7/4/23, 2:28 PM RBI Grade B - All India Mock Test - AIM - Phase 1-complete-test

RBI Grade B - All India Mock Test - AIM - Phase 1

General Awareness
Q.1) Recently (May 2023), India & _________ have launched a ‘50 start-ups exchange programme’.
[A] Nepal
[B] Singapore
[C] UAE
[D] Bangladesh
[E] Sri Lanka

Q.2) Recently in the month of June, the RBI released the draft of “Master Directions on Cyber Resilience and Digital Payment Security Controls for Payment System
Operators”, according to the draft whenever there is a change in registered mobile number or email ID linked to the payment instrument there shall be a cooling period
of minimum _________ hours before allowing any payment transaction through online modes / channels.

[A] 9
[B] 24
[C] 48
[D] 12
[E] None of the above

Q.3) Recently (June 2023), Australia has won the 2nd edition of ICC World Test Championship 2021-23 by defeating India. 2nd edition of ICC World Test Championship Final
was held in which of the following countries?

[A] New Zealand

[B] West Indies
[C] England
[D] South Africa
[E] Pakistan

Q.4) Recently (June 2023), IIM, Jammu has signed an MoU with ___________ to strengthen entrepreneurial ecosystem in India.
[A] Microsoft
[B] HDFC Bank
[C] Small Industries Development Bank of India
[D] National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
[E] National Skill Development Corporation

Q.5) Recently (June 2023), Women 20 Summit has taken place in Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu. The theme of this year’s summit is _________________.
[A] Women’s Entrepreneurship
[B] Grassroot Women Leadership
[C] Bridging the Gender Digital Divide
[D] Education & Skill Development, and Climate Change Led by Women
[E] Women-Led Development- Transform, Thrive and Transcend

Q.6) Recently (May 2023), Zomato has inked pact with ________ to launch its own UPI.
[A] IndusInd Bank
[B] IDFC First Bank
[C] Axis Bank
[D] ICICI Bank
[E] State Bank of India

Q.7) Which of the following statements is/are correct with regards to the Open Network for Digital Commerce?

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A.   It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India.

B.   It is a section 12 company under Companies Act, 2013.

C.   Its objective is democratization and decentralization of e-commerce.

[A] A and B
[B] B and C
[C] A and C
[D] C only
[E] A, B and C

Q.8) Recently (May 2023), the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has constituted a Cheetah Project Steering Committee. Which of the following statements is/are
incorrect with regards to Cheetah Project Steering Committee?

[A] Dr Rajesh Gopal, Secretary General, Global Tiger Forum is the committee chairperson.
[B] Total members of the committee are 11.
[C] Tenure of the committee is one year.
[D] Objective is to review, progress, monitor and advice on the Cheetah introduction to the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department.
[E] None of the above

Q.9) Which of the following organization has recently (In June) released the “National Energy Data: Survey and Analysis Year 2021-22”?
[A] The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
[B] Bureau of Energy Efficiency
[C] The International Energy Agency
[D] National Thermal Power Corporation Limited
[E] The Energy and Resources Institute

Q.10) Recently (May 2023), Neeraj Chopra, clinched the top spot in the javelin event of the Doha Diamond League with a throw of ________.
[A] 85.63 m
[B] 88.67 m
[C] 91.88 m
[D] 90.67 m
[E] 87.63 m

Q.11) Recently (May 2023), which of the following banks has introduced digital distribution platform ‘Smart Saathi’ to connect business correspondents (BCs) and
business facilitators (BFs) to the bank?

[A] HDFC Bank

[B] Axis Bank
[C] Canara Bank
[D] Bank of India
[E] IDFC First abnk

Q.12) The Reserve Bank has recently (In June) opened a sub-office at _______, with this the RBI’s presence in Northeast region now includes Assam, Manipur,
Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland
[A] Imphal
[B] Aizawl
[C] Itanagar
[D] Kohima
[E] Agartala

Q.13) Recently (June 2023), Global Alliance for Mass Entrepreneurship (GAME) has received in-principal approval from ___________ for designing and structuring a
sustainable and scalable NBFC Growth Accelerator Program (NGAP).

[A] RBI

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[B] SEBI
[C] SIDBI
[D] Ministry of Corporate Affairs
[E] Ministry of Finance and RBI

Q.14) According to the Branch Authorization Policy for (UCBs) – General Permission, how many new branches are UCBs permitted to open in a financial year without
requiring permission from the Reserve Bank of India?

[A] Up to 10 branches
[B] Up to 15 branches
[C] Up to 5 branches
[D] Up to 20 branches
[E] No specific limit

Q.15) Recently (April 2023), Reliance General Insurance has become the first company to start accepting premium payments in eRupee or the Central Bank Digital
Currency (CBDC) - through a partnership with __________.

[A] Bank of Baroda

[B] Razorpay
[C] Axis Bank
[D] Punjab National Bank
[E] Yes Bank

Q.16) Recently (May 2023), Defence Minister Rajnath Singh has inaugurated the first-of-its-kind Indian Air Force (IAF) Heritage Centre in __________.
[A] Guwahati
[B] Srinagar
[C] Indore
[D] Chandigarh
[E] Jaisalmer

Q.17) As per recent (May 2023) news, First Republic Bank has been acquired by which of the following banks?
[A] UBS Group AG
[B] BNP Paribas
[C] Goldman Sachs
[D] JPMorgan Chase & Co
[E] Morgan Stanley

Q.18) According to the recently (In June) released Global Slavery Index by the Walk Free Foundation, 49.6 million people are living in modern slavery all over the world, out of
which, India is home to __________.

[A] 14 million
[B] 13 million
[C] 11 million
[D] 16 million
[E] 10 million

Q.19) Recently (June 2023), _________ has become the first public sector bank to introduce an IVR-based UPI solution.
[A] Bank of Baroda
[B] Indian Bank
[C] Bank of India
[D] UCO Bank
[E] Punjab National Bank

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Q.20) Khartoum city has been in news recently (May 2023). It is located in which of the following countries?
[A] Russia
[B] Ukraine
[C] Iran
[D] Yemen
[E] Sudan

Q.21) In a first, _______ has launched ‘My Account My Name’ for savings bank account holders. The account name can be a combination of seven letters only or seven
numbers only or seven alphanumeric.

[A] Indian Bank

[B] Bank of India
[C] Indian Overseas Bank
[D] Canara Bank
[E] Bank of Baroda

Q.22) According to the recently (In June) released Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies, which of the following banks are excluded from setting their
own limits for borrowing in Call and Notice Money Markets?

[A] Small Finance Banks

[B] Schedule Commercial Bank
[C] Cooperative Banks
[D] Regional Rural Banks
[E] Payments Banks

Q.23) Recently (June 2023), IRDAI has modified the existing ‘use and file’ procedure for life insurance products. The use and file procedure _________.
[A] allows an insurer to launch a product first and then file its details with the regulator.
[B] allows an insurer to launch a product and file its details with the regulator at the same time.
[C] allows the consumer to use a product first and then pay its premium.
[D] All of the above
[E] None of the above

Q.24) What is the duration of non-Permanent members of United Nations Security Council?
[A] 1 year

[B] 4 years

[C] 2 years

[D] 5 years

[E] 6 years

Q.25) __________ has emerged as the best bank with its net non-performing assets (NPAs) falling as low as 0.25 per cent during the financial year ended March 2023.
[A] HDFC Bank
[B] Kotak Mahindra Bank
[C] Bank of India
[D] Bank of Maharashtra
[E] Punjab National Bank

Q.26) Pradhan Manti Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana offers life cover in case of death due to any reason against a premium of ____ per annum.

[A] Rs. 336

[B] Rs. 320

[C] Rs. 436

[D] Rs. 536

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[E] Rs. 420

Q.27) Recently (June 2023), ________ has launched its payment gateway with zero setup, annual maintenance fee for MSME merchants
[A] Paytm
[B] Google Pay
[C] Groww
[D] PhonePe
[E] Zerodha

Q.28) As per recent (May 2023) news, PM Narendra Modi has inaugurated new Parliament house. The new Parliament building can seat _________ members in the Lok
Sabha chamber.

[A] 765
[B] 808
[C] 888
[D] 865
[E] 825

Q.29) Recently (June 2023), __________ has entered into a tie-up with Sequoia Capital-backed fintech Hubble to introduce India’s first spending account.
[A] Fino Payments Bank
[B] Paytm Payments Bank
[C] Bank of Baroda
[D] HDFC Bank
[E] Punjab & Sind Bank

Q.30) As per recent (June 2023) news, ________ will establish India’s 1st Lithium-ion cell manufacturing gigafactory in Gujarat.
[A] Vedanta Ltd.
[B] Exide Industries
[C] Mahindra & Mahindra
[D] Tata Power
[E] Ola Electric Ltd.

Q.31) Which among the following initiative announced in Budget 2023-24 to incentivize States and Union Territories to promote alternative fertilizers and
balanced use of chemical fertilizers?

[A] MISHTI

[B] PM-PRANAM
[C] Amrit Dharohar scheme

[D] Green Credit Programme

[E] GOBARdhan

Q.32) Recently (June 2023), Appointments Committee of the Cabinet has appointed Amit Agarwal as new CEO of ____________.
[A] National Testing Agency
[B] National Health Authority
[C] Unique Identification Authority of India
[D] National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)
[E] National Highways Authority of India

Q.33) As per the recently (In June) issued “Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending” by the RBI, the Regulated Entities shall ensure that the
total amount of DLG cover on any outstanding portfolio which is specified upfront shall not exceed ______ of the amount of that loan portfolio.

[A] 9%
[B] 8%
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[C] 4%
[D] 5%
[E] 7%

Q.34) Recently (Jan 2023), 100-day Global City Campaign has been launched in which of the
following states?

[A] Uttar Pradesh

[B] Rajasthan
[C] Punjab
[D] Gujarat
[E] Telangana

Q.35) Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with regards to Tele-Law?
[A] It was launched in 2017.
[B] It is an e-interface mechanism to seek legal advice and consultation at a pre-litigation stage.
[C] Advice is free of Cost to those who are eligible for free legal aid under Section 12 of LSA (legal service authority) Act, 1987.
[D] All of the above
[E] None of the above

Q.36) Which among the following states are covered under Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) Project?

A. Himachal Pradesh
B. Gujarat

C. Odisha

[A] A and B

[B] A and C

[C] B and C
[D] A, B and C

[E] None of the above

Q.37) Recently (June 2023), World Sickle Cell Day has been observed on which of the following day?
[A] June 23rd
[B] June 19th
[C] June 16th
[D] June 20th
[E] June 25th

Q.38) Recently (May 2023), Bilateral Naval Exercise ‘Samudra Shakti 23’ has been held between India and which of the following countries?
[A] Greece
[B] Japan
[C] Mongolia
[D] Indonesia
[E] Maldives

Q.39) Recently (June 2023), The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) has adopted Resolution to establish a new Memorial Wall for fallen Peacekeepers. The resolution
was piloted by which of the following countries?

[A] India
[B] France
[C] USA
[D] China
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[E] Bangladesh

Q.40) Recently (May 2023), who among the following has written the book “Made In India: 75 Years of Business and Enterprise”?
[A] Sashi Tharoor
[B] Bimal Jalan
[C] Urjit Patel
[D] Amitabh Kant
[E] KK Shailaja

Q.41) Under the Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN), the beneficiaries visiting public health facilities are entitled to several free services. Which of the
following statements is/are correct with respect to the scheme?

A. At least 4 ante natal check-ups.

B. 4 Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC) Visits.

C. Drop Back from Institution to Home After Due Discharge (Minimum 48 Hrs).

D. Assured Referral Services with Scope of Reaching Health Facility within 1 Hour of Any Critical Case Emergency

[A] A, B and C

[B] A, C and D
[C] B, C and D

[D] A, B, C and D

[E] None of the above

Q.42) Under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme  (MGNREGS), what is the minimum guaranteed unskilled wage employment
(in days) in areas facing drought/ natural calamity?

[A] 100 days

[B] 125 days

[C] 150 days

[D] 175 days

[E] 200 days

Q.43) Recently (June 2023), ________ has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Directorate General of Training (DGT), Ministry of Skills Development and
Entrepreneurship (MSDE), to train 6,000 students and 200 educators in digital and cyber-security skills in the country.

[A] Google

[B] Infosys

[C] Meta

[D] Microsoft

[E] Tech Mahindra

Q.44) Recently (June 2023), data regarding Gross Direct tax collection has been released, which shows the Gross Direct Tax collections for Financial Year (FY) 2023-24 to be
____________.

[A] Rs. 3,79,760 crore

[B] Rs. 3,41,568 crore

[C] Rs. 1,16,776 crore

[D] Rs. 3,71,982 crore

[E] Rs. 4,19,338 crore

Q.45) Recently (June 2023), Silvio Berlusconi, _________ ex-Prime Minister has passed away.
[A] Italy’s
[B] France’s
[C] Israel’s

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[D] Germany’s
[E] Canada’s

Q.46) Recently (May 2023), UGC has launched _________, a common Faculty Recruitment portal for Central universities.
[A] ‘CU-Faculty’
[B] ‘CU-Chayan’
[C] ‘CU-Prammann’
[D] ‘CU-Acharya’
[E] ‘CU-Shikshak’

Q.47) Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to the FAME India II scheme?

A. Under FAME-II scheme, the demand incentive for e-2W is increased to Rs. 15,000/KWh from Rs. 10,000/KWh with an increase in cap from 20% to 40% of
cost of vehicle to increase adoption of e-2W.

B. Ministry of Ministry of Road Transport and Highways is Nodal Ministry of the scheme.

C. The scheme has been extended till 2024.

[A] B and C

[B] Only B

[C] Only C
[D] A, B and C

[E] None of the above

Instruction: The Government of India has taken several steps for conservation of biodiversity which includes survey, inventorization, taxonomic validation and threat
assessment of floral and faunal resources; assessment to develop an accurate data base for planning and monitoring as well as conservation and protection of
forests; establishment of a protected area network of National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries, conservation and community reserves; designating Biosphere Reserves for
conservation of representative ecosystems; undertaking of species oriented programmes, such as Project Tiger, Project Elephant, Project Dolphin; complemented
with ex-situ conservation efforts.

Q.48) Project Tiger was launched in 1973 and it initially started with ______ tiger reserves.
[A] 6
[B] 2
[C] 5
[D] 8
[E] 9

Q.49) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to the Employees’ Pension Scheme,1995 (EPS,1995)?

A. Membership is valid till person attains age of 60 years, or avails withdrawal benefit to which he is entitled, or dies, or pension is vested in him.

B. Of the employer's share of 12 % in Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF), 8.33 % diverted towards the EPS.

C. Central Government also contribute 1.16 % of the pay of the members of Employees' Pension Scheme and credit the contribution to Employees' Pension
Fund.
[A] A and B

[B] A and C

[C] B and C

[D] A, B and C

[E] None of the above

Q.50) Recently (June 2023), the U.N. has adopted the world's first treaty to protect the high seas and preserve marine biodiversity in international waters. Which of the
following statements is/are incorrect with regards to the treaty?

[A] The agreement will be open for signature in New York for two years starting September 20th
[B] It will take effect after 100 countries ratify the agreement.
[C] It is also known as Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction treaty.
[D] It is a legally binding agreement.
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[E] None of the above

Q.51) Recently (June 2023), Gandhi Peace Prize for 2021 has been won by which of the following people/entities?
[A] Mujibur Rahman
[B] Sulabh International
[C] Gita Press, Gorakhpur
[D] ISRO
[E] Qaboos bin Said Al Said

Q.52) Recently (May 2023), Linda Yaccarino, the former head of advertising at NBC Universal has been appointed as CEO of which of the following companies?
[A] Twitter
[B] Disney Hotstar
[C] Zoom Video Communications, Inc.
[D] Meta
[E] Netflix

Q.53) What is targeted investment under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana?
[A] INR 6,000 crore

[B] INR 5,000 crore

[C] INR 4,000 crore

[D] INR 9,000 crore

[E] INR 7,000 crore

Q.54) Which of the following statements best defines the term ‘Revenue receipts’?
[A] receipts that do not create any liabilities and do not lead to a claim on the government.
[B] recurring income that is earned from sources other than taxes by the government.
[C] receipts that results in the creation of liabilities or the reduction of financial assets.
[D] sum of all receipts from the taxes and all other duties under the government.
[E] None of the above

Q.55) Recently (June 2023), the World Bank (WB) has launched its first dedicated road safety project in South Asia with a USD 358 million financing agreement signed with
the government of _________.

[A] India
[B] Bangladesh
[C] Pakistan
[D] Sri Lanka
[E] Bhutan

Q.56) Recently (May 2023), PM has laid the foundation stone of Laser Interferometer Gravitational Wave Observatory – India (LIGO-India) in which of the following
states/UTs?

[A] Tamil Nadu

[B] Sikkim
[C] Ladakh
[D] Maharashtra
[E] Arunachal Pradesh

Q.57) According to the recently (In June) released Global Gender Gap report by the World Economic Forum, India was ranked at __________ out of 146 countries an improvement of
eight places from last year.

[A] 123
[B] 137

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[C] 127
[D] 117
[E] 125

Q.58) What is the theme of the World Press Freedom Day 2023, which was observed on 3rd May?
[A] Journalism without Fear or Favour
[B] Information as a Public Good
[C] Journalism under Digital Siege
[D] Shaping a Future of Rights: Freedom of expression as a driver for all other human
rights

[E] None of the above

Q.59) As per recent (Feb 2023) news, India's first frozen-lake marathon ‘Last Run’ has been organized at Pangong Tso (lake), Leh District, Ladakh. It has been
officially registered in the Guinness Book of World Records as the world's highest Frozen Lake marathon. Pangong Tso is located at what altitude?
[A] 16,862 feet

[B] 12,862 feet

[C] 19,862 feet

[D] 13,862 feet

[E] None of the above

Q.60) Recently (In June), the Reserve Bank released the web publication ‘Deposits with Scheduled Commercial Banks – March 2023’. Consider the following
statements regarding the same.

A. Deposits with SCBs grew by 5% during 2022-23

B. Senior citizens contributed about half of total deposits as at end-March 2023.

C. The share of female senior citizens in total deposits with SCBs stood at 7.2 per cent.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

[A] Only A
[B] Only B
[C] Both A and B
[D] Only C
[E] Both A and C

Q.61) Justine Triet’s “_________” has won the Palme d’Or at the 76th Cannes Film Festival in a ceremony that bestowed the festival’s prestigious top prize on an engrossing,
rigorously plotted French courtroom drama that puts a marriage on trial.

[A] Earwig
[B] Anatomy of a Fall
[C] The Old Oak
[D] Justice is Done
[E] A Better Life

Q.62) Recently (June 2023), which of the following companies has partnered with ISRO to build Crew Module Recovery Models (CMRM) for Gaganyaan Mission?
[A] Tech Mahindra
[B] Tata Elxsi
[C] KPIT Tech
[D] L&T
[E] HCL Tech

Q.63) Which the following statement/s is/are incorrect with respect to Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) Scheme?

A. Objective is to increase the number of acceptance devices multi-fold in country.

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B. It is being implemented by Ministry of Finance.

C. Primary focus is to create payment acceptance infrastructure in Tier-5 and Tier-6 centres.
[A] Only A
[B] Only B

[C] B and C

[D] Only C

[E] A, B and C

Q.64) As per recent (June 2023) news, Cyclone Biparjoy, a tropical storm has been formed in the Arabian Sea. The name Biparjoy was suggested by which country?
[A] Bhutan
[B] Myanmar
[C] Bangladesh
[D] India
[E] Maldives

Q.65) Recently (March 2023), a book titled ‘India’s Struggle for Independence – Gandhian Era’ has been authored by who among the following?
[A] P. Jyothimani
[B] Rachna Bisht Rawat
[C] Adarsh Kumar Goel
[D] Sampanna Ramesh Shelar
[E] None of the above

Instruction: The Union Government has released 3rd instalment of tax devolution to State Governments amounting to ₹1,18,280 crore on 12th June, 2023, as against
normal monthly devolution of ₹59,140 crore. One advance instalment in addition to the regular instalment due in June 2023 is being released to States to enable them to
speed up capital spending, finance their development/ welfare related expenditure and also to make available resources for priority projects/ schemes.

Q.66) Under Article _______ of the Constitution of India, the Finance Commission makes recommendations to the President on the division of net tax receipts between the
center and the states.

[A] 275
[B] 324
[C] 289
[D] 280
[E] 356

Q.67) Wihu Kuh Festival (Paddy Transplantation Festival) is celebrated by which of the following tribes?
[A] Dahomey Tribe
[B] Gonds Tribe
[C] Tangsa Tribe
[D] Munda Tribe
[E] Kodaba Tribe

Q.68) For individual farmers in the North-eastern States, UTs of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, States of Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh and Island UTs of
Andaman & Nicobar and Lakshadweep, Central Financial Assistance (CFA) is available for pump capacity up to­­_____ under Component B of PM-KUSUM
scheme?

[A] 7.5 HP

[B] 15 HP
[C] 2 HP

[D] 5 HP

[E] 10 HP

Q.69) Which the following cannot sell bond under Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB) Scheme?

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A. Small Finance Banks

B. Regional Rural Banks

C. Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL)

[A] A and B

[B] Only A

[C] Only B

[D] A, B and C

[E] None of the above

Q.70) As per UNION BUDGET 2023-24, how many LPG connections provided under Ujjwala?
[A] 7.6 crore

[B] 9.6 crore

[C] 10.6 crore

[D] 8.6 crore

[E] 9.0 crore

Q.71) As per recent (June 2023) news, initiative aimed at promoting tribal artisans and their remarkable artistry, Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of
India Ltd.(TRIFED) has collaborated with _________ to supply 34,000 yoga mats.

[A] Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports

[B] Ministry of Ayush
[C] Ministry of Finance
[D] Ministry of Corporate Affairs
[E] Ministry of Commerce & Industry

Q.72) Recently (Feb 2023), NSE Indices has launched India’s first ever municipal bond index- Nifty India Municipal Bond Index. Which of the following
statements is/are correct with regards to Nifty India Municipal Bond Index?
A. Index has a base value of 100.

B.   The index is computed using the total return methodology including price return and coupon return.

C.   The index will be reviewed quarterly.

[A] A and B

[B] B and C
[C] A and C

[D] B only

[E] A, B and C

Q.73) As per recent (June 2023) news, _________ has launched Mission EVOLVE (Electric Vehicle Operations and Lending for Vibrant Ecosystem) in association with NITI
Aayog, __________, Korean-World Bank and Korean Economic Development Cooperation Fund (EDCF) to finance MSMEs in the EV space.

[A] State Bank of India; SIDBI

[B] Asian Development Bank; JICA
[C] World Bank; JICA
[D] World Bank; HDFC Bank
[E] SIDBI; World Bank

Q.74) Recently (June 2023), which of the following companies has started deliveries of ‘Armado,’ an Armoured Light Specialist Vehicle (ALSV) built for the Indian armed
forces?

[A] Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL)

[B] Tata Advanced Systems Limited
[C] Mahindra Defence Systems (MDS)
[D] L&T Limited

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[E] Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL)

Q.75) Recently (April 2023), India’s first "Water Metro" services has been inaugurated in which of the following places?
[A] Kolkata
[B] Kochi
[C] Chennai
[D] Mumbai
[E] Visakhapatnam

Q.76) “Julley Ladakh” (Hello Ladakh), an outreach programme has been organized by which of the following entities?
[A] Ministry of Culture
[B] Indian Army
[C] Indian Navy
[D] Ministry of Tourism
[E] Indian Air Force and Indian Army

Q.77) 9th International Yoga Day has been observed on which of the following days?
[A] June 22nd
[B] June 25th
[C] June 16th
[D] June 21st
[E] June 19th

Q.78) Which among the following are covered under target segment of Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme 2.0 for IT Hardware?
A. Mobiles

B. Laptops

C. Ultra small form factor devices

[A] A and B

[B] A and C

[C] B and C
[D] A, B and C

[E] None of the above

Q.79) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to the Atal Bhujal Yojana (ATAL JAL)?

A. It is being implemented in 7 states.

B. It was launched in the year 2019.

C. Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation is responsible for implementation of the yojana.

[A] A and B

[B] A and C

[C] B and C

[D] A, B and C
[E] None of the above

Q.80) Recently (May 2023), the Reserve Bank of India's board has approved the transfer of Rs 87,416 crore as surplus to the central government for the accounting year
2022–23. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) transfers its surplus profits to the Government of India in terms of the provisions of __________ of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934.

[A] Section 28
[B] Section 47
[C] Section 54

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[D] Section 37
[E] Section 44

REASONING ABILITY
Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten friends Ramesh, Rani, Savi, Ravi, Tanu, Stella, Vinu, Manu, Tanu and Krish live in a five story building that has two types of flats on each floor such that Flat A is to the west of
Flat B and no two persons live in the same flat. Each person likes a different chocolate i.e. Kitakat, Munch, Dairy milk, Cadbury, Snaxkers, Amul, Oreo, Galaxy, Perk and
Bournville. Ravi lives immediately above Manu who does not live on an odd numbered floor and both of them lives in the same types of flat. Tanu lives to the northeast of the
one who likes Snackers. The one who likes Amul chocolate lives on floor 2. The one who likes Galaxy lives to the south of Manu. Ramesh who likes Kitkat lives two floors away
from the one who likes Cadbury. Rani lives to the northeast of the one who likes Dairy milk, who lives to the west of Vinu. Krish lives to the northeast of the one who likes
Galaxy. Vinu lives three floors away from the one who likes Oreo and nobody lives to the east of him. The one who likes Bournville lives to the north of Stella who lives to the
south of the one who likes Amul but not on an odd numbered floor. The one who likes Cadbury lives to the northwest of the one who likes Amul. The one who likes Snackers
lives on an even numbered floor. The one who likes Munch and bournville lives on the adjacent floors but not below the floor 4. The one who likes Oreo lives to the east of
Anne, who lives on an odd numbered floor but not above the one who likes Cadbury.

Q.1) Who lives to the east of Ravi?

