JEE Main 2023 6 April Shift 1
JEE Main 2023 6 April Shift 1
1. The straight lines 11 and 12 pass through the origin and trisect the line segment of the line L : 9x + 5y = 45
between the axes. If m1 and m2 are the slopes of the lines 11 and 12, then the point of intersection of the line y
= (m1 + m2) x with L lies on.
(1) 6x + y = 10 (2) 6x – y = 15 (3) y – 2x = 5 (4) y – x = 5
Sol. (4)
B 2
Q
1
P
A
L : 9x + 5y = 45
A(5,0) , B : (0,9)
A P Q B
(5,0) (0,9)
2 5 1 0 10
Px
1 2 3
0 2 9 1
Py =3
1 2
10
P : ,3
3
1 5 2 0 5
Similarly → Q x
1 2 3
1 0 2 9
Qy =6
1 2
5
Q: ,6
3
3–0 9
Now m1= =
10 10
–0
3
6 0 18
m2 =
5
0 5
3
9
Now L1 : y (m1 + m2)x y = x 9x = 2y ...(2)
2
from (1) & (2) 9x + 5y = 45
9x – 2y = 0
– + –
45
7y = 45 y
7
10
x
7
which satisfy y – x = 5 Ans. 4
2. Let the position vectors of the points A, B, C and D be 5iˆ 5jˆ 2k,i ˆ ˆ 2jˆ 3k,
ˆ –2iˆ ˆj 4kˆ and
–iˆ 5jˆ 6k.
ˆ Let the set S { : the points A, B, C and D are coplanar}. Then ( 2) 2 is equal to :
S
37
(1) (2) 13 (3) 25 (4) 41
2
Sol. (4)
A, B, C, D are coplanar
–4 –3 3 – 2
ABACAD = 0 –7 – 5 4 – 2 = 0
–6 0 6 – 2
s
x 2 x sec2 x tan x
3. Let I(x) dx . If I(0) = 0, then I is equal to :
x tan x 1
2
4
( 4) 2
2 ( 4)2 2
(1) log e (2) log e –
16 4( 4) 32 4( 4)
( 4)2 2 ( 4)2 2
(3) log e – (4) log e
16 4( 4) 32 4( 4)
Sol. (2)
Ix
x 2 xsec2 x tanx dx
xtanx 1
2
Let xtan x + 1 = t
1 2x
I x2 dx
x tan x 1 x tan x 1
1 2x
I x2 2 dx
x tan x 1 x tan x 1
1
I x2 2ln x sin x cos x C
x tan x 1
As I (0) = 0 C = 0
4 2 2
I ln
4 32 4 4
20.21.41 3.20.21
S20 = + + 20
6 2
S20 = 2870 + 630 + 20
S20 = 3520
5. A pair of dice is thrown 5 times. For each throw, a total of 5 is considered a success. If probability of at least 4
k
successes is 11 , then k is equal to :
3
(1) 164 (2) 123 (3) 82 (4) 75
Sol. (2)
n(total 5) = {1, 4), (2, 3), (3, 2),(4, 1)} = 4
4 1
P(success) = =
36 9
P(at least 4 success) = P (4 success) + P(5 success)
4
1 8
5
= 5C4. . + 5C5 = 5 = 10 = 11 = 11
1 41 41 123 k
9 9 9 9 3 3 3
K = 123
6. Let A = [aij]2×2, where aij 0 for all i, j and A2 = I. Let a be the sum of all diagonal elements of A and b = |A|.
Then 3a2 + 4b2 is equal to :
(1) 14 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 7
Sol. (2)
A2 = I |A|2 = 1 |A| = ±1 = b
Let A =
A2 = =I
2 1 0
2
= 2 + = 1
0 1
( + ) = 0 + = 0 = a
( + ) = 0
+ 2 = 0
Now 3a2 + 4b2 = 3(0)2 + 4 (1) = 4
7. Let a1, a2, a3, …., an be n positive consecutive terms of an arithmetic progression. If d > 0 is its common
d 1 1 1
difference, then : lim ....... is
n n a1 a 2 a 2 a3 a n –1 a n
1
(1) (2) 1 (3) d (4) 0
d
Sol. (2)
d a1 – a 2 a – a3 a – an
Lt 2 ...... n –1
n n a1 – a 2 a2 – a3 a n –1 – a n
d a1 – a 2 a 2 a 3 ...... a n–1 – a n
= Lt
n n –d
d a n – a1
= Lt
n n d
1 a1 (n – 1)d – a1
= Lt
n n d
1 a1 d a
= Lt d– – 1
n d n n n
=1
9. Let A = {x : [x + 3] + [x + 4] 3},
x –3
x 3
B x :3 r
3–3x. , where [t] denotes greatest integer function. Then,
r 1 10
x 3
3
3x r 33x
r 1 10
x 3
1
32x 3 10 33x
1 1
10
x 3
1
35x 3
9
36 2x 335x
6 2x 3 5x
3 3x
x 1 ...(B)
A=B
10. One vertex of a rectangular parallelepiped is at the origin O and the lengths of its edges along x, y and z axes
