CompTIA.N10-008.v2024-01-10.

q249

Exam Code: N10-008

Exam Name: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
Free Question Number: 249
Version: v2024-01-10
# of views: 129
# of Questions views: 3047
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NEW QUESTION: 1
A technician needs to set up a wireless connection that utilizes MIMO on non-overlapping channels. Which of
the following would be the best choice?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
802.11n is the best choice for setting up a wireless connection that utilizes MIMO on non-overlapping channels.
802.11n is a wireless standard that offers faster speeds and longer range than previous standards.
802.11n uses multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology, which allows multiple antennas to transmit and
receive multiple spatial streams of data simultaneously. MIMO can improve wireless performance, reliability,
and capacity by exploiting multipath propagation and spatial diversity. 802.11n also uses non-overlapping
channels in both the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands to avoid interference and increase bandwidth. Non-
overlapping channels are channels that do not share any part of their frequency spectrum with other channels.
References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], 802.11n - Wikipedia

NEW QUESTION: 2
A user is required to log in to a main web application, which then grants the user access to all other programs
needed to complete job-related tasks. Which of the following authentication methods does this setup describe?
A. SSO
B. RADIUS
C. TACACS+
D. Multifactor authentication
E. 802.1X
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
The authentication method that this setup describes is SSO (Single Sign-On). SSO is a technique that allows a
user to log in once to a main web application and then access multiple other applications or services without
having to re-enter credentials. SSO simplifies the user experience and reduces the number of passwords to
remember and manage. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 371; The
Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 14-5.

NEW QUESTION: 3
A company is opening a new building on the other side of its campus. The distance from the closest building to
the new building is 1,804ft (550m). The company needs to connect the networking equipment in the new
building to the Other buildings on the campus without using a repeater. Which Of the following transceivers
should the company use?
A. 10GBASE-SW
B. 10GBASE-LR
C. 10GBASE-LX4 over multimode fiber
D. 10GBASE-SR
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
10GBASE-LR is a standard for 10 Gbps Ethernet over single-mode fiber optic cable. It can support a maximum
distance of 6.2 miles (10 km), which is much longer than the distance between the buildings.
10GBASE-SW, 10GBASE-LX4, and 10GBASE-SR are all standards for 10 Gbps Ethernet over multimode fiber
optic cable, which have shorter maximum distances ranging from 984ft (300m) to 1,312ft (400m).
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 1.5:
Compare and contrast network cabling types, standards and speeds.

NEW QUESTION: 4
Which of the following would be increased by adding encryption to data communication across the network?
A. Availability
B. Integrity
C. Accountability
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Confidentiality is the property of preventing unauthorized access or disclosure of data. Encryption is a method
of transforming data into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted by authorized parties who have the
correct key. Encryption can increase the confidentiality of data communication across the network by making it
harder for attackers to intercept or eavesdrop on the data. References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 4.1:
Summarize the purposes of physical security devices. Subobjective: Encryption.

NEW QUESTION: 5
A security team updated a web server to require https:// in the URL. Although the IP address did not change,
users report being unable to reach the site. Which of the following should the security team do to allow users to
reach the server again?
A. Configure the switch port with the correct VLAN.
B. Configure inbound firewall rules to allow traffic to port 443.
C. Configure the router to include the subnet of the server.
D. Configure the server with a default route.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
One possible reason why users are unable to reach the site after the security team updated the web server to
require https:// in the URL is that the firewall rules are blocking the traffic to port 443. Port 443 is the default port
for HTTPS, which is the protocol that encrypts and secures the web communication. If the firewall rules do not
allow inbound traffic to port 443, then users will not be able to access the web server using HTTPS12.
To troubleshoot this issue, the security team should configure inbound firewall rules to allow traffic to port
443. This can be done by using the firewall-cmd command on RHEL 8.2, which is a tool that manages firewalld,
the default firewall service on RHEL. The command to add a rule to allow traffic to port 443 is:
firewall-cmd --permanent --add-port=443/tcp
The --permanent option makes the rule persistent across reboots, and the --add-port option specifies the port
number and protocol (TCP) to allow. After adding the rule, the security team should reload the firewalld service
to apply the changes:
firewall-cmd --reload
The security team can verify that the rule is active by using this command:
firewall-cmd --list-ports
The output should show 443/tcp among the ports that are allowed34.
The other options are not relevant to troubleshooting this issue. Configuring the switch port with the correct
VLAN may help with network segmentation or isolation, but it will not affect the HTTPS protocol or port.
Configuring the router to include the subnet of the server may help with network routing or connectivity, but it
will not enable HTTPS communication. Configuring the server with a default route may help with network
access or reachability, but it will not allow HTTPS traffic.

NEW QUESTION: 6
Which of the following layers of the OSI model has new protocols activated when a user moves from a wireless
to a wired connection?
A. Data link
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Session
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
"The Data Link layer also determines how data is placed on the wire by using an access method. The wired
access method, carrier-sense multiple access with collision detection (CSMA/CD), was once used by all wired
Ethernet networks, but is automatically disabled on switched full-duplex links, which have been the norm for
decades. Carrier-sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is used by wireless networks, in a
similar fashion."

NEW QUESTION: 7
A network technician is implementing a solution that will allow end users to gain access to multiple applications
after logging on. Which of the following authentication methods would allow this type of access?
A. LDAP
B. EAP
C. SSO
D. TACACS+
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 8
An engineer was asked to update an MX record for an upcoming project. Which of the following server types is
MOST likely to be in scope for the project?
A. Email
B. Web
C. File
D. Database
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
An MX record is a type of DNS record that specifies the mail server responsible for accepting email messages
on behalf of a domain name. Therefore, an engineer who needs to update an MX record is most likely working
on an email server project

NEW QUESTION: 9
A new cabling certification is being requested every time a network technician rebuilds one end of a Cat 6
(vendor-certified) cable to create a crossover connection that is used to connect switches. Which of the
following would address this issue by allowing the use of the original cable?
A. CSMA/CD
B. LACP
C. PoE+
D. MDIX
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
MDIX (medium-dependent interface crossover) is a feature that allows network devices to automatically detect
and configure the appropriate cabling type, eliminating the need for crossover cables. By enabling MDIX on the
switches, a technician can use the original Cat 6 cable to create a crossover connection.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Sixth Edition by Glen E. Clarke
NEW QUESTION: 10
A. The wireless router is using an incorrect antenna type.
B. The user's workstation does not support 802.11 ax.
C. The encryption protocol is mismatched
D. The network is experiencing interference.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The user's workstation does not support 802.11 ax, which is the technical name for Wi-Fi 6. Wi-Fi 6 is a new
wireless standard that offers faster speeds, higher capacity, and lower latency than previous standards.
However, to take advantage of these benefits, both the router and the workstation need to support Wi-Fi 6. If
the workstation only supports an older standard, such as 802.11 ac or Wi-Fi 5, then the throughput will not
increase even if the router supports Wi-Fi 6. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives],
What is Wi-Fi 6? Here's what you need to know | PCWorld

NEW QUESTION: 11
A technician is investigating packet loss to a device that has varying data bursts throughout the day. Which of
the following will the technician MOST likely configure to resolve the issue?
A. Flow control
B. Jumbo frames
C. Duplex
D. Port mirroring
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Ethernet flow control is a mechanism for temporarily stopping the transmission of data on Ethernet family
computer networks. The goal of this mechanism is to avoid packet loss in the presence of network congestion.
Flow control is a mechanism that allows a device to regulate the amount of data it receives from another
device, ensuring that the receiving device is not overwhelmed with data. If the device experiencing packet loss
is receiving large bursts of data at times when it is not able to process it quickly enough, configuring flow control
could help prevent packets from being lost.
"In theory, flow control can help with situations like a host that can't keep up with the flow of traffic. It enables
the host to send an Ethernet PAUSE frame, which asks the switch to hold up for some amount of time so the
host can catch its breath. If the switch can, it'll buffer transmissions until the pause expires, and then start
sending again. If the host catches up early, it can send another PAUSE frame with a delay of zero to ask the
switch to resume. In practice, flow control can cause latency trouble for modern real-time applications such as
VoIP, and the same needs are usually met by QoS"

NEW QUESTION: 12
Which of the following options represents the participating computers in a network?
A. Servers
B. Clients
C. CPUs
D. Nodes
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 13
Which of the following would be the MOST cost-effective recovery solution for a company's lower-priority
applications?
A. Cloud site
B. Hot site
C. Cold site
D. Warm site
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 14
A computer engineer needs to ensure that only a specific workstation can connect to port 1 on a switch. Which
of the following features should the engineer configure on the switch interface?
A. Port tagging
B. Port security
C. Port mirroring
D. Port aggregation
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Port security is a feature that can be configured on a switch interface to limit and identify the MAC addresses of
workstations that are allowed to connect to that specific port. This can help ensure that only a specific
workstation (or workstations) can connect to the interface. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual,
"Port security can be used to specify which MAC addresses are allowed to connect to a particular switch port. If
a port security violation is detected, the switch can take a number of different actions, such as shutting down
the port, sending an SNMP trap, or sending an email alert."

NEW QUESTION: 15
A SQL server connects over port:
A. 445.
B. 995
C. 1433.
D. 1521.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A SQL server connects over port 1433. Port numbers are used to identify specific applications or services on a
network device. Port 1433 is the default port for Microsoft SQL Server, which is a relational database
management system that uses SQL (Structured Query Language) to store and manipulate data. References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 147; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student
Guide (Exam N10-008), page 6-4.
NEW QUESTION: 16
A technician is equipped with a tablet, a smartphone, and a laptop to troubleshoot a switch with the help of
support over the phone. However, the technician is having issues interconnecting all these tools in
troubleshooting the switch. Which Of the following should the technician use to gain connectivity?
A. PAN
B. WAN
C. LAN
D. MAN
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A PAN stands for Personal Area Network and it is a type of network that connects devices within a small range,
such as a few meters. A PAN can use wireless technologies such as Bluetooth or Wi-Fi to interconnect devices
such as tablets, smartphones, and laptops. A technician can use a PAN to gain connectivity among these tools
and troubleshoot the switch.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.2: Explain devices, applications, protocols and services at their
appropriate OSI layers.

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NEW QUESTION: 17
A customer needs to distribute Ethernet to multiple computers in an office. The customer would like to use non-
proprietary standards. Which of the following blocks does the technician need to install?
A. 110
B. 66
C. Bix
D. Krone
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A 110 block is a type of punch-down block that is used to distribute Ethernet to multiple computers in an office.
A punch-down block is a device that connects one group of wires to another group of wires by using a special
tool that pushes the wires into slots on the block. A 110 block is a non-proprietary standard that supports up to
Category 6 cabling and can be used for voice or data applications. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 64)
NEW QUESTION: 18
A network attack caused a network outage by wiping the configuration and logs of the border firewall. Which of
the following sources, in an investigation to determine how the firewall was compromised, can provide the
MOST detailed data?
A. Syslog server messages
B. Network baseline reports
C. MIB of the attacked firewall
D. NetFlow aggregate data
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 19
A user reports a weak signal when walking 20ft (61 m) away from the WAP in one direction, but a strong signal
when walking 20ft in the opposite direction The technician has reviewed the configuration and confirmed the
channel type is correct There is no jitter or latency on the connection Which of the following would be the
MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. Antenna type
B. Power levels
C. Frequency
D. Encryption type
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The antenna type affects the signal strength and coverage of a WAP. Different types of antennas have different
radiation patterns and gain, which determine how far and wide the signal can reach. If the user experiences a
weak signal in one direction but a strong signal in the opposite direction, it could mean that the antenna type is
not suitable for the desired coverage area. The technician should consider changing the antenna type to one
that has a more balanced or directional radiation pattern. References:
https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-small-business/wap200-poor-signal-strength/td-p/1565796

NEW QUESTION: 20
A. ISCSI
B. FCoE
C. Ethernet
D. FC
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Mike Meyers
"Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) is built on top of TCP/IP, enabling devices that use the
SCSI protocol to communicate across existing networks using cheap, readily available hardware." Jason Dion
"iSCSI (IP Small Computer System Interface)
- Lower cost, built using Ethernet switches (<10 Gbps)
- Relies on configuration allowing jumbo frames over the network"
NEW QUESTION: 21
Which of the following redundant devices creates broadcast storms when connected together on a high-
availability network?
A. Switches
B. Routers
C. Access points
D. Servers
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Switches are devices that forward data based on MAC addresses. They create separate collision domains for
each port, which reduces the chance of collisions on the network. However, if multiple switches are connected
together without proper configuration, they can create broadcast storms, which are situations where broadcast
frames are endlessly forwarded between switches, consuming network bandwidth and resources. Broadcast
storms can be prevented by using protocols such as Spanning Tree Protocol (STP), which eliminates loops in
the network topology. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 67; The
Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 2-14.

NEW QUESTION: 22
A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer's SOHO network.
The customer reports that some of the devices are not connecting to the network, while others appear to work
as intended.
INSTRUCTIONS
Troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results by Clicking on each device and
cable.
Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a
solution to correct each problem.
Cable Test Results:
Cable 1:

Cable 2:

Cable 3:
Cable 4:
Answer:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation.
Explanation
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To
troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results, you can use the following steps:
Click on each device and cable to open its information window.
Review the information and identify any problems or errors that may affect the network connectivity or
performance.
Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a
solution to correct each problem.
Fill in the remediation form using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the remediation form for PC1:
The component with a problem is PC1
The problem is Incorrect IP address
The solution is Change the IP address to 192.168.1.10
You can use the same steps to fill in the remediation form for other components.
To enter commands in each device, you can use the following steps:
Click on the device to open its terminal window.
Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of the device, including its IP address, subnet
mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
Enter the command ping <IP address> to test the connectivity and reachability to another device on the
network by sending and receiving echo packets. Replace <IP address> with the IP address of the destination
device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1.
Enter the command tracert <IP address> to trace the route and measure the latency of packets from the device
to another device on the network by sending and receiving packets with increasing TTL values.
Replace <IP address> with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch
1.
Here is an example of how to enter commands in PC1:
Click on PC1 to open its terminal window.
Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of PC1. You should see that PC1 has an
incorrect IP address of 192.168.2.10, which belongs to VLAN 2 instead of VLAN 1.
Enter the command ping 192.168.1.1 to test the connectivity to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is
unable to ping Core Switch 1 because they are on different subnets.
Enter the command tracert 192.168.1.1 to trace the route to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable
to reach Core Switch 1 because there is no route between them.
You can use the same steps to enter commands in other devices, such as PC3, PC4, PC5, and Server 1.

NEW QUESTION: 23
A technician completed troubleshooting and was able to fix an issue. Which of the following is the BEST
method the technician can use to pass along the exact steps other technicians should follow in case the issue
arises again?
A. Use change management to build a database
B. Send an email stating that the issue is resolved.
C. Document the lessons learned
D. Close the ticket and inform the users.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Documenting the lessons learned is the best method for passing along the exact steps other technicians should
follow in case the issue arises again. Lessons learned are the knowledge and experience gained from
completing a project or solving a problem. Documenting the lessons learned helps to capture the best
practices, challenges, solutions, and recommendations for future reference and improvement. Documenting the
lessons learned can also help to update the knowledge base, standard operating procedures, or policies
related to the issue. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Lessons Learned:
Definition & Examples for Project Managers

NEW QUESTION: 24
A network administrator is adding a new switch to the network. Which of the following network hardening
techniques would be BEST to use once the switch is in production?
A. Disable SSH service
B. Disable MAC filtering
C. Disable unneeded ports
D. Disable port security
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 25
Which of the following network topologies best describes a central device connected to multiple independent
devices?
A. Mesh
B. Ring
C. Hub-and-spoke
D. Bus
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Hub-and-spoke is the network topology that best describes a central device connected to multiple independent
devices. A network topology is the physical or logical arrangement of devices and links on a network. A hub-
and-spoke topology is a type of star topology, where a central device, such as a switch or a router, acts as a
hub that connects to multiple devices, such as computers or printers, that act as spokes. A hub-and-spoke
topology can offer advantages such as simplicity, scalability, and reliability, but also disadvantages such as
single point of failure, high dependency on the hub, and increased latency. References: [CompTIA Network+
Certification Exam Objectives], Hub-and-Spoke Topology: What Is It? (Diagram Included) | SolarWinds MSP

NEW QUESTION: 26
A sales team at a company uses a SaaS solution primarily for videoconferencing and a CRM application that
connects to a database server in the corporate data center. Which of the following VPN solutions would allow
secure, remote access for sales staff to the CRM application without impacting videoconferencing traffic?
A. Clientless
B. Site-to-site
C. Split tunnel
D. Full tunnel
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A split tunnel VPN solution would allow secure, remote access for sales staff to the CRM application without
impacting videoconferencing traffic. A VPN stands for virtual private network, which is a secure connection
between two or more devices over a public network, such as the internet. A VPN encrypts and authenticates
the data, ensuring its confidentiality and integrity. A split tunnel VPN is a type of VPN that allows some traffic to
go through the VPN tunnel, while other traffic goes directly to the internet. This can improve performance and
bandwidth utilization by reducing unnecessary encryption and routing overhead. By using a split tunnel VPN,
sales staff can access the CRM application that connects to a database server in the corporate data center
through the VPN tunnel, while using online videoconferencing services through their local internet connection.
References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is Split Tunneling? | NordVPN

NEW QUESTION: 27
Which of the following provides guidance to an employee about restricting non-business access to the
company's videoconferencing solution?
A. Acceptable use policy
B. Data loss prevention
C. Remote access policy
D. Standard operating procedure
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that outline the proper and improper use of an organization's
resources, such as its videoconferencing solution. An AUP can provide guidance to employees about what is
expected of them when using the organization's videoconferencing solution, including restricting non-business
access to it.

NEW QUESTION: 28
Which of the following network devices can perform routing between VLANs?
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. Load balancer
D. Bridge
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
https://www.practicalnetworking.net/stand-alone/routing-between-vlans/#:~:text=A%20router%20will%20perfo

NEW QUESTION: 29
Which of the following record types would be used to define where SIP is found?
A. SRV
B. CNAME
C. A
D. MX
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The record type that would be used to define where SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is found is A (Address).
A record is a type of DNS (Domain Name System) record that maps a domain name to an IPv4 address. SIP is
a protocol that enables voice over IP (VoIP) communication, such as voice calls or video conferencing. SIP
uses domain names to identify endpoints or servers involved in a communication session. Therefore, an A
record is needed to resolve the domain name of a SIP endpoint or server to its IPv4 address. References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 154; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student
Guide (Exam N10-008), page 6-8.

NEW QUESTION: 30
A. The DHCP server is not available.
B. An RFC1918 address is being used
C. The VLAN is incorrect.
D. A static IP is assigned.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The DHCP server is not available is the most likely cause of the issue where a new computer is unable to ping
the default gateway. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which is a network protocol that
automatically assigns IP addresses and other configuration parameters to clients on a network. The default
gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects a local network to other networks, such as the
internet. Pinging is a network utility that tests the connectivity and reachability between two devices by sending
and receiving echo packets. If the DHCP server is not available, the new computer will not be able to obtain an
IP address or other configuration parameters, such as the default gateway, from the DHCP server.
This will prevent the new computer from communicating with other devices on the network or the internet,
resulting in ping failure. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is DHCP? | How
DHCP Works | SolarWinds MSP

NEW QUESTION: 31
A network administrator is designing a new datacenter in a different region that will need to communicate to the
old datacenter with a secure connection. Which of the following access methods would provide the BEST
security for this new datacenter?
A. Virtual network computing
B. Secure Socket Shell
C. In-band connection
D. Site-to-site VPN
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Site-to-site VPN provides the best security for connecting a new datacenter to an old one because it creates a
secure tunnel between the two locations, protecting data in transit. References: CompTIA Network+
Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Network Security.