[A] Krish

[B] Manu

[C] Tanu

[D] Stella

[E] The one who likes Amul

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten friends Ramesh, Rani, Savi, Ravi, Tanu, Stella, Vinu, Manu, Tanu and Krish live in a five story building that has two types of flats on each floor such that Flat A is to the west of
Flat B and no two persons live in the same flat. Each person likes a different chocolate i.e. Kitakat, Munch, Dairy milk, Cadbury, Snaxkers, Amul, Oreo, Galaxy, Perk and
Bournville. Ravi lives immediately above Manu who does not live on an odd numbered floor and both of them lives in the same types of flat. Tanu lives to the northeast of the
one who likes Snackers. The one who likes Amul chocolate lives on floor 2. The one who likes Galaxy lives to the south of Manu. Ramesh who likes Kitkat lives two floors away
from the one who likes Cadbury. Rani lives to the northeast of the one who likes Dairy milk, who lives to the west of Vinu. Krish lives to the northeast of the one who likes
Galaxy. Vinu lives three floors away from the one who likes Oreo and nobody lives to the east of him. The one who likes Bournville lives to the north of Stella who lives to the
south of the one who likes Amul but not on an odd numbered floor. The one who likes Cadbury lives to the northwest of the one who likes Amul. The one who likes Snackers
lives on an even numbered floor. The one who likes Munch and bournville lives on the adjacent floors but not below the floor 4. The one who likes Oreo lives to the east of
Anne, who lives on an odd numbered floor but not above the one who likes Cadbury.

Q.2) How many persons live between Rani and Stella?

[A] 1

[B] 3

[C] 2

[D] 4

[E] Either (a) or (b)

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten friends Ramesh, Rani, Savi, Ravi, Tanu, Stella, Vinu, Manu, Tanu and Krish live in a five story building that has two types of flats on each floor such that Flat A is to the west of
Flat B and no two persons live in the same flat. Each person likes a different chocolate i.e. Kitakat, Munch, Dairy milk, Cadbury, Snaxkers, Amul, Oreo, Galaxy, Perk and
Bournville. Ravi lives immediately above Manu who does not live on an odd numbered floor and both of them lives in the same types of flat. Tanu lives to the northeast of the
one who likes Snackers. The one who likes Amul chocolate lives on floor 2. The one who likes Galaxy lives to the south of Manu. Ramesh who likes Kitkat lives two floors away
from the one who likes Cadbury. Rani lives to the northeast of the one who likes Dairy milk, who lives to the west of Vinu. Krish lives to the northeast of the one who likes
Galaxy. Vinu lives three floors away from the one who likes Oreo and nobody lives to the east of him. The one who likes Bournville lives to the north of Stella who lives to the
south of the one who likes Amul but not on an odd numbered floor. The one who likes Cadbury lives to the northwest of the one who likes Amul. The one who likes Snackers
lives on an even numbered floor. The one who likes Munch and bournville lives on the adjacent floors but not below the floor 4. The one who likes Oreo lives to the east of
Anne, who lives on an odd numbered floor but not above the one who likes Cadbury.

Q.3) Find the odd one out.

[A] Vinu

[B] Tanu

[C] Manu

[D] Stella

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[E] Krish

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten friends Ramesh, Rani, Savi, Ravi, Tanu, Stella, Vinu, Manu, Tanu and Krish live in a five story building that has two types of flats on each floor such that Flat A is to the west of
Flat B and no two persons live in the same flat. Each person likes a different chocolate i.e. Kitakat, Munch, Dairy milk, Cadbury, Snaxkers, Amul, Oreo, Galaxy, Perk and
Bournville. Ravi lives immediately above Manu who does not live on an odd numbered floor and both of them lives in the same types of flat. Tanu lives to the northeast of the
one who likes Snackers. The one who likes Amul chocolate lives on floor 2. The one who likes Galaxy lives to the south of Manu. Ramesh who likes Kitkat lives two floors away
from the one who likes Cadbury. Rani lives to the northeast of the one who likes Dairy milk, who lives to the west of Vinu. Krish lives to the northeast of the one who likes
Galaxy. Vinu lives three floors away from the one who likes Oreo and nobody lives to the east of him. The one who likes Bournville lives to the north of Stella who lives to the
south of the one who likes Amul but not on an odd numbered floor. The one who likes Cadbury lives to the northwest of the one who likes Amul. The one who likes Snackers
lives on an even numbered floor. The one who likes Munch and bournville lives on the adjacent floors but not below the floor 4. The one who likes Oreo lives to the east of
Anne, who lives on an odd numbered floor but not above the one who likes Cadbury.

Q.4) How many persons live above the one who likes Galaxy in the same type of flat as the one who likes Galaxy?

[A] 4

[B] 3

[C] 2

[D] 0

[E] 1

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten friends Ramesh, Rani, Savi, Ravi, Tanu, Stella, Vinu, Manu, Tanu and Krish live in a five story building that has two types of flats on each floor such that Flat A is to the west of
Flat B and no two persons live in the same flat. Each person likes a different chocolate i.e. Kitakat, Munch, Dairy milk, Cadbury, Snaxkers, Amul, Oreo, Galaxy, Perk and
Bournville. Ravi lives immediately above Manu who does not live on an odd numbered floor and both of them lives in the same types of flat. Tanu lives to the northeast of the
one who likes Snackers. The one who likes Amul chocolate lives on floor 2. The one who likes Galaxy lives to the south of Manu. Ramesh who likes Kitkat lives two floors away
from the one who likes Cadbury. Rani lives to the northeast of the one who likes Dairy milk, who lives to the west of Vinu. Krish lives to the northeast of the one who likes
Galaxy. Vinu lives three floors away from the one who likes Oreo and nobody lives to the east of him. The one who likes Bournville lives to the north of Stella who lives to the
south of the one who likes Amul but not on an odd numbered floor. The one who likes Cadbury lives to the northwest of the one who likes Amul. The one who likes Snackers
lives on an even numbered floor. The one who likes Munch and bournville lives on the adjacent floors but not below the floor 4. The one who likes Oreo lives to the east of
Anne, who lives on an odd numbered floor but not above the one who likes Cadbury.

Q.5) Find the odd one out.

[A] Manu

[B] Ramesh

[C] Ravi

[D] Anne

[E] Rani

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting in two rows i.e. row 1 and row 2 such that persons sitting in row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in row 2 are
facing the people sitting in row 2. M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting in row 1 and the remaining people are sitting in row 2. Each them has their birthdays on 10 different dates i.e. 1, 2,
3, 4, 11, 12, 14, 20, 28 and 31 such that no two persons have their birthdays on the same date. V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the
row. The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row. V is sitting opposite P, who is an
immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W. The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3. W is sitting exactly between the row
and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. Q celebrates his birthday on a
date that is square of the smallest prime number. Y is sitting opposite N. Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. V’s birthday is not on the date that is square root of
the Q’s birthdate. The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. The
one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

Q.6) Who among the following celebrates his birthday on 2?

[A] P

[B] V

[C] Q

[D] Z

[E] W

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Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting in two rows i.e. row 1 and row 2 such that persons sitting in row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in row 2 are
facing the people sitting in row 2. M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting in row 1 and the remaining people are sitting in row 2. Each them has their birthdays on 10 different dates i.e. 1, 2,
3, 4, 11, 12, 14, 20, 28 and 31 such that no two persons have their birthdays on the same date. V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the
row. The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row. V is sitting opposite P, who is an
immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W. The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3. W is sitting exactly between the row
and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. Q celebrates his birthday on a
date that is square of the smallest prime number. Y is sitting opposite N. Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. V’s birthday is not on the date that is square root of
the Q’s birthdate. The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. The
one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

Q.7) How many people are sitting between X and Y?

[A] 0

[B] 1

[C] 2

[D] 3

[E] Either (a) or (b)

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting in two rows i.e. row 1 and row 2 such that persons sitting in row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in row 2 are
facing the people sitting in row 2. M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting in row 1 and the remaining people are sitting in row 2. Each them has their birthdays on 10 different dates i.e. 1, 2,
3, 4, 11, 12, 14, 20, 28 and 31 such that no two persons have their birthdays on the same date. V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the
row. The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row. V is sitting opposite P, who is an
immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W. The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3. W is sitting exactly between the row
and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. Q celebrates his birthday on a
date that is square of the smallest prime number. Y is sitting opposite N. Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. V’s birthday is not on the date that is square root of
the Q’s birthdate. The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. The
one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

Q.8) Who among the following is facing the person who celebrates his birthday on 1st?

[A] M

[B] Q

[C] O

[D] P

[E] N

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting in two rows i.e. row 1 and row 2 such that persons sitting in row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in row 2 are
facing the people sitting in row 2. M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting in row 1 and the remaining people are sitting in row 2. Each them has their birthdays on 10 different dates i.e. 1, 2,
3, 4, 11, 12, 14, 20, 28 and 31 such that no two persons have their birthdays on the same date. V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the
row. The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row. V is sitting opposite P, who is an
immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W. The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3. W is sitting exactly between the row
and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. Q celebrates his birthday on a
date that is square of the smallest prime number. Y is sitting opposite N. Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. V’s birthday is not on the date that is square root of
the Q’s birthdate. The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. The
one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

Q.9) Find the odd one out.

[A] Y

[B] X

[C] M

[D] V

[E] N

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

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Ten persons M, N, O, P, Q, V, W, X, Y, and Z are sitting in two rows i.e. row 1 and row 2 such that persons sitting in row 1 are facing south and the persons sitting in row 2 are
facing the people sitting in row 2. M, N, O, P, and Q are sitting in row 1 and the remaining people are sitting in row 2. Each them has their birthdays on 10 different dates i.e. 1, 2,
3, 4, 11, 12, 14, 20, 28 and 31 such that no two persons have their birthdays on the same date. V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the
row. The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row. V is sitting opposite P, who is an
immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W. The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3. W is sitting exactly between the row
and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. Q celebrates his birthday on a
date that is square of the smallest prime number. Y is sitting opposite N. Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. V’s birthday is not on the date that is square root of
the Q’s birthdate. The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. The
one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

 
Q.10) Who is sitting diagonally opposite to Y?

[A] The one whose birthday is on 4

[B] M

[C] N

[D] The one whose birthday is on 12

[E] X

Instruction: Direction (for questions 11-14): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.

X % Y means X is the father of Y.

X + Y means X is the mother of Y.

X & Y means X is the sister of Y.

X = Y means X is the brother of Y.

X ! Y means X is the son of Y.

X * Y means X is the daughter of Y.

Q.11) If Ram * Shyam ! Rani & Sam % Jae + Jim, then how Jae is related to Shyam?

[A] Brother

[B] Mother

[C] Sister

[D] Cousin

[E] Aunt

Instruction: Direction (for questions 11-14): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.
X % Y means X is the father of Y.
X + Y means X is the mother of Y.
X & Y means X is the sister of Y.
X = Y means X is the brother of Y.
X ! Y means X is the son of Y.
X * Y means X is the daughter of Y.
Q.12) If Tom & Romi ! Tim % Jin * Jack, then who is the father of Jin?

[A] Tim

[B] Jack

[C] Romi

[D] Tom

[E] EIther (a) or (b)

Instruction: Direction (for questions 11-14): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.
X % Y means X is the father of Y.
X + Y means X is the mother of Y.
X & Y means X is the sister of Y.
X = Y means X is the brother of Y.

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X ! Y means X is the son of Y.
X * Y means X is the daughter of Y.
Q.13) If Anu & Manu % Janvi + Maan ! Sam % Joe, then how Manu is related to Joe?

[A] Father

[B] Uncle

[C] Grandfather

[D] Grandson

[E] Grandmother

Instruction: Direction (for questions 11-14): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.
X % Y means X is the father of Y.
X + Y means X is the mother of Y.
X & Y means X is the sister of Y.
X = Y means X is the brother of Y.
X ! Y means X is the son of Y.
X * Y means X is the daughter of Y.
Q.14) If Suku * Muku ! Jimi % Tim = Sid + Biden, then who is the niece of Tim?

[A] Muku

[B] Suku

[C] Jimi

[D] Biden

[E] Cannot be determined

Instruction: Direction: In the following question statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

A % B means A is greater than B

A ^ B means A is smaller than B

A & B means A is neither greater nor smaller than B

A $ B means A is not greater than B

A ! B means A is not smaller than B

Q.15) Statement: Q ! P % V ^ W $ T & A % X

Conclusions:

    I.  V ^ T

  II.   W ! A

[A] Only II follows

[B] Only I follows

[C] Neither I nor II follows

[D] Both I and II follow

[E] Either I or II follows

Instruction: Direction: In the following question statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

A % B means A is greater than B

A ^ B means A is smaller than B

A & B means A is neither greater nor smaller than B

A $ B means A is not greater than B

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A ! B means A is not smaller than B

 
Q.16) Statement:  F % U ! J $ B & R ^ O ! N

Conclusions:

    I.     J & B

  II.            F ! R

[A] Only II follows

[B] Only I follows

[C] Neither I nor II follows

[D] Both I and II follow

[E] Either I or II follows

Instruction: Direction: In the following question statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

A % B means A is greater than B

A ^ B means A is smaller than B

A & B means A is neither greater nor smaller than B

A $ B means A is not greater than B

A ! B means A is not smaller than B

Q.17) Statement: X ^ M & I % W $ L & B

Conclusions:

    I.     X $ M

  II.            I ^ W

[A] Only II follows

[B] Only I follows

[C] Neither I nor II follows

[D] Both I and II follow

[E] Either I or II follows

Instruction: Direction (for questions 18-21): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.

A & B means A is 7 m north of B.

A # B means A is 8 m south of B.

A @ B means A is 5 m east of B.

A ^ B means A is 6 m west of B.

Note: A &^ B means A is 13 m northwest of B.

Q.18) If O # V & N ^ X & J, then in which direction is O with respect to J?

[A] West

[B] Northwest

[C] South

[D] Southeast

[E] Northeast

Instruction: Direction (for questions 18-21): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.

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A & B means A is 7 m north of B.

A # B means A is 8 m south of B.

A @ B means A is 5 m east of B.

A ^ B means A is 6 m west of B.

Note: A &^ B means A is 13 m northwest of B.

 
Q.19) If C # B ^ P @ Q & D, then what is position of C with respect to Q?

[A] Southwest

[B] East

[C] Northwest

[D] Northeast

[E] North

Instruction: Direction (for questions 18-21): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.

A & B means A is 7 m north of B.

A # B means A is 8 m south of B.

A @ B means A is 5 m east of B.

A ^ B means A is 6 m west of B.

Note: A &^ B means A is 13 m northwest of B.

Q.20) If G ^# H & W @ Y; M #@ Y, then in which direction is W with respect to G?

[A] Northeast

[B] West

[C] South

[D] East

[E] North

Instruction: Direction (for questions 18-21): Study the information carefully and answer the following questions.

A & B means A is 7 m north of B.

A # B means A is 8 m south of B.

A @ B means A is 5 m east of B.

A ^ B means A is 6 m west of B.

Note: A &^ B means A is 13 m northwest of B.

Q.21) If R @# T ^ J & E; J # L, and Rene started walking from T and stops at L, then what is the total distance covered by Rene?

[A] 19 m

[B] 5 m

[C] 13 m

[D] 12 m

[E] 10 m

Instruction: Study the following Alphanumeric series carefully and answer the following questions.

A&8V-(0LP@2Q1#=BZ+S3%K^JFD1!2Y*O9I?>GH@X

Q.22) How many vowels are there between ( and ^ ?

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[A] 1

[B] 0

[C] 2

[D] 3

[E] 4

Instruction: Study the following Alphanumeric series carefully and answer the following questions.

A&8V-(0LP@2Q1#=BZ+S3%K^JFD1!2Y*O9I?>GH@X

Q.23) Which term is sixth from the right of thirteenth element from the left end?

[A] Z

[B] +

[C] %

[D] 3

[E] S

Instruction: Study the following Alphanumeric series carefully and answer the following questions.

A&8V-(0LP@2Q1#=BZ+S3%K^JFD1!2Y*O9I?>GH@X

Q.24) What is total number of vowels in the given series?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

[E] 5

Instruction: Direction: In the following question four statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Q.25) Statement:

Only a few Angel are Anjali

Only a few aaditi  are arya

Some arya are maggie

No Anjali are aaditi

Conclusions :

    I.     Some angel are aaditi

  II.            No aaditi are anjali

    III.            A few Arya is angel

    IV.            Some Anjali are arya

[A] Only I and III follow

[B] Only II follows

[C] Only I and IV follow

[D] Only II and IV follow

[E] All follow

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Instruction: Direction: In the following question four statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Q.26) Statement:

Only a few skirts are top

Only a few pants are shirt

No top is shirt

Only a few jackets are pant

Conclusions :

    I.     Some top are pants

  II.            All pants are shirt

    III.            No jacket is shirt

    IV.            Some shirt are top

[A] Only I and III follow

[B] None follows

[C] Only I and IV follow

[D] Only II and IV follow

[E] All follow

Instruction: Direction: In the following question four statements are followed by four conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts. Read all the statements and decide which of the given conclusion/conclusions logically follows from the given statements.

Q.27) Statement:

Only a few pizza are burger

Only a few dosa are noodles

No noodles are burger

Only a few fries are pizza

Conclusions:

    I.     Some fries are burger

  II.            No burger are noodles

    III.            Some dosa are pizza

    IV.            No pizza are fries

[A] Only I and III follow

[B] Only II follows

[C] Only I and IV follow

[D] Only II and IV follow

[E] All follow

Instruction: Directions for question 28-32: An input line of numerical combination is given in an arrangement machine that rearranges them following a particular rule in each
step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Step5 is the last step.

As per the logic followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712

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Q.28) Which digit is second from the left in the third number from the right step 4?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

[E] 5

Instruction: Directions for question 28-32: An input line of numerical combination is given in an arrangement machine that rearranges them following a particular rule in each
step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Step5 is the last step.

As per the logic followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712

Q.29) What is the output in step2?

[A] 746837  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579

[B] 546839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579

[C] 446839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579

[D] 446839  268159  213599  224681  281379  213578

[E] 446839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213577

Instruction: Directions for question 28-32: An input line of numerical combination is given in an arrangement machine that rearranges them following a particular rule in each
step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Step5 is the last step.

As per the logic followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712

Q.30) What is the last step of the given input?

[A] 16P  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R

[B] 16P  13M  18R  14N  12L  19S

[C] 17Q  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R

[D] 16P  12N  18R  14N  12L  18R

[E] 19S  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R

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Instruction: Directions for question 28-32: An input line of numerical combination is given in an arrangement machine that rearranges them following a particular rule in each
step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Step5 is the last step.

As per the logic followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712

Q.31) Which number is fifth from the right end in step 3?

[A] 975321

[B] 986521

[C] 987323

[D] 987321

[E] 986522

Instruction: Directions for question 28-32: An input line of numerical combination is given in an arrangement machine that rearranges them following a particular rule in each
step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: 378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Step5 is the last step.

As per the logic followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given input.

Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712

Q.32) What is the sum of all the digits in the number that is sixth from the right end in step2?

[A] 30

[B] 24

[C] 33

[D] 35

[E] 34

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, and N are working on ten different posts in army i.e. Field marshal (FM), General, Lieutenant General (LG), Major General (MG), Brigadier,
Colonel, Lieutenant Colonel (LC), Major, Captain, and Lieutenant but not necessarily in the same order. The hierarchy of the post is in decreasing order FM being the highest post,
General being the immediate junior to FM and so on that Lieutenant is the junior most person in the hierarchy. Each person likes a different color i.e. Red, Yellow, Blue, Black,
Brown, Purple, Pink, Green, White, and Grey. J is neither immediate junior of N nor immediate senior of K. The one who is immediate senior of Colonel likes yellow.  There are
seven posts between the post of F and the one who likes red color. No one has a post between the one who likes pink and blue. The one who likes white is an immediate junior
of Major. The one who likes green color and the one whose post is brigadier has 2 posts between them. K is immediate senior of F. The one whose post is the juniormost among
all likes grey color. The one who likes red color is not junior to F. Four posts are between the posts of N and the one who likes grey color. Number of posts between the posts of N
and E is same as the number of posts between N and F. The one who likes brown color is immediate senior of M and immediate junior of the E. H neither likes pink nor has the
post of colonel. I is immediate senior of the person who likes purple. Immediate senior of N likes black color.  M, who likes purple is immediate senior of the one who likes black
color. G is immediate junior of LG.

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Q.33) Who among the following Colonel?

[A] M

[B] L

[C] N

[D] H

[E] K

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, and N are working on ten different posts in army i.e. Field marshal (FM), General, Lieutenant General (LG), Major General (MG), Brigadier,
Colonel, Lieutenant Colonel (LC), Major, Captain, and Lieutenant but not necessarily in the same order. The hierarchy of the post is in decreasing order FM being the highest post,
General being the immediate junior to FM and so on that Lieutenant is the junior most person in the hierarchy. Each person likes a different color i.e. Red, Yellow, Blue, Black,
Brown, Purple, Pink, Green, White, and Grey. J is neither immediate junior of N nor immediate senior of K. The one who is immediate senior of Colonel likes yellow.  There are
seven posts between the post of F and the one who likes red color. No one has a post between the one who likes pink and blue. The one who likes white is an immediate junior
of Major. The one who likes green color and the one whose post is brigadier has 2 posts between them. K is immediate senior of F. The one whose post is the juniormost among
all likes grey color. The one who likes red color is not junior to F. Four posts are between the posts of N and the one who likes grey color. Number of posts between the posts of N
and E is same as the number of posts between N and F. The one who likes brown color is immediate senior of M and immediate junior of the E. H neither likes pink nor has the
post of colonel. I is immediate senior of the person who likes purple. Immediate senior of N likes black color.  M, who likes purple is immediate senior of the one who likes black
color. G is immediate junior of LG.

Q.34) Who among the following likes pink color?

[A] H

[B] K

[C] L

[D] J

[E] K

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, and N are working on ten different posts in army i.e. Field marshal (FM), General, Lieutenant General (LG), Major General (MG), Brigadier,
Colonel, Lieutenant Colonel (LC), Major, Captain, and Lieutenant but not necessarily in the same order. The hierarchy of the post is in decreasing order FM being the highest post,
General being the immediate junior to FM and so on that Lieutenant is the junior most person in the hierarchy. Each person likes a different color i.e. Red, Yellow, Blue, Black,
Brown, Purple, Pink, Green, White, and Grey. J is neither immediate junior of N nor immediate senior of K. The one who is immediate senior of Colonel likes yellow.  There are
seven posts between the post of F and the one who likes red color. No one has a post between the one who likes pink and blue. The one who likes white is an immediate junior
of Major. The one who likes green color and the one whose post is brigadier has 2 posts between them. K is immediate senior of F. The one whose post is the juniormost among
all likes grey color. The one who likes red color is not junior to F. Four posts are between the posts of N and the one who likes grey color. Number of posts between the posts of N
and E is same as the number of posts between N and F. The one who likes brown color is immediate senior of M and immediate junior of the E. H neither likes pink nor has the
post of colonel. I is immediate senior of the person who likes purple. Immediate senior of N likes black color.  M, who likes purple is immediate senior of the one who likes black
color. G is immediate junior of LG.

Q.35) Who among the following is Field Marshal?

[A] I

[B] M

[C] G

[D] N

[E] E

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, and N are working on ten different posts in army i.e. Field marshal (FM), General, Lieutenant General (LG), Major General (MG), Brigadier,
Colonel, Lieutenant Colonel (LC), Major, Captain, and Lieutenant but not necessarily in the same order. The hierarchy of the post is in decreasing order FM being the highest post,
General being the immediate junior to FM and so on that Lieutenant is the junior most person in the hierarchy. Each person likes a different color i.e. Red, Yellow, Blue, Black,
Brown, Purple, Pink, Green, White, and Grey. J is neither immediate junior of N nor immediate senior of K. The one who is immediate senior of Colonel likes yellow.  There are
seven posts between the post of F and the one who likes red color. No one has a post between the one who likes pink and blue. The one who likes white is an immediate junior

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of Major. The one who likes green color and the one whose post is brigadier has 2 posts between them. K is immediate senior of F. The one whose post is the juniormost among
all likes grey color. The one who likes red color is not junior to F. Four posts are between the posts of N and the one who likes grey color. Number of posts between the posts of N
and E is same as the number of posts between N and F. The one who likes brown color is immediate senior of M and immediate junior of the E. H neither likes pink nor has the
post of colonel. I is immediate senior of the person who likes purple. Immediate senior of N likes black color.  M, who likes purple is immediate senior of the one who likes black
color. G is immediate junior of LG.

 
Q.36) How many posts are between the one who likes Red color and the one who is Lieutenant colonel?

[A] 5

[B] 4

[C] 3

[D] 6

[E] 2

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Ten persons E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M, and N are working on ten different posts in army i.e. Field marshal (FM), General, Lieutenant General (LG), Major General (MG), Brigadier,
Colonel, Lieutenant Colonel (LC), Major, Captain, and Lieutenant but not necessarily in the same order. The hierarchy of the post is in decreasing order FM being the highest post,
General being the immediate junior to FM and so on that Lieutenant is the junior most person in the hierarchy. Each person likes a different color i.e. Red, Yellow, Blue, Black,
Brown, Purple, Pink, Green, White, and Grey. J is neither immediate junior of N nor immediate senior of K. The one who is immediate senior of Colonel likes yellow.  There are
seven posts between the post of F and the one who likes red color. No one has a post between the one who likes pink and blue. The one who likes white is an immediate junior
of Major. The one who likes green color and the one whose post is brigadier has 2 posts between them. K is immediate senior of F. The one whose post is the juniormost among
all likes grey color. The one who likes red color is not junior to F. Four posts are between the posts of N and the one who likes grey color. Number of posts between the posts of N
and E is same as the number of posts between N and F. The one who likes brown color is immediate senior of M and immediate junior of the E. H neither likes pink nor has the
post of colonel. I is immediate senior of the person who likes purple. Immediate senior of N likes black color.  M, who likes purple is immediate senior of the one who likes black
color. G is immediate junior of LG.

Q.37) Who among the following is Captain?

[A] The one who likes green color

[B] K

[C] F

[D] J

[E] G

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A certain number of people are sitting around a circular table at equal distance such that none of the seats are vacant. Some people are facing inside while the others are facing
outside. The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V. Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is
sitting immediate right of V. W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P. M is sitting second to the right of O and
faces the same direction as W. X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S. Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of
W. O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions. Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. Y is sitting third to the left of R,
who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. P is sitting fourth to the left of V.  R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does
not sit to the right of P. Z does not face inside. The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting
second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. At least two persons sitting between N and Z when
counted from the left of Z faces inside. N and M are not facing the same direction. The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who
face the same direction as Z.