are 3, 4 and 5 units respectively. Let P be the vertex (3, 4, 5). Then the shortest distance between the diagonal
OP and an edge parallel to z axis, not passing through O or P is :
12 12 12
(1) (2) 12 5 (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
Sol. (3)
x y z
Equation of OP is
3 4 5
a1 = (0, 0, 0) a2 = (3, 0, 5)
b1 = (3, 4, 5) b2 = (0, 0, 1)
Equation of edge parallel to z axis
x 3 y0 z 5
0 0 1
a 2 a1 b1 b2
S.D
b1 b2
3 0 5
3 4 5
0 0 1 3 4 12
i j kˆ 4i 3j 5
3 4 5
0 0 1
11. If the equation of the plane passing through the line of intersection of the planes 2x – y + z = 3, 4x – 3y + 5z +
x 1 y 3 z – 2
9 = 0 and parallel to the line is ax + by + cz + 6 = 0, then a + b + c is equal to :
–2 4 5
(1) 15 (2) 14 (3) 13 (4) 12
Sol. (2)
Using family of planer
P :P1 + P2 = 0 P(2 + 4) x – (1 + 3) y + (1 + 5) z = (3 – 9)
x 1 y3 z–2
P is || to = =
–2 4 5
Then for : n p . vL = 0
–2 (2 + 4) – 4(1 + 3) + 5 (1 + 5) = 0
3
–3 + 5 = 0 =
5
Hence : P : 22x –14 y + 20 z = –12
P : 11 x – 7y + 10z + 6 = 0
a = 11
b=–7
c = 10
a + b + c = 14
Ans. 2
12. If the ratio of the fifth term from the beginning to the fifth term from the end in the expansion of
n
1
4
2 is 6 :1 , then the third term from the beginning is :
3
4
x1 = 5 + 3 x2 = 5 – 3 (reject) x3 = 4 x4 = 2 (reject)
Sum of of roots is = 5 + 3 +4=9+ 3
Ans. 3
y
A x
3 4 5 5+
14. From the top A of a vertical wall AB of height 30 m, the angles of depression of the top P and bottom Q of a
vertical tower PQ are 15° and 60° respectively, B and Q are on the same horizontal level. If C is a point on
AB such that CB = PQ, then the area (in m2) of the quadrilateral BCPQ is equal to :
(1) 200 3 – 3 (2) 300 3 1 (3) 300 3 –1 (4) 600
3 –1
Sol. (4)
ABQ
15º
60º
30 C P
x
B
y Q
AB
= tan 60°
BQ
30
BQ = = 10 3 = y
3
& ACP
AC (30 – x)
= tan 15° = (2– 3 )
CP y
30 – x = 10 3 (2 – 3)
30 –x = 20 3 – 30
x = 60 – 20 3
Area = x.y = 20 (3– 3 ).10 3
= 600 ( 3 –1)
Ans. (4)
1 1
2
19. Let 5f (x) 4f 3, x 0 . Then 18 f (x)dx is equal to :
x x 1
Combine var. = 1
n1 n 2 n1 n 2
15 14 15 2 15 15 12 14
2
13
30 30 30
14 2
4
13
2 4
2 = 10
SECTION-B
21. Let the tangents to the curve x2 + 2x –4y + 9 = 0 at the point P(1, 3) on it meet the y-axis at A. Let the line
passing through P and parallel to the line x – 3y = 6 meet the parabola y2 = 4x at B. If B lies on the line 2x –
3y = 8, then (AB)2 is equal to ______.
Sol. (292)
C : x2 + 2x – 4y + 9 = 0
C : (x + 1)2 = 4(y – 2)
TP(1,3) : x.1 + (x + 1) – 2(y + 3) + 9 =0
: 2x – 2y + 4 = 0
Tp : x – y + 2 = 0
A : (0, 2)
Line || to x–3y = 6 passes (1, 3) is x – 3y + 8 = 0
Meet parabola : y2 = 4x
y2 = 4(3y – 8)
y2 – 12y + 32 = 0
(y – 8) (y – 4) = 0
point of intersection are
(4, 4) & (16,8) lies on 2x – 3y = 8
B
Hence A : (0, 2)
B : (16, 8)
(AB)2 = 256 + 36 = 292
22.
Let the point (p, p + 1) lie inside the region E (x, y) : 3 – x y 9 – x 2 ,0 x 3 . If the set of all values
of p is the interval (a, b), then b2 + b – a2 is equal to _____.
Sol. (3)
3–xy 9 – x2 ; 0 x 3
L:x+y=3 A : (P, P + 1)
S:y=
A
B y
23. Let y = y(x) be a solution of the differential (xcos x)dy + (xysin x + ycos x – 1)dx = 0, 0 < x < . If
2
y 3 , then y '' 2y ' is equal to _____.
