30 MCQ Unit-6 QP
30 MCQ Unit-6 QP
EACH QUESTION CARRIERS ONE MARK. FOR EACH WRONG RESPONSE, 0.25 MARK WILL BE DEDUCTED
C. Design in-vitro studies to assess the D. TDM is only necessary for patients with
drug's protein binding characteristics. severe renal impairment.
A. Absorption from the gastrointestinal tract A. High water solubility of the drug
A. Non-linearity simplifies dose selection for A. Passive diffusion across the intestinal
the study. membrane
B. It allows for a smaller number of B. Enzymatic degradation in the gut wall
participants to be enrolled. C. Renal clearance
C. If non-linearity is present, the relationship D. Protein binding in plasma
between dose and plasma concentration
needs to be carefully evaluated to
establish safe and effective dosing
regimens.
D. Non-linearity is a rare phenomenon and
can be ignored in most cases.
15. A highly protein-bound drug exhibits a 16. A drug undergoes metabolism by the
non-linear increase in free drug CYP3A4 enzyme system. At high doses,
concentration with increasing dose. plasma concentrations of the drug
What is the most likely explanation? increase disproportionately compared
A. Increased blood flow to distribution to the increase in dose. This suggests:
tissues A. Increased activity of CYP3A4 at higher
B. Saturation of binding sites on plasma substrate (drug) concentrations
proteins B. Saturation of CYP3A4 enzyme capacity
C. Enhanced renal excretion at higher C. First-pass metabolism becoming less
doses significant
D. Faster metabolism at higher drug D. Competition for CYP3A4 by another
concentrations drug
17. A drug is primarily eliminated by renal 18. Which of the following statements
tubular secretion. At high doses, the about non-linear pharmacokinetics is
amount of drug excreted in the urine MOST accurate?
does not increase proportionally with A. It only affects the absorption of drugs.
the dose. This indicates saturation of: B. It can occur due to saturation of processes
A. Glomerular filtration in absorption, distribution, metabolism, and
B. Passive tubular reabsorption excretion.
C. Active tubular secretion C. It always leads to a decrease in drug
D. Hepatic metabolism exposure at higher doses.
D. It simplifies the prediction of drug effects at
different dose levels.
19. Why is it important to consider 20. Compared to a drug with linear
potential non-linear pharmacokinetics pharmacokinetics, a drug exhibiting
when designing a dosing regimen for a non-linear elimination due to
new drug? saturation of metabolic processes may
A. It may necessitate adjustments to the dose require
based on individual patient characteristics. A. A lower initial dose to achieve the same
B. It allows for a fixed dose regimen for all therapeutic effect.
patients. B. A higher frequency of dosing to maintain
therapeutic drug levels.
C. Non-linear drugs are less effective than
C. Less frequent monitoring of plasma drug
drugs with linear pharmacokinetics. concentrations
D. Blood concentration monitoring becomes
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CA-6 UNIT-6
EACH QUESTION CARRIERS ONE MARK. FOR EACH WRONG RESPONSE, 0.25 MARK WILL BE DEDUCTED
21. Consider the following reaction scheme for 22. The Michaelis-Menten equation relates
enzymatic conversion of substrate (S) to the reaction rate (v) of an enzyme-
product (P) by an enzyme (E): catalyzed reaction to the substrate
………E + S <=> ES -> E + P concentration ([S]). Which of the
According to Michaelis-Menten kinetics, following terms in the equation
which of the following represents the represents the maximum reaction rate?
dissociation constant (Kd) for the enzyme-
A. Km B. v * [S]
substrate complex (ES)?
A. [E] * [P] / [ES] B. [E] * [S] / [ES] C. Vmax
C. [ES] / ([E] + [S]) D. [E] + [S] / [ES] D. [S] / (Km + [S])
23. The following diagram depicts the 24. A numerical representation of the
Michaelis-Menten equation is given
relationship between reaction rate (v)
below:
and substrate concentration ([S]) for an v = (Vmax * [S]) / (Km + [S])
enzyme-catalyzed reaction
If the Km value for a particular
enzyme-substrate pair is 1 mM, what
substrate concentration ([S]) would
result in a reaction rate equal to half
the Vmax?
1. 0.5 mM
26. If the Vmax for a particular enzyme is 10 27. An experiment is conducted to measure
μmol/min and the Km is 2 μM, what is the initial reaction rates (v) at different
the reaction rate (v) when the substrate substrate concentrations ([S]). The data
concentration ([S]) is 4 μM? is plotted as 1/v vs 1/[S]. The slope (m)
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CA-6 UNIT-6
EACH QUESTION CARRIERS ONE MARK. FOR EACH WRONG RESPONSE, 0.25 MARK WILL BE DEDUCTED
28. An enzyme exhibits a Km value of 5 mM 29. A scientist is studying a new drug that
for a particular substrate. In a acts as a non-competitive inhibitor of a
Lineweaver-Burk plot, a competitive specific enzyme. The Lineweaver-Burk
inhibitor binds to the enzyme and plot for the enzyme-substrate reaction
increases the Km to 10 mM. What can be shows a decrease in Vmax but no
concluded about not true the inhibitor's change in Km compared to the
effect? uninhibited reaction. What does this
A. The inhibitor increases the affinity of suggest about the inhibitor's
the enzyme for the substrate mechanism of action?
B. The inhibitor decreases the affinity of
the enzyme for the substrate A. The inhibitor binds to the same site as
the substrate on the enzyme
C. The inhibitor has no effect on the Vmax
B. The inhibitor binds to a different site on
of the reaction the enzyme, but it reduces the rate of
D. Both A and C are true product formation from the enzyme-
substrate complex
C. The inhibitor increases the Km value,
indicating a decrease in enzyme-
substrate affinity
D. The information provided is insufficient
to determine the inhibitor's mechanism
30. An enzyme reaction follows Michaelis-
Menten kinetics. At a particular
substrate concentration, the reaction
rate is measured to be 6 μmol/min. When
the substrate concentration is doubled,
the reaction rate increases to 9
μmol/min. The Km value for this
enzyme-substrate pair is likely to be:
A. Much lower than 3 μM
B. Around 3 μM
C. Much higher than 3 μM
D. Cannot be determined without
knowing Vmax
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CA-6 UNIT-6
EACH QUESTION CARRIERS ONE MARK. FOR EACH WRONG RESPONSE, 0.25 MARK WILL BE DEDUCTED
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