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Sem2 Assignments Answers

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You are on page 1/ 191

By Shivansh

02/10/2023, 12:20 1st Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Business Research Methods (MGMT603)-Semester II

/ #Module I Nature & Scope of Research Methodology / 1st Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Experimental research will include atleast

a. one independent variable

b. One dependent variable
c. one independent variable and one dependent variable
d. two independent variable and no dependent variable
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Research is a

For a management decision we require

a. The Problem
b. Opportunity
c. Problem or Opportunity
d. Nothing
Clear my choice

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02/10/2023, 12:20 1st Module Assessment

Question 6

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

First step in research is to identify

a. The Problem
b. Opportunity
c. Problem or Opportunity
d. Nothing
Clear my choice

Question 7

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Study explain why an event has occurred is known as

a. Explanatory
b. Descriptive
c. Explanatory and Descriptive
d. Neither Explanatory and Descriptive
Clear my choice

Question 8

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00 

……….. design involving a fixed sample elements that is measured repeatedly over the time.

a. Cross-Sectional
b. Basic
c. Fundamental
d. Longitudinal
Clear my choice

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02/10/2023, 12:20 1st Module Assessment

Question 9

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Characteristics of good research except

a. Pupose clearly defined

b. Research process detailed
c. Research design throughly planned
d. Unclear objectives
Clear my choice

Question 10

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Research Assists in making increasingly complex decision on

a. Goals
b. Strategies
c. Tactics
d. Goals , Strategies and Tactics
Clear my choice

Question 11

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00 

The purpose of________ is to present the management question to be researched and relate its importance

a. research proposal
b. LOR
c. Introduction
d. Objective
Clear my choice

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02/10/2023, 12:20 1st Module Assessment

Question 12

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

A document that suggest the data necessary for solving the management question and how the data will be gathered,
treated and interpreted

a. weekely update
b. daily report
c. contract
d. Research proposal
Clear my choice

Question 13

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

Research helps in identifying the probability of acceptance of the products in its present form. This is termed as

a. Assessing market positioning

b. Assessing target audience
c. Assessing Market Acceptance
d. Assessing Product Acceptance
Clear my choice

Question 14

Not yet answered


Marked out of 2.00

Following are the component of research design except

a. sample selection
b. data collection
c. sample size determination
d. fund allocation
Clear my choice

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02/10/2023, 12:20 1st Module Assessment

Question 15

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

When researchers lack a clear idea of the problem they will meet during the study then we prefer

a. Exploratory Studies
b. Descriptive study
c. observation
d. historical research
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

The artificiality of laboratory in experimental method is a

a. Advantage
b. Disadvantage
c. bonus
d. major benefit
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00 

Repeating an expeiment with different subject groups and conditions in experimental research is a

a. Advantage
b. Disadvantage
c. constraint
d. concern
Clear my choice

◄ Announcements

Jump to...

Module 1 Feedback Form ►

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02/10/2023, 12:30 2nd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Business Research Methods (MGMT603)-Semester II

/ #Module II Research Methods & Data Collection Techniques / 2nd Module Assessment

Question 1

Marked out of 1.00

Sample is regarded as a subset of?

a. Data
b. Set
c. Distribution
d. Population
Clear my choice

Question 7

Marked out of 1.00

Of the following sampling methods, which is a probability method?

a. Judgement
b. Quota
c. Simple random
d. Convenience
Clear my choice

Question 11

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00 

Questionnaire is a

a. Research method
b. Measurement technique
c. Tool for data collection
d. Data analysis technique
Clear my choice

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02/10/2023, 12:30 2nd Module Assessment

◄ Test Your Understanding : 2.5.6 Sampling and non-sampling Errors

Jump to...

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26/11/2023, 16:01 3rd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Business Research Methods (MGMT603)-Semester II / #Module III Data Analysis TechnIques

/ 3rd Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Reject the hypothesis if the sample mean is in

a. Acceptance zone
b. Rejection region
c. reject by anymeans
d. Confidence interval
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Function of ________ is to identify facts that are relevant and those that are not.

a. Level of significance
b. Hypothesis
c. Condfidence interval
d. Degree of freedom
Clear my choice

a. 95
b. 5
c. 9.5
d. 0.95
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding : 3.4.4 Run Example on non-parametric test 

Jump to...

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26/11/2023, 16:01 3rd Module Assessment

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10/15/23, 8:33 PM 4th Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Business Research Methods (MGMT603)-Semester II

/ #Module IV Inferential Statistics and Prescriptive Analytics / 4th Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

_____analysis is classified on the statistical principle of multivariate analysis, which involves analysis of more than one
statistical variable at a time

a. Multivariate
b. Simple
c. bivariate
d. linear
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

In case of discriminant analysis, .......................Number of groups are compared.

a. 4
b. 2 or more
c. 1 
d. only one
Clear my choice

If case of discriminant analysis it involves two groups, there are .......................centroids

a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
Clear my choice

Question 8

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00 

In case of .......................identification, the market researcher can conduct interview with the customers directly.

In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is the

a. response, or dependent, variable

b. independent variable
c. intervening variable
d. is usually x
Clear my choice

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10/15/23, 8:33 PM 4th Module Assessment

Question 12

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

In regression, the equation that describes how the response variable (y) is related to the explanatory variable (x) is:

a. the correlation model

b. the regression model
c. used to compute the correlation coefficient
d. None of these alternatives is correct.
Clear my choice

Question 13

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

The coefficient of determination for 16 is _______.

a. strong
b. Weak
c. Moderate
d. Partial
Clear my choice

Question 14

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00 

The intercept in linear regression represents:

a. the strength of the relationship between x and y

b. the expected x value when y is zero
c. the expected y value when x is zero
d. a population parameter
Clear my choice

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10/15/23, 8:33 PM 4th Module Assessment

Question 15

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

which among the following are learning models in reinforcement learning process

a. Markov Decision Process

b. Q learning
c. Markov Decision Process and Q learning
d. Markov Decision Process but not Q learning
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

The method of least squares finds the best fit line that _______ the error between observed & estimated points on the line

a. Maximizes
b. Minimizes
c. Reduces to zero
d. Approaches to infinity
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00 

In ___________, the data is grouped into clusters, where each cluster indicate something about categories and classes
present in the data.

a. non-parameterized unsupervised learning

b. non-parameterized supervised learning
c. parameterized unsupervised learning
d. parameterized supervised learning
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding : 4.3.4 Creating Data through Reinforcement Learning

Jump to...

