Correct Answer is.

Dry asbestos wool and

Maintenance Practice Question chalk powder.
Explanation. BL/6-18 12.5.
Module 07.Maintenance Practice

Question Number. 5. An aircraft should

01. Safety Precautions Aircraft and Workshop. not be refueled when.
Option A. the APU is running.
Option B. navigation and landing light in
Question Number. 1 A dry powder operation.
extinguisher is coloured. Option C. within 10 metres (30 feet) of
Option A. green. radar operating.
Option B. red. Correct Answer is. within 10 metres (30 feet)
Option C. blue. of radar operating.
Correct Answer is. blue. Explanation. AL/3-8 2.1.6, GOL/1-1 7.3.2.
Explanation. BS EN3.

Question Number. 6. The minimum 'no

Question Number. 2. Acetylene gas smoking' zone around an aircraft when
forms an explosive compound with. refuelling is.
Option A. tin and silver. Option A. 15m.
Option B. tin and copper. Option B. 10m.
Option C. copper and silver. Option C. 6m.
Correct Answer is. copper and silver. Correct Answer is. 6m.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. Leaflet 5-1 2.2.2.

Question Number. 3. When mixing acid Question Number. 7. A CO2 extinguisher

and water. is used on.
Option A. the acid should always be added Option A. solid, liquid, hot metal and
to the water. electrical fires.
Option B. it does not matter which way the Option B. solid, liquid and electrical fires.
two are mixed. Option C. solid and liquid fires.
Option C. the water should always be added Correct Answer is. solid, liquid and electrical
to the acid. fires.
Correct Answer is. the acid should always be Explanation. Hot metal and liquid fires would
added to the water. be extinguished with foam.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. In an oxygen

Question Number. 4. You are involved system, if the pressure drops to 500 PSI, it.
with a fire caused by titanium swarf. What type Option A. causes anoxia.
of extinguishant should you use to deal with the Option B. begins to overheat.
fire?. Option C. blocks the oxygen system
Option A. Dry asbestos wool and chalk regulator.
powder. Correct Answer is. blocks the oxygen system
Option B. CO2. regulator.
Option C. Chemical foam.

1
Explanation. At low pressure, air can mix with Question Number. 13. Which type of
the oxygen. The moisture in the air freezes as extinguisher can be used for engine fire?.
the gas expands on exit of the system and Option A. CO2.
blocks the regulator. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Option B. BCF.
Technician Page 14-17. Option C. Water.
Correct Answer is. CO2.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-1 4.2.4 (a).
Question Number. 9. After working with
epoxy resins, how is natural oil returned to the
skin?. Question Number. 14. Fire on landing
Option A. Epoxy removing cream. gear brake should be extinguished with.
Option B. Refatting cream. Option A. dry powder extinguisher.
Option C. Acetone/lanolin mixture. Option B. carbon dioxide extinguisher.
Correct Answer is. Acetone/lanolin mixture. Option C. water extinguisher.
Explanation. Acetone is used to remove epoxy Correct Answer is. dry powder extinguisher.
resin, but it dries the skin, so it is mixed with Explanation. AL/3-19 10.4. Jeppesen A&P
lanolin to prevent this (same mixture as nail Mechanics Handbook Page 503, CAAIP S Leaflet
varnish remover). 5-8 10.4.

Question Number. 10. Neither oil nor Question Number. 15. Which type of fire
grease should be used as a lubricant on extinguishers can be used in the cabin?.
couplings or pipelines carrying. Option A. C.T.C.
Option A. Oxygen. Option B. water or B.C.F.
Option B. Kerosene. Option C. M.B.
Option C. Nitrogen. Correct Answer is. water or B.C.F.
Correct Answer is. Oxygen. Explanation. Methyl Bromide and CTC
Explanation. AL/3-25 5.4 (vi). extinguishers are toxic. Jeppesen A&P
Mechanics Handbook Page 502 and 504.

Question Number. 11. Which type of

extinguisher can be used for an electric fire?. Question Number. 16. Risk assessments
Option A. Foam. should only be carried out on.
Option B. Water. Option A. all tasks and processes that are
Option C. CO2. performed.
Correct Answer is. CO2. Option B. tasks using hazardous chemicals.
Explanation. AL/3-10 3.3. Option C. tasks carried out above the height
of 6 foot.
Correct Answer is. all tasks and processes
Question Number. 12. The colour of CO2 that are performed.
type fire extinguisher is. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. red.
Option B. black.
Option C. green. Question Number. 17. The most
Correct Answer is. black. appropriate fire extinguisher for an aircraft
Explanation. NIL. wheel and brake fire would be.
Option A. carbon dioxide.
Option B. dry powder.

2
Option C. water. Option C. In either of the outer 1/3 portion
Correct Answer is. dry powder. of the tube.
Explanation. AL/3-19 10.4. Correct Answer is. In the mid 1/3 section.
Explanation. CAAIP s Leaflet 6-4 Para 7.2.

Question Number. 18. Once a person has

been disconnected from the source of an Question Number. 2. What type of
electrical shock the next step should be. grinding wheel would you sharpen an HSS drill
Option A. seek assistance immediately. bit on?.
Option B. check for breathing start AR if Option A. A green wheel.
necessary. Option B. A course wheel.
Option C. check for pulse start cardiac Option C. A fine wheel.
massage if necessary. Correct Answer is. A fine wheel.
Correct Answer is. check for breathing start Explanation. A Green Grit (Silicon Carbide)
AR if necessary. wheel is used for Tungsten Carbide bit tools
Explanation. NIL. (Non-steel). For HSS you need a fine Grey
Aluminium Oxide wheel.

Question Number. 19. What can cause

dermatitis?. Question Number. 3. When using a
Option A. Washing hands in solvents. reamer.
Option B. Not wearing eye protection when Option A. use no lubricant.
using solvents. Option B. use the same lubricant as was
Option C. Inhalation of paint fumes. used on the drill bit.
Correct Answer is. Washing hands in Option C. use lard oil.
solvents. Correct Answer is. use the same lubricant as
Explanation. NIL. was used on the drill bit.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 20. If an oxygen

cylinder pressure falls below 500 PSI. Question Number. 4. How many teeth
Option A. the diluter stick will stick. per inch are used on a hacksaw blade for cutting
Option B. the oxygen will degrade and cause hard metal?.
anoxia. Option A. 54.
Option C. condensation will cause corrosion. Option B. 36.
Correct Answer is. condensation will cause Option C. 26.
corrosion. Correct Answer is. 26.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. Blades are available 18 - 32 TPI.
Greatest TPI is for hard metals.
02. Workshop Practices.

Question Number. 5. How many strokes

Question Number. 1. On a hollow tube per minute are used on a hacksaw when cutting
where would a small indentation normally be thick metal?.
unacceptable?. Option A. 30.
Option A. Nowhere on the tube is an Option B. 65.
indentation acceptable. Option C. 55.
Option B. In the mid 1/3 section. Correct Answer is. 55.

3
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 10. When a torque
loading is specified for a castellated or slotted
nut on an undrilled new bolt.
Question Number. 6. When lifting a Option A. the bolt should be pre-drilled, the
bulky component with a wire rope sling, the torque applied and the nut eased back, if
component can be protected from damage by necessary, to allow the split pin to be fitted.
the sling by. Option B. the bolt should be pre-drilled and
Option A. fabricating alternative lifting the torque increased if necessary to allow the
points. split pin to be fitted.
Option B. using a suitably shaped sling. Option C. the torque should be applied and
Option C. using spreader bars and packing. the bolt suitably drilled for the split pin.
Correct Answer is. using spreader bars and Correct Answer is. the torque should be
packing. applied and the bolt suitably drilled for the split
Explanation. NIL. pin.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 7. Gas bottles for

CO2 air and acetylene are coloured. Question Number. 11. A reamer with
Option A. grey, maroon, green. spiral flutes is removed.
Option B. black, grey, maroon. Option A. clockwise.
Option C. green, grey, maroon. Option B. straight.
Correct Answer is. black, grey, maroon. Option C. anticlockwise.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. clockwise.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General
Technician Textbook Page 9-19.
Question Number. 8. To drill a 1/4 inch
hole in titanium, the correct starting procedure
would be. Question Number. 12. The difference
Option A. to centre drill. between high and low limits of a size for a
Option B. to centre punch. dimension is known as the.
Option C. to drill 1/4 inch hole direct. Option A. deviation.
Correct Answer is. to centre drill. Option B. tolerance.
Explanation. CAIP S EL/3-3 Para. 3.2. Option C. fit.
Correct Answer is. tolerance.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 9. In a torque wrench
of handle length, L = 12 in. and an extension E =
3 in, the desired torque value is 300 lbs.in. the Question Number. 13. Rubber
dial should read. components should be stored.
Option A. 240 lb.ins. Option A. in warm and humid conditions.
Option B. 375 lb.ins. Option B. in a well lit room.
Option C. 280 lb.ins. Option C. in a cool dark area.
Correct Answer is. 240 lb.ins. Correct Answer is. in a cool dark area.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-11 4.4. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 1-8 3.3.

Question Number. 14. When comparing

the machining techniques for stainless steel

4
sheet material to those for aluminium alloy Question Number. 18. A grinding wheel is
sheet, it is normally considered good practice to normally refaced by.
drill the stainless steel at a. Option A. dressing with a special tool.
Option A. higher speed with less pressure Option B. grinding through using another
applied to the drill. grinding wheel.
Option B. lower speed with more pressure Option C. holding a hard wood scraper
applied to the drill. against the rotating wheel.
Option C. lower speed with less pressure Correct Answer is. dressing with a special
applied to the drill. tool.
Correct Answer is. lower speed with more Explanation. NIL.
pressure applied to the drill.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Technician Textbook Page 2-27. Question Number. 19. When checking a
torque wrench 15 inches long, the load required
to give torque of 120 lbs.in. is.
Question Number. 15. When drilling Option A. 6 lbs.
stainless steel, the drill used should have an Option B. 8 lbs.
included angle of. Option C. 10 lbs.
Option A. 140° and turn at a low speed. Correct Answer is. 8 lbs.
Option B. 90° and turn at a low speed. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. 118° and turn at a high speed.
Correct Answer is. 140° and turn at a low
speed. Question Number. 20. How would you
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe check the setting of an adjustable reamer?.
Technician Textbook Page 2-27. Option A. Ring gauge.
Option B. Dial test indicator and 'V' blocks.
Option C. External calipers.
Question Number. 16. When stop drilling Correct Answer is. Ring gauge.
a crack, what is the typical drill size used?. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 0.025 inch.
Option B. 0.250 inch.
Option C. 0.125 inch. Question Number. 21. What is the
Correct Answer is. 0.125 inch. specified lubricant for drilling brass?.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Option A. None.
Technician Textbook Page 2-6. Option B. Paraffin.
Option C. Lard oil.
Correct Answer is. None.
Question Number. 17. When degreasing Explanation. NIL.
aluminium alloys, and no trichloroethylene is
available, a suitable alternative is.
Option A. dilute sulphuric acid. Question Number. 22. In the Limit
Option B. M.E.K. System, the term 'allowance' is the.
Option C. white spirit and naphtha. Option A. difference between shaft and hole
Correct Answer is. white spirit and naphtha. diameters.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. hole diameter variation.
Option C. shaft diameter variation.
Correct Answer is. difference between shaft
and hole diameters.

5
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 26. How should a
scraper be finally sharpened?.
Option A. By draw filing.
Question Number. 23. Which is correct Option B. On a grindstone.
concerning the use of a file?. Option C. On an oil-stone.
Option A. The terms 'double-cut' and Correct Answer is. On an oil-stone.
'second-cut' have the same meaning in Explanation. NIL.
reference to files.
Option B. Apply pressure on the forward
stroke, only, except when filing very soft metals Question Number. 27. How is a D.T.I.
such as lead or aluminium. initially set up?.
Option C. A smoother finish can be obtained Option A. The gauge plunger should be fully
by using a double-cut file than by using a single- extended and the needle zeroed.
cut file. Option B. The gauge plunger should be
Correct Answer is. Apply pressure on the partly depressed and the needle zeroed.
forward stroke, only, except when filing very Option C. The needle zeroed, then the
soft metals such as lead or aluminium. plunger fully extended.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Correct Answer is. The gauge plunger should
Technician Textbook Page 9-11. be partly depressed and the needle zeroed.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 24. Which procedure

is correct when using a reamer to finish a drilled Question Number. 28. Nickel alloy chisels
hole to the correct size?. should be sharpened.
Option A. Turn the reamer only in the Option A. by filing.
cutting direction. Option B. on a grindstone.
Option B. Turn the reamer in the cutting Option C. on an oilstone.
direction when enlarging the hole and in the Correct Answer is. on an oilstone.
opposite direction to remove from the hole. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. Apply considerable pressure on
the reamer when starting the cut and reduce
the pressure when finishing the cut. Question Number. 29. What type of
Correct Answer is. Turn the reamer only in lubricant should be used when drilling
the cutting direction. aluminium?.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Option A. Vegetable oil.
Technician Textbook Page 9-19. Option B. Paraffin.
Option C. None.
Correct Answer is. Paraffin.
Question Number. 25. Of what tolerance Explanation. Paraffin is the lubricant for
is the following an example? 1 in. + 0.002-0.001. aluminium.
Option A. Bilateral.
Option B. Multilateral.
Option C. Unilateral. Question Number. 30. How are spring
Correct Answer is. Bilateral. dividers sharpened?.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. By filing the outside of the points.
Option B. By stoning the outside of the
points.

6
Option C. By grinding the inside of the Option A. Remove the male thread crests
points. with a fine emery cloth.
Correct Answer is. By stoning the outside of Option B. Grind a taper on the end of the
the points. bolt.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. Re-adjust the die and re-cut the
male thread.
Correct Answer is. Re-adjust the die and re-
Question Number. 31. What would be cut the male thread.
the result of an insufficient clearance angle on a Explanation. NIL.
twist drill?.
Option A. It would cut slowly, if at all.
Option B. It would produce an oversize hole. Question Number. 35. You have reamed
Option C. It would tend to pull through the out a hole in a piece of titanium. How should
hole you remove the reamer safely to prevent
Correct Answer is. It would cut slowly, if at unnecessary damage?.
all. Option A. Allow the reamer to pass right
Explanation. External website. through the hole.
http://www.unionbutterfield.com/tech/drills/tr Option B. Remove it, but in the same
ouble_shooting.asp rotation as if cutting.
Option C. Anti-clockwise.
Correct Answer is. Remove it, but in the
Question Number. 32. A tolerance given same rotation as if cutting.
on a dimension is indicated. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General
Option A. by a plus and minus sign Technician Textbook Page 9-19.
preceding the permitted tolerance.
Option B. by the prefix TOL with the
permitted tolerance. Question Number. 36. Why are some
Option C. by enclosing the permitted components torque loaded?.
tolerance within a triangle. Option A. To ensure that their elastic limit is
Correct Answer is. by a plus and minus sign not exceeded.
preceding the permitted tolerance. Option B. To ensure they do not vibrate
Explanation. NIL. loose.
Option C. To ensure that they are tightened
to their yield point.
Question Number. 33. How much Correct Answer is. To ensure that their
material should be allowed for reaming?. elastic limit is not exceeded.
Option A. 0.001 in. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. 0.003 in.
Option C. 0.010 in.
Correct Answer is. 0.003 in. Question Number. 37. When using a
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General reamer, in which direction should it be turned?.
Technician Textbook Page 9-19. Option A. Anti-clockwise when Cutting and
removing.
Option B. Clockwise when cutting and anti-
Question Number. 34. After cutting a 3/8 clockwise when removing.
inch BSF internal thread and stud, it is found Option C. Clockwise when cutting and
that the stud is too large. How is a fit achieved?. removing.

7
Correct Answer is. Clockwise when cutting Explanation. NIL.
and removing.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General
Technician Textbook Page 9-19. Question Number. 42. Chalk when used
with a fine file produces.
Option A. a finer finish.
Question Number. 38. Draw filing Option B. a milled type surface.
produces. Option C. a ground type surface.
Option A. a course finish. Correct Answer is. a finer finish.
Option B. a fine finish. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. a mottled finish.
Correct Answer is. a fine finish.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 43. When using a
hand file correctly, the downward pressure
should be used only.
Question Number. 39. A safe edge of a Option A. on a return stroke.
file is used. Option B. on the forward stroke.
Option A. against a finished surface. Option C. on the forward and return stroke.
Option B. to give a fine polished finish to a Correct Answer is. on the forward stroke.
smooth surface. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. against a rough unfinished
surface.
Correct Answer is. against a finished surface. Question Number. 44. The size of the
Explanation. NIL. nibs of vernier calipers can be ascertained by.
Option A. using the standard of 0.693
inches.
Question Number. 40. What is the Option B. measuring the steel rule.
minimum number of hacksaw blade teeth that Option C. noting the dimension engraved on
should be in contact with the material being the instrument.
cut?. Correct Answer is. noting the dimension
Option A. 2. engraved on the instrument.
Option B. 4. Explanation. BL/3-4 3.5.
Option C. 3.
Correct Answer is. 3.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 45. A shaft dimension
given as 1.225 inches +/- 0.003 inches followed
by 'MMC' should be manufactured to what
Question Number. 41. When reading a size?.
blueprint, a dimension is given as 4.387 inches + Option A. 1.228 Inches.
0.005-0.002. Which statement is true?. Option B. 1.222 Inches.
Option A. The maximum acceptable size is Option C. 1.225 Inches.
4.385 inches. Correct Answer is. 1.228 Inches.
Option B. The minimum acceptable size is Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 5.11.3.
4.385 inches.
Option C. The maximum acceptable size is
4.389 inches. Question Number. 46. 2 microns is.
Correct Answer is. The minimum acceptable Option A. 0.002 mm.
size is 4.385 inches. Option B. 0.002 inch.