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NEW QUESTION: 32
Which of the following is used to track and document various types of known vulnerabilities?
A. CVE
B. Penetration testing
C. Zero-day
D. SIEM
E. Least privilege
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures, which is a list of publicly disclosed cybersecurity
vulnerabilities that is free to search, use, and incorporate into products and services. CVE provides a
standardized identifier and description for each vulnerability, as well as references to related sources of
information. CVE helps to track and document various types of known vulnerabilities and facilitates
communication and coordination among security professionals. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://cve.mitre.org/cve/

NEW QUESTION: 33
Two remote offices need to be connected securely over an untrustworthy MAN. Each office needs to access
network shares at the other site. Which of the following will BEST provide this functionality?
A. Client-to-site VPN
B. Third-party VPN service
C. Site-to-site VPN
D. Split-tunnel VPN
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN that connects two or more remote offices securely over an untrustworthy
network, such as the Internet. A site-to-site VPN allows each office to access network shares and resources at
the other site, as if they were on the same local network. A site-to-site VPN encrypts and tunnels the traffic
between the offices, ensuring privacy and integrity of the data. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-site-to-site-vpn

NEW QUESTION: 34
The results of a recently completed site survey indicate a significant, undesired RSSI in the parking lot and
other exterior areas near the like to mitigate access to the wireless network in exterior access areas. The
current access point settings are listed in the following table:

Which of the following is the BEST step for the technician to take to resolve the issue?
A. Reconfigure AP2 and AP3 for non-overlapping channels
B. Implement directional antennas on AP1 and AP2.
C. Raise the power settings on AP2 and AP3.
D. Change the SSID on AP1 and AP2.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Implementing directional antennas on AP1 and AP2 is the best step for the technician to take to resolve the
issue of undesired RSSI in the parking lot and other exterior areas near the building. RSSI stands for received
signal strength indicator, which is a measure of how well a device can receive a wireless signal from an access
point (AP). An AP is a device that provides wireless connectivity to a network. An antenna is a device that
radiates or receives electromagnetic waves. A directional antenna is an antenna that focuses the wireless
signal in a specific direction, resulting in higher gain and longer range. By using directional antennas on AP1
and AP2, which are located near the exterior walls of the building, the technician can reduce the wireless signal
leakage to the outside areas and improve the wireless coverage inside the building. References: [CompTIA
Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is RSSI and How Does It Affect Wireless Networks?,
Directional Antennas: Everything You Need to Know

NEW QUESTION: 35
A technician notices that equipment is being moved around and misplaced in the server room, even though the
room has locked doors and cabinets. Which of the following would be the BEST solution to identify who is
responsible?
A. Install motion detection
B. Install cameras.
C. Install tamper detection.
D. Hire a security guard.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Installing cameras in the server room is the best solution to identify who is responsible for the equipment being
moved and misplaced. Cameras provide a way to monitor the server room in real time and can be used to
identify suspicious activity. Additionally, they provide a way to review past activity and allow you to review
footage to determine who may be responsible for the misplacement of equipment.

NEW QUESTION: 36
An attacker sends more connection requests than a server can handle, causing the server to crash- Which of
the following types of attacks is this an example of?
A. ARP poisoning
B. Denial-of-service
C. MAC flooding
D. On-path
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is an example of an attack where an attacker sends more connection requests
than a server can handle, causing the server to crash. A DoS attack is a type of cyberattack that aims to disrupt
the normal functioning of a network service or resource by overwhelming it with excessive or malformed traffic.
A DoS attack can prevent legitimate users from accessing the service or resource, resulting in degraded
performance, unavailability, or data loss. A DoS attack can target various network layers, protocols, or
components, such as servers, routers, firewalls, or applications. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification
Exam Objectives], What Is a Denial-of-Service (DoS) Attack? | Cisco

NEW QUESTION: 37
A network administrator wants to improve the security of the management console on the company's switches
and ensure configuration changes made can be correlated to the administrator who conformed them Which of
the following should the network administrator implement?
A. Port security
B. Local authentication
C. TACACS+
D. Access control list
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
TACACS+ is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) for
network devices and users. TACACS+ can help improve the security of the management console on the
company's switches by verifying the identity and credentials of the administrators, enforcing granular access
policies and permissions, and logging the configuration changes made by each administrator. This way, the
network administrator can ensure only authorized and authenticated users can access and modify the switch
settings, and also track and correlate the changes made by each user. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-tacacs

NEW QUESTION: 38
An administrator is writing a script to periodically log the IPv6 and MAC addresses of all the devices on a
network segment. Which of the following switch features will MOST likely be used to assist with this task?
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Neighbor Discovery Protocol
C. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
D. Address Resolution Protocol
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Short Explanation: The switch feature that is most likely to be used to assist with logging IPv6 and MAC
addresses of devices on a network segment is Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP). NDP is used by IPv6 to
discover and maintain information about other nodes on the network, including their IPv6 and MAC addresses.
By periodically querying NDP, the administrator can log this information for auditing purposes.
References:
CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, Chapter 2: The OSI Model and
Networking Protocols, Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purposes.

NEW QUESTION: 39
A network engineer needs to reduce the overhead of file transfers. Which of the following configuration
changes would accomplish that goal?
A. Lower FTP port
B. Link aggregation
C. Port security
D. Flow control
E. Jumbo frames
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 40
A. Bridge
B. VLAN
C. Proxy server
D. VPN client
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 41
A technician is troubleshooting a previously encountered issue. Which of the following should the technician
reference to find what solution was implemented to resolve the issue?
A. Standard operating procedures
B. Configuration baseline documents
C. Work instructions
D. Change management documentation
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Change management documentation is a record of the changes that have been made to a system or process,
including the reason, date, time, and impact of each change. A technician can reference this documentation to
find what solution was implemented to resolve a previously encountered issue, as well as any potential side
effects or dependencies of the change. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-change-management

NEW QUESTION: 42
A large metropolitan city is looking to standardize the ability tor police department laptops to connect to the city
government's VPN The city would like a wireless solution that provides the largest coverage across the city with
a minimal number of transmission towers Latency and overall bandwidth needs are not high priorities. Which of
the following would BEST meet the city's needs?
A. LTE
B. Wi-Fi 6
C. Wi-Fi 4
D. 5G
E. Wi-Fi 5
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 43
A company's primary ISP is experiencing an outage. However, the network administrator notices traffic
continuing to flow through a secondary connection to the same ISP. Which of the following BEST describes this
configuration?
A. Multipathing
B. Diverse paths
C. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
D. Load balancing
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 44
A workstation is configured with the following network details:

Software on the workstation needs to send a query to the local subnet broadcast address. To which of the
following addresses should the software be configured to send the query?
A. 10.1.2.0
B. 10.1.2.1
C. 10.1.2.23
D. 10.1.2.255
E. 10.1.2.31
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
The software on the workstation should be configured to send the query to 10.1.2.255, which is the local subnet
broadcast address. A broadcast address is a special address that allows a device to send a message to all
devices on the same subnet. It is usually derived by setting all the host bits to 1 in the network address. In this
case, the network address is 10.1.2.0/27, which has 27 network bits and 5 host bits. By setting all the host bits
to 1, we get 10.1.2.31 as the broadcast address in decimal notation, or 10.1.2.255 in dotted decimal notation.
References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/13788-3.html

NEW QUESTION: 45
A network technician was recently onboarded to a company. A manager has tasked the technician with
documenting the network and has provided the technician With partial information from previous
documentation.
Instructions:
Click on each switch to perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal. Fill in the missing
information using drop-down menus provided.
Answer:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation.
Explanation
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To
perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal, you can use the following steps:
Click on each switch to open its terminal window.
Enter the command show ip interface brief to display the IP addresses and statuses of the switch interfaces.
Enter the command show vlan brief to display the VLAN configurations and assignments of the switch
interfaces.
Enter the command show cdp neighbors to display the information about the neighboring devices that are
connected to the switch.
Fill in the missing information in the diagram using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the missing information for Core Switch 1:
The IP address of Core Switch 1 is 192.168.1.1.
The VLAN configuration of Core Switch 1 is VLAN 1: 192.168.1.0/24, VLAN 2: 192.168.2.0/24, VLAN 3:
192.168.3.0/24.
The neighboring devices of Core Switch 1 are Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 1 are GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/2.
The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 2 are GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4.
You can use the same steps to fill in the missing information for Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2.

NEW QUESTION: 46
Which of the following describes the BEST device to configure as a DHCP relay?
A. Bridge
B. Router
C. Layer 2 switch
D. Hub
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Normally, routers do not forward broadcast traffic. This means that each broadcast domain must be served by
its own DHCP server. On a large network with multiple subnets, this would mean provisioning and configuring
many DHCP servers. To avoid this scenario, a DHCP relay agent can be configured to provide forwarding of
DHCP traffic between subnets. Routers that can provide this type of forwarding are described as RFC 1542
compliant. The DHCP relay intercepts broadcast DHCP frames, applies a unicast address for the appropriate
DHCP server, and forwards them over the interface for the subnet containing the server. The DHCP server can
identify the original IP subnet from the packet and offer a lease from the appropriate scope.
The DHCP relay also performs the reverse process of directing responses from the server to the appropriate
client subnet.

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NEW QUESTION: 47
At which of the following OSI model layers does a MAC filter list for a wireless infrastructure operate?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Session
D. Data link
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A MAC filter list is a security feature that allows or denies access to a wireless network based on the MAC
address of the device. A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface card (NIC) at the
physical layer of the OSI model. However, MAC filtering operates at the data link layer of the OSI model, where
MAC addresses are used to encapsulate and deliver data frames between devices on the same network
segment.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 3.1: Given a
scenario, install and configure wireless LAN infrastructure and implement the appropriate technologies in
support of wireless capable devices.
NEW QUESTION: 48
A network requirement calls for segmenting departments into different networks. The campus network is set up
with users of each department in multiple buildings. Which of the following should be configured to keep the
design simple and efficient?
A. MDIX
B. Jumbo frames
C. Port tagging
D. Flow control
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Port tagging is a technique that involves adding a tag or identifier to the frames or packets that belong to a
certain VLAN. A VLAN is a logical segment of a network that isolates traffic between different groups of
devices. Port tagging allows devices on different physical ports or switches to communicate with each other as
if they were on the same port or switch. Port tagging can help keep the design simple and efficient by reducing
the number of physical ports and switches needed to segment departments into different networks. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-port-tagging

NEW QUESTION: 49
Network traffic is being compromised by DNS poisoning every time a company's router is connected to the
internet. The network team detects a non-authorized DNS server being assigned to the network clients and
remediates the incident by setting a trusted DNS server, but the issue occurs again after internet exposure.
Which of the following best practices should be implemented on the router?
A. Disable unneeded network services.
B. Disable router advertisement guard.
C. Activate control plane policing.
D. Change the device's default password.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 50
A. MPLS
B. mGRE
C. EIGRP
D. VRRP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Multiprotocol Label Switching, or MPLS, is a networking technology that routes traffic using the shortest path
based on "labels," rather than network addresses, to handle forwarding over private wide area networks. As a
scalable and protocol-independent solution, MPLS assigns labels to each data packet, controlling the path the
packet follows. MPLS greatly improves the speed of traffic, so users don't experience downtime when
connected to the network.
NEW QUESTION: 51
A company is reviewing ways to cut the overall cost of Its IT budget. A network technician suggests removing
various computer programs from the IT budget and only providing these programs on an as-needed basis.
Which of the following models would meet this requirement?
A. Multitinency
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. VPN
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
SaaS stands for Software as a Service and is a cloud computing model where software applications are hosted
and delivered over the internet by a service provider. SaaS can help the company cut the overall cost of its IT
budget by eliminating the need to purchase, install, update, and maintain various computer programs on its
own devices. The company can access the programs on an as-needed basis and pay only for what it uses.
Multitenancy is a feature of cloud computing where multiple customers share the same physical or virtual
resources. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service and is a cloud computing model where computing
resources such as servers, storage, and networking are provided over the internet by a service provider. VPN
stands for Virtual Private Network and is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted connection over a
public network.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 1.9:
Compare and contrast common network service types.

NEW QUESTION: 52
A company streams video to multiple devices across a campus. When this happens, several users report a
degradation of network performance. Which of the following would MOST likely address this issue?
A. Implement another DHCP server.
B. Change the SSID of the APs
C. Enable IGMP snooping on the switches.
D. Reconfigure port tagging for the video traffic.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 53
A network administrator is installing a wireless network at a client's office. Which of the following IEEE
802.11 standards would be BEST to use for multiple simultaneous client access?
A. CDMA
B. CSMA/CD
C. CSMA/CA
D. GSM
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) is an IEEE 802.11 standard that would be
best to use for multiple simultaneous client access on a wireless network. CSMA/CA is a media access control
method that allows multiple devices to share the same wireless channel without causing collisions or
interference. It works by having each device sense the channel before transmitting data and waiting for an
acknowledgment from the receiver after each transmission. If the channel is busy or no acknowledgment is
received, the device will back off and retry later with a random delay. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/82068-csma-ca.html

NEW QUESTION: 54
A network architect is developing documentation for an upcoming IPv4/IPv6 dual-stack implementation The
architect wants to shorten the following IPv6 address: ef82:0000:00O0:000O:0O00:1ab1:1234:1bc2. Which of
the following is the MOST appropriate shortened version?
A. ef82:0:lab1:1234:1bc2
B. ef82:0:;1ab1:1234:1bc2
C. ef82:0:0:0:0:1ab1:1234:1bc2
D. ef82::1ab1:1234:1bc2
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The most appropriate shortened version of the IPv6 address ef82:0000:00O0:000O:0O00:1ab1:1234:1bc2 is
ef82::1ab1:1234:1bc2. IPv6 addresses are 128-bit hexadecimal values that are divided into eight groups of 16
bits each, separated by colons. IPv6 addresses can be shortened by using two rules: omitting leading zeros
within each group, and replacing one or more consecutive groups of zeros with a double colon (::). Only one
double colon can be used in an address. Applying these rules to the given address results in
ef82::1ab1:1234:1bc2. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 114; The
Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 5-7.

NEW QUESTION: 55
An administrator is attempting to add a new system to monitoring but is unsuccessful. The administrator notices
the system is similar to another one on the network; however, the new one has an updated OS version.
Which of the following should the administrator consider updating?
A. SNMP traps
B. Management information bases
C. Network device logs
D. System baseline
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 56
An attacker targeting a large company was able to inject malicious A records into internal name resolution
servers. Which of the following attack types was MOST likely used?
A. Rogue DHCP
B. IP spoofing
C. On-path
D. DNS poisoning
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 57
A technician is installing multiple UPS units in a major retail store. The technician is required to keep track of all
changes to new and old equipment. Which of the following will allow the technician to record these changes?
A. Asset tags
B. A smart locker
C. An access control vestibule
D. A camera
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Asset tags will allow the technician to record changes to new and old equipment when installing multiple UPS
units in a major retail store. Asset tags are labels or stickers that are attached to physical assets such as
computers, printers, servers, or UPS units. They usually contain information such as asset name, serial
number, barcode, QR code, or RFID chip that can be scanned or read by an asset management system or
software. Asset tags help track inventory, location, status, maintenance, and ownership of assets. References:
https://www.camcode.com/asset-tags/asset-tagging-guide/

NEW QUESTION: 58
A technician is trying to install a VolP phone, but the phone is not turning on. The technician checks the cable
gong from the phone to the switch, and the cable is good. Which of the following actions IS needed for this
phone to work?
A. Use a crossover cable.
B. Add a POE injector
C. Reconfigure the port.
D. Enable MDIX.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 59
A network administrator is talking to different vendors about acquiring technology to support a new project for a
large company. Which of the following documents will MOST likely need to be signed before information about
the project is shared?
A. BYOD policy
B. NDA
C. SLA
D. MOU
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
NDA stands for Non-Disclosure Agreement, which is a legal contract between two or more parties that outlines
confidential material, knowledge, or information that the parties wish to share with one another for certain
purposes, but wish to restrict access to by others. A network administrator may need to sign an NDA before
sharing information about a new project with different vendors, as the project may involve sensitive or
proprietary data that the company wants to protect from competitors or unauthorized use. References:
https://www.adobe.com/sign/esignature-resources/sign-nda.html

NEW QUESTION: 60
A. Generate a network baseline report for comparison.
B. Collect the router's NetFlow data.
C. Export the firewall traffic logs.
D. Plot interface statistics for dropped packets.
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 61
A network administrator decided to use SLAAC in an extensive IPv6 deployment to alleviate IP address
management. The devices were properly connected into the LAN but autoconfiguration of the IP address did
not occur as expected. Which of the following should the network administrator verify?
A. The network gateway is configured to send router advertisements.
B. A DHCP server is present on the same broadcast domain as the clients.
C. The devices support dual stack on the network layer.
D. The local gateway supports anycast routing.
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
SLAAC (Stateless Address Autoconfiguration) is a method for IPv6 devices to automatically configure their IP
addresses based on the network prefix advertised by a router. The router sends periodic router advertisements
(RAs) that contain the network prefix and other parameters for the devices to use. If the network gateway is not
configured to send RAs, then SLAAC will not work. A DHCP server is not needed for SLAAC, as the devices
generate their own addresses without relying on a server. Dual stack and anycast routing are not related to
SLAAC.

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NEW QUESTION: 62
Classification using labels according to information sensitivity and impact in case of unauthorized access or
leakage is a mandatory component of:
A. an acceptable use policy.
B. a memorandum of understanding.
C. data loss prevention,
D. a non-disclosure agreement.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access or leakage
of sensitive information. One of the components of DLP is data classification, which involves labeling data
according to its information sensitivity and impact in case of unauthorized disclosure. Data classification helps
to identify and protect the most critical and confidential data and apply appropriate security controls and
policies. References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.1: Explain the importance of policies, processes and
procedures for IT governance. Subobjective: Data loss prevention.

NEW QUESTION: 63
Which of the following BEST describes a north-south traffic flow?
A. A public internet user accessing a published web server
B. A database server communicating with another clustered database server
C. A Layer 3 switch advertising routes to a router
D. A management application connecting to managed devices
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
A north-south traffic flow is a term used to describe the communication between a user or device outside the
network and a server or service inside the network. For example, a public internet user accessing a published
web server is a north-south traffic flow. This type of traffic flow typically crosses the network perimeter and
requires security measures such as firewalls and VPNs. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification
Study Guide, page 16; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page
1-9.
North-south traffic flow refers to the flow of traffic between the internal network of an organization and the
external world. This type of traffic typically flows from the internet to the organization's internal network, and
back again.
Examples of north-south traffic flow include:
A public internet user accessing a published web server
A remote employee connecting to a VPN
An email client sending email to an external server
A customer connecting to an e-commerce website
References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Objectives, Version 5.0, August 2022, page 12 CompTIA Network+
Certification Study Guide, Seventh Edition, Todd Lammle, Sybex, 2022, page 17
NEW QUESTION: 64
The Chief Executive Officer of a company wants to ensure business operations are not disrupted in the event of
a disaster. The solution must have fully redundant equipment, real-time synchronization, and zero data loss.
Which Of the following should be prepared?
A. Cloud site
B. Warm site
C. Hot site
D. Cold site
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A hot site is a backup site that is fully equipped and ready to take over the operations of the primary site in the
event of a disaster. A hot site has real-time synchronization with the primary site and can provide zero data
loss. A hot site is the most expensive and reliable option for disaster recovery.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.3: Explain common scanning, monitoring and patching
processes and summarize their expected outputs.

