Seat No.

_________
SUB: ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING (EN)
Time: 1 Hour 30 minutes
Instructions:
1. Ensure that all pages are printed.
2. Use Black ball pen only
3. Change in option is not allowed
4. There is no negative marking
5. Use of non -programmable scientific calculator is allowed

1. Impurities such as colloidal suspended solids from the drinking water may preferably
be removed using__________________.
A Activated Carbon B Chlorine
C Poly Aluminium Chloride D Lime & Soda ash
2. 100 mg/lit of NaCl addition in 1 lit of distilled water may contribute __________.
A 100 mg/lit of Total Hardness B 100 mg/lit of Carbonate Hardness
C 100 mg/lit of Non Carbonate D 100 mg/lit of Pseudo Hardness
Hardness
3. In a titremetric analysis for the determination of residual chlorine, burette reading is
observed as 0.6 ml of .001 N sodium thiosulfate for the 100 ml of sample quantity.
____________ will be the residual chlorine available in the sample.
A 0.6 B 0.21
C 0.06 D 2.1
4. ____________ mg/lit of residual chlorine is generally preferred at consumers’ tap in
public water supplies.
A 0.01-0.02 B 0.1-0.2
C 1.0-2.0 D 10-20
5. Nitrate bearing water supplies may lead to _____________ disease into infants.

A Diarrheal dysentery B Fluorosis

C Pneumoconiosis D Methemoglobinemia
6. __________ is not water borne disease.

A Diarrheal dysentery B Cholera

C Malaria D Jaundice
7. Chlorine is preferable as disinfectant in most developing nations due to following
reasons. (i) it is cheap (ii) It is easy to apply in any form (iii) it is capable to produce
DBPs (iv) it is capable to produce residual effect. Out of the above statements
followings are correct.
A All of the above B (i), (ii) & (iii)
C (i), (ii) & (iv) D (ii), (iii) & (iv)

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 8. As per IS 10500- Indian drinking water quality standards, ________ is the desired limit
for Iron in drinking water.

A 0.3 B 0.03
C 0.5 D 0.05
9. Acidity in water is caused due to ___________.

A Free CO2 B Mineral acids

C Aluminum Sulfate D All of these
10. Following standard curve depicts the
colorimetric plot for ____________.

A Iron B Fluoride

C PO4-P D NH3-N

11. _________ kg/day of lime is required to add on treatment facility of 10 MLD of water
with 500 mg/lit of Total hardness as CaCO3 and 200 mg/lit of Non carbonate hardness
as CaCO3.

A 3770 B 2220
C 1480 D 2120
12. __________kg/day of Chlorine will be required to treat 10 MLD of water with required
chlorine dose of 2 mg/lit.

A 0.2 B 2.0
C 20 D 200
13. Nalgonda Method is widely adopted to remove ___________ in water treatment.

A Nickel B Iron
C Chromium D Fluoride
14. _________ is not a type of depth filtration.

A Membrane filtration B Sand filtration

C Diatomaceous earth filtration D Cloth filtration
15. In membrane filtration processes, Micro filtration is more suitable and efficient for the
removal of particle size range _______________.

A 1 X 10-4 to 1 X 10-5 µm B 0.05 to 0.005 µm

C 1.0 to 0.1 µm D 5 X 10-3 to 5 X 10-4 µm

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 16. The slow sand filters are generally adopting the rate of filtration values in the range of
_______.

A 20-100 lit/hr/m2 B 200-1000 lit/hr/m2

C 2000-6000 lit/hr/m2 D 10000-20000 lit/hr/m2
17. Preferable ‘G’ value adopted for the flash mixing devices used for water treatment is
____________.

A 10-60 sec-1 B 60-240 day-1

C 300-600 sec-1 D 1200-1600 day-1
18. The most suitable design parameter adopted for the sizing of settling tanks is considered
as ______________.

A Detention time B Surface loading rate

C Velocity of flow D Sludge retention time
19. At the intake structure of water works, generally screen provided is ___________.