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10/15/23, 8:33 PM 4th Module Assessment

Module 4 Feedback Form ►

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10/14/23, 8:01 PM 5th Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Business Research Methods (MGMT603)-Semester II / #Module V Field Project & Report Writing

/ 5th Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The …………….statement should explain the nature of the study, how it was carried and what was attempted.

a. Final
b. Introductory
c. Closing
d. Opening
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The researcher’s role is not to just present the facts, but to draw conclusions on the basis of the ______

a. findings
b. Recommendation
c. hypothesis
d. LOR 
Clear my choice

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10/14/23, 8:01 PM 5th Module Assessment

Question 3

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The basic purchase of the research report is to _______________ of the research project.

a. communicate the results, conclusions, and recommendations

…………..Page should present the topic on which the report is prepared and study conducted.

a. Title
b. Conclusion
c. Reference
d. Introduction
Clear my choice

Question 8

Not yet answered


Marked out of 1.00

Some general advice for preparing the written report includes all except

Marked out of 2.00 

The user of research information must be aware of the ways in which visual displays can be misleading. Which ONE of
these is most likely to help the user?

Marked out of 2.00 

Which ONE of these is best avoided in a report?

a. Idiomatic phrases.
b. Political correctness.
c. Conclusions.
d. Transcribed fragments.
Clear my choice

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10/14/23, 8:01 PM 5th Module Assessment

Question 15

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

Which report section is intended to describe the purpose with a full statement of the research question?

a. Method
b. Results
c. Appendices.
d. Objectives.
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

The report writer should always remember that people have expectations about what information they will find and
where it will be. It is unusual for final reports to have a section with:

a. executive summary.
b. method.
c. appendices
d. research costs.
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered


Marked out of 4.00

Which of these is bad practice for a report?

a. To state fieldwork dates and sample sizes.

b. To have a contents page or another form of indexing.
c. To include names of all respondents with contact details.
d. To use a title that is short and to the point.
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding : 5.3.8 Key Considerations/Factors

Jump to...

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10/14/23, 8:01 PM 5th Module Assessment

Module 5 Feedback Form ►

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12/4/23, 8:02 PM Assignment 2

Dashboard / My courses / Business Research Methods (MGMT603)-Semester II / #Assignment 2 / Assignment 2

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 3.00

Case Study
The ability to come up with business idea can be transformed into a viable business where ideas supported by feasibility
and a business plan can be sold to interested investors firms, and interested parties for a lump sum or a management
contractor, are as agreed business ideas, if introduce at the right time, when demand for search service are a product
introduced by the ideas is expected to surge, can lead to a very profitable business. Business ideas are always available
through different sources; how ever it’s the application applied on this ideas, and timing makes all the difference in
failure or successes. After discussing some good business ideas, Babu and Hari have decided that their best option is to
open a small cafe. They believe that their background and experience in the hospitality industry will help them to
succeed. Hari is keen to start up the business straight away and has already found what he thinks is a good locations.
However, Babu is not sure and want to spend more time researching the market before they commit to anything. Babu
can see the benefit in being fully prepared before investing time and money in to starting the business.

Before implementing the business plan its good idea to develop a _____ and conduct the research to check the market
potential

Marked out of 3.00

The report prepared is NOT

a. Tangible evidence of a research project.

b. A research proposal.
c. Future secondary data.
d. A basis for decision making.
Clear my choice

◄ Discussion Forum 5: Filed Project & Report Writing

Jump to...

Student Feedback for Course : Business Research Methods (MGMT603) ►

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02/10/2023, 15:12 1st Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Conflict Resolution and Management (BS602)-Semester II / #Module I Conflict Management

/ 1st Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What is the main cause of inter-group conflict? A. Lack of communication and trust between departments B. Belief of
superiority or importance of one group over the others C. Competitive nature for praise, recognition, and promotion

a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Only C
d. All A, B C
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is an example of intra-individual conflict?

a. A lawyer having to defend a guilty defendant

b. Five employees arguing about a missed deadline
c. Different departments disagreeing on a project subject
d. Group A copying Group B's idea
Clear my choice

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02/10/2023, 15:12 1st Module Assessment

What is the cause of conflict in the scenario where one person refuses to lend their suit?

a. The person doesn't like the other person

b. The person doesn't have a suit to lend
c. The person wants to keep their suit for themselves
d. The person doesn't trust the other person to return the suit
Clear my choice

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Question 15

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

What is the main difference between intra-individual conflict and inter-individual conflict?

a. Intra-individual conflict occurs within a person's mind, while inter-individual conflict occurs between two
different people.
b. Intra-individual conflict occurs between two different people, while inter-individual conflict occurs within a
person's mind.
c. Intra-individual conflict occurs within a group, while inter-individual conflict occurs between two different
groups.
d. Intra-individual conflict occurs between two different groups, while inter-individual conflict occurs within a
group.
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

Which conflict management style aims to satisfy the needs of all parties involved?

a. Accommodating
b. Avoiding
c. Collaborating
d. Compromising
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following is example/s of conflicts between the individual and the group? A. Disagreements over group
methods or norms of behaviorB. Differences in the distribution of tips among waiters/waitresses in a restaurant C. Both a)
and b) D. None of the options

a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Both A & B
d. Only D
Clear my choice

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◄ Case Study

Jump to...

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/ #Module II Behavioural & Interpersonal Communication / 2nd Module Assessment

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18/12/2023, 18:58 3rd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Conflict Resolution and Management (BS602)-Semester II

/ #Module III Relationship Management for Personal and professional Development / 3rd Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is thought to be the most effective and healthy style of communication.

a. Gestures
b. Verbal Communication
c. Written Communication
d. Assertive Communication
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

How does effective communication contribute to a healthy relationship? A. It allows for better understanding and
resolving conflictsB. It promotes a positive and enjoyable time together C. It fosters mutual respect and trust

a. All A, B , C
b. Both B & C
c. Both A & B
d. Both A & C
Clear my choice

The need for relationships are influenced by personal eneds of human beings as explored in psychology by William
Schultz.

Marked out of 2.00

Following statement is _________."Positive social interactions have been referred to as appetizers by Reis & Gable (2003)".

a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially True
d. CANT SAY
Clear my choice

Question 13

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

__________IS/are important components of MCM

a. Vocal
b. Verbal
c. Visual
d. All of the options
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

How does respect contribute to a healthy relationship? A. It fosters considerate and honest interactions B. It values each
other's opinions and perspectives C. It helps in resolving conflicts and problem-solving

a. Both A & B
b. Both B & C
c. All A, B , C
d. Both A & C
Clear my choice

◄ CASE STUDY

Jump to...