NEW QUESTION: 65
A network technician is troubleshooting internet connectivity issues with users in a subnet. From a host, the
technician runs and then attempts to navigate to a website using a web browser.
The technician receives the following output:

Afterward, the browser displays an error. Which of the following explains this issue?
A. A routing loop is within the network.
B. The host is configured with incorrect DNS settings
C. A broadcast storm is occurring on the subnet
D. The host is missing a route to the website.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The issue is that the host is configured with incorrect DNS settings. DNS (Domain Name System) is a service
that resolves domain names to IP addresses. For example, the domain name www.comptia.org is resolved to
the IP address 104.18.25.140 by a DNS server. If the host has incorrect DNS settings, such as an invalid or
unreachable DNS server address, it will not be able to resolve domain names to IP addresses, and therefore it
will not be able to access websites by their names. The output in the image shows that the host can ping the IP
address of www.comptia.org, but it cannot ping the domain name itself, indicating a DNS problem. References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 154; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student
Guide (Exam N10-008), page 6-8.
NEW QUESTION: 66
Which of the following factors should be considered when evaluating a firewall to protect a datacenter's east-
west traffic?
A. Replication traffic between an on-premises server and a remote backup facility
B. Traffic between VMs running on different hosts
C. Concurrent connections generated by Internet DDoS attacks
D. VPN traffic from remote offices to the datacenter's VMs
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
When evaluating a firewall to protect a datacenter's east-west traffic, it is important to consider traffic between
VMs running on different hosts. This type of traffic is referred to as east-west traffic and is often protected by
internal firewalls. By implementing firewalls, an organization can protect their internal network against threats
such as lateral movement, which can be caused by attackers who have breached a perimeter firewall.
References: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Network Security

NEW QUESTION: 67
A device is connected to a managed Layer 3 network switch. The MAC address of the device is known, but the
static IP address assigned to the device is not. Which of the following features of a Layer 3 network switch
should be used to determine the IPv4 address of the device?
A. MAC table
B. Neighbor Discovery Protocol
C. ARP table
D. IPConfig
E. ACL table
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The ARP table is a database that is used by a device to map MAC addresses to their corresponding IP
addresses. When a device sends a packet to another device on the same network, it uses the MAC address of
the destination device to deliver the packet. The ARP table allows the device to determine the IP address of the
destination device based on its MAC address.

NEW QUESTION: 68
A network technician is installing new software on a Windows-based server in a different geographical location.
Which of the following would be BEST for the technician to use to perform this task?
A. RDP
B. SSH
C. FTP
D. DNS
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is the best option for a network technician to use when installing new software
on a Windows-based server in a different geographical location. This protocol allows the technician to connect
to the server remotely and control it as if they were physically present.
References:
Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, implement the appropriate
network-based security and troubleshoot common connectivity issues.

NEW QUESTION: 69
Which of the following is MOST likely to generate significant East-West traffic in a datacenter?
A. A backup of a large video presentation to cloud storage for archival purposes
B. A download of navigation data to a portable device for offline access
C. A query from an IoT device to a cloud-hosted server for a firmware update
D. A duplication of a hosted virtual server to another physical server for redundancy
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
East-West traffic refers to data flows between servers or devices within the same datacenter. When a hosted
virtual server is duplicated to another physical server for redundancy, it generates significant East-West traffic
as the data is replicated between the two servers. References:
Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 3.3 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.

NEW QUESTION: 70
You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network security.
Requirements:
Datacenter
Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space
usage Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53 traffic
Building A Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address
space usage Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users Add an additional mobile user
Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution Screened subnet Ensure network is subnetted to allow
all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage Provide a server to handle external
80/443 traffic Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic INSTRUCTIONS Drag and drop objects onto the
appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.
Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag & Drop menu.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
See explanation below.
Explanation
Screened Subnet devices - Web server, FTP server
Building A devices - SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left DataCenter
devices - DNS server.
NEW QUESTION: 71
After the A record of a public website was updated, some visitors were unable to access the website. Which of
the following should be adjusted to address the issue?
A. TTL
B. MX
C. TXT
D. SOA
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
TTL (Time To Live) should be adjusted to address the issue of some visitors being unable to access the
website after the A record was updated. TTL is a value that specifies how long a DNS record should be cached
by DNS servers and clients before it expires and needs to be refreshed. If the TTL is too high, some DNS
servers and clients may still use the old A record that points to the previous IP address of the website, resulting
in connection failures. By lowering the TTL, the DNS servers and clients will update their cache more frequently
and use the new A record that points to the current IP address of the website. References:
https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/dns/dns-records/dns-ttl/

NEW QUESTION: 72
All packets arriving at an interface need to be fully analyzed. Which of me following features should be used to
enable monitoring of the packets?
A. LACP
B. Flow control
C. Port mirroring
D. NetFlow exporter
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Port mirroring is a feature that can be used to enable monitoring of all packets arriving at an interface. This
feature is used to direct a copy of all traffic passing through the switch to a monitoring device, such as a
network analyzer. This allows the switch to be monitored with the network analyzer in order to identify any
malicious or suspicious activity. Additionally, port mirroring can be used to troubleshoot network issues, such as
latency or poor performance.

NEW QUESTION: 73
In which of the following components do routing protocols belong in a software-defined network?
A. Infrastructure layer
B. Control layer
C. Application layer
D. Management plane
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A software-defined network (SDN) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data
plane and centralizes the network intelligence in a software controller. The control plane is the part of the
network that makes decisions about how to route traffic, while the data plane is the part of the network that
forwards traffic based on the control plane's instructions. The control layer is the layer in an SDN that contains
the controller and the routing protocols that communicate with the network devices. The control layer is
responsible for managing and configuring the network devices and providing them with the necessary
information to forward traffic. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 378)

NEW QUESTION: 74
A network device needs to discover a server that can provide it with an IPv4 address. Which of the following
does the device need to send the request to?
A. Default gateway
B. Broadcast address
C. Unicast address
D. Link local address
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The DHCP client sends broadcast request packets to the network; the DHCP servers respond with broadcast
packets that offer IP parameters, such as an IP address for the client. After the client chooses the IP
parameters, communication between the client and server is by unicast packets.
"When a DHCP client boots up, it automatically sends out a DHCP Discover UDP datagram to the broadcast
address, 255.255.255.255. This DHCP Discover message asks "Are there any DHCP servers out there?" The
client can't send unicast traffic yet, as it doesn't have a valid IP address that can be used."

NEW QUESTION: 75
A network technician 13 troubleshooting a network issue for employees who have reported Issues with speed
when accessing a server in another subnet. The server is in another building that is 410ft (125m) away from the
employees' building. The 10GBASE-T connection between the two buildings uses Cat 5e. Which of the
following BEST explains the speed issue?
A. The connection type is not rated for that distance
B. A broadcast storm is occurring on the subnet.
C. The cable run has interference on it
D. The connection should be made using a Cat 6 cable
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The 10GBASE-T connection between the two buildings uses Cat 5e, which is not rated for a distance of 410ft
(125m). According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, for 10GBASE-T connections, "Cat 5e is rated for
up to 55m, Cat 6a is rated for 100m, and Cat 7 is rated for 150m." Therefore, the speed issue is likely due to
the fact that the connection type is not rated for the distance between the two buildings. To resolve the issue,
the technician should consider using a Cat 6a or Cat 7 cable to increase the distance the connection is rated
for.

NEW QUESTION: 76
A company has multiple offices around the world. The computer rooms in some office locations are too warm
Dedicated sensors are in each room, but the process of checking each sensor takes a long time. Which of the
following options can the company put In place to automate temperature readings with internal resources?
A. Implement NetFlow.
B. Hire a programmer to write a script to perform the checks
C. Utilize ping to measure the response.
D. Use SNMP with an existing collector server
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol that allows network devices to communicate with a
management server. By using SNMP, the company can set up an SNMP agent on each sensor, which will
report its temperature readings to an existing collector server. This will enable the company to monitor the
temperatures of all their sensors in real-time without the need for manual checks. Additionally, SNMP's
scalability means that even if the company adds more rooms or sensors, the existing system can be easily
expanded to accommodate them.

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NEW QUESTION: 77
A network administrator needs to query the NSs for a remote application. Which of the following commands
would BEST help the administrator accomplish this task?
A. dig
B. arp
C. show interface
D. hostname
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The dig command is used to query the NSs for a remote application. It is a command-line tool that is commonly
used to troubleshoot DNS issues. When used with specific options, dig can be used to obtain information about
domain names, IP addresses, and DNS records. References: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 3:
Network Infrastructure
NEW QUESTION: 78
A network engineer is installing hardware in a newly renovated data center. Major concerns that were
addressed during the renovation induded air circulation, building power redundancy, and the need for
continuous monitoring. The network engineer IS creating alerts based on the following operation specifications:

Which of the following should the network engineer configure?

A. Environmental monitoring alerts for humidity greater than 95%
B. SIEM to parse syslog events for a failed power supply
C. SNMP traps to report when the chassis temperature exceeds 950F (3500)
D. UPS monitoring to report when input voltage drops below 220VAC
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The alert that the network engineer should configure based on the operation specifications is SNMP traps to
report when the chassis temperature exceeds 95°F (35°C). SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a
protocol that allows network devices to communicate their status and performance information to a central
management system, called an SNMP manager. SNMP traps are messages that are sent by network devices
to notify the SNMP manager of an event or condition that requires attention, such as an error, a failure, or a
threshold violation. In this case, the network engineer should configure SNMP traps on the network devices to
send an alert when their chassis temperature exceeds 95°F (35°C), which is the maximum operating
temperature specified in the table. This alert would help the network engineer monitor and troubleshoot any
overheating issues that could affect the network performance or availability. References: CompTIA Network+
N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 228; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008),
page 8-11.

NEW QUESTION: 79
Which of the following service models would MOST likely be used to replace on-premises servers with a cloud
solution?
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. Disaster recovery as a Service (DRaaS)
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud service model that provides virtualized computing
resources over the Internet, such as servers, storage, networking, and operating systems. IaaS allows
customers to replace their on-premises servers with cloud servers that can be scaled up or down on demand
and pay only for what they use. PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which provides customers with a cloud-
based platform for developing, testing, and deploying applications without managing the underlying
infrastructure.
SaaS stands for Software as a Service, which provides customers with access to cloud-based software
applications over the Internet without installing or maintaining them on their devices. Disaster recovery as a
Service (DRaaS) is a type of cloud service that provides customers with backup and recovery solutions for their
data and applications in case of a disaster.

NEW QUESTION: 80
A. Allow connections only to an internal proxy server.
B. Deploy an IDS system and place it in line with the traffic.
C. Create a screened network and move the devices to it.
D. Use a host-based network firewall on each device.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
An internal proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between internal devices and external servers
on the internet. An internal proxy server can be used to limit the ability of devices to perform only HTTPS
connections to an internet update server by filtering and forwarding the requests and responses based on
predefined rules or policies. An internal proxy server can also prevent the devices from being exposed to the
public internet by hiding their IP addresses and providing a layer of security and privacy.

NEW QUESTION: 81
To comply with an industry regulation, all communication destined to a secure server should be logged and
archived on a storage device. Which of the Mowing can be configured to fulfill this requirement?
A. Flow control
B. QoS traffic classification
C. Port mirroring
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 82
During the troubleshooting of an E1 line, the point-to-point link on the core router was accidentally unplugged
and left unconnected for several hours. However, the network management team was not notified. Which of the
following could have been configured to allow early detection and possible resolution of the issue?
A. Traps
B. MIB
C. OID
D. Baselines
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Traps are unsolicited messages sent by network devices to a network management system (NMS) when an
event or a change in status occurs. Traps can help notify the network management team of any issues or
problems on the network, such as a link failure or a device reboot. Traps can also trigger actions or alerts on
the NMS, such as sending an email or logging the event. MIB stands for Management Information Base and is
a database of information that can be accessed and managed by an NMS using SNMP (Simple Network
Management Protocol). OID stands for Object Identifier and is a unique name that identifies a specific variable
in the MIB. Baselines are measurements of normal network performance and behavior that can be used for
comparison and analysis.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 2.5: Given a
scenario, use remote access methods.

NEW QUESTION: 83
Which of the following protocols will a security appliance that is correlating network events from multiple
devices MOST likely rely on to receive event messages?
A. Syslog
B. Session Initiation Protocol
C. Secure File Transfer Protocol
D. Server Message Block
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Syslog is a protocol that provides a standard way for network devices and applications to send event messages
to a logging server or a security appliance. Syslog messages can contain information about security incidents,
errors, warnings, system status, configuration changes, and other events. A security appliance that is
correlating network events from multiple devices can rely on Syslog to receive event messages from different
sources and formats. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-syslog

NEW QUESTION: 84
A non-employee was able to enter a server room. Which of the following could have prevented this from
happening?
A. A security camera
B. A biometric reader
C. OTP key fob
D. Employee training
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A biometric reader is a device that scans a person's physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris, or face,
and compares them to a database of authorized users. A biometric reader can be used to restrict access to a
server room and prevent unauthorized entry. A biometric reader provides a high level of security and cannot be
easily bypassed or duplicated.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.1: Summarize the importance of physical security controls.

NEW QUESTION: 85
An infrastructure company is implementing a cabling solution to connect sites on multiple continents. Which of
the following cable types should the company use for this project?
A. Cat 7
B. Single-mode
C. Multimode
D. Cat 6
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Single-mode fiber is a type of optical fiber that has a small core diameter and allows only one mode of light to
propagate. This reduces signal attenuation and increases transmission distance, making it suitable for long-
distance communication networks. Single-mode fiber can carry data over thousands of kilometers without
requiring repeaters or amplifiers. Single-mode fiber is also immune to electromagnetic interference and has a
higher bandwidth than multimode fiber. Therefore, single-mode fiber is the best cable type for connecting sites
on multiple continents. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives],
[Single-mode optical fiber - Wikipedia]
Single-mode fiber optic cable uses a single ray of light to transmit data. This allows it to achieve very low
attenuation and high bandwidth.
Multimode fiber optic cable uses multiple rays of light to transmit data. This results in higher attenuation and
lower bandwidth than single-mode cable.
Twisted pair copper cable uses two insulated copper wires to transmit data. It is less expensive than fiber optic
cable, but it has higher attenuation and lower bandwidth.
When choosing a cable type for a long-distance application, it is important to consider the following factors:
Attenuation: The amount of signal loss that occurs over the length of the cable.
Bandwidth: The amount of data that can be transmitted over the cable per second.
Cost: The cost of the cable and installation.
Single-mode fiber optic cable is the best choice for long-distance applications because it has the lowest
attenuation and highest bandwidth of any cable type. However, it is also the most expensive cable type.

NEW QUESTION: 86
Which of the following fouling protocols is generally used by major ISPs for handing large-scale internet traffic?
A. BGP
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. OSPF
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 87
A security vendor needs to add a note to the DNS to validate the ownership of a company domain before
services begin. Which of the following records did the security company MOST likely ask the company to
configure?
A. TXT
B. AAAA
C. CNAME
D. SRV
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
TXT stands for Text and is a type of DNS record that can store arbitrary text data associated with a domain
name. TXT records can be used for various purposes, such as verifying the ownership of a domain, providing
information about a domain, or implementing security mechanisms such as SPF (Sender Policy Framework) or
DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail). In this scenario, the security company most likely asked the company to
configure a TXT record with a specific value that can prove the ownership of the domain. AAAA stands for IPv6
Address and is a type of DNS record that maps a domain name to an IPv6 address. CNAME stands for
Canonical Name and is a type of DNS record that maps an alias name to another name. SRV stands for
Service and is a type of DNS record that specifies the location of a service on a network.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 1.8:
Explain the purposes and use cases for advanced networking devices.

NEW QUESTION: 88
A network administrator is setting up several loT devices on a new VLAN and wants to accomplish the following
1. Reduce manual configuration on each system
2. Assign a specific IP address to each system
3. Allow devices to move to different switchports on the same VLAN
Which of the following should the network administrator do to accomplish these requirements?
A. Set up a reservation for each device
B. Configure a static IP on each device
C. Implement private VLANs for each device
D. Use DHCP exclusions to address each device
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A reservation is a feature of DHCP that assigns a specific IP address to a device based on its MAC address.
This way, the device will always receive the same IP address from the DHCP server, regardless of its location
or connection time. A network administrator can set up a reservation for each loT device to accomplish the
requirements of reducing manual configuration, assigning a specific IP address, and allowing devices to move
to different switchports on the same VLAN. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-dhcp

NEW QUESTION: 89
Due to a surge in business, a company is onboarding an unusually high number of salespeople. The
salespeople are assigned desktops that are wired to the network. The last few salespeople to be onboarded
are able to access corporate materials on the network but not sales-specific resources. Which of the following
is MOST likely the cause?
A. The IPS was not configured to recognize the new users.
B. The switch was configured with port security.
C. Recently added users were assigned to the wrong VLAN
D. Newly added machines are running into DHCP conflicts.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 90
A. Duplex
B. Collisions
C. Jitter
D. Encapsulation
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Jitter is the variation in the delay of packets arriving at a destination. Jitter can cause problems for real-time
applications, such as voice and video, that require consistent and smooth delivery of packets. A geographically
remote office that connects to the main office via a WAN link may experience high jitter due to factors such as
network congestion, routing changes, or link quality. Jitter can be reduced by using quality of service (QoS)
mechanisms that prioritize and shape traffic according to its importance and sensitivity. References:
[CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What is Jitter? | Network Jitter Explained | SolarWinds

NEW QUESTION: 91
Which of the following is the primary function of the core layer of the three-tiered model?
A. Routing
B. Repeating
C. Bridging
D. Switching
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
https://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/three-tier-hierarchical-network-model.php
Core Layer consists of biggest, fastest, and most expensive routers with the highest model numbers and Core
Layer is considered as the back bone of networks. Core Layer routers are used to merge geographically
separated networks. The Core Layer routers move information on the network as fast as possible. The switches
operating at core layer switches packets as fast as possible.

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NEW QUESTION: 92
A network technician crimped a length of IJTP with TIA\ElA-568A on one end and TINE-IA-5688 on the other.
Which of the following cable types did the technician create?
A. Crossover cable
B. Patch cable
C. Twinaxial cable
D. Rollover cable
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The cable type that the technician created is a crossover cable. A crossover cable is a type of twisted-pair
cable that has the transmit and receive pairs reversed on one end. A crossover cable is used to connect two
devices of the same type, such as two switches or two computers, without using a hub or a switch. A crossover
cable can be made by crimping one end of the cable with TIA/EIA-568A standard and the other end with
TIA/EIA-568B standard, or vice versa. These standards define the color coding and pin assignments for RJ-45
connectors on twisted-pair cables. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page
53; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 2-4.

NEW QUESTION: 93
A network technician 13 troubleshooting a specific port on a switch. Which of the following commands should
the technician use to see the port configuration?
A. show route
B. show Interface
C. show arp
D. show port
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
To see the configuration of a specific port on a switch, the network technician should use the "show interface"
command. This command provides detailed information about the interface, including the current configuration,
status, and statistics for the interface.

NEW QUESTION: 94
A systems operator is granted access to a monitoring application, configuration application, and timekeeping
application. The operator is denied access to the financial and project management applications by the
system's security configuration. Which of the following BEST describes the security principle in use?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. Least privilege
C. Separation of duties
D. Network access control
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 95
A technician is configuring a static IP address on a new device in a newly created subnet. The work order
specifies the following requirements:
* The IP address should use the highest address available in the subnet.
* The default gateway needs to be set to 172.28.85.94.
* The subnet mask needs to be 255.255.255.224.
Which of the following addresses should the engineer apply to the device?
A. 172.28.85.93
B. 172.28.85.95
C. 172.28.85.254
D. 172.28.85.255
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
https://www.tunnelsup.com/subnet-calculator/
IP Address: 172.28.85.95/27
Netmask: 255.255.255.224
Network Address: 172.28.85.64
Usable Host Range: 172.28.85.65 - 172.28.85.94
Broadcast Address: 172.28.85.95

NEW QUESTION: 96
An IDS was installed behind the edge firewall after a network was breached. The network was then breached
again even though the IDS logged the attack. Which of the following should be used in place of these devices
to prevent future attacks?
A. A network tap
B. A proxy server
C. A UTM appliance
D. A content filter
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A UTM appliance stands for Unified Threat Management appliance, which is a device that combines multiple
security functions into one solution. A UTM appliance can provide firewall, IDS/IPS, antivirus, VPN, web
filtering, and other security features. A network technician can use a UTM appliance in place of an edge firewall
and an IDS to prevent future attacks, as a UTM appliance can block malicious traffic and detect and respond to
intrusions more effectively. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-utm

NEW QUESTION: 97
An employee reports to a network administrator that internet access is not working. Which of the following
should the administrator do FIRST?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause.
B. Identify symptoms.
C. Determine if anything has changed.
D. Ask the user to restart the computer.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
When a user reports that internet access is not working, it is important to first determine if there have been any
recent changes to the network or the user's computer that could have caused the issue. This could include
changes to the network configuration, the installation of new software or hardware, or other events that could
have impacted the user's ability to access the internet. By determining if anything has changed, the
administrator can narrow down the possible causes of the issue and focus on addressing the most likely cause.

