1.

Concerning the Electronic Display System, the colour associated with a caution-type alert is
a. amber or yellow
b. magenta
c. red
d. white
2. This question relates to South African All Weather Operations.
Which of the following statements is true as far as the required visual reference for landing after
conducting an instrument approach procedure is concerned?
a. They include the runway threshold, runway centerline lights, touch-down area, touchdown
zone lighting and approach lighting.
b. They must be visible for sufficient time for the pilot to determine that the aircraft is in a
position for a normal visual descent to land.
c. Some form of approach lighting system is compulsory.
d. They are not required for a daytime approach.
3. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) is obtained from Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) by correcting for?
(1 Mark)
a. Instrument error
b. Compressibility error
c. Density error
d. Position error
4. High aspect ratio, as compared with low aspect ratio, has the effect of:
a. Increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack
b. Increasing lift and critical angle of attack
c. Decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack
d. Increasing lift and drag
5. On the ground, during a right turn, the turn indicator indicates:
a. Needle to right, ball to left
b. Needle in the middle, ball to left
c. Needle in the middle, ball to right
d. Needle to the right, ball to right
6. Refer to the image above, chart issue time is 14:00 SAST
(chart courtesy of SAWG)
Port Elizabeth International Airport is located on the coastline above the arrow.
What could be expected at the airport at 17:00 SAST?
(2 marks)
a. FEW St
b. SCT Cb
c. SCT Cu
d. BKN St
e. OVC As
7. Unless otherwise cleared, an RNAV-equipped aircraft approaching the terminal area and
intending to conduct an RNAV approach is required to?
a. Tract via the appropriate IAF associated with the procedure.
b. Have at least approach flap lowered to activate approach mode on the GNSS navigational
system.
c. Monitor the DME readout to ensure it stays within the MSA boundary.
d. Report to ATC should RAIM be manually de-activated.
8. If in a two-dimensional incompressible and subsonic flow, the streamlines converge the static
pressure in the flow will?
a. Increase initially, then decrease
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Not change
9. Refer to image above
Select the most correct option
If a pilot has to fly to the opposite side of the cloud cluster, which alphabetic letter indicates the
least risky route to follow?
(2 marks)
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
10. Document SA-CATS 91.06.16 Radio Communication failure (RCF) procedures refers.
Select the correct option to complete the phrase below.
If the communication failure occurs while operating in accordance with IFR while in IMC or, if in
VMC but unable to maintain VMC, the aircraft shall:
(1mark)
a. In airspace where an ATS surveillance system is not used in the provision of air traffic control,
maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher for a period of
7 minutes.
b. Continue to fly in instrument meteorological condition, land at the nearest suitable
aerodrome and report its arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate air traffic
control unit.
c. In airspace where the ATS surveillance system is not used in the provision of air traffic control,
maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period
of 20 minutes following the aircraft’s failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting
point and thereafter adjust level and speed in accordance with the filed flight plan.
d. Maintain the last assigned flight level for a minimum 3 minutes on reaching, provided terrain
permits. After 3 minutes the aircraft is to climb, at the normal rate of climb, to the flight level
specified in the current flight plan.
11. Which type of fog is likely to form when air with the temperature of 15°C and a dew point
temperature of 12°C blows at 10 knots over the sea surface that has temperature of 5°C?
a. Radiation fog
b. Steam fog
c. Frontal fog
d. Advection fog
12. Which of the following factors is most likely to cause a CFIT accident?
(1 mark)
a. The flight experiences an engine-related emergency that is mishandled by the flight crew.
b. The flight crew is uncertain of the aircraft’s navigational position.
c. The flight is conducted in instrument meteorological condition (IMC).
d. The flight experiences an unusual attitude-related event that is mishandled by the flight crew.
13. You are the pilot of an aircraft departing VFR for a cross-country flight from a local gravel runway
called Hiertjy (FAHJ), your planned cruising level is FL85, FAHJ elevation is 3900ft.