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18/12/2023, 18:58 3rd Module Assessment

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18/12/2023, 19:13 4th Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Conflict Resolution and Management (BS602)-Semester II / #Module IV Stress Management

/ 4th Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The resistance stage of General Adaptation Syndrome is characterized by:

a. Continued physiological and psychological arousal

b. Exhaustion of the body's resources and decreased resistance
c. The body's return to its normal functioning
d. Recovery and restoration of energy levels
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The General Adaptation Syndrome suggests that prolonged exposure to stress can lead to:

Marked out of 1.00

Eustress can be defined as

a. Positive stress that enhances motivation and performance

b. Negative stress that leads to physical and emotional exhaustion
c. Chronic stress that persists over an extended period
d. Stress resulting from traumatic events or experiences
Clear my choice

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Question 9

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Distress is characterized by:

a. Positive emotions and increased energy

b. Engaging in regular exercise and physical activity
c. Relying on unhealthy coping mechanisms
d. Ignoring the signs and symptoms of distress
Clear my choice

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Question 15

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

During the alarm reaction stage of General Adaptation Syndrome, the body:

a. Experiences a sudden burst of energy and heightened arousal

b. Adapts and becomes more resistant to stress
c. Exhibits physical and psychological symptoms of exhaustion
d. Returns to its normal functioning after the stressor is removed
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

The primary difference between eustress and distress lies in:

a. Their duration and intensity

b. Their impact on physical health
c. The presence or absence of emotional responses
d. The type of stressor triggering the response
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following is NOT a consequence of chronic distress?

a. Increased risk of physical and mental health problems

b. Impaired cognitive function and decision-making
c. Enhanced immune system functioning
d. Relationship difficulties and social isolation
Clear my choice

◄ Case Study 
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Dashboard / My courses / Conflict Resolution and Management (BS602)-Semester II

/ #Module V Conflict Resolution & Management / 5th Module Assessment

a. Being seen an unprofessional

b. Parties moving away from the discussion table
c. Breakdown in communication
d. All of the options
Clear my choice

Question 5

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

How does knowing your WATNA (worst alternative to a negotiated agreement) contribute to negotiation success?. It
helps in balancing options and achieving better outcomes B. It provides clarity and understanding of potential
consequencesC. It allows for minimizing losses and making the best of a bad situation

Marked out of 1.00

Identify the correct option . BATNA is a___________. A. Conflict management toolB. A negotiation toolC. A business
transaction tool

a. All A, B C
b. Only B & C
c. Only B & D
d. Only A & B
Clear my choice

Question 10

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18/12/2023, 19:46 Assignment 2

Dashboard / My courses / Conflict Resolution and Management (BS602)-Semester II / #Assignment 2 / Assignment 2

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 3.00

Case Study
CITY Corporation is a multinational company with offices in various countries. The company values diversity and has a
multicultural workforce. Recently, conflicts have arisen between two employees, Sarah and Ahmed, who are assigned to
work together on a high-stakes project. Sarah is from the United States, while Ahmed is from Saudi Arabia. The conflicts
stem from differences in communication styles, work approaches, and cultural norms. As the HR manager, you are tasked
with resolving this conflict and restoring a harmonious working relationship. Sarah and Ahmed were assigned to
collaborate on a crucial project that required effective teamwork and coordination. However, they found themselves
clashing frequently due to their diverse backgrounds and work styles. Sarah, who is used to direct and assertive
communication, perceived Ahmed's indirect communication style as vague and uncooperative. On the other hand,
Ahmed, who values hierarchy and deference to authority, found Sarah's direct approach confrontational and
disrespectful.

The conflicts further escalated when Sarah would request immediate feedback and input from Ahmed, which he
perceived as demanding and intrusive. Ahmed, on the other hand, would delay responses and seek validation from
higher-ups, which Sarah saw as unresponsive and lacking initiative. The conflicts began affecting their productivity, team
morale, and overall project outcomes. As the HR manager, you decided to intervene and address the conflict to ensure a
positive working environment and successful project completion. You initiated a conflict resolution session with both
Sarah and Ahmed, creating a safe and open space for them to express their concerns and perspectives. Through active
listening and guided communication, you helped them understand the cultural differences at play and encouraged
empathy and mutual understanding. To bridge the communication gap, you provided them with cultural sensitivity
training, highlighting the diverse communication styles and work preferences in a multicultural workplace. They learned
to appreciate and adapt to each other's approaches, finding common ground and shared goals in their project
objectives. As a result of your conflict resolution efforts, Sarah and Ahmed started building a rapport and communicating
more effectively. They began leveraging their differences to their advantage, incorporating diverse perspectives into their
project work. This not only improved their professional relationship but also enhanced their project outcomes and team
dynamics.

What was the main cause of conflict between Sarah and Ahmed?

a. Difference in communication styles and work approaches

b. Personality clashes and personal biases
c. Incompatible project objectives
d. Lack of professional skills and expertise
Clear my choice

a. Sarah and Ahmed decided to end their working relationship.

b. The conflict continued with no resolution in sight.
c. Sarah and Ahmed learned to appreciate and leverage their differences.
d. The conflict resulted in negative consequences for the entire team.
Clear my choice

◄ Discussion Forum - Module 5

Jump to...

Marked out of 4.00

The time in which a sum of money will be double at 5% p.a C.I is

a. 10 years
b. 12 years
c. 14.2 years
d. 15.2 years
Clear my choice

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02/10/2023, 13:45 1st Module Assessment

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

The present value of annuity of INR. 5,000 per annum for 12 years at 4% p.a C.I. annually is

a. 46,000
b. 45,850
c. 15,000
d. 46925
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

If P = 1,000, R = 5% p.a, n = 4; What is Amount and C.I. is

a. 1,215.50, 215.50
b. 1,125, 125
c. 2,115, 115
d. 2,215, 215
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding_1.9_Numerical on Time Value of Money

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19/12/2023, 13:37 2nd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Financial Management (FIBA601)-Semester II / #Module II: Financing Decision

/ 2nd Module Assessment

Question 4

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The net operating income approach to capital structure emphasizes the relationship between:

a. Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) and net income

b. Earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) and earnings per share (EPS)
c. Net operating income and net income
d. Net operating income and earnings per share (EPS)
Clear my choice

Question 5

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which approach to capital structure focuses on the relationship between net income and earnings per share (EPS)?

a. Net operating income approach

b. Traditional approach
c. Modigliani-Miller approach
d. Pecking order theory approach
Clear my choice

If EBIT is INR. 15,00,000, interest is 2,50,000, corporate tax is 40%, degree of financial leverage is

a. 1.11
b. 1.2
c. 1.31
d. 1.41
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding_2.16_Optimum Capital Structure 

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19/12/2023, 13:54 3rd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Financial Management (FIBA601)-Semester II

/ #Module III: Investing Decisions – Capital Budgeting and Working Capital Management / 3rd Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a capital budgeting decision criterion?

a. Payback period
b. Accounting rate of return (ARR)
c. Net present value (NPV)
d. Cost of capital
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Factors influencing working capital policy include:

a. Accounting rate of return (ARR) and profitability index (PI)

b. Nature of the industry and business cycle
c. Discounted payback period and internal rate of return (IRR)
d. Cost of capital and net present value (NPV)
Clear my choice

b. The payback period of a project
c. The accounting rate of return (ARR)
d. The difference between cash inflows and outflows discounted at a specified rate
Clear my choice