Q.38) Who among the following is an immediate neighbor of S?

[A] P

[B] X

[C] Z

[D] Both (a) and (b)

[E] Both (b) and (c)

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

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A certain number of people are sitting around a circular table at equal distance such that none of the seats are vacant. Some people are facing inside while the others are facing
outside. The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V. Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is
sitting immediate right of V. W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P. M is sitting second to the right of O and
faces the same direction as W. X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S. Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of
W. O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions. Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. Y is sitting third to the left of R,
who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. P is sitting fourth to the left of V.  R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does
not sit to the right of P. Z does not face inside. The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting
second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. At least two persons sitting between N and Z when
counted from the left of Z faces inside. N and M are not facing the same direction. The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who
face the same direction as Z.

 
Q.39) What is the total number of people sitting around the circular table?

[A] 17

[B] 15

[C] 18

[D] 13

[E] 20

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A certain number of people are sitting around a circular table at equal distance such that none of the seats are vacant. Some people are facing inside while the others are facing
outside. The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V. Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is
sitting immediate right of V. W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P. M is sitting second to the right of O and
faces the same direction as W. X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S. Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of
W. O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions. Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. Y is sitting third to the left of R,
who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. P is sitting fourth to the left of V.  R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does
not sit to the right of P. Z does not face inside. The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting
second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. At least two persons sitting between N and Z when
counted from the left of Z faces inside. N and M are not facing the same direction. The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who
face the same direction as Z.

Q.40) How many persons are facing outside?

[A] 9

[B] 6

[C] 12

[D] 11

[E] 8

Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A certain number of people are sitting around a circular table at equal distance such that none of the seats are vacant. Some people are facing inside while the others are facing
outside. The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V. Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is
sitting immediate right of V. W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P. M is sitting second to the right of O and
faces the same direction as W. X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S. Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of
W. O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions. Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. Y is sitting third to the left of R,
who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. P is sitting fourth to the left of V.  R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does
not sit to the right of P. Z does not face inside. The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting
second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. At least two persons sitting between N and Z when
counted from the left of Z faces inside. N and M are not facing the same direction. The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who
face the same direction as Z.

Q.41) How many people are sitting between Z and Y when counted from left of Y?

[A] 5

[B] 11

[C] 4

[D] 9

[E] 6

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Instruction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A certain number of people are sitting around a circular table at equal distance such that none of the seats are vacant. Some people are facing inside while the others are facing
outside. The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V. Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is
sitting immediate right of V. W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P. M is sitting second to the right of O and
faces the same direction as W. X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S. Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of
W. O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions. Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. Y is sitting third to the left of R,
who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. P is sitting fourth to the left of V.  R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does
not sit to the right of P. Z does not face inside. The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting
second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. At least two persons sitting between N and Z when
counted from the left of Z faces inside. N and M are not facing the same direction. The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who
face the same direction as Z.

Q.42) Find the odd one out.

[A] M

[B] O

[C] Q

[D] V

[E] T

Instruction: Study the given information carefully then answer the following questions.

In a certain code language,

“EXTENSIONS LABOUR DOCUMENT” is coded as “V&24 O&30 W&24”

“WEBSITE NEWSPAPER BULLETIN” is coded as “D#28 M#33 Y&16”

“EDITING DIMENSIONS PAINTER” is coded as “V#12 W&23 K#34”

“THEORITICAL SUPERSTAR JAMNAGAR” is coded as “G#32 H#37 Q&28”

Q.43) What is the code for “Synonyms”?

[A] I#33

[B] G&24

[C] V#28

[D] H&38

[E] V#29

Instruction: Study the given information carefully then answer the following questions.

In a certain code language,

“EXTENSIONS LABOUR DOCUMENT” is coded as “V&24 O&30 W&24”

“WEBSITE NEWSPAPER BULLETIN” is coded as “D#28 M#33 Y&16”

“EDITING DIMENSIONS PAINTER” is coded as “V#12 W&23 K#34”

“THEORITICAL SUPERSTAR JAMNAGAR” is coded as “G#32 H#37 Q&28”

Q.44) How can the word “Thrifted” be coded as in the given code language?

[A] H%32

[B] G&24

[C] R%23

[D] Z&32

[E] W#32

Instruction: Study the given information carefully then answer the following questions.

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In a certain code language,

“EXTENSIONS LABOUR DOCUMENT” is coded as “V&24 O&30 W&24”

“WEBSITE NEWSPAPER BULLETIN” is coded as “D#28 M#33 Y&16”

“EDITING DIMENSIONS PAINTER” is coded as “V#12 W&23 K#34”

“THEORITICAL SUPERSTAR JAMNAGAR” is coded as “G#32 H#37 Q&28”

Q.45) Which of the following word can be coded as “V#10”?

[A] Washington

[B] Craftsmen

[C] Embrace

[D] Burrito

[E] Regional

Instruction: Study the given information carefully then answer the following questions.

In a certain code language,

“EXTENSIONS LABOUR DOCUMENT” is coded as “V&24 O&30 W&24”

“WEBSITE NEWSPAPER BULLETIN” is coded as “D#28 M#33 Y&16”

“EDITING DIMENSIONS PAINTER” is coded as “V#12 W&23 K#34”

“THEORITICAL SUPERSTAR JAMNAGAR” is coded as “G#32 H#37 Q&28”

Q.46) Which of the following word can be coded as “B#33”?

[A] Inequalities

[B] Yellowish

[C] Random

[D] Newspaper

[E] None of the above

Instruction: Study the given information carefully then answer the following questions.

In a certain code language,

“EXTENSIONS LABOUR DOCUMENT” is coded as “V#24 O&30 W&24”

“WEBSITE NEWSPAPER BULLETIN” is coded as “D#28 M#33 Y&16”

“EDITING DIMENSIONS PAINTER” is coded as “V#12 W#23 K#34”

“THEORITICAL SUPERSTAR JAMNAGAR” is coded as “G#32 H#37 Q&28”

Q.47) What is the code for “NEWSPAPER  DIMENSIONS”?

[A] M#32 W#32

[B] M#32 W&23

[C] N&32 N#23

[D] M&32 W&23

[E] Either (a) or (b)

Instruction: Read the following passage carefully then answer the following question.
There are nine seats in a straight row and the people sitting in the row are facing north. R is sitting at the extreme right end of the row. P is sitting second
from one of the extreme ends but he is not an immediate neighbor of R. G is sitting third to the right of P.
Q.48) Who among the following is sitting at the exact middle of the row?

[A] G

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[B] P

[C] R

[D] Either (a) or (b)

[E] Cannot be determined

Q.49) Statement: Country X is a developing tropical country that witnesses monsoon for about three months and summer for the rest. Currently in Country X, their Centre for
Disease Control has identified a rapid rise in treatable fungal infection that spreads through physical contact and affects the nervous system within a month.

Course of Action:

    I.     The government of Country X should issue strict guidelines regarding covering the body including face, hands and feets completely a mandatory caution for every citizen.

  II.     The health department of country X should invest and stay attentive about public awareness and sanitation, availability of antifungal medicines and early diagnosis of the
infection.

[A] Only I follows

[B] Both I and II follow

[C] Only II follows

[D] Either I or II follows

[E] Neither I nor II follows

Q.50) Statements: Australia has introduced more mammals than introduced birds, reptiles, or amphibians and their overall impacts have been far greater. Foxes and cats are
believed to have caused or contributed to various extinctions of marsupials and native rodents.

Course of action:

    I.         Australia should introduce birds, reptiles or amphibians too.

      II.            The Australian government should eradicate all the introduced mammals by introducing their natural predators.

               

[A] Only I follows

[B] Only II follows

[C] Both I and II follow

[D] Either I or II follows

[E] Neither I nor II follows

Q.51) Statement: Charging technology for electric vehicles is still in the age of technological advancement  which means that there is tremendous scope and opportunity for
innovations to drastically bring charge times down.

Conclusions:

    I.         Companies with technical innovation for lesser charging time will impact its demand for electric vehicles positively.

      II.            The use for small sized electric vehicles is considered more efficient by means of swapping the battery as charging it is time consuming.

[A] Only conclusion I follows

[B] Only conclusion II follows

[C] Both conclusions I and II follow

[D] Either conclusion I or II follows

[E] Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.52) Statements:  Statements: During long drought periods mice are confined to damp refugial areas near permanent water. After rains and lush plant growth in arid areas they
may multiply into plague numbers. They do best in areas where soils are well suited to burrowing.

Inference:

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    I.         Mice population once increased doesn’t decrease even after several years of drought.

      II.            During drought mice are confined to damp refugial areas because soil around it is well suited for burrowing.

               
[A] Only I is inferred

[B] Only II is inferred

[C] Both I and II are inferred

[D] Neither I nor II is inferred

[E] Either I or II is inferred

Q.53) Statements:

    I.         City Q is a centuries old city and in a recent city survey it is found that there are many abandoned infrastructures spread throughout the city.

      II.            In city Q, there has been an increase in reports about attacks by feral animals.

[A] Statement II is the effect and statement I is the cause

[B] Statement I is the effect and statement II is the cause

[C] Both Statement I and II are the effects of same cause

[D] Both Statement I and II are the causes of same effect

[E] Statement I and statement II are the effects of independent causes

Q.54) Statement: In the run-up to host the first ever G20 summit events in Srinagar, the authorities have engaged the responsible bodies in road enhancement, addition of
footpaths, medians and traffic road signals as well as removal of unnecessary road dividers, debris and hanging cable wires.

Inference:

    I.         The removal of unnecessary road dividers will keep the arriving G20 delegations on the right course towards the summit venue.

      II.            These course of action would not have taken place if the G20 delegation were not arriving in Srinagar.

[A] Only I follows

[B] Only II follows

[C] Both I and II follow

[D] Either I or II follows

[E] Neither I nor II follows

Q.55) Statements:

    I.         Social media companies have been made clearly accountable for combating online violence against women journalists.

      II.            Global companies have often suffered from unexpected boycott campaigns in foreign markets.

[A] Statement II is the effect and statement I is the cause

[B] Statement I is the effect and statement II is the cause

[C] Both Statement I and II are the effects of same cause

[D] Statement I and statement II are the causes of independent effects

[E] Statement I and statement II are the effects of independent causes

Q.56) Statement: In a sight of public co-operation, people and teachers of a district in Madhya Pradesh donated a record of Rs 5.25 crore in major institutional funding to fund
the smart class initiative.

Inference:

    I.         The classes in rest of the districts in Madhya Pradesh except the one with institutional funding cannot be categorized as Smart class.

      II.            The students were not asked for any contribution towards this initiative.

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[A] Only I is inferred

[B] Only II is inferred

[C] Both I and II are inferred

[D] Neither I nor II is inferred

[E] Either I or II is inferred

Q.57) Statements: Experiential learning is a new model of education that is making its way into classrooms around the world. Studies show that it helps learners connect the
material that they are studying to practical applications in the world around them.

Conclusions:

    I.         The amount of knowledge available is increasing day by day and teaching them with practical application will make the classroom lengthy and tiresome.

      II.            As the institutions in developing and poor nations are not able to avail the basic necessities and infrastructures, experiential learning is ineffective there.

[A] Only conclusion I follows

[B] Only conclusion II follows

[C] Both conclusions I and II follows

[D] Either conclusion I or II follows

[E] Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q.58) Statements: Mitigating climate change and using the water resources of our planet sustainably are among the central challenges for sustainable development today.
Climate change has massive impacts on the water system, not only in the Global South and arid regions of the globe, but also in Central Europe.

Assumptions:

    I.         It is important to efficiently use the water resources in Central Europe which have well defined water systems.

      II.            Climate change is not affecting the water resource of Global North as much as it is affecting the Global South.

[A] Only I follows

[B] Only II follows

[C] Both I and II follow

[D] Either I or II follows

[E] Neither I nor II follows

Q.59) Statements: Poisoning campaigns are one of the most efficient, effective and widespread control tools for managing feral pig impacts. It is a widely accepted practice in
rural communities, can provide fast and efficient knockdown of feral pig populations over a large area and be utilized in remote regions.

Assumptions:

    I.         Some other forms of eliminating feral pigs will make the work easier than the traditional methods of poisoning.

      II.            Without the use of poisoning feral pigs numbers can be very difficult to control as they are understood to be everywhere- from near the human settlements to
remote locations.

[A] Only I follows

[B] Only II follows

[C] Both I and II follow

[D] Either I or II follows

[E] Neither I nor II follows

Q.60) Statements: There is a climate of impunity surrounding online attacks on women journalists which must be more urgently and effectively addressed because impunity
emboldens the perpetrators, demoralizes the victim, erodes the foundations of journalism, and undermines freedom of expression.

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Conclusions:

    I.         The perpetrators of physical attacks on women journalists are set free and it is a major cause of concern towards the freedom of speech.

      II.            Based upon the gravity of online attacks, preparators should be punishable in the same way the ones for physical attacks are punished.

 
[A] Only I follows

[B] Only II follows

[C] Both I and II follow

[D] Either I or II follows

[E] Neither I nor II follows

English
Instruction: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.

It is that time of year in India, when all eyes and ears turn to the Finance Minister to learn what she will unveil in the annual Union Budget. But it is a moot point
whether, even in a year of the novel coronavirus pandemic and economic crisis, that speech will be of much significance. Indeed, it could be argued that there may be
little point in listening to or poring over a speech that is likely to conceal more than it reveals.

Going by past experience, we can make some predictions about the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech this year.

It can be expected that it will be full of self-congratulatory declarations of how the country, the economy and the government’s finances have withstood the
pandemic and how the economy is set on a path of revival. It will claim that the government’s policies have enabled the country to deal with the spread of COVID-19.
It will downplay the completely inadequate health spending even in the face of the pandemic, and use absolute numbers rather than rates of change to suggest that
public spending has been directed towards those in need. Union Finance Minister may take credit for controlling the fiscal deficit as much as possible despite the
reduced tax collections, and even claim that she has been munificent to the State governments by increasing their borrowing limits. She will outline what will turn out
to be completely unrealistic spending and taxation plans for the coming year. Meanwhile, the media will wait breathlessly for what they see as the crucial numbers:
the ratio of fiscal deficit to GDP in the current year, and in the Budget estimates.

Some of this will be only partly correct, much of it will be misleading, and some will be downright wrong. It is certainly true that COVID-19 infections are on the
decline in India- as they are in the Asian region generally, including in countries that did not implement the extreme lockdown that India experienced. The ‘revival’ of
the economy that is being much touted is from the complete collapse of the first quarter of the current fiscal year, and is largely confined to the formal sector, while
most informal activities are still facing crisis. The ‘recovery’ of employment is because of the absence of social security for the vast bulk of Indian workers, which
forces them to seek out any income- generating opportunities, simply to survive. Wage incomes are significantly lower than before the lockdown. The stock market
reaching stratospheric height is really more of an indication of how divorced it has become from the real economy and its prospects. The past year has witness
significant destruction of livelihoods and increases in material distress, poverty and hunger. To talk of economic recovery without factoring these in is untenable.

Now, consider the numbers that will be presented. We know from past Budgets, especially with this government, that the numbers for revenues and spending have
been inaccurate, sometimes off by around Rs. 1,50,000 crore as in Budget 2019-20. This is not only because the actual data are available only for the first nine
months. It is also because the Budget numbers are themselves a fudge, with excessively optimistic projections for revenue generation in the remainder of the year
and bear the actual expenditures of the central government by pushing items ‘off-budget’.
Q.1) What does the author mean by ‘moot point’ in first paragraph?

[A] the author mentioned a situation where necessary steps have been taken to tackle the situation.

[B] it can be considered as a safety net during the pandemic.

[C] in the current scenario, the budget speech does not withhold its significance.

[D] moot point means an important initiative in an emergency situation

[E] none of these

Instruction: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.

It is that time of year in India, when all eyes and ears turn to the Finance Minister to learn what she will unveil in the annual Union Budget. But it is a moot point
whether, even in a year of the novel coronavirus pandemic and economic crisis, that speech will be of much significance. Indeed, it could be argued that there may be
little point in listening to or poring over a speech that is likely to conceal more than it reveals.

Going by past experience, we can make some predictions about the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech this year.

It can be expected that it will be full of self-congratulatory declarations of how the country, the economy and the government’s finances have withstood the
pandemic and how the economy is set on a path of revival. It will claim that the government’s policies have enabled the country to deal with the spread of COVID-19.
It will downplay the completely inadequate health spending even in the face of the pandemic, and use absolute numbers rather than rates of change to suggest that
public spending has been directed towards those in need. Union Finance Minister may take credit for controlling the fiscal deficit as much as possible despite the
reduced tax collections, and even claim that she has been munificent to the State governments by increasing their borrowing limits. She will outline what will turn out
to be completely unrealistic spending and taxation plans for the coming year. Meanwhile, the media will wait breathlessly for what they see as the crucial numbers:
the ratio of fiscal deficit to GDP in the current year, and in the Budget estimates.

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Some of this will be only partly correct, much of it will be misleading, and some will be downright wrong. It is certainly true that COVID-19 infections are on the
decline in India- as they are in the Asian region generally, including in countries that did not implement the extreme lockdown that India experienced. The ‘revival’ of
the economy that is being much touted is from the complete collapse of the first quarter of the current fiscal year, and is largely confined to the formal sector, while
most informal activities are still facing crisis. The ‘recovery’ of employment is because of the absence of social security for the vast bulk of Indian workers, which
forces them to seek out any income- generating opportunities, simply to survive. Wage incomes are significantly lower than before the lockdown. The stock market
reaching stratospheric height is really more of an indication of how divorced it has become from the real economy and its prospects. The past year has witness
significant destruction of livelihoods and increases in material distress, poverty and hunger. To talk of economic recovery without factoring these in is untenable.

Now, consider the numbers that will be presented. We know from past Budgets, especially with this government, that the numbers for revenues and spending have
been inaccurate, sometimes off by around Rs. 1,50,000 crore as in Budget 2019-20. This is not only because the actual data are available only for the first nine
months. It is also because the Budget numbers are themselves a fudge, with excessively optimistic projections for revenue generation in the remainder of the year
and bear the actual expenditures of the central government by pushing items ‘off-budget’.
Q.2) According to the second paragraph, which of the following statement is incorrect?

[A] the central government doesn’t have control over fiscal policy in the country.

[B] central government can lend money to state governments as a loan.

[C] tax collection is very low during the pandemic in India.

[D] the government’s expenditure on public healthcare is very little and not sufficient.

[E] all are correct

Instruction: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.

It is that time of year in India, when all eyes and ears turn to the Finance Minister to learn what she will unveil in the annual Union Budget. But it is a moot point
whether, even in a year of the novel coronavirus pandemic and economic crisis, that speech will be of much significance. Indeed, it could be argued that there may be
little point in listening to or poring over a speech that is likely to conceal more than it reveals.

Going by past experience, we can make some predictions about the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech this year.

It can be expected that it will be full of self-congratulatory declarations of how the country, the economy and the government’s finances have withstood the
pandemic and how the economy is set on a path of revival. It will claim that the government’s policies have enabled the country to deal with the spread of COVID-19.
It will downplay the completely inadequate health spending even in the face of the pandemic, and use absolute numbers rather than rates of change to suggest that
public spending has been directed towards those in need. Union Finance Minister may take credit for controlling the fiscal deficit as much as possible despite the
reduced tax collections, and even claim that she has been munificent to the State governments by increasing their borrowing limits. She will outline what will turn out
to be completely unrealistic spending and taxation plans for the coming year. Meanwhile, the media will wait breathlessly for what they see as the crucial numbers:
the ratio of fiscal deficit to GDP in the current year, and in the Budget estimates.

Some of this will be only partly correct, much of it will be misleading, and some will be downright wrong. It is certainly true that COVID-19 infections are on the
decline in India- as they are in the Asian region generally, including in countries that did not implement the extreme lockdown that India experienced. The ‘revival’ of
the economy that is being much touted is from the complete collapse of the first quarter of the current fiscal year, and is largely confined to the formal sector, while
most informal activities are still facing crisis. The ‘recovery’ of employment is because of the absence of social security for the vast bulk of Indian workers, which
forces them to seek out any income- generating opportunities, simply to survive. Wage incomes are significantly lower than before the lockdown. The stock market
reaching stratospheric height is really more of an indication of how divorced it has become from the real economy and its prospects. The past year has witness
significant destruction of livelihoods and increases in material distress, poverty and hunger. To talk of economic recovery without factoring these in is untenable.

Now, consider the numbers that will be presented. We know from past Budgets, especially with this government, that the numbers for revenues and spending have
been inaccurate, sometimes off by around Rs. 1,50,000 crore as in Budget 2019-20. This is not only because the actual data are available only for the first nine
months. It is also because the Budget numbers are themselves a fudge, with excessively optimistic projections for revenue generation in the remainder of the year
and bear the actual expenditures of the central government by pushing items ‘off-budget’.

Q.3) What is the reason behind the higher wages before lockdown due to COVID-19?
[A] people were migrating to foreign countries and getting a higher income.

[B] because the government scheme was providing job security schemes.

[C] as they had more opportunities for employment with enough income.

[D] all of these

[E] None of these

Instruction: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.

It is that time of year in India, when all eyes and ears turn to the Finance Minister to learn what she will unveil in the annual Union Budget. But it is a moot point
whether, even in a year of the novel coronavirus pandemic and economic crisis, that speech will be of much significance. Indeed, it could be argued that there may be
little point in listening to or poring over a speech that is likely to conceal more than it reveals.

Going by past experience, we can make some predictions about the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech this year.

It can be expected that it will be full of self-congratulatory declarations of how the country, the economy and the government’s finances have withstood the
pandemic and how the economy is set on a path of revival. It will claim that the government’s policies have enabled the country to deal with the spread of COVID-19.
It will downplay the completely inadequate health spending even in the face of the pandemic, and use absolute numbers rather than rates of change to suggest that

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7/4/23, 2:28 PM RBI Grade B - All India Mock Test - AIM - Phase 1-complete-test
public spending has been directed towards those in need. Union Finance Minister may take credit for controlling the fiscal deficit as much as possible despite the
reduced tax collections, and even claim that she has been munificent to the State governments by increasing their borrowing limits. She will outline what will turn out
to be completely unrealistic spending and taxation plans for the coming year. Meanwhile, the media will wait breathlessly for what they see as the crucial numbers:
the ratio of fiscal deficit to GDP in the current year, and in the Budget estimates.

Some of this will be only partly correct, much of it will be misleading, and some will be downright wrong. It is certainly true that COVID-19 infections are on the
decline in India- as they are in the Asian region generally, including in countries that did not implement the extreme lockdown that India experienced. The ‘revival’ of
the economy that is being much touted is from the complete collapse of the first quarter of the current fiscal year, and is largely confined to the formal sector, while
most informal activities are still facing crisis. The ‘recovery’ of employment is because of the absence of social security for the vast bulk of Indian workers, which
forces them to seek out any income- generating opportunities, simply to survive. Wage incomes are significantly lower than before the lockdown. The stock market
reaching stratospheric height is really more of an indication of how divorced it has become from the real economy and its prospects. The past year has witness
significant destruction of livelihoods and increases in material distress, poverty and hunger. To talk of economic recovery without factoring these in is untenable.

Now, consider the numbers that will be presented. We know from past Budgets, especially with this government, that the numbers for revenues and spending have
been inaccurate, sometimes off by around Rs. 1,50,000 crore as in Budget 2019-20. This is not only because the actual data are available only for the first nine
months. It is also because the Budget numbers are themselves a fudge, with excessively optimistic projections for revenue generation in the remainder of the year
and bear the actual expenditures of the central government by pushing items ‘off-budget’.
Q.4) Which of the following given words is most similar in meaning to ‘conceal’ as used in the passage?

[A] intend

[B] unveil

[C] discard

[D] obscure

[E] reflect

Instruction: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.

It is that time of year in India, when all eyes and ears turn to the Finance Minister to learn what she will unveil in the annual Union Budget. But it is a moot point
whether, even in a year of the novel coronavirus pandemic and economic crisis, that speech will be of much significance. Indeed, it could be argued that there may be
little point in listening to or poring over a speech that is likely to conceal more than it reveals.

Going by past experience, we can make some predictions about the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech this year.

It can be expected that it will be full of self-congratulatory declarations of how the country, the economy and the government’s finances have withstood the
pandemic and how the economy is set on a path of revival. It will claim that the government’s policies have enabled the country to deal with the spread of COVID-19.
It will downplay the completely inadequate health spending even in the face of the pandemic, and use absolute numbers rather than rates of change to suggest that
public spending has been directed towards those in need. Union Finance Minister may take credit for controlling the fiscal deficit as much as possible despite the
reduced tax collections, and even claim that she has been munificent to the State governments by increasing their borrowing limits. She will outline what will turn out
to be completely unrealistic spending and taxation plans for the coming year. Meanwhile, the media will wait breathlessly for what they see as the crucial numbers:
the ratio of fiscal deficit to GDP in the current year, and in the Budget estimates.

Some of this will be only partly correct, much of it will be misleading, and some will be downright wrong. It is certainly true that COVID-19 infections are on the
decline in India- as they are in the Asian region generally, including in countries that did not implement the extreme lockdown that India experienced. The ‘revival’ of
the economy that is being much touted is from the complete collapse of the first quarter of the current fiscal year, and is largely confined to the formal sector, while
most informal activities are still facing crisis. The ‘recovery’ of employment is because of the absence of social security for the vast bulk of Indian workers, which
forces them to seek out any income- generating opportunities, simply to survive. Wage incomes are significantly lower than before the lockdown. The stock market
reaching stratospheric height is really more of an indication of how divorced it has become from the real economy and its prospects. The past year has witness
significant destruction of livelihoods and increases in material distress, poverty and hunger. To talk of economic recovery without factoring these in is untenable.

Now, consider the numbers that will be presented. We know from past Budgets, especially with this government, that the numbers for revenues and spending have
been inaccurate, sometimes off by around Rs. 1,50,000 crore as in Budget 2019-20. This is not only because the actual data are available only for the first nine
months. It is also because the Budget numbers are themselves a fudge, with excessively optimistic projections for revenue generation in the remainder of the year
and bear the actual expenditures of the central government by pushing items ‘off-budget’.

Q.5) Which of the following statement about ‘off budget’ can be concluded with reference to the last paragraph?