3 3 6 6 6
Sol. (2)
(x cos x) dy + (xysinx + ycos x –1) dx = 0, 0 < x <
2
dy x sin x cos x 1
y
dx x cos x x cos x
IF = x secx
x secx
y.x sec x dx tan x c
x cos x
3 3
Since y Hence c 3
3
Hence y'' y' 2 2
6 6 6
24. Let a and [t] be the greatest integer t. Then the number of points, where the function f(x) = [a + 13 sin
x], x (0, ) is not differentiable, is _____.
Sol. (25)
f(x) = [a+ 13 sin x] = a + [13 sin x] in (0, )
x (0, )
0 < 13 sin x 13
[13 sin x] = {0, 1, 2, 3,… 12,13,}
2 2 1
Total point of N.D. = 25.
n2
25. If the area of the region S = {(x, y) : 2y – y2 x2 2y, x y} is equal to – , then the natural
n 1 n –1
number n is equal to ____.
Sol. (5)
x2 + y2 – 2y 0 & x2 – 2y 0 , x y
1
2
1 x2
Hence required area = 2 2 dx
2 0
2 4 2
7
n 5
6 4
26. The number of ways of giving 20 distinct oranges to 3 children such that each child gets at least one orange is
_____.
Sol. 3483638676
Total – (one child receive no orange + two child receive no orange)
= 320 –( 3C1 (220 –2) + 3C2 120) = 3483638676
27. Let the image of the point P (1, 2, 3) in the plane 2x – y + z = 9 be Q. If the coordinates of the point R are (6,
10, 7). then the square of the area of the triangle PQR is ____.
Sol. (594)
Let Q () be the image of P, about the plane
2x – y + z = 9
1 2 3
2
2 1 1
= 5, = 0, = 5
1
Then area of triangle PQR is = PQ PR
2
12i 3j 21kˆ 144 9 441 594
Square of area = 594
28. A circle passing through the point P(. ) in the first quadrant touches the two coordinate axes at the points A
and B. The point P is above the line AB. The point Q on the line segment AB is the foot of perpendicular
from P on AB. If PQ is equal to 11 units, then value of is ____.
Sol. (121)
2
242 = 2 + 2 – 2a – 2a + a2 + 2
242 = 2
= 121
15
1
29. The coefficient of x18 in the expansion of x 4 – 3 is _____.
x
Sol. (5005)
15
4 1
x 3
x
1
r
Tr 1 15 Cr x 4
15 r
3
x
60 –7r = 18
r=6
Hence coeff. of x18 = 15C6 = 5005
30. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, …., 10} and B = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. The number of elements in the relation R = {(a, b) A ×
A: 2 (a – b)2 + 3 (a – b) B} is _____.
Sol. (18)
A = {1,2,3,......10}
B = {0,1, 2,3, 4}
R = {(a, b) A × A: 2(a – b)2 + 3(a – b) B}
Now 2 (a – b)2 + 3 (a – b) = (a – b) (2 (a – b) + 3)
a = b or a – b = –2
When a = b 10 order pairs
When a– b = –2 8 order pairs
Total = 18
SECTION - A
31. The kinetic energy of an electron, -particle and a proton are given as 4 K, 2 K and K respectively. The
de-Broglie wavelength associated with electron ( e) , -particle ( ) and the proton ( p) are as follows :
(1) p e (2) p e
(3) p e (4) p e
Sol. (4)
h
According to De-Broglie, Momentum P = λ , where h is plank’s constant and λ is wavelength.
Also, relation between Kinetic energy(KE) and momentum(P) is given by: P = √2mKE
h h
Now, λ = P = √2mKE
h h h
λe = = =
√2me KEe √2me × 4k √8me k
h h
λp = =
√2mp KEp √2mp k
h h h h
λα = = = =
√2mα KEα √2mα . 4k √2 × 2mp . 2k √8mp k
From the above data, 𝜆𝛼 < 𝜆𝑃 < 𝜆𝑒
32. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : Earth has atmosphere whereas moon doesn't have any atmosphere.
Reason R : The escape velocity on moon is very small as compared to that on earth.
In the light of the above statements. choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Sol. (1)
2𝐺𝑀
𝑉𝑒𝑠𝑐 = √ = √2𝑔𝑟
𝑟
Radius of moon is less than that of earth and acceleration due to gravity is also less on moon as compared to
that on earth.
Thus , Vesc of Moon < Vesc of Earth
This is also the reason behind escape of atmosphere from moon.
33. A source supplies heat to a system at the rate of 1000 W. If the system performs work at a rate of 200 W. The
rate at which internal energy of the system increase is
(1) 500 W (2) 600 W (3) 800 W (4) 1200 W
Sol. (3)
From Ist law of thermodynamics,
𝑑𝑄 = 𝑑𝑈 + 𝑑𝑊
𝑑𝑄 𝑑𝑈 𝑑𝑊
Also, we can write this as, = +
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑈
⟹ 1000𝑊 = + 200𝑊
𝑑𝑡
𝑑𝑈
⟹ = 800𝑊
𝑑𝑡
34. A small ball of mass M and density is dropped in a viscous liquid of density o . After some time, the ball
falls with a constant velocity. What is the viscous force on the ball?