A Coarse screen B Medium screen

C Fine screen D Any of the above can be used
20. Elevated service reservoir in distribution network serve as ________.

A Break down storage B Balancing storage

C Fire storage D All of these
21. Equivalent pipe method is quite useful to solve distribution network of _______ type.

A Dead End B Grid Iron

C Circular D Radial
22. Following statement/s hold true for the water distribution network analysis using Hardy
Cross method.

(i)It can be used for complex closed loop network effectively

(ii) It involves successive approximations with trial & error

(iii) Balancing Velocities in successive trials

(iv) Balancing flows & heads in successive trials

A (i), (ii) & (iii) B (i), (ii) & (iv)

C (ii), (iii) & (iv) D (i), (ii) & (iv)
23. The drop man hole in public sewer is mainly provided when ____________.

A Change in gravity to pressure line B Change in alignment of sewer

C Change in elevation of ground D Change in size of sewer
24. Most suitable section of sewer for both combined and separate systems is ________.

A Egg shape B Triangle shape

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 C Circular shape D Square shape
25. The highest point of the interior of a sewer pipe at any cross section is known as ______.

A Soffit B Invert
C Drop point D Leader
26. In conventional sewage treatment plant, effluent coming out of ____________ has
minimum of suspended solids.

A Grit removal tank B Primary settling tank

C Secondary settling tank D Aeration tank
27. In conventional sewage treatment plant, Surface Loading Rate of secondary settling tank
is generally preferred in the range of ________________ m3/d/m2

A 10-30 B 60-120
C 200-400 D 1000-1500
28. BOD/COD ratio in the range of 0.5-0.7 indicates ______________.

A Better suitability of chemical B Better suitability of biological

treatment processes treatment processes
C Toxicity into the wastewater D All of the A,B & C are correct
29. ___________ type of pollutants are generally not being targeted to be removed from
conventional sewage treatment in Indian conditions.

A Dissolve inorganic B Suspended organic

C Dissolve organic D Oily & greasy
30. In conventional activated sludge process, aeration tank contains MLSS in the range of
_____________ mg/lit.

A 20-30 B 200-300
C 2000-3000 D > 3000
31. Following may not be the modification process in conventional activated sludge process.

A Step aeration B Tapered aeration

C Circular aeration D Pure oxygenation
32. Sludge retention time in most anaerobic standard rate digesters of sewage treatment is
kept in _______________ range values.

A 2-4 months B 2-4 days

C 20-40 days D 2-4 hours
33. In aerobic treatment process, Nitrosomonas convert _______________.
A NH3 to NO2 B NO2- to HNO3
C NO2- to NO3- D NH3 to N2O
34. Trickling filters used in sewage treatment are typical example of __________.

A Suspended growth system B Attached growth system

C Combined growth system D None of these

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 35. As per National Ambient Air Quality Standards in India, ________ is the maximum
permissible concentration of Nitrogen Dioxide for 24 hours average in urban air.

A 40 µg/M3 B 60 µg/M3

C 80 µg/M3 D 100 µg/M3

36. ___________ is the secondary air pollutant may be found in urban air of dense traffic
zones.

A SO2 B O3
C NO2 D All of above

37. A _______ plume pattern occurs under essentially neutral stability, when environmental
lapse rate is equal to the adiabatic lapse rate.

A Coning B Looping
C Fanning D Fumigation
38. (i)Mist (ii) Fog (iii) Smoke (iv) Fume

_____________ of the above is/are type/s of aerosol.

A All of these B None of these

C (i),(iii) & (iv) D (ii),(iii) & (iv)
39. _________ is the air pollutant gas directly associated in destructing the cardio vascular
system of human.

A CO B CO2

C SO2 D NO2

40. ________ gas is contributing least in green house effect enhancement on earth surface.

A CO2 B SO2
C NO2 D CFC

41. _________ is the concentration of SO2 in ppm, if sampled air containing 80 µg/M3 of
SO2 at 25º c temperature and 1 atm pressure.

A 0.003 B 0.03
C 0.3 D 3.0
42. Centrifugal separators are most commonly found efficient & preferable to remove
particles of size range ___________.