Management of cash and marketable securities in working capital management aims to:

Management is considering a INR. 1,00,000 investment in a project with a 5 year life and no residual value . If the total
income from the project is expected to be 60,000 and recognition is given to the effect of straight line depreciation on
the investment, the average rate of return is :

a. 12%
b. 24%
c. 60%
d. 75%
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

An asset costs INR. 210,000 with a 30,000 salvage value at the end of its ten-year life. If annual cash inflows are 30,000,
the cash payback period is

a. 8 years
b. 7 years
c. 6 years
d. 5 years
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

If a company's required rate of return is 10% and, in using the net present value method, a project's net present value is
zero, this indicates that the

a. Project's rate of return exceeds 10%.

b. Project's rate of return exceeds 10%.
c. Project earns a rate of return of 10%.
d. Project earns a rate of return of 10%.
Clear my choice

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19/12/2023, 13:54 3rd Module Assessment

◄ Test Your Understanding_3.20_Financing of Working Capital

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Dashboard / My courses / Financial Management (FIBA601)-Semester II / #Module IV: Dividend Decision

/ 4th Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Cash dividend refers to:

a. The distribution of cash to shareholders

b. The distribution of additional shares to existing shareholders
c. The conversion of dividends into additional shares
d. The splitting of existing shares into smaller units
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

a. Ke > g
b. Retention ratio (b),once decide upon, is constant
c. Firm is an all equity firm
d. All of the above
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

If the company’s D/P ratio is 60% & ROI is 16%, what should be the growth rate:

a. 5%
b. 7%
c. 6.40%
d. 9.60%
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

What should be the optimum Dividend pay-out ratio, when r = 15% & Ke = 12%:

a. 100%
b. 50%
c. Zero
d. None of the above.
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding_4.16_Dividend policies in practice 

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Dashboard / My courses / Financial Management (FIBA601)-Semester II / #Module V: Valuations Concepts

/ 5th Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Return on Investment (ROI) is a financial metric that measures:

a. The profitability of an investment relative to its cost

b. The growth rate of a company's revenue
c. The market value of a company's shares
d. The liquidity position of a company
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

b. Operating income divided by total liabilities
c. Net income divided by shareholders' equity
d. Operating income divided by total investment
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding_5.10_Valuations Concepts-Case Study 

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19/12/2023, 14:14 Assignment 2

Dashboard / My courses / Financial Management (FIBA601)-Semester II / #Assignment 2 / Assignment 2

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 3.00

Case Study
The expected cash flows of three projects are given below.
The cost of capital is 10 per cent. (Amount in INR.)
Period Project A Project B Project C
0 ( 5000) ( 5000) ( 5000)
1 900 700 2,000
2 900 800 2,000
3 900 900 2,000
4 900 1000 1,000
5 900 1100
6 900 1200
7 900 1300
8 900 1400
9 900 1500
10 900 1600

* CALCULATE the payback period, net present value, internal

rate of return and accounting rate of return of each project.
*IDENTIFY the rankings of the projects by each of the four
methods. Based on the calculations, choose the correct
answers of the below mentioned questions.

What id the Net Present Value (NPV) of Project A, B & C

a. INR. 450, 1450, 650

b. INR. 350, 1600, 700
c. INR. 530, 1,591, 655
d. INR. 400, 1500,1200
Clear my choice

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Question 5

Not yet answered

Marked out of 3.00

As per the NPV what is the correct ranking order of project A, B & C.

a. B,C, A
b. A,B C
c. C,B,A
d. None of the any
Clear my choice

◄ Module 5 Feedback Form

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Dashboard / My courses / Human Resource Management (HR612)-Semester II

/ #Module I Introduction to Human Resource Management / 1st Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Question 4

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Identify which of the following options is Not correct . An effective performance management system

a. Requires a shared responsibility between supervisor and employee

b. Measures and documents performance
c. Doesn't Include feedback and coaching concerning job performance
d. Identifies training and professional development needs
Clear my choice

Question 5

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Recruitment is_____________.

a. The process of finding and attracting capable applicants for employment

b. The process of picking individuals who have relevant qualifications to fill jobs in an organization
c. Hiring permanent employees of another firm, who possess certain specialized skills on lease basis to meet
short term requirements
d. The process of Selecting capable candidates for employment
Clear my choice
Question 6

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Reasons for layoff include all but the following

a. Seasonal fluctuations in demand

a. Handle employee disputes and conflicts

b. Manage the company's financial budget
c. Develop sales strategies for revenue growth
d. Monitor and analyze market trends
Clear my choice

Question 11

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

_____ is a plan of action. It is a formal statement of a principle or rule that members of an organ actinides to follow.

a. A Rule
b. A policy
c. A Procedure
d. A Legislation
Clear my choice
Question 12

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

Which of the following is a metrics that can be tracked by HR analytics: A. Revenue per employee B. Offer acceptance
rate C. Training expenses per employee D. Training efficiency

a. Only A & C
b. All A,B,C, D
c. Only A ,B & C
d. Only A & B
Clear my choice

Question 13

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

The role of an HR manager in employee training and development includes:

a. Managing payroll and benefits administration

b. Creating marketing strategies for employee engagement
c. Conducting performance evaluations and appraisals
d. Designing and delivering training programs
Clear my choice

Question 14

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

The purpose of an HR policy and procedure manual is to:

a. Outline company goals and objectives

b. Provide a detailed job description for each employee
c. Ensure compliance with legal requirements
d. Determine employee compensation and benefits
Clear my choice
Question 15

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following options best describes the purpose of an HR grievance procedure?

a. To provide employees with a platform to express their concerns

b. To minimize employee compensation and benefits
c. To ensure strict adherence to company policies
d. To streamline the hiring process
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following options is NOT a typical component of an HR policy and procedure manual?

a. Employee benefits
b. Performance management
c. Marketing strategies
d. Disciplinary actions
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following is NOT a typical responsibility of an HR manager in strategic planning?

a. Aligning HR strategies with organizational goals

b. Analyzing market competition and trends
c. Designing and implementing performance management systems
d. Conducting customer satisfaction surveys
Clear my choice

◄ Case Study 1 - Semler Industries

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12/5/23, 7:48 PM 2nd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Human Resource Management (HR612)-Semester II / #Module II Human Resource Requirements
/ 2nd Module Assessment

Question 1
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following options describes a job design

a. The division of total task to be performed into manageable and efficient units
b. A systematic way of designing and determination of the worth of a job
c. The design involving maximum acceptable job design qualities to perform a job
d. None of the options
Clear my choice