[A] when government mitigates expenditure on public infrastructure and services.

[B] when the government needs to borrow finance to meet their expenditure.

[C] government increase their expenditure on priority sector only.

[D] unavailability of actual data on revenue and expenditure for financial year.

[E] None of the above

Instruction: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.

It is that time of year in India, when all eyes and ears turn to the Finance Minister to learn what she will unveil in the annual Union Budget. But it is a moot point
whether, even in a year of the novel coronavirus pandemic and economic crisis, that speech will be of much significance. Indeed, it could be argued that there may be
little point in listening to or poring over a speech that is likely to conceal more than it reveals.

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7/4/23, 2:28 PM RBI Grade B - All India Mock Test - AIM - Phase 1-complete-test
Going by past experience, we can make some predictions about the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech this year.

It can be expected that it will be full of self-congratulatory declarations of how the country, the economy and the government’s finances have withstood the
pandemic and how the economy is set on a path of revival. It will claim that the government’s policies have enabled the country to deal with the spread of COVID-19.
It will downplay the completely inadequate health spending even in the face of the pandemic, and use absolute numbers rather than rates of change to suggest that
public spending has been directed towards those in need. Union Finance Minister may take credit for controlling the fiscal deficit as much as possible despite the
reduced tax collections, and even claim that she has been munificent to the State governments by increasing their borrowing limits. She will outline what will turn out
to be completely unrealistic spending and taxation plans for the coming year. Meanwhile, the media will wait breathlessly for what they see as the crucial numbers:
the ratio of fiscal deficit to GDP in the current year, and in the Budget estimates.

Some of this will be only partly correct, much of it will be misleading, and some will be downright wrong. It is certainly true that COVID-19 infections are on the
decline in India- as they are in the Asian region generally, including in countries that did not implement the extreme lockdown that India experienced. The ‘revival’ of
the economy that is being much touted is from the complete collapse of the first quarter of the current fiscal year, and is largely confined to the formal sector, while
most informal activities are still facing crisis. The ‘recovery’ of employment is because of the absence of social security for the vast bulk of Indian workers, which
forces them to seek out any income- generating opportunities, simply to survive. Wage incomes are significantly lower than before the lockdown. The stock market
reaching stratospheric height is really more of an indication of how divorced it has become from the real economy and its prospects. The past year has witness
significant destruction of livelihoods and increases in material distress, poverty and hunger. To talk of economic recovery without factoring these in is untenable.

Now, consider the numbers that will be presented. We know from past Budgets, especially with this government, that the numbers for revenues and spending have
been inaccurate, sometimes off by around Rs. 1,50,000 crore as in Budget 2019-20. This is not only because the actual data are available only for the first nine
months. It is also because the Budget numbers are themselves a fudge, with excessively optimistic projections for revenue generation in the remainder of the year
and bear the actual expenditures of the central government by pushing items ‘off-budget’.
Q.6) The line given in bold may or may not have an error if it has an error find out which part has an error?

"The past year has witness significant destruction of livelihoods and increases in material distress, poverty and hunger."

[A] the past year has witness

[B] significant destruction of livelihoods

[C] and increases in material distress

[D] poverty and hunger

[E] no error

Instruction: Read the following passage and answer the following questions. Certain words/ phrases are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some
of the questions.

It is that time of year in India, when all eyes and ears turn to the Finance Minister to learn what she will unveil in the annual Union Budget. But it is a moot point
whether, even in a year of the novel coronavirus pandemic and economic crisis, that speech will be of much significance. Indeed, it could be argued that there may be
little point in listening to or poring over a speech that is likely to conceal more than it reveals.

Going by past experience, we can make some predictions about the Finance Minister’s Budget Speech this year.

It can be expected that it will be full of self-congratulatory declarations of how the country, the economy and the government’s finances have withstood the
pandemic and how the economy is set on a path of revival. It will claim that the government’s policies have enabled the country to deal with the spread of COVID-19.
It will downplay the completely inadequate health spending even in the face of the pandemic, and use absolute numbers rather than rates of change to suggest that
public spending has been directed towards those in need. Union Finance Minister may take credit for controlling the fiscal deficit as much as possible despite the
reduced tax collections, and even claim that she has been munificent to the State governments by increasing their borrowing limits. She will outline what will turn out
to be completely unrealistic spending and taxation plans for the coming year. Meanwhile, the media will wait breathlessly for what they see as the crucial numbers:
the ratio of fiscal deficit to GDP in the current year, and in the Budget estimates.

Some of this will be only partly correct, much of it will be misleading, and some will be downright wrong. It is certainly true that COVID-19 infections are on the
decline in India- as they are in the Asian region generally, including in countries that did not implement the extreme lockdown that India experienced. The ‘revival’ of
the economy that is being much touted is from the complete collapse of the first quarter of the current fiscal year, and is largely confined to the formal sector, while
most informal activities are still facing crisis. The ‘recovery’ of employment is because of the absence of social security for the vast bulk of Indian workers, which
forces them to seek out any income- generating opportunities, simply to survive. Wage incomes are significantly lower than before the lockdown. The stock market
reaching stratospheric height is really more of an indication of how divorced it has become from the real economy and its prospects. The past year has witness
significant destruction of livelihoods and increases in material distress, poverty and hunger. To talk of economic recovery without factoring these in is untenable.

Now, consider the numbers that will be presented. We know from past Budgets, especially with this government, that the numbers for revenues and spending have
been inaccurate, sometimes off by around Rs. 1,50,000 crore as in Budget 2019-20. This is not only because the actual data are available only for the first nine
months. It is also because the Budget numbers are themselves a fudge, with excessively optimistic projections for revenue generation in the remainder of the year
and bear the actual expenditures of the central government by pushing items ‘off-budget’.

Q.7) Which of the following given words is most opposite in meaning to ‘collapse’ as used in the passage?

[A] adverse

[B] thrill

[C] devastate

[D] plenty

[E] succeed

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Instruction: Select the phrase/connector (starters) from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below,
implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.

(A) The primary role of the courts is to decide cases.

(B) The court decides the cases with the help of relevant facts and laws.

Q.8) Which of the following can be used as the connector for the above sentences?

(i) Deciding the case with the help of

(ii) Regardless of relevant facts and laws

(iii) With the help of the primary court

[A] Only (i)

[B] Both (ii) and (iii)

[C] Only (ii)

[D] All (I), (ii) and (iii)

[E] None of the above

Instruction: Select the phrase/connector (starters) from the given three options which can be used to form a single sentence from the two sentences given below,
implying the same meaning as expressed in the statement sentences.

(A) With a law degree, a candidate can pursue a variety of professions.

(B) A law degree opens the door to a wide range of public-sector jobs.
Q.9) Which of the following can be used as the connector for the above sentences?

(i) A law graduate can pursue

(ii) A wide range of public degree

(iii) When a degree in law pursue

[A] Only (ii)

[B] Both (ii) and (iii)

[C] Only (i)

[D] All (i), (ii) and (iii)

[E] None of the above

Instruction: Two columns are given in each question and each column has three parts of a sentence. Choose the most suitable pair, which makes a grammatically
correct and contextually coherent statement.

COLUMN I

(A) the unlucky woman viewed the loss of her car and

(B) to test the coldness of the pool’s water the children dipped their

(C)being delayed eight weeks due to the coronavirus pandemic

COLUMN II

(D) vertically like a helicopter which means that it doesn’t need a lot of infrastructure

(E) home as just another unfortunate event in her life

(F) toes into the shallow end and pulled them out quickly

Q.10) Which is the best possible combination to form a correct sentence?

[A] B-F, A-E

[B] A-D, C-E

[C] B-F

[D] A-E, B-F

[E] None of these

Instruction: Two columns are given in each question and each column has three parts of a sentence. Choose the most suitable pair, which makes a grammatically
correct and contextually coherent statement.

COLUMN I

(A) mission is to advance the benefits of sustainable air movement

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(B) even parts of airplanes from both sides of the Frankland Islands

(C) some people don’t like pedicures or foot massages because

COLUMN II

(D) it feels like people tickle their feet during this process
(E) one of the lawmakers who voted for bitcoin said that

(F) that the fish may need to be replaced by squid to protect cod populations
Q.11) Which is the best possible combination to form a correct sentence?

[A] B-F, A-E

[B] A-D, C-E

[C] C-D

[D] C-F, A-D, B-E

[E] None of these

Instruction: Two columns are given in each question and each column has three parts of a sentence. Choose the most suitable pair, which makes a grammatically
correct and contextually coherent statement.

COLUMN I

(A) fusing both the British and Argentina metals together to craft roses and other pieces of art

(B) two passengers, and it can fly at 240 kmph for distances of up to 100 kilometers

(C) utility company in the city of Wilcox was notified that a bear had become tangled in power lines

COLUMN II

(D) sea temperatures have contributed to a drop in cod and haddock numbers while squid numbers are growing rapidly

(E) work in comedy not because of the money, but because they enjoy making people laugh

(F) lawmakers in countries all over the world have warned about

Q.12) Which is the best possible combination to form a correct sentence?

[A] B-F, A-E

[B] A-D, C-E

[C] B-F

[D] C-F, A-D, B-E

[E] None of these

Instruction: In the following question, four sentences are given which may be grammatically and contextually incorrect. You need to find the one which has no error
and mark that as your answer. If all the given sentences are incorrect then mark option (e) i.e. ‘all are correct’ as your answer.

1. Aakash has had to abandon his plans to become a doctor because he get sick at the sight of blood.

2. Varsha’s inability to overcome her fear of water has kept her from learning how to swim.

3. In December 1949, the people of Iran voted overwhelming in favor of a new Constitution giving absolute power to Ayatollah Khomeini.

4. Consuming pomegranate juice helped in the absorption of iron in one’s diet.

Q.13) Which of the following statement is grammatically correct?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

[E] All are correct

Instruction: In the following question, four sentences are given which may be grammatically and contextually incorrect. You need to find the one which has no error
and mark that as your answer. If all the given sentences are incorrect then mark option (e) i.e. ‘all are correct’ as your answer.

1. The earliest immigrants to Australia will paint abstract designs on rocks about 60,000 years ago.

2. The nicotine in cigarettes are extremely toxic, and has been classified as the most addictive drug in existence.

3. The politician listed all the achievements made during his time in office, and asked the people for his support in the coming election.

4. In 1739, when Nadir Shah invaded India, he carried away huge amounts of treasure, including legendary Koh-I-Noor diamond.

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Q.14) Which of the following statement is grammatically correct?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

[E] All are correct

Instruction: In the following question, four sentences are given which may be grammatically and contextually incorrect. You need to find the one which has no error
and mark that as your answer. If all the given sentences are incorrect then mark option (e) i.e. ‘all are correct’ as your answer.

1. The people of the Iran represent many ancestries, including sizable Turkish and Arab minorities.

2. The horse’s owner, trainer, and jockey were charged with doping the winning horse.

3. The author of the study hopes their research findings will help prevent others from dying of the disease.

4. Higher temperatures could also lift power consumption above supplies during the summer season.

Q.15) Which of the following statement is grammatically correct?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

[E] All are correct

Instruction: In the following question, four sentences are given which may be grammatically and contextually incorrect. You need to find the one which has no error
and mark that as your answer. If all the given sentences are incorrect then mark option (e) i.e. ‘all are correct’ as your answer.

1. A few years ago, Canadian man found a lottery ticket worth $1 million belonging to someone else, and actually returned it to the owner.

2. Emily Murphy became an Edmonton, Canada, judge in 1916, the first woman appointed to the bench in the British Empire.

3. Opinion polls in February 2000 showed that 70% of the people of Slovakia support their countries bid to join the European Union.

4. All are personal care products are made with ingredients from nature, are biodegradable, and are tested for safety without the use of animals.

Q.16) Which of the following statement is grammatically correct?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

[E] All are correct

Instruction: In the following question, four sentences are given which may be grammatically and contextually incorrect. You need to find the one which has no error
and mark that as your answer. If all the given sentences are incorrect then mark option (e) i.e. ‘all are correct’ as your answer.

1. Belgium and the Netherlands have an underground boundary that differs from the surface boundary shown on maps.

2. Leo Szilard once observed that a scientist’s aim in a discussion with their colleagues is not to persuade, but to clarify.

3. Her parents is so friendly that everyone feels comfortable when they visit their home.

4. Plato believed that every motions in the heavens were made up of combinations of circular motion.

Q.17) Which of the following statement is grammatically correct?

[A] 1

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 4

[E] All are correct

Instruction: In each of the questions given  below, a statement has been given with two words omitted. Following the statement are four set of words which may fit
in the blanks in the similar sequence as given. Choose the most appropriate set of words to make the statement contextually correct and grammatically meaningful. If
none of the given options make the statement complete and correct, mark ‘e’, none of these, as your answer.

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Q.18) A luxurious bungalow of country’s most wanted ___________ don was _________ by CBI on Thursday.

[A] slam, ensure

[B] reported, colluded

[C] fugitive, razed

[D] prolific, detach

[E] none of these

Instruction: In each of the questions given  below, a statement has been given with two words omitted. Following the statement are four set of words which may fit
in the blanks in the similar sequence as given. Choose the most appropriate set of words to make the statement contextually correct and grammatically meaningful. If
none of the given options make the statement complete and correct, mark ‘e’, none of these, as your answer.

Q.19) A 25-year-old electrician has been ____________ for __________ stealing diamond jewellery from his employer’s showroom.

[A] arresting, honestly

[B] commanded, completely

[C] arrested, allegedly

[D] remanded, honour

[E] none of these

Instruction: In each of the questions given  below, a statement has been given with two words omitted. Following the statement are four set of words which may fit
in the blanks in the similar sequence as given. Choose the most appropriate set of words to make the statement contextually correct and grammatically meaningful. If
none of the given options make the statement complete and correct, mark ‘e’, none of these, as your answer.

Q.20) Tech industry welcomed President’s commitment to __________ and make necessary changes to harmful regulatory policies put in __________ by former
president.

[A] recalling, validation

[B] review, place

[C] promise, vacant

[D] neglecting, summoned

[E] none of these

Instruction: In each of the questions given below, a statement has been given with two words omitted. Following the statement are four set of words which may fit in
the blanks in the similar sequence as given. Choose the most appropriate set of words to make the statement contextually correct and grammatically meaningful. If
none of the given options make the statement complete and correct, mark ‘e’, none of these, as your answer.

Q.21) The Prime Minister ___________ officials to expeditiously allot the flats that have been constructed for the EWS and slum __________.

[A] instructed, dwellers

[B] restricting, detangle

[C] remove, reallocate

[D] scolded, populated

[E] none of these

Instruction: In each of the questions given  below, a statement has been given with two words omitted. Following the statement are four set of words which may fit
in the blanks in the similar sequence as given. Choose the most appropriate set of words to make the statement contextually correct and grammatically meaningful. If
none of the given options make the statement complete and correct, mark ‘e’, none of these, as your answer.

Q.22) India’s neighbouring country Sri Lanka ______________ its borders for foreign tourists after about 10 months, _____________ to revive its pandemic-hit
tourism sector.

[A] rusted, demanding

[B] happening, loosing

[C] reopened, hoping

[D] helped, dreaming

[E] none of these

Instruction: In each of the given questions, one sentence is given. The sentence is divided into four parts. One out of four parts may or may not be error-free. Find out
which part, if any, is error-free. If all the parts have errors, choose option ‘all are incorrect’ as your answer.

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Q.23) Companies sees the (A)/important of using social (B)/ media to connect with (C)/ customers and to building revenue(D).

[A] A

[B] B

[C] C

[D] D

[E] all are incorrect

Instruction: In each of the given questions, one sentence is given. The sentence is divided into four parts. One out of four parts may or may not be error-free. Find out
which part, if any, is error-free. If all the parts have error, choose option ‘all are incorrect’ as your answer.

Q.24) Men may tried (A)/ to represses tears (B)/ as he see them as (C)/ a sign of weakness and fragility.(D)

[A] A

[B] B

[C] C

[D] D

[E] all are incorrect

Instruction: In each of the given questions, one sentence is given. The sentence is divided into four parts. One out of four parts may or may  not be error-free. Find
out which part, if any, is error-free. If all the parts have error, choose option ‘all are incorrect’ as your answer.

Q.25) Being a country with largely (A)/ population, India presents endless (B)/ variety of both physical (C)/ features as well as cultural patterns. (D)

[A] A

[B] B

[C] C

[D] D

[E] all are incorrect

Instruction: In each of the given questions, one sentence is given. The sentence is divided into four parts. One out of four parts may or may  not be error-free. Find
out which part, if any, is error-free. If all the parts have error, choose option ‘all are incorrect’ as your answer.

Q.26) Although some deserts (A)/ are very hot, but other deserts (B)/ has cold winters or (C)/ is cold year-round. (D)

[A] A

[B] B

[C] C

[D] D

[E] all are incorrect

Instruction: In each of the given questions, one sentence is given. The sentence is divided into four parts. One out of four parts may or may  not be error-free. Find
out which part, if any, is error-free. If all the parts have error, choose option ‘all are incorrect’ as your answer.

Q.27) The enormous usage for the (A)/ Internet and electronic gadgets have (B)/ capture the attention (C)/ of researchers towards e-banking. (D)

[A] A

[B] B

[C] C

[D] D

[E] all are incorrect

Instruction: Given below the sentences each of which has been divided into four parts Each of the questions is then followed by the five options which give the
sequence of the rearranged parts. You must choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct
sequence or the correct sequence doesn't match any of the given sequence, mark option (E) .i.e. "None of the above" as your answer.

Q.28) The RBI said an elected director (A)/ and could be re-elected (B)/ but cannot hold office for more than six years (C)/can be appointed for three years (D)

[A] ADCB

[B] ADBC

[C] DACB

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[D] CADB

[E] None of the above

Instruction: Given below the sentences each of which has been divided into four parts Each of the questions is then followed by the five options which give the
sequence of the rearranged parts. You must choose the option which gives the correct sequence of the parts. If the sentence is already arranged in the correct
sequence or the correct sequence doesn't match any of the given sequence, mark option (E) .i.e. "None of the above" as your answer.

Q.29) We will launch (A)/ on the best way to take on the task (B)/ but first we need some guidance (C)/ our new website this spring, (D)/

[A] ADCB

[B] ABCD

[C] DACB

[D] CADB

[E] None of the above

Instruction: In the following question, two separate sentences are given. Each has a blank. Choose the most appropriate word that fills the given blanks in both
sentences.

(i) I’m _______________ of the fact that your client has tried to pay the debt.

(ii) Always be _______________ of what people are doing around you.

Q.30) Which of the following will be the suitable word for both the sentences given above?

[A] Bestowed

[B] Intention

[C] Pirated

[D] Enhanced

[E] Cognizant

Quantitative Aptitude
Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The bar graph given below shows the cost price (in Rs.), selling price (in Rs.) and percentage by which marked price is more than that of cost price, of four different
articles.

Q.1) Find the total profit earned by the seller by selling articles 'A' and 'C' together.

[A] Rs 125

[B] Rs 123
[C] Rs 117

[D] Rs 103

[E] RS 140

Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The bar graph given below shows the cost price (in Rs.), selling price (in Rs.) and percentage by which marked price is more than that of cost price, of four different
articles.

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Q.2) Find the sum of discounts allowed by the seller on given four articles.

[A] Rs 448

[B] Rs 328

[C] Rs 498

[D] Rs 478

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The bar graph given below shows the cost price (in Rs.), selling price (in Rs.) and percentage by which marked price is more than that of cost price, of four different
articles.

Q.3) Find the difference between marked price of article 'C' and average selling price of articles 'A' and 'B' together.

[A] Rs 125

[B] Rs 110

[C] Rs 130

[D] Rs 145

[E] Rs 150

Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

The bar graph given below shows the cost price (in Rs.), selling price (in Rs.) and percentage by which marked price is more than that of cost price, of four different
articles.

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Q.4) The seller allowed an additional discount of 10% on each unit on all units if someone buys 10 or more units of article 'D'. Find the profit earned by the seller on
selling 15 units of article 'D'.

[A] Rs 360

[B] Rs 275

[C] Rs 250

[D] Rs 240

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In a society only five families reside. The line graph given below shows the savings of the family as percentage of total income . It also shows the difference (in Rs.)
between expenses and savings of each of the given family.

Q.5) Find the difference between the expenses of family 'B' and sum of savings of family 'C' and family 'D' together.

[A] Rs 2700

[B] Rs 2500

[C] Rs 4000

[D] Rs 3600

[E] Rs 3000

Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.
In a society only five families reside. The line graph given below shows the savings of the family as percentage of total income . It also shows the difference (in Rs.)
between expenses and savings of each of the given family.

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Q.6) If family 'A' spent 40% of their total expenses on paying rent while family 'E' spent 30% of their total income on paying rent, then find the ratio of amount spent
by family 'A' on paying rent to amount spent by family 'E' on paying rent.

[A] 4: 3

[B] 3: 7

[C] 5: 4

[D] 9: 10

[E] None of these

Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In a society only five families reside. The line graph given below shows the savings of the family as percentage of total income . It also shows the difference (in Rs.)
between expenses and savings of each of the given family.

Q.7) If incomes of family 'A', 'B', 'C', 'D' and 'E' is increased by 16%, 15%, 12%, 10% and 12.5%, respectively, then which one of the given options arranges (in
ascending order) the amount by which the income of a family has increased?

[A] B, E, C, D, A

[B] B, E, D, C, A

[C] E, B, C, A, D

[D] B, D, E, C, A

[E] D, B, E, A, C

Instruction: Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below.

In a society only five families reside. The line graph given below shows the savings of the family as percentage of total income . It also shows the difference (in Rs.)
between expenses and savings of each of the given family.

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Q.8) By how much percent, the expenses of family 'D' is more than that by family 'C'?

[A] 22.5%

[B] 25%

[C] 45%
[D] 12.5%

[E] None of these

Q.9) The question consists of two statements numbered "I and II" given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question.

'A' and 'B' together can do some work in 9.6 days. Find the time taken by 'A' to finish the work alone.

Statement I: If 'A' and 'B' work on alternate days starting with 'A', then the work would be finished in 19 days.

Statement II: 'B' and 'C' together can complete 88% of the given work in 9.6 days and also 'C' is 20% less efficient than 'A'.

[A] The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

[B] The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

[C] The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

[D] The data given in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

[E] The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question.

Q.10) The question consists of two statements numbered "I and II" given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question.

A seller sold an article after allowing some discount. Find the profit (in Rs.) earned by the seller.

Statement I: Marked price and cost price of the article are in ratio 5:2, respectively. Whereas difference between selling price and marked price of the article is of Rs.
60.

Statement II: Cost price and selling price of the article are in ratio 1:2, respectively. Marked price of the article is 25% more than its selling price.

[A] The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
[B] The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

[C] The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

[D] The data given in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

[E] The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question.

Q.11) The question consists of two statements numbered "I and II" given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question.
Find the present age of Arijit.

Statement I: Present ages of Arijit and his father are in the ratio 3:7. Arijit's mother is 7 years younger than his father, even though her present age is twice that of
Arijit.

Statement II: One year hence from now, Arijit's age will be 56% less than that of his father.

[A] The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

[B] The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

[C] The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

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[D] The data given in both statements I and II together is not sufficient to answer the question.

[E] The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question.

Q.12) In the question, two Quantities I and II are given. You have to solve both the Quantity to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and Quantity-II and
choose the correct option.
Quantity-I: In how many ways (with or without meaning) can you rewrite the word 'CASIO'?

Quantity-II: Mohit lent Rs. 1,500 to Aman at simple interest of 'R%' p.a. If 16 months later, Aman settled his debt by returning Rs. 1,900 to Mohit, then find the value
of '6R'.

[A] Quantity-I < Quantity-II

[B] Quantity-I > Quantity-II

[C] Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II

[D] Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation

[E] Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II

Q.13) In the question, two Quantities I and II are given. You have to solve both the Quantity to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and Quantity-II and
choose the correct option.

In an Arithmetic progression (AP), the 18th term is 54 less than the 27th term.

Quantity-I: If common difference of the AP is 'p', then find the value of '20p'.

Quantity-II: If 99th term of the AP is 595, then find the 20th term of the AP.

[A] Quantity-I > Quantity-II

[B] Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II

[C] Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II

[D] Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation

[E] Quantity-I < Quantity-II

Q.14) In the question, two Quantities I and II are given. You have to solve both the Quantity to establish the correct relation between Quantity-I and Quantity-II and
choose the correct option.

Quantity-I: 4x²+ 232 = 61x

Quantity-II: y²+ 207 = y X √1024

[A] Quantity-I > Quantity-II

[B] Quantity-I < Quantity-II

[C] Quantity-I ≤ Quantity-II

[D] Quantity-I = Quantity-II or No relation

[E] Quantity-I ≥ Quantity-II

Q.15) The following numbers form a series. Find the odd one out.

72, 145, 291, 583, 1165, 2335

[A] 145

[B] 291

[C] 583
[D] 1165

[E] 2335

Q.16) The following numbers form a series. Find the odd one out.

120, 129, 154, 205, 284, 405

[A] 405

[B] 284
[C] 129

[D] 154

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[E] 205

Q.17) The following numbers form a series. Find the odd one out.

12, 24, 72, 360, 2525, 27720

[A] 24
[B] 2525

[C] 72

[D] 360

[E] 27720

Q.18) In the questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations to establish the correct relation between x and y and choose the correct
option.
I. 2y²- 29y + 102 = 0

II. 2x²+ (14²+ 2³) = 41x

[A] x > y

[B] x < y

[C] x = y or the relationship cannot be established

[D] x ≥ y

[E] x ≤ y

Q.19) In the questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations to establish the correct relation between x and y and choose the correct
option.

I. x²- 30x + 224 = 0

II. y²- 39y + 360 = 0

[A] x > y

[B] x < y

[C] x = y or the relationship cannot be established

[D] x ≥ y

[E] x ≤ y

Q.20) In the questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations to establish the correct relation between x and y and choose the correct
option.

I. 20% of 120x = x²+ 80

II. y²+ 240 = 32y

[A] x > y

[B] x < y

[C] x = y or the relationship cannot be established

[D] x ≥ y

[E] x ≤ y

Q.21) Pipe 'A', alone can fill a tank in 32 hours. Pipe 'B', alone can empty the same tank in 16 hours. Pipe 'C', alone can fill or empty the tank in 24 hours. If pipe 'A' is
opened first and pipes 'B' and 'C' are opened after some time, then the tank gets completely filled in 36 hours. After how many hours, pipe 'B' and 'C' were opened
given that they were opened together?