NEW QUESTION: 98
An engineer is designing a network topology for a company that maintains a large on-premises private cloud.
A design requirement mandates internet-facing hosts to be partitioned off from the internal LAN and internal
server IP ranges. Which of the following defense strategies helps meet this requirement?
A. Implementing a screened subnet
B. Deploying a honeypot
C. Utilizing network access control
D. Enforcing a Zero Trust model
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
A screened subnet is a network topology that uses two firewalls to isolate a segment of the network from both
the internal LAN and the internet. The screened subnet, also known as a demilitarized zone (DMZ), hosts the
internet-facing servers that need to be accessible from outside the network, such as web servers, mail servers,
or DNS servers. The first firewall, also known as the external firewall, filters the traffic between the internet and
the DMZ, allowing only the necessary ports and protocols to pass through. The second firewall, also known as
the internal firewall, filters the traffic between the DMZ and the internal LAN, allowing only authorized and
secure connections to access the internal resources. This way, the screened subnet provides a layer of
protection for both the internet-facing hosts and the internal LAN from potential attacks12.
The other options are not defense strategies that help meet the design requirement of partitioning off the
internet-facing hosts from the internal LAN and internal server IP ranges. Deploying a honeypot is a deception
technique that lures attackers to a fake system or network that mimics the real one, in order to monitor their
activities and collect information about their methods and motives. However, a honeypot does not isolate or
protect the internet-facing hosts from the rest of the network3. Utilizing network access control is a security
method that enforces policies on who or what can access the network resources, based on factors such as
identity, role, device type, location, or time. However, network access control does not create a separate
segment for the internet-facing hosts from the internal LAN. Enforcing a Zero Trust model is a security
paradigm that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network, and requires continuous verification
and validation of every request and transaction. However, a Zero Trust model does not necessarily imply a
specific network topology or architecture for separating the internet-facing hosts from the internal LAN.
NEW QUESTION: 99
Which of the following is used to provide networking capability for VMs at Layer 2 of the OSI model?
A. VPN
B. VRRP
C. vSwitch
D. VIP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A vSwitch (virtual switch) is a software-based switch that provides networking capability for VMs (virtual
machines) at Layer 2 of the OSI model. It connects the VMs to each other or to external networks using virtual
NICs (network interface cards). A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that creates a secure tunnel
over a public network for remote access or site-to-site connectivity. VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy
Protocol) is a protocol that provides high availability for routers by creating a virtual router with multiple physical
routers. A VIP (virtual IP) is an IP address that can be shared by multiple servers or devices for load balancing
or failover purposes.

NEW QUESTION: 100

A. using a bottom-to-top approach.
B. establishing a plan of action.
C. documenting a finding.
D. questioning the obvious.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Using a bottom-to-top approach means starting from the physical layer and moving up the OSI model to
troubleshoot a network problem. Checking for a link light is a physical layer check that verifies the connectivity
of the network cable and device. References:
https://www.professormesser.com/network-plus/n10-007/troubleshooting-methodologies-2/

NEW QUESTION: 101

Which of the following situations would require an engineer to configure subinterfaces?
A. In a router-on-a-stick deployment with multiple VLANs
B. In order to enable inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch
C. When configuring VLAN trunk links between switches
D. After connecting a router that does not support 802.1Q VLAN tags
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A router-on-a-stick is a configuration that allows a single router interface to route traffic between multiple
VLANs on a network1. A router-on-a-stick requires sub-interfaces to be configured on the router interface, one
for each VLAN. Each sub-interface is assigned a VLAN ID and an IP address that belongs to the corresponding
VLAN subnet. The router interface is connected to a switch port that is configured as a trunk port, which allows
traffic from multiple VLANs to pass through. The router then performs inter-VLAN routing by forwarding packets
between the sub-interfaces based on their destination IP addresses.
Inter-VLAN routing is a process that allows devices on different VLANs to communicate with each other.
Inter-VLAN routing can be performed by a router-on-a-stick configuration, as explained above, or by a
multilayer switch that has routing capabilities. A multilayer switch does not require sub-interfaces to be
configured for inter-VLAN routing; instead, it uses switch virtual interfaces (SVIs) that are associated with each
VLAN. An SVI is a logical interface that represents a VLAN on a switch and has an IP address that belongs to
the VLAN subnet. The switch then performs inter-VLAN routing by forwarding packets between the SVIs based
on their destination IP addresses.
VLAN trunking is a method that allows traffic from multiple VLANs to be carried over a single link between
switches or routers. VLAN trunking requires the use of a tagging protocol, such as 802.1Q, that adds a header
to each frame that identifies its VLAN ID. VLAN trunking does not require sub-interfaces to be configured on the
switches or routers; instead, it uses trunk ports that are configured to allow or deny traffic from specific VLANs.
The switches or routers then forward packets between the trunk ports based on their VLAN IDs.
802.1Q is a standard that defines how VLAN tagging and trunking are performed on Ethernet networks.
802.1Q adds a 4-byte header to each frame that contains a 12-bit field for the VLAN ID and a 3-bit field for the
priority level. 802.1Q does not require sub-interfaces to be configured on the switches or routers; instead, it
uses trunk ports that are configured to support 802.1Q tagging and untagging. The switches or routers then
forward packets between the trunk ports based on their VLAN IDs and priority levels.

NEW QUESTION: 102

Which of the following architectures is used for FTP?
A. Client-server
B. Service-oriented
C. Connection-oriented
D. Data-centric
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a client-server based protocol, meaning that the two computers involved
communicate with each other in a request-response pattern. The client sends a request to the server and the
server responds with the requested data. This type of architecture is known as client-server, and it is used for
many different types of applications, including FTP. Other architectures, such as service-oriented, connection-
oriented, and data-centric, are not used for FTP.

NEW QUESTION: 103

A customer has an attached USB printer that needs to be shared with other users. The desktop team set up
printer sharing. Now, the network technician needs to obtain the necessary information about the PC and share
it with other users so they can connect to the printer. Which of the following commands should the technician
use to get the required information? (Select TWO).
A. arp
B. route
C. netstat
D. tcpdump
E. hostname
F. ipconfig
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The hostname and ipconfig commands should be used to get the required information about the PC and share
it with other users so they can connect to the printer. The hostname command displays the name of the
computer on a network. The ipconfig command displays the IP configuration of the computer, including its IP
address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. These information are necessary for other users to
locate and connect to the shared printer on the network. For example, other users can use the UNC path
\\hostname\printername or \\ipaddress\printername to access the shared printer. References: [CompTIA
Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], How to Share a Printer in Windows 10

NEW QUESTION: 104

A help desk technician is concerned that a client's network cable issues may be causing intermittent
connectivity. Which of the following would help the technician determine if this is the issue?
A. Run the show interface command on the switch
B. Run the tracerouute command on the server
C. Run iperf on the technician's desktop
D. Ping the client's computer from the router
E. Run a port scanner on the client's IP address
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To determine if a client's network cable issues may be causing intermittent connectivity, the help desk
technician can run the show interface command on the switch. This command allows the technician to view the
status and statistics of the various interfaces on the switch, including the physical link status and the number of
transmitted and received packets. If the interface is experiencing a large number of errors or dropped packets,
this could indicate a problem with the network cable or with the connection between the client's device and the
switch.
"Cisco routers and switches have a show interfaces IOS command that provides interface statistics/status
information, including link state (up/down), speed/duplex, send/receive traffic, cyclic redundancy checks
(CRCs), and protocol packet and byte counts."

NEW QUESTION: 105

A customer is adding fiber connectivity between adjacent buildings. A technician terminates the multimode
cable to the fiber patch panel. After the technician connects the fiber patch cable, the indicator light does not
come on. Which of the following should a technician try first to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Reverse the fibers.
B. Reterminate the fibers.
C. Verify the fiber size.
D. Examine the cable runs for visual faults.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
One of the most common causes of fiber connectivity issues is the reversal of the fibers. This means that the
transmit (TX) and receive (RX) ports on one end of the fiber link are not matched with the corresponding ports
on the other end. For example, if the TX port on one device is connected to the TX port on another device, and
the same for the RX ports, then the devices will not be able to communicate with each other. This can result in
no indicator light, no link, or no data transmission12.
To troubleshoot this issue, the technician should first try to reverse the fibers. This can be done by swapping
the connectors at one end of the fiber patch cable, or by using a crossover adapter or cable that reverses the
polarity of the fibers. The technician should then check if the indicator light comes on and if the devices can
communicate properly12.
The other options are not the first steps to troubleshoot this issue. Reterminating the fibers is a time-consuming
and costly process that should be done only if there is evidence of physical damage or poor quality of the
termination. Verifying the fiber size is not relevant in this scenario, as multimode fiber is compatible with
multimode fiber, and any mismatch in core diameter or bandwidth would result in high attenuation, not complete
loss of signal. Examining the cable runs for visual faults is a useful technique, but it requires a special tool
called a visual fault locator (VFL) that emits a visible red light through the fiber and shows any breaks or bends
along the cable. However, a VFL cannot detect polarity issues or connector problems, so it is not sufficient to
troubleshoot this issue

NEW QUESTION: 106

A network engineer developed a plan of action to resolve an ongoing issue. Which of the following steps should
the engineer take NEXT?
A. Verify full system functionality and implement preventative measures.
B. Implement the solution to resolve the problem.
C. Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.
D. Establish a theory of probable cause.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Network troubleshooting is a repeatable process, which means that you can break it down into clear steps that
anyone can follow.
Identify the Problem. ...
Develop a Theory. ...
Test the Theory. ...
Plan of Action. ...
Implement the Solution. ...
Verify System Functionality. ...
Document the Issue.
Theory of probable cause is before Plan of action.
https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/a-guide-to-network-troubleshooting
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NEW QUESTION: 107

A technician is installing a high-density wireless network and wants to use an available frequency that supports
the maximum number of channels to reduce interference. Which of the following standard 802.11 frequency
ranges should the technician look for while reviewing WAP specifications?
A. 2.4GHz
B. 5GHz
C. 6GHz
D. 900MHz
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
802.11a/b/g/n/ac wireless networks operate in two frequency ranges: 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The 5 GHz
frequency range supports more channels than the 2.4 GHz frequency range, making it a better choice for high-
density wireless networks.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Sixth Edition by Glen E. Clarke

NEW QUESTION: 108

Which of the following layers is where TCP/IP port numbers identify which network application is receiving the
packet and where it is applied?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Layer 4 is where TCP/IP port numbers identify which network application is receiving the packet and where it is
applied. Layer 4 is also known as the transport layer in the TCP/IP model or the OSI model. The transport layer
is responsible for providing reliable or unreliable end-to-end data transmission between hosts on a network.
The transport layer uses port numbers to identify and multiplex different applications or processes that
communicate over the network. Port numbers are 16-bit numbers that range from 0 to 65535 and are divided
into three categories: well-known ports (0-1023), registered ports (1024-49151), and dynamic ports
(49152-65535). Some examples of well-known port numbers are 80 for HTTP, 443 for HTTPS, and 25 for
SMTP. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Transport Layer - an overview |
ScienceDirect Topics

NEW QUESTION: 109

A website administrator is concerned the company's static website could be defaced by hacktivists or used as a
pivot point to attack internal systems. Which of the following should a network security administrator
recommend to assist with detecting these activities?
A. Implement file integrity monitoring.
B. Change the default credentials.
C. Use SSL encryption.
D. Update the web-server software.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Implementing file integrity monitoring (FIM) would assist with detecting activities such as website defacement or
internal system attacks. FIM is a process that monitors and alerts on changes to files or directories that are
critical for security or functionality. FIM can help detect unauthorized modifications, malware infections, data
breaches, or configuration errors. FIM can also help with compliance and auditing requirements. References:
https://www.tripwire.com/state-of-security/security-data-protection/cyber-security/what-is-file-integrity-monitor

NEW QUESTION: 110

A. Reset port security on the switchport connecting the server.
B. Adjust the web server's NTP settings to match the client settings.
C. Configure A records for the web server.
D. Install the correct MIB on the web server
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The problem is likely related to DNS resolution, as the clients are able to ping the server's IP address but not
access the web resource via URL. The other answers do not address this issue. Configuring A records for the
web server will ensure that clients are able to access the web resource via its domain name.

NEW QUESTION: 111

A client who shares office space and an IT closet with another company recently reported connectivity issues
throughout the network. Multiple third-party vendors regularly perform on-site maintenance in the shared IT
closet. Which of the following security techniques would BEST secure the physical networking equipment?
A. Disabling unneeded switchports
B. Implementing role-based access
C. Changing the default passwords
D. Configuring an access control list
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Role-based access is a security technique that assigns permissions and privileges to users or groups based on
their roles or functions within an organization. Role-based access can help secure the physical networking
equipment by limiting who can access, modify, or manage the devices in the shared IT closet. Only authorized
personnel with a valid role and credentials should be able to access the networking equipment. Disabling
unneeded switchports is a security technique that prevents unauthorized devices from connecting to the
network by turning off unused ports on a switch. Changing the default passwords is a security technique that
prevents unauthorized access to network devices by replacing the factory-set passwords with strong and
unique ones. Configuring an access control list is a security technique that filters network traffic by allowing or
denying packets based on criteria such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, or protocols.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 3.2: Given a
scenario, use appropriate network hardening techniques.

NEW QUESTION: 112

An IT technician needs to increase bandwidth to a server. The server has multiple gigabit ports. Which of the
following can be used to accomplish this without replacing hardware?
A. STP
B. 802. IQ
C. Duplex
D. LACP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
LACP stands for Link Aggregation Control Protocol and is a protocol that allows multiple physical ports to be
combined into a single logical port. This can increase bandwidth, redundancy, and load balancing for a server.
LACP is part of the IEEE 802.3ad standard for link aggregation. STP stands for Spanning Tree Protocol and is
a protocol that prevents loops in a network by blocking redundant links. 802.1Q is a standard for VLAN (Virtual
Local Area Network) tagging, which allows multiple logical networks to share the same physical infrastructure.
Duplex is a mode of communication that determines how data is transmitted and received on a link. Full duplex
allows simultaneous transmission and reception, while half duplex allows only one direction at a time.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 1.5:
Compare and contrast network cabling types, standards and speeds.

NEW QUESTION: 113

A business is using the local cable company to provide Internet access. Which of the following types of cabling
will the cable company MOST likely use from the demarcation point back to the central office?
A. Multimode
B. Cat 5e
C. RG-6
D. Cat 6
E. 100BASE-T
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
RG-6 is a type of coaxial cable that is commonly used by cable companies to provide Internet access from the
demarcation point back to the central office. It has a thicker conductor and better shielding than RG-59, which
is another type of coaxial cable. Multimode and Cat 5e are types of fiber optic and twisted pair cables
respectively, which are not typically used by cable companies. Cat 6 and 100BASE-T are standards for twisted
pair cables, not types of cabling.

NEW QUESTION: 114

Two network technicians are installing a fiber-optic link between routers. The technicians used a light meter to
verify the correct fibers However, when they connect the fibers to the router interface the link does not connect.
Which of the following would explain the issue? (Select TWO).
A. Incorrect TX/RX polarity exists on the link
B. The connection has duplexing configuration issues.
C. The RSSI was not strong enough on the link
D. One of the technicians installed a loopback adapter.
E. Halogen light fixtures are causing interference.
F. They used the wrong type of fiber transceiver.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 115

A network security engineer locates an unapproved wireless bridge connected to the corporate LAN that is
broadcasting a hidden SSID, providing unauthenticated access to internal resources. Which of the following
types of attacks BEST describes this finding?
A. Rogue access point Most Voted
B. Evil twin
C. ARP spoofing
D. VLAN hopping
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A rogue access point is an illegitimate access point plugged into a network to create a bypass from outside into
the legitimate network. By contrast, an evil twin is a copy of a legitimate access point.

NEW QUESTION: 116

A network technician is reviewing the interface counters on a router interface. The technician is attempting to
confirm a cable issue. Given the following information:
Which of the following metrics confirms there is a cabling issue?
A. Last cleared
B. Number of packets output
C. CRCs
D. Giants
E. Multicasts
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
CRC stands for Cyclic Redundancy Check, and it is a type of error-detecting code used to detect accidental
changes to raw data. If the CRC count is increasing on a particular interface, it indicates that there might be an
issue with the cabling, which is causing data corruption. References:
Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 2.1 Given a scenario, troubleshoot common physical connectivity issues.

NEW QUESTION: 117

A network administrator is configuring logging on an edge switch. The requirements are to log each time a
switch port goes up or down. Which of the following logging levels will provide this information?
A. Warnings
B. Notifications
C. Alert
D. Errors
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Notifications are the lowest logging level and will provide the desired information regarding switch port up/down
activity. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, notifications "are used for logging normal activities,
such as port up/down events, link changes, and link flaps."

NEW QUESTION: 118

A security engineer is installing a new IOS on the network. The engineer has asked a network administrator to
ensure all traffic entering and leaving the router interface is available for the IDS. Which of the following should
the network administrator do?
A. Install a network tap for the IDS
B. Configure ACLs to route traffic to the IDS.
C. Install an additional NIC into the IDS
D. Install a loopback adapter for the IDS.
E. Add an additional route on the router for the IDS.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
a network tap is a way of connecting an IDS out of band, which means it does not interfere with the normal
network traffic. A network tap allows you to view a copy of the network traffic transmitted over the media being
tapped.

NEW QUESTION: 119

A network administrator is given the network 80.87.78.0/26 for specific device assignments. Which of the
following describes this network?
A. 80.87.78 0 - 80.87.78.14
B. 80.87.78 0 - 80.87.78.110
C. 80.87.78 1 - 80.87.78.62
D. 80.87.78.1 - 80.87.78.158
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The network 80.87.78.0/26 is a Class A network with a subnet mask of /26, which means that it contains 26 bits
of network information and 6 bits of host information. The range of valid host addresses for this network is
80.87.78.1 to 80.87.78.62. Any addresses outside of this range are reserved for special purposes or are not
used.

NEW QUESTION: 120

A. Adjust the SSH settings on the network device.
B. Change the time on the syslog server
C. Update the network device firmware
D. Adjust the timeout settings on the syslog server
E. Change the NTP settings on the network device
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 121

A network technician is selecting a replacement for a damaged fiber cable that goes directly to an SFP
transceiver on a network switch. Which of the following cable connectors should be used?
A. LC
B. RJ45
C. MT
D. F-type
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

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NEW QUESTION: 122

A company wants to implement a large number of WAPs throughout its building and allow users to be able to
move around the building without dropping their connections Which of the following pieces of equipment would
be able to handle this requirement?
A. A VPN concentrator
B. A load balancer
C. A wireless controller
D. A RADIUS server
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A wireless controller would be able to handle the requirement of implementing a large number of WAPs
throughout the building and allowing users to move around without dropping their connections. A wireless
controller is a device that centrally manages and configures multiple wireless access points (WAPs) on a
network. It can provide features such as load balancing, roaming, security, QoS, and monitoring for the wireless
network. A wireless controller can also support wireless mesh networks, where some WAPs act as relays for
other WAPs to extend the wireless coverage. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/wireless/wireless-lan-controller/index.html

NEW QUESTION: 123

A security administrator is trying to prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients on the
network. Which of the following would MOST likely prevent this and allow the network to continue to operate?
A. Configuring DHCP snooping on the switch
B. Preventing broadcast messages leaving the client network
C. Blocking ports 67/68 on the client network
D. Enabling port security on access ports
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients on the network and allow the network to
continue to operate, the security administrator should consider configuring DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration
Protocol) snooping on the switch. DHCP snooping is a security feature that is used to prevent unauthorized
DHCP servers from operating on a network. It works by allowing the switch to monitor and validate DHCP traffic
on the network, ensuring that only legitimate DHCP messages are forwarded to clients.
This can help to prevent incorrect IP addresses from being assigned to clients, as it ensures that only
authorized DHCP servers are able to provide IP addresses to clients on the network.

