric field will be [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 1200 mJ (2) 600 mJ (3) –600 mJ (4) –1200 mJ
275. For a charged spherical ball, electrostatic potential inside the ball varies with r as V =
2ar2 + b. Here, a and b are constant and r is the distance from the center. The
volume charge density inside the ball is – a . The value of is ________.
= permittivity of medium. [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-52

276. As shown in the figure, a point charge Q is placed at the centre of conducting
spherical shell of inner radius a and outer radius b. The electric field due to charge Q
in three different regions I, II and III is given by : (I : r < a, II : a < r < b, III : r > b)

Q I II III
O
a
b

[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

(1) EI 0,EII 0,EIII 0 (2) EI 0,EII 0,EIII 0
(3) EI 0,EII 0,EIII 0 (4) EI 0,EII 0,EIII 0
277. As shown in figure, a cuboid lies in a region with electric field
E 2x2 ˆi 4yjˆ 6kˆ N / C. The magnitude of charge within the cuboid is n 0 C. The
3
value of n is _______ (if dimension of cuboid is 1 × 2 × 3 m )
z
(0,0,3)

(0,0,0) (0,2,0)
y
(1,0,0)

x
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
278. Which of the following correctly represents the variation of electric potential (V) of a
charged spherical conductor of radius (R) with radial distance (r) from the centre?
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
V V

(1) (2)

0 R r 0 R r

V V

(3) (4)

0 R r 0 R r

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-53

 V
279. Expression for an electric field is given by E 4000 x 2 ˆi . The electric flux through
m
the cube of side 20 cm when placed in electric field (as shown in the figure) is
_______ V cm. [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

20 cm
(0,0,0)
x
z

z 20 cm

280. Considering a group of positive charges, which of the following statements is correct?
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) Net potential of the system cannot be zero at a point but net electric field can be
zero at that point.
(2) Net potential of the system at a point can be zero but net electric field can't be
zero at that point.
(3) Both the net potential and the net field can be zero at a point.
(4) Both the net potential and the net electric field cannot be zero at a point.
281. Let be the uniform surface charge density of two infinite thin plane sheets shown in
figure. Then the electric fields in three different region EI, EII and
Surface Charge

density

II
I + + III

EIII are: [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]

2 2
(1) E I ˆ II 0,EIII
n,E nˆ (2) E I 0,E II ˆ III
n,E 0
0 0 0

(3) E I ˆ II 0,EIII
n,E nˆ (4) E I ˆ II 0,EIII
n,E nˆ
2 0 2 0 0 0

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-54

282. Two equal positive point charges are separated by a distance 2a. The distance of a
point from the centre of the line joining two charges on the equatorial line
(perpendicular bisector) at which force experienced by a test charge q0 becomes
a
maximum is . The value of x is __________. [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
x
283. A cubical volume is bounded by the surfaces x = 0, x = a, y = 0, y = a, z = 0, z = a.
–1 –1
The electric field in the region is given by E E x ˆi. Where E0 = 4 × 10 NC m . If
4
0

a = 2 cm, the charge contained in the cubical volume is Q × 10–14C. The value of Q
is____. Take 0 = 9 × 10–12 C2/Nm2 )
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
SURFACE TENSION
284. The frequency ( ) of an oscillating liquid drop may depend upon radius (r) of the
drop, density ( ) of liquid and the surface tension (s) of the liquid as : v ra b
sc . The
values of a, b and c respectively are [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 1 3 1 1
(1) , , (2) , , (3) , , (4) , ,
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
285. A Spherical ball of radius 1mm and density 10.5 g/cc is dropped in glycerine of
coefficient of viscosity 9.8 poise and density 1.5 g/cc. Viscous force on the ball when
it attains constant velocity is 3696 x10 x N. The value of x is (Given, g = 9.8 m/s2 and
22
= ) [24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
7
286. A spherical drop of liquid splits into 1000 identical spherical drops. If ui is the surface
energy of the original drop and uf is the total surface energy of the resulting drops,
uf 10
the (ignoring evaporation). . Then value of x is _____:
ui x
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
–2 –1
287. Surface tension of a soap bubble is 2.0 × 10 Nm . Work done to increase the
22
radius of soap bubble from 3.5 cm to 7 cm will be: Take
7
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
4 4 4
(1) 0.72 10 J (2) 5.76 10 J (3) 18.48 10 J (4) 9.24 10 4 J
288. A metal block of base area 0.20 m2 is placed on a table, as shown in figure. A liquid
film of thickness 0.25 mm is inserted between the block and the table. The block is
pushed by a horizontal force of 0.1 N and moves with a constant speed. If the
viscosity of the liquid is 5.0 × 10–3 Pl, the speed of block is _______× 10–3 m/s.