8
Option C. 0.000 002 inch. calibration of instrumentation and test
Correct Answer is. 0.002 mm. equipment.
Explanation. 1 micron = 0.001 mm. Option B. CAAIP S.
Option C. the Maintenance Manual.
Correct Answer is. the British Standards
Question Number. 47. The edge or Quality Assurance documentation referring to
surface of a part from which dimensions are calibration of instrumentation and test
measured from is called the. equipment.
Option A. water line. Explanation. Leaflet 2-14 2.2.
Option B. reference plane.
Option C. datum.
Correct Answer is. datum. Question Number. 51. Why are test or
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 5.5.1. inspection instruments regularly calibrated and
certified?.
Option A. To ensure they will perform
Question Number. 48. Water Lines are. within the required limits of operation.
Option A. front to rear measurements on Option B. To ensure they can handle the
the fuselage. range of measurements required of them.
Option B. vertical measurements on the Option C. To ensure they are being used
fuselage. regularly.
Option C. left and right measurements on Correct Answer is. To ensure they will
the fuselage. perform within the required limits of operation.
Correct Answer is. vertical measurements on Explanation. Leaflet 2-14 1.2.
the fuselage.
Explanation. AL/7-2 fig 15.
Question Number. 52. Who is
responsible for ensuring that weight and
Question Number. 49. When clamping balance instrumentation is serviceable before
cable looms containing co-axial cables. use?.
Option A. distortion of the outer sheath is Option A. An engineer holding a license in
allowed providing the inner cable is not the instrument category.
affected. Option B. The manufacturer of the
Option B. the clamps must be no more than equipment.
1 metre apart. Option C. The person responsible for
Option C. avoid distortion to the co-axial carrying out the weight and balance procedure.
cable to maintain the dielectric constant. Correct Answer is. The person responsible for
Correct Answer is. avoid distortion to the co- carrying out the weight and balance procedure.
axial cable to maintain the dielectric constant. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 53. At which

Question Number. 50. If a test or frequency is the calibration of frequently used
inspection instrument has no calibration data crimping tools carried out?.
supplied by the manufacturer, you would use Option A. Bi-annually.
the calibration data provided by. Option B. Annually.
Option A. the British Standards Quality Option C. Every 1000 crimps.
Assurance documentation referring to Correct Answer is. Every 1000 crimps.

9
Explanation. Or every 3 months, whichever
comes first.
Question Number. 58. What drill angle is
used to drill titanium?.
Question Number. 54. When using the Option A. 130-140 degrees.
trepanning tool, the hole to be drilled should Option B. 105-120 degrees.
be. Option C. 90-100 degrees.
Option A. 1/32 inch larger than the guide Correct Answer is. 105-120 degrees.
pin. Explanation. BL/6-18 Para. 6.
Option B. same diameter as the guide pin.
Option C. 1/32 inch smaller than the guide
pin. Question Number. 59. When tightening a
Correct Answer is. same diameter as the nut on a bolt the torque loading applied is.
guide pin. Option A. inversely proportional to the force
Explanation. NIL. applied to the spanner.
Option B. the tangential application of the
force times the perpendicular distance from the
Question Number. 55. When using a point of application to the centre of the bolt.
strip-board, the tracks on a PCB are etched. Option C. independent of whether the
Option A. before component fitment. threads are wet or dry.
Option B. after fitment but before soldering Correct Answer is. the tangential application
the components. of the force times the perpendicular distance
Option C. after fitment and soldering of from the point of application to the centre of
components. the bolt.
Correct Answer is. before component Explanation. Torque = force * distance of force
fitment. from centre of bolt.
Explanation. MMC/1-1 7.

Question Number. 60. The UK standard

Question Number. 56. A 'light drive' fit of limits and fits is.
for a 3/8 inch diameter bolt has a maximum Option A. BS4500.
allowance of. Option B. BS8888.
Option A. 0.005 inch. Option C. BS308.
Option B. 0.0025 inch. Correct Answer is. BS4500.
Option C. 0.0006 inch. Explanation. BS4500 is Limits and Fits.
Correct Answer is. 0.0006 inch.
Explanation. AC43.13-1B Page 7-5 Para.7-39.
Question Number. 61. When using a
Pacific tensiometer the correct tension is found
Question Number. 57. The intervals for by.
calibration of test equipment. Option A. reading dial, provided the correct
Option A. are every year. riser is used for the cable diameter.
Option B. are different from one appliance Option B. comparing reading to chart
to another. provided.
Option C. are as specified in EASA Part-145. Option C. adding reading to riser number.
Correct Answer is. are different from one Correct Answer is. comparing reading to
appliance to another. chart provided.
Explanation. EASA Part-145 is not specific.

10
Explanation. The Pacific Tensiometer is NOT a Option A. 350 lb.in.
direct reading type. See Pacific Tensiometer Option B. 280 lb.in.
instructions. Option C. 245 lb.in.
Correct Answer is. 280 lb.in.
Explanation. BL/6-30 4.4.1.
Question Number. 62. What temperature
should the heat gun be set for shrinking heat
shrink sleeve?.
Option A. At the rated temperature.
Option B. 100°C below rated temperature.
Option C. 100°C above rated temperature.
Correct Answer is. 100°C above rated Question Number. 66. Reaming light
temperature. alloy tube is done with.
Explanation. Rated temperature is the normal Option A. no lubricant.
working temperature of the heat-shrink Option B. the same oil and lubrication as
material. The shrink at approximately 100°C used for cutting.
above that. Option C. hard base lubricant.
Correct Answer is. the same oil and
lubrication as used for cutting.
Question Number. 63. Calibration of Explanation. Reaming is lubricated with the
aircraft hydrostatic weighing equipment is. same fluid as cutting (drilling).
Option A. done once a year.
Option B. carried out every time before an
aircraft is weighed and adjusted by operator. Question Number. 67. Tolerance is the.
Option C. not required. Option A. the difference between a hole
Correct Answer is. done once a year. and shaft size.
Explanation. Hydrostatic weighing equipment Option B. allowable error due to faulty
should be calibrated every year. workmanship and tools.
Option C. difference between worn and new
tools.
Question Number. 64. When drilling light Correct Answer is. allowable error due to
alloy. faulty workmanship and tools.
Option A. lard oil should be used. Explanation. Tolerance is allowable error due
Option B. use the specified lubricant. to faulty workmanship and tools.
Option C. no lubricant is required.
Correct Answer is. use the specified
lubricant. Question Number. 68. What should be
Explanation. Since the question is not specific done if a tool is found not to be working to its
as to which light alloy is to be drilled, the calibrated requirements?.
'specified' lubricant is used (even if the Option A. It should be removed from
'specified' lubricant is 'nothing'). service, marked as unserviceable and sent away
for overhaul.
Option B. It should be placed back into
Question Number. 65. The picture shows stores and kept in service until the next
a torque wrench with an extension. To apply a calibration is due.
torque of 350 lb.in. the reading on the dial Option C. A mechanic should adjust it to
should be. restore it to the correct operation.

11
Correct Answer is. It should be removed from Option B. Even pressure forward and
service, marked as unserviceable and sent away backwards.
for overhaul. Option C. Pressure forwards, relieve
Explanation. Tool should be removed from pressure backwards.
service, marked as unserviceable and sent away Correct Answer is. Pressure forwards, relieve
for overhaul. pressure backwards.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Mechanics
Handbook Page 537.
Question Number. 69. When carrying out
soldering to an end termination and a wire, you
should tin. Question Number. 73. Stubborn pins in
Option A. only the end of the wire. file teeth should be removed by.
Option B. neither the wire or the Option A. tapping file gently on workbench.
termination as tinning is not required. Option B. using file card.
Option C. both the end of the wire and the Option C. pricking out with sharp point.
termination. Correct Answer is. pricking out with sharp
Correct Answer is. both the end of the wire point.
and the termination. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Mechanics
Explanation. BL/6-1 13.2. Handbook Page 538.

Question Number. 70. Run-out of a rod is Question Number. 74. When using low
measured using. tungsten hacksaw blades it is recommended to
Option A. DTI, surface plate and V-blocks. use.
Option B. micrometer and V-blocks. Option A. 60 strokes per minute.
Option C. vernier and V-blocks. Option B. 50 stroke per minute.
Correct Answer is. DTI, surface plate and V- Option C. 40 strokes per minute.
blocks. Correct Answer is. 50 stroke per minute.
Explanation. EL/3-3 Page 2 fig 1. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Mechanics
Handbook Page 535.

Question Number. 71. How would you

mark a defect on an exhaust system?. Question Number. 75. Units of torque
Option A. Pencil. are.
Option B. Chalk. Option A. lbs/ft2 and lbs/in2.
Option C. Special zinc/copper tipped Option B. Lbs and Kg.
marking tool. Option C. lbs.ft and lbs.in.
Correct Answer is. Chalk. Correct Answer is. lbs.ft and lbs.in.
Explanation. AC43 Para. 8-49. Jeppesen Explanation. NIL.
Aircraft Gas Turbine Powerplants 5-31.

Question Number. 76. The calibration of

Question Number. 72. Which of the a piece of test equipment is suspect. Your
following is the most appropriate filing actions would be.
technique?. Option A. calibrate/rectify immediately.
Option A. Pressure backwards, relieve Option B. note and rectify later.
pressure forwards. Option C. remove from service and
annotate accordingly.

12
Correct Answer is. remove from service and Question Number. 3. A micro-shaver is
annotate accordingly. used to.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. cut rivets to length prior to
forming.
Option B. mill the rivet head after forming.
Question Number. 77. What should you Option C. trim the shank diameter prior to
check before using a set of V blocks?. forming.
Option A. That both blocks have the same Correct Answer is. mill the rivet head after
identification stamps. forming.
Option B. It doesn't matter. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe
Option C. The calibration date. Textbook 2-37 and 2-68.
Correct Answer is. That both blocks have the
same identification stamps.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 4. How many teeth
per inch are there on a fine hacksaw blade?.
Option A. 64.
Question Number. 78. When turning the Option B. 16.
handle on a megger with the probes kept apart. Option C. 32.
Option A. the needle stays at infinity. Correct Answer is. 32.
Option B. the needle deflects to infinity. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
Option C. the needle moves to zero. General Textbook Page 13.
Correct Answer is. the needle stays at
infinity.
Explanation. The needle of a Megger rests on Question Number. 5. What is the
infinity and is deflected to Zero. normal cutting angle of a drill?.
Option A. 59°.
03. Tools. Option B. 130°.
Option C. 12°.
Correct Answer is. 59°.
Question Number. 1. How many strokes Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
per minute should generally be used with a General Textbook Page 15.
hacksaw?.
Option A. 60.
Option B. 30. Question Number. 6. When using a
Option C. 55. moving coil as an ammeter the greatest amount
Correct Answer is. 55. of current flows through the.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. bushes.
Option B. coil.
Option C. shunt.
Question Number. 2. What type of drill Correct Answer is. shunt.
would you use on carbon fibre?. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
Option A. Diamond tipped. General Textbook Page 3-89.
Option B. Carborundum.
Option C. Tungsten carbide.
Correct Answer is. Tungsten carbide. Question Number. 7. When using the
Explanation. Airbus A340-600 SRM. old style vernier caliper for taking internal
measurements.
Option A. add the nib measurements.

13
Option B. subtract the nib measurements. Correct Answer is. mill the head flush.
Option C. the nib size has no relevance and Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
can be ignored. 2-68.
Correct Answer is. add the nib
measurements.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook Question Number. 12. A drill and wire
9-39. gauge has holes numbered.
Option A. 10 to 60.
Option B. 1 to 80.
Question Number. 8. To carry out an Option C. 1 to 50.
insulation test on a wire rated at 115 volts you Correct Answer is. 1 to 80.
would use. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
Option A. a 250 volt megger. Fig.2-47.
Option B. a 115 volt megger.
Option C. a 500 volt megger.
Correct Answer is. a 250 volt megger. Question Number. 13. A 250 volt megger
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.4.2 As a should not be used.
rule of thumb, the megger should be twice the Option A. on electronic equipment.
voltage of the system under test. Option B. in fuel tanks.
Option C. on radio aerials.
Correct Answer is. on electronic equipment.
Question Number. 9. The normal drill Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.4.4.
angles are.
Option A. cutting angle 59°, web angle 130°
and clearance angle 12°. Question Number. 14. If the leads of a
Option B. cutting angle 130°, web angle 59° megger are held apart.
and clearance angle 12°. Option A. the spring will return the needle
Option C. cutting angle 12°, web angle 130° to infinity.
and clearance angle 130°. Option B. the spring will return the needle
Correct Answer is. cutting angle 59°, web to the zero stop.
angle 130° and clearance angle 12°. Option C. if the handle was turned the
Explanation. NIL. meter would read infinity.
Correct Answer is. if the handle was turned
the meter would read infinity.
Question Number. 10. The abbreviation Explanation. A megger has no spring.
'A/F' means.
Option A. American Fine.
Option B. Across Flats. Question Number. 15. One megohm is
Option C. Associated Fine. equal to.
Correct Answer is. Across Flats. Option A. 1,000 ohms.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3 Pg.7. Option B. 1,000,000 ohms.
Option C. 100,000 ohms.
Correct Answer is. 1,000,000 ohms.
Question Number. 11. A rivet shaver is Explanation. NIL.
used to.
Option A. mill the head flush.
Option B. mill the tail after cutting. Question Number. 16. Reamers are used
Option C. mill the tail after setting. to.

14
Option A. drill accurate holes. Option A. ream holes of different diameters
Option B. to make holes oversize. by adjusting the position of the blades.
Option C. enlarge holes to accurate Option B. ream tapered holes.
dimensions. Option C. ream holes in metal that has been
Correct Answer is. enlarge holes to accurate heated.
dimensions. Correct Answer is. ream holes of different
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook diameters by adjusting the position of the
9-19. blades.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
General Textbook Page 9-19.
Question Number. 17. The pitch of a
hacksaw blade is.
Option A. its length. Question Number. 21. The main scale on
Option B. the number of teeth on the blade. a 24/25 vernier caliper is divided into.
Option C. the number of teeth per inch. Option A. inches, tenths and twentieths.
Correct Answer is. the number of teeth per Option B. inches, tenths and fortieths.
inch. Option C. inches, tenths and thousandths.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. inches, tenths and
fortieths.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/3-4 2.
Question Number. 18. The web angle of a
normal twist drill is.
Option A. 59°. Question Number. 22. The vernier height
Option B. 12°. gauge uses the same principle as the.
Option C. 130°. Option A. vernier caliper.
Correct Answer is. 130°. Option B. bevel protractor.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook Option C. micrometer.
2-27. Correct Answer is. vernier caliper.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/3-4 4.

Question Number. 19. The leads of a

bonding tester. Question Number. 23. One revolution of
Option A. are interchangeable, one 60 foot the thimble of the English micrometer produces
long having two prongs and a 6 foot one with a a linear movement of the spindle of.
single prong. Option A. 0.001 inch.
Option B. have critical lengths and the Option B. 0.025 inch.
resistance of the leads is accounted for. Option C. 0.040 inch.
Option C. are supplied in 60 foot and 6 foot Correct Answer is. 0.025 inch.
lengths but can be varied due to wear. Explanation. CAIP S BL/3-5.
Correct Answer is. have critical lengths and
the resistance of the leads is accounted for.
Explanation. CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 3-11-2 & Question Number. 24. The pitch of a
CAAIP S Leaflet 9.1 3.10.2(b). metric micrometer screw thread is.
Option A. 0.02 mm.
Option B. 1.0 mm.
Question Number. 20. Expanding Option C. 0.5 mm.
reamers are used to. Correct Answer is. 0.5 mm.
Explanation. NIL.

15
 Option C. 25 equal divisions.
Correct Answer is. 25 equal divisions.
Question Number. 25. When torque Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook
loading, a wrench should be selected where the 9-36.
required value falls.
Option A. at the top end of the range.
Option B. in the middle of the range. Question Number. 30. The thimble of a
Option C. at the bottom end of the range. metric micrometer is divided into.
Correct Answer is. at the top end of the Option A. 50 equal divisions.
range. Option B. 40 equal divisions.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-30 4.5.1. Option C. 25 equal divisions.
Correct Answer is. 50 equal divisions.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. The test
equipment normally used to carry out a
continuity test on an electrical cable is. Question Number. 31. The measuring
Option A. a high tension circuit tester. capacity of a Vernier Caliper is.
Option B. an ammeter. Option A. the length of the graduated scale
Option C. a low reading ohmmeter. less the length of the vernier scale.
Correct Answer is. a low reading ohmmeter. Option B. the length of the graduated scale.
Explanation. CAIP EEL/1-6 4.2.1 & CAAIP S Option C. the length of the graduated scale
Leaflet 9-1 4.2.1. plus the width of the nibs.
Correct Answer is. the length of the
graduated scale less the length of the vernier
Question Number. 27. If all three prongs scale.
on a bonding tester were shorted together, the Explanation. NIL.
metre would read.
Option A. FSD.
Option B. zero. Question Number. 32. Vee-blocks are
Option C. off-scale high. manufactured.
Correct Answer is. zero. Option A. as single items and may be paired
Explanation. CAIP EEL/1-6 3.10.2b. with any other vee-block.
Option B. in sets of two and identified for
use as a set.
Question Number. 28. The pitch of the Option C. in sets of three and identified for
screw thread on an English micrometer is. use as a set.
Option A. 0.0001 inches. Correct Answer is. in sets of two and
Option B. 0.050 inches. identified for use as a set.
Option C. 0.025 inches. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. 0.025 inches.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook
9-36. Question Number. 33. The metric
micrometer reading shown is.
Option A. 13.87 mm.
Question Number. 29. The vernier scale Option B. 13.37 mm.
on an English caliper is divided into. Option C. 10.337 mm.
Option A. 50 equal divisions. Correct Answer is. 13.37 mm.
Option B. 40 equal divisions. Explanation. NIL.

16
 Question Number. 38. The length of the
Vernier Scale in a 24/25 Vernier Caliper is.
Question Number. 34. A ketts saw is used Option A. 0.6 in.
because. Option B. 1.2 in.
Option A. it can cut thicker metal than is Option C. 2.45 in.
required by most repair schemes. Correct Answer is. 0.6 in.
Option B. it is available both pneumatic and Explanation. NIL.
electric.
Option C. its low torque allows single
handed use. Question Number. 39. What is used to
Correct Answer is. it can cut thicker metal measure the depth of a blend after a corrosion
than is required by most repair schemes. repair?.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Option A. Dial Test Indicator.
Textbook. It describes it as electrical, with the Option B. Straight edge and slip gauges.
advantage of being able to cut sheet to 3/16 Option C. Vernier caliper.
inch thick. Care to be taken to prevent blade Correct Answer is. Dial Test Indicator.
from 'grabbing and kicking back'. Explanation. AL/7-14 Page 12. BL/4-20 Page 9.

Question Number. 35. The gears used in Question Number. 40. Vacu-blast beads
a pistol windy are. re-used on a steel component, after being used
Option A. gears in a gearbox. on an aluminium component will.
Option B. gyrator type gears. Option A. cause clogging of the vacu-blast
Option C. spur gears. machine.
Correct Answer is. spur gears. Option B. be ineffective in abrasion.
Explanation. Sun and planet gear reduction, Option C. cause corrosion to the steel
using spur gears. component.
Correct Answer is. cause corrosion to the
steel component.
Question Number. 36. Cross cut files. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. cut on the backward stroke only.
Option B. cut in both directions.
Option C. cut on the forward stroke only. Question Number. 41. The main scale on
Correct Answer is. cut on the forward stroke a 49/50 Vernier caliper is divided into.
only. Option A. inches, tenths and thousandths.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. inches, tenths and twentieths.
Option C. inches, tenths and fortieths.
Correct Answer is. inches, tenths and
Question Number. 37. The correct size twentieths.
spanner for use on a unified 5/16 in. threaded Explanation. NIL.
hexagon headed bolt is.
Option A. 5/16 in A/F.
Option B. 1/2 in A/F. Question Number. 42. Centre punches
Option C. 1/4 in A/F. are made of.
Correct Answer is. 1/2 in A/F. Option A. high carbon steel with the tip
Explanation. NIL. hardened and tempered.
Option B. case hardened mild steel.