The runway is 25NM from Wonderboom aerodrome (FAWB), which has an elevation of 4095ft
and a transition altitude of 8000ft. After take-off, at which altitude must you change the altimeter
subscale setting to 1013,25Hpa?
a. 5900ft
b. 6900ft
c. 8000ft
d. 6100ft
14. If the temperature at the surface is given as +15°C and at 4000ft above the surface it is +9°C, the
state of this layer is said to be:
(1 mark)
a. Neutrally stable
b. Stable
c. Absolutely unstable
d. Conditionally unstable
e. Unstable

15. Refer to CDI and DI above.

Complete the sentence
Assume that the pilot maintain the present heading in still wind conditions.
When will the TO/FROM indicator change to FROM?
When passing ___________
(2 marks)
a. Radial 090
b. Radial 180
 c. Radial 270
d. Radial 360
e. None of the above options is applicable
16. According to ICAO Doc. 8168, when a clearance is received specifying the time of departure from
the holding point, the pilot should?
a. Increase the duration of the outbound leg up to a maximum of 2 minutes
b. Plan to be established on the outbound leg or abeam the fix at the time specified in the
clearance
c. Advice ATC if the time in the clearance does not allow a 4-minute hold to be completed
d. Adjust the pattern within the limits of the established holding procedure in order to leave the
holding point at the time specified
17. “LVP’s” become effective when
a. The lowest RVR is less than 600m and the cloud ceiling is 200ft or less
b. The first schedule carrier conduct executes a missed approach procedure due to poor visibility
c. The aerodrome emergency lighting is activated
d. ATC receives a written request from the aerodrome manager
18. A plain in western Europe with an average elevation of 500m (1600) above the sea level is covered
with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the summer months.
At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to be expected?
(1 mark)
a. 100 - 1500ft
b. 1500 – 7000ft
c. 7000 – 15000ft
d. 15000 – 25000ft
19. Select the most correct action
The selected (or selective) Radial Instrument scan means that the?
(1 mark)
a. Pilot’s eye always move via the altitude indicator before looking at the other flight
instruments.
b. Cross-check focusses on the secondary flight instruments more than the primary instruments
c. VOR CDI information is always used to support the flight instruments.
d. Pilot does not look at any single flight instrument more than the others.
20. About a magnetic compass:
a. Acceleration errors are due to the angle of dip.
b. Errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass rose
c. Acceleration errors are due to Schuler oscillations
d. Turning error is due to vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field
21. Generally, in which conditions does ICAO Doc 8168 recommend that reduced power should not
be required for take-off?
a. Adverse operating conditions such as engine failures.
b. It should preferably never be used
c. Airport noise abatement procedures take priority in terms of reduced power take-off
d. Adverse operating condition including as contaminated runways, visibility restriction,
stronger tailwinds and reported wind shear
22. An aircraft descends in layered clouds. The freezing level is situated at FL60.
At what level is the probability of airframe icing the highest?
a. Between FL20 and FL60
b. Between FL60 and FL120
c. At FL140
d. Between FL120 and FL180
e. Above FL250
23. The procedures that are design according to ICAO 8168 have been developed for ?
a. The following operational conditions: RVR lower than 550m and cloud base lower than 200ft
AGL
b. Normal and non-normal operating conditions
c. Emergency conditions
d. Normal operating condition
24. Considering VR, which statement is correct?
a. VR is the lowest climb speed after engine failure
b. VR is the lowest speed for directional control in case of engine failure
c. In case of engine failure below VR the take-off should be aborted
d. VR is the speed at which rotation should be initiated
25. As far as instrument approaches are concerned, what is meant by the term “shuttle”?
a. A ground service vehicle requiring crossing of a Cat II or Cat III runway
b. Simultaneously departures from parallel or near-parallel instrument runways
c. A short-distance ferry light requiring rapid co-ordination between ATS units
d. A descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern
26. Which of the following statements about TETAN 1A standard departure chart are correct?
a. The altitude at which Cape Town Radar control must be contacted will be confirmed in the
ATC departure clearance
b. If the SID is in force, an aircraft that cannot comply with the minimum climb gradient on the
chart may not take off
c. Single-engine aeroplanes are not allowed to depart on this SID
d. Aircraft only equipped with RNAV equipment may also fly this procedure
27. You are the pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is inbound to FAOR at FL140. Due to airspace
congestion, ATC instruct you to hold at 170kts at the PNV radio beacon.