(1) F Mg 1 0 (2) F Mg 1 (3) F Mg 1 o (4) F Mg (1 o )
o
Sol. (3)
At terminal velocity, net force on the ball is Zero.
B
f
Mg
𝑀𝑔 = 𝑓 + 𝐵
⟹ 𝑀𝑔 = 𝑓 + 𝑉𝑏𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝜌𝑜 𝑔 … . (𝑖)
𝑀
Volume of ball = 𝜌
From eq (i),
𝑀
𝑀𝑔 = 𝑓 + 𝜌𝑜 𝑔
𝜌
𝑀
⟹ 𝑓 = 𝑀𝑔 − 𝜌𝑜 𝑔
𝜌
𝜌𝑜
⟹ 𝑓 = 𝑀𝑔(1 − )
𝜌
35. A small block of mass 100 g is tied to a spring of spring constant 7.5 N/m and length 20 cm. The other end of
spring is fixed at a particular point A. If the block moves in a circular path on a smooth horizontal surface with
constant angular velocity 5 rad/s about point A, then tension in the spring is –
(1) 0.75 N (2) 1.5 N (3) 0.25 N (4) 0.50 N
Sol. (1)
𝑘𝑥 = 𝑚𝜔2 𝑟
⟹ 𝑘𝑥 = 0.1 × 25 × (0.2 + 𝑥)
⟹ 7.5𝑥 = 2.5(0.2 + 𝑥)
⟹ 3𝑥 = 0.2 + 𝑥
⟹ 2𝑥 = 0.2
⟹ 𝑥 = 0.1𝑚
Now, tension in the spring = 𝑘𝑥 = 7.5 × 0.1 𝑁 = 0.75 𝑁
36. A particle is moving with constant speed in a circular path. When the particle turns by an angle 90o , the ratio of
instantaneous velocity to its average velocity is : x 2. The value of x will be -
(1) 7 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 5
Sol. (2)
𝑉𝐴 = 𝑣𝑗̂ v
And 𝑉𝐵 = −𝑣𝑖̂ B
2𝜋𝑅 1 𝜋𝑅
Time to reach from A to B = 4 × 𝑣 = 2𝑣
Displacement from A to B = 𝑅√2
𝐷𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑅√2 2√2𝑣
Now, Average velocity from A to B = = 𝜋𝑅 =
𝑇𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝜋
2𝑣
Instantaneous velocity at B is −𝑣𝑖̂ A
𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑒𝑜𝑢𝑠 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝜋
According to question, 𝑎𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 = 𝑥√2
𝑣 𝜋
2√2𝑣
=
𝑥√2
𝜋
𝜋 𝜋
⟹ =
2√2 𝑥√2
⟹𝑥=2
37. Two resistances are given as R 1 (10 0.5) and R 2 (15 0.5). The percentage error in the measurement
of equivalent resistance when they are connected in parallel is -
(1) 2.33 (2) 4.33 (3) 5.33 (4) 6.33
Sol. (2)
1 1 1
In parallel combination, 𝑅 = 𝑅 + 𝑅
𝑒𝑞 1 2
1 1 1 5 1
⟹ = + = =
𝑅𝑒𝑞 10 15 30 6
Now, for error calculation,
𝑑𝑅𝑒𝑞 𝑑𝑅1 𝑑𝑅2
2 = +
𝑅𝑒𝑞 𝑅12 𝑅22
𝑑𝑅𝑒𝑞 0.5 0.5
⟹ = +
36 100 225
13 13 26
𝑑𝑅𝑒𝑞 = 36 × 0.5 × ( ) = 18 × = = 0.26
900 900 100
𝑑𝑅𝑒𝑞 0.26 26
Now , × 100 = × 100 = = 4.33
𝑅𝑒𝑞 6 6
38. For a uniformly charged thin spherical shell, the electric potential (V) radially away from the entre (O) of shell
can be graphically represented as –
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (4)
𝐾𝑄
For 𝑟 ≤ 𝑅, 𝑉 = 𝑅 , i.e., Constant everywhere inside.
𝐾𝑄
For 𝑟 > 𝑅, 𝑉 = 𝑟
, i.e., Decreases with r.
39. A long straight wire of circular cross-section (radius a) is carrying steady current I. The current I is uniformly
distributed across this cross-section. The magnetic field is
(1) zero in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(2) inversely proportional to r in the region r < a and uniform throughout in the region r > a
(3) directly proportional to r in the region r < a and inversely proportional to r in the region r > a
(4) uniform in the region r < a and inversely proportional to distance r from the axis, in the region r > a
Sol. (3)
It is a case of solid infinite current carrying wire.
Using ampere circuital law,
CASE I: if r ≤ R
𝜇0 𝑖
𝐵= 𝑟
2𝜋𝑅 2
CASE II: r>R
𝜇0 𝑖
𝐵=
2𝜋𝑟
40. By what percentage will the transmission range of a TV tower be affected when the height of the tower is
increased by 21% ?
(1) 12% (2) 15% (3) 14% (4) 10%
Sol. (4)
New range is given by √2𝑅(ℎ + 0.21ℎ)
= √2𝑅ℎ × 1.21
= 1.1√2𝑅ℎ
It means new range increases by 10 %.