17
Option C. high carbon steel hardened and
tempered. Question Number. 47. How are pin
Correct Answer is. high carbon steel punches classified?.
hardened and tempered. Option A. By length and diameter of the
Explanation. The whole centre punch is small end.
hardened and tempered. Option B. By overall length and type.
Option C. By type and diameter of the small
end.
Question Number. 43. What type of Correct Answer is. By type and diameter of
flutes should be used in a reamer for cutting the small end.
titanium?. Explanation. How are spring dividers
Option A. Spiral flutes. classified?.
Option B. Straight flutes.
Option C. Tapered flutes.
Correct Answer is. Spiral flutes. Question Number. 48. The length of the
Explanation. BL/6-18 7.1. legs.
Option A. The length of the legs.
Option B. The diameter of a circle scribed
Question Number. 44. The depth with the legs at 600.
micrometer reading shown is. Option C. The diameter of the largest circle
Option A. 0.261 ins. that can be scribed.
Option B. 0.361 ins. Correct Answer is. The length of the legs.
Option C. 0.336 ins. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. 0.261 ins.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 49. The purpose of a
taper tap is to.
Question Number. 45. What should be Option A. produce a fine thread.
the included angle of a twist drill for soft Option B. start a thread.
metals?. Option C. form a tapered thread.
Option A. 118 degrees. Correct Answer is. start a thread.
Option B. 65 degrees. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. 90 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 90 degrees.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Question Number. 50. Why is the Vee cut
Technician Textbook Page 2-27. in the base of a scribing block?.
Option A. to reduce the contact area with
the marking off table and reduce friction.
Question Number. 46. What should the Option B. to allow the scribing block to be
point angle of a drill be if it is to be used for used on the edge of the marking off table.
drilling titanium (drill size below 1/4 inch Option C. to trap any dirt that may be
diameter)? adhering to the surface of the marking off table.
Option A. 90° to 105°. Correct Answer is. to trap any dirt that may
Option B. 105 to 120°. be adhering to the surface of the marking off
Option C. 90°. table.
Correct Answer is. 105 to 120°. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. BL/6-18 6.

18
Question Number. 51. An inside
micrometers normal measurement range is.
Option A. ½ in. to 10in. Question Number. 56. Which of the
Option B. 2in. to 10in. following statements is correct?.
Option C. 2in. to 12in. Option A. To cut thin mild steel plate use a
Correct Answer is. 2in. to 12in. coarse blade.
Explanation. BL/3-5 para 3.2 under Note. Option B. To cut an aluminium block use a
fine hacksaw blade.
Option C. To cut thin sheet metal use a fine
Question Number. 52. What is the blade.
purpose of Target Points on a Vernier caliper?. Correct Answer is. To cut thin sheet metal
Option A. To enable spring dividers to be use a fine blade.
accurately set. Explanation. AC65-9A Chapt 12-Metal Cutting
Option B. To zero the caliper. Tools.
Option C. For scribing lines inside tubes.
Correct Answer is. To enable spring dividers
to be accurately set. Question Number. 57. A power meter
Explanation. BL/3-4 3.6. indicates that a circuit has a power of 4 kW.
Separate readings of the voltage and current
are 400 V and 20 A respectively. The Power
Question Number. 53. Die Nuts are used factor is.
to. Option A. 2.
Option A. form internal threads. Option B. ½.
Option B. form external threads. Option C. 20.
Option C. clean up damaged threads. Correct Answer is. ½.
Correct Answer is. clean up damaged Explanation. PF = TP/AP TP = 4,000 AP = 20 *
threads. 400 = 8000 4000/8000 = 1/2.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 58. What is a key-seat

Question Number. 54. A Dial Test rule used for?.
Indicator may be used for. Option A. Marking lines which are parallel
Option A. checking a round bar for bow. to a true edge.
Option B. checking dimensions to within Option B. Marking lines parallel to an axis of
0.125''. a round bar.
Option C. checking any known depth. Option C. Providing a positive driving force.
Correct Answer is. checking a round bar for Correct Answer is. Marking lines parallel to
bow. an axis of a round bar.
Explanation. EL/3-3 fig 1. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 55. Which cut of a file Question Number. 59. When measuring
should be used on mild steel?. current in a circuit, the ammeter is placed.
Option A. Single cut. Option A. in series with the circuit.
Option B. Double cut. Option B. in series with the shunt.
Option C. Second cut. Option C. in parallel with the circuit.
Correct Answer is. Double cut. Correct Answer is. in series with the circuit.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.

19
 Option B. 1 ohm.
Option C. 0.05 ohms.
Question Number. 60. A 3 ½ bit Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
multimeter will indicate readings up-to. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 9999.
Option B. 999 ½.
Option C. 1999. Question Number. 65. Torque loading is
Correct Answer is. 1999. determined by multiplying the tangent force
Explanation. A&P General Textbook CH3-109 applied at the free end of the spanner.
PG 167 Para 2A, and Eismin Aircraft Electricity Option A. by the dia. of the bolt and the
and Electronics 5th edition P171. distance of its point of application.
Option B. by the distance moved by the
point of application.
Question Number. 61. The resolution a Option C. by its distance of application from
bevel protractor can be read to is. the axis of the bolt.
Option A. 50' minutes. Correct Answer is. by its distance of
Option B. 5' minutes. application from the axis of the bolt.
Option C. 1 º. Explanation. Leaflet 2-11 pg 3 para 4.2.
Correct Answer is. 5' minutes.
Explanation. BL/3-4 5.2.
Question Number. 66. Which electrical
measuring device needs a power source?.
Question Number. 62. If an English Option A. A voltmeter.
micrometer is showing 4 main divisions, 3 sub- Option B. An ohmmeter.
divisions and the 25th thimble division was in Option C. An ammeter.
line, what would the reading be?. Correct Answer is. An ohmmeter.
Option A. 0.475 in. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
Option B. 0.175 in. Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 165.
Option C. 0.555 in.
Correct Answer is. 0.475 in.
Explanation. BL/3-5 Para 2.3, 4.1.2. Question Number. 67. When measuring
voltage or current with a digital multimeter, the
indication is.
Question Number. 63. An open circuit on Option A. Average values.
an ohmmeter would be indicated by a reading Option B. peak values.
of. Option C. RMS values.
Option A. infinite resistance. Correct Answer is. RMS values.
Option B. zero resistance. Explanation. A&P General Textbook Page 3-
Option C. a negative resistance. 94. DMMs are 'Average-Responding' meaning
Correct Answer is. infinite resistance. they read RMS if AC.
Explanation. Eismin Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics P165/166.
Question Number. 68. On a multimeter,
what colour lead is connected to the Common
Question Number. 64. The leads of an socket?.
ohmmeter should be replaced if their resistance Option A. Green.
is greater than. Option B. Red.
Option A. 0.5 ohms. Option C. Black.

20
Correct Answer is. Black. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 164 and
Technician Textbook Page 3-94 fig 3-201 and fig CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.3.
3-202.

Question Number. 73. Which of the

Question Number. 69. The Vernier scale following reamers would you use in a hole
of a Bevel Protractor is shown below. What is having a keyway?.
the reading?. Option A. Expanding reamer.
Option A. 38º 45’minutes. Option B. Spiral fluted reamer.
Option B. 86º 15’minutes. Option C. Parallel reamer.
Option C. 63º 15’ minutes. Correct Answer is. Spiral fluted reamer.
Correct Answer is. 63º 15’ minutes. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 74. What is the

Question Number. 70. Three point purpose of a Morse taper on large sizes of twist
micrometers are for measuring. drills?.
Option A. internal dimensions. Option A. To allow the drills to be fitted to a
Option B. external dimensions. drilling machine.
Option C. linear dimensions. Option B. To ensure that the drill is fitted
Correct Answer is. internal dimensions. correctly.
Explanation. BL/3-5 3.4. Option C. To give a positive drive when
fitted into a tapered chuck.
Correct Answer is. To give a positive drive
Question Number. 71. When is a coarse when fitted into a tapered chuck.
hacksaw blade used?. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. When cutting material of thick
cross section.
Option B. When cutting ferrous metals only. Question Number. 75. What should be
Option C. When cutting material of thin the included angle of a twist drill for hard
cross section. metal?.
Correct Answer is. When cutting material of Option A. 90 degrees.
thick cross section. Option B. 100 degrees.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Option C. 118 degrees.
Technician Textbook Page 9-13. Correct Answer is. 118 degrees.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Technician Textbook Page 2-27.
Question Number. 72. A voltage drop
across a component is measured by placing the
meter in. Question Number. 76. The threads per
Option A. parallel with the component. inch on the spindle of an English micrometer
Option B. series with he component. are.
Option C. series with the power source. Option A. 40 t.p.i.
Correct Answer is. parallel with the Option B. 50 t.p.i.
component. Option C. 25 t.p.i.
Correct Answer is. 40 t.p.i.
Explanation. BL/3-5 4.1.

21
 Option B. Number of teeth per inch.
Option C. Grade.
Question Number. 77. The spring loaded Correct Answer is. Arrangement of the teeth.
ratchet attached to the spindle of a standard Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe
external micrometer produces. Textbook Page 220.
Option A. a pre-set feel during use.
Option B. a means for controlling thread
binding. Question Number. 82. Why are teeth of
Option C. a smooth free run during use. hacksaw blades off-set?.
Correct Answer is. a pre-set feel during use. Option A. To allow a quick cutting positive
Explanation. BL/3-5 2.2. action.
Option B. To provide greater strength.
Option C. To provide clearance for non-
Question Number. 78. The purpose of cutting part of the blade.
the land on a twist drill is to. Correct Answer is. To provide clearance for
Option A. to allow clearance for swarf. non-cutting part of the blade.
Option B. reduce friction. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. present the cutting edge at the
required angle.
Correct Answer is. reduce friction. Question Number. 83. How are files
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe classified?.
Technician Textbook Page 2-27. Option A. By length, grade and material.
Option B. By length, grade, cut and section.
Option C. By length, grade, cut, section and
Question Number. 79. The name given to material.
the moving scale on the Vernier caliper is. Correct Answer is. By length, grade, cut and
Option A. the main scale. section.
Option B. the vernier scale. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. the cursor.
Correct Answer is. the vernier scale.
Explanation. BL/3-4 fig 2 (although the whole Question Number. 84. Hammers are
moving frame - which has the scale - is called classified by.
the cursor). Option A. shape of head and length of shaft.
Option B. weight and length of shaft.
Option C. weight and type of head.
Question Number. 80. What is the Correct Answer is. weight and type of head.
reading of the Vernier caliper scale in inches Explanation. NIL.
shown below?.
Option A. 0.1816.
Option B. 1.816. Question Number. 85. What does the
Option C. 1.8016. term 'second cut' indicate as applied to hand
Correct Answer is. 1.816. files?.
Explanation. BL/3-4 2.5 and fig 1. Option A. The grade of the file.
Option B. The section of the file.
Option C. A reconditioned file.
Question Number. 81. What does the cut Correct Answer is. The grade of the file.
of a file refer to?. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. Arrangement of the teeth.

22
 Option B. the tangential application of the
Question Number. 86. What comprises a force times the perpendicular distance to the
full set of BA taps?. centre of the bolt.
Option A. A taper, second and plug tap. Option C. the tangential application of the
Option B. A taper and second tap. force plus the perpendicular distance to the
Option C. A taper and plug tap. centre of the bolt.
Correct Answer is. A taper and plug tap. Correct Answer is. the tangential application
Explanation. Most tap sets are sets of 3. of the force times the perpendicular distance to
Except BA tap sets which do not have a second the centre of the bolt.
tap. Explanation. Leaflet 2-11 pg 3 para 4.2.

Question Number. 87. The teeth on a Question Number. 91. Surface Plates are
hacksaw blade. used.
Option A. does not matter which way they Option A. for marking out work and testing
point. flat surfaces.
Option B. should point away from the Option B. for filing flat surfaces.
handle. Option C. only on surface tables.
Option C. should point towards the handle. Correct Answer is. for marking out work and
Correct Answer is. should point away from testing flat surfaces.
the handle. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 92. The main scale of

Question Number. 88. What is the a Metric Vernier Caliper is calibrated in.
clearance angle on a normal twist drill?. Option A. millimetres.
Option A. 130 degrees. Option B. micro-meters.
Option B. 59 degrees. Option C. millimetres and half millimetres.
Option C. 12 degrees. Correct Answer is. millimetres and half
Correct Answer is. 12 degrees. millimetres.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. BL/3-4 2.5.1

Question Number. 89. When tapping Question Number. 93. For a drill to cut
blind holes. properly it is essential that the point angle be
Option A. a set of three taps is used. the same on each side, for general use the angle
Option B. a set of two taps is used. is.
Option C. a single tap is used. Option A. 12°.
Correct Answer is. a set of three taps is used. Option B. 130°.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. 59°.
Correct Answer is. 59°.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician
Question Number. 90. On a torque Airframe page 2-27.
wrench the torque loading is.
Option A. the tangential application of the
force divided by the perpendicular distance to Question Number. 94. The pitch of a
the centre of the bolt. hacksaw blade is.
Option A. the number of teeth per inch.

23
Option B. its length. Question Number. 99. The pitch of the
Option C. the number of teeth on the blade. screw thread on an English micrometer is.
Correct Answer is. the number of teeth per Option A. 0.050 in.
inch. Option B. 0.001 in.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. 0.025 in.
Correct Answer is. 0.025 in.
Explanation. BL/3-5 4.1.
Question Number. 95. When using a
bench grinding machine the wheel rotates.
Option A. from the top down towards the Question Number. 100. An avometer can
work piece. measure alternating current because it has a.
Option B. either direction as selected on Option A. moving coil.
starting the machine. Option B. bridge rectifier circuit.
Option C. from the bottom upwards past Option C. moving iron.
the work piece. Correct Answer is. bridge rectifier circuit.
Correct Answer is. from the top down Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
towards the work piece. Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 113 and
Explanation. NIL. 167 read together.

Question Number. 96. The thimble of an Question Number. 101. Taper reamers are
English micrometer is divided into. classified by.
Option A. 50 equal divisions. Option A. a type number (1 to 10).
Option B. 40 equal divisions. Option B. the diameter of the small end.
Option C. 25 equal divisions. Option C. the diameter of the large end.
Correct Answer is. 25 equal divisions. Correct Answer is. a type number (1 to 10).
Explanation. BL/3-5 fig 1. Explanation. Taper reamers are classified by a
type number 1- 10.

Question Number. 97. The reading on the

inch micrometer scale shown is. Question Number. 102. A crimped
Option A. 0.483 ins. electrical connection is suspected to be high
Option B. 0.488 ins. resistance. How would you verify this without
Option C. 4.758 ins. disconnecting the circuit?.
Correct Answer is. 0.483 ins. Option A. Measure the millivolt drop across
Explanation. BL/3-5. the connection with a millivolt meter.
Option B. Measure the resistance with an
ohmmeter.
Question Number. 98. The vernier height Option C. Measure the resistance with a 250
gauge uses the same principle as. volt megger.
Option A. the vernier caliper. Correct Answer is. Measure the millivolt drop
Option B. the micrometer. across the connection with a millivolt meter.
Option C. the bevel protractor. Explanation. EEL/1-6 4.3.
Correct Answer is. the vernier caliper.
Explanation. BL/3-4 4.
Question Number. 103. How would you
measure continuity of a coaxial cable?.
Option A. With a safety ohmmeter.

24
Option B. With a reflectometer. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. With a 250 volt megger.
Correct Answer is. With a reflectometer.
Explanation. Other versions of this question Question Number. 107. Taper pins are
say Time Domain Reflectometer, or Time Delay classified by.
Reflectometer. Option A. length and diameter of large end.
Option B. length and diameter of small end.
Option C. length and taper.
Question Number. 104. On a long coaxial Correct Answer is. length and diameter of
cable how would you check for discontinuities small end.
and shorts in situ?. Explanation. Leaflet 2-5 11. BL/6-13 11.
Option A. Continuity tester.
Option B. Safety ohmmeter.
Option C. Time Domain Reflectometer. Question Number. 108. Live AC circuits are
Correct Answer is. Time Domain to be checked for open circuits by the use of.
Reflectometer. Option A. multimeter set to AC volts.
Explanation. A TDR will find damaged bits of Option B. ammeter set to amps.
long coax runs. One version of this question Option C. ohmmeter set to megohms.
says Time 'Delay' Reflectometer - which means Correct Answer is. multimeter set to AC volts.
the same thing. Explanation. A voltmeter would be used
because it does not require the breaking of the
circuit.
Question Number. 105. If the leads of a
bonding tester are damaged, what is the
procedure?. Question Number. 109. A multiplier
Option A. The damaged leads and the tester resistance is used to extend the working range
should be returned to the manufacturer for of the.
repair and calibration. Option A. ammeter.
Option B. Provided that the damage is Option B. voltmeter.
situated close to the end of the leads the cable Option C. ohmmeter.
may be shortened. Correct Answer is. voltmeter.
Option C. A new lead may be manufactured Explanation. Multipliers are used with
using the correct current rated cable. voltmeters. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook.
Correct Answer is. The damaged leads and
the tester should be returned to the
manufacturer for repair and calibration. Question Number. 110. On twist drill
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.1.1. & EEL/1-6 Para chart, small drills have.
3.11.2. Option A. smallest numbers.
Option B. largest numbers.
Option C. their sizes in fractions, in inches.
Question Number. 106. When carrying out Correct Answer is. largest numbers.
a continuity test on a circuit when a known Explanation. Numbered drill go from 80
resistance exists, what instrument would you (0.0135 inches - smallest) to 1 (0.228 inches -
use?. largest) and are then lettered.
Option A. A lamp and battery.
Option B. A high resistance insulation tester.
Option C. A multimeter. Question Number. 111. The Sine Bar is
Correct Answer is. A multimeter. used to.