The duration of the holds which you will fly should be?
a. 3 minutes
b. 6 minutes
c. 4 minutes
d. 5 minutes
e. None of the above
28. SBAS refer to?
a. A basic mode S transponder (to simplify ATC surveillance)
b. First-generation ADS-B surveillance (for GNSS-based ATC surveillance)
c. An aircraft stability augmentation system (an autopilot)
d. A satellite-based augmentation system (to improve GNSS performance)
29. What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck?
a. High group performance despite the strained relations
b. Performance is very poor as self-centered behavior leads to an increase of cooperation and
efficiency
c. A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is unassertive
d. In a two-pilot flight deck the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging, showing
delayed responses or delayed responses or
30. Refer to chart above
The transition altitude at Bloemfontein (Bram Fischer International Airport) is?
(2 marks)
a. 7800ft
b. 8000ft
c. Given by ATC
d. Different for every instrument approach procedure
e. Different in IMC than in VMC
31. Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the aeroplane stabilization are:
1- Pitch altitude holding
2- Indicated airspeed or Mach number holding
3- Horizontal wing holding
4- Displayed heading or inertial track holding
5- VOR axis holding

The combination that regroups all the correct statements is:

a. 1, 2, 4
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 3, 4
32. An IFR aircraft is inbound to FAPN (Pilanesberg International Airport) on PNV R-030 at FL80. In
terms of the published instrument approach procedure, what should the pilot is next action to
be?
a. If ATC approves the procedure turn approach, he should fly outbound on PNV radial 233,
descending to 6100ft and conduct a procedure turn to the left
b. He should first descend from 7600ft to 7400ft in the hold
c. He should cross the beacon and turn right onto the outbound heading of 233 (M), correcting
for wind
d. He must first enter the hold to determine the timing and drift effect of the wind
33. If the pilot of category B turbine-engine aeroplane maintain the maximum allowable speed for
this instrument approach procedure on the outbound leg, what would the aeroplane’s rate of
descent be?
a. 690 fpm
b. 990 fpm
c. 890 fpm
d. 790 fpm
34. A CB with thunderstorm has reached its mature stage, which statement is correct?
a. Electrically charged cloud particles will generally not adhere to an airframe travelling at high
speed
b. In temperatures lower than -23°C icing is still possible
c. Severe turbulence occurs in the cloud, but hardly ever below the cloud
d. If hail occurs, it only occurs in the downdrafts.
e. The freezing level inside the cloud lies lower than outside the cloud
35. The needle pointer of a radio compass with a fix value rose indicates?
(1 mark)
a. The relative bearing from the NDB station to the aircraft
b. The relative bearing from the aircraft to the NDB station
c. The magnetic track to steer from the NDB station to the aircraft
d. The magnetic track to steer to the NDB station
36. The maximum quantity of the fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft’s tanks is given as 2200L. If
fuel density (SG) is given 0,79 the weight of fuel which may be loaded is?
a. 2098 kg
b. 2785 kg
c. 1738 kg
37. What is “automation complacency”
a. The circumstance where the pilot flies the aircraft manually because he is unable to rely on
the automatic systems flying the aircraft safely
b. No over-ride facility is available on the auto-flight selection as there are enough levels of
redundancy to cope with any system failure
c. The circumstance where monitoring and cross-checking is reduced because of the belief in