41. The number of air molecules per cm3 increased from 3 × 1019 to 12 × 1019. The ratio of collision frequency of
air molecules before and after the increase in the number respectively is :
(1) 0.25 (2) 0.75 (3) 1.25 (4) 0.50
Sol. (1)
Collision frequency is given by 𝑍 = 𝑛𝜋𝑑 2 𝑉𝑎𝑣𝑔 , where n is number of molecules per unit volume.
𝑍1 𝑛1 3 1
= = = = 0.25
𝑍2 𝑛2 12 4
42. The energy levels of an hydrogen atom are shown below. The transition corresponding to emission of shortest
wavelength is
44. A planet has double the mass of the earth. Its average density is equal to that of the earth. An object weighing
W on earth will weigh on that planet:
(1) 21/3 W (2) 2 W (3) W (4) 22/3 W
Sol. (1)
Average Density of planet = average density of earth
𝑀𝑒 𝑀𝑝
4 =4
𝜋𝑅𝑒3 3
𝜋𝑅𝑝
3 3
𝑀𝑒 2𝑀𝑒
⟹ =
𝑅𝑒3 3
𝑅𝑝
1
⟹ 𝑅𝑝 = 23 𝑅𝑒 − − − − − − − − − (𝑖)
𝐺𝑀
Now, 𝑔 = 𝑅2
2
𝑅𝑝 2 1
𝑔𝑒 𝑀𝑒
= × = 23−1 = 2−3
𝑔𝑝 𝑅𝑒2 2𝑀𝑒
1
⟹ 𝑔𝑝 = 23 𝑔𝑒
1
⟹ 𝑊𝑝 = 23 𝑊𝑒
45. The resistivity ( ) of semiconductor varies with temperature. Which of the following curve represents the
correct behavior
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. (3)
A semiconductor starts conduction more as the temperature increases. It means resistance decreases with
increase in temperature. So, if temperature increases, its resistivity decreases.
𝑚
Also, 𝜌 = 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏
As Temperature increase, 𝜏 decreases but n increases and n is dominant over 𝜏.
46. A monochromatic light wave with wavelength 1 and frequency 1 in air enters another medium. If the angle
of incidence and angle of refraction at the interface are 45o and 30o respectively, then the wavelength 2 and
frequency 2 of the refracted wave are :
1 1
(1) 2 1 , 2 1 (2) 2 1 , 2 1
2 2
(3) 2 1 , 2 21 (4) 2 21 , 2 1
Sol. (1)
1 × 𝑠𝑖𝑛45 = 𝜇𝑠𝑖𝑛30
1 1
⟹ =𝜇×
√2 2
⟹ 𝜇 = √2 − − − −(𝑖)
𝜇 𝑉 𝜆
Now, 1 = 2 = 2 − − − − − (𝑖𝑖)
𝜇2 𝑉1 𝜆1
Using eq (i) and (ii),
1
𝜆2 = 𝜆
√2 1
1
And 𝑉2 = √2 𝑉1
Now, for relation between frequencies,
𝑉
Frequency, 𝑣 = 𝜆
𝑣 𝑉 𝜆
Or 𝑣1 = 𝑉1 × 𝜆2 = 1
2 2 1
𝑣1 = 𝑣2
47. A mass m is attached to two strings as shown in figure. The spring constants of two springs are K 1 and K2. For
the frictionless surface, the time period of oscillation of mass m is
m 1 K1 K 2 1 K1 K 2 m
(1) 2 (2) (3) (4) 2
K1 K 2 2 m 2 m K1 K 2
Sol. (4)
Both the springs are in parallel.
𝐾𝑒𝑞 = 𝐾1 + 𝐾2
𝑚 𝑚
𝑇 = 2𝜋√ = 2𝜋√
𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝐾1 +𝐾2
50. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : When a body is projected at an angle 45o , it’s range is maximum.
Reason R : For maximum range, the value of sin 2 should be equal to one.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(2) A is false but R is true
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) A is true but R is false
Sol. (3)
𝑢2 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃
For a ground to ground projectile, Horizontal range is given by 𝑅 = 𝑔
And for 𝑅𝑚𝑎𝑥 , 𝑠𝑖𝑛2𝜃 must be maximum.
SECTION - B
51. Two identical circular wires of radius 20 cm and carrying current 2 A are placed in perpendicular planes as
shown in figure. The net magnetic field at the centre of the circular wires is _________ × 10-8 T.