NEW QUESTION: 124

An ARP request is broadcasted and sends the following request.
''Who is 192.168.1.200? Tell 192.168.1.55''
At which of the following layers of the OSI model does this request operate?
A. Application
B. Data link
C. Transport
D. Network
E. Session
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
An ARP request operates at the data link layer of the OSI model. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a
protocol that maps IP addresses to MAC addresses on a local area network. It allows devices to communicate
with each other without knowing their MAC addresses beforehand. ARP operates at the data link layer (layer
2) of the OSI model, which is responsible for framing and addressing data packets on a physical medium.
References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/13788-3.html

NEW QUESTION: 125

A network administrator is downloading a large patch that will be uploaded to several enterprise switches
simultaneously during the day's upgrade cycle. Which of the following should the administrator do to help
ensure the upgrade process will be less likely to cause problems with the switches?
A. Confirm the patch's MD5 hash prior to the upgrade
B. Schedule the switches to reboot after an appropriate amount of time.
C. Download each switch's current configuration before the upgrade
D. Utilize FTP rather than TFTP to upload the patch
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The network administrator should confirm the patch's MD5 hash prior to the upgrade to help ensure the
upgrade process will be less likely to cause problems with the switches. MD5 (Message Digest 5) is a
cryptographic hash function that produces a 128-bit hash value for any given input. It can be used to verify the
integrity and authenticity of a file by comparing its hash value with a known or expected value. If the hash
values match, it means that the file has not been corrupted or tampered with during transmission or storage. If
the hash values do not match, it means that the file may be damaged or malicious and should not be used for
the upgrade. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/secure-shell-ssh/15292-scp.html
NEW QUESTION: 126
A technician manages a DHCP scope but needs to allocate a portion of the scope's subnet for statically
assigned devices. Which of the following DHCP concepts would be BEST to use to prevent IP address
conflicts?
A. Dynamic assignment
B. Exclusion range
C. Address reservation
D. IP helper
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
To prevent IP address conflicts when allocating a portion of a DHCP scope's subnet for statically assigned
devices, it is recommended to use the concept of DHCP exclusion ranges. DHCP exclusion ranges allow a
DHCP administrator to specify a range of IP addresses within the scope that should not be assigned to DHCP
clients. This can be useful in situations where some devices on the network need to be assigned static IP
addresses, as it ensures that the statically assigned addresses do not overlap with addresses assigned by the
DHCP server. To set up a DHCP exclusion range, the administrator needs to specify the start and end IP
addresses of the range, as well as the subnet mask. The DHCP server will then exclude the specified range of
addresses from its pool of available addresses, and will not assign them to DHCP clients. By using DHCP
exclusion ranges, the technician can ensure that the statically assigned addresses do not conflict with
addresses assigned by the DHCP server, and can prevent IP address conflicts on the network.
Anthony Sequeira
"Another frequent configuration you might make in a DHCP implementation is to configure an exclusion range.
This is a portion of the address pool that you never want leased out to clients in the network. Perhaps you have
numbered your servers 192.168.1.1-192.168.1.10. Because the servers are statically configured with these
addresses, you exclude these addresses from the 192.168.1.0/24 pool of addresses." Mike Meyers
"Exclusion ranges represent an IP address or range of IP addresses from the pool of addresses that are not to
be given out by the DHCP server. Exclusions should be made for the static addresses manually configured on
servers and router interfaces, so these IP addresses won't be offered to DHCP clients."

NEW QUESTION: 127

Which of the following would need to be configured to ensure a device with a specific MAC address is always
assigned the same IP address from DHCP?
A. Scope options
B. Reservation
C. Dynamic assignment
D. Exclusion
E. Static assignment
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
A reservation should be configured to ensure a device with a specific MAC address is always assigned the
same IP address from DHCP. A reservation is a feature of DHCP that allows an administrator to assign a fixed
IP address to a device based on its MAC address. This way, the device will always receive the same IP
address from the DHCP server, even if it is powered off or disconnected from the network for a long time.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/troubleshoot/configure-dhcp-reservations

NEW QUESTION: 128

Which of the following can have multiple VLAN interfaces?
A. Bridge
B. Layer 3 switch
C. Hub
D. Load balancer
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 129

A business purchased redundant internet connectivity from two separate ISPs. Which of the following is the
business MOST likely implementing?
A. NIC teaming
B. Hot site
C. Multipathing
D. Load balancing
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Multipathing is a technique that allows a device to use more than one path to communicate with another device.
This provides redundancy, load balancing, and fault tolerance for network connections. A business that
purchased redundant internet connectivity from two separate ISPs is most likely implementing multipathing to
ensure continuous access to the internet in case one ISP fails or becomes congested. References: CompTIA
Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 437; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam
N10-008), page 16-8.

NEW QUESTION: 130

A network administrator is troubleshooting a PC that cannot connect to the LAN. The administrator runs the
ipconfig command at the command prompt and gets the following output:
Which of the following is misconfigured?
A. Subnet mask
B. Physical address
C. DNS server
D. DHCP server
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The subnet mask is a binary value that defines how many bits of an IP address are used to identify the network
and how many bits are used to identify the host. The subnet mask also determines the size and number of
subnets in a network. The ipconfig command shows the current IP configuration of a device, including the
subnet mask. In this case, the subnet mask is misconfigured because it does not match the network address of
the device. The device has an IP address of 192.168.1.55, which belongs to the network 192.168.1.0/24 (with a
subnet mask of 255.255.255.0). However, the subnet mask is set to 225.225.225.224, which is an invalid value
that does not correspond to any network prefix length. This causes the device to be unable to communicate
with other devices on the same network or access the default gateway. References: CompTIA Network+
N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 109; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008),
page 5-4.

NEW QUESTION: 131

Which of the following BEST describes a spirt-tunnel client-to-server VPN connection?
A. The client sends an network traffic down the VPN tunnel
B. The client has two different IP addresses that can be connected to a remote site from two different ISPs to
ensure availability
C. The client sends some network traffic down the VPN tunnel and other traffic to the local gateway.
D. The client connects to multiple remote sites at the same time
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
In a split-tunnel VPN, the client can access both the local network and the remote network simultaneously, with
some network traffic sent through the VPN tunnel and other traffic sent to the local gateway. This approach
allows for more efficient use of bandwidth and reduces the load on the VPN server. It also allows the client to
continue accessing local resources while connected to the remote network.

NEW QUESTION: 132

A security team would like to use a system in an isolated network to record the actions of potential attackers.
Which of the following solutions is the security team implementing?
A. Perimeter network
B. Honeypot
C. Zero trust infrastructure
D. Network segmentation
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The solution that the security team is implementing to record the actions of potential attackers in an isolated
network is a honeypot. A honeypot is a decoy system that simulates a real network or service, but has no
actual value or function. A honeypot is designed to attract and trap attackers who try to infiltrate or compromise
the network, and then monitor and analyze their behavior and techniques. A honeypot can help the security
team learn about the attackers' motives, methods, and tools, and improve their defense strategies accordingly.
References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 358; The Official CompTIA Network+
Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 14-1.

NEW QUESTION: 133

Which of the following policies is MOST commonly used for guest captive portals?
A. AUP
B. DLP
C. BYOD
D. NDA
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
AUP stands for Acceptable Use Policy, which is a policy that defines the rules and guidelines for using a
network or service. A guest captive portal is a web page that requires users to agree to the AUP before
accessing the Internet or other network resources. This is a common way to enforce security and legal
compliance for guest users. References:
https://www.arubanetworks.com/techdocs/Instant_87_WebHelp/Content/instant-ug/captive-portal/captive-portal

NEW QUESTION: 134

A company, which is located in a coastal town, retrofitted an office building for a new data center. The
underground fiber optics were brought in and connected to the switches in the basement network MDF. A
server data center was built on the fifth floor with the two rooms vertically connected by fiber optics. Which of
the following types of environmental sensors is MOST needed?
A. Temperature sensor in the network MDF
B. Water sensor in the network MDF
C. Temperature sensor in the data center
D. Water sensor in the data center
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A water sensor is a type of environmental sensor that detects the presence of water or moisture in an area. A
water sensor is most needed in a network main distribution frame (MDF) that is located in a basement near
underground fiber-optic cables. A network MDF is a central point where all the network connections converge
and where network equipment such as switches and routers are located. If water leaks into the basement and
damages the fiber-optic cables or the network equipment, it can cause network outages, performance
degradation, or data loss. A water sensor can alert the network administrator of any water intrusion and help
prevent or minimize the damage. References:
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 446)
NEW QUESTION: 135
A company ranis out a largo event space and includes wireless internet access for each tenant. Tenants
reserve a two-hour window from the company each week, which includes a tenant-specific SSID However, all
users share the company's network hardware.

The network support team is receiving complaints from tenants that some users are unable to connect to the
wireless network Upon investigation, the support teams discovers a pattern indicating that after a tenant with a
particularly large attendance ends its sessions, tenants throughout the day are unable to connect.
The following settings are common lo all network configurations:
Which of the following actions would MOST likely reduce this Issue? (Select TWO).
A. Reduce the DHCP lease time to four hours.
B. Disable AP isolation
C. Change the default gateway to 10.0.0.1.
D. Change the DNS server to 10.1.10.1.
E. Change to WPA encryption
F. Change the DHCP scope end to 10.1.10.250
G. Change the subnet mask lo 255.255.255.192.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 136

Which of the following must be functioning properly in order for a network administrator to create an accurate
timeline during a troubleshooting process?
A. IP helper
B. NTP
C. Syslog
D. MySQL
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
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NEW QUESTION: 137

Which of the following disaster recovery metrics describes the average length of time a piece of equipment can
be expected to operate normally?
A. RPO
B. RTO
C. MTTR
D. MTBF
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
MTBF is the disaster recovery metric that describes the average length of time a piece of equipment can be
expected to operate normally. MTBF stands for mean time between failures, which is a measure of the
reliability and availability of a device or system. MTBF is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the
number of failures that occurred during that time. MTBF indicates how often a device or system fails and how
long it can run without interruption. A higher MTBF means a lower failure rate and a longer operational life
span. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is Mean Time Between Failures
(MTBF)? | Definition & Examples | Forcepoint

NEW QUESTION: 138

A company joins a bank's financial network and establishes a connection to the clearinghouse servers in the
range 192 168.124.0/27. An IT technician then realizes the range exists within the VM pool at the data center.
Which of the following is the BEST way for the technician to connect to the bank's servers?
A. SLAAC
B. CIDR
C. NAT
D. PAT
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 139

A Chief Information Officer (CIO) wants to improve the availability of a company's SQL database Which of the
following technologies should be utilized to achieve maximum availability?
A. Clustering
B. Port aggregation
C. NIC teaming
D. Snapshots
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Clustering is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers or instances together to provide high
availability and fault tolerance for a database. Clustering can help improve the availability of a SQL database by
allowing automatic failover and load balancing between the cluster nodes. If one node fails or becomes
overloaded, another node can take over the database operations without disrupting the service. References:
https://www.educba.com/sql-cluster/

NEW QUESTION: 140

A. A port scan printout
B. A consolidated report of various network devices
C. A report from the SIEM tool
D. A report from a vulnerability scan done yesterday
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
SIEM stands for Security Information and Event Management, which is a tool that collects, analyzes, and
correlates data from various network devices and sources to provide alerts and reports on security incidents
and events. A report from the SIEM tool can provide a comprehensive overview of the network alerts from the
past week to the executive staff, highlighting any potential threats, vulnerabilities, or anomalies. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-siem

NEW QUESTION: 141

Which of the following devices have the capability to allow communication between two different subnetworks?
(Select TWO).
A. Layer 2 switch
B. Access point
C. IDS
D. Layer 3 switch
E. Media converter
F. Router
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 142

A company that uses VoIP telephones is experiencing intermittent issues with one-way audio and dropped
conversations The manufacturer says the system will work if ping times are less than 50ms. The company has
recorded the following ping times:

Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. Attenuation
B. Latency
C. VLAN mismatch
D. Jitter
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Jitter is most likely causing the issue of intermittent one-way audio and dropped conversations for the company
that uses VoIP telephones. Jitter is a variation in delay of packets arriving at the destination. It can cause
choppy or distorted audio quality for VoIP applications, especially over WAN links that have limited bandwidth
and high latency. The recommended jitter for VoIP is less than 10ms . The company has recorded ping times
that exceed 50ms, which indicates high jitter and latency on their network. References:
https://www.voip-info.org/voip-jitter/

NEW QUESTION: 143

A network technician is manually configuring the network settings for a new device and is told the network block
is 192.168.0.0/20. Which of the following subnets should the technician use?
A. 255.255.128.0
B. 255.255.192.0
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.248.0
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A subnet mask is a binary number that indicates which bits of an IP address belong to the network portion and
which bits belong to the host portion. A slash notation (/n) indicates how many bits are used for the network
portion. A /20 notation means that 20 bits are used for the network portion and 12 bits are used for the host
portion. To convert /20 to a dotted decimal notation, we need to write 20 ones followed by 12 zeros in binary
and then divide them into four octets separated by dots. This gives us
11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000 or 255.255.240.0 in decimal. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/950/subnet-mask

NEW QUESTION: 144

A network technician is observing the behavior of an unmanaged switch when a new device is added to the
network and transmits data. Which of the following BEST describes how the switch processes this information?
A. The data is flooded out of every port. including the one on which it came in.
B. The data is flooded out of every port but only in the VLAN where it is located.
C. The data is flooded out of every port, except the one on which it came in
D. The data is flooded out of every port, excluding the VLAN where it is located
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The switch processes the data by flooding it out of every port, except the one on which it came in. Flooding is a
process where a switch sends a data frame to all ports except the source port when it does not have an entry
for the destination MAC address in its MAC address table. Flooding allows the switch to learn the MAC
addresses of the devices connected to its ports and update its MAC address table accordingly. Flooding also
ensures that the data frame reaches its intended destination, even if the switch does not know its location.
References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/spanning-tree-protocol/10556-16.html

NEW QUESTION: 145

A small, family-run business uses a single SOHO router to provide Internet and WiFi to its employees At the
start of a new week, employees come in and find their usual WiFi network is no longer available, and there is a
new wireless network to which they cannot connect. Given that information, which of the following should have
been done to avoid this situation'
A. The device firmware should have been kept current.
B. Unsecure protocols should have been disabled.
C. Parental controls should have been enabled
D. The default credentials should have been changed
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The default credentials are the username and password that come with a device or service when it is first
installed or configured. They are often easy to guess or find online, which makes them vulnerable to
unauthorized access or attacks. The default credentials should be changed to something unique and strong as
soon as possible to avoid this situation. If the default credentials were not changed, someone could have
accessed the SOHO router and changed the WiFi settings without the employees' knowledge. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/network-security-basics-6-easy-ways-to-protect-your-network

NEW QUESTION: 146

Which of the following ports is commonly used by VoIP phones?
A. 20
B. 143
C. 445
D. 5060
Answer: D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
TCP/UDP port 5060 is commonly used by VoIP phones. It is the default port for SIP (Session Initiation
Protocol), which is a signaling protocol that establishes, modifies, and terminates multimedia sessions over IP
networks. SIP is widely used for VoIP applications such as voice and video calls. References:
https://www.voip-info.org/session-initiation-protocol/

NEW QUESTION: 147

A company is considering shifting its business to the cloud. The management team is concerned at the
availability of the third-party cloud service. Which of the following should the management team consult to
determine the promised availability of the cloud provider?
A. Memorandum of understanding
B. Business continuity plan
C. Disaster recovery plan
D. Service-level agreement
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A Service-level agreement (SLA) is a document that outlines the responsibilities of a cloud service provider and
the customer. It typically includes the agreed-upon availability of the cloud service provider, the expected
uptime for the service, and the cost of any downtime or other service interruptions. Consulting the SLA is the
best way for the management team to determine the promised availability of the cloud provider. Reference:
CompTIA Cloud+ Study Guide, 6th Edition, page 28.

NEW QUESTION: 148

A network administrator is setting up a new phone system and needs to define the location where VoIP phones
can download configuration files. Which of the following DHCP services can be used to accomplish this task?
A. Scope options
B. Exclusion ranges
C. Lease time
D. Relay
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To define the location where VoIP phones can download configuration files, the network administrator can use
scope options within the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) service. Scope options are a set of
values that can be configured within a DHCP scope, which defines a range of IP addresses that can be leased
to clients on a network. One of the scope options that can be configured is the option for the location of the
configuration file server, which specifies the URL or IP address of the server where the configuration files can
be downloaded.
https://pbxbook.com/voip/dhcpcfg.html

NEW QUESTION: 149

An application team is deploying a new application. The application team would like the network team to
monitor network performance and create alerts if fluctuations in the round-trip time occur for that traffic.
Which of the following should the network team monitor to meet this requirement?
A. Bandwidth
B. Latency
C. Loss
D. Cyclic redundancy check
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Latency, also known as round-trip time (RTT), is the time it takes for a data packet to travel from a source to its
destination and back again. It is a key indicator of network performance and can be used to identify fluctuations
that may impact the user experience of an application.
Bandwidth, loss, and cyclic redundancy check (CRC) are other important network performance metrics, but
they are not directly related to the application team's requirement to monitor for fluctuations in RTT.
References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Objectives, Objective 1.6: Network Performance Monitoring CompTIA
Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 10: Network Performance Monitoring and Troubleshooting Additional
Notes:
The network team can use a variety of tools and techniques to monitor RTT, such as ping, traceroute, and
network monitoring software.
When setting up alerts, the network team should consider the acceptable range of RTT for the application.
They should also configure alerts to trigger at different levels of severity, so that they can take prompt action to
resolve any issues.

NEW QUESTION: 150

A. Uptime
B. NetFlow baseline
C. SNMP traps
D. Interface statistics
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Uptime is a statistic that can be used to determine the availability of the remote network equipment. Uptime is
the amount of time that a device or system has been running without experiencing any failures or disruptions.
It is commonly expressed as a percentage of total time, such as 99.99% uptime. By measuring the uptime of
the network equipment at the remote retail locations, the engineer can determine how reliable and available the
equipment is.

NEW QUESTION: 151

A technician wants to monitor and provide traffic segmentation across the network. The technician would like to
assign each department a specific identifier. Which of the following will the technician MOST likely use?
A. Flow control
B. Traffic shaping
C. VLAN tagging
D. Network performance baselines
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To monitor and provide traffic segmentation across the network, a technician may use the concept of VLANs
(Virtual Local Area Networks). VLANs are a way of dividing a single physical network into multiple logical
networks, each with its own unique identifier or "tag." By assigning each department a specific VLAN identifier,
the technician can segment the network traffic and ensure that the different departments' traffic is kept separate
from one another. This can help to improve network security, performance, and scalability, as well as allowing
for better monitoring and control of the network traffic.
To implement VLANs, the technician will need to configure VLAN tagging on the network devices, such as
switches and routers, and assign each department's devices to the appropriate VLAN. The technician may also
need to configure VLAN trunking to allow the different VLANs to communicate with each other.
By using VLANs, the technician can effectively monitor and segment the network traffic, providing better control
and visibility into the network.

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NEW QUESTION: 152

A company is designing a SAN and would like to use STP as its medium for communication. Which of the
following protocols would BEST suit me company's needs?
A. SFTP
B. Fibre Channel
C. iSCSI
D. FTP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A SAN also employs a series of protocols enabling software to communicate or prepare data for storage. The
most common protocol is the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP), which maps SCSI commands over FC technology.
The iSCSI SANs will employ an iSCSI protocol that maps SCSI commands over TCP/IP.
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a protocol used to prevent loops in Ethernet networks, and it is not a medium
for communication in a storage area network (SAN). However, Fibre Channel is a protocol that is specifically
designed for high-speed data transfer in SAN environments. It is a dedicated channel technology that provides
high throughput and low latency, making it ideal for SANs. Therefore, Fibre Channel would be the best protocol
for the company to use for its SAN. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol), iSCSI (Internet Small Computer
System Interface), and FTP (File Transfer Protocol) are protocols used for transferring files over a network and
are not suitable for use in a SAN environment.