0.1 N film

Table

[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-55

289. The height of liquid column raised in a capillary tube of certain radius when dipped in
liquid A vertically is, 5 cm. If the tube is dipped in a similar manner in another liquid B
of surface tension and density double the values of liquid A, the height of liquid
column raised in liquid B would be ______ m. [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 0.20 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.05 (4) 0.10
290. If 1000 droplets of water of surface tension 0.07 N/m. having same radius 1 mm
each, combine to from a single drop. In the process the released surface energy is-
22
Take
7
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 7.92 10 6 J (2) 7.92 10 4 J (3) 9.68 10 4 J (4) 8.8 10 5 J
291. A mercury drop of radius 10–3 m is broken into 125 equal size droplets. Surface
tension of mercury is 0.45 Nm–1. The gain in surface energy is:
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 2.26 × 10–5 J (2) 28 × 10–5 J (3) 17.5 × 10–5 J (4) 5 × 10–5 J
ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
292. If EandK represent electric field and propagation vectors of the EM waves in

vacuum, then magnetic field vector is given by : ( -angular frequency) :

[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
1
(1) K E (2) E K (3) K E (4) K E

293. The electric field and magnetic field components of an electromagnetic wave going
through vacuu is described by
Ex E0 sin kz t By B0 sin kz t

Then the correct relation between E0 and B0 is given by

[24 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) kE0 B0 (2) E0B0 k (3) E0 kB0 (4) E0 kB0

294. All electromagnetic wave is transporting energy in the negative z direction. At a

certain point and certain time the direction of electric field of the wave is along
positive y direction. What will be the direction of the magnetic field of the wave at that
point and instant?
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) Positive direction of x (2) Positive direction of z
(3) Negative direction of x (4) Negative direction of y

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-56

295. Match List I with List II :
LIST – I LIST – II
A. Gauss’s Law in I. d B
E.dI
Electrostat ics dt

B. Faraday’s Law II. B.dA 0

C. Gauss’s law in magnetism III. d E

B.dI 0ic 0 0
dt
D. Ampere-Maxwell Law IV. q
E.ds
0

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
296. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Electromagnetic waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic field.
Statement II : The amplitude of electric field and the magnetic field in electromagnetic

0
waves are related to each other as E0 B0
0

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below: [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
297. A sinusoidal carrier voltage is amplitude modulated. The resultant amplitude
modulated wave has maximum and minimum amplitude of 120 V and 80 V
respectively. The amplitude of each sideband is:
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 15 V (2) 10 V (3) 20 V (4) 5V
298. A point source of 100 W emits light with 5% efficiency. At a distance of 5 m from the
source, the intensity produced by the electric field component is:
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
1 W 1 W 1 W 1 W
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 m2 40 m2 10 m2 20 m2

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-57

299 Match List-I with List-II.

List- I List-II
A. Microwaves I Physiotherapy
B. UV rays II Treatment of
cancer
C. Infra-red rays III Lasik eye
surgery
D. X-rays IV Aircraft
navigation

Choose the correct answer from the option given below: [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
300. Match the List-I with List-II:
List I List II
A. Microwaves I. Radio active decay of the nucleus
B. Gamma rays II. Rapid acceleration and
deceleration of electron in aerials
C. Radio waves III. Inner shell electrons
D. . X-rays IV. Klystron valve
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
301. The ratio of average electric energy density and total average energy density of
electromagnetic wave is: [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
1
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4)
2
KINETIC THEORY OF GAS
302. The root mean square velocity of molecules of gas is [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) Proportional to square of temperature (T)2.

1
(2) Inversely proportional to square root of temperature .
T

(3) Proportional to square root of temperature T.

(4) Proportional to temperature (T).