Sol. (628)
𝜇 𝑖 𝜇 𝑖
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 0 𝑖̂ + 0 𝑗̂
2𝑟 2𝑟
𝜇0 𝑖 1
⟹ 𝐵𝑛𝑒𝑡 =
2𝑟
√2 = 4𝜋 × 10−7 × √2 × √2 × 2×0.2 = 2 × 3.14 × 10−6 = 628 × 10−8 𝑇
52. A steel rod bas a radius of 20 mm and a length of 2.0 m. A force of 62.8 kN stretches it along its length. Young's
modulus of steel is 2.0 × 1011 N/m2 . The longitudinal strain produced in the wire is _______ × 10-5
Sol. (25)
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠
𝑌=
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛
𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠 𝐹 62.8×1000 62.8×1000 200
⟹ 𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑖𝑛 = = = = = × 10−5 = 25 × 10−5
𝑌 𝐴𝑌 𝜋𝑟 2 ×2×1011 3.14×400×10−6 ×2×1011 8
53. The length of a metallic wire is increased by 20% and its area of cross section is reduced by 4%. The percentage
change in resistance of the metallic wire is ______
Sol. (25)
𝜌𝑙
𝑅=
𝐴
𝜌×1.2𝑙 10
𝑅′ = = × 𝑅 = 1.25 𝑅
0.96𝐴 8
It means 25 % increase in Resistance.
54. The radius of fifth orbit of the Li++ is __________ × 10-12 m.
Take : radius of hydrogen atom = 0.51 Å
Sol. (425)
0.51𝑛2
𝑟𝑛 = 𝐴0
𝑍
++
For Li , z=3.
25
So 𝑟5 = 0.51 × 3 × 10−10 𝑚 = 17 × 25 × 10−12 𝑚 = 425 × 10−12 𝑚
55. A particle of mass 10 g moves in a straight line with retardation 2x, where x is the displacement in SI units. Its
n
10
loss of kinetic energy for above displacement is J. The value of n will be ____________
x
Sol. (2)
Given, 𝑎 = −2𝑥
𝑣𝑑𝑣
⟹ = −2𝑥
𝑑𝑥
⟹ 𝑣𝑑𝑣 = −2𝑥𝑑𝑥
𝑣 𝑥
⟹ ∫𝑣 2 𝑣𝑑𝑣 = −2 ∫0 𝑥𝑑𝑥
1
𝑣22 𝑣12 2𝑥 2
⟹ − =−
2 2 2
𝑚𝑣12 𝑚𝑣22 10 2 10 −2
⟹ − = 𝑚𝑥 2 = 𝑥 = 10−2 𝑥 2 = ( )
2 2 1000 𝑥
n=2.
56. An ideal transformer with purely resistive load operates at 12 kV on the primary side. It supplies electrical energy
to a number of nearby houses at 120 V. The average rate of energy consumption in the houses served by the
transformer is 60 kW. The value of resistive load (Rs) required in the secondary circuit will be ________ m .
Sol. (240)
𝑉𝑠 𝑁𝑠
=
𝑉𝑝 𝑁𝑝
120 𝑁𝑠
⟹ =
12000 𝑁𝑝
𝑁𝑠 1
⟹ = − − − (𝑖)
𝑁𝑝 100
For an ideal transformer, input power = Output power
And power is given by 𝑃 = 𝑖𝑉
𝑖𝑝 𝑉𝑝 = 𝑖𝑠 𝑉𝑠 = 60000𝑊
60000
𝑖𝑝 = =5
12000
𝑉𝑝 12000
Now, 𝑅𝑝 = = = 2400 Ω
𝑖𝑝 5
𝑉𝑠 120 120 120
𝑅𝑠 = = = 120 × = = 0.240Ω = 240 𝑚Ω
𝑖𝑠 60000/120 60000 500
57. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area A and plate separation d is filed with a dielectric material of dielectric
constant K = 4. The thickness of the dielectric material is x, where x < d.
1 2d
Let C1 and C2 be the capacitance of the system for x d and x , respectively. If C1 = 2F the value of
3 3
C2 is __________ F
Sol. (3)
𝜖0 𝐴 4𝜖0 𝐴
2𝑑 × 𝑑
3 3 18 𝜖0 𝐴 2 𝜖0 𝐴 4 𝜖0 𝐴
𝐶1 = 𝜖0 𝐴 4𝜖0 𝐴 =3 = 18 × =
+ +12 𝑑 27 𝑑 3 𝑑
2𝑑/3 𝑑/3 2
4 𝜖0 𝐴 𝜖0 𝐴 3
According to qn, 3 =2⟹ = − − − − − (𝑖)
𝑑 𝑑 2
𝜖0 𝐴 4𝜖0 𝐴
𝑑 × 2𝑑
3 3 18 𝜖0 𝐴 𝜖0 𝐴 3
Now, 𝐶2 = 𝜖0 𝐴 4𝜖0 𝐴 =
3+6 𝑑
=2×
𝑑
=2× =3
2
+
𝑑/3 2𝑑/3
58. Two identical solid spheres each of mass 2 kg and radii 10 cm are fixed at the ends of a light rod. The separation
between the centres of the spheres is 40 cm. The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular
to the rod passing through its middle point is __________ × 10-3 kg-m2
Sol. (176)
Using parallel axix theorem,
2
𝐼𝑠𝑦𝑠 = ( 𝑚𝑟 2 + 𝑚𝑑 2 ) × 2
5
2
⟹ 𝐼𝑠𝑦𝑠 = ( × 2 × 0.01 + 2 × 0.04) × 2 = (0.008 + 0.08) × 2 = 0.088 × 2 = 176 × 10−3
5
59. A person driving car at a constant speed of 15 m/s is approaching a vertical wall. The person notices a change
of 40 Hz in the frequency of his car's horn upon reflection from the wall. The frequency of horn is ______ Hz.