the infallibility of the automatic
d. Automation is now so reliable that the human input is no longer necessary
38. Which cross-section of the air mass and cloud presentation is applicable to the straight line A-B?
(1 mark)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
39. Compressed snow which resist further compression indicates
(1 mark)
a. Slush
b. A dry runway
c. A damp runway
d. A contaminated runway
e. A dry runway due to the absence of moisture
40. “Category IIIB (Cat IIIB) operation” means
a. A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 50ft(15m) or
no decision height, RVR less than 200m but not less than 50m
b. A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 30ft or no
decision height, and RVR less than 200m
c. A precision instrument approach and landing with a decision height lower than 100ft(30m)
or no decision height, RVR more than 200m
41. The widest precipitation zone usually occurs
(1 mark)
a. ahead of a warm front
b. ahead of a cold front
c. in the rear of a warm front
d. in the rear of a cold front
42. Increasing air density will have the following effect on the drag of a body in an airstream (angle
of attack and TAS are constant)
a. The drag is only affected by the ground speed
b. The drag increases
c. This has no effect
d. The drag decreases
43. You aborted a take-off in a piston engine aircraft due to another aircraft crossing the runway
without being cleared to do so. Very hard brake pressure was applied.
Which action would be most appropriate after stopping?
(1 mark)
a. Run the propeller to utilize cooling airflow
b. Request the fire department to slowly pour a small amount of water over the wheel assembly
c. Shut down the engines and evacuate
d. Obtain instruction from ATC, taxi to the runway holding point and wait to be re-cleared for
take-off
44. South African altimeter setting procedures have to be comply with by all aircraft
a. In level flight at or above 1500ft above ground or water
b. Above 1500ft above ground or water
c. On IFR flight plans only
d. Operating in controlled airspace only
45. After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the direction towards the cold air,
what will you encounter at FL50, in the northern hemisphere, immediately after a marked change
in temperature?
a. a veering in the wind direction
b. an increase in tailwind
c. a decrease in tailwind
d. a backing in the wind direction
46. The value of the parasite drag in straight and level flight at constant weight varies linearly with?
a. Square of the angle of attack
b. Square of the speed
c. Angle of attack
d. Speed
47. Almanac data stored in the receiver of the satellite navigation system NAVSTAR/GPS is used for?
a. Recognition whether Selective Availability (SA) is operative
b. Correction of receiver clock error
c. Assignment of received PRN-codes (Pseudo Random Noise) to the appropriate satellite
d. Fast identification of received signals coming from visible satellites
48. “take off distance available” means?
a. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of stopway, if such stopway is declared
available and is capable of bearing the mass of the aeroplane under the prevailing operating
conditions.
b. The length of runway which is declared available and suitable for the ground run of an
aeroplane taking off
c. The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway available
49. The relationship of the reference landing speed (VREF) to the reference stalling speed in the landing
configuration (VSRO) is that VREF may not be below?
a. VSRO
b. 1.1 VSRO
c. 1.32 VSRO
d. 1.23 VSRO
50. In terms of GNSS flight operations, turn anticipation is always used?
a. for the missed approach point of an RNAV (GNSS) approach
b. for a fly-by waypoint
c. for GBAS departures
d. during instrument departures

51. Refer to the instrument approach chart above in conjunction with the METAR
FALE 041230Z 09012KT 2500 SCT010 BKN030 26/22 Q1010 NOSIG=
Which of the red letters indicates the approximate latest point at which the aircraft should be in
the landing configuration while flying a stabilized approach?
(2 marks)
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
52. Xxxxx
53. To maintain good situational awareness you should:
(1) believe only in your interpretation of your data
(2) gather as much as possible from ever possible source before making inferences
(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the situation as events progress and try to
make time to review the situation
(4) consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it correct
a. all answers are correct
b. 1 and 3 are correct
c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1 and 4 are correct
54. At a TAS of 200kts and a given endurance, the PSR/PNR is 650NM from the point of departure in
zero wind condition. With a 60kts headwind on the outbound leg, the revised PSR/PNR is___?
(3 marks)
a. 59 NM closer
b. 95 NM closer
c. 195 NM further
d. 332 NM closer
e. 449 NM further
55. Complete the sentence.
An instrument cross-checking pattern that is particularly well suited to an electronic flight display
is the _____ scan ?