25
Option A. check accuracy of slip gauges. Correct Answer is. average value.
Option B. produce angles using slip gauges. Explanation. An AC voltmeter (known as
Option C. by itself to calculate angles. Average Responding) measures RMS.
Correct Answer is. produce angles using slip
gauges.
Explanation. Workshop Technology Part 2 Question Number. 116. A hydrometer is
WAJ Chapman Pg.57. used to.
Option A. check battery electrolyte specific
gravity.
Question Number. 112. On a vernier Option B. check battery electrolyte density.
micrometer, what will three turns of the barrel Option C. take humidity reading.
represent?. Correct Answer is. check battery electrolyte
Option A. 0.075 inch. specific gravity.
Option B. 0.100 inch. Explanation. Specific gravity is the density
Option C. 0.050 inch. relative to water at 4 degrees C.
Correct Answer is. 0.075 inch.
Explanation. One full turn of a vernier
micrometer thimble is 0.025 inch. Question Number. 117. A pyrometer is a.
Option A. thermometer for use at high
temperature.
Question Number. 113. How does a windy Option B. pyramid shaped altimeter.
drill get its power? Option C. foam/granule fire extinguisher.
Option A. Spur gears. Correct Answer is. thermometer for use at
Option B. Impeller. high temperature.
Option C. Bevel gears. Explanation. A pyrometer measures high
Correct Answer is. Impeller. temperature.
Explanation. Windy drills have an impeller to
derive power from the air pressure.
Question Number. 118. A hygrometer is
used to.
Question Number. 114. How are taper Option A. check battery electrolyte relative
reamers classified?. density.
Option A. Length, diameter of large end, Option B. take humidity reading.
and diameter of small end. Option C. check battery electrolyte specific
Option B. Taper and diameter of small end. gravity.
Option C. Length and diameter of large end. Correct Answer is. take humidity reading.
Correct Answer is. Length and diameter of Explanation. A hygrometer measures
large end. humidity.
Explanation. Taper reamers are normally
classified by a number 1-10, but if not, by
diameter of large end.
Question Number. 120. To measure AC
with a moving coil, it.
Question Number. 115. An AC voltmeter Option A. can be directly connected.
reads. Option B. is rectified and measures peak
Option A. peak value. value.
Option B. peak to peak value. Option C. is rectified and measures average
Option C. average value. value.

26
Correct Answer is. is rectified and measures Question Number. 124. If an ammeter
average value. reads 0 - 1mA FSD, what would you be required
Explanation. Also known as a D'Arsonval to do to enable it to read 10mA FSD?.
meter. See Jeppesen A&P General Textbook Option A. Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as a
Section 3. Note that the word 'Average' is shunt in parallel with the meter.
incorrect because the meter reads RMS, but Option B. Place a 9.9 ohm resistor across
average is the closest of the three answers. the coils.
Option C. Place a 9 ohm resistor in series
with the meter.
Question Number. 121. What is a Correct Answer is. Place a 5.8 ohm resistor as
countersink tool used for?. a shunt in parallel with the meter.
Option A. To prevent damage to pipework Explanation. No calculation necessary (nor
in a blind hole. possible, with information given). A shunt is
Option B. To adjust the depth of a used with an ammeter to bypass unwanted
countersink. current.
Option C. To adjust the angle of a
countersink.
Correct Answer is. To adjust the depth of a Question Number. 125. The internal
countersink. resistance of a voltmeter is.
Explanation. The countersink tool is to cut and Option A. no more than 0.05 ohms.
adjust depths of the countersink. Option B. low.
Option C. high.
Correct Answer is. high.
Question Number. 122. PIDG crimp tools Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
are marked by. Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 164.
Option A. wire crimp size on tool only.
Option B. coloured handles and wire crimp
size on tool. Question Number. 126. The internal
Option C. coloured handles only. resistance of an ammeter is.
Correct Answer is. coloured handles and wire Option A. low.
crimp size on tool. Option B. 1 ohm.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 fig 2. Handles are red, Option C. high.
blue or yellow and the AWG is stamped on the Correct Answer is. low.
jaws. Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 162.

Question Number. 123. When measuring a

square waveform with a multimeter, what Question Number. 127. A drill bit of 0.250
voltage does it display?. inch would be.
Option A. Less than RMS value. Option A. 7/32 and letter G.
Option B. More than RMS value. Option B. 8/32 and letter E.
Option C. Equal to RMS value. Option C. 6/32 and letter F.
Correct Answer is. Equal to RMS value. Correct Answer is. 8/32 and letter E.
Explanation. A multimeter measures RMS of Explanation. See a drill chart.
whatever waveform it is measuring.

Question Number. 128. Needle grease

points are used on.

27
Option A. items with gland seals.
Option B. small pivoted joints.
Option C. large pivoted joints. Question Number. 133. The scale on an
Correct Answer is. small pivoted joints. ohmmeter is.
Explanation. Needle grease points are flush Option A. cramped at high resistance.
grease nipples which require a pointed adapter Option B. linear.
on the grease gun. Option C. cramped at low resistance.
Correct Answer is. cramped at high
resistance.
Question Number. 129. A flat chisel being Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
used for aluminium should have a point angle Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 169 photo,
of. fig 8-26.
Option A. 65 degrees.
Option B. 30 degrees.
Option C. 55 degrees. Question Number. 134. Three revolutions
Correct Answer is. 30 degrees. of a 40 T.P.l. micrometer will show.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. 0.03 inch.
Option B. 0.075 inch.
Option C. 0.003 inch.
Question Number. 130. A mill file can be Correct Answer is. 0.075 inch.
used for. Explanation. 0.025 inch * 3 = 0.075.
Option A. corners less than 60 degrees.
Option B. saw sharpening.
Option C. general purpose. Question Number. 135. To carry out a
Correct Answer is. saw sharpening. continuity test you would use.
Explanation. External document. Option A. ammeter.
http://www.rockler.com/tech/12369.pdf Option B. an HT circuit tester.
Option C. a low reading ohmmeter.
Correct Answer is. a low reading ohmmeter.
Question Number. 131. A rawhide mallet Explanation. NIL.
is.
Option A. available with copper inserts.
Option B. less expensive than bossing Question Number. 136. What is the
mallet. resolution of a standard DTI?.
Option C. used for giving softer blows than Option A. 0.020 mm.
boxwood mallet. Option B. 0.050 mm.
Correct Answer is. used for giving softer Option C. 0.010 mm.
blows than boxwood mallet. Correct Answer is. 0.010 mm.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. Some modern DTIs can do 1/10th
of that.

Question Number. 132. Tension files.

Option A. can be used to cut in one Question Number. 137. In a moving coil
direction only. meter the deflecting force is provided by.
Option B. clog easily. Option A. a soft iron permanent magnet.
Option C. can cut in either direction. Option B. a current carrying coil pivoted in a
Correct Answer is. can cut in either direction. permanent magnet field.
Explanation. Also known as an ABRAFILE.

28
Option C. hairsprings which move the Option C. low to provide a parallel path for
pointer towards full scale. the circuit current.
Correct Answer is. a current carrying coil Correct Answer is. high so that little current
pivoted in a permanent magnet field. passes through it.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 159. Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 164.

Question Number. 138. The force acting Question Number. 142. When operating a
on a meter which returns the pointer to zero is grease gun, you.
called the. Option A. verify grease fitting can accept
Option A. turning force. grease by hand feel.
Option B. deflecting force. Option B. apply a pressure of 50 - 80 psi.
Option C. controlling force. Option C. clean grease fitting with clean dry
Correct Answer is. controlling force. cloth beforehand.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. clean grease fitting with
clean dry cloth beforehand.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 139. The forces acting
on a meter which moves the pointer over the
scale is called. 04. Avionic General Test Equipment.
Option A. the controlling force.
Option B. the turning force.
Option C. the deflecting force. Question Number. 1. A fuel quantity
Correct Answer is. the deflecting force. test set has an externally adjustable.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. capacitor.
Option B. inductor.
Option C. resistor.
Question Number. 140. The resistance of Correct Answer is. resistor.
an ammeter must be. Explanation. AL/10-3 8.2.6.
Option A. high to create a large volts drop
across it.
Option B. low to prevent volts drop across Question Number. 2. How would you
it. test a mach switch in-situ?.
Option C. low because the ammeter is in Option A. Use built in test equipment.
parallel with the circuit. Option B. Use an external test kit.
Correct Answer is. low to prevent volts drop Option C. It is not possible to test a mach
across it. switch in situ.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Correct Answer is. Use built in test
Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 162/3. equipment.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 141. The resistance of a

voltmeter must be. Question Number. 3. The maximum
Option A. high so that little current passes value of bonding of a secondary structure is.
through it. Option A. 1 megohm.
Option B. low to prevent overloading the Option B. 1 ohm.
circuit. Option C. 1 kilohm.

29
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm. Explanation. Handle is wound in until the
Explanation. CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 3-8. weights are floating, then the outlet pressure is
slowly released to the gauge under test.

Question Number. 4. Circuit tests on

aircraft should be carried out in the following Question Number. 7. When testing
order: thermocouples using a test set the ambient
Option A. bonding, continuity, insulation, temperature.
functional. Option A. never needs to be considered.
Option B. continuity, bonding, functional, Option B. is considered every time.
insulation. Option C. is only considered when
Option C. functional, bonding, continuity, temperatures of 20°C or above.
insulation. Correct Answer is. is considered every time.
Correct Answer is. bonding, continuity, Explanation. AL/10-3 11.11.1. To test the
insulation, functional. system the test set has to be trimmed for
Explanation. Code to remember, B C I F. ambient temperature, as the system when in
operation is adjusted for ambient temperature
by the compensating resistor. This is clearly
Question Number. 5. Before using a stated in the B 737 AMM.
dead weight tester you would.
Option A. calibrate the tester using a
standard weight. Question Number. 8. Electronic test
Option B. pressurize the tester to the equipment for fuel tank contents systems
required pressure. usually incorporate variable.
Option C. replace the oil. Option A. resistors.
Correct Answer is. pressurize the tester to Option B. inductors.
the required pressure. Option C. capacitors.
Explanation. The dead weight tester is first Correct Answer is. capacitors.
pumped up to the required pressure Explanation. NIL.
(platform/weights floating) then gauge under
test is connected.
Question Number. 9. Before using a
bonding tester, the 6 foot lead has the two
Question Number. 6. How should a prongs shorted together with a piece of metal.
dead weight tester be used?. What would the indicator read?.
Option A. The pressure increasing handle Option A. Full scale left.
should be screwed in before the addition of Option B. Full scale right.
fluid and screwed out when fluid is added. Option C. Zero at the centre.
Option B. The outlet should not be Correct Answer is. Full scale right.
connected to the instrument until the required Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.10.2 a Infinity is full
weights are raised by the platform. scale to the right.
Option C. The platform should be removed
and fluid poured into the hole.
Correct Answer is. The outlet should not be Question Number. 10. When using a
connected to the instrument until the required megger to test insulation resistance, capacitive
weights are raised by the platform. filters should be disconnected for what reason?.
Option A. Remove the risk of damage to the
megger.

30
Option B. Remove the spurious readings Option A. select an ATC channel and check
caused by the capacitors charging and the morse code.
discharging. Option B. select ident and check the
Option C. Prevent damage to the filters. indication on the instrument panel.
Correct Answer is. Prevent damage to the Option C. press the ident and monitor the
filters. indication on the ramp test set.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.4.4 e AandP Correct Answer is. press the ident and
Mechanics General Handbook Pg 351. monitor the indication on the ramp test set.
Explanation. The ident is a button on the
transponder panel, which, when pressed,
Question Number. 11. When carrying out causes the indication on the ATCs radar screen
a serviceability check on a bonding tester - short to 'bloom'.
together the three prongs of both probes and
ensure which of the following?.
Option A. The meter reads 0.1 ohm. Question Number. 15. A pressure gauge
Option B. A zero reading. is fitted to a Dead Weight Tester. The piston
Option C. A full scale reading is obtained. area is 0.25 sq.in. and the total mass of the
Correct Answer is. A zero reading. mass carrier and masses is 5lb. If the pressure
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.10.2 (b). gauge is accurate what pressure in pounds per
square inch (PSI) will it read?.
Option A. 1.25 psi.
Question Number. 12. If an insulation Option B. 20 psi.
resistance tester is operated and the leads are Option C. 200 psi.
suspended in free air, what will the meter Correct Answer is. 20 psi.
read?. Explanation. Pressure = Force / Area = 5/0.25
Option A. Zero. = 20 PSI.
Option B. Mid scale - it is a ratiometer
movement and there is no current flowing in
the external circuit. Question Number. 16. When testing a
Option C. Infinity. fuel metering unit, how is it checked?.
Correct Answer is. Infinity. Option A. With the meter in series with the
Explanation. NIL. unit.
Option B. With the unit disconnected.
Option C. With the meter in parallel with
Question Number. 13. When using a the unit.
digital meter to test a diode, a correct operation Correct Answer is. With the meter in series
of the diode is indicated by a volt drop of. with the unit.
Option A. 0.3V to 0.7V. Explanation. A fuel metering unit is checked
Option B. 2.5V to 2.8V. with the fuel meter in series with the meter
Option C. 1.5V to 2V. under test. No reference found.
Correct Answer is. 0.3V to 0.7V.
Explanation. Forward voltage drop of a diode
is 0.2V (germanium) or 0.6V (silicon). Question Number. 17. When using a
bonding tester.
Option A. ensure prongs penetrate
Question Number. 14. To check that the anodised layer.
ident pulse is being generated from an ATC Option B. ensure prongs do not penetrate
transponder,. anodising layer.

31
Option C. an anodised component cannot Correct Answer is. calibrated light generator
be tested. and opto-power meter.
Correct Answer is. ensure prongs penetrate Explanation. External website.
anodised layer. http://www.tpub.com/neets/tm/109-13.htm
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 Para.3.10.6.

Question Number. 22. When using

Question Number. 18. On a static leak transistorized test equipment, what should the
tester, pressure is released by. output be?.
Option A. an internal balance valve in the Option A. Not affected by impedance.
tester. Option B. High impedance.
Option B. slowly opening the release knob Option C. Low impedance.
for 3 minutes. Correct Answer is. Low impedance.
Option C. a bleed valve in the tester. Explanation. Transistorised equipment
Correct Answer is. slowly opening the release generally has a high input impedance and a low
knob for 3 minutes. output impedance.
Explanation. The pressure in the pitot/static
leak tester must be released slowly.
Question Number. 23. To read the
transponder coding from an aircraft's
Question Number. 19. A fuel calibration transponder you.
test set when used to check an aircraft with half Option A. use the code signal and a chart to
a fuel load is connected. determine the signal.
Option A. to gauge with fuel level in parallel. Option B. use a ATC600 test set.
Option B. to gauge with fuel level Option C. use the output on the flight deck.
capacitance. Correct Answer is. use a ATC600 test set.
Option C. to gauge with fuel level in series. Explanation. Jeppesen Aircraft Radio Systems -
Correct Answer is. to gauge with fuel level in Powell Page 136/7.
series.
Explanation. The test set is connected in series
with the fuel level conditioner. Question Number. 24. Bonding lead
testers are attached with.
Option A. a 60 feet lead is connected to the
Question Number. 20. A capacitive fuel main earth and a 6 foot test lead is connected
contents system should be tested with. to check the resistance between selected
Option A. a ratiometer. points.
Option B. a Wheatstone bridge. Option B. a 6 feet test lead is connected to
Option C. a decade box. the main earth and a 60 feet lead is connected
Correct Answer is. a Wheatstone bridge. to check the resistance between selected
Explanation. By elimination. points.
Option C. either of the leads can be
connected anywhere.
Question Number. 21. Continuity of a Correct Answer is. a 60 feet lead is
fibreoptic cable is tested with a. connected to the main earth and a 6 foot test
Option A. light source and optometer. lead is connected to check the resistance
Option B. multimeter. between selected points.
Option C. calibrated light generator and Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.10.3.
opto-power meter.

32
 Correct Answer is. each view represents the
Question Number. 25. On a Bonding side of the object nearest to it in the adjacent
Tester the number of probes on the 60 ft and view.
6ft leads respectively are. Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 2.1 page 7 para
Option A. 1 and 2. 5.3.1.
Option B. 2 and 2.
Option C. 2 and 1.
Correct Answer is. 1 and 2. Question Number. 2. This drawing
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.10. indicates.
Option A. a countersunk hole.
Option B. a blind tapped hole.
Question Number. 26. The damping force Option C. a counterbored hole.
in a meter. Correct Answer is. a blind tapped hole.
Option A. prevents oscillation of the Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 Table 3.
pointer.
Option B. returns the pointer to zero.
Option C. assists the pointer to move over Question Number. 3. The width of a
the scale. visible outline on a drawing is.
Correct Answer is. prevents oscillation of the Option A. 0.3 mm.
pointer. Option B. 0.7 mm.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. 0.5 mm.
Correct Answer is. 0.7 mm.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 5.2.
Question Number. 27. On a VOR/ILS test
set the 'Tone Delete' function.
Option A. functionally checks that the Question Number. 4. What does GA
glideslope pointer moves down-scale. stand for on a drawing?.
Option B. functionally checks that the Option A. General assembly.
glideslope failure flag operates. Option B. General arrangement.
Option C. functionally checks that the Option C. Gradient Axis.
glideslope pointer moves up-scale. Correct Answer is. General arrangement.
Correct Answer is. functionally checks that Explanation. NIL.
the glideslope failure flag operates.
Explanation. The Tone Delete tests the flag.
Question Number. 5. Design drawings of
05. Engineering Drawings, Diagrams and aircraft components are produced by
Standards. organizations approved by.
Option A. SBAC.
Option B. British Standards Institute.
Question Number. 1. What is third angle Option C. CAA in accordance with the
projection?. BCARs.
Option A. each view represents the side of Correct Answer is. CAA in accordance with
the object furthest from the adjacent view. the BCARs.
Option B. each view represents the side of Explanation. NIL.
the object nearest to it in the adjacent view.
Option C. each view is at an angle of 30 Question Number. 7. Which pictorial
degrees to the plane of projection. projection shows one face in true elevation and

33
line of depth normally draw at 30° or 45° to the Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 4.1.
horizontal?.
Option A. Oblique.
Option B. Perspective. Question Number. 14. Hatching lines are
Option C. Isometric. usually drawn at:.
Correct Answer is. Oblique. Option A. 60°.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. 30°.
Option C. 45°.
Correct Answer is. 45°.
Question Number. 8. If a design Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook
amendment is made on a drawing. fig 5-20 and Leaflet 2-1 5.4.1a.
Option A. a new issue number and date
must be allocated to the drawing.
Option B. the old issue number is retained, Question Number. 15. The scale of an
with the amendment date added. engineering drawing is shown as 1 : 4. This
Option C. no change in issue number or indicates it is.
date is necessary. Option A. drawn to a quarter.
Correct Answer is. a new issue number and Option B. drawn to scale.
date must be allocated to the drawing. Option C. drawn four times larger.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 4.2. Correct Answer is. drawn to a quarter.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 5.1.