Sol. (420)
𝑓 ′ = 𝑓0 + 40
330+15
⟹ 𝑓0 ( ) = 𝑓0 + 40
330−15
345
⟹ 𝑓0 × = 𝑓0 + 40
315
30
⟹ 𝑓0 × = 40
315
315
⟹ 𝑓0 = 40 × = 420 𝐻𝑧
30
60. A pole is vertically submerged in swimming pool, such that it gives a length of shadow 2.15 m within water
when sunlight is incident at an angle of 30o with the surface of water. If swimming pool is filled to a height of
1.5 m, then the height of the pole above the water surface in centimeters is (nw = 4/3) ____________
Sol. (50)
4
𝑠𝑖𝑛60 = 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟
3
3 √3 3√3
⟹ 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑟 = × = − − − (𝑖) y
4 2 8 600
27 √37
𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑟 = √1 − = = 0.75
64 8
27 r
⟹ 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑟 = √
37
𝑥 1.5m
⟹ = 0.85
1.5
⟹ 𝑥 = 0.85 × 1.5 = 1.275𝑚
𝑦 𝑦 x
𝑡𝑎𝑛30 = =
2.15−1.275 0.875
0.875 2.15m
𝑦= = 0.50
1.732
So length of pole above water surface = 0.50m=50cm
SECTION - A
61. Match List I with List II
List I List II
(Natural Amino acid) (One Letter Code)
(A) Arginine (I) D
(B) Aspartic acid (II) N
(C) Asparagine (III) A
(D) Alanine (IV) R
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) – III, (B) – I, (C) – II (D) –IV (2) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – II (D) –III
(3) (A) – IV, (B) – I, (C) – III (D) –II (4) (A) – I, (B) – III, (C) – IV (D) –II
Sol. 2
Natural Amino acid One Letter Code
(i) Arginine R
(ii) Aspartic acid D
(iii) Asparagine N
(iv) Alanine A
62. Formation of which complex, among the following, is not a confirmatory test of Pb2 ions
(1) lead sulphate (2) lead nitrate (3) lead chromate (4) lead iodide
Sol. 2
Pb(NO3)2 is a soluble colourless compound so it cannot be used in confirmatory test of Pb+2 ion.
63. The volume of 0.02 M aqueous HBr required to neutralize 10.0 mL of 0.01 M aqueous Ba(OH)2 is (Assume
complete neutralization)
(1) 5.0 mL (2) 10.0 mL (3) 2.5 mL (4) 7.5 mL
Sol. 2
m.eq. of HBr = m.eq. of Ba(OH)2
M1 × n1 × V1(mL) = M2 × n2 × V2(mL)
0.02 × 1 × V1(mL) = 0.02 × 2 × 10
V1(mL) = 10 mL
64. Group–13 elements react with O 2 in amorphous form to form oxides of type M2O3 (M = element). Which
among the following is the most basic oxide?
(1) Al2O3 (2) Tl2O3 (3) Ga 2 O3 (4) B2 O3
Sol. 2
As electropositive character increases basic character of oxide increases.
B2O3 Al2O3 Ga 2O3 In 2O3 Tl2O3
acidic amphoteric basic
68. From the figure of column, chromatography given below, identify incorrect statements.
a
b
c
Sol. 4
OH OH OH OH
Cl CH3 NO2
–I +I –I
Since –I of –NO2 > Cl
So, most acidic will be (4)
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 4
H
OH OH2
–CH3–Shift
H
72. Structures of BeCl2 in solid state, vapour phase and at very high temperature respectively are:
(1) Polymeric, Dimeric, Monomeric (2) Dimeric, Polymeric, Monomeric
(3) Monomeric, Dimeric, Polymeric (4) Polymeric, Monomeric, Dimeric
Sol. 1
In solid state BeCl2 as polymer, in vapour state it form chloro-bridged dimer while above 1200K it is monomer.
73. Consider the following reaction that goes from A to B in three steps as shown below:
AC-1 AC-3
A
Inter- Inter- B
mediate-1 mediate-2
Number of Intermediate 2
Number of Activated complex 3
Rate determining step II
74. The product, which is not obtained during the electrolysis of brine solution is
(1) HCl (2) NaOH (3) Cl2 (4) H 2
Sol. 1
Brine solution (NaCl + H2O)
NaCl Na+ + Cl–
Electrolyte
H2O 2H+ + OH–
At Cathode 2H + 2e H2
At Anode 2Cl– Cl2 + 2e
Na+ + OH– NaOH
Answer 1 (HCl)
75. Which one of the following elements will remain as liquid inside pure boiling water?
(1) Li (2) Ga (3) Cs (4) Br
Sol. 2
Li, Cs reacts vigorously with water.