NEW QUESTION: 153

A network engineer performs the following tasks to increase server bandwidth:
Connects two network cables from the server to a switch stack
Configure LACP on the switchports
Verifies the correct configurations on the switch interfaces
Which of the following needs to be configured on the server?
A. Load balancing
B. Multipathing
C. NIC teaming
D. Clustering
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
NIC teaming is a technique that combines two or more network interface cards (NICs) on a server into a single
logical interface that can increase bandwidth, provide redundancy, and balance traffic. NIC teaming can be
configured with different modes and algorithms depending on the desired outcome. Link Aggregation Control
Protocol (LACP) is a protocol that enables NIC teaming by dynamically bundling multiple links between two
devices into one logical link. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/technologies/nic-teaming/nic-teaming

NEW QUESTION: 154

Which of the following OSI model layers are responsible for handling packets from the sources to the
destination and checking for errors? (Select two).
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Data link
D. Network
E. Presentation
F. Application
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The data link and network layers are responsible for handling packets from the source to the destination and
checking for errors. The data link layer is the second layer of the OSI model, which is a conceptual framework
that describes how different network functions are organized and interact. The data link layer is responsible for
providing reliable and efficient data transmission between two adjacent nodes on a network. The data link layer
uses frames as its unit of data, and adds a header and a trailer to each frame that contain information such as
source and destination MAC addresses, frame type, and error detection code. The data link layer can check for
errors by using techniques such as parity check, checksum, or cyclic redundancy check (CRC). The network
layer is the third layer of the OSI model, which is responsible for providing logical addressing and routing of
packets across different networks. The network layer uses packets as its unit of data, and adds a header to
each packet that contains information such as source and destination IP addresses, protocol type, and hop
count. The network layer can check for errors by using techniques such as Internet Control Message Protocol
(ICMP), which can send and receive error messages or diagnostic information. References:
[CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Data Link Layer - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics,
Network Layer - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

NEW QUESTION: 155

Access to a datacenter should be individually recorded by a card reader even when multiple employees enter
the facility at the same time. Which of the following allows the enforcement of this policy?
A. Motion detection
B. Access control vestibules
C. Smart lockers
D. Cameras
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The most effective security mechanism against physical intrusions due to stolen credentials would likely be a
combination of several of these options. However, of the options provided, the most effective security
mechanism would probably be an access control vestibule. An access control vestibule is a secure area that is
located between the outer perimeter of a facility and the inner secure area. It is designed to provide an
additional layer of security by requiring that individuals pass through a series of security checks before being
allowed access to the secure area. This could include biometric authentication, access card readers, and
motion detection cameras.
Access control vestibules allow the enforcement of the policy that access to a datacenter should be individually
recorded by a card reader even when multiple employees enter the facility at the same time. An access control
vestibule is a physical security device that consists of two doors with an interlocking mechanism. Only one door
can be opened at a time, and only one person can pass through each door. This prevents tailgating or
piggybacking, where unauthorized persons follow authorized persons into a secure area.
An access control vestibule can also be integrated with a card reader or other authentication system to record
each individual's access. References: https://www.boonedam.us/blog/what-are-access-control-vestibules

NEW QUESTION: 156

A company wants to implement a disaster recovery site for non-critical applications, which can tolerate a short
period of downtime. Which of the following types of sites should the company implement to achieve this goal?
A. Hot
B. Cold
C. warm
D. Passive
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The type of site that the company should implement for non-critical applications that can tolerate a short period
of downtime is a warm site. A warm site is a disaster recovery site that has some pre-installed equipment and
software, but not as much as a hot site, which is fully operational and ready to take over the primary site's
functions in case of a disaster. A warm site requires some time and effort to activate and synchronize with the
primary site, but not as much as a cold site, which has no equipment or software installed and requires a lot of
configuration and testing. A passive site is not a common term for a disaster recovery site, but it could refer to a
site that only receives backups from the primary site and does not actively participate in the network operations.
References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 347; The Official CompTIA Network+
Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 13-10.
NEW QUESTION: 157
Client devices cannot enter a network, and the network administrator determines the DHCP scope is
exhausted. The administrator wants to avoid creating a new DHCP pool. Which of the following can the
administrator perform to resolve the issue?
A. Install load balancers
B. Install more switches
C. Decrease the number of VLANs
D. Reduce the lease time
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To resolve the issue of DHCP scope exhaustion without creating a new DHCP pool, the administrator can
reduce the lease time. By decreasing the lease time, the IP addresses assigned by DHCP will be released back
to the DHCP scope more quickly, allowing them to be assigned to new devices.
References:
CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, Chapter 2: The OSI Model and
Networking Protocols, Objective 2.3: Given a scenario, implement and configure the appropriate addressing
schema.
https://www.networkcomputing.com/data-centers/10-tips-optimizing-dhcp-performance

NEW QUESTION: 158

An engineer needs to verity the external record tor SMTP traffic. The engineer logged in to the server and
entered the nslookup command. Which of the following commands should the engineer send before entering
the DNS name?
A. set querytype=Mx
B. set domain=company.mail.com
C. is -d company-mail.com
D. set type=A
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 159

Network connectivity in an extensive forest reserve was achieved using fiber optics. A network fault was
detected, and now the repair team needs to check the integrity of the fiber cable. Which of me following actions
can reduce repair time?
A. Using a multimeter to locate the fault point
B. Using a tone generator and wire map to determine the fault location
C. Using an OTDR In one end of the optic cable to get the liber length information
D. Using a spectrum analyzer and comparing the current wavelength with a working baseline
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 160

A. Tailgating
B. Pipgybacking
C. Shoulder surfing
D. Phisning
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The difference between piggybacking and tailgaiting is that with piggybacking, the person is willfully and
intentionally letting you in. In this particular case, the person caught the door before it closed, so it is tailgating.
Tailgating is a physical security attack that occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person
through a secured door or gate without their knowledge or consent. Tailgating can allow an attacker to bypass
access control mechanisms and gain entry to restricted areas or resources. Tailgating can also pose a safety
risk for the authorized person and other occupants of the facility.
Piggybacking is a physical security attack that occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized
person through a secured door or gate with their knowledge or consent. Piggybacking can also allow an
attacker to bypass access control mechanisms and gain entry to restricted areas or resources. Piggybacking
can also violate security policies and compromise the accountability of the authorized person.
Shoulder surfing is a physical security attack that occurs when an unauthorized person observes or records an
authorized person's confidential information, such as passwords, PINs, or credit card numbers. Shoulder
surfing can allow an attacker to steal credentials and access sensitive data or systems. Shoulder surfing can
also violate privacy and confidentiality rights of the authorized person.
Phishing is a cyber security attack that occurs when an unauthorized person sends fraudulent emails or
messages that appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, companies, or government agencies.
Phishing can trick recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing
personal or financial information. Phishing can allow an attacker to install malware, steal credentials, or perform
identity theft. Phishing does not involve physical access to secured doors or gates.

NEW QUESTION: 161

A network technician is investigating an issue with a desktop that is not connecting to the network. The desktop
was connecting successfully the previous day, and no changes were made to the environment. The technician
locates the switchport where the device is connected and observes the LED status light on the switchport is not
lit even though the desktop is turned on Other devices that arc plugged into the switch are connecting to the
network successfully Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the desktop not connecting?
A. Transceiver mismatch
B. VLAN mismatch
C. Port security
D. Damaged cable
E. Duplex mismatch
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A damaged cable is most likely the cause of the desktop not connecting to the network. A damaged cable can
cause physical layer issues such as loss of signal, attenuation, interference, or crosstalk. These issues can
prevent the desktop from establishing a link with the switch and result in the LED status light on the switchport
being off. Other possible causes of physical layer issues are faulty connectors, ports, or transceivers.
References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/ethernet/14119-37.html

NEW QUESTION: 162

Which of the following transceiver types can support up to 40Gbps?
A. SFP+
B. QSFP+
C. QSFP
D. SFP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
QSFP+ is a transceiver type that can support up to 40Gbps. It stands for Quad Small Form-factor Pluggable
Plus and uses four lanes of data to achieve high-speed transmission. It is commonly used for data center and
high-performance computing applications. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/transceiver-
modules/data_sheet_c78-6600

NEW QUESTION: 163

A technician performed a manual reconfiguration of a firewall, and network connectivity was reestablished.
Some connection events that were previously sent to a syslog server are no longer being generated by the
flrewal Which of Vie following should the technician perform to fix the Issue?
A. Adjust the proper logging level on the new firewall.
B. Tune the filter for logging the severity level on the syslog server.
C. Activate NetFlow traffic between the syslog server and the firewall
D. Restart the SNMP service running on the syslog server.
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Logging level is a setting that determines what types of events are recorded by a device and sent to a syslog
server. Different logging levels have different severity levels, ranging from emergency to debug. If the
technician performed a manual reconfiguration of the firewall, it is possible that the logging level was changed
or reset to a lower level that does not include the connection events that were previously sent to the syslog
server. To fix the issue, the technician should adjust the proper logging level on the new firewall to match the
desired level of detail and severity for the connection events. References: Network+ Study Guide Objective
3.4: Explain common scanning, monitoring and patching processes and summarize their expected outputs.
Subobjective: Syslog.

NEW QUESTION: 164

Which of the following is an advanced distance vector routing protocol that automates routing tables and also
uses some features of link-state routing protocols?
A. OSPF
B. RIP
C. EIGRP
D. BGP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
EIGRP is an advanced distance vector routing protocol that is able to automatically update routing tables and
also uses features of link-state routing protocols, such as the ability to send updates about the current topology
of the network. EIGRP also has the ability to use a variety of algorithms to determine the best route for a packet
to take, allowing for more efficient routing across the network.

NEW QUESTION: 165

A network administrator is configuring a database server and would like to ensure the database engine is
listening on a certain port. Which of the following commands should the administrator use to accomplish this
goal?
A. nslookup
B. netstat -a
C. ipconfig /a
D. arp -a
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
netstat -a is a command that displays information about active TCP connections and listening ports on a
system. A network administrator can use netstat -a to check if the database engine is listening on a certain port,
as well as verify if there are any connections established to or from that port. References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-netstat

NEW QUESTION: 166

Which of the following refers to a weakness in a mechanism or technical process?
A. Vulnerability
B. Risk
C. Exploit
D. Threat
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The term that refers to a weakness in a mechanism or technical process is vulnerability. A vulnerability is a flaw
or gap in a system's security that can be exploited by an attacker to gain unauthorized access, compromise
data, or cause damage. A vulnerability can be caused by design errors, configuration errors, software bugs,
human errors, or environmental factors. For example, an outdated software version that has known security
holes is a vulnerability that can be exploited by malware or hackers. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008
Certification Study Guide, page 342; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page
13-7.
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NEW QUESTION: 167

A user reports that a crucial fileshare is unreachable following a network upgrade that was completed the night
before. A network technician confirms the problem exists. Which of the following troubleshooting Steps should
the network technician perform NEXT?
A. Establish a theory of probable cause.
B. Implement a solution to fix the problem.
C. Create a plan of action to resolve the problem.
D. Document the problem and the solution.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Establishing a theory of probable cause is the third step in the general troubleshooting process, after identifying
the problem and gathering information. Establishing a theory of probable cause involves using the information
gathered to formulate one or more possible explanations for the problem and testing them to verify or eliminate
them. In this scenario, the network technician has confirmed the problem exists and should proceed to
establish a theory of probable cause based on the information available, such as the network upgrade that was
completed the night before.
Implementing a solution to fix the problem is the fifth step in the general troubleshooting process, after
establishing a plan of action. Implementing a solution involves applying the chosen method or technique to
resolve the problem and verifying its effectiveness. In this scenario, the network technician has not established
a plan of action yet and should not implement a solution without knowing the cause of the problem.
Creating a plan of action to resolve the problem is the fourth step in the general troubleshooting process, after
establishing a theory of probable cause. Creating a plan of action involves selecting the best method or
technique to address the problem based on the available resources, constraints, and risks. In this scenario, the
network technician has not established a theory of probable cause yet and should not create a plan of action
without knowing the cause of the problem.
Documenting the problem and the solution is the seventh and final step in the general troubleshooting process,
after implementing preventive measures. Documenting the problem and the solution involves recording the
details of the problem, its symptoms, its cause, its solution, and its preventive measures for future reference
and improvement. In this scenario, the network technician has not implemented preventive measures yet and
should not document the problem and the solution without resolving and preventing it.

NEW QUESTION: 168

A technician is searching for a device that is connected to the network and has the device's physical network
address. Which of the following should the technician review on the switch to locate the device's network port?
A. IP route table
B. VLAN tag
C. MAC table
D. QoS tag
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To locate a device's network port on a switch, a technician should review the switch's MAC address table. The
MAC address table maintains a list of MAC addresses of devices connected to each port on the switch. By
checking the MAC address of the device in question, the technician can identify the port to which the device is
connected.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Sixth Edition by Glen E. Clarke

NEW QUESTION: 169

Which of the following is most likely to have the HIGHEST latency while being the most accessible?
A. Satellite
B. 4G
C. DSL
D. Cable
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 170

A. Layer 1
B. Layer 2
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 4
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
An IP header can be found at the third layer of the OSI model, also known as the network layer. This layer is
responsible for logical addressing, routing, and forwarding of data packets.
References:
CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, Chapter 2: Network Models, p.
82

NEW QUESTION: 171

Which of the following should be used to manage outside cables that need to be routed to various multimode
uplinks?
A. Fiber distribution panel
B. 110 punchdown block
C. PDU
D. TIA/EIA-568A patch bay
E. Cat 6 patch panel
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A fiber distribution panel is a device that provides a central location for connecting and managing fiber optic
cables and optical modules. It can support various types and speeds of fiber optic links, including multimode
uplinks. Therefore, a fiber distribution panel should be used to manage outside cables that need to be routed to
various multimode uplinks.

NEW QUESTION: 172

Which of the following allows for an devices within a network to share a highly reliable time source?
A. NTP
B. SNMP
C. SIP
D. DNS
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Network Time Protocol (NTP) is a protocol used to maintain a highly accurate and reliable clock time on all
devices within a network. NTP works by synchronizing the time of all the devices within a network to a single,
highly accurate time source. This allows for the time of all the devices to be kept in sync with each other,
ensuring a consistent and reliable time source for all devices within the network.

NEW QUESTION: 173

A technician is deploying a new switch model and would like to add it to the existing network monitoring
software. The technician wants to know what metrics can be gathered from a given switch. Which of the
following should the technician utilize for the switch?
A. MIB
B. Trap
C. Syslog
D. Audit log
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To determine what metrics can be gathered from a given switch, a technician should utilize the Management
Information Base (MIB). The MIB is a database of network management information that is used to manage
and monitor network devices. It contains information about device configuration, status, and performance.
References: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Network Security

NEW QUESTION: 174

A newly installed multifunction copier needs to be set up so scanned documents can be emailed to recipients.
Which of the following ports from the copier's IP address should be allowed?
A. 22
B. 25
C. 53
D. 80
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Port 25 is the port number that is commonly used for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), which is a protocol
that allows sending and receiving email messages over a network1. Port 25 from the copier's IP address
should be allowed so that scanned documents can be emailed to recipients.
Port 22 is the port number that is commonly used for Secure Shell (SSH), which is a protocol that allows secure
and encrypted remote access and control of a device over a network1. Port 22 from the copier's IP address is
not necessary for emailing scanned documents.
Port 53 is the port number that is commonly used for Domain Name System (DNS), which is a protocol that
allows resolving domain names to IP addresses and vice versa on a network1. Port 53 from the copier's IP
address is not necessary for emailing scanned documents.
Port 80 is the port number that is commonly used for Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), which is a protocol
that allows transferring web pages and other resources over a network1. Port 80 from the copier's IP address is
not necessary for emailing scanned documents.

NEW QUESTION: 175

A technician is consolidating a topology with multiple SSlDs into one unique SSID deployment. Which of the
following features will be possible after this new configuration?
A. MU-MIMO
B. WPA
C. Seamless roaming
D. Basic service set
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 176

SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access
Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:
The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!
The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points
should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed INSTRUCTONS Click on the wireless
devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given
requirements.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
See explanation below.
Explanation
On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows

Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

Exhibit 2 as follows
Access Point Name AP2
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

Exhibit 3 as follows
Access Point Name AP3
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated
Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

NEW QUESTION: 177
Which of the following technologies provides a failover mechanism for the default gateway?
A. FHRP
B. LACP
C. OSPF
D. STP
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
First Hop Redundancy Protocol (FHRP) provides a failover mechanism for the default gateway, allowing a
backup gateway to take over if the primary gateway fails. References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study
Guide, Chapter 4: Infrastructure.

NEW QUESTION: 178

Which of the following can be used to centrally manage credentials for various types of administrative privileges
on configured network devices?
A. SSO
B. TACACS+
C. Zero Trust
D. Separation of duties
E. Multifactor authentication
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
TACACS+ is used to authenticate users and authorize access to network resources. This protocol provides
greater network security by encrypting the authentication credentials and reducing the risk of unauthorized
access. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, "TACACS+ is an authentication protocol used to
centralize authentication and authorization for network devices. It is a more secure alternative to Telnet for
handling logins and for granting privileges to users."

NEW QUESTION: 179

Which of the following can be used to validate domain ownership by verifying the presence of pre-agreed
content contained in a DNS record?
A. SOA
B. SRV
C. AAA
D. TXT
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
"One final usage of the TXT resource record is how some cloud service providers, such as Azure, validate
ownership of custom domains. You are provided with data to include in your TXT record, and once that is
created, the domain is verified and able to be used. The thought is that if you control the DNS, then you own
the domain name."

NEW QUESTION: 180

A. Load balancing
B. Multipathing
C. NIC teaming
D. Warm site
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Load balancing is a technique that can be used to provide fault tolerance and high performance while
appearing as one URL to users. It is achieved by distributing the workload across multiple servers, which are
usually located in different geographical locations. This allows for high performance and fault tolerance, as if
one server fails, the other will take its place. Additionally, the multiple servers appear as one URL to the users,
eliminating the need for the users to switch between servers.

NEW QUESTION: 181

Which of me following security controls indicates unauthorized hardware modifications?
A. Biometric authentication
B. Tamper-evident seals
C. Change management policy
D. Media device sanitization
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

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NEW QUESTION: 182

A network administrator is configuring a load balancer for two systems. Which of the following must the
administrator configure to ensure connectivity during a failover?
A. VIP
B. NAT
C. APIPA
D. IPv6 tunneling
E. Broadcast IP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A virtual IP (VIP) address must be configured to ensure connectivity during a failover. A VIP address is a single
IP address that is assigned to a group of servers or network devices. When one device fails, traffic is
automatically rerouted to the remaining devices, and the VIP address is reassigned to the backup device,
allowing clients to continue to access the service without interruption.
References:
CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, Chapter 6: Network Servers, p.
300

NEW QUESTION: 183

A company is being acquired by a large corporation. As part of the acquisition process, the company's address
should now redirect clients to the corporate organization page. Which of the following DNS records needs to be
created?
A. SOA
B. NS
C. CNAME
D. TXT
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Reference:
https://www.namecheap.com/support/knowledgebase/article.aspx/9604/2237/types-of-domain-
redirects-301-302 CNAME (Canonical Name) is a type of DNS record that maps an alias name to another
name, which can be either another alias or the canonical name of a host or domain. A CNAME record can be
used to redirect clients from one domain name to another domain name, such as from the company's address
to the corporate organization page. SOA (Start of Authority) is a type of DNS record that specifies authoritative
information about a DNS zone, such as the primary name server, contact email address, serial number, refresh
interval, etc., which does not redirect clients to another domain name. NS (Name Server) is a type of DNS
record that specifies which name server is authoritative for a domain or subdomain, which does not redirect
clients to another domain name. TXT (Text) is a type of DNS record that provides arbitrary text information
about a domain or subdomain, such as SPF (Sender Policy Framework) records or DKIM (DomainKeys
Identified Mail) records, which does not redirect clients to another domain name.