Question Number. 9. The British

Standard for Engineering Drawings is. Question Number. 16. An orthographic
Option A. BS 308. projection usually shows.
Option B. BS 306. Option A. one, three-dimensional view of an
Option C. BS 307. object.
Correct Answer is. BS 308. Option B. a pictorial view of the object.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 1.3. Option C. three, two-dimensional views of
an object.
Correct Answer is. three, two-dimensional
Question Number. 10. P.C.D. is an views of an object.
abbreviation for. Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 5.3.
Option A. Pitch Circle Diameter.
Option B. Pitch Cord Diameter.
Option C. Precision Circle Dimension. Question Number. 17. When
Correct Answer is. Pitch Circle Diameter. dimensioning a drawing, the dimension lines
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 table 3. should be.
Option A. the minimum number of
dimensions necessary to enable the component
. to be manufactured.
Question Number. 13. Drawing numbers Option B. as many dimensions as possible.
are. Option C. only size dimensions.
Option A. the same as serial numbers. Correct Answer is. the minimum number of
Option B. changed after each drawing dimensions necessary to enable the component
amended after May 28, 1999. to be manufactured.
Option C. unique to each drawing. Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 5.5.
Correct Answer is. unique to each drawing.

34
 Option C. Lightly stressed parts such as
Question Number. 18. PFD' on an fairings, wheel shields and minor component
engineering drawing would indicate. brackets etc.
Option A. dye penetrant check. Correct Answer is. Highly stressed parts but if
Option B. ultra-sonic test. damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft.
Option C. repair and recondition. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. dye penetrant check.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 Table 4.
Question Number. 25. The abbreviation
B.A. means.
Question Number. 19. S.W.G. is an Option A. British Assembly.
abbreviation for. Option B. British Association.
Option A. Standard Wire Gauge. Option C. British Arrangement.
Option B. Screw Width Gauge. Correct Answer is. British Association.
Option C. Standard Water Gauge. Explanation. Leaflet 3-3.
Correct Answer is. Standard Wire Gauge.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-1 Table 3. Question Number. 27. Where are correct
layout, dimensioning, numbering and reference
procedures for engineering drawing are to be
Question Number. 20. If you are unable found?.
to identify a structure 'classification' as either Option A. BS 31.
primary or secondary, what action should you Option B. BS 1916.
adopt?. Option C. BS 308.
Option A. Grade it as 'secondary'. Correct Answer is. BS 308.
Option B. Upgrade it to ‘primary’. Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 1.1.
Option C. Paint it red and stamp it as
'tertiary'.
Correct Answer is. Upgrade it to ‘primary’. Question Number. 28. 10 : 1 on an
Explanation. NIL. engineering drawing indicates.
Option A. the drawing is full size.
Option B. the drawing is one tenth full size.
Question Number. 21. What colour is Option C. the drawing is ten times full size.
used to indicate a tertiary structure on a Correct Answer is. the drawing is ten times
diagram or drawing?. full size.
Option A. Red. Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and
Option B. Green. Integrated Systems, Pallett Page 1 5.1.
Option C. Yellow.
Correct Answer is. Green. Question Number. 30. Lines known as
Explanation. NIL. short dashes (thin) are used on drawings to
indicate.
Option A. hidden detail.
Question Number. 22. Which parts of the Option B. visible outlines.
aircraft are classified secondary structures?. Option C. cutting revolved.
Option A. Highly stressed parts but if Correct Answer is. hidden detail.
damaged will not cause failure of the aircraft. Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 table 1.
Option B. Highly stressed parts and if
damaged may cause failure of the aircraft and Question Number. 32. Any change to a
loss of life. drawing.

35
Option A. must be notified to the S.B.A.C. Question Number. 38. A thread on a
Option B. must be accompanied by the new drawing is labeled ½-20 UNF – 1B. The thread is
issue number and date. Option A. either external or internal,
Option C. requires a new drawing number. depending on the application.
Correct Answer is. must be accompanied by Option B. external.
the new issue number and date. Option C. internal.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 4.2. Correct Answer is. internal.
Explanation.
Question Number. 35. Break lines are
used.
Option A. to show where components are Question Number. 39. NTS on a drawing
expected to break. stands for.
Option B. in sectional drawing. Option A. Not True Scale.
Option C. where it would be inconvenient Option B. No Tolerance System.
(because of limited space) to draw long lengths Option C. Not To Scale.
of the same section. Correct Answer is. Not To Scale.
Correct Answer is. where it would be Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 table 3.
inconvenient (because of limited space) to draw
long lengths of the same section.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 5.45. Question Number. 40. A hydraulic system
schematic drawing would indicate the.
Option A. type and quantity of the hydraulic
Question Number. 36. An oblique fluid.
projection. Option B. specific location of the individual
Option A. is the same as an isometric components within the aircraft.
projection. Option C. direction of fluid flow through the
Option B. has one view looking directly at system.
one face with the lines representing depth Correct Answer is. direction of fluid flow
drawn at 90°. through the system.
Option C. has one view looking directly at Explanation. NIL.
one face with the lines representing depth
drawn at a constant angle.
Correct Answer is. has one view looking Question Number. 41. Which statement
directly at one face with the lines representing is true regarding an orthographic projection?.
depth drawn at a constant angle. Option A. There are always at least two
Explanation. NIL. views.
Option B. It could have as many as eight
views.
Question Number. 37. A drawing in Option C. One-view, two-view, and three-
which the subassemblies or parts are shown as view drawings are the most common.
brought together on the aircraft is called. Correct Answer is. One-view, two-view, and
Option A. an installation drawing. three-view drawings are the most common.
Option B. a detail drawing. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. a sectional drawing.
Correct Answer is. an installation drawing.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 42. A line used to
show an edge which is not visible is a.
Option A. break line.

36
Option B. phantom line. Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 Figure 3.
Option C. hidden line.
Correct Answer is. hidden line.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 5.2 table 1. Question Number. 51. When a cutting
plane on a drawing cuts a web longitudinally,
the web is.
Question Number. 43. One purpose for Option A. sectioned the same as the rest of
schematic diagrams is to show the. the view.
Option A. size and shape of components Option B. not sectioned.
within a system. Option C. sectioned with different direction
Option B. functional location of components of hatch.
within a system. Correct Answer is. not sectioned.
Option C. physical location of components Explanation. BS 308.
within a system.
Correct Answer is. functional location of
components within a system. Question Number. 54. When a cutting
Explanation. NIL. plane goes through a bush and bolt assembly,
on the sectioned view.
Option A. both the bush and the bolt will be
Question Number. 45. What type of line hatched.
is normally used in a mechanical drawing or Option B. the bush will be hatched but the
blueprint to represent an edge or object not bolt will not.
visible to the viewer?. Option C. neither the bush nor the bolt will
Option A. Alternate short and long light be hatched.
dashes. Correct Answer is. the bush will be hatched
Option B. Medium-weight dashed line. but the bolt will not.
Option C. Light solid line. Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 fig 5 5.4.1 (b).
Correct Answer is. Medium-weight dashed
line.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 5.2 table 1. Question Number. 58. The letter A.F.D. in
a circle stamped on a material indicates that it
has.
Question Number. 46. A specific Option A. been anodic flaw detected.
measured distance from the datum or some Option B. been annealed fired and doped.
other point identified by the manufacturer, to a Option C. an across flats diameter bolt.
point in or on the aircraft is called a. Correct Answer is. been anodic flaw
Option A. zone number. detected.
Option B. station number. Explanation. Leaflet 2-1 Table 4.
Option C. specification number.
Correct Answer is. station number.
Explanation. AL/7-2 6. Question Number. 59. Where would
Zone 324 be found in ATA 100?.
Question Number. 50. In a first angle Option A. Between rear spar of wing and
orthographic projection the plan view is placed. trailing edge of wing.
Option A. above the front elevation. Option B. Tip of horizontal stabilizer.
Option B. below the side elevation. Option C. Fwd of the wing rear spar.
Option C. below the front elevation. Correct Answer is. Tip of horizontal stabilizer
Correct Answer is. below the front elevation. Explanation. Zone 3xx is empennage.

37
 Correct Answer is. 1 in 600.
Question Number. 61. The latest drawing Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10.
is identified by the.
Option A. issue number.
Option B. amendment number. Question Number. 5. Which of the
Option C. date. following shafts would you use to obtain a
Correct Answer is. issue number. clearance fit in a bush 0.750 inch diameter?.
Explanation. CAAIP\'s leaflet 2-1 pg 4 para 4.2. Option A. 0.752 inch.
Option B. 0.748 inch.
Option C. 750 inch.
06. Fits and Clearances. Correct Answer is. 0.748 inch.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 1. Tolerances are

classified in two ways, these are. Question Number. 6. Which of the
Option A. Dimensional and isometric. following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -
Option B. Upper and lower. GO' gauge?.
Option C. Dimensional and geometric. Option A. Clearance.
Correct Answer is. Dimensional and Option B. Tolerance.
geometric. Option C. Allowance.
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 2-1 p16 para 5.11. Correct Answer is. Tolerance.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. The maximum

permissible bow in a steel tube is. Question Number. 7. Which of the
Option A. 1 : 400. following is a 'Bilateral Tolerance'?.
Option B. 1 : 200. Option A. 2 inches -0.002.
Option C. 1 : 600. Option B. 2 inches +0.002.
Correct Answer is. 1 : 600. Option C. 2 inches ±0.002.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4. Correct Answer is. 2 inches ±0.002.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. The equipment

required to carry out a run-out check on a shaft Question Number. 8. A tolerance is.
would be. Option A. a permitted difference between
Option A. a DTI and 'V' blocks. new and worn dimensions.
Option B. a ball bearing and a micrometer. Option B. a permitted variation on a
Option C. a surface plate and a three leg dimension to allow for inaccuracy of
trammel. equipment.
Correct Answer is. a DTI and 'V' blocks. Option C. a required difference in dimension
Explanation. AC43.13-1B Page 4-20. between mating parts to obtain a certain class
of fit.
Correct Answer is. a permitted variation on a
Question Number. 4. What is the dimension to allow for inaccuracy of
maximum bow allowed in a strut?. equipment.
Option A. 1 in 200. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. 1 in 500.
Option C. 1 in 600.

38
Question Number. 9. A transition fit is Option A. some sort of driving force.
one in which the shaft is. Option B. the shaft to be shrunk by cooling.
Option A. larger than the hole. Option C. the hole to be expanded by heat.
Option B. smaller than the hole. Correct Answer is. some sort of driving force.
Option C. the same size as the hole. Explanation. A press fit is a small interference
Correct Answer is. the same size as the hole. only.
Explanation. BS 4500 Datasheet 4500A.,
External document.
www.tech.plym.ac.uk/sme/disnotes/tola.pdf Question Number. 14. What is the typical
acceptable limit of a dent on a frame member?.
Option A. One and a half times the skin
Question Number. 10. The length of a thickness.
blended repair of corrosion should be no less Option B. Twice the skin gauge and 0.75
than. inch diameter.
Option A. 10 times its depth. Option C. One gauge depth and 0.75 inch
Option B. 20 times its depth. diameter.
Option C. 5 times its depth. Correct Answer is. One gauge depth and 0.75
Correct Answer is. 20 times its depth. inch diameter.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 11. If there is a Question Number. 15. A light drive

positive allowance between the smallest clearance between 3/4 inch diameter bolt and
possible hole and the largest possible shaft, the hole, on a drawing would be shown as.
fit is known as. Option A. 0.005 Inches.
Option A. a transition fit. Option B. 0.0015 Inches.
Option B. a clearance fit. Option C. 0.0025 Inches.
Option C. an interference fit. Correct Answer is. 0.0015 Inches.
Correct Answer is. a clearance fit. Explanation. AC43 says 0.0006 for a 3/8 in.
Explanation. NIL. bolt, so 0.0015 is the closest (and reasonable
for a 3/4 in. bolt).

Question Number. 12. After mechanical 07. Electrical Cables and Connectors.
removal of corrosion on an aluminium alloy
casting, the length of the blended recess should
be. Question Number. 1. In a front release
Option A. no less than ten times the depth. connector the pin will be.
Option B. no less than twenty times the Option A. released from rear and extracted
depth. from the front.
Option C. no more than twenty times the Option B. released from the front and
depth. extracted from the front.
Correct Answer is. no less than twenty times Option C. released from the front and
the depth. extracted from the rear.
Explanation. AC43 6.118 6-23. Correct Answer is. released from the front
and extracted from the rear.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3 8.3.2.
Question Number. 13. A press fit
requires.

39
Question Number. 2. A wire clamped Option A. 16 - 14.
vertically at one end and horizontally at the Option B. 12 - 10.
other end should have a bend radius of no less Option C. 22 - 18.
than. Correct Answer is. 12 - 10.
Option A. 3 times the diameter of the wire. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. 5 times the diameter of the wire.
Option C. 10 times the diameter of the wire.
Correct Answer is. 3 times the diameter of Question Number. 7. Can the insulation
the wire. grip be adjusted on a PIDG crimp tool?.
Explanation. CAIP S AL/3-2 6.4. Option A. No.
Option B. Yes by turning a knob.
Option C. Yes by adjusting the pins.
Question Number. 3. Glycol deicer fluid Correct Answer is. Yes by adjusting the pins.
in contact with a silver cable can cause. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. a fire.
Option B. disintegration of the cable
insulation. Question Number. 8. What gauge of pin
Option C. corrosion. would a red plastic insert/extract tool be used
Correct Answer is. a fire. on?.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 11-5 Para.8.8. Option A. 12 - 10.
Option B. 22 - 18.
Option C. 16 - 14.
Question Number. 4. With a rear Correct Answer is. 22 - 18.
release connector, the pin will be. Explanation. Boeing Standard Wiring
Option A. released from the front and Practices, External website.
extracted from the rear. http://www.cheifaircraft.com/Aircraft/Installati
Option B. released from the rear and onSupply/Terminals.html
extracted from the front.
Option C. released from the rear and
extracted from the rear. Question Number. 9. What cable would
Correct Answer is. released from the rear you use where temperatures are going to
and extracted from the rear. exceed 200°C?.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3, 8.3.2 (b) (i). Option A. Tinned copper or aluminium.
Option B. Silver plated copper or
aluminium.
Question Number. 5. The maximum Option C. Nickel plated copper or
operating temperature for a nickel plated aluminium.
copper or aluminium connector is. Correct Answer is. Nickel plated copper or
Option A. 260°C. aluminium.
Option B. 135°C. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 11-5, 7.2.1.
Option C. 200°C.
Correct Answer is. 260°C.
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 11-5 para 7.2.1. Question Number. 10. How long should a
fireproof cable last in a fire?.
Option A. 5 minutes.
Question Number. 6. What gauge of pin Option B. 50 minutes.
would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool be Option C. 15 minutes.
used on?. Correct Answer is. 15 minutes.

40
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. 0.05 ohms.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 3.8.

Question Number. 11. What gauge of pin

would a blue plastic insert / extract tool be used Question Number. 16. Before effecting a
on?. crimp, the bare ends of a cable should be.
Option A. 12 - 10. Option A. tightly twisted.
Option B. 16 - 14. Option B. twisted lightly in the direction of
Option C. 22 - 18. the lay.
Correct Answer is. 16 - 14. Option C. straightened out.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. twisted lightly in the
direction of the lay.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3, 7.5.3.
Question Number. 12. The insulation
resistance for wiring in undercarriage wheel-
wells should normally be not less than. Question Number. 17. The number of the
Option A. 10 megohms. dots impressed on the insulation of the pre-
Option B. 5 megohms. insulated connectors during crimping indicates
Option C. 2 megohms. that.
Correct Answer is. 2 megohms. Option A. the correct connector has been
Explanation. CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 4-5-4 (a). used.
Option B. the correct tool was used to effect
the connection.
Question Number. 13. What causes Option C. the crimp is properly formed.
knuckling on older type electrical cables?. Correct Answer is. the correct tool was used
Option A. Over-temperature soldering. to effect the connection.
Option B. Applying cable ties too tightly. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. Excessive pull through forces.
Correct Answer is. Excessive pull through
forces. Question Number. 18. The pressure of
Explanation. Leaflet 1l-5 8.6. the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping
tool can be changed by.
Option A. varying the torque applied to the
Question Number. 14. To find a high handles.
resistance or open circuit, carry out. Option B. using different coloured crimping
Option A. a milli-volt drop test. pliers and terminations.
Option B. a continuity check. Option C. changing the position of the pins.
Option C. a bonding check. Correct Answer is. changing the position of
Correct Answer is. a continuity check. the pins.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.2.1. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-3 fig 2.

Question Number. 15. The maximum Question Number. 19. When referring to
bonding resistance on an aircraft primary fuses, HRC means.
structure should be. Option A. high rupture capacity.
Option A. 0.01 ohms. Option B. hot running capacity.
Option B. 0.001 ohms. Option C. high running current.
Option C. 0.05 ohms. Correct Answer is. high rupture capacity.

41
Explanation. High Rupturing Capacity. Option A. fit the correct lock nuts.
Option B. make sure the outer cup is fitted
the correct way round.
Question Number. 20. When wiring an Option C. not damage any seals fitted.
electrical component to a plug, the live wire is Correct Answer is. not damage any seals
coloured. fitted.
Option A. blue. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. green and yellow.
Option C. brown.
Correct Answer is. brown. Question Number. 25. When inserting
Explanation. NIL. pins into a front release connector the inserting
tool should be used with the gap facing which
direction?.
Question Number. 21. A hole is placed in Option A. The centre of the connector.
the lowest point of electrical cable conduit. Option B. Either direction.
Option A. to allow for pull-through of the Option C. The outside of the connector.
cables. Correct Answer is. The outside of the
Option B. to secure the conduit to a piece of connector.
aircraft structure. Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 Para.8.3.2.
Option C. to allow for drainage of moisture.
Correct Answer is. to allow for drainage of
moisture. Question Number. 26. When using a
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and hydraulic crimping tool, after completing the
Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 65. crimping operation, the crimp is formed when
when.
Option A. the bypass valve opens and the
Question Number. 22. The minimum ram returns to neutral.
distance between electrical cable splices is. Option B. the foot pedal force is at
Option A. 3 feet. maximum.
Option B. 12 inches. Option C. the bypass valve closes and the
Option C. 500 mm. ram returns to neutral.
Correct Answer is. 500 mm. Correct Answer is. the bypass valve opens
Explanation. NIL. and the ram returns to neutral.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. A fire resistant

cable is proof tested by exposure to a standard Question Number. 27. The type of
fire for. binding tape used for cables in temperatures
Option A. 30 minutes. above 260°C is which of the following?.
Option B. 5 minutes. Option A. Nomex.
Option C. 15 minutes. Option B. Teflon.
Correct Answer is. 5 minutes. Option C. Nylon.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 11-5 4.5 and Correct Answer is. Teflon.
EASA CS-1 Pg.6. Explanation. This is probably referring to the
Teflon tape referred to in Aircraft Electricity and
Electronics by Eismin 5th Edition Page 69. Also
Question Number. 24. When fitting AC43 Para.11.96 z and Appendix 1 (Teflon is
coaxial cable connectors it is important to. Dupont trade-name for PTFE).