Question 2
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Which approach to HR planning focuses on matching the number of employees to the demand for their services?

a. Strategic planning
b. Workforce analytics
c. Bottom-up approach
d. Demand-based planning
Clear my choice

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Question 3
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a step in the HR planning process?

a. Forecasting future HR needs

b. Evaluating current HR capabilities
c. Implementing performance management systems
d. Developing strategies to address HR gaps
Clear my choice

Question 4
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

What is the purpose of conducting a skills inventory during HR planning?

a. Identifying employees' training needs

b. Evaluating employees performance
c. Determining employees compensation levels
d. Assessing employees potential for promotion
Clear my choice

Question 5
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Which external factor is NOT typically considered during HR planning?

a. Technological advancements
b. Industry competition
c. Economic conditions
d. Employees' career goals
Clear my choice


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Question 6
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following options shows that recruitment method is best suited for filling high-level executive positions?

a. Internal job postings

b. Headhunting or executive search firms
c. Social media recruitment
d. Job fairs and career expos
Clear my choice

Question 7
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

What is the primary goal of HR planning?

a. Employee engagement
b. Cost reduction
c. Talent acquisition
d. Alignment with business objectives
Clear my choice

Question 8
Not yet answered
Marked out of 1.00

Which selection method assesses a candidate's ability to perform job-related tasks in a controlled environment?

a. Cognitive ability tests

b. Personality assessments
c. Work samples or simulations
d. Assessment centers
Clear my choice


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Question 9
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following options best describes the purpose of conducting a background check during the selection
process?

a. To verify a candidate's educational qualifications

b. To assess a candidate's behavioral competencies
c. To confirm a candidate's employment history
d. To evaluate a candidate's technical skills
Clear my choice

Question 10
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is an advantage of using external recruiters for the hiring process?

a. They have a deeper understanding of the company culture.

b. They have access to a wider network of potential candidates.
c. They can provide more accurate performance assessments
d. They are more cost-effective compared to internal recruiters
Clear my choice

Question 11
Answer saved
Marked out of 2.00

What is the purpose of conducting a gap analysis during HR planning?

a. Identifying discrepancies between desired and actual HR capabilities

b. Assessing employees job satisfaction levels
c. Evaluating the effectiveness of training programs
d. Identifying employees' potential for promotion
Clear my choice 

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Question 12
Answer saved
Marked out of 2.00

The advantage of employing various methods of job analysis is ___________.

a. Cost
b. Complexity
c. Accuracy
d. Participation by job incumbents and managers
Clear my choice

Question 13
Answer saved
Marked out of 2.00

Which type of HR planning approach involves analyzing the supply of and demand for specific job categories within
an organization?

a. Top-down approach
b. Strategic workforce planning
c. Succession planning
d. Job analysis
Clear my choice

Question 14
Answer saved
Marked out of 2.00

Which of the following is the purpose of a structured interview in the selection process?

a. To evaluate a candidate's technical skills

b. To assess a candidate's cultural fit
c. To gauge a candidate's problem-solving abilities
d. To minimize bias and ensure fairness
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Question 15
Answer saved
Marked out of 4.00

The immediate product/s of Job analysis is /are ________. A. Job Descriptions B. Job Restructuring C. Job
SpecificationsD. Job Design

a. Only A& B
b. Only B& C
c. Only A& C
d. All A,B,C, D
Clear my choice

Question 16
Answer saved
Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following question/s best addresses Job Design Theory . A. What spurs individuals to work?B. What job
attributes are critical?C. How are job design alternatives to be recognized? D. What job design changes are to be
executed?

a. only A& B
b. only B& C
c. only C& D
d. All A,B,C, D
Clear my choice

Question 17
Answer saved
Marked out of 4.00

Which HR planning technique involves reducing the number of employees through layoffs or attrition?

a. Workforce expansion
b. Workforce optimization
c. Workforce reduction 
d. Workforce engagement
Clear my choice

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12/5/23, 7:48 PM 2nd Module Assessment

◀︎Module 2 - CASE STUDY

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11/1/23, 7:21 PM 3rd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Human Resource Management (HR612)-Semester II

/ #Module III Learning and Development of Human Resources / 3rd Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

a. Shadowing
b. Coaching
c. Role playing
d. Job rotation
Clear my choice

Question 5

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is an example of a development activity rather than a training activity?

a. New hire orientation

b. Cross-training in different departments
c. Leadership workshops
d. Safety training
Clear my choice 

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Question 6

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which training delivery method involves bringing employees together in a physical location for interactive learning
sessions?

a. Virtual reality
b. Webinars
c. Conferences
d. In-person training
Clear my choice

Question 7

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following best describes the first step in the training process?

a. Implement Programs
b. Evaluate Program
c. Identifying Training Needs
d. Feedback
Clear my choice

Question 8

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following training method is characterized by self-paced, online courses that employees can access anytime
and anywhere?

a. Classroom training
b. On-the-job training
c. Blended learning
d. E-learning 
Clear my choice

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Question 9

____________developed Bandura’s Social Cognitive Theory.

a. Albert Bandura
b. John L. Holland
c. Donald Super
d. Mary Parker
Clear my choice

Question 16

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

The employees doesnot like this kind of promotion. This kind of promotion entails an increase in duties and status but
not an equivalent rise in pay or other forms of compensation. This is referred to as ___.

a. Dry Promotion
b. Vertical Promotion
c. Horizontal Promotion
d. Demotion
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet answered

Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following goals is NOT correct for the acronym SMART framework: S – Social M – Measurable A –
Achievable/Attainable R – Results-Oriented/Realistic/Relevant T – Time-Bound

a. S – social
b. M – Measurable
c. R – Results-Oriented/Realistic/Relevant
d. T – Time-Bound 
Clear my choice

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◄ MODULE 3 - CASE STUDY

Not yet Which appraisal method involves feedback from multiple sources, including colleagues?
answered

Marked out of
1.00 a. Self-evaluation
b. Behavioral checklist
c. 360-degree feedback
d. Ratings scale
Clear my choice

Question 7

Not yet What is one advantage of the behavioral checklist method?

answered

Marked out of
1.00 a. It provides a bigger picture of an employee's performance
b. It focuses on actual work-related tasks and behaviors
c. It allows for a detailed analysis of employee performance
d. It includes feedback from other colleagues and sources
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Question 8

Not yet Which performance appraisal method focuses on specific incidents of employee behavior?
answered

Marked out of
1.00 a. Management by objectives (MBO)
b. 360-degree feedback
c. Critical incident method
d. Forced distribution method
Clear my choice

Question 9

Not yet What is the main purpose of Human Resource Management (HRM)?
answered

Marked out of
1.00 a. To manage people in a workplace efficiently
b. To increase competition in the market
c. To focus on public-sector services
d. To promote unpaid or voluntary work
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Question 10