(1 mark)
a. Offset
b. Standard
c. Inverted-V
d. Rectangular
e. Selective radial
56. Xxx
57. A GBAS landing (GLS) system is
a. a GNSS precision approach and landing system using correction signals from a VHF ground-
based system
b. an approach and landing operation using ILS glideslope information for vertical guidance and
GNSS SBAS for enhanced lateral guidance
c. any GNSS approach flown using satellite guidance signals from the Russian GLONASS system
d. any approach and landing system using ground-based installation e.g. ILS and VOR/DME
58. You suspect there is wind shear whilst flying in IMC.
Which instrument indications could alert you to the presence of wind shear?
(1 mark)
a. sudden variations in the DI reading
b. sudden airspeed variations on the ASI
c. a gradual and persistent decrease in airspeed
d. altimeter indications increasing and decreasing by 50ft
59. Density altitude is used to determine?
a. absolute altitude
b. true altitude
c. aircraft performance
60. Refer to the image above
The surface markings contained in the red square are?
a. enhanced taxiway centre line markings
b. taxiway edge marking
c. CAT III runway-holding point and markings
d. Runway lead-in markings
e. Apron line markings
61. Select both correct option to obtain the allocated mark
Maximum VOR range is affected by the following factor:
(1 mark)
a. transmission power
b. cumulonimbus activity in the vicinity of the transmitter
c. height of the receiver
d. cumulonimbus activity in the vicinity of either the transmitter or receiver
e. twilight effect
62. Which of the following factors is most important when evaluating how to best manage to threat
of a bird strike after departure?
a. Keeping in mind that reduced thrust setting for take-off are prohibited at airports with known
birds control problems
b. Considering the time of day
c. Adjusting the scanning range of the airborne weather radar
63. When is wake turbulence at its strongest?
a. Light and slow
b. Light and fast
c. Heavy and slow
d. Heavy and fast
64. If the QFE at Locarno (200m AMSL) is 980 hPa, what is the approximate QNH?
To answer this question, assume a pressure lapse rate of 1 hPa/27ft
(2 marks)
a. 960 hPa
b. 1000 hPa
c. 1005 hPa
d. 1015 hPa
e. 1010 hPa
65. Unless otherwise authorize by the responsible ATSU, an ATS flight plan for a flight to be conducted
in controlled or advisory airspace, shall be filed?
a. If filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted
in such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible ATSU at least 5 minutes before the
aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into the controlled or advisory
airspace.
b. For international flight, at least 30 minutes before departure.
c. For domestic flight, at least 30 minutes before departure.

66. Refer to the instrument chart approach chart section above.

A flight crew is inbound to Maseru in IMC. In terms of CFIT awareness, they should consider?
(2 marks)
a. The MDH is lower than allowed in South Africa VOR system minima
b. The approach procedure incorrectly allows a descending turn onto the final approach
segment
c. The approach angle is steeper than normal
d. The GPWS might have to be disarmed to avoid false warnings on the outbound leg
e. The holding pattern might not provide sufficient terrain clearance due to unusually high
ground to the east
67. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) operates in the ?
a. VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
b. SHF band and uses frequency modulation techniques
c. UHF band and uses two frequencies
d. UHF band and uses one frequency
68. Presbycusis result in:
a. reduction in the perception of low tones first
b. reduction in the perception of all tones equally
c. will not affect a pilot’s hearing if he/she is wearing ear-plugs all the time
d. reduction in the perception of high tones first
69. It is generally considered that the most serious non-professional stressor is “
a. loss of job
b. personal injury or illness
c. marital separation
d. death of spouse or partner
70. No owner or operator of an aircraft shall conduct single pilot operation under IMC or at night
unless such aircraft has been certificated for single pilot and :
1. The single pilot flying is equipped with the headset with boom microphone or equivalent and
has a transmit button position in such a way that it may be operated without the pilot having
to remove his or her hands from the controlled wheel, joystick or cyclic stick
2. If the aircraft is flown under IMC, such aircraft has been certificated for single pilot operations
and equipped with a serviceable automatic flight control system with at least altitude hold