42
 Question Number. 32. What is wet arc
tracking?.
Question Number. 28. What is the Option A. A fault caused by hot stamp
minimum bend radius of a loom adequately printing.
supported at a terminal block?. Option B. A fault caused by insulation
Option A. 10 * diameter. damage.
Option B. 8 * diameter. Option C. A fault caused by 'knuckling
Option C. 3 * diameter. through'.
Correct Answer is. 3 * diameter. Correct Answer is. A fault caused by hot
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 7.3. stamp printing.
Explanation. AC43.13-1B, 11-210 and CAAIP S
Leaflet 11-5 Para.8.2.
Question Number. 29. How are front
release pins removed?.
Option A. The tool is inserted from the front Question Number. 33. When using a heat
and the pin is removed from the front. shrink gun, what should the temperature of the
Option B. The tool is inserted from the rear gun be set to?.
and the pin Is removed from the front. Option A. 100° below the heat shrink
Option C. The tool is inserted from the front temperature.
and the pin is removed from the rear. Option B. 15° below the heat shrink
Correct Answer is. The tool is inserted from temperature.
the front and the pin is removed from the rear. Option C. 100° above the heat shrink
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 8.3.2 (b)(ii). temperature.
Correct Answer is. 100° above the heat
shrink temperature.
Question Number. 30. If a co-axial cable Explanation. A trick question. The 'Heat shrink
clamp is over tightened so as to compress the temperature' is the normal 'room' temperature
dielectric, how will the capacitance change?. of about 20-25°C. Most heat shrink materials
Option A. Stay the same. shrink at around 125°C.
Option B. Increase.
Option C. Decrease.
Correct Answer is. Increase. Question Number. 34. In an electrical
Explanation. AC43 11-117. Decreasing cable 1EF6B22NMS, what does the letter E
dielectric thickness (of a capacitor) increases its represent?.
capacitance. Option A. Circuit function.
Option B. Cable size.
Option C. Segment letter.
Question Number. 31. What is the Correct Answer is. Circuit function.
minimum bend radius of a single co-axial Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 Para.9.1.1.
cable?.
Option A. 10 * diameter.
Option B. 8 * diameter. Question Number. 35. On a coaxial cable,
Option C. 6 * diameter. cable impedance is.
Correct Answer is. 6 * diameter. Option A. proportional to length.
Explanation. AC43.13-1B Page 11-45 Para.11- Option B. not effected by length.
96 bb. No British reference found. Option C. inversely proportional to length.
Correct Answer is. not effected by length.

43
Explanation. The length has nothing to do with and a solder ring in the middle. When heated
a coaxial cable impedance. External website. the cylinder first melts on to the wires, then the
http://www.epanorama.net/documents/wiring/ plastic rings melt, sealing the ends of the
cable_impedance.html cylinder.

Question Number. 36. A secondary earth Question Number. 40. When

is. manufacturing an electrical connector the
Option A. not less than 0.5mm cross unused holes are.
sectional area. Option A. filled with connectors.
Option B. 18 AWG. Option B. filled with connectors and
Option C. 22 AWG. blanked.
Correct Answer is. 18 AWG. Option C. covered with blanks.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 para.3.3 & EEL/1-6 Correct Answer is. filled with connectors and
3.3.1 (a) ii. blanked.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 para 8.3.2 f)iii) and AC
43.13B 11-234.
Question Number. 37. E' on a wire, under
ATA 100 is a.
Option A. phase indication. Question Number. 41. Co-axial cable is
Option B. system ID code. preferred to airframe cable in which
Option C. cable size. application?.
Correct Answer is. system ID code. Option A. Where the diameter of cable is
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 para.9.1.1. not important.
Option B. High frequency interference.
Option C. Low frequency interference.
Question Number. 38. To prevent wet arc Correct Answer is. Where the diameter of
tracking. cable is not important.
Option A. cable grips should be tight. Explanation. Cable is susceptible to all
Option B. ensure hot stamp printing is frequencies of interference. Co-axial cable is
controlled. reasonably well protected from all frequencies
Option C. cables should not be stretched. of interference but is much thicker overall than
Correct Answer is. ensure hot stamp printing airframe cable.
is controlled.
Explanation. Leaflet 11-5 8.2 and 6.7.
Question Number. 42. Forward release
electrical connectors are removed by the wire
Question Number. 39. When splicing a being.
cable with a soldered joint, the operation is Option A. pushed forwards.
finished when. Option B. twisted to the right.
Option A. the solder has melted. Option C. pulled backwards.
Option B. the solder sleeve disappears. Correct Answer is. pulled backwards.
Option C. the solder and insulation have Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 8.32 II.
formed.
Correct Answer is. the solder and insulation
have formed. Question Number. 43. When crimping
Explanation. The solder sleeve is a plastic wires, the wires should be.
cylinder with two rings of plastic at each end Option A. straight.

44
Option B. lightly twisted. Question Number. 48. The value of the
Option C. twisted. insulation resistance of an electric motor
Correct Answer is. lightly twisted. compared to its supply leads is.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 7.5.5 ©. Option A. greater.
Option B. same.
Option C. smaller.
Question Number. 44. Why are copper Correct Answer is. smaller.
wires used in electrical systems?. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.5.4 (c) 'Rated
Option A. They have high permeability. voltage / 150' whereas supply leads must take
Option B. They do not give off a magnetic the supply voltage at least.
field.
Option C. They have a low resistance to
current. Question Number. 49. According to ATA
Correct Answer is. They have a low resistance 100, a symbol code 'X' on a wiring number
to current. denotes.
Explanation. Copper has a low resistance to Option A. a warning circuit.
current. Option B. a ground circuit.
Option C. AC power.
Correct Answer is. AC power.
Question Number. 45. When crimping Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and
wires, the wire should. Electronics. Eismin 5th Edition page 79.
Option A. be flush with the crimp.
Option B. extend 0.8 mm beyond the crimp.
Option C. be beneath the crimp. Question Number. 50. When securing
Correct Answer is. extend 0.8 mm beyond wire after it leaves an LRU, cable bundle bends
the crimp. should be not less than?.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. minimum radius of five times the
outside diameter of the cable, or cable bundle.
Option B. minimum radius of three times
Question Number. 46. 1EF6B22 NMSV. the outside diameter of the cable, or cable
What does the B mean?. bundle.
Option A. Segment letter. Option C. minimum radius of eight times
Option B. Cable number. the outside diameter of the cable, or cable
Option C. Circuit function. bundle.
Correct Answer is. Segment letter. Correct Answer is. minimum radius of eight
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 9.1.1. times the outside diameter of the cable, or
cable bundle.
Explanation. CAAIP 9-3, 7.4 states 8 times the
Question Number. 47. A white/blue diameter (not 3 times, because it is not at a
insertion-extraction tool would be used on a terminal block).
cable of what size?.
Option A. 10.
Option B. 22. Question Number. 51. When terminating
Option C. 16. an aluminium cable, what preparations would
Correct Answer is. 16. be carried out before crimping?.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. Degrease stripped cable.
Option B. Just terminate.

45
Option C. Apply a mixture of 50% petroleum Explanation. NIL.
jelly and zinc oxide.
Correct Answer is. Apply a mixture of 50%
petroleum jelly and zinc oxide. Question Number. 56. The size of proper
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1 3.5.4. conduit for electrical wires must be.
Option A. 75% larger than the maximum
diameter of wires.
Question Number. 52. An in-line splice Option B. 25% larger than the maximum
should be positioned on the. diameter of wires.
Option A. terminal of the loom. Option C. 100% larger than the average
Option B. outside of the loom. diameter of wires.
Option C. outer surface of the loom for easy Correct Answer is. 25% larger than the
inspection. maximum diameter of wires.
Correct Answer is. outer surface of the loom Explanation. AC43 11-249.
for easy inspection.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 57. Blue metal extract
tool would be used with contacts sized.
Question Number. 53. A conductor after Option A. 16.
being crimped. The maximum amount of Option B. 12.
conductor which protrudes from the terminal Option C. 22.
end should be Correct Answer is. 16.
Option A. 1/32 inch. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. 1/8 inch.
Option C. 1/16 inch.
Correct Answer is. 1/32 inch. Question Number. 58. A Silver coated
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 Fig 1 (0.8 mm = 1/32 conductor in an unpresurised area is subject to
in.). moisture and has a damaged coating would be
likely to cause.
Option A. Wet Arc Tracking.
Question Number. 54. Two or more Option B. Knuckling Through.
operations should be performed to strip wire Option C. Red Plague.
with hand operated wire stripper if the total Correct Answer is. Red Plague.
stripping length exceeds. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 0.50 in.
Option B. 0.75 inch. 08. Riveting.
Option C. 0.25 in.
Correct Answer is. 0.75 inch.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-3 7.5.5 (d). Question Number. 1. When riveting, the
distance from the edge to the rivet (land)
should not be less than.
Question Number. 55. A cable loom Option A. 1D.
should be protected by conduit when fed Option B. 2D.
through the. Option C. 4D.
Option A. main equipment centre. Correct Answer is. 2D.
Option B. wheelwell door. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe
Option C. cargo compartment ceiling. Textbook 2-53.
Correct Answer is. wheelwell door.

46
 Question Number. 7. If the thickness of
Question Number. 2. The strength of a a single sheet of material, about to be joined by
riveted joint compared to that of the original riveting was 1/16 of an inch thick what would
metal is. be the approximate diameter of the rivets to be
Option A. 75%. used?.
Option B. 100%. Option A. 1/16 inch.
Option C. 125%. Option B. 3/16 inch.
Correct Answer is. 75%. Option C. 1/8 inch.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. 3/16 inch.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-29 Para 3.

Question Number. 3. A repair has a

double riveted joint. The shear strength would Question Number. 8. Regarding riveting,
be. which of the following is correct?.
Option A. 125%. Option A. Both of the above are correct.
Option B. 75%. Option B. The length of a countersunk rivet
Option C. 100%. (flush head) is measured from the end of the
Correct Answer is. 75%. rivet to the top of the countersunk head.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. The length of a round head or flat
head is measured from the end of the rivet to
underside of rivet head.
Question Number. 4. The standard Correct Answer is. Both of the above are
minimum rivet row spacing is. correct.
Option A. 2 1/4 D. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
Option B. 3 D. 2-36 and AC43 page 4.16.
Option C. 4 D.
Correct Answer is. 4 D.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 9. When riveting, a
certain clearance must exist between the rivet
and the hole in which it is fitted, to allow for
Question Number. 5. What is the shank expansion. If the clearance is too large,
normal spacing between rivets?. what could be the result?.
Option A. 2 D. Option A. Indentations by rivet head on the
Option B. 4 D. material.
Option C. 3 D. Option B. Separation of the sheets may
Correct Answer is. 4 D. occur.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. Sheet may tend to buckle.
Correct Answer is. Separation of the sheets
may occur.
Question Number. 6. In British rivets Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-29 Para 9.3.1 -Fig 4,
(solid) what is the length grading unit?. Too small a hole causes buckling, too large
Option A. 1/16. causes separation.
Option B. 1/10.
Option C. 1/32.
Correct Answer is. 1/16. Question Number. 10. To replace one 1/8
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-1, 4.2. inch rivet.
Option A. three 1/16 inch rivets would be
required.

47
Option B. two 1/16 inch rivets would be Option C. To test the shear strength of the
required. pin.
Option C. four 1/16 inch rivets would be Correct Answer is. To test the tightness of
required. the pin in the rivet.
Correct Answer is. four 1/16 inch rivets Explanation. Inspection after Installation of
would be required. AVDEL rivets. The security of the mandrel must
Explanation. CAIP BL/6-27 in the NOTE below be tested.Use the AVDEL PIN TESTER (Part
para 5.3. Number 79/95-0700) set to 35 Lbs. No
movement of the mandrel is permitted. Ref.
SRM A300-600.Chapter 51-40-21.
Question Number. 11. If treated rivets
have not been used within the prescribed time
they can be re-treated. What is the maximum Question Number. 15. The stems of an
number of times that they can be heat- Avdel rivet are.
treated?. Option A. removed with the riveting tool.
Option A. If no more in Stores, as many Option B. nipped off and milled flush with
times as required. the head.
Option B. Twice only. Option C. removed with a taper punch.
Option C. Three times. Correct Answer is. nipped off and milled flush
Correct Answer is. Three times. with the head.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-27 Para 6-3. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 12. Rivets kept at a Question Number. 16. What is the
temperature of between –15°C and –20°C are pressure range for the Avdel Riveter Type F?.
usable for. Option A. 40 to 60 lbs per sq. in.
Option A. 150 days. Option B. 20 to 60 lbs per sq. in.
Option B. 150 minutes. Option C. 60 to 80 lbs per sq. in.
Option C. 150 hours. Correct Answer is. 60 to 80 lbs per sq. in.
Correct Answer is. 150 hours. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-27 Para 6-2.

Question Number. 17. When

Question Number. 13. Avdel rivets are countersinking rivet holes in a material.
closed by. Option A. a special countersinking bit with a
Option A. a broaching process. pad to prevent drilling too deep should be used.
Option B. a tapered mandrel. Option B. a plain countersinking bit should
Option C. a squeezing process. be used.
Correct Answer is. a broaching process. Option C. the rivet head should stand 1/32
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-28 Para 3.2 Fig 2. of an inch above the surface.
Correct Answer is. a special countersinking
bit with a pad to prevent drilling too deep
Question Number. 14. What is the should be used.
purpose of the Avdel pin tester?. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. To test the tightness of the pin in
the rivet.
Option B. To test the tightness of the rivet Question Number. 18. The riveting defect
in the hole. in the figure shown is.

48
 Option B. 3 * the rivet diameter.
Option A. too much hammering. Option C. 2 * the rivet diameter.
Option B. the dolly was not square. Correct Answer is. 3 * the rivet diameter.
Option C. the snap was not square. Explanation. A&P Airframe Textbook CH12-37
Correct Answer is. the snap was not square. Fig 12-57. (BL/6-29 3.1 - staggered double row
Explanation. BL/6-29 Para 9-3-1 Fig 4. only).

Question Number. 23. The riveting defect

in the figure shown is.

Question Number. 19. Rivet allowance is. Option A. the snap was not square.
Option A. the distance the rivet is Option B. the hole was too small.
positioned from the edge of the repair plate. Option C. an incorrect snap has been used.
Option B. the amount of material required Correct Answer is. the hole was too small.
to form the rivet on installation. Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-29 Para 9.3.1 Fig 4.
Option C. the distance between rivets in the AC43 21.
same row.
Correct Answer is. the amount of material
required to form the rivet on installation.
Explanation. BL/6-29 8.1.

Question Number. 24. The ‘grip’ of a rivet

Question Number. 20. What is the is.
approximate distance of the sphere of influence Option A. the length of rivet left to form the
of a rivet?. head.
Option A. 4 D. Option B. the thickness of plates which can
Option B. 2 D. be fastened.
Option C. 5 D. Option C. the area of the plates held firmly
Correct Answer is. 5 D. together.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. the thickness of plates
which can be fastened.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 21. Rivet clearance is.
Option A. the distance between rivets in the
same row. Question Number. 25. The strength of a
Option B. the amount that the rivet hole riveted joint is determined by.
diameter exceeds the rivet diameter. Option A. shear strength and pitch of rivet.
Option C. the distance between rows of Option B. pitch and tensile strength of rivet.
rivets. Option C. shear strength of rivet and
Correct Answer is. the amount that the rivet material it is made of.
hole diameter exceeds the rivet diameter. Correct Answer is. shear strength and pitch
Explanation. BL/6-29 4.2. of rivet.
Explanation. BL/6-27 5.2 The shear strength of
the rivet is determined by the material it is
Question Number. 22. The minimum made of. All rivets are under shear.
rivet pitch is.
Option A. 2 1/2 * the rivet diameter.

49
Question Number. 26. If the bearing
strength of a metal is greater than the shear
strength of the rivet, what will occur?. Question Number. 4. A rigid hydraulic
Option A. Rivet will joggle. pipe requires shaping. It should be carried out.
Option B. Rivet will show incorrectly Option A. after annealing.
installed. Option B. after age hardening.
Option C. Rivet will pull through the metal. Option C. as supplied.
Correct Answer is. Rivet will joggle. Correct Answer is. as supplied.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-15 3.3 and 4.4.4 (iii).

09. Pipes and Hoses.

Question Number. 5. Fretting corrosion
on a braided pipe would mean it was.
Question Number. 1. When carrying out Option A. unserviceable and should be
a pressure test on a pipe it should be. replaced.
Option A. twice the working pressure for Option B. not necessarily unserviceable.
two minutes. Option C. only unserviceable if the corrosion
Option B. 1.5 times the working pressure. penetrates the braids.
Option C. three times the working pressure Correct Answer is. unserviceable and should
for five minutes. be replaced.
Correct Answer is. 1.5 times the working Explanation. NIL.
pressure.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-5 8.5.
Question Number. 6. Pipe flaring is
carried out.
Question Number. 2. When checking a Option A. as supplied.
hose after installation it should be checked for Option B. in the annealed state.
freedom of movement. Option C. after normalizing.
Option A. by flexing through the normal Correct Answer is. as supplied.
operating range plus 15°. Explanation. BL/6-15.
Option B. by flexing through the normal
operating range only.
Option C. by flexing +/-15° either side of the Question Number. 7. To allow for
neutral position. shrinkage, vibration and whip all straight hoses
Correct Answer is. by flexing through the must be.
normal operating range plus 15°. Option A. 5% longer than the distance
Explanation. Leaflet 5-5 8.4.2. between the fittings.
Option B. 2% longer than the distance
between the fittings.
Question Number. 3. If the outer cover Option C. 3% longer than the distance
of a flexible hose is found to be cracked. between the fittings.
Option A. it is unserviceable since it may Correct Answer is. 3% longer than the
have a restricted flow. distance between the fittings.
Option B. it may still be serviceable. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 6.5.
Option C. it is unserviceable since it may
leak.
Correct Answer is. it may still be serviceable. Question Number. 8. A flexible hose
Explanation. Leaflet 5-5 7.2.2. that cannot be internally inspected by eye or

50
introscope can be ball tested by suspending Question Number. 12. The international
from one end at a time to check. marking for a fire protection pipe line is a series
Option A. a ball of 95% of bore of hose can of.
be pushed through with a metal rod. Option A. circles.
Option B. a ball of 98% of bore of end Option B. squares.
fittings passes freely under own weight. Option C. diamonds.
Option C. ball of 90% of bore of end fittings Correct Answer is. diamonds.
passes freely under own weight. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Correct Answer is. ball of 90% of bore of end Technician Textbook Page 10-13.
fittings passes freely under own weight.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 9.5.3 a.
Question Number. 13. To prevent
corrosion where aluminium alloy pipelines are
Question Number. 9. Hoses are supported by rubber cleats, the pipe should be
normally pressure tested to. treated over the area of contact with.
Option A. maximum working pressure. Option A. french chalk.
Option B. 2 times maximum working Option B. varnish.
pressure. Option C. petroleum jelly.
Option C. 1½ times maximum working Correct Answer is. varnish.
pressure. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. 1½ times maximum
working pressure.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 8.5. Question Number. 14. The international
marking for an instrument air pipe line is a.
Option A. series of dots.
Question Number. 10. A fluid line marker Option B. zig zag line.
with a skull & crossbones is. Option C. wavy band.
Option A. fluid line carries toilet waste. Correct Answer is. zig zag line.
Option B. warning symbol. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Option C. radioactive symbol. Technician Textbook Page 10-13, A&P
Correct Answer is. warning symbol. Technician General page 10-13 figure 10-28.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Technician Textbook Page 10-13.
Question Number. 15. The maximum
distance between end fittings to which a
Question Number. 11. The international straight hose assembly is to be connected is 50
marking for a water injection pipeline is a series inches. The minimum hose length should be.
of. Option A. 51 inches.
Option A. chevrons. Option B. 51½ inches.
Option B. squares. Option C. 3 inches.
Option C. dots. Correct Answer is. 51½ inches.
Correct Answer is. chevrons. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 5-5 6.5.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Technician Textbook Page 10-13.
Question Number. 16. The length of a
hose assembly with elbowed end fittings is
taken from.