Not yet What is the main purpose of performance appraisal?

answered

Marked out of
1.00 a. To evaluate the performance of employees
b. To determine salary raise and payout packages
c. To identify strengths and weaknesses of employees
d. To provide feedback to employees
Clear my choice

Question 11

Not yet Which performance appraisal method involves setting specific goals and objectives for the employee?
answered

Marked out of
2.00 a. Management by objectives (MBO)
b. Graphic rating scales
c. 360-degree feedback
d. Behaviorally anchored rating scales
Clear my choice

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Question 12

Not yet Which performance appraisal method involves comparing an employee's performance to that of other
answered employees?
Marked out of
2.00
a. Graphic rating scales
b. Behaviorally anchored rating scales
c. Ranking method
d. Critical incident method
Clear my choice

Question 13

Not yet Why is effective management of employees important in the private sector?
answered

Marked out of
2.00 a. To survive in the market
b. To increase competition
c. To promote voluntary work
d. To enhance public-sector services
Clear my choice


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Question 14

Not yet Which of the following is NOT a purpose of performance appraisal?

answered

Marked out of
2.00 a. Identifying training and development needs
b. Determining employee compensation
c. Establishing employee promotions
d. Monitoring employee attendance
Clear my choice

Question 15

Not yet Which of the following acts provides for the registration and regulation of trade unions in India?
answered

Marked out of
4.00 a. Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
b. Trade Union Act, 1926
c. Factories Act, 1948
d. Employees' State Insurance Act, 1948
Clear my choice

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Question 16

Not yet Who can be a member of a trade union in India?

answered

Marked out of
4.00 a. Only permanent employees of a company
b. Only workers belonging to a specific religion
c. Any worker, irrespective of their occupation, industry, or religion
d. Only workers who have completed a certain number of years of service
Clear my choice

Question 17

Not yet Which method of appraisal involves employees rating their own performance?
answered

Marked out of
4.00 a. Self-evaluation
b. Behavioral checklist
c. 360-degree feedback
d. Ratings scale
Clear my choice

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12/2/23, 4:48 PM 5th Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Human Resource Management (HR612)-Semester II

/ #Module V Compensation Management and Incentives / 5th Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which component of the proposed wage structure is dependent on individual and company performance?

a. Fixed Components
b. Variable Components
c. House Rent Allowance
d. Conveyance Allowance
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What is the purpose of providing fringe benefits to employees? A. To attract and retain talented employeesB. To reduce
the total cost of productionC. To provide tax savings for the employer

a. Only A
b. Only A & B
c. Only B & C
d. All A, B ,C
Clear my choice

Question 11

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

What is the fixed allowance in the proposed wage structure dependent on?

Why is it important to understand labor market diversity?

a. To reduce turnover rates

b. To increase employee satisfaction
c. To ensure equal pay for all employees
d. To have a representative and diverse workforce

What is the difference between mandatory and optional fringe benefits?

a. Mandatory benefits are required by law, while optional benefits are provided at the employer's discretion
b. Mandatory benefits are taxable, while optional benefits are tax-exempt
c. Mandatory benefits are provided by a third party, while optional benefits are provided by the employer
d. There is no difference, both types of benefits are required by law
Clear my choice


◄ Module 5 - CASE STUDY

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20/12/2023, 17:12 Assignment 2

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20/12/2023, 17:12 Assignment 2

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 3.00

Case Study

Trade unions play a crucial role in advocating for workers' rights and improving their working conditions. This case study
examines the impact of trade unions in a manufacturing company and highlights their significance in protecting workers'
rights.
SUNSHINE Manufacturing is a large-scale automobile manufacturing company that employs over 2,000 workers. The
company has a reputation for its high production standards and quality products. However, over time, some workers
began experiencing unfavorable working conditions, such as long working hours, low wages, and inadequate safety
measures.

Formation of a Trade Union: In response to these issues, a group of workers decided to form a trade union called
"SUNSHINE Workers Union" to address their concerns collectively. The union aimed to negotiate with the company
management for better wages, improved working conditions, and increased employee benefits.
Key Objectives of the Trade Union: Ensuring Fair Wages: The SUNSHINE Workers Union conducted thorough research to
determine the industry standards for wages. They collected data and presented a comprehensive report to the
management, highlighting the need for higher wages to match the cost of living and maintain employee morale.
Improving Working Conditions: The union actively campaigned for safer working conditions by conducting surveys and
identifying areas that required immediate attention. Through negotiations with management, they successfully
implemented safety protocols, including regular equipment maintenance and training sessions. Collective Bargaining:
The trade union engaged in collective bargaining with the company's management to address various employee
grievances. They negotiated for better healthcare benefits, paid leave, and work-life balance policies. The union
presented a united front, using the power of collective action to exert pressure on the management. Representing
Workers' Interests: The trade union acted as a representative body for the employees, ensuring their voices were heard.
They held regular meetings and encouraged open dialogue with workers to address their concerns. This allowed the
union to effectively communicate workers' demands and maintain transparency in decision-making processes.
Positive Impact on Workers: The SUNSHINE Workers Union had a significant impact on improving the lives of the
employees.
As a result of their efforts, the workers experienced the some positive changes. Higher Wages: The trade union
successfully negotiated a wage increase, resulting in improved living standards for workers and their families. Enhanced
Safety Measures: The implementation of better safety protocols reduced workplace accidents and injuries, ensuring a
safer environment for employees. Improved Benefits: Through collective bargaining, the trade union secured improved
healthcare benefits, including increased coverage for medical expenses and better insurance policies. Job Security: The
union's efforts led to stricter regulations against employee layoffs, providing job security for the workers even during
economic downturns. Empowerment and Unity: The formation of the trade union instilled a sense of empowerment and
unity among the workers. They felt more confident in voicing their concerns, knowing that their collective efforts could
bring about positive change

What was the main reason for the formation of the SUNSHINE Workers Union?

a. To advocate for workers' rights

b. To improve production standards
c. To increase employee benefits
d. To negotiate for better healthcare benefits
Clear my choice

b. Improved living standards
c. Enhanced safety measures
d. Instilled a sense of empowerment and unity
Clear my choice

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Question 5

Not yet answered

Marked out of 3.00

What is the purpose of collective bargaining?

a. Promoting employee rivalry

b. Ensuring equal pay for all employees
c. Addressing employee grievances collectively
d. Restricting workers' rights
Clear my choice

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Dashboard / My courses / Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)-Semester II / #Module I Commercial Laws

/ 1st Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1882 provides a certain period of time for presenting a promissory note or bill of
exchange for payment. This period is known as the:

a. Maturity period
b. Grace period
c. Negotiation period
d. Limitation period
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a contract of sale under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

a. Offer and acceptance

b. Intention to create legal relations
c. Consideration 
d. Consent through coercion
Clear my choice

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Question 3

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following contracts must be in writing to be enforceable under the Indian Contract Act?

a. Sale of goods
b. Partnership agreement
c. Lease of immovable property
d. All contracts must be in writing
Clear my choice

Question 4

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1882 recognizes the concept of negotiation, which means:

a. Transferring the ownership of the instrument to another person

b. Altering the terms and conditions of the instrument
c. Cancelling the instrument and rendering it invalid
d. Revoking the liability of the parties involved
Clear my choice

Question 5

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00 

Which type of contract is explicitly declared void under the Indian Contract Act?