and heading mode
a. 1 is correct, 2 is correct
b. 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect
c. 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct
71. Which of the following ATC centers in South Africa supplies secondary surveillance radar service?
a. Lanseria International Airport
b. Upington International Airport
c. Polokwane International Airport
d. Bloemfontein/ Bram Fischer International Airport
72. An aeroplane is in straight and level flight
If centre of gravity is forward of the centre of pressure of the combined wing/fuselage
The vertical load on tailplane will be
(1 mark)
a. zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium
b. upwards
c. downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the centre of gravity
d. downwards
73. If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should?
a. scan the surroundings
b. continue on instruments
c. use your oxygen mask
d. dim the cockpit lighting
74. Airborne Weather Radar has been primarily developed to detect
a. Areas of wind shear and severe aircraft icing
b. All kinds of frozen precipitation such as hail, snow and graupel
c. The kinds of precipitation which are usually accompanied by turbulence
d. Areas of severe clear air turbulence
75. The tropopause is lower
(1 mark)
a. over the equator than over the south pole
b. over the north pole than over the equator
c. south of the equator than north of it
d. in summer than in winter in moderate latitudes
76. A 45°/180° procedure turn starts at fix or facility, is followed by a straight leg with track guidance,
a 45° turn, a straight leg without track guidance and a 180° turn in the opposite direction to
intercept the inbound track. The straight leg without track guidance is?
a. 1 minute from the start of the turn or reaching the limiting DME distance, whichever happens
earlier
b. 1 minute from the completion of the turn for Category A and B aircraft or when reaching the
limiting radial or DME distance, whichever happens earlier
c. 1 minute from completion of the turn for Category A to D aircraft
d. 1 minute 15 seconds from the start of the turn for the Category C, D and E aircraft
77. Select the correct option or options
The purpose of trimming is to?
(2 marks)
a. Ensure basic aircraft control for flight aircraft that do not have an autopilot or wing-leveler
system
b. Reduce the pilot workload
c. Make fine adjustment to aircraft altitude
d. Allows small attitude changes to be made without disrupting the position of the controls
e. Assist with smooth aircraft control
78. Pressure altitude is obtained by:
a. adjusting the altimeter subscale to compensate for a non-standard pressure lapse rate
b. setting the altimeter to a station pressure which has been corrected to sea level
c. correcting the altimeter for temperature deviation from ISA
d. setting the altimeter to QFF pressure
e. setting the altimeter to standard sea level pressure
79. When scanning, how does the eye move and how is smooth vision achieved?
a. the eyes move in short jerky movements which last for several seconds. Smooth vision is
achieved by the cerebellum
b. the eyes move in short jerky movements called sarades. Smooth vision is created by the
cerebellum
c. the eyes move in short jerky movements which last for approximately 1/3 of a second.
Smooth vision is achieved by the optic nerve centre
d. the eyes move in short jerky movements called saccades. Smooth vision is achieved in the
visual cortex
80. A failure of the glideslope will be displayed on the flight director
a. with a red glide slope warning flag and will cover ant glideslope indications
b. will display an electronic warning annunciator within the screen
c. an erratic fly up and down command will be displayed
81. When using the continuous descent final approach technique for vertical flight path control during
non-precision approaches, the descent shall be
a. interrupted only by a smooth levelling-off before every step down fix
b. terminated at the MAP only
c. smooth and uninterrupted until leveling off at MDA
d. flown to pass or above the minimum altitude at any stepdown fix
82. What is the audio frequency of the inner marker?
a. 400 Hz
b. 3000 Hz
c. 75 MHz
d. 1300 Hz
83. Va is defined as?
a. design maneuvering speed
b. true atmospheric air speed
c. absolute maximum airspeed
84. South African noise abatement procedures apply to?
a. turboprop and turbojet/turbofan aeroplanes only
b. jet aeroplane only
c. all aircraft with a maximum all-up weight (MAUW) in excess of 5700kg
d. all aircraft
85. Refer of the following TAF extract:
BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 PROB30 TEMPO 2124 0500 FG VV001
What does the abbreviation “PROB30” means?