A 0.1-1.0 µm B 10-25 µm
C 1.0-10 µm D 25-100 µm
43. In standard cyclone configuration, ratio of height of cylindrical portion and conical
portion is kept as _________.

A 0.5 B 1.0

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 C 1.5 D 2.0
44. The bag filters are of generally _______________ type/s.

A Shaker type B Reverse-air type

C Pulse jet type D All of above
45. Wet venturi scrubbers are quite effectively used in removing _________ pollutants from
the gaseous phase.

A Gaseous pollutants B Particulate pollutants

C Both together D None of (A) & (B)
46. The range of normal human hearing is ___________.

A 0.2-2.0 Hz B 2.0-20 Hz
C 20-20000 Hz D >20000 Hz
47. According to the Noise Pollution (R &C) Rules, India, the day and night time noise level
limits in ambient air for residential area expressed in dBA Leq. are _______.

A 55 & 45 B 50 & 40
C 65 & 55 D 75 & 70
48. Levels of safe noise depend on ___________.
A Frequency B Levels of noise and exposure
C Pitch D Area
49. The range over which the sound levels are fluctuating in an interval of time is called
_______.
A Sound Pressure B Sound Power
C Noise Climate D Aplitude
50. As per Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations, no
exposure in excess of ____________ sound pressure level is permitted.
A 90 dBA B 105 dBA
C 115 dBA D 130 dBA
51. Following is not the part of EIA
A Screening B Safety assessment
C Scoping D Base line survey
52. First step towards preservation of ozone layer was taken at ________.
A Montreal Protocol B Basel Convention
C Kyoto Protocol D Rio Declaration
53. A project may not be permitted if EIA reveals impacts that are _______.
A naturally reversible B Short term
C naturally irreversible D None of the above
54. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act 1974 was enacted _________.
A For maintaining and restoring B To have wholesome environment
wholesomeness of water bodies
C To prevent pollution of D All of the above
environment
55. The Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in ______.
A 1976 B 1971
C 1975 D 1972
56. __________ enacted under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.

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 A Municipal Solid Waste (M& H) B Hazardous Waste (M & H) Rules
Rules
C Bio Medical Waste (M & H) Rules D All of these
57. Water Cess Act implemented in India in the year _________.
A 1977 B 1974
C 1971 D 1981
58. Pollution control & regulatory activities in to the Union territory of India is
governed by _____________.
A Nearby State Pollution Control B MoEF & CC
Board
C Pollution Control Committee D Central Pollution Control Board
59. As per Bio-medical waste rule, bio medical waste can be mixed with _________.
A Compostable garden waste B Inorganic Municipal Solid Waste
C Organic Municipal Solid Waste D None of these
60. Rules notified by MOEF in year 2016
A Plastic waste management rules B Environment Protection Act
C Bio Medical Waste (M&H) Rule D All of these
61. Bio medical waste is classified into _____ categories, as per World Health
Organization (WHO).
A 02 B 03
C 04 D 05
62. The Environmental Audit scheme was mainly framed on the principle/s of

(i.) Polluters’ pay

(ii.) Continual improvement
(iii.) Meeting regulatory standards & generation of database

A (i.) & (ii.) B (i.) (ii.) & (iii.)

C (ii.) & (iii.) D (i.) & (iii.)
63. Integrated Solid Waste Management system offers ___________ benefits.

(i) Better resource use efficiency

(ii) Savings in management cost
(iii) Better business opportunity & economic growth
(iv) Turning vicious circle into virtuous circle

A (i) (ii) & (iii) B (i) (ii) & (iv)

C (ii) (iii) & (iv) D All of these
64. An average Indian urban citizen (Class-II cities) produces solid waste in the range of
_______.
A 50-100 gms B 500-1000 gms
C 1500-3000 gms D 3000-5000 gms
65. High calorific value waste indicates amenability for ____________.
A Composting B Landfilling
C Incineration D Pyrolysis
66. ____________ is typically not a part of landfill construction or operations.