The implied condition of merchantable quality under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 means that goods sold must be:

Which of the following is NOT an essential element of a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act?

a. Offer and acceptance

b. Intention to create legal relations
c. Consideration
d. Consent through fraud
Clear my choice

Question 13

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 provides a remedy for breach of contract called:

a. Rescission
b. Specific performance
c. Quantum meruit
d. Damages
Clear my choice

Question 14

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00 

The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1882 governs the following negotiable instruments, except:

a. Promissory notes
b. Bills of exchange
c. Cheques
d. Money orders
Clear my choice

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a. A debt or obligation
b. Sale or transfer
c. Temporary custody
d. Gratuitous purpose
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding: 1.3.6 Discharge of Negotiable Instruments

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24/11/2023, 09:32 2nd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)-Semester II / #Module II Partnership

/ 2nd Module Assessment

Question 1
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

In the absence of a partnership agreement, profits and losses are shared by partners:

a. Equally
b. According to their capital contributions
c. According to their time and effort invested
d. In proportion to their agreed ratio
Clear my choice

Question 2
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

In an LLP, the liability of partners is:

a. Limited to their capital contribution

b. Limited to their share of profits
c. Unlimited and joint
d. Unlimited but several
Clear my choice

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Question 3
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

What is the main advantage of a limited liability partnership (LLP)?

a. Unlimited liability for partners

b. Separate legal entity status
c. Ease of formation
d. No legal liability for partners
Clear my choice

Question 4
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

According to the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008, a minimum of how many partners are required to form an
LLP?

a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Clear my choice

Question 5
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

The maximum number of partners allowed in a partnership firm carrying on banking business is:

a. 10
b. 20
c. 50
d. No specific limit
Clear my choice

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Question 6
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Can a partner of an LLP be held personally liable for another partner's misconduct?

a. Yes, in all circumstances

b. Yes, but only if they were directly involved
c. No, partners are not liable for each other's actions
d. No, partners are only liable for their own actions
Clear my choice

Question 7
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

Which of the following is NOT a feature of an LLP?

a. Limited liability for partners

b. Flexibility in internal structure and management
c. Perpetual succession
d. Transferability of partnership interest
Clear my choice

Question 8
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

What is the punishment for designated partners who contravene the requirements or regulations of the LLP
Partnership Act?

a. Imprisonment for up to six months

b. A fine of Rs. 50,000/-
c. Both imprisonment and a fine
d. No punishment specified
Clear my choice

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Question 9
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

According to the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, partners have the right to:

a. Enter into contracts on behalf of the firm

b. Individually represent the firm in legal matters
c. Transfer their partnership interest without consent
d. Withdraw from the firm at any time
Clear my choice

Question 10
Answer saved
Marked out of 1.00

The Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 of India provides a legal framework for forming limited liability
partnerships. This statement is ___________.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Partially True
d. Incomplete
Clear my choice

Question 11
Answer saved
Marked out of 2.00

A partnership deed is a written agreement that outlines the: A. Duration of the partnership B. Profit-sharing ratio
among partners C. Rights and responsibilities of partners

a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Only C
d. All A, B, C
Clear my choice

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Question 12
Answer saved
Marked out of 2.00

When a partner acts outside the scope of the partnership's authority, it is known as:

a. Fraudulent misrepresentation
b. Breach of contract
c. Tortious liability
d. Ultra vires act
Clear my choice

Question 13
Answer saved
Marked out of 2.00

In a partnership, the liability of partners is:

a. Limited to their capital contribution

b. Limited to their share of profits
c. Unlimited and joint
d. Unlimited but several
Clear my choice

Question 14
Answer saved
Marked out of 2.00

The partners of an LLP are not personally liable for the:

a. Debts and obligations of the LLP

b. Wrongful acts or omissions of other partners
c. Fraudulent activities of the LLP
d. Losses incurred by the LLP
Clear my choice

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Question 15
Answer saved
Marked out of 4.00

What is the primary purpose of the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 of India?

a. To protect partners from being held liable for debts and obligations
b. To provide legal personality to LLPs
c. To establish property ownership for LLPs
d. To establish property ownership for LLPs
Clear my choice

Question 16
Answer saved
Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following statements is true regarding the governance of an LLP?

a. It must have a designated managing partner

b. All partners have equal decision-making authority
c. External directors are mandatory in an LLP
d. The government appoints a board of directors
Clear my choice

Question 17
Answer saved
Marked out of 4.00

Which of the following is NOT required to be included in the articles of incorporation for a limited liability partnership?

a. The name and address of each member

b. The date when the LLP was formed
c. The type of business or profession conducted by the LLP
d. The name and address of each general partner
Clear my choice

◀︎Test Your Understanding : 2.2.10 Difference between Partnership Firm and LLP
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15/10/2023, 22:59 3rd Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)-Semester II / #Module III Companies Act, 2013

/ 3rd Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

According to the Companies Act, 2013, the statutory meeting of a public company must be held within how many
months from the date of incorporation?

a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 9 months
d. 12 months
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What is the minimum number of members required to form a public company under the Companies Act, 2013?

Marked out of 2.00

A company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 must have a registered office within how many months of
incorporation?

a. 1 Year
b. 1 month
c. 6 months
d. 2 years
Clear my choice

Question 13

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

According to the Companies Act, 2013, a public company is required to have a minimum paid-up share capital of:

a. Rs. 5 lakh
b. Rs. 10 lakh
c. Rs. 50 lakh
d. Rs. 1 Crore
Clear my choice

Question 14

Not yet answered


Marked out of 2.00

Which of the following statements is true regarding the appointment of directors under the Companies Act, 2013?