(1 mark)
a. A change is expected in less than 30 minutes
b. The cloud ceiling is likely to lift to 3000ft
c. The probability of change in the indicated weather is 30% or less
d. Condition will last for at least 30 minutes
e. The likelihood of the forecast element changing is insufficient to warrant the use of the
change indicator
86. Refer to the prognostic above in conjunction with the incomplete weather code below
(chart courtesy of SAWS)
041200Z 33008KT 280V080 9999 FEW045 30/13 Q1006 NOSIG=
Assume the code applies to an aerodrome at position 30°S25°E
What is the approximate density altitude at 17000ft?
(Assume ISA temperature lapse rate, a temperature correction of 120ft/°C and factor of XX hPa
(either 27/30hPa)
(3 marks)
a. 15800 ft
b. 17400 ft
c. 18000 ft
d. 18600 ft
e. 19300 ft
87. Complete the sentence
An aircraft has undertaken an anti-icing procedure
If it has exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid, the aircraft ….?
(1 mark)
a. must undertake a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti-icing fluid before take-
off
b. does not require a new anti-icing procedure before take-off
c. must only undertake a de-icing procedure before take-off
d. must only undertake a new anti-icing procedure before take-off
88. Refer to the image above
Select both correct options to obtain the allocated marks.
The correct flight director indication for a “fly up” only command is?
(2 marks)
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 8
e. 9
89. Refer to the instrument chart above.
Select both applicable options for 2 marks or one option for 1 mark
An aircraft is inbound to Richard Bay aerodrome on QDM240 “RI.”
The most recent meteorological report states that the condition at the aerodrome are “CAVOK”
Which of the following code elements are the lowest values required for this observation to be
valid?
(2 marks)
a. FEW037
b. SCT060TCU
c. R23/P1500U
d. BKN050
e. 9999
90. The UHF bands is the assigned frequency band of the ?
a. outer marker beacon
b. all the ILS marker beacon
c. ILS localizer transmitter
d. ILS glide path transmitter
91. The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are?
a. VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
b. VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
c. VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit
d. VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
92. On which airway will an aircraft fly between George (S34.00.4 E22.22.6) and Petrusville (S30.22.0
E024.41.7) FL250?
a. UW66
b. W/UW66
c. It depends on which direction you are flying in
d. W66
93. Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?
1. Stress Factor (Stressor)
2. Errors
3. The effect of carbon monoxide poisoning
4. Human conflict
5. Colour blindness
a. 2, 3 and 5 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
94. In an airborne Weather Radar the areas of greatest turbulence are usually indicated on the
screen by?
a. colour zones of green and yellow
b. areas which are colour black
c. colour zones of red and magenta
d. blank areas where there is no colour
95. Select both of the applicable options to obtain the allocated mark
A stabilized approach means that ?
(1 mark)
a. The landing checklist has been completed
b. The flight terminates in a precision approach
c. The approach is conducted in IMC
d. The aircraft is established on the correct flight path during the final approach segment
e. The approach is conducted in VMC
96. The behavioural effects of stress may include:
-1: manifestation of aggressiveness
-2: a willingness to improve communication
-3: a willingness for group cohesion
-4: a tendency to withdrawal
The combination of correct statements is :
a. 1 and 4 are correct
b. 3 and 4 are correct
c. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
97. Complete the sentence
A controller uses a VDF unit to assist an aircraft and passes a QDM of 050° to the pilot. This means
that the aircraft is ____ of the aerodrome.
(1 mark)
a. south-east
b. north-west
c. south-west
d. north-east
98. Which of the following equipment works on the interrogator/transponder principle?
a. Aerodrome Surface Movement Radar
b. Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)
c. Airborne Weather Radar (AWR)
d. Global Positioning System (GPS)
99. During the climb after take-off, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the transition altitude
If the local QNH is 966 hPa, what will happen to the altimeter reading during the resetting
procedure?
(1 mark)
a. It will remain the same
b. It will increase
c. It will decrease
d. It is not possible to give a definitive answer
100. General Adaptation Syndrome is characterized by the following phases:
-1: alarm
-2: alert phase
-3: resistance phase
-4: exhaustion phase
-5: vigilance phase
a. 1, 2, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4
101. Refer to the image below.

For a typical light piston-engine training aircraft, the displayed flight attitude is representative of
straight and level flight
(1 mark)
a. TRUE
b. FALSE