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 A Liners B Aerators
C Air vents D Leachate well
67. ____________ is the aerobic composting technique in traditional way.
A Amravati method B Bangalore method
C Indore method D None of these
68. The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is ___________.
A Air pollution B Increased use of land for landfills
C Contamination of ground water D None of these
69. Heavy metals like Arsenic, Cadmium and Cyanide effect ___________.
A Immune system B Skin
C Respiratory system D Nervous system
70. Spent caustic is from metal finishing is an example of _________ waste category.
A Organic aqueous B Inorganic aqueous
C Organic liquid D Organic sludge
71. Toxicity of hazardous waste is generally characterized by ________ .
A Instability B Volume
C Temperature D Dose
72. Bio diversity is of importance as it offers ________.
A Stability of ecosystem B Stability of atmosphere
C Stability of species D Stability of research
73. __________ of the followings is not an in-situ conservation method.
A Zoos B National parks
C Sanctuaries D Bio sphere reserves
74. Metals are produced as waste in industries like __________.
A Skiing B Mining
C Electroplating D Digging
75. __________ is the program run by United Nations related to sustainable
environment.
A Agenda 21 B GHC indicator
C IPCC D UNEP
76. For Gold LEED certification, __________ points are required.
A 40-49 B 60-79
C 50-59 D 80-100
77. In waste to energy processes, carbon can be stored from organic matter in the form
of ___________.
A Biomass B Bio fuel
C Bio energy D Bio carbon
78. In aquatic eco systems, carbon is stored in ______________.
A Marine animals B Marine plants
C Sediments and rocks D Sea water
79. Hot Spot Areas in ecology have ______________.
A High density of hot springs B Low density of bio diversity
C Low density of endangered species D High density of bio diversity
80. The ‘Miracle material’ that can convert CO2 into liquid fuel is ___________.
A Propene B Potassium
C Copper D Graphene

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81
The rank of a matrix is

A 0 B 1
C 3 D 2
82 A linear system ൅ has
A Infinite number of solutions B No Solution
C Unique solution D None of these
83
If then eigen values of are
൅
A 4, 1, 2 B
൅
C 3, 2, 4 D 4, 3, 1
84
If then ൅ is equal to

A Null Matrix B Identity Matrix

C Non-Singular Matrix D None of these
85 lim
�ࠀ ‫ࠀݏ‬
is equal to
A 1 B 2
C 3 D 0
86 The value of improper integral is
A 0 B 1
C D 7

87 If �ࠀ then is equal to
A 0 B U
C 2U D 3U
88 If then � is
A ∇ B
C ∇ D ∇
89 The value of , where C is square bounded by
�ࠀ is
A 4 B 3
C D ൅
൅
90 Solution of cos ‫ࠀݏ‬ is
A sin B ‫ࠀݏ‬
C ‫ࠀݏ‬ D ‫ࠀݏ‬
91 Solution of t t is

A B

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 C D

92 Inverse Laplace transformation of is

t ൅

A sin sin B sin sin

C D sin
sin sin
t
93 Which one is Analytic function
A B
C D
94 Value of , (where is ) is

A ൅ B
C D t
95 Residue of
൅
at simple pole is

A B 7
t
C 1 D 9
96 Newton-Raphson iteration formula for is
A ࠀ B ࠀ
ࠀ ࠀ
ࠀ ࠀ
C ࠀ D ࠀ
ࠀ ࠀ
ࠀ ࠀ
97 Value of integral using Simpson’s 3/8 rule with step size Ͳ is

A 1.3455 B 1.3888
C 1.5345 D 1.1555
98 If Ͳ , by Rungee-Kutta third order method to what
is an approximate value of Ͳ

A 0.9532 B 0.7957
C 0.9048 D 0.9519
99 Mean of binomial probability distribution is 857.6 and probability is 64% then
number of values of binomial distribution is
A 1040 B 1340
C 1140 D 1240
100 Number of product manufacture in a factory in a day are 3500 and probability that
some pieces are defective is 0.55 then mean is
A 1925 B 1875
C 2025 D 6370

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