Marked out of 4.00 

According to the Companies Act, 2013, which type of company is required to hold an annual general meeting (AGM)?

a. Public company
b. Private company
c. Government company
d. One-person company
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanidng : 3.13.1 SEBI - Objectives and Functions

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20/12/2023, 18:12 4th Module Assessment

Dashboard / My courses / Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)-Semester II / #Module IV Consumer Protection Act 1986

/ 4th Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What does the term "harm" include in relation to a product liability? A. Damage to the product itself B. Personal injury,
illness or death C. Mental agony or emotional distress

a. Only A & B
b. Only B &C
c. Only C
d. All A, B , C
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What does the term "advertisement" mean in Consumer Protection Act ? A. Any audio or visual publicity B. Any notice,
circular, label, wrapper, invoice C. Any audio or visual publicity made through electronic media, internet or website

a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Only C
d. All A, B , C
Clear my choice

Question 11

Not yet answered

Marked out of 2.00

What is the definition of "electronic service provider" in Consumer Protection Act ? A. A person who provides
technologies or processes to enable a product seller to engage in advertising or selling goods or services to a consumer
B. Any online marketplace or online auction site C. A person who provides digital products over digital or electronic
network

a. All A, B, C
b. Only B
c. Only C
d. Only A
Clear my choice

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Question 12

Not yet answered

a. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

b. The National Commission for Food Safety and Standards
c. The National Commission for Consumer Protection
d. The National Commission for Product Liability
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding : 4.7.3 Central: Consumer Protection Council

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Dashboard / My courses / Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)-Semester II / #Module V Miscellaneous Themes

/ 5th Module Assessment

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What is the principal place of business for a body corporate according to the Information Technology Act, 2000?

a. The place where it is registered

b. The place where the electronic record is received
c. The place where the computer resource is located
d. None of the options
Clear my choice

Question 2

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

How long is a copyright registration valid for?

a. 5 Years
b. 10 Years
c. 7 Years
d. The validity period varies depending on the type of work
Clear my choice

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20/12/2023, 18:24 5th Module Assessment

Question 3

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What does the term "electronic commerce" refer to in the context of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

a. Transactions carried out using paper-based methods of communication

b. Transactions carried out using electronic data interchange and other means of electronic communication
c. Transactions carried out using traditional methods of commerce
d. Transactions carried out using physical stores and shops
Clear my choice

Question 4

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What is the definition of an electronic record according to the Information Technology Act, 2000? A. Any data, record, or
data generated, image, or sound stored, received, or sent in an electronic form B. Any representation of information,
knowledge, facts, concepts, or instructions C. Any information generated, sent, received, or stored in media, magnetic,
optical, computer memory, or microfilm

a. Only A
b. Only B
c. Only C
d. All A, B , C
Clear my choice

Question 5

Not yet answered

Marked out of 1.00

What is the role of the Controller of Certifying Authorities? A. To issue licenses to Certifying Authorities B. To specify the
security procedures for electronic records C. To authenticate electronic records

Marked out of 1.00

What is the purpose of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)? A. To grant exclusive rights to the inventor/manufacturer to
protect their invention or product B. To encourage creativity and innovation for the benefit of all C. To prevent others
from using Intellectual Property without consent

What types of works are eligible for copyright registration in India? A. Artistic works, cinematograph films, and literary
works B. Music voice recordings and musical works C. Dramatic works and pictorial, graphic, and sculptural works

What are the types of intellectual property protection mentioned in the paragraph? A. Trade secrets, utility models,
patents, trademarks, geographical indications, industrial design, layout design of integrated circuits, copyright and
related rights, and new varieties of plants B. Literary, artistic, technical, and scientific constructions C. Inventions,
discoveries, trademarks, service marks, commercial names and designations

a. Only A
b. Only A & c
c. Only B
d. Only C
Clear my choice

◄ Test Your Understanding : 5.2.7 Offences and Penal Provisions

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20/12/2023, 18:33 Assignment 2

Dashboard / My courses / Legal Aspects of Business (LAW670)-Semester II / #Assignment 2 / Assignment 2

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20/12/2023, 18:33 Assignment 2

Question 1

Not yet answered

Marked out of 3.00

Case Study

The Indian Contract Act, 1872 is a crucial legislation that governs the formation and enforcement of contracts in India.
This case study examines a hypothetical business transaction involving two parties, highlighting the key provisions of the
Indian Contract Act and their application in resolving contractual disputes.
Party A, a software development company, entered into a contract with Party B, a multinational corporation, to develop
and deliver a custom software solution within a specified time frame. The agreement outlined the project scope,
deliverables, payment terms, and penalties for non-compliance.
Issues and Application of the Indian Contract Act:

Offer and Acceptance: Party A made a formal offer to Party B, stating the terms and conditions of the software
development project. Party B accepted the offer after reviewing the terms and providing its consent. This exchange of
offer and acceptance formed the basis of a valid contract as per Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act. Consideration:
Both parties agreed on the consideration, i.e., the price for the software development services. The Act states that a
contract must be supported by lawful consideration from each party. In this case, Party A agreed to provide software
development services, and Party B agreed to pay the agreed-upon price. Hence, consideration existed, fulfilling the
requirements of Section 2(d) of the Act. Capacity to Contract: The Act defines certain individuals as incompetent to
contract, such as minors, persons of unsound mind, and individuals disqualified by law. In this case, both Party A and
Party B were competent to contract as they were legally eligible and capable of entering into an agreement. Free
Consent: For a contract to be valid, the consent of the parties must be free and not obtained through coercion, undue
influence, fraud, misrepresentation, or mistake. Both parties in this case willingly entered into the contract without any
external pressure, fulfilling the requirements of Sections 14-21 of the Act. Performance and Breach: Party A was
responsible for developing and delivering the software solution within the agreed timeframe, while Party B was obliged
to make timely payments. If either party fails to fulfill its contractual obligations, it constitutes a breach of contract. The
Indian Contract Act provides remedies for breach, including damages, specific performance, and injunctions. Force
Majeure: If a force majeure event, such as a natural disaster or government regulation, hampers the performance of the
contract, the affected party may be excused from liability or delay. The Act does not explicitly address force majeure;
however, parties may include force majeure clauses in the contract to determine their rights and obligations in such
situations. Dispute Resolution: In case of a dispute arising from the contract, the Act provides various mechanisms for
resolution, such as negotiation, mediation, arbitration, or approaching the court. Parties can choose the method of
dispute resolution during the contract formation or as agreed upon later.

The Indian Contract Act plays a vital role in ensuring the legality, enforceability, and fair resolution of contractual matters
in India. In this case study, the Act's provisions were instrumental in establishing a valid contract, addressing issues of
offer and acceptance, consideration, capacity, free consent, performance, breach, and dispute resolution. Understanding
and adhering to the Act's provisions help safeguard the rights and obligations of contracting parties, promoting
transparency and accountability in business transactions.

How can disputes arising from a contract be resolved? A. Negotiation B. Mediation C. Arbitration

Marked out of 3.00

According to the Indian Contract Act, 1872, what forms the basis of a valid contract? A. Offer and acceptance B.
Consideration C. Capacity to contract

a. All A, B , C
b. Only B & C
c. Only C
d. Only A & C
Clear my choice

◄ Discussion Forum - Module 5

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