NEW QUESTION: 184

Which of the following can be used to decrease latency during periods of high utilization of a firewall?
A. Hot site
B. NIC teaming
C. HA pair
D. VRRP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
NIC Teaming, also known as load balancing and failover (LBFO), allows multiple network adapters on a
computer to be placed into a team for the following purposes:
(https://www.bing.com/search?q=what+is+nic+teaming+used+for%3F&form=QBLH&sp=-1&pq=what+is+nic+

NEW QUESTION: 185

Which of the following is the LARGEST MTU for a standard Ethernet frame?
A. 1452
B. 1492
C. 1500
D. 2304
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The maximum transmission unit (MTU) is the largest size of a data packet that can be transmitted over a
network. A standard Ethernet frame supports an MTU of 1500 bytes, which is the default value for most
Ethernet networks. Larger MTUs are possible with jumbo frames, but they are not widely supported and may
cause fragmentation or compatibility issues. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maximum_transmission_unit
NEW QUESTION: 186
A network administrator views a network pcap and sees a packet containing the following:

Which of the following are the BEST ways for the administrator to secure this type of traffic? (Select TWO).
A. Migrate the network to IPv6.
B. Implement 802.1 X authentication
C. Set a private community siring
D. Use SNMPv3.
E. Incorporate SSL encryption
F. Utilize IPSec tunneling.
Answer: C,D (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
The packet shown in the image is an SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) packet, which is used to
monitor and manage network devices. SNMP uses community strings to authenticate requests and responses
between SNMP agents and managers. However, community strings are sent in clear text and can be easily
intercepted by attackers. Therefore, one way to secure SNMP traffic is to set a private community string that is
not the default or well-known value. Another way to secure SNMP traffic is to use SNMPv3, which is the latest
version of the protocol that supports encryption and authentication of SNMP messages.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 2.5: Given a
scenario, use remote access methods.

NEW QUESTION: 187

A technician is implementing a new wireless network to serve guests at a local office. The network needs to
provide Internet access but disallow associated stations from communicating with each other. Which of the
following would BEST accomplish this requirement?
A. Wireless client isolation
B. Port security
C. Device geofencing
D. DHCP snooping
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Wireless client isolation is a feature on wireless routers that limits the connectivity between wireless devices
connected to the same network. It prevents them from accessing resources on other wireless or wired devices,
as a security measure to reduce attacks and threats. This feature can be useful for guest and BYOD SSIDs, but
it can also be disabled on the router's settings. References:
https://www.howtogeek.com/179089/lock-down-your-wi-fi-network-with-your-routers-wireless-isolation-option

NEW QUESTION: 188

Which of the following technologies allows traffic to be sent through two different ISPs to increase
performance?
A. Fault tolerance
B. Quality of service
C. Load balancing
D. Port aggregation
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Load balancing is a technology that allows traffic to be sent through two different ISPs to increase performance.
Load balancing is a process of distributing network traffic across multiple servers or links to optimize resource
utilization, throughput, latency, and reliability. Load balancing can be implemented at different layers of the OSI
model, such as layer 4 (transport) or layer 7 (application). Load balancing can also be used for outbound traffic
by using multiple ISPs and routing protocols such as BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) to select the best path for
each packet. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/prod_white_

NEW QUESTION: 189

Which of the following would be BEST suited for a long cable run with a 40Gbps bandwidth?
A. Cat 5e
B. Cat 6a
C. Cat 7
D. Cat 8
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Cat 7 is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports up to 40 Gbps bandwidth and up to 100 meters cable
length. Cat 7 is suitable for long cable runs that require high-speed data transmission. Cat 7 has better
shielding and crosstalk prevention than lower categories of cables.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.5: Compare and contrast network cabling types, features and
their purposes.

NEW QUESTION: 190

A. MIMO
B. TKIP
C. LTE
D. SSID
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
SSID stands for Service Set Identifier and is the name of a wireless network. A wireless access point (WAP)
can support multiple SSIDs, which allows different wireless access through the same equipment. For example,
the store owner can create one SSID for business equipment and another SSID for patron use, and assign
different security settings and bandwidth limits for each SSID. MIMO stands for Multiple Input Multiple Output
and is a technology that uses multiple antennas to improve wireless performance. TKIP stands for Temporal
Key Integrity Protocol and is an encryption method for wireless networks. LTE stands for Long Term Evolution
and is a cellular network technology.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 3.1: Given a
scenario, install and configure wireless LAN infrastructure and implement the appropriate technologies in
support of wireless capable devices.

NEW QUESTION: 191

An IT organization needs to optimize speeds for global content distribution and wants to reduce latency in high-
density user locations. Which of the following technologies BEST meets the organization's requirements?
A. Load balancing
B. Geofencing
C. Public cloud
D. Content delivery network
E. Infrastructure as a service
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed network of servers that delivers web content to users based
on their geographic location. By replicating content across multiple servers in various locations, a CDN can
optimize speed and reduce latency in high-density user locations.

NEW QUESTION: 192

A network engineer is investigating reports of poor network performance. Upon reviewing a report, the engineer
finds hundreds of CRC errors on an interface. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these errors?
A. Both sides of the switch trunk set to full duplex
B. A misconfigured QoS setting on the router
C. The wrong VLAN assignment to the switchport
D. A bad wire on the Cat 5e cable
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 193

A corporation is looking for a method to secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center in order to
provide a zero-touch experience for all staff members who work there. Which of the following would BEST meet
this requirement?
A. Site-to-site VPN
B. VNC
C. Remote desktop gateway
D. Virtual LANs
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
A site-to-site VPN is a method that creates a secure and encrypted connection between two internet gateways,
such as routers or firewalls, that belong to different networks . A site-to-site VPN can secure all traffic between
a branch office and its data center by creating a virtual tunnel that protects the data from interception or
tampering. A site-to-site VPN can also provide a zero-touch experience for all staff members who work there,
as they do not need to install any software or configure any settings on their devices to access the data center
resources. They can simply use their local network as if they were physically connected to the data center
network.
VNC (Virtual Network Computing) is a method that allows remote access and control of a computer's desktop
from another device over a network2. VNC can enable staff members to work remotely by accessing their office
computers from their home computers or mobile devices. However, VNC does not secure all traffic between a
branch office and its data center, as it only works at the application layer and does not encrypt the network
layer. VNC also does not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need to install software
and configure settings on both the host and the client devices.
Remote desktop gateway is a method that allows remote access and control of a computer's desktop from
another device over a network using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). Remote desktop gateway can also
enable staff members to work remotely by accessing their office computers from their home computers or
mobile devices. However, remote desktop gateway does not secure all traffic between a branch office and its
data center, as it only works at the application layer and does not encrypt the network layer. Remote desktop
gateway also does not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need to install software and
configure settings on both the host and the client devices.
Virtual LANs (VLANs) are methods that create logical subdivisions of a physical network based on criteria such
as function, department, or security level. VLANs can improve network performance, security, and
management by reducing broadcast domains, isolating traffic, and enforcing policies. However, VLANs do not
secure all traffic between a branch office and its data center, as they only work at the data link layer and do not
encrypt the network layer. VLANs also do not provide a zero-touch experience for staff members, as they need
to configure settings on their network devices to join or leave a VLAN.

NEW QUESTION: 194

Which of the following is MOST appropriate for enforcing bandwidth limits when the performance of an
application is not affected by the use of buffering but is heavily impacted by packet drops?
A. Traffic shaping
B. Traffic policing
C. Traffic marking
D. Traffic classification
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Traffic policing is a mechanism that monitors the traffic in any network and enforces a bandwidth limit by
discarding packets that exceed a certain rate . This can reduce congestion and ensure fair allocation of
bandwidth among different applications or users. However, discarding packets can also affect the performance
and quality of some applications, especially those that are sensitive to packet loss, such as voice or video.
Traffic shaping is a congestion control mechanism that delays packets that exceed a certain rate instead of
discarding them1. This can smooth out traffic bursts and avoid packet loss, but it also introduces latency and
jitter. Traffic shaping can be beneficial for applications that can tolerate some delay but not packet loss, such as
file transfers or streaming.
Traffic marking is a mechanism that assigns different priority levels to packets based on their type, source,
destination, or other criteria2. This can help to differentiate between different classes of service and apply
different policies or treatments to them. However, traffic marking does not enforce bandwidth limits by itself; it
only provides information for other mechanisms to act upon.
Traffic classification is a process that identifies and categorizes packets based on their characteristics, such as
protocol, port number, payload, or behavior. This can help to distinguish between different types of traffic and
apply appropriate policies or actions to them. However, traffic classification does not enforce bandwidth limits
by itself; it only provides input for other mechanisms to use.

NEW QUESTION: 195

A customer reports there is no access to resources following the replacement of switches. A technician goes to
the site to examine the configuration and discovers redundant links between two switches. Which of the
following is the reason the network is not functional?
A. The ARP cache has become corrupt.
B. CSMA/CD protocols have failed.
C. STP is not configured.
D. The switches are incompatible models
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The reason the network is not functional is that STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is not configured on the
switches. STP is a protocol that prevents loops in a network topology by blocking redundant links between
switches. If STP is not enabled, the switches will forward broadcast frames endlessly, creating a broadcast
storm that consumes network resources and disrupts communication. References: CompTIA Network+
N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 67; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008),
page 2-14.

NEW QUESTION: 196

At which of the following OSI model layers does routing occur?
A. Transport
B. Data link
C. Physical
D. Network
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

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NEW QUESTION: 197

Which of the following technologies would MOST likely De used to prevent the loss of connection between a
virtual server and network storage devices?
A. Multipathing
B. VRRP
C. Port aggregation
D. NIC teaming
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
NIC teaming is a technology that allows multiple network interface cards (NICs) to work together as a single
logical interface, providing redundancy and load balancing. This can prevent the loss of connection between a
virtual server and network storage devices if one of the NICs fails or becomes disconnected. References:
[CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Networking Concepts, Objective 2.5:
Explain the purposes and use cases for advanced networking devices, Subobjective: NIC bonding/teaming

NEW QUESTION: 198

A network engineer is investigating reports of poor network performance. Upon reviewing a device
configuration, the engineer finds that duplex settings are mismatched on both ends. Which of the following
would be the MOST likely result of this finding?
A. Increased CRC errors
B. Increased giants and runts
C. Increased switching loops
D. Increased device temperature
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Mismatched duplex settings can cause an increase in CRC errors, which are errors in data transmission that
can result in corrupted data. References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4:
Infrastructure.

NEW QUESTION: 199

The following configuration is applied to a DHCP server connected to a VPN concentrator:

There are 300 non-concurrent sales representatives who log in for one hour a day to upload reports, and 252 of
these representatives are able to connect to the VPN without any Issues. The remaining sales representatives
cannot connect to the VPN over the course of the day. Which of the following can be done to resolve the issue
without utilizing additional resources?
A. Decrease the lease duration
B. Reboot the DHCP server
C. Install a new VPN concentrator
D. Configure a new router
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Decreasing the lease duration on the DHCP server will cause clients to renew their IP address leases more
frequently, freeing up IP addresses for other clients to use. References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study
Guide, Chapter 3: IP Addressing.

NEW QUESTION: 200

A. Jitter
B. Latency
C. Memory
D. Bandwidth
E. CPU usage
F. Temperature
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 201

An administrator notices that after contact with several switches in an MDF they failed due to electrostatic
discharge. Which of the Mowing sensors should the administrator deploy to BEST monitor static electricity
conditions in the MDF?
A. Temperature
B. Humidity
C. Smoke
D. Electrical
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
"Humidity control prevents the buildup of static electricity and reduces the chances of electronic components
becoming vulnerable to damage from electrostatic shock; not only can very low humidity lead to increased
static electricity, but it can also contribute to health problems, such as skin irritation."

NEW QUESTION: 202

A network technician needs to select an AP that will support at least 1.3Gbps and 5GHz only. Which of the
following wireless standards must the AP support to meet the requirements?
A. B
B. AC
C. AX
D. N
E. G
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Wireless AC is a wireless standard that supports up to 1.3Gbps data rate and operates in the 5GHz frequency
band only. Wireless AC is also backward compatible with wireless A and N devices that use the 5GHz band.
Wireless AC is suitable for high-performance applications such as HD video streaming and online gaming.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 2.2: Explain the purposes and properties of routing and
switching. Subobjective: Wireless standards and their characteristics.

NEW QUESTION: 203

A technician is installing a cable modem in a SOHO. Which of the following cable types will the technician
MOST likely use to connect a modem to the ISP?
A. Coaxial
B. Single-mode fiber
C. Cat 6e
D. Multimode fiber
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Coaxial cable is a type of cable that consists of a central copper conductor surrounded by an insulating layer
and a braided metal shield. Coaxial cable is commonly used to connect a cable modem to an ISP by
transmitting data over cable television networks. Coaxial cable can support high bandwidth and long distances
with minimal interference or attenuation. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/4027/coaxial-cable

NEW QUESTION: 204

A technician is investigating why a PC cannot reach a file server with the IP address 192.168.8.129. Given the
following TCP/IP network configuration:

Which of the following configurations on the PC is incorrect?

A. Subnet mask
B. IPv4 address
C. Default gateway
D. IPv6 address
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The default gateway is the IP address of the router that connects the PC to other networks. The default
gateway should be on the same subnet as the PC's IPv4 address. However, in this case, the default gateway is
192.168.9.1, which is on a different subnet than the PC's IPv4 address of 192.168.8.15. Therefore, the default
gateway configuration on the PC is incorrect and prevents the PC from reaching the file server on another
subnet.

NEW QUESTION: 205

Which of the following is considered a physical security detection device?
A. Access control vestibules
B. Biometric readers
C. Locking racks
D. Cameras
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 206

Which of the following would be the BEST choice to connect branch sites to a main office securely?
A. VPN headend
B. Proxy server
C. Bridge
D. Load balancer
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Host-to-Site, or Client-to-Site, VPN allows for remote servers, clients, and other hosts to establish tunnels
through a VPN gateway (or VPN headend) via a private network. The tunnel between the headend and the
client host encapsulates and encrypts data.

NEW QUESTION: 207

A city has hired a new employee who needs to be able to work when traveling at home and at the municipal
sourcing of a neighboring city that snares services. The employee is issued a laptop, and a technician needs to
train the employee on the appropriate solutions for secure access to the network from all the possible locations
On which of the following solutions would the technician MOST likely train the employee?
A. Site-to-site VPNs between the two city locations and client-to-site software on the employee's laptop tor all
other remote access
B. Client-to-site VPNs between the travel locations and site-to-site software on the employee's laptop for all
other remote access
C. Client-to-site VPNs between the two city locations and site-to-site software on the employee's laptop for all
other remote access
D. Site-to-site VPNs between the home and city locations and site-to-site software on the employee's laptop for
all other remote access
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The technician would most likely train the employee on using site-to-site VPNs between the two city locations
and client-to-site software on the employee's laptop for all other remote access. A VPN (Virtual Private
Network) is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted tunnel over a public network such as the Internet.
It allows remote users or sites to access a private network as if they were directly connected to it. A site-to-site
VPN connects two or more networks, such as branch offices or data centers, using a VPN gateway device at
each site. A client-to-site VPN connects individual users, such as mobile workers or telecommuters, using a
VPN client software on their devices. In this scenario, the employee needs to access the network from different
locations, such as home, travel, or another city. Therefore, the technician would train the employee on how to
use site-to-site VPNs to connect to the network from another city location that shares services, and how to use
client-to-site software to connect to the network from home or travel locations. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/14106-how-vpn-works

NEW QUESTION: 208

A user tries to ping 192.168.1.100 from the command prompt on the 192.168.2.101 network but gets the
following response: U.U.U.U. Which of the following needs to be configured for these networks to reach each
other?
A. Network address translation
B. Default gateway
C. Loopback
D. Routing protocol
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A default gateway is a device that routes traffic from one network to another network, such as the Internet. A
default gateway is usually configured on each host device to specify the IP address of the router that connects
the host's network to other networks. In this case, the user's device and the destination device are on different
networks (192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24), so the user needs to configure a default gateway on their
device to reach the destination device. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25761/default-gateway

NEW QUESTION: 209

A Fortune 500 firm is deciding On the kind or data center equipment to install given its five-year budget
Outlook. The Chief Information comparing equipment based on the life expectancy Of different models.
Which Of the
following concepts BEST represents this metric?
A. RPO
B. MTBF
C. MTRR
D. RTO
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
NEW QUESTION: 210
A. 445
B. 554
C. 587
D. 5060
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
RTSP stands for Real Time Streaming Protocol and is an application-level network protocol designed for
controlling media playback on streaming media servers. RTSP uses the default transport layer port number
554 for both TCP and UDP1. Port 445 is used for SMB (Server Message Block), a protocol for file and printer
sharing. Port 587 is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), a protocol for sending email messages.
Port 5060 is used for SIP (Session Initiation Protocol), a protocol for initiating and managing multimedia
sessions.
References: 1 Real Time Streaming Protocol - Wikipedia
(https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Real_Time_Streaming_Protocol)

NEW QUESTION: 211

A network administrator is creating a subnet for a remote office that has 53 network devices. An additional
requirement is to use the most efficient subnet. Which of the following CIDR notations indicates the appropriate
number of IP addresses with the LEAST amount of unused addresses? (Choose Correct option and give
explanation directly from CompTIA Network+ Study guide or documents)
A. /24
B. /26
C. /28
D. /32
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
This CIDR notation indicates that there are 64 IP addresses, of which 62 are usable for network devices. This
provides the LEAST amount of unused addresses, making it the most efficient subnet for a remote office with
53 network devices. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "Subnetting allows you to divide one
large network into smaller, more manageable networks or subnets."

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NEW QUESTION: 212

A network technician is hired to review all the devices within a network and make recommendations to improve
network efficiency. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST before reviewing and making any
recommendations?
A. Capture a network baseline
B. Perform an environmental review.
C. Read the network logs
D. Run a bandwidth test
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Before making any recommendations, a network technician should first capture a network baseline, which is a
snapshot of the current performance of the network. This will give the technician a baseline to compare against
after any changes are made. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, the technician should
"capture the state of the network before making any changes and then compare the performance after the
changes have been made. This will provide an accurate baseline to compare the performance of the network
before and after the changes have been made."

NEW QUESTION: 213

After installing a new wireless access point, an engineer tests the device and sees that it is not performing at
the rated speeds. Which of the following should the engineer do to troubleshoot the issue? (Select two).
A. Ensure a bottleneck is not coming from other devices on the network.
B. Install the latest firmware for the device.
C. Create a new VLAN for the access point.
D. Make sure the SSID is not longer than 16 characters.
E. Configure the AP in autonomous mode.
F. Install a wireless LAN controller.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
One possible cause of poor wireless performance is a bottleneck in the network, which means that other
devices or applications are consuming too much bandwidth or resources and limiting the speed of the wireless
access point. To troubleshoot this issue, the engineer should ensure that there is no congestion or interference
from other devices on the network, such as wired clients, servers, routers, switches, or other wireless access
points. The engineer can use tools such as network analyzers, bandwidth monitors, or ping tests to check the
network traffic and latency12.
Another possible cause of poor wireless performance is outdated firmware on the device, which may contain
bugs or vulnerabilities that affect the functionality or security of the wireless access point. To troubleshoot this
issue, the engineer should install the latest firmware for the device from the manufacturer's website or support
portal. The engineer should follow the instructions carefully and backup the configuration before updating the
firmware. The engineer can also check the release notes or changelog of the firmware to see if there are any
improvements or fixes related to the wireless performance3 .
The other options are not relevant to troubleshooting poor wireless performance. Creating a new VLAN for the
access point may help with network segmentation or security, but it will not improve the speed of the wireless
connection. Making sure the SSID is not longer than 16 characters may help with compatibility or readability,
but it will not affect the wireless performance. Configuring the AP in autonomous mode may give more control
or flexibility to the engineer, but it will not enhance the wireless speed. Installing a wireless LAN controller may
help with managing multiple access points or deploying advanced features, but it will not increase the wireless
performance.

NEW QUESTION: 214

A company wants to invest in new hardware for the core network infrastructure. The management team
requires that the infrastructure be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails.
Which of the following metrics is MOST likely associated with this requirement?
A. RPO
B. MTTR
C. FHRP
D. MTBF
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
MTTR is directly related to how quickly a system can be repaired if any major part fails3. The management
team requires that the infrastructure be capable of being repaired in less than 60 minutes, which means they
have a low MTTR requirement.
MTTR stands for Mean Time To Repair and is a metric used to measure the average amount of time it takes to
repair a failed component or system. In this case, the requirement is for the infrastructure to be capable of
being repaired in less than 60 minutes if any major part fails, which means the MTTR should be less than 60
minutes.