[A] 6 hours

[B] 30 hours

[C] 15 hours

[D] 21 hours
[E] 18 hours

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Q.22) Ram wants to go from point 'A' to point 'B' using his boat. When the water is still, it takes him 15 hours to complete the journey. However, when the river flows
at 2 km/h, then it takes him 14 hours to cover the same journey. If the river usually flows at 7 km/h, then find the time taken by Aman to reach point 'A' from point
'B'. (Assume that the stream always flows in one direction)

[A] 18 hours
[B] 12 hours

[C] 21 hours

[D] 20 hours

[E] None of these

Q.23) 'A' and 'B' together started a business by investing Rs 15,000 and Rs. '3X', respectively Six months later, Amar joined them by investing Rs. '4X'. At the end of the
year, profit share received by 'B' is Rs. 30,000 out of total profit of 75,000. Find the difference between Rs. '5X' and profit share of 'A'.

[A] Rs 6000

[B] Rs 7000

[C] Rs 4500

[D] Rs 5000

[E] None of these

Q.24) Aarti lent Rs. 15,000 to her friend at compound interest of 'R%' p.a., compounded annually, for 12 months. However, her friend miscalculated the interest due
by compounding the interest twice a year. As a result, she ended up paying Rs. 150 more to Aarti instead of what she was supposed to pay. Find the value of 'R'.

[A] 12

[B] 15

[C] 30

[D] 10

[E] None of these

Q.25) A seller bought 100 articles at Rs. 50 per article. He sold 'x' of them at 'x%' profit and rest at (100 - x)% profit. Find the minimum profit that the seller can make
by selling the articles in this manner.

[A] Rs 2000

[B] Rs 2500

[C] Rs 3000

[D] Rs 2750

[E] None of these

Q.26) Expenses of 'A', 'B' and 'C' are in ratio 11:9:10, respectively. Savings of 'A' and 'C' are in ratio 1:2, respectively. If income of 'A' is Rs. 3,000 less than that of 'C',
then find the savings of 'B', given that income of 'B' is 9 times the savings of 'A'.

[A] Rs 45000

[B] Rs 33000

[C] Rs 30000

[D] Rs 27000

[E] Can’t be determined

Q.27) A train travelled some distance at a certain speed. If the speed would have been 30 km/h more than the actual speed, then the train would've taken 5 hours
less than the actual time taken. However, if the speed would have been 30 km/h less than the actual speed, then the train would've taken 10 hours more to cover the
same distance. Find the distance travelled by the train.

[A] 2100 km

[B] 2000 km

[C] 900 km

[D] 1500 km

[E] 1800 km

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Q.28) Present ages of 'A' and 'B' are in the ratio 3:5, respectively. Nineteen years hence from now, the ages of 'A' and 'C' will be in ratio 4:3, respectively. If the sum of
present ages of 'B' and 'C' is 46 years, then find the sum of ages of 'A' and 'C', when 'B' was 30 years old.

[A] 26 years

[B] 32 years
[C] 22 years

[D] 16 years

[E] None of these

Q.29) Cost price and marked price of an article are in the ratio 3:7, respectively. If the article is sold at a discount of Rs. 100, then the profit percentage earned is 50%.
If the selling price of the article is Rs. '5.625S', then find the value of {S}(3/5).

[A] 27
[B] 8

[C] 64

[D] 16

[E] None of these

Q.30) In a class test, average score of a class of 24 students is 38 marks. If the highest and lowest score is excluded, then the average score of the class drops by 1
mark. If the difference between highest and lowest score is 54 marks, then find the highest score in the class.

[A] 76 marks

[B] 80 marks

[C] 72 marks

[D] 84 marks

[E] 90 marks

RBI Grade B - All India Mock Test - AIM - Phase 1

Answers
General Awareness
Q.1)D Q.2)D Q.3)C Q.4)C Q.5)E Q.6)D Q.7)D Q.8)C Q.9)B Q.10)B Q.11)A Q.12)D Q.13)C Q.14)C Q.15)E Q.16)D Q.17)D Q.18)C

Q.19)E Q.20)E Q.21)C Q.22)A Q.23)A Q.24)C Q.25)D Q.26)C Q.27)D Q.28)C Q.29)A Q.30)D Q.31)B Q.32)C Q.33)D Q.34)A Q.35)E

Q.36)B Q.37)B Q.38)D Q.39)A Q.40)D Q.41)B Q.42)C Q.43)D Q.44)E Q.45)A Q.46)B Q.47)C Q.48)E Q.49)C Q.50)B Q.51)C Q.52)A

Q.53)A Q.54)A Q.55)B Q.56)D Q.57)C Q.58)D Q.59)D Q.60)C Q.61)B Q.62)B Q.63)C Q.64)C Q.65)A Q.66)D Q.67)C Q.68)B Q.69)A

Q.70)B Q.71)B Q.72)B Q.73)E Q.74)C Q.75)B Q.76)C Q.77)D Q.78)C Q.79)A Q.80)B

REASONING ABILITY
Q.1)C Q.2)B Q.3)C Q.4)A Q.5)E Q.6)A Q.7)D Q.8)B Q.9)D Q.10)B Q.11)D Q.12)A Q.13)C Q.14)B Q.15)B Q.16)C Q.17)C Q.18)B

Q.19)A Q.20)A Q.21)C Q.22)B Q.23)E Q.24)C Q.25)B Q.26)B Q.27)B Q.28)D Q.29)C Q.30)A Q.31)B Q.32)E Q.33)B Q.34)C Q.35)E

Q.36)A Q.37)C Q.38)E Q.39)B Q.40)A Q.41)D Q.42)E Q.43)D Q.44)B Q.45)C Q.46)B Q.47)B Q.48)A Q.49)B Q.50)E Q.51)A Q.52)D

Q.53)A Q.54)E Q.55)E Q.56)B Q.57)E Q.58)A Q.59)B Q.60)B

English
Q.1)C Q.2)A Q.3)C Q.4)D Q.5)B Q.6)A Q.7)E Q.8)A Q.9)C Q.10)D Q.11)C Q.12)E Q.13)B Q.14)D Q.15)D Q.16)B Q.17)A Q.18)C

Q.19)C Q.20)B Q.21)A Q.22)C Q.23)C Q.24)D Q.25)B Q.26)A Q.27)D Q.28)B Q.29)A Q.30)E

Quantitative Aptitude

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Q.1)C Q.2)D Q.3)B Q.4)E Q.5)C Q.6)D Q.7)B Q.8)A Q.9)C Q.10)E Q.11)A Q.12)A Q.13)E Q.14)B Q.15)D Q.16)E Q.17)B Q.18)D

Q.19)C Q.20)C Q.21)B Q.22)D Q.23)D Q.24)E Q.25)B Q.26)D Q.27)E Q.28)C Q.29)B Q.30)A

RBI Grade B - All India Mock Test - AIM - Phase 1

Explanations
General Awareness
Q.1) Explanation:

Miscellaneous News Key Facts

50 start-ups exchange Launched by: India and Bangladesh

programme Aim: 50 Start-ups from Bangladesh and 50 Start-ups from
India were planned to exchange visits to each other’s
countries for exploring partnerships, expanding business
relations, sharing experience and knowledge and expand
youth and entrepreneurial cooperation

Q.2) Explanation:
· The Reserve Bank of India has placed on its website the draft Master Directions on Cyber Resilience and Digital Payment Security Controls for Payment
System Operators for feedback from stakeholders.

Key objective of the guidelines:

· Ensuring safety and security of payment systems

· To ensure that the authorised non-bank Payment System Operators (PSOs) are resilient to traditional and emerging information systems and cyber security risks.

The Directions shall come into effect on:

  Key Highlights

Mobile Payments

· The PSO providing / facilitating / processing mobile payment services / transactions shall comply with the following security practices and risk mitigation
measures and shall also ensure that the participants in its payment system comply with these instructions.

o Whenever there is a change in registered mobile number or email ID linked to the payment instrument there shall be a cooling period of minimum 12 hours before
allowing any payment transaction through online modes / channels.

Q.3) Explanation:

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2nd ICC World Test Finals held at Australia defeated Australia has won the title for the
Championship The Oval, London India by 209 runs first time.
2021-23 Australia is the first team in the
history of cricket to win all the
major ICC events.
Player of the Match (Finals): Travis
Head
Highlights:
Ajinkya Rahane became the 13th
Indian to complete 5000 Test runs.
Ajinkya Rahane became first Indian
to score a half-century in ICC
World Test Championship final.
Ravindra Jadeja surpassed Bishan
Singh Bedi to become India's most
successful left-arm spinner in the
history of Test cricket.
Virat Kohli emerged as India’s
highest run-scorer in the World
Test Championship (WTC) 2021-23
cycle with 932 runs in 17 matches.
Rohit Sharma became the third-
fastest opening batter to record
13,000 international runs across
all formats.

Q.4) Explanation:

Focus Area Signed Between

MoU to strengthen entrepreneurial ecosystem in India Indian Institute of Management (IIM), Jammu & Small Industries
Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

Q.5) Explanation:
W20 Summit Women-Led Development; Transform, Thrive and Transcend
Venue: Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu
Theme: ‘Women-Led Development- Transform, Thrive and Transcend’
The summit will begin with a Janbhagidari (Citizen’s Connect Program) which is set on the theme of ‘The Journey of Empowerment’.
The exhibition: from grassroots entrepreneurs of Tamil Nadu, supported by the Department of Rural Development, Tamil Nadu.

Q.6) Explanation:

Focus Area Signed Between Key Facts

Partnership to Zomato and ICICI Aim: To make direct payments within

introduce own Bank the Zomato app by creating Customer’s
Unified Payments own UPI ID
Interface (UPI)
service

Q.7) Explanation:

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Q.8) Explanation:
Recently, the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) has constituted a Cheetah Project Steering Committee.
Committee Chairperson: Dr. Rajesh Gopal, Secretary General, Global Tiger Forum
Total Members of the Committee: 11
A four membered consulting panel of international Cheetah experts has also been formed for consultation.
Objective: to review, progress, monitor and advice on the Cheetah introduction to the Madhya Pradesh Forest Department and NTCA
Tenure of the Committee: two years

Q.9) Explanation:
The “National Energy Data: Survey and Analysis Year 2021-22” was released by Bureau of Energy Efficiency.
This is 1st edition of the report.
It contains extensive data of the last 6 years, i.e., from FY 2016-17 to FY 2021-22

· India conserved 249 billion units (BUs) of electricity to save Rs 1.60 lakh crore in bills for the 2021-22 financial year.

· Energy supply to the economy during the last 6 years is less by 18%

·         Increased share of electrification on the consumption side to 20.9%

·         Total equivalent reduction in CO2 emissions is around 280 million tonnes annually.

Q.10) Explanation:

Tournament Venue Winner / Looser Key Facts

Doha Diamond Doha, Olympic gold medal Tokyo Olympics silver

League, 2023 Qatar winner Neeraj Chopra medallist Jakub Vadlejch,
has secured victory with who was able to reach 88.63m
88.67 m javelin throw secured second position

Q.11) Explanation:

Program / Initiative / Launched / Key Facts

Landmarks Developed by

HDFC Bank Smart Saathi Launched by: It is a digital distribution platform

HDFC Bank (DDP).
Launched in: It would help business
Delhi correspondents and business
facilitators to the bank.

Q.12) Explanation:

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·     The Reserve Bank on has recently opened a sub-office at Kohima and announced its aim to soon have an office in Itanagar to strengthen its presence in Northeast
India.

·     RBI's Guwahati office will continue to cater to the needs of Arunachal Pradesh till the office in Itanagar is opened.

·        RBI’s presence in Northeast region now includes Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura and Nagaland.

Q.13) Explanation:
Recently Global Alliance for Mass Entrepreneurship (GAME) said it has received in-principal approval from SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India)
for designing and structuring a sustainable and scalable NBFC Growth Accelerator Program (NGAP)
Important Information

GAME- Global Alliance for Mass Entrepreneurship (GAME)

Goal: to have a structured model on the lines of global accelerators, which will help small NBFCs that cater to MSEs in Tier 3 and 4 cities.
NGAP framework is to enable a larger set of NBFCs to get access to institutional funding at reasonable rate.
NGAP is expected to be rolled from: August, 2023. With active engagement of SIDBI.
First phase of the programme: involves the design of a comprehensive, actionable, granular report with the programme structure, piloting strategy and
implementation plan for NGAP by GAME.

Q.14) Explanation:
· Branch Authorization Policy for (UCBs) – General Permission

o The general permission for branch expansion in the approved area of operation will be available to UCBs in all Tiers (except Salary Earners’ Banks) which
comply with applicable Financially Sound and Well Managed (FSWM) criteria.
o The eligible FSWM UCBs shall put in place a policy, approved by their Board of Directors, for opening branches. The policy should be formulated keeping in
view the financial health of the bank, viability study of the new branches and customer service and must be updated periodically to keep it aligned with revised RBI
guidelines.

o The eligible UCBs are permitted to open new branches up to 10 per cent of the number of full-fledged branches (at the end of previous financial year) in a
financial year, subject to a maximum of 5 branches without having the need to take permission from Reserve Bank of India.

o If the total number of full-fledged branches (at the end of previous financial year) is less than 10, the bank will be eligible to open at least one branch. Further,
the UCBs shall ensure that the proposal for opening of such branches in a particular financial year, based on their policy, is duly approved by their Board of Directors.
o It is clarified that the banks have the liberty to either open a new branch or upgrade an Extension Counter, which has been in operation for more than three
years, to a full-fledged branch, within the overall limit of 10 percent.

Q.15) Explanation:
· Recently, Reliance General Insurance has become the first general insurance company to accept Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)- Retail or e-Rupee (e₹) for
premium payments.

· Reliance General Insurance has partnered with YES Bank to launch the service.

Q.16) Explanation:

News Place / Launched Key Facts

India’s 1st Indian Air Inaugurated at: Chandigarh The heritage centre has the first
Force (IAF) Heritage Inaugurated by: Union IAF-made patent aircraft Air Force
Centre Defence Minister ‘Kanpur-1 Vintage Prototype
Aircraft’

Q.17) Explanation:

Focus Area Signed Between Key Facts

Acquisition Acquirer: JPMorgan Chase & Co. The acquisition was an implication
Agreement Acquiree: First Republic Bank after the failure of First Republic
Bank in the United States

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Q.18) Explanation:
· The Global Slavery Index (GSI) provides national estimates of modern slavery for 160 countries.

· It is presented by Walk Free, a human rights organisation, and is based on data provided by the Global Estimates of Modern Slavery, which, in turn, is produced by the International
Labour Organisation (ILO), Walk Free, and the International Organisation for Migration (IOM)

·         This is the fifth edition of the GSI and it is based on the 2022 estimates.

·         In its report, Walk Free reported that 49.6 million people are living in modern slavery, out of which, India is home to 11 million.

·         Among the G20 nations, India tops the list with 11 million people working as forced labourers, followed by 5 million in China, and 1.8 million in Russia

Q.19) Explanation:
Recently, Punjab National Bank, in collaboration with National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), has introduced an Interactive Voice
Response (IVR) based Unified Payments Interface (UPI) solution - UPI 123PAY.
Punjab National Bank has become the first public sector bank to introduce an IVR-based UPI solution.
It is aligned with Reserve Bank of India’s Digital Payment Vision 2025 towards a cashless and cardless society.

Q.20) Explanation:

Indian Embassy in Khartoum, Sudan Reason: Due to the prevailing security

to be temporarily relocated to Port situation in Sudan, including attacks in
Sudan Khartoum city.

Q.21) Explanation:

News Key Facts

First bank to allows customers to IOB has introduced this facility by launching ‘My
use any name as saving account Account My Name’ scheme.
number- Indian Overseas Bank As per the scheme, the account name can be a
(IOB) combination of seven letters, or seven numbers,
or seven alphanumeric only

Q.22) Explanation:
· According to the recently released Statement on Developmental and Regulatory Policies:

o   The extant guidelines on the Call, Notice and Term Money Markets prescribe prudential limits for outstanding borrowing in Call and Notice Money Markets for
Scheduled Commercial Banks.

o   With a view to providing greater flexibility for managing the money market borrowings, it has been decided that Scheduled Commercial Banks (excluding Small
Finance Banks) can set their own limits for borrowing in Call and Notice Money Markets within the prudential limits for inter-bank liabilities prescribed by the
Reserve Bank of India.

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Q.23) Explanation:

Recently, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) has modified the existing ‘use and file’ procedure for life
insurance products.
Objective: to facilitate the insurance industry in promoting insurance penetration.
Key Highlights

The following categories of life insurance products have been included

o   Individual And Group Unit-Linked Life And Health Insurance Products

o   Combi Products- combi products refer to insurance products where a life insurer acts as the lead insurer.

· The current Segregated Fund Identification Number (SFIN) clearance process by IRDAI has been dispensed.

· IRDAI has allowed the addition of new unit-linked funds to existing unit-linked products.

o   Once new funds are added to existing or new unit-linked products, they will be treated as existing funds for subsequent unit-linked products.

About ‘use and file’ procedure

The use and file procedure allows an insurer to launch a product first and then file its details with the regulator.

Q.24) Explanation:

Q.25) Explanation:
According to the recently published yearly numbers of banks, Bank of Maharashtra (BoM) has emerged as the top performing bank non-
performing assets (NPAs) Management  during FY23.
Important Information

The NPAs of Bank of Maharashtra fell as low as 0.25% during this period.

Q.26) Explanation:
Pradhan Manti Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY):

·     Launch Year – 2015

·     Ministry of Finance

·        Offered by Life Insurance Corporation (LIC) and all other life insurers who are willing to join the scheme and tie-up with banks.

·        Aim - To provide insurance cover to common people especially poor and the under-privileged sections of the society.

·        Life cover of Rs. 2 Lakh in case of death due to any reason against a premium of Rs. 436/- per annum. 

Q.27) Explanation:

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Program / Initiative / Launched / Key Facts

Landmarks Developed
by

PhonePe Payment PhonePe It is offering free onboarding to new

Gateway merchants, while most payment gateways
charge a standard transaction fee of 2%.
The initiative has been launched to promote
ease of doing business for Micro, Small &
Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).

Q.28) Explanation:

Initiatives / Launched by / Key Facts

Programs in Developed by
News

New Parliament The Prime  PM installed the historic sceptre "Sengol" in new
House (Sansad Minister of India parliament house. The Sengol derives its origin
Bhavan), New has recently from Chola empire
Delhi inaugurated the The new Parliament can seat 888 members in the
New Building of Lok Sabha Chambers.
Parliament

Q.29) Explanation:

News Introduced by Key Facts

Tie-up to introduce To be introduced by: Fino Hubble is backed by Sequoia

India’s first spending Payments Bank & fintech Capital
account startup Hubble

Q.30) Explanation:

News Built by Key Facts

India’s first lithium-ion cell To be built at: Gujarat In this regard, an MoU was signed between Gujarat Government and Tata
manufacturing gigafactory To be built by: Tata Group (Tata Power) Group

Q.31) Explanation:
Option 2 is correct.

·     “PM Programme for Restoration, Awareness, Nourishment and Amelioration of Mother Earth” (PM-PRANAM) to be launched to incentivize States and
Union Territories to promote alternative fertilizers and balanced use of chemical fertilizers.

Q.32) Explanation:

Person Position Organization/Company

Amit Agrawal Chief Executive Officer (CEO) Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI)

Q.33) Explanation:
· As per the recently issued “Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee (DLG) in Digital Lending” by the RBI, the Regulated Entities shall ensure that the total
amount of DLG cover on any outstanding portfolio which is specified upfront shall not exceed 5% of the amount of that loan portfolio.

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o In case of implicit guarantee arrangements, the DLG Provider shall not bear performance risk of more than the equivalent amount of 5% of the underlying loan
portfolio.

· Recognition of individual loan assets in the portfolio as NPA and consequent provisioning shall be the responsibility of the RE as per the extant asset
classification and provisioning norms irrespective of any DLG cover available at the portfolio level.

· The RE shall invoke DLG within a maximum overdue period of 120 days.

Q.34) Explanation:

Initiatives / Programs in News Launched by Key Facts

100-day ‘UP Global City’ Launched by: Uttar Pradesh Aim: To transform the
campaign (UP) Government lifestyles of urban bodies of
UP on par with global
standards.

Q.35) Explanation:
Recent update: initiative on connecting citizens with panel lawyers through video conferencing/telephone facilities by the Village Level Entrepreneur
identified in 1,00,000 gram panchayats.
Tele-Law Programme:
Launch year: 2017
Aim: ‘Reaching the Unreached’
Features of the Programme:
It is an e-interface mechanism to seek legal advice and consultation at a pre-litigation stage.
Connects the needy to Panel Lawyers via video conferencing/telephonic facilities available at Common Service Centres (CSCs) situated at the panchayat
level.
The service can also be accessed through the Tele-Law Mobile App.
Eligibility: Legal advice is made available to everyone under Tele-Law service. Advice is free of Cost to those who are eligible for free legal aid under
Section 12 of LSA (legal service authority) Act, 1987.

Q.36) Explanation:
A & C are correct.
Strengthening Teaching-Learning and Results for States (STARS) Project:

· Is being implemented in 6 identified States viz. Himachal Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Kerala.

· Focus is on improving student outcomes in the selected States and the governance of school education in India.

Q.37) Explanation:

Days Date Themes & Misc.

World Sickle Cell Day June 19 Theme: ‘Building and strengthening global sickle cell communities,
formalizing   newborn screening and knowing your sickle cell disease status’

Q.38) Explanation:

Exercise Countries / Forces Key Facts

Involved

4th Samudra Shakti-23 Indian Navy and Held at: Batam, Indonesia
Indonesian Navy Indian Participant: INS Kavaratti

Q.39) Explanation:

Miscellaneous News Key Facts

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The United Nations General Assembly  The resolution was piloted by India
(UNGA) has adopted Resolution to
establish a new Memorial Wall for fallen
Peacekeepers

Q.40) Explanation:

Book Title Author Key Facts

Made In India: 75 Years Amitabh Kant He had served as Chief Executive Officer
of Business and (CEO) of the National Institution for
Enterprise Transforming India (NITI Aayog)

Q.41) Explanation:
Surakshit Matritva Aashwasan (SUMAN):

A, C and D statements are correct.

Key Features

•    Under the scheme, the beneficiaries visiting public health facilities are entitled to several free services.
·     Provision Of Atleast 4 Antenatal Care (ANC) Checkup And 6 Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC) Visits (Statement B is incorrect).

•    Drop Back from Institution to Home After Due Discharge (Minimum 48 Hrs).

•    The pregnant women will be able to avail a zero-expense delivery and C-section facility in case of complications at public health facilities.

•    Assured Referral Services with Scope Of Reaching Health Facility within 1 Hour Of Any Critical Case Emergency.

•    Conditional Cash Transfer under Janani Suraksha Yojana and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana and any other State scheme etc.

Q.42) Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):                         

·     Mahatma Gandhi NREG Act is to provide at least 100 days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to each household in rural areas of the country
whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work.

·        Besides the mandatory 100 days, there is a provision for additional 50 days of unskilled wage employment in a financial year in drought/natural calamity
notified rural areas (Option 3 is correct).
 

Q.43) Explanation:
· Recently Microsoft on signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with Directorate General of Training (DGT) to train students regarding cyber security skills.

Important information

· Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Skills Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE)

·         MoU signed between: Directorate General of Training (DGT) and Microsoft.

·         Target to train: 6,000 students and 200 educators in digital and cyber-security skills.

·         Courses offered: training in AI, cloud computing, web development and cybersecurity skills.

Q.44) Explanation:
Recently data regarding Gross Direct tax collection has been released, shows the Gross Direct Tax collections for Financial Year (FY) 2023-24 register a growth of
12.73%.
Important Information

parameters FY 2023-24 FY 2022-23 % increase

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Gross collection of Rs. 4,19,338 crore Rs. 3,71,982 crore  12.73%
Direct Taxes

Net Direct Tax Rs. 3,79,760 crore Rs. 3,41,568 crore 11.18%.
collection

 Advance Tax Rs. 1,16,776 crore Rs. 1,02,707 13.70%

collections( for the
first quarter)
Refunds Rs. 39,578 crore Rs. 30,414 crore 30.13%

The Gross collection of Rs. 4,19,338 crore includes: Corporation Tax (CIT) at Rs. 1,87,311 crore and Personal Income Tax (PIT) and others
The Net Direct Tax collection of Rs. 3,79,760 crore (as on 17.06.2023) include Corporation Tax (CIT) at Rs. 1,56,949 crore (net of refund) and Personal Income Tax (PIT)
and others.
 

Q.45) Explanation:

Personality Profession Key Facts

Silvio Berlusconi Italian Politician, media tycoon He passed away recently.

He was the former Prime Minister of Italy

Q.46) Explanation:

Initiatives / Programs in News Launched by / Key Facts

Developed by

New recruitment portal for University Grant Aim: Developing an enabling

Central University faculty – Commission (UGC) environment for both universities and
‘CU-Chayan’ applicants, with universities able to
manage every aspect of the
recruitment process independently

Q.47) Explanation:
Only Statements C is correct.
Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles (FAME India) Phase II:

· It has been launched to incentivize demand for Electric Vehicles (EVs) by providing upfront subsidies and creating EV charging infrastructure.

· The government has reduced the subsidy provided under FAME-II (Faster Adoption of Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles in India) scheme applicable on electric
two-wheelers registered on or after June 1, 2023.

o For the electric two-wheelers, the demand incentive will be ₹10,000 per kWh (Statement A is incorrect).

o The cap on incentives for electric two-wheelers will be 15 per cent of the ex-factory price of vehicles from the current rate of 40 per cent.

· Ministry of Heavy Industries is Nodal Ministry of Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric Vehicles in India Phase II (FAME India II) (Statement B is
incorrect).

· FAME India II Scheme was launched in the year 2019.

· This scheme has been extended for 2 years, till 2024 (Statement C is correct).

Q.48) Explanation:
Project Tiger:
Launch year: 1973 (Launch venue:  Jim Corbett National Park in Uttarakhand)
Initially started with 9 tiger reserves, Now 53 tiger reserves.
Nodal Ministry: Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change 
Statutory provision: Wild Life (Protection) Act of 1972, Under NTCA (National Tiger Conservation Authority)

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Q.49) Explanation:
Statements B and C are correct.