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-58

303. A bicycle tyre is filled with air having pressure of 270 kPa at 27ºC. The approximate
pressure of the air in the tyre when the temperature increases to 36ºC is
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 270 kPa (2) 262 KPa (3) 278 kPa (4) 360 kPa

5
304. At 300 K, the rms speed of oxygen molecules is times to that of its average

22
speed in the gas. Then, the value of will be used
7
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 32 (2) 28 (3) 24 (4) 27
305. A flask contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio of 2 : 1 by mass at temperature
27°C. The ratio of average kinetic energy per molecule of hydrogen and oxygen
respectively is : [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
306. The average kinetic energy of a molecule of the gas is
[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) proportional to absolute temperature (2) proportional to volume
(3) proportional to pressure (4) dependent on the nature of the gas
ALTERNATING CURRENT
307. In an LC oscillator, if values of inductance and capacitance become twice and eight
times, respectively, then the resonant frequency of oscillator becomes x times its
initial resonant frequency 0. The value of x is:
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 1/4 (2) 16 (3) 1/16 (4) 4
308. An LCR series circuit of capacitance 62.5 nF and resistance of 50 . is connected to
an A.C. source of frequency 2.0 kHz. For maximum value of amplitude of current in
2
circuit, the value of inductance is ______mH. (take = 10)
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
309. A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC source of 220 V, 50 Hz. The circuit
contains a resistance R = 80 , an inductor of inductive reactance XL = 70 , and a
x
capacitor of capacitive reactance XC = 130 . The power factor of circuit is .
10
The value of x is :
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-59

310. For the given figures, choose the correct options: [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
40 0.5 F
40 50 mh

~ ~
220 V. 50 Hz 220 V. 50 Hz
(a) (b)

(1) The rms current in circuit (b) can never be larger than that in (a)
(2) The rms current in figure (a) is always equal to that in figure (b)
(3) The rms current in circuit (b) can be larger than that in (a)
(4) At resonance, current in (b) is less than that in (a)
311. An inductor of inductance 2 H is connected in series with a resistance, a variable
capacitor and an AC source of frequency 7 kHz. The value ofcapacitance for which
1
maximum current is drawn into the circuit is F, where the value of x is______.
x
22
Take [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
7
312. In a series LR circuit with XL = R. power factor is P1. If a capacitor of capacitance C
with XC = XL is added to the circuit the power factor becomes P2. The ratio of P1 to P2
will be: [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 1: 3 (2) 1: 2 (3) 1:1 (4) 1:2
dI
313. As per the given figure, if 1A / s then the value of VAB at this instant will be
dt
_____ V. [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
I=2A
A
L = 6H R = 12

B
E = 12 V
314. In the given circuit, rms value of current (Irms) through the resistor R is:
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
XL = 200 , XC = 100 ,

R = 100

1 1
(1) 2A (2) A (3) 20 A (4) A
2 2
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-60

 –2 2
315. In an ac generator, a rectangular coil of 100 turns each having area 14 × 10 m is
rotated at 360 rev/min about an axis perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of
magnitude 3.0 T. The maximum value of the emf produced will be ________ V.
22
Take [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
7

316. If R, XL and XC represent resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.

Then which of the following is dimensionless: [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
R R XL
(1) R XL XC (2) (3) (4) R
XL XC XL XC XC

317. An inductor of 0.5 mH, a capacitor of 20 F and resistance of 20 are connected in

series with a 220 V ac source. If the current is in phase with the emf, the amplitude
of current of the circuit is x A. The value of x is – [31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
318. An alternating voltage source V = 260 sin (628t) is connected across a pure inductor
of 5 mH.Inductive reactance in the circuit is: [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 3.14Ω (2) 6.28Ω (3) 0.5Ω (4) 0.318Ω
319. A series LCR circuit consists of R = 80Ω. XL =100Ω, and XC = 40Ω. The input voltage
is 2500 cos (100 t) V. The amplitude of current, in the circuit, is__________A.
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
320. Match the List-I with List-II.
List I List II
A. AC generator I. Presence of both L
and C
B. Transformer II. Electromagnetic
Induction
C. Resonance phenomenon III. Quality factor
to occur
D. Sharpness of resonance IV. Mutual Inductance
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
321. A series LCR circuit is connected to an ac source of 220V, 50Hz. The circuit contain
a resistance R = 100 and an inductor of inductive reactance XL= 79.6 . The
capacitance of the capacitor needed to maximize the average rate at which energy is
supplied will be _________ F. [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-61

 UNIT OF DIMENSION
322. Match List I with List II
List – I List – II
A Surface tension I. Kgm 1 s 1