NEW QUESTION: 215

A network administrator is implementing OSPF on all of a company's network devices. Which of the following
will MOST likely replace all the company's hubs?
A. A Layer 3 switch
B. A proxy server
C. A NGFW
D. A WLAN controller
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A Layer 3 switch will likely replace all the company's hubs when implementing OSPF on all of its network
devices. A Layer 3 switch combines the functionality of a traditional Layer 2 switch with the routing capabilities
of a router. By implementing OSPF on a Layer 3 switch, an organization can improve network performance and
reduce the risk of network congestion. References: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Network
Security

NEW QUESTION: 216

Which of the following issues are present with RIPv2? (Select TWO).
A. Route poisoning
B. Time to converge
C. Scalability
D. Unicast
E. Adjacent neighbors
F. Maximum transmission unit
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The disadvantages of RIP (Routing Information Protocol) include the following.
---Outdated, insecure, and slow. This is your parents' protocol. It was a thing before the Web was born.
---The more well-known problem of the 15 hop limitation in which data must travel
---Convergence time is terrible for information propagation in a network
---Metrics. It determines the number of hops from source to destination, and gives no regard to other factors
when determining the best path for data to travel
---Overhead. A good example would be routing tables. These are broadcast at half-minute intervals to other
routers regardless of whether the data has changed or not. It's essentially like those old cartoons where the
town guard in the walled city cries out, '10 o' the clock and all is well!'.
RIPv2 introduced more security and reduced broadcast traffic, which is relevant for some available answers
here.

NEW QUESTION: 217

Branch users are experiencing issues with videoconferencing. Which of the following will the company MOST
likely configure to improve performance for these applications?
A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
B. Dynamic routing
C. Quality of service
D. Network load balancer
E. Static IP addresses
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To improve performance for videoconferencing, the company should configure Quality of Service (QoS). This
technology allows for the prioritization of network traffic, ensuring that videoconferencing traffic is given higher
priority and therefore better performance. Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP), Dynamic routing, Network
load balancer, and Static IP addresses are not directly related to improving performance for videoconferencing.
References:
Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, implement and configure
the appropriate wireless security and implement the appropriate QoS concepts.

NEW QUESTION: 218

A help desk supervisor reviews the following excerpt of a call transcript:
Which of the following was the agent trying to accomplish with this exchange?
A. The agent was questioning the obvious.
B. The agent was verifying full system functionality
C. The agent was identifying potential effects.
D. The agent was trying to duplicate the problem.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The agent was trying to duplicate the problem by asking the user to perform the same steps that led to the
issue. This is a common troubleshooting technique that helps the agent to identify the root cause of the
problem and verify if it is reproducible or intermittent. By duplicating the problem, the agent can also gather
more information about the symptoms and error messages that the user encountered. References: [CompTIA
Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], [Troubleshooting Methodology - CompTIA Network+ N10-007 -
1.4 | Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses]

NEW QUESTION: 219

A network engineer designed and implemented a new office space with the following characteristics:

One month after the office space was implemented, users began reporting dropped signals when entering
another room and overall poor connections to the 5GHz network. 'which of the following should the engineer do
to best resolve the issue?
A. use non-overlapping channels
B. Reconfigure the network to support 2.4GHz_
C. Upgrade to WPA3.
D. Change to directional antennas-
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The best solution to resolve the issue of dropped signals and poor connections to the 5GHz network is to
change to directional antennas. Directional antennas are antennas that focus the wireless signal in a specific
direction, increasing the range and strength of the signal. Directional antennas are suitable for environments
where there are obstacles or interference that can weaken or block the wireless signal. In the image, the office
space has several walls and doors that can reduce the signal quality of the 5GHz network, which has a shorter
wavelength and higher frequency than the 2.4GHz network. By using directional antennas, the network
engineer can aim the wireless signal towards the desired areas and avoid the signal loss caused by the walls
and doors. References: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 76; The Official CompTIA
Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 2-19.

NEW QUESTION: 220

A. NAT
B. PAT
C. STP
D. SNAT
E. ARP
Answer: B (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
The firewall administrator is implementing a PAT (Port Address Translation) rule that directs HTTP traffic to an
internal server listening on a non-standard socket. PAT is a type of NAT (Network Address Translation) that
allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address by using different port numbers. PAT can also be
used to redirect traffic from one port to another port on the same or different IP address. This can be useful for
security or load balancing purposes. For example, a firewall administrator can configure a PAT rule that
redirects HTTP traffic (port 80) from the public IP address of the firewall to an internal server that listens on a
non-standard port (such as 8080) on its private IP address. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/network-address-translation-nat/13772-12.html

NEW QUESTION: 221

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective alternative that provides proper cabling and supports gigabit
Ethernet devices?
A. Twisted cable with a minimum Cat 5e certification
B. Multimode fiber with an SC connector
C. Twinaxial cabling using an F-type connector
D. Cable termination using TIA/EIA-568-B
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
twisted cable with a minimum Cat 5e certification is the MOST cost-effective alternative that provides proper
cabling and supports gigabit Ethernet devices.

NEW QUESTION: 222

A network technician receives a report from the server team that a server's network connection is not working
correctly. The server team confirms the server is operating correctly except for the network connection. The
technician checks the switchport connected to the server and reviews the following data;
Which of the following should the network technician perform to correct the issue?
A. Replace the Cat 5 patch cable with a Cat 6 cable
B. Install a crossover cable between the server and the switch
C. Reset the switchport configuration.
D. Use NetFlow data from the switch to isolate the issue.
E. Disable MDIX on the switchport and reboot the server.
Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
"Bad cables, incorrect pinouts, or bent pins: Faulty cables (with electrical characteristics preventing successful
transmission) or faulty connectors (which do not properly make connections) can prevent successful data
transmission at Layer 1. A bad cable could simply be an incorrect category of cable being used for a specific
purpose. For example, using a Cat 5 cable (instead of a Cat 6 or higher cable) to connect two 1000BASE-TX
devices would result in data corruption. Bent pins in a connector or incorrect pinouts could also cause data to
become corrupted."

NEW QUESTION: 223

A company cell phone was stolen from a technician's vehicle. The cell phone has a passcode, but it contains
sensitive information about clients and vendors. Which of the following should also be enabled?
A. Autolock
B. Encryption
C. Factory reset
D. Two-factor authentication
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 224

A network administrator is designing a wireless network. The administrator must ensure a rented office space
has a sufficient signal. Reducing exposure to the wireless network is important, but it is secondary to the
primary objective. Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate the correct accessibility to the Wi-Fi
network?
A. Polarization
B. Antenna type
C. Channel bonding
D. MU-MIMO
E. Channel utilization
Answer: E (LEAVE A REPLY)

NEW QUESTION: 225

A network engineer needs to pass both data and telephony on an access port. Which or the following features
should be configured to meet this requirement?
A. VoIP
B. VIP
C. VLAN
D. VRRP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 226

A technician is configuring a network switch to be used in a publicly accessible location. Which of the following
should the technician configure on the switch to prevent unintended connections?
A. DHCP snooping
B. Geofencing
C. Port security
D. Secure SNMP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Port security is a feature that restricts input to a switch port by limiting and identifying MAC addresses of the
devices allowed to access the port. This prevents unintended connections from unauthorized devices or
spoofed MAC addresses. Port security can also be configured to take actions such as shutting down the port or
sending an alert when a violation occurs. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9500/software/release/16-10/configuration_guide/sec

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NEW QUESTION: 227

An administrator is setting up a multicast server on a network, but the firewall seems to be dropping the traffic.
After logging in to the device, me administrator sees me following entries:

Which of the following firewall rules is MOST likely causing the issue?
A. Rule 4
B. Rule 2
C. Rule 1
D. Rule 3
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 228

The following DHCP scope was configured for a new VLAN dedicated to a large deployment of 325 loT
sensors:

The first 244 loT sensors were able to connect to the TFTP server, download the configuration file, and register
to an loT management system. The other sensors are being shown as offline. Which of the following should be
performed to determine the MOST likely cause of the partial deployment of the sensors?
A. Check the loT devices for a hardware failure.
B. Check whether the NTP server is online.
C. Check the DHCP network scope.
D. Check the gateway connectivity to the TFTP server.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 229

A branch of a company recently switched to a new ISP. The network engineer was given a new IP range to
assign. The ISP assigned 196.26.4.0/26, and the branch gateway router now has the following configurations
on the interface that peers to the ISP:
The network engineer observes that all users have lost Internet connectivity. Which of the following describes
the issue?
A. The incorrect subnet mask was configured
B. The incorrect gateway was configured
C. The incorrect IP address was configured
D. The incorrect interface was configured
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The IP address configured on the router interface is 196.26.4.1/26, which belongs to the IP range assigned by
the ISP (196.26.4.0/26). However, this IP address is not valid for this interface because it is the network
address of the subnet, which cannot be assigned to any host device. The network address is the first address
of a subnet that identifies the subnet itself. The valid IP addresses for this subnet are from 196.26.4.1 to
196.26.4.62, excluding the network address (196.26.4.0) and the broadcast address (196.26.4.63). The router
interface should be configured with a valid IP address within this range to restore Internet connectivity for all
users. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.techopedia.com/definition/24136/network-address

NEW QUESTION: 230

A. an on-premises data center.
B. a cloud provider.
C. a branch office.
D. allocation.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 231

A local firm has hired a consulting company to clean up its IT infrastructure. The consulting company notices
remote printing is accomplished by port forwarding via publicly accessible IPs through the firm's firewall Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate way to enable secure remote printing?
A. SSH
B. VPN
C. Telnet
D. SSL
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the most appropriate way to enable secure remote printing. VPN is a
technology that creates a secure and encrypted tunnel over a public network such as the Internet. It allows
remote users or sites to access a private network as if they were directly connected to it. VPN can be used for
various purposes such as accessing corporate resources, bypassing geo-restrictions, or enhancing privacy and
security. VPN can also be used for remote printing by allowing users to connect to a printer on the private
network and send print jobs securely over the VPN tunnel. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/14106-how-vpn-works

NEW QUESTION: 232

Which of the following is the NEXT step to perform network troubleshooting after identifying an issue?
A. Implement a solution.
B. Establish a theory.
C. Escalate the issue.
D. Document the findings.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
1 Identify the Problem.
2 Develop a Theory.
3 Test the Theory.
4 Plan of Action.
5 Implement the Solution.
6 Verify System Functionality.
7 Document the Issue.

NEW QUESTION: 233

Which of the following documents would be used to define uptime commitments from a provider, along with
details on measurement and enforcement?
A. NDA
B. SLA
C. MOU
D. AUP
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that is used to define uptime commitments from a provider,
along with details on measurement and enforcement. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a
customer that outlines the level of service that the provider is committed to providing and the terms under which
that service will be delivered.

NEW QUESTION: 234

A network engineer is designing a wireless network that has the following requirements:
* Network speed must be higher than 100Mbps
* Must use the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands
Which of the following 802.11 standards should the engineer select?
A. 802. lla
B. 802.11b
C. 802. 11g
D. 802.11 n
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
802.11n is a wireless standard that supports up to 600 Mbps data rate and operates in both the 2.4 GHz and 5
GHz frequency bands. 802.11n uses multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology to increase the number
of spatial streams and improve the wireless performance and range. 802.11n meets the requirements of the
wireless network design.
References: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.6: Explain the functions of network services.

NEW QUESTION: 235

Which of the following would be used to forward requests and replies between a DHCP server and client?
A. Range
B. Lease
C. Scope
D. Relay
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 236

Which of the following describes the ability of a corporate IT department to expand its cloud-hosted VM
environment with minimal effort?
A. Scalability
B. Load balancing
C. Multitenancy
D. Geo-redundancy
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Scalability is the ability of a corporate IT department to expand its cloud-hosted virtual machine (VM)
environment with minimal effort. This allows IT departments to quickly and easily scale up their cloud
environment to meet increased demand. Scalability also allows for the efficient use of resources, as IT
departments can quickly and easily scale up or down as needed.

NEW QUESTION: 237

A network administrator is reviewing the following metrics from a network management system regarding a
switchport. The administrator suspects an issue because users are calling in regards to the switchport's
performance:
Based on the information in the chart above, which of the following fs the cause of these performance issues?
A. The connected device is receiving too many packets.
B. The switchport does not have enough CRCs
C. The connected device is sending too many packets
D. The switchport has been up for too long
E. The connected device is exceeding the configured MTU.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 238

An IT director is setting up new disaster and HA policies for a company. Limited downtime is critical to
operations. To meet corporate requirements, the director set up two different datacenters across the country
that will stay current on data and applications. In the event of an outage, the company can immediately switch
from one datacenter to another. Which of the following does this BEST describe?
A. A warm site
B. Data mirroring
C. Multipathing
D. Load balancing
E. A hot site
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A hot site is a fully redundant site that can take over operations immediately if the primary site goes down. In
this scenario, the company has set up two different datacenters across the country that are current on data and
applications, and they can immediately switch from one datacenter to another in case of an outage.
References:
Network+ N10-008 Objectives: 1.5 Compare and contrast disaster recovery concepts and methodologies.

NEW QUESTION: 239

A network technician is investigating an IP phone that does not register in the VoIP system Although it received
an IP address, it did not receive the necessary DHCP options The information that is needed for the registration
is distributes by the OHCP scope All other IP phones are working properly. Which of the following does the
technician need to verify?
A. VLAN mismatch
B. Transceiver mismatch
C. Latency
D. DHCP exhaustion
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
A VLAN mismatch is the most likely reason why an IP phone does not receive the necessary DHCP options for
registration. A VLAN mismatch occurs when a device is connected to a switch port that belongs to a different
VLAN than the device's intended VLAN. This can cause communication problems or prevent access to network
resources. For example, if an IP phone is connected to a switch port that belongs to the data VLAN instead of
the voice VLAN, it may not receive the DHCP options that contain information such as the TFTP server
address, the NTP server address, or the default gateway address for the voice VLAN. These DHCP options are
essential for the IP phone to register with the VoIP system and function properly. References:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice-unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-ca

NEW QUESTION: 240

A. DHCP scope exhaustion
B. Signal attenuation
C. Channel overlap
D. Improper DNS configuration
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
DHCP scope exhaustion occurs when the number of available IP addresses to be leased from a DHCP server
have been used up. This could be caused by a large number of clients on the network, or a misconfigured
DHCP scope. When this happens, clients will be assigned an IP address from the APIPA range (169.254.0.0 to
169.254.255.255). To resolve this issue, the DHCP scope needs to be expanded or adjusted to accommodate
the number of clients on the network.

NEW QUESTION: 241

Users are reporting intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity in specific parts of a building. Which of the following should
the network administrator check FIRST when troubleshooting this issue? (Select TWO).
A. Site survey
B. EIRP
C. AP placement
D. Captive portal
E. SSID assignment
F. AP association time
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
This is a coverage issue. WAP placement and power need to be checked. Site survey should be done NEXT
because it takes a while.

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NEW QUESTION: 242

A company is utilizing multifactor authentication for data center access. Which of the following is the MOST
effective security mechanism against physical intrusions due to stolen credentials?
A. Access control vestibule
B. Biometrics security hardware
C. Access card readers
D. Motion detection cameras
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 243

A network technician is attempting to increase throughput by configuring link port aggregation between a
Gigabit Ethernet distribution switch and a Fast Ethernet access switch. Which of the following is the BEST
choice concerning speed and duplex for all interfaces that are participating in the link aggregation?
A. Half duplex and 1GB speed
B. Full duplex and 1GB speed
C. Half duplex and 10OMB speed
D. Full duplex and 100MB speed
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
The best choice for configuring link port aggregation between a Gigabit Ethernet distribution switch and a Fast
Ethernet access switch is to use full duplex and 1GB speed for all interfaces that are participating in the link
aggregation. This will allow for maximum throughput, as the full duplex connection will enable simultaneous
sending and receiving of data, and the 1GB speed will ensure that the data is transferred quickly.
According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, "Full-duplex Ethernet allows the network adapter to transmit
and receive data simultaneously, which can result in double the bandwidth of half-duplex Ethernet."
Additionally, the official text states, "Ethernet and Fast Ethernet use different speeds for data transmission, with
Ethernet being 1,000 megabits (1 gigabit) per second and Fast Ethernet being 100 megabits per second."

NEW QUESTION: 244

Due to space constraints in an IDF, a network administrator can only a do a single switch to accommodate
three data networks. The administrator needs a configuration that will allow each device to access its expected
network without additional connections. The configuration must also allow each device to access the rest of the
network. Which of the following should the administrator do to meet these requirements? (Select TWO).
A. Untag the three VLANs across the uplink
B. Tag an individual VLAN across the uplink
C. Untag an individual VLAN per device port
D. Tag an individual VLAN per device port
E. Tag the three VLANs across the uplink.
F. Tag the three VLANs per device port.
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
To achieve this, you should do two things:
Tag the three VLANs across the uplink port that connects to another switch or router. This will allow data
packets from different VLANs to cross over into other networks.
Untag an individual VLAN per device port that connects to an end device. This will assign each device to its
expected network without additional connections.

NEW QUESTION: 245

Which of the following ports should be used to securely receive mail that is synchronized across multiple
devices?
A. 110
B. 993
C. 25
D. 443
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)

NEW QUESTION: 246

A network engineer configured new firewalls with the correct configuration to be deployed to each remote
branch. Unneeded services were disabled, and all firewall rules were applied successfully. Which of the
following should the network engineer perform NEXT to ensure all the firewalls are hardened successfully?
A. Ensure an implicit permit rule is enabled
B. Configure the log settings on the firewalls to the central syslog server
C. Update the firewalls with current firmware and software
D. Use the same complex passwords on all firewalls
Answer: C (LEAVE A REPLY)
Explanation
Updating the firewalls with current firmware and software is an important step to ensure all the firewalls are
hardened successfully, as it can fix any known vulnerabilities or bugs and provide new features or
enhancements. Enabling an implicit permit rule is not a good practice for firewall hardening, as it can allow
unwanted traffic to pass through the firewall. Configuring the log settings on the firewalls to the central syslog
server is a good practice for monitoring and auditing purposes, but it does not harden the firewalls themselves.
Using the same complex passwords on all firewalls is not a good practice for password security, as it can
increase the risk of compromise if one firewall is breached. References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam
Objectives Version 2.0 (Exam Number: N10-006), Domain 3.0 Network Security, Objective 3.3 Given a
scenario, implement network hardening techniques.

NEW QUESTION: 247

Which of the following needs to be tested to achieve a Cat 6a certification for a company's data cawing?
A. LC ports
B. Patch panel
C. RJ11
D. F-type connector
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
NEW QUESTION: 248
During an annual review of policy documents, a company decided to adjust its recovery time frames. The
company agreed that critical applications can be down for no more than six hours, and the acceptable amount
of data loss is no more than two hours. Which of the following should be documented as the RPO?
A. Two hours
B. Four hours
C. Six hours
D. Eight hours
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
" RPO designates the variable amount of data that will be lost or will have to be re-entered during network
downtime. RTO designates the amount of "real time" that can pass before the disruption begins to seriously
and unacceptably impede the flow of normal business operations."

NEW QUESTION: 249

A switch is connected to another switch. Incompatible hardware causes a surge in traffic on both switches.
Which of the following configurations will cause traffic to pause, allowing the switches to drain buffers?
A. Speed
B. Flow control
C. 802.1Q
D. Duplex
Answer: (SHOW ANSWER)
Explanation
Flow control is a mechanism that allows a network device to regulate the amount of traffic it can receive or
send. Flow control can help prevent congestion and buffer overflow by sending pause frames or signals to the
sender when the receiver's buffer is full or nearly full. Flow control can cause traffic to pause, allowing the
switches to drain buffers and resume normal operation. Speed is a parameter that determines the data transfer
rate of a network link. 802.1Q is a standard for VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) tagging, which allows
multiple logical networks to share the same physical infrastructure. Duplex is a mode of communication that
determines how data is transmitted and received on a link. Full duplex allows simultaneous transmission and
reception, while half duplex allows only one direction at a time.
References: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective 1.5:
Compare and contrast network cabling types, standards and speeds.

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