Employees’ Pension Scheme,1995 (EPS,1995):

· Membership till he attains age of 58 years, or he avails withdrawal benefit to which he is entitled, or dies, or pension is vested in him (Statement A is
incorrect).

· Of the employer's share of 12 % in Employees’ Provident Fund (EPF), 8.33 % diverted towards the EPS (Statement B is correct).

· Central Government also contribute 1.16 % of the pay of the members of Employees' Pension Scheme and credit the contribution to Employees' Pension Fund
(Statement C is correct).

Q.50) Explanation:
Recently The U.N. has adopted the world's first treaty to protect the high seas and preserve marine biodiversity in international waters.
Important information

The adoption followed an agreement reached in March by more than 100 countries on the text of the High Seas Treaty.
It is also known as Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction treaty.
The agreement will be open for signature: in New York for two years starting Sept. 20, the day following a summit on the U.N. sustainable development
goals.
It will comes into effect: after 60 countries ratify the agreement, according to the U.N.
Nature of Agreement: legally binding agreement.
Coverage (provisions): sharing benefits derived from marine genetic resources beyond national jurisdictions, creating protected areas on the high seas
and establishing a framework for assessing environmental damage.
Additional information

This treaty is the first international law to offer some protection to the nearly two-thirds of the ocean that is beyond national control.
UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS): is an international treaty that establishes a framework for the use and management of the world's
oceans and their resources.

Q.51) Explanation:

Award/Milestone Awardee Key Facts

Gandhi Peace Prize for 2021 Gita Press, Gorakhpur Gita Press has been awarded in recognition of its remarkable
contribution towards social, economic and political transformation
through non-violent and other Gandhian methods.
Gita Press was established in 1923.
It is one of the world’s largest publishers

Q.52) Explanation:

Person Position Organization /  Country / State /  Key Facts

Company

Linda Yaccarino Chief Executive Officer (CEO) Twitter She worked at NBCUniversal before as the ad-
chief

Q.53) Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Matsya Kisan Samridhi Sah-Yojana:

· A new sub-scheme of PM Matsya Sampada Yojana with targeted investment of ₹6,000 crore to be launched to further enable activities of fishermen, fish
vendors, and micro & small enterprises, improve value chain efficiencies, and expand the market.

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Q.54) Explanation:
Revenue receipts: The receipts that do not create any liabilities and do not lead to a claim on the government.
Non tax revenue: it is the recurring income that is earned from sources other than taxes by the government.
Tax revenue: The sum of all receipts from the taxes and all other duties under the government.
Capital receipts: one of the components of the Capital Budget that results in the creation of liabilities or the reduction of financial assets.
Non-debt creating capital: Those that the government does not have to repay in the future.
Example: Recovery of loans and advances, disinvestment, and the issuance of bonus shares
Debt creating capital: The government is obligated to repay debt receipts.

Q.55) Explanation:

News Introduced by Key Facts

First dedicated road Launched by: Government of World Bank will provide USD
safety project in South Bangladesh & World Bank. 358 million towards the
Asia project.

Q.56) Explanation:

News Place Key Facts

First Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Hingoli (Maharashtra)            · LIGO India has 4 km arm length.
Observatory India (LIGO-India) foundation stone laid
· It will function in sync with two LIGO observatories in
USA

Q.57) Explanation:
· According to the recently released Global gender gap report 2023 by the World Economic Forum, India was ranked 127 out of 146 countries in terms of gender parity — an
improvement of eight places from last year.

· India was ranked 135 in the report’s 2022 edition.

· India closed 64.3% of the overall gender gap.

·        

Q.58) Explanation:

Days Date Themes & Misc.

30th World Press May 3 Theme: Shaping a Future of Rights: Freedom of Expression as a Driver for all other human rights
Freedom Day

Q.59) Explanation:

News Place Key Facts

India's first Organized at: It has been officially registered in the Guinness
frozen-lake Pangong Tso Book of World Records as the world's highest
marathon- (lake), Leh Frozen Lake marathon.
‘Last Run’ District, Ladakh The 21 Km Marathon started from Lukung & ended at
Maan village.
Height of Pangong Tso: 13,862 feet

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Q.60) Explanation:
· The Reserve Bank released the web publication ‘Deposits with Scheduled Commercial Banks – March 2023’ on its “Database on Indian Economy” (DBIE)
portal.

Highlights
· Deposits with SCBs grew by 10.2% during 2022-23 (10.0% in 2021-22).

· Senior citizens contributed about 1/5 of total deposits as at end-March 2023.

o Their shares in total term and savings deposits stood at 22.2% and 21.3%, respectively.

· The share of female senior citizens in total deposits with SCBs stood at 7.2 per cent.

o Contribution of female customers in total deposits increased to 20.5 per cent in March 2023 as compared to 19.8 per cent a year ago.

· With monetary tightening during 2022-23, the return on term deposits had higher differential from saving deposit interest rate and accordingly, much higher share
of deposit amount was mobilised under term deposits (73.2 per cent) as compared to 44.4 per cent in 2021-22.

o The share of term deposits in total deposits increased to 56.9 per cent in March 2023 as compared to 55.2 per cent a year ago.

Q.61) Explanation:

76th Cannes Palme d’Or French movie Anatomy of Palme d’Or is the top prize in Cannes
Film Festival a Fall
(Director - Justine Triet) India’s Cannes pavilion was based on the Saraswati Yantra, drawn from ‘Maha Upanishad’,
pavilion was designed by National Institute of Design, Ahmedabad
Four Indian films were officially screened – Agra (Kanu Behl), Kennedy (Anurag Kashyap),
Nehemich (short film),
Restored Manipuri movie ‘Ishanou’ was screened under Classic Section

Q.62) Explanation:

Programs in News Launched by Key Facts

Gaganyaan Mission Indian Space Research Recently, Tata Elxsi has partnered with ISRO to develop crew module recovery models (CMRM)
Organisation (ISRO) for the recovery team training of the Gaganyaan mission.
Gaganyaan Mission envisages demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching
crew of 3 members to an orbit of 400 km for a 3 days mission and bring them back safely to
earth, by landing in Indian sea waters.

Q.63) Explanation:
Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) Scheme:

·     Launch – 2021

·     Objectives –

o   To increase the number of acceptance devices multi-fold in country (Statement A is correct)

o   To benefit the acquiring banks / non-banks and merchants by lowering overall acceptance infrastructure cost

·        By - Reserve Bank of India (Statement B is incorrect)

·        Tenure - 3 years from January 01, 2021, extendable by 2 further years, if necessary

·        Primary focus to create payment acceptance infrastructure in Tier-3 to Tier-6 centres (Statement C is incorrect).

o   Scheme shall include eligible street vendors covered under PM Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi (PM SVANidhi Scheme) in Tier-1 and Tier-2 centres (From
August 2021).

Q.64) Explanation:

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Topic Key Facts

Cyclone Biparjoy It is a tropical storm formed in the Arabian Sea.

The name Biparjoy was suggested by Bangladesh and it means ‘disaster’ or ‘calamity’ in Bengali.
It has a Maximum sustained wind speed of 125-135 kmph gusting to 145 kmph.
It is expected to cross  Saurashtra & Kutch between Mandvi (Gujarat) and Karachi (Pakistan) near Jakhau Port
(Gujarat)

Q.65) Explanation:

Book Title Author Key Facts

India’s Struggle for P. Jyothimani Released by: Supreme Court

Independence – Judge Justice V.
Gandhian Era Ramasubramanian

Q.66) Explanation:
Additional information
Part XII of the Indian Constitution deals with financial relations between the centre and the states.
The Finance Commission (Article 280) makes recommendations to the President on the division of net tax receipts between the centre and the states.
Statutory Grants - Article 275 authorizes Parliament to offer grants to states in need of financial help, rather than to all states.

Q.67) Explanation:

Festival Country / State Key Facts

Wihu Kuh Festival Celebrated at: Celebrated by: Tangsa Tribe

(Paddy Transplantation Arunachal Pradesh Tangsa Tribe primarily reside in
Festival) Changlang district, Arunachal
Pradesh & Sagaing Region in
Myanmar

Q.68) Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyaan (KUSUM) Scheme:

· Target - To add solar and other renewable capacity of 30.8 gigawatt (GW) with total central financial support of Rs. 34,422 Crore.

· Component A: 10,000 MW of Decentralized Ground Mounted Grid Connected Renewable Power Plants of individual plant size up to 2 MW.

· Component B: Installation of 20 lakh standalone solar powered agricultural pumps

o Can replace their existing diesel pumps with solar pumps.

o Central Financial Assistance (CFA) available for pump capacity up to 15 HP (increased from 7.5 HP) to

§ Individual farmers in the North-eastern States, UTs of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, States of Uttarakhand and Himachal Pradesh and Island UTs of Andaman &
Nicobar and Lakshadweep

§ For each farmer in cluster/ community irrigation projects in high water table areas in all the States/ UTs.

· Component C: Solarisation of 15 Lakh Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps                                                      

                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                                             

Q.69) Explanation:
Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme

Key Features:

· Issued by - Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the Government of India

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· The Bonds will be denominated in multiples of gram(s) of gold with a basic unit of 1 gram.

· The investment limit per fiscal year is 4 kg for individuals, 4 Kg for Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) and 20 Kg for Trusts and similar entities notified by the
Government from time to time.

· SGB Sold through:

o Scheduled Commercial banks (except Small Finance Banks, Payment Banks and Regional Rural Banks), Stock Holding Corporation of India Limited (SHCIL),
Clearing Corporation of India Limited (CCIL), designated post offices, and recognised stock exchanges.

Q.70) Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)

· As per UNION BUDGET 2023-24, 9.6 crore LPG connections provided under Ujjwala Scheme.

· Launch Year – 2016

· Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas

· Aim – To safeguard the health of women & children by providing them clean cooking fuel i.e., liquefied petroleum gas (LPG)

Q.71) Explanation:

Focus Area Signed between Key facts

Collaboration to supply Tribal Cooperative TRIFED has highlighted the

34,000 yoga mats for the Marketing Development following products/communities-
International Yoga Day Federation of India Ltd.
(TRIFED) with the · Madurkathi Mats from
Ministry of Ayush Medinipur,West Bengal - made by
Santhal Community.

· Sabai Grass Yoga Mats- made by

Bathudi tribes from Mayurbhanj,
Odisha.

Gondha Grass yoga mats from

Potka block in East Singhbhum,
Jharkhand

Q.72) Explanation:
· Recently, NSE Indices has launched India’s first ever municipal bond index- Nifty India Municipal Bond Index.

· The index was launched at Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) workshop on Municipal Debt Securities in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

Key Features of the Index

·         Base Date: January 1, 2021; Base Value: 1,000

·         The index tracks the performance of municipal bonds issued by Indian municipal corporations across maturities and having investment grade credit rating.

·         The index is computed using the total return methodology including price return and coupon return.

·         The index will be reviewed quarterly.

Q.73) Explanation:
Recently has launched mission EVOLVE (Electric Vehicle Operations and Lending for Vibrant Ecosystem).
Important information

Launched by: SIDBI, in association with NITI Aayog, World Bank, Korean-World Bank and Korean Economic Development Cooperation Fund (EDCF).
Purpose: finance MSMEs in the EV space.
Features of the mission:
SIDBI will give MSMEs access to affordable commercial financing for EV loans including hosting of telematics.
Launched in the backdrop of SIDBI’s aim to support India’s target for 30 per cent EV penetration by 2030 or EV30@30.
SIDBI had announced a pilot scheme Mission 50,000-EV4ECO in April this year under guidance from NITI Aayog.
The mission aims to finance 50,000 EVs.

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Q.74) Explanation:

News Developed by Key Facts

India’s first Designed & Developed MDS has recently started delivering the first
Armoured by: Mahindra Defence units of Armado to Indian Armed Forces
Light Systems (MDS), a wholly-
Specialist owned subsidiary of
Vehicle Mahindra Group
(ALSV)-
Armado

Q.75) Explanation:

News Place / Developed by / Launched Key Facts

India’s first water Initiative of: Cochin Shipyard Limited It will connect 10 islands, in
metro- Kochi Funded by: Government of Kerala and and around Kochi
Water Metro German firm KfW.

Q.76) Explanation:
Initiative Organized by Key Facts

“Julley Ladakh” (Hello Organized by: Indian Objective: to increase awareness

Ladakh) outreach Navy about the service of Indian Navy in
programme Ladakh.
A 5000km Motorcycle Expedition,
in partnership with TVS Motors was
flagged off from National War
Memorial

Q.77) Explanation:
9th International Yoga Day June 21 Theme: 'Yoga for Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam'.
(Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam means One Earth · One Family · One Future)
The Prime Minister of India led the 9th annual International Day of Yoga
celebrations at the iconic North Lawn of the UN Headquarters in New
York City.
The National celebration was led by the Vice President of India at
Jabalpur in Madhya Pradesh
The day is celebrated every year since 2015.
The Prime Minister of India proposed the day in 2014 to the United
Nations (UN)

Q.78) Explanation:
Statements B & C are correct.

Production-Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme 2.0 for IT Hardware:

It provides production linked incentives to boost domestic manufacturing and attract large investments in the value chain of IT Hardware products.

Target segments:
· Laptops

· Tablets

· All-in-One Personal Computers (PCs)

· Servers

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· Ultra small form factor devices.

Q.79) Explanation:
Statements A and B are correct.

· Atal Bhujal Yojana (Atal Jal) is implemented by the Ministry of Jal Shakti to improve the management of groundwater resources in the water stressed
areas of the 7 States, viz. Gujarat, Haryana, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh (Statement A is correct).

· It was launched in the year 2019 (Statement B is correct).

· Department of Water Resources, River development and Ganga Rejuvenation, (Ministry of Jal Shakti) is responsible for implementation of Atal Bhujal
Yojana, aided by the World Bank (Statement C in incorrect).

Q.80) Explanation:
Recently, the board of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has approved the transfer of Rs 87,416 crore as surplus to the Government of India for the
accounting year 2022-23.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) transfers its surplus profits to the Government of India in terms of the provisions of Section 47 of the Reserve Bank of
India Act, 1934. 

REASONING ABILITY
Q.1) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

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Tanu lives to the east of Ravi.

Q.2) Explanation:
Explanation-

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3 persons live between Rani and Stella.

Q.3) Explanation:
Explanation-

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All the persons except for Manu lives in flat B.

Manu is the odd one.

Q.4) Explanation:
Explanation-

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4 persons live above the one who likes Galaxy.

Q.5) Explanation:
Explanation-

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All the persons except for Rani live in flat A.

Rani is the odd one.

Q.6) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. (This means both the
persons are sitting in row 1.)

W is sitting exactly between the row and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. (This means W celebrates his birthday on 3.)

The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. (This means the person celebrating his birthday on 31st is sitting in row 2.)

The one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. (X is sitting in row 2 at the extreme left end.)

V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the row.

V is sitting opposite P, who is an immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W.

Q celebrates his birthday on a date that is square of the smallest prime number. (Q celebrates birthday on 4.)

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Y is sitting opposite N. (Here case 2 is cancelled.)

Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. (Z celebrates his birthday on1st.)

V’s birthday is not on the date that is squareroot of the Q’s birthdate. (This means P’s birthday is on 2 and V’s birthday is on 20.)

This is our final arrangement:

P celebrates his birthday on 2.

Q.7) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. (This means both the
persons are sitting in row 1.)

W is sitting exactly between the row and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. (This means W celebrates his birthday on 3.)

The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. (This means the person celebrating his birthday on 31st is sitting in row 2.)

The one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. (X is sitting in row 2 at the extreme left end.)

V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the row.

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V is sitting opposite P, who is an immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W.

Q celebrates his birthday on a date that is square of the smallest prime number. (Q celebrates birthday on 4.)

Y is sitting opposite N. (Here case 2 is cancelled.)

Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. (Z celebrates his birthday on1st.)

V’s birthday is not on the date that is squareroot of the Q’s birthdate. (This means P’s birthday is on 2 and V’s birthday is on 20.)

This is our final arrangement:

3 people are sitting between X and Y.

Q.8) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. (This means both the
persons are sitting in row 1.)

W is sitting exactly between the row and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. (This means W celebrates his birthday on 3.)

The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. (This means the person celebrating his birthday on 31st is sitting in row 2.)

The one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

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X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. (X is sitting in row 2 at the extreme left end.)

V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the row.

V is sitting opposite P, who is an immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W.

Q celebrates his birthday on a date that is square of the smallest prime number. (Q celebrates birthday on 4.)

Y is sitting opposite N. (Here case 2 is cancelled.)

Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. (Z celebrates his birthday on1st.)

V’s birthday is not on the date that is squareroot of the Q’s birthdate. (This means P’s birthday is on 2 and V’s birthday is on 20.)

This is our final arrangement:

Q is facing the person who celebrates his birthday on 1st.

Q.9) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. (This means both the
persons are sitting in row 1.)

W is sitting exactly between the row and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. (This means W celebrates his birthday on 3.)

The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. (This means the person celebrating his birthday on 31st is sitting in row 2.)

The one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

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X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. (X is sitting in row 2 at the extreme left end.)

V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the row.

V is sitting opposite P, who is an immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W.

Q celebrates his birthday on a date that is square of the smallest prime number. (Q celebrates birthday on 4.)

Y is sitting opposite N. (Here case 2 is cancelled.)

Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. (Z celebrates his birthday on1st.)

V’s birthday is not on the date that is squareroot of the Q’s birthdate. (This means P’s birthday is on 2 and V’s birthday is on 20.)

This is our final arrangement:

All the persons except for V are sitting at the extreme ends of the row.

V is the odd one.

Q.10) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

M is sitting on one of the extreme ends of the row.

The one who celebrates his birthday on 28th is sitting fourth to the right of the person who celebrates birthday on 12 and none of them are facing north. (This means both the
persons are sitting in row 1.)

W is sitting exactly between the row and celebrates his birthday on a date that is the smallest odd prime. (This means W celebrates his birthday on 3.)

The one who celebrates birthday on 14 is facing the one who celebrates birthday on 3.

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The one who celebrates his birthday on 31st is sitting at the extreme right end. (This means the person celebrating his birthday on 31st is sitting in row 2.)

The one who celebrates his birthday on 11 is sitting four places away from the one who celebrates birthday on 31st.

X is sitting diagonally opposite to the one who celebrates his birthday on 12. (X is sitting in row 2 at the extreme left end.)

V is not an immediate neighbor of the person sitting at the extreme left end of the row.

V is sitting opposite P, who is an immediate neighbor of O, who is sitting opposite W.

Q celebrates his birthday on a date that is square of the smallest prime number. (Q celebrates birthday on 4.)

Y is sitting opposite N. (Here case 2 is cancelled.)

Z is the first one to celebrate his birthday among all. (Z celebrates his birthday on1st.)

V’s birthday is not on the date that is squareroot of the Q’s birthdate. (This means P’s birthday is on 2 and V’s birthday is on 20.)

This is our final arrangement:

M is sitting diagonally opposite to Y.

Q.11) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given: Ram * Shyam ! Rani & Sam % Jae + Jim

Decoding the codes:

Ram * Shyam means Ram is the daughter of Shyam

Shyam ! Rani means Shyam is the son of Rani

Rani & Sam means Rani is the sister of Sam

Sam % Jae means Sam is the father of Jae

Jae + Jim means Jae is the mother of Jim

By making the family tree diagram we get relations and gender of all the members.

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Jae is cousin of Shyam.

Q.12) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given: Tom & Romi ! Tim % Jin * Jack

Decoding the codes:

Tom & Romi means Tom is the sister of Romi

Romi ! Tim means Romi is the son of Tim

Tim % Jin means Tim is the father of Jin

Jin * Jack means Jin is the daughter of Jack

By making the family tree diagram we get relations and gender of all the members.

Tim is the father of Jin.

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Q.13) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given: Anu & Manu % Janvi + Maan ! Sam % Joe

Decoding the codes:

Anu & Manu means Anu is the sister of Manu

Manu % Janvi means Manu is the father of Janvi

Janvi + Maan means Janvi is the mother of Maan

Maan ! Sam means Maan is the son of Sam

Sam % Joe means Sam is the father of Joe

By making the family tree diagram we get relations and gender of all the members.

Manu is the grandfather of Joe.

Q.14) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given: Suku * Muku ! Jimi % Tim = Sid + Biden

Decoding the codes:

Suku * Muku means Suku is the daughter of Muku

Muku ! Jimi means Muku is the son of Jimi

Jimi % Tim means Jimi is the father of Tim

Tim = Sid means Tim is the brother of Sid

Sid + Biden means Sid is the mother of Biden

By making the family tree diagram we get relations and gender of all the members.

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Suku is the niece of Tim.

Q.15) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statement: Q ! P % V ^ W $ T & A % X

Deccoding the statement: Q ≥ P > V < W ≤ T = A > X

Conclusions:

    I.     V ^ T (V < T): True (V < W ≤ T)

  II.     W ! A (W ≥ A): False (W ≤ T = A; A is greater or equals to W.)

Thus only I follows.

Q.16) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statement:  F % U ! J $ B & R ^ O ! N

Decoding the codes: F > U ≥ J ≤ B = R < O ≥ N

Conclusions:

    I.     J & B (J = B): False (J ≤ B)

  II.            F ! R (F ≥ R): False (F > U ≥ J ≤ B = R; opposite signs between the elements.)

Thus neither I nor II follows.

Q.17) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statement: X ^ M & I % W $ L & B

Decoding the codes: X < M = I > W ≤ L = B

Conclusions:

    I.     X $ M (X ≤ M): False (X < M)

  II.            I ^ W (I < W): False (I > W.)

Thus neither I nor II follows.

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Q.18) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given: O # V & N ^ X & J

Decoding the codes:

O # V means O is 8 m south of V

V & N means V is 7 m north of N

N ^ X means N is 6 m west of X

X & J means X is 7 m north of J

By making the diagram we get all the distances and directions travelled by the people:

O is in northwest of J.

Q.19) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given: C # B ^ P @ Q & D

Decoding the codes:

C # B means C is 8 m south of B

B ^ P means B is 6 m west of P

P @ Q means P is 5 m east of Q

Q & D means Q is 7 m north of D

By making the diagram we get all the distances and directions travelled by the people:

C is in southwest of Q.

Q.20) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

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Given: G ^# H & W @ Y; M #@ Y

Decoding the codes:

G ^# H means G is 14 southwest of H

H & W means H is 7 m north of W

W @ Y means W is 5 m east of Y

M #@ Y means M is 13 m southeast of Y

By making the diagram we get all the distances and directions travelled by the people:

W is in northeast of G.

Q.21) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given: R @# T ^ J & E; J # L

Decoding the codes:

R @# T means R is 13 m southeast of T

T ^ J means T is 5 east of J

J & E means J is 7 m north of E

J # L means J is 8 m south of L

By making the diagram we get all the distances and directions travelled by the people:

The total distance covered by Rene is 13 m.

Q.22) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

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Given series: A & 8 V - ( 0 L P @ 2 Q 1 # = B Z + S 3 % K ^ J F D 1 ! 2 Y * O 9 I ? > G H @ X

There are no vowels between ( and ^.

Q.23) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given series: A & 8 V - ( 0 L P @ 2 Q 1 # = B Z + S 3 % K ^ J F D 1 ! 2 Y * O 9 I ? > G H @ X

Thirteenth element from the left is = 1

Sixth element to the right of 1 = S

S is sixth from the right of thirteenth element from the left end.

Q.24) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Given series: A & 8 V - ( 0 L P @ 2 Q 1 # = B Z + S 3 % K ^ J F D 1 ! 2 Y * O 9 I ? > G H @ X

The total number of vowels in the given series is 3.

Q.25) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

By making the least possible venn diagram:

Conclusions :

    I.     Some angel are aaditi: False (This is a possibility but no definite as no direct relationship between the two is given.)

  II.            No aaditi are anjali: True (As it is given that no anjali is aaditi.)

    III.            A few Arya is angel: False (This is a possibility but no definite as no direct relationship between the two is given.

    IV.            Some Anjali are arya: False (This is a possibility but no definite as no direct relationship between the two is given.

Thus only conclusion II follows.

Q.26) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

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By making the least possible venn diagram:

Conclusions :

    I.     Some top are pants: False (This is a possibility but no definite as no direct relationship between the two is given.

  II.            All pants are shirt: False (It is given that only a few pants are shirt so all pants can never be shirt.)

    III.            No skirt is shirt: False (This is a possibility but no definite as no direct relationship between the two is given.

    IV.            Some shirts are top: False (It is given that no top is shirt.)

Thus none of the conclusions follows.

Q.27) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

By making the least possible venn diagram:

Conclusions:

    I.     Some fries are burger: False (This is a possibility but no definite as no direct relationship between the two is given.

  II.            No burger is noodles: True (As it is given that no noodles are burger.)

    III.            Some dosa are pizza: False (This is a possibility but no definite as no direct relationship between the two is given.

    IV.            No pizza is fries: False (It is given that only a few fries are pizza.)

Thus only conclusion II follows.

Q.28) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

When we observe the given machine output, it is clear that there are six numeric combinations and they are changed step by step.

Step by step explanation:

Input:  378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

For step 1 we first interchange the first and last digit of the number, then second and second last digit is interchanged within the number. Atlast the third and the third last digits are
interchanged. We apply this condition to all the numbers given in the input. 

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

For step2 we arrange the number on the basis of odd even in such a way that first all the even numbers are arranged in ascending order then all the odd numbers are arranged in an
ascending order within the number. The result we get after performing this operation is step 2.

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

For step3 we arranged all the digits within the number in descending order.

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Then after getting step3 we add first and second, third and fourth and fifth and sixth digit. The resultant is step4.

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

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For step5 we add all the digits within the number and write the sum then we write the alphabet that has same positional value as the sum of the digits within the number in the
step5.

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Now, we will solve the given input in the similar fashion “Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712”

Step1: 689344  819256  135927  248261  937128  217359

Step2: 446839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579

Step3: 986443  986521  975321  864221  987321  975321

Step4: 17107  17113  1683  1463  17103 1683

Step5:  16P  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R

The third number from the right step 4: 1463

Second digit from the left in 1463 is: 4

Q.29) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

When we observe the given machine output, it is clear that there are six numeric combinations and they are changed step by step.