B Pressure II. Kgms 1

C Viscosity III. Kgm 1 s2

D Impulse IV. Kgs 2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I (2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
323. Match List I with List II
List I List II
A. Young’s Modulus (Y) I. [M L–1 T–1]
B. Co-efficient of Viscosity ( ) II. [M L–1 T–2]
C. Planck’s Constant (h) III. [M L–1 T–2]
D. Work Function ( ) IV. [M L2 T-2]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
324. Match List I with List II:
List-I (Physical List-II
Quantity) (Dimensional Formula)
A Pressure gradient I M0 L2 T 2

B Energy density II M1 L 1 T 2

C Electric Field III M1 L 2 T 2

D Latent heat IV M1 L1 T 3 A 1

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-62

 2 2 2
325. The equation of a circle is given by x + y = a , where a is the radius. If the equation
is modified to change the origin other than (0, 0), then find out the correct dimensions
2
2 t
of A and B in a new equation: x At y a2 . The dimensions of t is given
B
as [T–1]. [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
–1 –1
(1) A = [L T], B = [LT ] (2) A = (LT], B = [L–1 T–1]
(3) A = [L–1 T–1], B = [LT–1] (4) A = [L–1 T–1], B = [LT]
A ˆ B ˆ
326. Electric field in a certain region is given by E i j . The SI unit of A and B
x2 y3
are: [30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
3 1 2 1
(1) Nm C ;Nm C (2) Nm C ;Nm3C 1
2 1

(3) Nm3C;Nm2C (4) Nm2C;Nm3C

327. In a screw gauge, there are 100 divisions on the circular scale and the main scale
moves by 0.5 mm on a complete rotation of the circular scale. The zero of circular
scale lies 6 divisions below the line of graduation when two studs are brought in
contact with each other. When a wire is placed between the studs, 4 linear scale
divisions are clearly visible while 46th division the circular scale
coincide with the reference line. The diameter of the wire is ______ × 10–2 mm.
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
328. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A Torque I. kg m–1 s–2
–1
B Energy density II. kg ms
C Pressure gradient III. kg m–2 s–2
D Impulse IV. kg m2 s–2

Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
329. Match List-I With List-II.
LIST- I LIST-II
A. Angular momentum I [ML2 T–2]
B. Torque II [ML–2 T–2]
C. Stress III [ML2 T–1]
D. Pressure gradient IV [ML–1 T–2]
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II (2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-63

330. P V b RT represents the equation of state of some gases. Where P is the
V2
pressure, V is the volume, T is the temperature and a, b, R are the constants. The
b2
physical quantity, which has dimensional formula as that of , will be:

[1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]

(1) Bulk modulus (2) Modulus of rigidity (3) Compressibility (4) Energy density
331. If the velocity of light c, universal gravitational constant G and planck's constant h are
chosen as fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass in the new system is:
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(1) h 2 c 2 G1 (2) h1c1G 1
(3) h 2 c 2 G 2 (4) h 2 c 2 G 2

HEAT CALORIMETRY
332. A body cools from 60º C to 40º C in 6 minutes. If, temperature of surroundings is 10º
C. Then, after the next 6 minutes, its temperature will be ____ º C.
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
333. A bowl filled with very hot soup cools from 98°C to 86°C in 2 minutes when the room
temperature is 22°C. How long it will take to cool from 75°C to 69°C ?
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 2 minutes (2) 1.4 minutes (3) 0.5 minute (4) 1 minute
334. Heat energy of 184 kJ is given to ice of mass 600 g at -12°C, Specific heat of ice is
–1 –1 –1
2222.3 J kg ° C and latent heat of ice in 336 kJ/kg
(A) Final temperature of system will be 0°C.
(B) Final temperature of the system will be greater than 0°C.
(C) The final system will have a mixture of ice and water in the ratio of 5 : 1.
(D) The final system will have a mixture of ice and water in the ratio of 1 : 5.
(E) The final system will have water only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) A and D only (2) B and D only (3) A and E only (4) A and C only
335. A faulty thermometer reads 5°C in melting ice and 95°C in steam. The correct
temperature on absolute scale will be………. K when the faulty thermometer reads
41°C. [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
336. A water heater of power 2000 W is used to heat water. The specific heat capacity of
water is 4200 J Kg–1 K–1. The efficiency of heater is 70%. Time required to heat 2 kg
of water from 10°C to 60°C is _________s.
(Assume that the specific heat capacity of water remains constant over the
temperature range of the water). [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-64