51
Option A. the maximum length of the Option A. an arrow painted on the hose to
straight portion of hose. show the direction of fluid flow.
Option B. the centre of the bore at the Option B. a white line painted the full length
nipple extremity. of the hose to indicate any twist in the hose.
Option C. the extreme overall length. Option C. a white line painted the full length
Correct Answer is. the centre of the bore at of the hose to indicate any stretch in the hose.
the nipple extremity. Correct Answer is. a white line painted the
Explanation. CAIP S AL/ 3-13 Para 2-3. full length of the hose to indicate any twist in
the hose.
Explanation. AL/3-13 4.2 figure 4.
Question Number. 17. The international
marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line is a
series of. Question Number. 21. Aluminium alloy
Option A. dots. pipe used for hydraulics systems is flared.
Option B. diamonds. Option A. normalized.
Option C. rectangles. Option B. as supplied.
Correct Answer is. rectangles. Option C. annealed.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Correct Answer is. as supplied.
Technician Textbook Page 10-13. Explanation. BL/6-15 6.2.

Question Number. 18. The resistance Question Number. 22. Identify the parts
between a flexible hose and a component required to make up a flared-tube fitting?.
should not exceed. Option A. Sleeve and nut.
Option A. 1 ohm. Option B. Ferrule and nut.
Option B. 0.5 ohm. Option C. Body, sleeve and nut.
Option C. 0.05 ohm. Correct Answer is. Sleeve and nut.
Correct Answer is. 0.05 ohm. Explanation. BL/6-15 6.2.2. A&P Mechanic
Explanation. Leaflet 5-5 9.5.5. General Handbook Pg.103.

Question Number. 19. Bore tests of Question Number. 23. The flare angle on
flexible hoses are carried out using a suitable an AGS pipe is.
ball or bobbin of. Option A. 90 degrees.
Option A. 90% of the diameter of the end Option B. 45 degrees.
fittings. Option C. 32 degrees.
Option B. 85% of the diameter of the end Correct Answer is. 32 degrees.
fittings. Explanation. BL/6-15 6.1.
Option C. 25% of the diameter of the end
fittings.
Correct Answer is. 90% of the diameter of Question Number. 24. Repair to
the end fittings. aluminium pipe can be done using burnishing.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-5 9.5.3 (a) (ii). Option A. if damage is surface only.
Option B. if damage is no more than 5%.
Option C. if damage is no more than 10%.
Question Number. 20. The 'Lay Line' on a Correct Answer is. if damage is no more than
flexible hose is. 10%.
Explanation. AC43 Pg.9-18 Para.9.30 c.

52
 Explanation. Springs are made from high
carbon steel with high strength requirements.
Question Number. 25. Rigid pipes are
designed with bends to.
Option A. allow for expansion and Question Number. 2. A wear check on a
contraction due to heat and absorb vibration. cylinder head valve spring should include.
Option B. absorb vibration. Option A. length under load.
Option C. fit to the aircraft structure. Option B. diameter and length.
Correct Answer is. allow for expansion and Option C. length off-load.
contraction due to heat and absorb vibration. Correct Answer is. length under load.
Explanation. Answer b is just too obvious. Explanation. EL/3-2 para 4.4 and Aircraft
Reciprocating Engines, Jeppesen. Page 88.

Question Number. 26. You find a pipe

with a flare end fitting of 74°. What Question Number. 3. Material used for
specification has it been manufactured to?. springs is.
Option A. A.G.S. Option A. High carbon or alloy steel with
Option B. A.N. low working stresses.
Option C. S.A.E. Option B. Low carbon steel or alloy steel
Correct Answer is. A.N. with high working stresses.
Explanation. BL/6-15 6.1. Option C. Low carbon steel or alloy steel
with low working stresses.
Correct Answer is. High carbon or alloy steel
Question Number. 27. Bonding with low working stresses.
connections between flexible and rigid pipes Explanation. Springs are made from hardened
are achieved by. (high carbon) or alloy steel, and work under low
Option A. ti-wrapping the bonding lead to stress to keep them within the elastic range.
the pipes.
Option B. using a corrugated strip. 11. Bearings.
Option C. tucking the bonding leads
between the flexible and rigid pipes.
Correct Answer is. using a corrugated strip. Question Number. 1. Needle roller
Explanation. CAAIP S 9-1, 3.6.1. bearings.
Option A. are susceptible to brinelling.
Option B. can accept a small amount of
10. Springs. misalignment.
Option C. are designed to carry axial loads.
Correct Answer is. are susceptible to
Question Number. 1. Springs are brinelling.
manufactured from. Explanation. CAIP BL/6-14 para 2.3.1 ii.
Option A. high carbon alloy steel with high
strength requirements.
Option B. low carbon alloy steel with high Question Number. 2. When rotating a
strength requirements. ball bearing by hand, a regular click indicates.
Option C. high carbon alloy steel with low Option A. damage to the balls.
strength requirements. Option B. intergranular corrosion in the
Correct Answer is. high carbon alloy steel outer ring.
with high strength requirements. Option C. a cracked ring.

53
Correct Answer is. a cracked ring.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 7. When fitting a ball
bearing to a shaft it should be carefully
positioned using.
Question Number. 3. Brinelling of a Option A. a steel drift with light blows.
wheel bearing could be caused by. Option B. a copper or aluminium tube drift.
Option A. rotation of the outer race in the Option C. a soft steel or brass tube drift.
wheel housing. Correct Answer is. a soft steel or brass tube
Option B. heavy landing. drift.
Option C. overheating of the brakes. Explanation. CAIP BL/6-14 5.4.
Correct Answer is. heavy landing.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. Graphite prevents
seizure and conducts heat. It is normally used
Question Number. 4. Brinelling of a in.
bearing is. Option A. lithium based greases.
Option A. bluing of the bearing due to Option B. sodium based greases.
overheating. Option C. copper based greases.
Option B. shallow smooth depressions Correct Answer is. sodium based greases.
caused by the rollers being forced against the Explanation. Graphite is added to sodium
cup, due to overtorquing. based greases.
Option C. indentations in the race surface
caused by continual static vibration.
Correct Answer is. shallow smooth Question Number. 9. False Brinelling of
depressions caused by the rollers being forced a bearing is.
against the cup, due to overtorquing. Option A. movement of the outer ring
Explanation. NIL. relative to its housing.
Option B. indentations on the race-way due
to load transferred through the bearing when
Question Number. 5. A tapered roller static.
bearing is designed to take. Option C. a scoring of the race-way surfaces
Option A. radial loads only. due to ball or roller skidding.
Option B. both radial and axial loads. Correct Answer is. indentations on the race-
Option C. axial loads only. way due to load transferred through the
Correct Answer is. both radial and axial bearing when static.
loads. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 10. On completion of

Question Number. 6. Small indentations assembly the bearing housing.
in the race of a ball bearing indicate. Option A. should be examined for end float.
Option A. overtorquing. Option B. packed fully with grease.
Option B. corrosion. Option C. lightly packed with grease.
Option C. brinelling. Correct Answer is. lightly packed with grease.
Correct Answer is. brinelling. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
1-46.

54
Question Number. 11. When checking a Option A. thrust loads, thus limiting axial
ball bearing for corrosion and foreign matter. movement.
Option A. rotate at operational speed and Option B. radial loads, thus limiting axial
check for roughness. movement.
Option B. make a strip down inspection. Option C. thrust loads, thus limiting radial
Option C. oscillate and rotate slowly to movement.
listen for roughness. Correct Answer is. thrust loads, thus limiting
Correct Answer is. oscillate and rotate slowly axial movement.
to listen for roughness. Explanation. BL/6-14 2.2.3 and 3.1.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 16. Chipping of a ball

Question Number. 12. What type of load bearing indicates.
is a journal load?. Option A. brinelling.
Option A. Radial. Option B. chattering.
Option B. Axial. Option C. spalling.
Option C. Centrifugal. Correct Answer is. spalling.
Correct Answer is. Radial. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 17. A Hardy Spicer

Question Number. 13. Bearings to be coupling has what type of bearings?.
cleaned for further examination should be Option A. Ball Bearings.
wiped free of all grease on outer surfaces with Option B. Needle bearings.
the aid of dry compressed air for cages and Option C. Plain bearings.
rolling parts. The bearings should then be Correct Answer is. Needle bearings.
soaked in. Explanation. BL/6-14 2.3.1 (ii).
Option A. M.E.K.
Option B. lead free gasoline.
Option C. white spirit. Question Number. 18. Graphite greases
Correct Answer is. white spirit. are used for.
Explanation. CAIPa BL/6-14 8.1. Option A. medium temperature
applications.
Option B. high temperature applications.
Question Number. 14. After cleaning a Option C. low temperature applications.
bearing should be dried with. Correct Answer is. high temperature
Option A. left in free air to dry naturally. applications.
Option B. clean, warm, dry compressed air. Explanation. Graphite greases are used in high
Option C. lint free rags. temperature applications.
Correct Answer is. clean, warm, dry
compressed air.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Question Number. 19. If during an engine
Technician Textbook Page 9-8. overhaul, ball or roller bearings are found to
have magnetised but otherwise have no
defects, they.
Question Number. 15. Thrust bearings Option A. are in an acceptable service
transmit. condition.
Option B. must be degaussed before use.

55
Option C. cannot be used again. Option B. the inner ring can be removed
Correct Answer is. must be degaussed before from its inner shaft for cleaning.
use. Option C. the outer ring can be removed
Explanation. Leaflet 4-7 4.9. from its housing for inspection.
Correct Answer is. the outer ring can be
removed from its housing for inspection.
Question Number. 20. Ball and roller Explanation. NIL.
bearings are made from a combination of low
carbon steel and a percentage of. 12. Transmissions.
Option A. Chromium.
Option B. Nickel.
Option C. Nickel chrome. Question Number. 1. A chain removed
Correct Answer is. Nickel. for routine inspection, it.
Explanation. Outer rings are made from high Option A. does not need proof loading.
carbon chromium alloy steel. Inner rings are Option B. must be proof loaded to 50%.
made from low carbon nickel alloy steel and Option C. must be proof loaded to 150%.
deep case carborized. Correct Answer is. does not need proof
loading.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 6.6.
Question Number. 21. On inspection a
bearing is found to have distortion, what action
should be taken?. Question Number. 2. An aircraft control
Option A. Reject bearing. chain is connected using.
Option B. No action required. Some Option A. nuts and bolts.
distortion is normal. Option B. quick release pins.
Option C. Blend out distortion and re-grease Option C. a split link and spring clip.
bearing. Correct Answer is. nuts and bolts.
Correct Answer is. Reject bearing. Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 3.4.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. If a control chain

Question Number. 22. On inspection a can be lifted clear of a tooth, it should be.
bearing is found to show signs of overheating, Option A. rejected as unserviceable.
what action should be taken?. Option B. removed and an elongation check
Option A. Reject bearing. carried out.
Option B. No action required. Some Option C. cleaned, re-tensioned and
overheating is normal. inspected after a period of time.
Option C. clean up bearing and repack with Correct Answer is. removed and an
grease. elongation check carried out.
Correct Answer is. Reject bearing. Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 5.3.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 4. To check a chain

Question Number. 23. When a bearing for articulation.
has 2 parts and the inner ring and outer ring is Option A. it should be run over the finger
installed. through 180° and checked for smoothness and
Option A. neither of the practices are kinks.
allowed.

56
Option B. move each link individually and
check for tightness.
Option C. lay on a flat surface and check for Question Number. 8. Backlash is a type
kinks. of wear associated with.
Correct Answer is. it should be run over the Option A. gears.
finger through 180° and checked for Option B. rivets.
smoothness and kinks. Option C. bearings.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook Correct Answer is. gears.
2-27. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. How do you Question Number. 9. After a chain has

remove a tight link from a chain which is to be been cleaned in paraffin it should be.
used on an aircraft control system?. Option A. hung up to drip dry.
Option A. Dismantle, inspect, rectify and re- Option B. dried in hot air.
assemble the chain. Option C. washed in soapy water then hung
Option B. If the chain has a tight link, the to drip dry.
chain has to be removed from service. Correct Answer is. dried in hot air.
Option C. You may be able to remove the Explanation. AL/3-2 6.3.1 a.
tight link by applying a light tap with a hammer.
Correct Answer is. You may be able to
remove the tight link by applying a light tap Question Number. 10. What fraction of
with a hammer. the minimum breaking load should be the proof
Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 6.4. load for a chain?.
Option A. 0.1.
Option B. 1/3.
Question Number. 6. The initial Option C. 0.1%.
lubricant on a new chain. Correct Answer is. 1/3.
Option A. must be replaced with grade Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 3.3. AL/3-2 Para 6-6.
altitude grease.
Option B. should be removed and replaced
with the approved oil. Question Number. 11. If corrosion is
Option C. should not be removed. found on a chain.
Correct Answer is. should not be removed. Option A. replace the chain.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 4.4.5. Option B. clean off the corrosion and if
acceptable re-fit the chain.
Option C. lubricate the chain.
Question Number. 7. Control chains Correct Answer is. replace the chain.
should be fitted in an aircraft. Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 5.4. AL/3-2 Para 5-4.
Option A. with the minimum of slack in the
chain.
Option B. so that the chain can be removed Question Number. 12. The three
easily. principle dimensions specified for a chain is the
Option C. with as much slack as possible to diameter of the rollers and.
allow for contraction. Option A. pitch and chain length.
Correct Answer is. with the minimum of slack Option B. the pitch and width between the
in the chain. inner plates.
Explanation. NIL.

57
Option C. the pitch and width across the Option C. a positive drive and axial
outside of the plates. movement.
Correct Answer is. the pitch and width Correct Answer is. a positive drive and axial
between the inner plates. movement.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 Para.3.1. AL/3-2 3.1. Explanation. A feather key allows axial
movement.

Question Number. 13. The distance

between the centres of the rollers of a chain is Question Number. 17. A chain is
called. removed by.
Option A. pitch. Option A. nuts and bolts.
Option B. crest. Option B. spring clips.
Option C. length. Option C. removing chain links on an
Correct Answer is. pitch. endless chain.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 3.3. AL/3-2 3.1. Correct Answer is. nuts and bolts.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 3.4 & 6.

Question Number. 14. Which of the

following formulas should be used to calculate Question Number. 18. The box unit in a
the percentage extension of an aircraft control Teleflex control run which is not suitable for
chain? Note: M = Measured length under load heavily loaded controls is called.
in inches X = Number of pitches measured P = Option A. Double entry.
Pitch of chain in inches. Option B. Single entry.
Option A. M + (X * X) * 100 / P * M. Option C. Straight lead.
Option B. X-(M * P) * 100 / M * P. Correct Answer is. Straight lead.
Option C. M-(X * P) * 100 / X * P. Explanation. Both single and double entry
Correct Answer is. M-(X * P) * 100 / X * P. boxes are wrapped lead. External website.
Explanation. AL/3-2 6.3.1 ©. http://saywell.co.uk/pages/morseCon.htm

Question Number. 15. The maximum Question Number. 19. How do you check
allowable extension of a chain assembly over a a chain for elongation?.
nominal length is. Option A. Hang chain up, check sight line
Option A. 3%. and measure.
Option B. 5%. Option B. Adjust the end fittings.
Option C. 2%. Option C. Lay flat on a table, apply tensile
Correct Answer is. 2%. load and measure.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 6.3.2. AL/3-2 Para Correct Answer is. Lay flat on a table, apply
6.3.2. tensile load and measure.
Explanation. Leaflet 5-4 6.3.2. AL/3-2 Para
6.3.2.
Question Number. 16. A feather key
locates a gear on a shaft and permits. 13. Control Cables.
Option A. a positive drive with the gear
firmly locked.
Option B. a positive and strong drive Question Number. 1. Proof testing after
transmission. cable installation is.
Option A. sometimes required.

58
Option B. not required. Correct Answer is. Equalizes control cable
Option C. always required. tension.
Correct Answer is. not required. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
Explanation. NIL. 1-27.

Question Number. 2. A control cable Question Number. 6. How would you

that has been contaminated with acid should inspect a cable for fraying?.
be. Option A. Run your fingers the full length of
Option A. cleaned. the cable.
Option B. rejected. Option B. Operate the controls and feel for
Option C. cleaned, inspected, and stiffness.
reinspected after a period of time. Option C. Run a rag the full length of the
Correct Answer is. rejected. cable.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Run a rag the full length of
the cable.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
Question Number. 3. A balance cable is 1-43.
installed in a control system to.
Option A. allow the aircraft to be flown
'hands off'. Question Number. 7. When
Option B. correct for wing heaviness. manufacturing aircraft control cables, the cable
Option C. enable the cable to be tensioned. can be cut by.
Correct Answer is. enable the cable to be Option A. using a hacksaw with the cable
tensioned. under tension.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Option B. using an oxy-acetylene torch.
Textbook 2-27. Option C. using a chisel on a flat metal
surface.
Correct Answer is. using a chisel on a flat
Question Number. 4. How would you metal surface.
use a Pacific T5 tensiometer?. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-12 3.6.
Option A. Use correct chart and correct
riser.
Option B. Use a standard riser and use the Question Number. 8. The check for a
chart to correct for different sized cables. cable pulling out of a swaged fitting is by.
Option C. Use a load meter to apply the Option A. seeing that the cable is still past
correct load. the safety holes in the swage.
Correct Answer is. Use correct chart and Option B. looking for a shiny surface on the
correct riser. cable near the fitting.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. seeing that there are no broken
wires near the fitting.
Correct Answer is. looking for a shiny surface
Question Number. 5. What is the on the cable near the fitting.
purpose of an aileron balance cable?. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. Allows for hands off flying.
Option B. Equalizes control cable tension.
Option C. Relieves pilot loads.