Step by step explanation:

Input:  378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

For step 1 we first interchange the first and last digit of the number, then second and second last digit is interchanged within the number. Atlast the third and the third last digits are
interchanged. We apply this condition to all the numbers given in the input. 

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

For step2 we arrange the number on the basis of odd even in such a way that first all the even numbers are arranged in ascending order then all the odd numbers are arranged in an
ascending order within the number. The result we get after performing this operation is step 2.

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

For step3 we arranged all the digits within the number in descending order.

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Then after getting step3 we add first and second, third and fourth and fifth and sixth digit. The resultant is step4.

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

For step5 we add all the digits within the number and write the sum then we write the alphabet that has same positional value as the sum of the digits within the number in the
step5.

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Now, we will solve the given input in the similar fashion “Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712”

Step1: 689344  819256  135927  248261  937128  217359

Step2: 446839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579

Step3: 986443  986521  975321  864221  987321  975321

Step4: 17107  17113  1683  1463  17103 1683

Step5:  16P  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R

446839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579 is the output in step 2.

Q.30) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

When we observe the given machine output, it is clear that there are six numeric combinations and they are changed step by step.

Step by step explanation:

Input:  378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

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For step 1 we first interchange the first and last digit of the number, then second and second last digit is interchanged within the number. Atlast the third and the third last digits are
interchanged. We apply this condition to all the numbers given in the input. 

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

For step2 we arrange the number on the basis of odd even in such a way that first all the even numbers are arranged in ascending order then all the odd numbers are arranged in an
ascending order within the number. The result we get after performing this operation is step 2.

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

For step3 we arranged all the digits within the number in descending order.

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Then after getting step3 we add first and second, third and fourth and fifth and sixth digit. The resultant is step4.

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

For step5 we add all the digits within the number and write the sum then we write the alphabet that has same positional value as the sum of the digits within the number in the
step5.

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Now, we will solve the given input in the similar fashion “Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712”

Step1: 689344  819256  135927  248261  937128  217359

Step2: 446839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579

Step3: 986443  986521  975321  864221  987321  975321

Step4: 17107  17113  1683  1463  17103 1683

Step5:  16P  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R

16P  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R is the last step of the given input.

Q.31) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

When we observe the given machine output, it is clear that there are six numeric combinations and they are changed step by step.

Step by step explanation:

Input:  378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

For step 1 we first interchange the first and last digit of the number, then second and second last digit is interchanged within the number. Atlast the third and the third last digits are
interchanged. We apply this condition to all the numbers given in the input. 

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

For step2 we arrange the number on the basis of odd even in such a way that first all the even numbers are arranged in ascending order then all the odd numbers are arranged in an
ascending order within the number. The result we get after performing this operation is step 2.

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

For step3 we arranged all the digits within the number in descending order.

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Then after getting step3 we add first and second, third and fourth and fifth and sixth digit. The resultant is step4.

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

For step5 we add all the digits within the number and write the sum then we write the alphabet that has same positional value as the sum of the digits within the number in the
step5.

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Now, we will solve the given input in the similar fashion “Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712”

Step1: 689344  819256  135927  248261  937128  217359

Step2: 446839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579

Step3: 986443  986521  975321  864221  987321  975321

Step4: 17107  17113  1683  1463  17103 1683

Step5:  16P  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R

986521 is the fifth digit from the right end in step 3.

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Q.32) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

When we observe the given machine output, it is clear that there are six numeric combinations and they are changed step by step.

Step by step explanation:

Input:  378921  452981  571239  782298  327817  682457

For step 1 we first interchange the first and last digit of the number, then second and second last digit is interchanged within the number. Atlast the third and the third last digits are
interchanged. We apply this condition to all the numbers given in the input. 

Step1: 129873  189254  932175  892287  718721  754286

For step2 we arrange the number on the basis of odd even in such a way that first all the even numbers are arranged in ascending order then all the odd numbers are arranged in an
ascending order within the number. The result we get after performing this operation is step 2.

Step2: 281379  248159  213759  228879  281177  246857

For step3 we arranged all the digits within the number in descending order.

Step3: 987321  985421  975321  988722  877211  876542

Then after getting step3 we add first and second, third and fourth and fifth and sixth digit. The resultant is step4.

Step4: 17103  1793  1683  17154  1592  15116

For step5 we add all the digits within the number and write the sum then we write the alphabet that has same positional value as the sum of the digits within the number in the
step5.

Step5: 12L  20T  18R  18R  17Q  14N

Now, we will solve the given input in the similar fashion “Input: 443986  652918  729531 162842  821739  953712”

Step1: 689344  819256  135927  248261  937128  217359

Step2: 446839  268159  213579  224681  281379  213579

Step3: 986443  986521  975321  864221  987321  975321

Step4: 17107  17113  1683  1463  17103 1683

Step5:  16P  13M  18R  14N  12L  18R

Sixth digit from the right end in step 2 is: 446839

The sum of all the digits in the number that is sixth from the right end in step2: 34

Q.33) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

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L is colonel.

Q.34) Explanation:
Explanation-

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L likes Pink color.

Q.35) Explanation:
Explanation-

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E is the Field Marshal.

Q.36) Explanation:
Explanation-

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5 posts are between the one who likes Red color and the one who is Lieutenant colonel.

Q.37) Explanation:
Explanation-

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F is Captain.

Q.38) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

P is sitting fourth to the left of V. (Here we have two cases i.e. Case1 and Case2.)

The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V.

Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. (This means the person sitting immediate right of V is facing the opposite direction to V.)

Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is sitting immediate right of V.

W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P.

The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. (This means Q, W and P are facing the same direction.)

Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of W. (T is sitting immediate right of V.)

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O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions.

M is sitting second to the right of O and faces the same direction as W.

N and M are not facing the same direction.

R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. (This means R is an immediate neighbor of both M and O.)

R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does not sit to the right of P.

Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. (This means R is facing the same direction as O and M.)

Y is sitting third to the left of R, who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. (Here case 1 is canceled.)

X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S.

Z does not face inside. (Z faces outside.)

Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who face the same direction as Z. (L faces outside.)

At least two persons sitting between N and Z when counted from the left of Z faces inside. (Z is an immediate neighbor of V and X and S are facing inside.)

The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. (Y faces inside.)

This is our final arrangement:

X and Z are immediate neighbors of S.

Q.39) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

P is sitting fourth to the left of V. (Here we have two cases i.e. Case1 and Case2.)

The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V.

Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. (This means the person sitting immediate right of V is facing the opposite direction to V.)

Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is sitting immediate right of V.

W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P.

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The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. (This means Q, W and P are facing the same direction.)

Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of W. (T is sitting immediate right of V.)

O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions.

M is sitting second to the right of O and faces the same direction as W.

N and M are not facing the same direction.

R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. (This means R is an immediate neighbor of both M and O.)

R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does not sit to the right of P.

Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. (This means R is facing the same direction as O and M.)

Y is sitting third to the left of R, who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. (Here case 1 is canceled.)

X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S.

Z does not face inside. (Z faces outside.)

Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who face the same direction as Z. (L faces outside.)

At least two persons sitting between N and Z when counted from the left of Z faces inside. (Z is an immediate neighbor of V and X and S are facing inside.)

The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. (Y faces inside.)

This is our final arrangement:

15 is the total number of people sitting around the circular table.

Q.40) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

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P is sitting fourth to the left of V. (Here we have two cases i.e. Case1 and Case2.)

The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V.

Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. (This means the person sitting immediate right of V is facing the opposite direction to V.)

Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is sitting immediate right of V.

W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P.

The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. (This means Q, W and P are facing the same direction.)

Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of W. (T is sitting immediate right of V.)

O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions.

M is sitting second to the right of O and faces the same direction as W.

N and M are not facing the same direction.

R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. (This means R is an immediate neighbor of both M and O.)

R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does not sit to the right of P.

Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. (This means R is facing the same direction as O and M.)

Y is sitting third to the left of R, who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. (Here case 1 is canceled.)

X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S.

Z does not face inside. (Z faces outside.)

Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who face the same direction as Z. (L faces outside.)

At least two persons sitting between N and Z when counted from the left of Z faces inside. (Z is an immediate neighbor of V and X and S are facing inside.)

The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. (Y faces inside.)

This is our final arrangement:

9 persons are facing outside.

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Q.41) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

P is sitting fourth to the left of V. (Here we have two cases i.e. Case1 and Case2.)

The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V.

Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. (This means the person sitting immediate right of V is facing the opposite direction to V.)

Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is sitting immediate right of V.

W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P.

The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. (This means Q, W and P are facing the same direction.)

Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of W. (T is sitting immediate right of V.)

O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions.

M is sitting second to the right of O and faces the same direction as W.

N and M are not facing the same direction.

R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. (This means R is an immediate neighbor of both M and O.)

R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does not sit to the right of P.

Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. (This means R is facing the same direction as O and M.)

Y is sitting third to the left of R, who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. (Here case 1 is canceled.)

X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S.

Z does not face inside. (Z faces outside.)

Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who face the same direction as Z. (L faces outside.)

At least two persons sitting between N and Z when counted from the left of Z faces inside. (Z is an

 immediate neighbor of V and X and S are facing inside.)

The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. (Y faces inside.)

This is our final arrangement:

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9 people are sitting between Z and Y when counted from the left of Y.

Q.42) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

P is sitting fourth to the left of V. (Here we have two cases i.e. Case1 and Case2.)

The person sitting immediate left of V is facing the same direction as V.

Immediate neighbors of V are facing opposite directions. (This means the person sitting immediate right of V is facing the opposite direction to V.)

Q is sitting seventh to the right of P, who does not face the same direction as the person who is sitting immediate right of V.

W is sitting two places away from P but he does not sit between P and Q when counted from the right of P.

The person sitting third to the right of V and W are facing the same direction as P. (This means Q, W and P are facing the same direction.)

Six people are sitting between T and W, when counted from the right of W. (T is sitting immediate right of V.)

O is sitting fifth to the left of T and both of them are facing opposite directions.

M is sitting second to the right of O and faces the same direction as W.

N and M are not facing the same direction.

R is an immediate neighbor of the person sitting second to the right of O but he is not sitting to the right of M. (This means R is an immediate neighbor of both M and O.)

R is sitting third to the right of N, who is an immediate neighbor of P but does not sit to the right of P.

Immediate neighbors of R are facing the same directions as R. (This means R is facing the same direction as O and M.)

Y is sitting third to the left of R, who is sitting second to the left of U, who does not faces outside. (Here case 1 is canceled.)

X and S are immediate neighbors but P is not an immediate neighbor of S.

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Z does not face inside. (Z faces outside.)

Q and T are immediate neighbors of L, who face the same direction as Z. (L faces outside.)

At least two persons sitting between N and Z when counted from the left of Z faces inside. (Z is an immediate neighbor of V and X and S are facing inside.)

The person sitting fifth to right of Z is facing inside. (Y faces inside.)

This is our final arrangement:

All the persons except for T are facing outside.

T is the odd one.

Q.43) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Decoding the codes:

For letter- Reverse letter of the first letter of the word in alphabetical series.

For symbol- If the difference between the total number of vowels and consonants is even then we use the symbol & and if the difference between the total number of vowels and
consonants is odd then we use the symbol #.

For number- Sum of the place value of the first and last letter of the word.

For example: EXTENSIONS - V&24

1.    The reverse letter of E is V

2.    The difference between  total number of vowels and consonants in EXTENSIONS is 2 So symbol &

3.    Place value of E is 5 and place value of S is 19, thus the sum is 5 + 19 = 24.

Similarly,

Synonyms- H&38

Q.44) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Decoding the codes:

For letter- Reverse letter of the first letter of the word in alphabetical series.

For symbol- If the difference between the total number of vowels and consonants is even then we use the symbol &and if the difference between the total number of vowels and
consonants is odd then we use the symbol #.

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For number- Sum of the place value of the first and last letter of the word.

For example: EXTENSIONS - V&24

1.    The reverse letter of E is V

2.    The difference between  total number of vowels and consonants in EXTENSIONS is 2 So symbol &

3.    Place value of E is 5 and place value of S is 19, thus the sum is 5 + 19 = 24.

Similarly,

Thrifted - G&24

Q.45) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Decoding the codes:

For letter- Reverse letter of the first letter of the word in alphabetical series.

For symbol- If the difference between the total number of vowels and consonants is even then we use the symbol & and if the difference between the total number of vowels and
consonants is odd then we use the symbol #.

For number- Sum of the place value of the first and last letter of the word.

For example: EXTENSIONS - V&24

1.    The reverse letter of E is V

2.    The difference between total number of vowels and consonants in EXTENSIONS is 2 So symbol &

3.    Place value of E is 5 and place value of S is 19, thus the sum is 5 + 19 = 24.

Similarly,

Code: V#10

1.    First letter of the word is definitely E as V is the reverse letter of E.

2.    # symbol is used, the difference between the total number of vowels and consonants must be odd.

3.    Sum of place value of E and E is 5 + 5 = 10

Thus the word is “Embrace”.

Q.46) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Decoding the codes:

For letter- Reverse letter of the first letter of the word in alphabetical series.

For symbol- If the difference between the total number of vowels and consonants is even then we use the symbol & and if the difference between the total number of vowels and
consonants is odd then we use the symbol #.

For number- Sum of the place value of the first and last letter of the word.

For example: EXTENSIONS - V&24

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1.    The reverse letter of E is V

2.    The difference between  total number of vowels and consonants in EXTENSIONS is 2 So symbol &

3.    Place value of E is 5 and place value of S is 19, thus the sum is 5 + 19 = 24.

Similarly,

Code- B#33

1.    First letter of the word is definitely Y as B is the reverse letter of Y.

2.    # symbol is used, the difference between the total number of vowels and consonants must be odd.

3.    Sum of place value of Y and H is 25 + 8 = 33

Thus the word is “Yellowish”

Q.47) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Decoding the codes:

For letter- Reverse letter of the first letter of the word in alphabetical series.

For symbol- If the difference between the total number of vowels and consonants is even then we use the symbol & and if the difference between the total number of vowels and
consonants is odd then we use the symbol #.

For number- Sum of the place value of the first and last letter of the word.

For example: EXTENSIONS - V&24

1.    The reverse letter of E is V

2.    The difference between  total number of vowels and consonants in EXTENSIONS is 2 So symbol &

3.    Place value of E is 5 and place value of S is 19, thus the sum is 5 + 19 = 24.

Similarly,

Newspaper dimensions- M#32 W&23

Q.48) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

R is sitting at the extreme right end of the row.

P is sitting second from one of the extreme ends but he is not an immediate neighbor of R.

G is sitting third to the right of P.

It is clear that G is sitting at the exact middle of the row.

Q.49) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

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Statement: Country X is a developing tropical country that witnesses monsoon for about three months and summer for the rest. Currently in Country X, their Centre for Disease
Control has identified a rapid rise in treatable fungal infection that spreads through physical contact and affects the nervous system within a month.

Course of Action:

    I.     The government of Country X should issue strict guidelines regarding covering the body including face, hands and feets completely a mandatory caution for every citizen.

                This is a preventive measure to reduce the risk of physical contact and spread of fungal infection. By implementing these guideline, government can help limit the
transmission of the infection among population.

  II.     The health department of country X should invest and stay attentive about public awareness and sanitation, availability of antifungal medicines and early diagnosis of the
infection.

As the fungal infection is treatable therefore public awareness and sanitation, availability of antifungal medicines and early diagnosis of the infection will help in diagnosis, timely
treatment and spread of infection.

Q.50) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statements: Australia has introduced more mammals than introduced birds, reptiles, or amphibians and their overall impacts have been far greater. Foxes and cats are believed to
have caused or contributed to various extinctions of marsupials and native rodents.

Course of action:

    I.         Australia should introduce birds, reptiles or amphibians too.

                This is not a correct course of action as this will further impact the population of native species.

      II.            The Australian government should eradicate all the introduced mammals by introducing their natural predators.

                This is not a correct course of action as this will further impact the population of already threatened native species that have been extinct due to the introduction of
mammals.

Q.51) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statement: Charging technology for electric vehicles is still in the age of technological advancement  which means that there is tremendous scope and opportunity for innovations to
drastically bring charge times down.

Conclusions:

    I.         Companies with technical innovation for lesser charging time will impact its demand for electric vehicles positively.

                As the statement mentions that there is tremendous scope and opportunity for innovations to drastically bring charge times down for electric vehicles. The one doing it will
see a positive impact on its vehicle sales. Hence this conclusion follows.

      II.            The use for small sized electric vehicles is considered more efficient by means of swapping the battery as charging it is time consuming.

                We cannot conclude from the statement that use for small sized electric vehicles is considered more efficient by means of swapping the battery as charging it is time
consuming.

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Q.52) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statements: During long drought periods mice are confined to damp refugial areas near permanent water. After rains and lush plant growth in arid areas they may multiply into
plague numbers. They do best in areas where soils are well suited to burrowing.

Inference:

    I.         Mice population once increased doesn’t decrease even after several years of drought.

                This is not inferred from the statement as the statement mentions that during long drought periods mice are confined to damp refugial areas near permanent water
attracting them to be prey to the wild animals.

      II.            During drought mice are confined to damp refugial areas because soil around it is well suited for burrowing.

                It is not inferred in the statement. During drought the mice are confined to damp refugial areas because of availability of water.

Q.53) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statements:

    I.         City Q is a centuries old city and in a recent city survey it is found that there are many abandoned infrastructures spread throughout the city.

      II.            In city Q, there has been an increase in reports about attacks by feral animals.

                                Since there are many abandoned infrastructures in City Q, it is possible that feral animals could take shelter there and attack people for food or territorial
dominance if they are with pets. Therefore, Statement II is the effect and statement I is the cause.

Q.54) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statement: In the run-up to host the first ever G20 summit events in Srinagar, the authorities have engaged the responsible bodies in road enhancement, addition of footpaths,
medians and traffic road signals as well as removal of unnecessary road dividers, debris and hanging cable wires.

Inference:

    I.         The removal of unnecessary road dividers will keep the arriving G20 delegations on the right course towards the summit venue.

The unnecessary road dividers are removed to make space on the road, replace them with better dividers made up of better material and change the course of traffic on the road as
one-way. The delegation will reach the summit venue irrespective of this action. Therefore, this inference does not follow.

II.  These course of action would not have taken place if the G20 delegation were not arriving in Srinagar.

This inference does not follow. The instructions and engagement of responsible bodies shows that these are issues that were prioritized at once and would have been addressed
sooner or later.

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Q.55) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statements:

    I.         Social media companies have been made clearly accountable for combating online violence against women journalists.

      II.            Global companies have often suffered from unexpected boycott campaigns in foreign markets.

               

Here, the social media companies have been made accountable for combating online violence against women journalists as no action against the users who promote and engage in
online violence is being taken by them. And global companies have often suffered from unexpected boycott campaigns in foreign markets owing to consumer animosity toward a
country of origin. Therefore, Statement I and statement II are the effects of independent causes.

Q.56) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statement: In a sight of public co-operation, people and teachers of a district in Madhya Pradesh donated a record of Rs 5.25 crore in major institutional funding to fund the smart
class initiative.

Inference:

    I.         The classes in rest of the districts in Madhya Pradesh except the one with institutional funding cannot be categorized as Smart class.

We cannot derive any inference about the status of smart class initiative in other schools of Madhya Pradesh. Therefore, this inference does not follow.

      II.            The students were not asked for any contribution towards this initiative.

The statement mentions that the people and teachers donated to fund the smart class initiative. Therefore, this inference follows.

Q.57) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statements: Experiential learning is a new model of education that is making its way into classrooms around the world. Studies show that it helps learners connect the material that
they are studying to practical applications in the world around them.

Conclusions:

    I.         The amount of knowledge available is increasing day by day and teaching them with practical application will make the classroom lengthy and tiresome.

The statement mentions that experiential learning helps learners connect the material that they are studying to practical applications in the world around them. As the material that
they are studying is curated with consideration of the timeframe and requirement, experiential learning will be informative and interesting for the students. Therefore, this
conclusion does not follow.    

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      II.            As the institutions in developing and poor nations are not able to avail the basic necessities and infrastructures, experiential learning is ineffective there.

                Experiential learning is an effective way of learning as it includes learning practical applications. Practical application of learning could be availed through various sources
and the statement mentions that it is making way into classrooms all around the world. Therefore, this conclusion does not follow.

Q.58) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statements: Mitigating climate change and using the water resources of our planet sustainably are among the central challenges for sustainable development today. Climate change
has massive impacts on the water system, not only in the Global South and arid regions of the globe, but also in Central Europe.

Assumptions:

    I.         It is important to efficiently use the water resources in Central Europe which have well defined water systems.

The statement mentions that globally the water system is impacted due to climate change and sustainable use of it is important for sustainable development. Therefore, this
assumption is correct.

      II.            Climate change is not affecting the water resource of Global North as much as it is affecting the Global South.

                The statement mentions that Climate change has massive impacts on the water system, not only in the Global South and arid regions of the globe, but also in Central
Europe. Therefore, this assumption is wrong.

Q.59) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

Statements: Poisoning campaigns are one of the most efficient, effective and widespread control tools for managing feral pig impacts. It is a widely accepted practice in rural
communities, can provide fast and efficient knockdown of feral pig populations over a large area and be utilized in remote regions.

Assumptions:

    I.         Some other forms of eliminating feral pigs will make the work easier than the traditional methods of poisoning.

                The statement mentions that poisoning is one of the most efficient, effective and widespread tools for managing pigs and it is widely accepted practice. This means that
poisoning is already the easiest method of elimination. Therefore, this assumption is not correct.

      II.            Without the use of poisoning feral pigs numbers can be very difficult to control as they are understood to be everywhere- from near the human settlements to remote
locations.

                The statement mentions that poisoning can provide fast and efficient knockdown of feral pig populations over a large area and can be utilized in remote regions. Therefore,
this assumption is correct.

Q.60) Explanation:
 

Explanation-

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Statements: There is a climate of impunity surrounding online attacks on women journalists which must be more urgently and effectively addressed because impunity emboldens the
perpetrators, demoralizes the victim, erodes the foundations of journalism, and undermines freedom of expression.

Conclusions:

    I.         The perpetrators of physical attacks on women journalists are set free and it is a major cause of concern towards the freedom of speech.

                The statement does not mention that the physical attackers of women journalists are set free. Therefore, this conclusion is wrong.

      II.            Based upon the gravity of online attacks, preparators should be punishable in the same way the ones for physical attacks are punished.

                The statement mentions that there is a climate of impunity surrounding the attacks on women journalists and it demoralizes the victim, erodes the foundations of
journalism, and undermines freedom of expression. Hence it is important to register online attacks as a criminal offense and should be punished accordingly. Therefore, this
conclusion follows.

English
Q.1) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Refer to the first paragraph of the passage which mentions, ‘But it is a moot point whether, even in a year of the novel coronavirus pandemic and economic crisis,
that speech will be of much significance’. Here author is saying that the budget is insignificant during pandemic.

 
 

Q.2) Explanation:
Option (a) is the correct answer.

All statements given are correct except option (a) because it has been mentioned in the second paragraph which mentions, ‘Union Finance Minister may take credit
for controlling the fiscal deficit as much as possible despite the reduced tax collections, and even claim that she has been munificent to  the State governments by
increasing their borrowings limits’ so we can conclude that option (a) is incorrect here.

Q.3) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Option (c) among all the options is correct according to the information given in third paragraph which mentions, “the recovery of employment is because of the
absence of social security for the vast bulk of Indian workers, which forces them to seek out any income- generating insecurities, simply to survive. Wage incomes are
significantly lower than before the lockdown” which means there were more opportunities for employment with enough income.

Q.4) Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Conceal meaning ‘to hide something’ and ‘obscure’ is synonym which means ‘not easy to see or understand’.

Intend means to plan or mean to do something.

Unveil means to show something new to the public for the first time.

Discard means to throw something away because it is not useful.

Q.5) Explanation:
Option (b) is the correct answer.

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Refer to the last few lines of last paragraph which mentions, ‘It is also because the Budget numbers are themselves a fudge, with excessively optimistic projections for
revenue generation in the remainder of the year and bear the actual expenditures of the central government by pushing items ‘off-budget’.

Q.6) Explanation:
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Error lies in option (a). Replace ‘witness’ with ‘witnessed’ as the sentence is in past tense.

Q.7) Explanation:
Option (e) is the correct answer.

Collapse means to fall down or break into pieces suddenly and ‘succeed’ is most opposite word which means ‘to manage to achieve’.

Thrill means a sudden strong feeling of pleasure or excitement

Devastate means to destroy something or damage it badly

Plenty means as much or as many of something as you need.

Q.8) Explanation:
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Among the given options, only (i) can be used to form a single sentence from the two given sentences. Hence, option (a) is the right answer choice.

The sentence thus formed would be “Deciding the case with the help of relevant facts and laws is the primary role of the courts.”

Q.9) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Among the given options, only (i) can be used to form a single sentence from the two given sentences. Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.

The sentence thus formed would be, “A law graduate can pursue a variety of professions as a law degree opens the door to a wide range of public-sector jobs.”

Q.10) Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct answer. 

Among the given options, only A-E and B-F can join to make a contextually and grammatically correct sentence.

The statement that will be formed are: The unlucky woman viewed the loss of her car and home as just another unfortunate event in her life.

To test the coldness of the pool’s water the children dipped their toes into the shallow end and pulled them out quickly.

Q.11) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer. 

Among the given sentences, only C-D can join to make a contextually and grammatically correct sentence.

The statement that will be formed is: Some people don’t like pedicures  or foot massages because it feels like people tickle their feet during this process.

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Q.12) Explanation:
Option (e) is the correct answer.
Among the given sentences, none of them can be joined to foam a sentence that is contextually and grammatically correct. 

Q.13) Explanation:
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Among all the given statements, only option (b) is grammatically correct.

In option (a), ‘gets’ will replace ‘get’ because the subject (Aakash) is singular.

In option (c), ‘overwhelmingly’ needs to be used as we need an adverb here and not an adjective.

In option (d), ‘helps’ will be used because simple present tense is used to express general truths.

Q.14) Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Among all the given sentences, only option (d) is grammatically correct.

In option (a), ‘will paint’ needs to be replaced by ‘painted’ because the sentence is talking about the past and not the future.

In option (b), ‘is’ will replace ‘are’ since nicotine here is used in a singular sense.

In option (c), Since, people is a plural noun here and the correct pronoun that will be placed here is ‘their’.

Q.15) Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Among all the given sentences, only option (d) is grammatically correct.