 CIRCULAR MOTION
337. A car is moving with a constant speed of 20 m/s in a circular horizontal track of radius
40 m. A bob is suspended from the roof of the car by a massless string. The angle
made by the string with the vertical will be : (Take g = 10 m/s2)
[25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

(1) (2) (3) (4)

6 2 4 3
338. A car is moving on a horizontal curved road with radius 50 m. The approximate
maximum speed of car will be, if friction between tyres and road is
–2
0.34. [Take g = 10 ms ]
[29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 3.4 ms –1 (2) 22.4ms 1
(3) 13ms 1
(4) 17ms 1

339. An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path in a horizontal plane with
centre at the origin. When the object is at x = + 2 m, its velocity is 4ˆj m / s. The
object’s velocity (v) and acceleration (a) at x = –2 m will be
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

(1) v 4iˆ m / s,a 8jˆ m / s2 (2) v 4iˆ m / s,a 8jˆ m / s2

(3) v 4iˆ m / s,a 8jˆ m / s2 (4) v 4iˆ m / s,a 8jˆ m / s2

340. A car is moving on a circular path of radius 600 m such that the magnitudes of the
tangential acceleration and centripetal acceleration are equal. The time taken by the
car to complete first quarter of revolution, if it is moving with an initial speed of 54
km/hr is t(1 – e– /2)s. The value of t is ______.
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
341. A stone tied to 180 cm long string at its end is making 28 revolutions in horizontal
1936
circle in every minute. The magnitude of acceleration of stone is ms 2 . The
x
22
value of x ________. Take
7
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
342. A body is moving with constant speed, in a circle of radius 10 m. The body completes
one revolution in 4 s. At the end of 3rd second, the displacement of body (in m) from
its starting point is:
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

(1) 30 (2) 15 (3) 5 (4) 10 2

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-65

 NLM FRICTION
343. Given below are two statements:
Statement-I : An elevator can go up or down with uniform speed when its weight is
balanced with the tension of its cable.
Statement-II : Force exerted by the floor of an elevator on the foot of a person
standing on it is more than his/her weight when the elevator goes down with
increasing speed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below: [24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) Both statement I and statement II are false
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
344. As per given figure, a weightless pulley P is attached on a double inclined frictionless
2
surface. The tension in the string (massless) will be (if g = 10 m/s )
[24 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]

4 Kg 1 Kg

60° 30°

(1) 4 3 1 N (2) 4 3 1N (3) 4 3 1N (4) 4 3 1 N

345. An object of mass 8 kg is hanging from one end of a uniform rod CD of mass 2 kg
and length 1 m pivoted at its end C on a verticalwall as shown in figure. It is
supported by acable AB such that the system is inequilibrium. The tension in the
cable is: (Take g = 10 m/s2) [25 Jan, Shift – 1 - 2023]
A

30° B
C D
90°

60°cm 40°cm
Wall
8 kg

(1) 240 N (2) 90 N (3) 300 N (4) 30 N

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-66

346. Consider a block kept on an inclined plane (inclined at 45°) as shown in the figure. If
the force required to just push it up the incline is 2 times the force required to just
prevent it from sliding down, the coefficient of friction between the block and inclined
plane (μ) is equal to : [25 Jan, Shift – 2 - 2023]

45°

(1) 0.33 (2) 0.60 (3) 0.25 (4) 0.50

347. A block of mass m slides down the plane inclined at angle 30º with an acceleration
g
. The value of coefficient of kinetic friction will be: [29 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
4

2 3 1 1 3 2 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 3 2 2
348. Force acts for 20 s on a body of mass 20 kg, starting from rest, after which the force
ceases and then body describes 50 m in the next 10 s. The value of force will be:
[29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 40 N (2) 5 N (3) 20 N (4) 10 N
349. The time taken by an object to slide down 45° rough inclined plane is n times as it
takes to slide down a perfectly smooth 45° incline plane. The coefficient of kinetic
friction between the object and the incline plane is [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

1 1 1 1
(1) (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 1
1 n2 n2 n2 n2

350. A block of 3 kg is attached to a string whose other end is attached to the wall. An
unknown force F is applied so that the string makes an angle of 30° with the wall.
–2
The tension T is: (Given g = 10 ms ) [30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]