Br2 changes in vapour state in boiling water (BP = 58°C)
Ga reacts with water above 100°C (MP = 29°C, BP = 2400°C)
76. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as “Assertion A” and the other is labelled as “Reason R”
Assertion A: In the complex Ni(CO)4 and Fe(CO)5 , the metals have zero oxidation state.
Reason R: Low oxidation states are found when a complex has ligands capable of –donor character in addition
to the – bonding.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) A is not correct but R is correct.
(2) A is correct but R is not corret
(3) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Sol. 2
Low oxidation state of metals can stabilized by synergic bonding so ligand has to be -acceptor.
77. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Morphine is a narcotic analgesic. It helps in reliving pain without producing sleep.
Statement II: Morphine and its derivatives are obtained from opium poppy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Statement I is true but statement II is false (2) Both statement I and statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is true (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Sol. 3
Fact
Morphine
(i) Morphine is a narcotic analgesic, it help in relieving plan and producing sleep.
(ii) Morphine and its derivatives are obtained from opium.
78. Find out the major product from the following reaction.
(1)MeMgBr/CuI
(2)n Pr l
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Sol. 3
O O
Me + MgBr n—Pr—I
CuI
79. During the reaction of permanganate with thiosulphate, the change in oxidation of manganese occurs by value
of 3. Identify which of the below medium will favour the reaction
(1) aqueous neutral (2) aqueous acidlic
(3) both aqueous acidic and neutral (4) both aqueous acidic and faintly alkaline
Sol. 1
In neutral or weakly alkaline solution oxidation state of Mn changes by 3 unit
7 4
Mn O4–1 Mn O2
80. Element not present in Nessler’s reagent is
(1) K (2) N (3) I (4) Hg
Sol. 2
Nessler reagent is- K2[HgI4]
SECTION - B
81. The standard reduction potentials at 298 K for the following half cells are given below:
NO3– 4H 3e – NO(g) 2H2O E 0.97V
V2 (aq) 2e – V E –1.19V
Fe3 (aq) 3e – Fe E –0.04V
Ag (aq) e – Ag(s) E 0.80V
Au 3 (aq) 3e – Au(s) E 1.40V
The number of metal(s) which will be oxidized by NO3– in aqueous solution is ____________
Sol. 3
Metal + NO3– Metal Nitrate
(V, Fe, Ag)
Less value of reaction potential then 0.97 volt.
Answer 3
82. Number of crystal system from the following where body centred unit cell can be found, is__________
Cubic, tetragonal, orthorhombic, hexagonal, rhombohedral, monoclinic, triclinic
Sol. 3
BCC present in Cubic, Tetragonal orthorhombic
83. Among the following the number of compounds which will give positive iodoform reaction is________
(a) 1–Phenylbutan–2–one (b) 2–Methylbutan–2–ol
(c) 3–Methylbutan–2–ol (d) 1–Phenylethanol
(e) 3,3–dimethylbutan–2–one (f) 1–Phenylpropan –2–ol
Sol. 4
Iodo form test
(a) Ph –NO
O
(b) –NO
OH
(c) –Yes
OH
Ph
(d) –Yes
OH
(e) –Yes
O
OH
(f) –Yes
Ph
For carbonyl compound —C—CH3 for alcohol —CH—CH3 should be present for idoform test.
O OH
84. Number of isomeric aromatic amines with molecular formula C8 H11 N , which can be synthesized by Gabriel
Phthalimide synthesis is_________
Sol. 6
By Gabriel phthalimide synthesis i-amine is prepared
C8H11N Should be aromatic & i-amine
H–N
Du = C + 1 –
2
11 – 1
=8+1–
2
10
= 9– = 9 – 5 = 4 it means benzene ring
2
NH2 NH2 NH2
NH2 *
NH2
(v)
85. Consider the following pairs of solution which will be isotonic at the same temperature. The number of pairs of
solutions is/are______________
A. 1 M aq. NaCl and 2 M aq. Urea
B. 1 M aq. CaCl2 and 1.5 M aq. KCl
C. 1.5 M aq. AlCl3 and 2 M aq. Na 2SO4
D. 2.5 M aq. KCl and 1 M aq. Al2 (SO4 )3
Sol. 4
A. 1 M aq. NaCl 2 M aq. Ions
Isotonic
2 M aq. Urea 2 M aq. Urea
86. The number of colloidal systems from the following, which will have ‘liquid’ as the dispersion medium,
is_________
Gem stones, paints, smoke, cheese, milk, hair cream, insecticide sprays, froth, soap lather
Sol. 5
Liquid dispersion medium
Paints, milk, hair cream, froth, soap lather
87. In an ice crystal, each water molecule is hydrogen bonded to neighbouring molecules.
Sol. 4
O
H H
H O H
O H H O
H H
H
O H
90. The number of species having a square planar shape from the following is___________________
XeF4 ,SF4 ,SiF4 ,BF4– ,BrF4– [Cu(NH3 ) 4 ]2 ,[FeCl4 ]2– ,[PtCl 4 ]2–
Sol. 4
XeF4 ,BrF4– [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2 ,[PtCl4 ]2– has square planar shape.