Option (a), articles are not used with names of countries.

Option (b), ‘were’ needs to be replaced with ‘was’ since the 'owner, trainer and jockey' are the same person which can be understood by only one article 'the' before
'trainer' present in the sentence.

Option (c), ‘his’ will come in place of ‘their’ because the presence of ‘author’ tells us that only one author is being talked about here .

Q.16) Explanation:
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Among all the given sentences, only option (b) is grammatically correct.

In option (a), ‘a’ will be used before ‘Canadian man’ since article ‘a’ is used with  a singular noun.

In option (c), 'country’s' needs to be used in place of ‘countries’.

In option (d), ‘are’ needs to be replaced by ‘our’ because it is the determiner which means belonging to or associated with the speaker and one or more other people
previously mentioned or easily identified.

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Q.17) Explanation:
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Among all the given sentences, only option (a) is grammatically correct.

In option (b), ‘their’ should be replaced by ‘his’, ‘her’ or ‘its’ as our noun (scientist’s) is singular.

In option (c), since ‘parents’ is a plural noun, ‘are’ will be used instead of ‘is’.

In option (d), ‘every’ needs to be omitted because ‘every, like each, is always used with a singular noun form and therefore with a singular verb form.

Q.18) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer.
In first blank we need adjective for noun ‘don’ hence option (a) and option (b) will be eliminated. In option (d), ‘prolific’ is contextually incorrect therefore option (c)
which is ‘fugitive, razed’ is correct choice here.

Slam means shut (a door, window, or lid) forcefully and loudly.

Colluded means cooperate in a secret or unlawful way in order to deceive or gain an advantage over others.

Fugitive means a person who has escaped from captivity or is in hiding.

Razed means completely destroy.

Prolific means present in large numbers or quantities; plentiful.

Detached means separate or disconnected.

Q.19) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer.

In second blank we need adverb here for verb ‘stealing’ hence option (d) will be eliminated. In first blank verb should be in passive voice hence we will eliminate
option (a) and option (b) is contextually incorrect therefore option (c) is correct here.

Commanded means give an authoritative or peremptory order.

Remanded means place (a defendant) on bail or in custody, especially when a trial is adjourned.

Allegedly means used to convey that something is claimed to be the case or have taken place, although there is no proof.

Q.20) Explanation:
Option (b) is the correct answer.

In first blank we need ‘V1’ as ‘to’ follows ‘V1’ hence option (a) and option (d) will be eliminated. Option (c) is contextually incorrect therefore option (b) is correct
choice here.

Recalling means bring (a fact, event, or situation) back into one’s mind; remember.

Validation means the action of checking or proving the validity or accuracy of something.

Vacant means not occupied; empty.

Summoned means order (someone) to be present.

Q.21) Explanation:
Option (a) is the correct answer.

In the second blank we need noun here so all options except option (a) will get eliminated.
Therefore, option (a) is a correct choice.

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Dwellers means a person or animal that lives in or at a specified place.

Detangle means remove tangles from (hair).

Scolded means remonstrate with or rebuke (someone) angrily.

Q.22) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer.

In the given filler, option (c) is contextually and grammatically correct. All other options are contextually incorrect and do not make sense. Rusted means be affected
with rust.

Q.23) Explanation:
Option (c) is the correct answer.

Part C of the sentence is error-free. In part A, ‘sees’ (singular verb) should be plural ‘see’ for plural noun ‘companies’.

In part B, ‘important’ (adjective) should be ‘importance’ as we need noun here. In part D, ‘building’ should be replaced with ‘build’ because after ‘to’ we use V1.

Q.24) Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Part D of the sentence is error-free. In part A, ‘tried’ should be in base form (try) because modal verbs are followed by V1. In part B, ‘represses’ should be replaced
with ‘repress’ after ‘to’. In part C, ‘he’ is singular pronoun should be replaced with ‘they’ for ‘people’.

Q.25) Explanation:
Option (b) is the correct answer.

Part B of the sentence is error-free. In part A, ‘largely’ (adverb) should be replaced with ‘large’ (adjective) to modify noun ‘population’. In part C, ‘variety’ should be in
plural form after ‘endless’. In part D, ‘as well as’ should be replaced with ‘and’ as we don’t use ‘both’ and ‘as well as’ together.

Q.26) Explanation:
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Part A of the sentence is error-free. In part B, ‘but’ shouldn’t be used because ‘although’ as a subordinating conjunction implies or introduces a contrast idea and
‘but’ as a coordinating conjunction contrasts an idea, ideally both may go against the understanding that they negate each idea. In part C, ‘has’ should be replaced
with ‘have’ for plural noun ‘deserts’. In part D, ‘is’ should be replaced with ‘are’ for plural noun ‘deserts’.

Q.27) Explanation:
Option (d) is the correct answer.

Part D of the sentence is error-free. In part A, ‘usage for’ should be replaced with ‘usage of’. In part B, ‘have’ should be replaced with ‘has’ for ‘usage’. In part C, verb
‘capture’ should be replaced with ‘captured’ because ‘has’ and ‘have’ is used with third form of verb.

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Q.28) Explanation:
Option (b) is the correct answer.

The first part of the sentence will be (A) as the remaining fails to make an appropriate starter. The next part in the arrangement will be (D) because it is telling us
about what RBI said. Next two part will be (B) followed by (C) to make a contextually meaningful sentence. So, the correct arrangement will be ADBC. Hence, the
correct answer choice is option (b).

Q.29) Explanation:
Option (a) is the correct answer.

Reading the given sentence, it can be clearly seen that from the given parts only (A) will make the starter of the given sentence. Also, (D) will be followed by (A) as can
be seen from the use of the word ‘new website’, the remaining parts (C) and (B) will be last in the arrangement to make a contextually meaningful sentence. So, the
correct arrangement would be ADCB. Hence, the correct answer choice would be option (a).

Q.30) Explanation:
Option (e) is the correct answer.

Among the given options, ‘cognizant’ is the most appropriate word that fills the given blanks in both sentences. Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.

Bestowed means confer or present (an honor, right, or gift).

Intention means a thing intended; an aim or plan.

Pirated means (of music, films, computer programs, etc.) illegally copied and sold.

Enhanced means intensify, increase, or further improve the quality, value, or extent of.

Cognizant means having knowledge or awareness.

Quantitative Aptitude
Q.1) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

For article 'A':

Cost price = Rs. 250

So, marked price = 250 X 1.8 = Rs. 450

Selling price = Rs. 325

So, profit earned = 325 - 250 = Rs. 75

And discount allowed = 450 - 325 = Rs. 125

  Marked price (in Rs) of the Cost price (in Rs) of the Selling price (in Rs) of the Discount Allowed (in Rs) Profit earned (in Rs)
article article article
Article ‘A’ 450 250 325 125 75

Article ‘B’ 580 400 435 145 35

Article ‘C’ 490 350 392 98 42

Article ‘D’ 440 275 330 110 55

Required profit = 75 + 42 = Rs. 117

Q.2) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

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For article 'A':

Cost price = Rs. 250

So, marked price = 250 X 1.8 = Rs. 450

Selling price = Rs. 325

So, profit earned = 325 - 250 = Rs. 75

And discount allowed = 450 - 325 = Rs. 125

  Marked price (in Rs) of the Cost price (in Rs) of the Selling price (in Rs) of the Discount Allowed (in Rs) Profit earned (in Rs)
article article article
Article ‘A’ 450 250 325 125 75

Article ‘B’ 580 400 435 145 35

Article ‘C’ 490 350 392 98 42

Article ‘D’ 440 275 330 110 55

Required sum = 125 + 145 + 98 + 110 = Rs. 478

Q.3) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

For article 'A':

Cost price = Rs. 250

So, marked price = 250 X 1.8 = Rs. 450

Selling price = Rs. 325

So, profit earned = 325 - 250 = Rs. 75

And discount allowed = 450 - 325 = Rs. 125

  Marked price (in Rs) of the Cost price (in Rs) of the Selling price (in Rs) of the Discount Allowed (in Rs) Profit earned (in Rs)
article article article
Article ‘A’ 450 250 325 125 75

Article ‘B’ 580 400 435 145 35

Article ‘C’ 490 350 392 98 42

Article ‘D’ 440 275 330 110 55

Required difference = 490 - {(325 + 435)/2} = Rs. 110

Q.4) Explanation:
 
Detailed solution:

For article 'A':

Cost price = Rs. 250

So, marked price = 250 X 1.8 = Rs. 450

Selling price = Rs. 325

So, profit earned = 325 - 250 = Rs. 75

And discount allowed = 450 - 325 = Rs. 125

  Marked price (in Rs) of the Cost price (in Rs) of the Selling price (in Rs) of the Discount Allowed (in Rs) Profit earned (in Rs)
article article article
Article ‘A’ 450 250 325 125 75

Article ‘B’ 580 400 435 145 35

Article ‘C’ 490 350 392 98 42

Article ‘D’ 440 275 330 110 55

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Selling price of each article 'D' = 440 X 0.75 X 0.9 = Rs. 297

So, selling price of 15 units of article 'D' = 297 X 15 = Rs. 4,455

And, total cost price of 15 units = 275 X 15 = Rs. 4,125

So, profit earned = 4455 - 4125 = Rs. 330

Q.5) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

For family 'A':

Let the income of the family be Rs. '100x'

So, savings of the family = 100x X 0.4 = Rs. '40x'

So, expenses of the family = 100x - 40x = Rs. '60x'

ATQ;

60x - 40x = 9000

Or, 20x = 9000

So, x = 450

So, income of the family = 100 X 450 = Rs. 45,000

And, savings of the family = 40 X 450 = Rs. 18,000

And, expenses of the family = 60 X 450 = Rs. 27,000

Similarly,

Family Income (In Rs) of the family Expenditure (in Rs) of the family Savings (in Rs) of the family

A 45,000 27,000 18,000

B 30,000 21,000 9,000

C 50,000 40,000 10,000

D 56,000 49,000 7,000

E 40,000 26,000 14,000

Required difference = 21000 - (10000 + 7000) = Rs. 4,000

Q.6) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

For family 'A':

Let the income of the family be Rs. '100x'

So, savings of the family = 100x X 0.4 = Rs. '40x'

So, expenses of the family = 100x - 40x = Rs. '60x'

ATQ;

60x - 40x = 9000

Or, 20x = 9000

So, x = 450

So, income of the family = 100 X 450 = Rs. 45,000

And, savings of the family = 40 X 450 = Rs. 18,000

And, expenses of the family = 60 X 450 = Rs. 27,000

Similarly,
Family Income (In Rs) of the family Expenditure (in Rs) of the family Savings (in Rs) of the family

A 45,000 27,000 18,000

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B 30,000 21,000 9,000
C 50,000 40,000 10,000

D 56,000 49,000 7,000

E 40,000 26,000 14,000

Amount spent by family 'A' on paying rent = 27000 X 0.4 = Rs. 10,800

Amount spent by family 'E' on paying rent = 40,000 X 0.3 = Rs. 12,000

So, required ratio = 10,800:12000 = 9:10

Q.7) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

For family 'A':

Let the income of the family be Rs. '100x'

So, savings of the family = 100x X 0.4 = Rs. '40x'

So, expenses of the family = 100x - 40x = Rs. '60x'

ATQ;

60x - 40x = 9000

Or, 20x = 9000

So, x = 450

So, income of the family = 100 X 450 = Rs. 45,000

And, savings of the family = 40 X 450 = Rs. 18,000

And, expenses of the family = 60 X 450 = Rs. 27,000

Similarly,

Family Income (In Rs) of the family Expenditure (in Rs) of the family Savings (in Rs) of the family

A 45,000 27,000 18,000

B 30,000 21,000 9,000

C 50,000 40,000 10,000

D 56,000 49,000 7,000

E 40,000 26,000 14,000

Increase in income of family:

'A' = 45000 X 0.16 = Rs. 7,200

'B' = 30,000 X 0.15 = Rs. 4,500

'C' = 50,000 X 0.12 = Rs. 6,000

'D' = 56,000 X 0.1 = Rs. 5,600

'E' = 40000 X 0.125 = Rs. 5,000

So, required arrangement = B, E, D, C, A

Q.8) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

For family 'A':

Let the income of the family be Rs. '100x'

So, savings of the family = 100x X 0.4 = Rs. '40x'

So, expenses of the family = 100x - 40x = Rs. '60x'

ATQ;

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60x - 40x = 9000

Or, 20x = 9000

So, x = 450

So, income of the family = 100 X 450 = Rs. 45,000

And, savings of the family = 40 X 450 = Rs. 18,000

And, expenses of the family = 60 X 450 = Rs. 27,000

Similarly,

Family Income (In Rs) of the family Expenditure (in Rs) of the family Savings (in Rs) of the family

A 45,000 27,000 18,000

B 30,000 21,000 9,000

C 50,000 40,000 10,000

D 56,000 49,000 7,000

E 40,000 26,000 14,000

Required percentage = {(49000 - 40000)/40000} X 100 = 22.5%

Q.9) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Let the total work be 96 units.

So, combined efficiency of 'A' and 'B' = (96/9.6) = 10 units/day

Statement I:

When working on alternate days, 'A' and 'B' would do the same work in 2 days that they did in 1 day.

So, work done by 'A' and 'B' together in 18 days = (18/2) X 10 = 90 units

And, work done by 'A' on last day = 96 - 90 = 6 units

So, efficiency of 'A' = 6 units/day

So, time taken by 'A' to finish the work alone = (96/6) = 16 days

So, data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II:

Combined efficiency of 'B' and 'C' = 96 X 0.88 ÷ 9.6 = 8.8 units/day

So, difference between efficiencies of 'A' and 'C' = 10 - 8.8 = 1.2 units/day

Let efficiency of 'A' be 'x' units per day

So, efficiency of 'C' = 0.8 X x = '0.8x' units per day

According to statement;

x - 0.8x = 1.2

Or, 0.2x = 1.2

Or, x = 6

So, efficiency of 'A' = 6 units per day

So, time taken by 'A' to finish the work alone = (96/6) = 16 days

So, data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Therefore, the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Q.10) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Statement I:

Let the marked price and cost price of the article be Rs. '5x' and Rs. '2x', respectively.

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So, selling price of the article = Rs. (5x - 60)

So, data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II:

Let the cost price of the article be Rs. '2y'.

So, selling price = 2y X 2 = Rs. '4y'

So, marked price of the article = 4y X 1.25 = Rs. '5y'

So, data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

On combining the two statements, we have;

{(5y - 60)/5y} = (4y/5y)

Or, 5y - 60 = 4y

So, y = 60

So, cost price of the article = 2 X 60 = Rs. 120

And, selling price of the article = 4 X 60 = Rs. 240

So, profit earned = 240 - 120 = Rs. 120

Therefore, the data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the question.

Q.11) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Statement I:

Let the present ages of Arijit and his father be '3x' years and '7x' years, respectively.

So, present age of Arijit's mother = (7x - 7) years

According to statement:

7x - 7 = 3x X 2

Or, 7x - 7 = 6x

Or, x = 7

So, present age of Arijit = 3 X 7 = 21 years

So, data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Statement II:

Let the present age of Arijit be 'x' years and that of his father be 'y' years.

ATQ'

1 + x = 0.56 X (1 + y)

Or, 1 + x = 0.56 + 0.56y

Or, 0.44 = 0.56y – x

So, data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

So, the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Q.12) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Quantity I:

Number of ways of arranging the letters of the word CASIO = 5! = 120

But these 120 ways also include CASIO, and we can't count that under rewritten words,

So, number of ways of rewriting CASIO = 120 - 1 = 119

So, Quantity I = 119

Quantity II:

ATQ;

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1900 - 1500 = {(1500 X R X 16)/(12 X 100)}

Or, 400 = (60/3) X R

Or, R = 20

So, Quantity II = 20 X 6 = 120

Therefore, Quantity I < Quantity II

Q.13) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Let the first term and common difference of the arithmetic progression be 'a' and 'd', respectively.

ATQ;

{a + (18 - 1) X d} + 54 = a + (27 - 1) X d

Or, a + 17d + 54 = a + 26d

Or, 54 = 9d

So, d = 6

Quantity I:

6=p=d

So, Quantity I = 6p = 6 X 20 = 120

Quantity II:

{a + (99 - 1) X d} = 595

Or, a + 98 X 6 = 595

Or, a = 7

So, 20th term of the AP = 7 + (20 - 1) X 6 = 121

So, Quantity II = 121

Therefore, Quantity I < Quantity II

Q.14) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Quantity I:

4x²+ 232 = 61x

Or, 4x²- 61x + 232 = 0

Or, 4x²- 32x - 29x + 232 = 0

Or, 4x(x - 8) - 29(x - 8) = 0

Or, (4x - 29)(x - 8) = 0

So, x = 8 or x = 7.25

So, Quantity I = 8 or 7.25

Quantity II:
y²+ 207 = y X √1024

Or, y²- 32y + 207 = 0

Or, y²- 23y - 9y + 207 = 0

Or, y(y - 23) - 9(y - 23) = 0

Or, (y - 23) (y - 9) = 0

So, y = 23 or y = 9
So, Quantity II = 23, 9

Quantity I Relationship Quantity II

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8 <  23

8 <  9

7.25 <  23

7.25 <  9

So, Quantity II > Quantity I

Q.15) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

72 X 2 + 1 = 145

145 X 2 + 1 = 291

291 X 2 + 1 = 583

583 X 2 + 1 = 1167

1167 X 2 + 1 = 2335

Therefore, 1167 should come in place of 1165.

Q.16) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

120 + 3² = 129

129 + 5² = 154

154 + 7² = 203

203 + 9² = 284

284 + 11² = 405

Therefore, 203 should come in place of 205.

Q.17) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:
12 X 2 = 24

24 X 3 = 72

72 X 5 = 360

360 X 7 = 2520

2520 X 11 = 27720

Therefore, 2520 should come in place of 2525.

Q.18) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

From I:

2y²- 29y + 102 = 0

Or, 2y²- 12y - 17y + 102 = 0

Or, 2y(y - 6) - 17(y - 6) = 0

Or, (y - 6)(2y - 17) = 0

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So, y = 6 or y = (17/2) = 8.5

From II:

2x²+ (14²+ 2³) = 41x

Or, 2x²+ 196 + 8 = 41x

Or, 2x²- 41x + 204 = 0

Or, 2x²- 17x - 24x + 204 = 0

Or, 2x(x - 12) - 17(x - 12) = 0

Or, (x - 12)(2x - 17) = 0

So, x = 12 or x = (17/2) = 8.5

‘x’ Relationship ‘y’

12 >  6
12 >  8.5

8.5 >  6
8.5 = 8.5

Therefore, x ≥ y

Q.19) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

From I:

x²- 30x + 224 = 0

Or, x²- 16x - 14x + 224 = 0

Or, x(x - 16) - 14(x - 16) = 0

Or, (x - 14)(x - 16) = 0

So, x = 14 or x = 16

From II:

y²- 39y + 360 = 0

Or, y²- 24y - 15y + 360 = 0

Or, y(y - 24) - 15(y - 24) = 0

Or, (y - 24)(y - 15) = 0

So, y = 24 or y = 15

‘x’ Relationship ‘y’

14 <  24
16 <  24

14 <  15
16 >  15

Therefore, the relationship cannot be established.

Q.20) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

From I:

20% of 120x = x²+ 80

Or, 24x = x²+ 80

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Or, x²- 24x + 80 = 0

Or, x²- 20x - 4x + 80 = 0

Or, x(x - 20) - 4(x - 20) = 0

Or, (x - 20)(x - 4) = 0

So, x = 20 or x = 4

From II:

y²+ 240 = 32y

Or, y²- 32y + 240 = 0

Or, y²- 20y - 12y + 240 = 0

Or, y(y - 20) - 12(y - 20) = 0

Or, (y - 12)(y - 20) = 0

So, y = 12 or y = 20

‘x’ Relationship ‘y’

20 >  12
4 <  12
20 = 20
4 <  20

Therefore, the relationship cannot be established.

Q.21) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Let the total capacity of the tank be 96 litres. {LCM (32, 16 and 24)}

So, efficiency of pipe 'A' = (96/32) = 3 litres/hour

Efficiency of pipe 'B' = (96/16) = 6 litres/hour

And, efficiency of pipe 'C' = (96/24) = 4 litres/hour

Since, combined efficiency of pipe 'B' and 'C' is more than that of 'A', the tank would never be full if pipe 'C' was being used as an outlet pipe. Therefore, pipe 'C' is
being used as an inlet pipe.

Let the time for which pipe 'B' and 'C' operated be 'x hours.

ATQ;

36 X 3 + (4 X x) - (6 X x) = 96

Or, 108 + 4x - 6x = 96
Or, 2x = 12

So, x = 6

Therefore, pipe 'B' and 'C', together was opened after 36 - 6 = 30 hours

Q.22) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Let the total distance be’d’ km and speed of the boat in still water be 's' km/h

ATQ;

(d/s) = 15

Or, d = 15s...... (I)

Since, by changing the speed of the stream from 0 km/h to 2 km/h, the travel time is reducing, we shall assume that the stream flows from point 'A' to point 'B'.

{d/(s + 2)} = 14

Or, {15s/(s + 2)} = 14 {Using (I)}

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Or, 15s = 14s + 28

So, s = 28

So, d = 28 X 15 = 420

So required time = {420/(28 - 7)} = 20 hours

Q.23) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Ratio of profit shares of 'A', 'B' and 'C' at the end of the year = (15000 X 12):(3X X 12):(4X X 6)

= 180000:36X:24X

ATQ;

{36X/(180000 + 24X + 36X)} = (30000/75000)

Or, 90X = 180000 + 60X

Or, 30X = 180000

So, X = 6,000

So, profit share of 'A' = {180000/(180000 + 60 X 6000)} X 75000 = Rs. 25,000

So, required difference = 5 X 6000 - 25000 = Rs. 5,000

Q.24) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

ATQ;

15000 X {(100 + R)/100} + 150 = 15000 X {(200 + R)/200}²

Or, 150 X (100 + R) + 150 = (15/40) X (200 + R)²

Or, 150 X {(100 + R) + 1} = (15/40) X {40000 + R² + 400R}

Or, 400 X (101 + R) = 40000 + R² + 400R

Or, 40,400 + 400R = 40,000 + R² + 400R

Or, R² = 400

So, R = ±20

Since, rate of interest can't be negative. So, R = 20.

Q.25) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Profit earned by selling first 'x' articles = {x% X 50 X x}

Profit earned by selling the remaining articles = {(100 - x)% X 50 X (100 - x)}

So, we have to minimise = {(x/100) X 50 X x} + [{(100 - x)/100} X 50 X (100 - x)]

Or, (x² /2) + {(100 - x)² /2}

Or, {(x² + 10000 + x² - 200x)/2}

Or, x² - 100x + 5000

We can write this as x² - 100x + 2500 + 2500

Or, (x - 50)² + 2500

Value of this expression will be minimum when 'x' = 50.

So, required profit = {(50 X 1.5 X 50) + (50 X 1.5 X 50)} - (50 X 100) = Rs. 2,500

Q.26) Explanation:
 
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Detailed solution:

Let the expenses of 'A', 'B' and 'C' be Rs. '11x', Rs. '9x' and Rs. '10x', respectively.

Let savings of 'A' and 'C' be Rs. 'y' and Rs. '2y', respectively.

So, 11x + y + 3000 = 10x + 2y

Or, y - x = 3000...... (I)

Income of 'B' = 9 X y = Rs. '9y'

On multiplying equation (I) by 9, we have;

9y - 9x = 27,000

Therefore, savings of 'B' = Rs. 27,000

Q.27) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Let the distance travelled by the train be’d’ km, actual speed of the train be 's' km/h and actual time taken by the train be 't' hours.

ATQ;

(d/s) = t

Or, d = st...... (I)

Also, {d/(s + 30)} = t – 5

Or, d = (t - 5)(s + 30) ...... (II)

Using equation (I) and (II), we have;

st = (t - 5)(s + 30)

Or, st = st - 5s + 30t – 150

Or,30t - 5s = 150...... (III)

Also, {d/(s - 30)} = (t + 10)

Or, d = (t + 10)(s - 30) ...... (IV)

Using equation (I) and (IV), we have;

st = (t + 10)(s - 30)

Or, st = st + 10s - 30t – 300

Or, 10s - 30t = 300....... (V)

Adding equation (III) and (V), we have;

5s = 450

Or, s = 90

So, 90 X 10 - 30 X t = 300 [From equation (V)]

Or, 900 - 30t = 300

So, 30t = 600

So, t = 20

So, d = 20 X 90 = 1800

Therefore, required distance travelled by the train = 1800 km

Q.28) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Let the present ages of 'A' and 'B' be '3x' years and '5x' years, respectively.

So, age of 'C', Nineteen years hence from now will be = (3/4) X (3x + 19) = {(9x + 57)/4} years

And, present age of 'C' = [{(9x + 57)/4} - 19] years

ATQ;

5x + [{(9x + 57)/4} - 19] = 46

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Or, 5x X 4 + 9x + 57 - 76 = 184

Or, 20x + 9x = 203

Or, 29x = 203

So, x = 7

So, present age of 'C' = {(9 X 7 + 57)/4 - 19} = 11 years

And, present age of 'A' = 3 X 7 = 21 years

And present age of 'B' = 5 X 7 = 35 years

So, age of 'C', when 'B' was 30 years old = 11 - 5 = 6 years

And, age of 'A', when 'B' was 30 years old = 21 - 5 = 16 years

So, required sum = 16 + 6 = 22 years

Q.29) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Let the cost price and marked price of the article be Rs. '3x' and Rs. '7x', respectively.

ATQ;

7x - 100 = 3x X 1.5

Or, 7x - 100 = 4.5x

So, 2.5x = 100

Or, x = 40

So, selling price of the article = 40 X 3 X 1.5 = Rs. 180

ATQ;

180 = 5.625S

Or, S = 32 = 25

So, Required value = {25}(3/5) = 2³= 8

Q.30) Explanation:
 

Detailed solution:

Total marks scored by the students = 24 X 38 = 912 marks

Total marks when highest and lowest scores are excluded = 37 X 22 = 814

Sum of highest and lowest marks = 912 - 814 = 98

Let the highest score be 'x'

So, lowest score = (x - 54)

ATQ;

(x - 54) + x = 98

Or, 2x = 152

So, x = 76

So, highest score in the class = 76 marks

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