30°

(1) 20 N (2) 25 N (3) 10 N (4) 15 N

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-67

351. As shown in figure, a 70 kg garden roller is pushed with a force of F = 200 N at an
angle of 30°with horizontal. The normal reaction on the roller is (Given g = 10 m s –2)
[31 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]

30°

(1) 800 2 N (2) 600N (3) 800N (4) 200 3 N

352. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to end of a massless string of length 1 m. If the breaking
tension of the string is 400 N, then maximum linear velocity, the stone can have
without breaking the string, while rotating in horizontal plane, is:
[31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 20 ms–1 (2) 40 ms–1 (3) 400 ms–1 (4) 10 ms–1
353. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with an initial speed of 20 m/s. The body stops after
5 s due to friction between body and the floor. The value of the coefficient of friction
–2
is: (Take acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms ) [31 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.3 (3) 0.5 (4) 0.4
354. A block of mass 5 kg is placed at rest on a table of rough surface. Now, if a force of
30N is applied in the direction parallel to surface of the table, the block slides through
a distance of 50 m in an interval of time 10s. Coefficient of kinetic friction is (given, g
= 10 ms–2): [1 Feb, Shift – 1 - 2023]
(1) 0.60 (2) 0.75 (3) 0.50 (4) 0.25
355. As shown in the figure a block of mass 10 kg lying on a horizontal surface is pulled
by a force F acting at an angle 30°, with horizontal. For s = 0.25, the block will just
–2
start to move for the value of F: [Given g = 10 ms ] [1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
F

30°

(1) 33.3 N (2) 25.2 N (3) 20 N (4) 35.7 N

FLUID
356. A fully loaded boeing aircraft has a mass of 5.4 × 105 kg. Its total wing area is 500
m2. It is in level flight with a speed of 1080 km/h. If the density of air is 1.2 kg m–3,
the fractional increase in the speed of the air on the upper surface of the wing relative
to the lower surface in percentage will be (g = 10 m/s2) [29 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 16 (2) 6 (3) 8 (4) 10

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-68

 2
357. The surface of water in a water tank of cross section area 750 cm on the top of a
house is h m. above the tap level. The speed of water coming out through the tap of
dh
cross section area 500 mm is 30 cm/s. At that instant, is x 10 3 m / s. The value
dt
of x will be_____.
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]
CENTER OF MASS
358. A ball of mass 200 g rests on a vertical post of height 20 m. A bullet of mass 10 g,
travelling in horizontal direction, hits the center of the ball. After collision both travels
independently. The ball hits the ground at a distance 30 m and the bullet at a
distance of 120 m from the foot of the post. The value of initial velocity of the bullet
will be (if g = 10 m/s2):
[30 Jan, Shift - 1 - 2023]
(1) 120 m/s (2) 60 m/s (3) 400 m/s (4) 360 m/s
359. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 20 g bullets at the rate of 180 bullets per minute
with a speed of 100 m s –1 each. The recoil velocity of the gun is:
[30 Jan, Shift - 2 - 2023]
(1) 0.02 m/s (2) 2.5 m/s (3) 1.5 m/s (4) 0.6 m/s
360. Figures (a), (b), (c) and (d) show variation of force with time.
The impulse is highest in figure.
[1 Feb, Shift – 2 - 2023]

F(N) F(N)

0.5 0.5

0 Fig (a) 1.0 t(s) 0 Fig (b) 2.0 t(s)

F(N) F(N)

0.75 0. 5

0 Fig (c) 1.0 t(s) 0 Fig (d) 2.0 t(s)

(1) Fig (c) (2) Fig (b) (3) Fig (a) (4) Fig (d)

DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-69

 ANSWER KEY
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (9) 5. (2) 6. (2)
7. (3) 8. (68) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4)
13. (4) 14. (2) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4)
19. (3) 20. (144) 21. (4) 22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (2)
25. (11) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (6) 29. (4) 30. (3)
31. (27) 32. (4) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (4) 36. (1)
37. (87) 38. (1) 39. (3) 40. (2) 41. (4) 42. (4)
43. (2) 44. (2) 45. (300) 46. (4) 47. (27) 48. (4)
49. (2) 50. (136) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (828) 54. (4)
55. (1) 56. (6) 57. (105) 58. (3) 59. (45) 60. (6)
61. (4) 62. (225) 63. (55) 64. (1) 65. (4) 66. (3)
67. (3) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (2) 71. (1) 72. (3)
73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (2) 78. (4)
79. (2) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (1) 83. (4) 84. (4)
85. (3) 86. (5) 87. (4) 88. (1) 89. (4) 90. (60)
91. (4) 92. (2) 93. (1) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (12)
97. (2) 98. (3) 99. (4) 100. (2) 101. (4) 102. (2)
103. (2) 104. (3) 105. (4) 106. (4) 107. (4) 108. (2)
109. (1) 110. (1) 111. (4) 112. (4) 113. (1) 114. (4)
115. (3) 116 (1) 117. (4) 118. (2) 119. (4) 120. (2)
121. (4) 122. (2) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (2) 126. (3)
127. (4) 128. (3) 129. (2) 130. (4) 131. (4) 132. (3)
133. (3) 134. (3) 135. (1) 136. (3) 137. (400) 138. (2)
139. (20) 140. (2) 141. (4) 142. (2) 143. (10) 144. (2)
145. (1) 146. (44) 147. (2) 148. (10) 149. (3) 150. (1)
151. (1) 152. (2) 153. (30) 154. (5) 155. (4) 156. (1.5)
157. (1) 158. (2) 159. (1) 160. (5) 161. (2) 162. (1)
163. (4) 164. (25) 165. (1) 166. (1) 167. (2) 168. (2)
169. (1) 170. (18) 171. (24) 172. (3) 173. (10) 174. (3)
175. (4) 176. (3) 177. (48) 178. (2) 179. (4) 180. (3)
181. (4) 182. (4) 183. (1) 184. (4) 185. (120) 186. (1)
187. (50) 188. (4) 189. (2) 190. (3) 191. (80) 192. (3)
193. (2) 194. (200) 195. (2) 196. (3) 197. (3) 198. (10)
199. (4) 200. (4) 201. (3) 202. (3) 203. (3) 204. (2)
205. (44) 206. (40) 207. (100) 208. (2) 209. (4) 210. (4)
211. (300) 212. (1) 213. (3) 214. (3) 215. (4) 216. (2)
217. (2) 218. (7) 219. (5) 220. (132) 221. (5) 222. (3)
223. (1) 224. (4) 225. (120) 226. (40) 227. (8) 228. (2)
229. (88) 230. (3) 231. (20) 232. (2) 233. (3) 234. (50)
235. (120) 236. (2) 237. (30) 238. (1) 239. (54) 240. (52)
241. (4) 242. (2) 243. (41) 244. (7) 245. (32) 246. (4)
247. (4) 248. (5) 249. (1) 250. (32) 251. (3) 252. (110)
253. (32) 254. (17) 255. (5) 256. (40) 257. (800) 258. (3)
259. (10) 260. (54) 261. (5) 262. (2) 263. (3) 264. (1)
265. (4) 266. (4) 267. (40) 268. (1) 269. (2) 270. (2)
271. (1) 272. (4) 273. (24) 274. (3) 275. (12) 276. (2)
277. (12) 278. (3) 279. (640) 280. (1) 281. (4) 282. (2)
283. (288) 284. (1) 285. (7) 286. (1) 287. (3) 288. (25)
289. (3) 290. (2) 291. (1) 292. (1) 293. (1) 294. (1)
295. (1) 296. (1) 297. (2) 298. (2) 299 (3) 300. (2)
301. (4) 302. (3) 303. (3) 304. (2) 305. (2) 306. (1)
307. (1) 308. (100) 309. (8) 310. (1) 311. (3872) 312. (2)
313. (30) 314. (1) 315. 1584) 316. (2) 317. (242) 318. (1)
319. (25) 320. (3) 321. (40) 322. (2) 323. (2) 324. (3)
325. (2) 326. (2) 327. (22) 328. (4) 329. (2) 330. (3)
331. (4) 332. (28) 333. (2) 334. (1) 335. (313) 336. (300)
337. (3) 338. (3) 339. (2) 340. (40) 341. (125) 342. (4)
343. (2) 344. (2) 345. (3) 346. (1) 347. (2) 348. (2)
349. (4) 350. (1) 351. (3) 352. (1) 353. (4) 354. (3)
355. (2) 356. (4) 357. (2) 358. (4) 359. (4) 360. (2)
DOWNLOAD OUR APP & GET : 353, Rajeev Gandhi Nagar, Instrumentation Limited Colony, Kota, Rajasthan 324005

UNLIMITED PRACTICE FOR FREE : www.atpstar.com PAGE NO.-70