59
Question Number. 9. A 'Reel' used to Option B. when each strand is worn to
hold an aircraft cable in storage should have a limits.
minimum diameter of. Option C. if a chemical spillage is suspected.
Option A. at least 25 times that of the cable Correct Answer is. if a chemical spillage is
diameter. suspected.
Option B. at least 50 times that of the cable. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. at least 40 times that of the cable
diameter.
Correct Answer is. at least 40 times that of Question Number. 13. What is the proof
the cable diameter. loading for cables after swaging?.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-12 page 2 para 3.1. Option A. 1/3 minimum breaking strain.
Option B. 2/3 minimum breaking strain.
Option C. 50% minimum breaking strain.
Question Number. 10. Large control Correct Answer is. 50% minimum breaking
cables (45 to 120 cwt) may have tension loads strain.
that can break the locking wire or lease lock Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-12 8.1.
nuts. How is this overcome?.
Option A. The cable is kept slightly slack.
Option B. Duplicating the number of cables Question Number. 14. The best way to
to cut down on individual tensile loads. check control cables for broken wires is to.
Option C. A tube is fitted over the Option A. run a rag along the cable in both
turnbuckle assembly and drilled to take up to 3 directions.
bolts, to prevent independent rotation of any Option B. examine them visually.
part. Option C. increase the tension and check
Correct Answer is. A tube is fitted over the with a magnifying glass.
turnbuckle assembly and drilled to take up to 3 Correct Answer is. run a rag along the cable
bolts, to prevent independent rotation of any in both directions.
part. Explanation. AC43 7-149 (d).
Explanation. CAIP S AL/3-7 Para. 9.5.8.

Question Number. 15. If the turnbuckles

Question Number. 11. To correctly in a control system are tightened excessively
tension cables it can help. the result will be.
Option A. to use a cable with turnbuckles at Option A. the cable will break.
least every eight feet. Option B. the cables will vibrate excessively
Option B. to take up initial slack by and cause failure of controls.
additional pulleys. Option C. the aircraft will be heavy on
Option C. to have control surface locks in to controls.
support weight and adjust turnbuckles equally. Correct Answer is. the aircraft will be heavy
Correct Answer is. to have control surface on controls.
locks in to support weight and adjust Explanation. AC43 7-149 (j).
turnbuckles equally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 16. A control cable is
proof loaded to ensure that.
Question Number. 12. A cable is Option A. the end fittings on the cable are
replaced. secure.
Option A. when a shiny portion is found.

60
Option B. it will not stretch after fitting in an Option A. To ensure the cable end passes
aircraft. the inspection hole on drilled through type
Option C. it will not break after fitting in an fittings but leaves the locking wire hole clear.
aircraft. Option B. To allow trapped air to escape.
Correct Answer is. the end fittings on the Option C. To allow a split pin to be inserted.
cable are secure. Correct Answer is. To ensure the cable end
Explanation. Leaflet 2-12 8. passes the inspection hole on drilled through
type fittings but leaves the locking wire hole
clear.
Question Number. 17. British turnbuckles Explanation. Leaflet 2-12 5.2 (d). CAIP S BL/6-
are checked for safety by. 24 5.2 (d).
Option A. looking through the hole and
checking for threads showing.
Option B. attempting to pass a hardened pin Question Number. 21. The inspection
probe through the inspection hole. hole in a turnbuckle is.
Option C. attempting to push locking wire Option A. to allow the locking wire to pass
through the hole. through for the purpose of locking.
Correct Answer is. attempting to pass a Option B. to ensure that the locknuts are
hardened pin probe through the inspection adequately tightened.
hole. Option C. to ensure that the turnbuckle is in
Explanation. AL/3-7 9.5.7. safety.
Correct Answer is. to ensure that the
turnbuckle is in safety.
Question Number. 18. A suspected Explanation. Leaflet 2-12 9.5.7. CAIP S AL/3-7
chemical spillage on a cable, you should. 9.5.7.
Option A. clean, inspect and refit
immediately.
Option B. replace the cable. Question Number. 22. Swaging of a cable
Option C. clean the cable and inspect 24 end fitting is checked by.
hours later. Option A. measuring the length of the barrel
Correct Answer is. replace the cable. before and after swaging.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. using a go / no-go gauge on the
barrel.
Option C. looking for cracks on the swage
Question Number. 19. HTS aircraft indicating poor swaging.
control cables are protected from corrosion by. Correct Answer is. using a go / no-go gauge
Option A. Galvanising. on the barrel.
Option B. cadmium coating. Explanation. Leaflet 2-12 5.3 (b) Jeppesen A&P
Option C. zinc plating. Airframe Technician Textbook 1-43.
Correct Answer is. Galvanising.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-12 2.3.
Question Number. 23. A flight control
cable is replaced if.
Question Number. 20. What is the Option A. single wires are blended together.
purpose of the hole in the swaged end fitting on Option B. a wire is 20% worn.
a swaged cable?. Option C. the protective fluid coating is
missing.

61
Correct Answer is. single wires are blended Option C. to produce a flush fit at a metal
together. joint.
Explanation. AC43 7-149 g. Correct Answer is. to produce a flush fit at a
metal joint.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe
Question Number. 24. In aircraft control Textbook 2-8.
cables, when a lock is fitted to the control
surface.
Option A. it will prevent the control surface Question Number. 2. Caustic soda
movement but not the control column applied to a metal turns black. This would
movement. indicate the metal is.
Option B. it will prevent the control surface Option A. magnesium alloy.
and the control column movement. Option B. duralumin.
Option C. it will not prevent the control Option C. aluminium.
surface movement but will lock the control Correct Answer is. duralumin.
column. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. it will prevent the control
surface and the control column movement.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 3. Removal of a
scratch from a sheet of metal requires.
Option A. polishing.
Question Number. 25. When checking Option B. blending.
cable tensions you are looking for. Option C. burnishing.
Option A. free movement only. Correct Answer is. burnishing.
Option B. full and free movement. Explanation. A&P Mechanics Airframe
Option C. artificial feel. Textbook Page 130.
Correct Answer is. full and free movement.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 4. When dimpling a
sheet of metal you would require.
Question Number. 26. A cable should be Option A. an oversized rivet and special
replaced when individual wires are worn reaction block.
greater than. Option B. a male and female die.
Option A. 40%. Option C. a male die only.
Option B. 60%. Correct Answer is. a male and female die.
Option C. 20%. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe
Correct Answer is. 40%. Textbook 2-59.
Explanation. AC43 Para 7-149 g.

Question Number. 5. The skin on an

14.1. Material Handling - Sheet metal. aircraft is normally manufactured from.
Option A. 2024 aluminium alloy.
Option B. 7075 aluminium alloy.
Question Number. 1. The purpose of a Option C. 2117 aluminium alloy.
joggle is. Correct Answer is. 2024 aluminium alloy.
Option A. to act as a tear stopper. Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe
Option B. to make the holes for a rivet line Textbook 2-7.
up.

62
 Correct Answer is. surfaces that are in
Question Number. 6. The mold point is. contact with each other.
Option A. the mid point in the thickness of a Explanation. NIL.
sheet of metal to which the radius dimension is
calculated.
Option B. the centre of curvature of a Question Number. 10. In sheet metal
radiused corner in a metal fabricated bending, how would you measure the bend
component. radius to calculate the bend allowance?.
Option C. an imaginary point from which Option A. Measure to the inside of the bend
real base measurements are provided. radius.
Correct Answer is. an imaginary point from Option B. Measure to the outside of the
which real base measurements are provided. bend radius.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Option C. Measure to the inside of the bend
Textbook 2-71. radius plus half the metal thickness.
Correct Answer is. Measure to the inside of
the bend radius.
Question Number. 7. Relief holes are. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Tecnician
Option A. holes drilled in a battery container Airframe Textbook pg 2-70.
to provide drainage.
Option B. holes drilled in the corner of a
metal box to prevent cracking. Question Number. 11. When dimpling
Option C. holes drilled to stop a crack. sheet with a squeeze dimpling tool.
Correct Answer is. holes drilled in the corner Option A. the jaws are not adjustable.
of a metal box to prevent cracking. Option B. adjust the jaws to accommodate
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe different material gauges.
Textbook 2-77. Option C. use a lubricant.
Correct Answer is. adjust the jaws to
accommodate different material gauges.
Question Number. 8. The 'setback' is. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
Option A. the distance from the edge of the 2-59.
metal to the bend tangent line.
Option B. the distance from the mold point
to the bend tangent line. Question Number. 12. Bend radius on
Option C. the distance from the bend sheet metal is.
tangent line to the setback line. Option A. inside radius + ½ thickness.
Correct Answer is. the distance from the Option B. inside radius.
mold point to the bend tangent line. Option C. outside radius.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Correct Answer is. inside radius.
Textbook 2-71. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
2-70.

Question Number. 9. Faying surfaces

are. Question Number. 13. Aircraft skin is
Option A. surfaces that are in contact with joggled to.
each other. Option A. Provide smooth airflow at faying
Option B. surfaces that are stressed. surfaces.
Option C. surfaces that have been treated Option B. Make a frame lighter but
with anti-corrosion compound. stronger.

63
Option C. Conform with the 'Area Rule'. Option C. one radius from either bend
Correct Answer is. Provide smooth airflow at tangent line.
faying surfaces. Correct Answer is. one radius from the bend
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Tecnician tangent line that is placed under the brake.
Airframe Textbook pg 2-82. Explanation. A&P Airframe Textbook 5-60 Pg
232 Fig 5-118.

Question Number. 14. DZinc Chromate

applied between faying surfaces will. Question Number. 18. If copper sulphate
Option A. improve adhesion thus relieving is used on magnesium alloy it will.
the amount of riveting necessary. Option A. effervesce to a copper colour.
Option B. improve bonding between them. Option B. have no effect.
Option C. inhibit dissimilar metal Option C. effervesce to a black colour.
(electrolytic) corrosion. Correct Answer is. effervesce to a black
Correct Answer is. inhibit dissimilar metal colour.
(electrolytic) corrosion. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 19. If it is necessary to

Question Number. 15. If a non-ferrous compute a bend allowance problem and bend
metal being examined by chemical test turns allowance tables are not available, the neutral
black when caustic soda is applied to the axis of the bend can be.
surface, the metal is. Option A. found by adding approximately
Option A. duralumin. one-half of the stock thickness to the bend
Option B. alclad. radius.
Option C. aluminium. Option B. found by subtracting the stock
Correct Answer is. duralumin. thickness from the bend radius.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. represented by the actual length
of the required material for the bend.
Correct Answer is. found by adding
Question Number. 16. To aid marking out approximately one-half of the stock thickness to
on Fe metals use. the bend radius.
Option A. graphite grease. Explanation. Jeppesen A & P Technician
Option B. copper sulphate solution. Airframe pg 2-73 fig 2-131.
Option C. engineer's blue.
Correct Answer is. copper sulphate solution.
Explanation. Fe means Ferrous. Copper Question Number. 20. The formula for
sulphate solution should be used. setback for a 90° bend is.
Option A. (½R + T).
Option B. (R + T).
Question Number. 17. The sight line on a Option C. (R + ½T).
sheet metal flat layout to be bent in a cornice or Correct Answer is. (R + T).
box brake is measured and marked. Explanation. A&P Airframe Textbook 5-55 Pg
Option A. one-half radius from either bend 227 Fig 5-112.
tangent line.
Option B. one radius from the bend tangent
line that is placed under the brake. Question Number. 21. Caustic soda
placed on the edge of alclad will turn.

64
Option A. white – black – white. Question Number. 25. When a piece of
Option B. all white. metal is bent, the surface of the metal on the
Option C. black – white – black. outside of the bend is.
Correct Answer is. white – black – white. Option A. in compression.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. neither in tension or in
compression.
Option C. in tension.
Question Number. 22. In marking a light Correct Answer is. in tension.
alloy. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. the scriber must be held at an
angle to give a smooth line where bending is
required. Question Number. 26. The sight line of a
Option B. caustic soda is used. bend is.
Option C. a pencil is used to mark the Option A. at the tangent line.
material and all marks removed after bending. Option B. half a radius from the tangent
Correct Answer is. a pencil is used to mark line.
the material and all marks removed after Option C. one radius from the tangent line.
bending. Correct Answer is. one radius from the
Explanation. BL/6-29 4.1A&P General tangent line.
Textbook 9-33 Pg 32. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 23. When assembling Question Number. 27. The sharpest bend
metals of different potential, corrosion may be that can be placed in a piece of metal without
inhibited by application of. critically weakening the part is called the.
Option A. zinc or chromic acid & assemble Option A. maximum radius of bend.
while wet. Option B. minimum radius of bend.
Option B. zinc or barium chromate & Option C. bend allowance.
assemble while wet. Correct Answer is. minimum radius of bend.
Option C. nothing - assemble bare. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe
Correct Answer is. zinc or barium chromate & Technician Textbook Page 2-70.
assemble while wet.
Explanation. BL/4-2 4.4.6.
Question Number. 28. Scribers are used
to.
Question Number. 24. Steel wire brushes Option A. produce an accurate finish.
or steel wool should. Option B. make centre pop marks for
Option A. be used to clean magnesium drilling.
alloys. Option C. mark guide lines on material.
Option B. be used to clean aluminium sheet. Correct Answer is. mark guide lines on
Option C. never be used on light alloys. material.
Correct Answer is. never be used on light Explanation. NIL.
alloys.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. A hole drilled at
the intersection of two bends in a fabricated
sheet metal component is called.
Option A. a drain hole.

65
Option B. a crack stopper. Correct Answer is. to suspend natural ageing
Option C. a relief hole. for a limited period.
Correct Answer is. a relief hole. Explanation. BL/9-1 9. BL/6-27 6.2.
Explanation. BL/6-14 2.2.3 and 3.1.

Question Number. 34. Diffusion bonding

Question Number. 30. Dissimilar metal and superplastic forming provides.
diffusion bonding gives. Option A. high strength and high ductility.
Option A. high strength and ductility. Option B. high strength and high stiffness.
Option B. high strength and stiffness. Option C. high stiffness and high ductility.
Option C. high strength and brittleness. Correct Answer is. high stiffness and high
Correct Answer is. high strength and ductility.
stiffness. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. NIL.
14.2. Material Handling - Composite and non-
metallic.
Question Number. 31. Marking out on
stainless steel can be clarified by application of.
Option A. ammonia. Question Number. 1. In a composite
Option B. copper sulphate. repair lay-up, how much should each layer
Option C. sal ammoniac. extend beyond the layer below it?.
Correct Answer is. copper sulphate. Option A. 2 - 3 inches.
Explanation. Copper sulphate is used to aid Option B. 1 - 2 inches.
marking out of steel. Option C. 3 - 4 inches.
Correct Answer is. 1 - 2 inches.
Explanation. AC43 Page 3-5.
Question Number. 32. When drawing
lines on aluminium alloy sheet prior to bending.
Option A. a thin coat of zinc chromate Question Number. 2. To enable a
primer should be used, ready for pencil lines. composite panel to dissipate static charge it
Option B. a scriber should be used. would be sprayed with.
Option C. a wax pencil should be used. Option A. polyurethane paint.
Correct Answer is. a thin coat of zinc Option B. ferrous paint.
chromate primer should be used, ready for Option C. aluminium paint.
pencil lines. Correct Answer is. aluminium paint.
Explanation. CAIP BL/6-29 4.1. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 33. After solution Question Number. 3. A mechanic has

treatment of aluminium alloy, the effect of completed a bonded honeycomb repair using
immediate refrigeration at a temperature with the potted compound repair technique. What
the range -15°C to -20°C is. non-destructive testing method is used to
Option A. to suspend natural ageing for a determine the soundness of the repair after the
limited period. repair has cured?.
Option B. to permanently soften the metal Option A. Eddy current test.
to retard the onset of fatigue. Option B. Metallic ring test.
Option C. to increase the rate of artificial Option C. Ultrasonic test.
ageing. Correct Answer is. Metallic ring test.

66
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 8. Glass reinforced
panels are bonded by.
Question Number. 4. A non-destructive Option A. special conductive paint.
testing technique which is suitable for Option B. wire mesh.
inspecting for delamination in Redux bonded Option C. bonding strips to conductors.
structure of light aluminium alloys is. Correct Answer is. special conductive paint.
Option A. ultrasonic. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 para.3.4.4.
Option B. eddy-current.
Option C. magnetic flow.
Correct Answer is. ultrasonic. Question Number. 9. What solvents
Explanation. NIL. could you use to clean tools used for fibreglass
repairs?.
Option A. Trichloroethylene or acetone.
Question Number. 5. Why is an extra Option B. Lead free petrol/kerosene.
layer of fibreglass added to a composite repair?. Option C. acetone or MEK.
Option A. To provide additional flexibility. Correct Answer is. acetone or MEK.
Option B. For sacrificial sanding. Explanation. CAIP S AL/7-6 6.6.
Option C. To increase the strength of the
repair.
Correct Answer is. To increase the strength Question Number. 10. Chopped strand
of the repair. mat is a good general purpose mat because.
Explanation. AC43 3-3(3) page 3-5. Option A. it has short fibres.
Option B. it gives equal properties in all
directions.
Question Number. 6. How do you Option C. it is a stiffer than woven cloth.
reduce or remove electrostatic charges which Correct Answer is. it gives equal properties in
may build up on fibreglass surfaces?. all directions.
Option A. No special treatment is necessary Explanation. NIL.
because fibre glass is an insulator.
Option B. The surface is treated with a 15a. Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding.
special conductive paint.
Option C. The surface is impregnated with
copper strips. Question Number. 1. Before soldering
Correct Answer is. The surface is treated with stainless steel it must be.
a special conductive paint. Option A. pickled.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.4.4. Option B. cleaned with emery cloth.
Option C. sand papered.
Correct Answer is. pickled.
Question Number. 7. Prior to aluminium Explanation. BL/6-1 5.3.
alloy bonding we use.
Option A. alkaline etch.
Option B. acid etch. Question Number. 2. Insufficient heat
Option C. solvent wipe. used in soldering will cause.
Correct Answer is. acid etch. Option A. the joint to oxidize.
Explanation. Phosphoric acid and chromic acid Option B. a high resistance joint potential.
wash. Option C. contamination of the joint.

67
Correct Answer is. a high resistance joint Option C. To chemically clean the base
potential. metal of oxide film.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. To chemically clean the
base metal of oxide film.
Explanation. BL/ 6-2 Para 5-2.
Question Number. 3. A dry joint when
soldering is caused by.
Option A. too large an iron. Question Number. 8. When making a
Option B. too much flux. small soldered electrical connection, using flux-
Option C. too little heat. cored solder.
Correct Answer is. too little heat. Option A. the connection should be heated
Explanation. NIL. first and then solder applied.
Option B. the soldering iron and solder
should be applied simultaneously to the
Question Number. 4. The oxyacetylene connection.
flame for silver soldering should be. Option C. the soldering iron should be
Option A. oxidizing. loaded with solder and then applied to the
Option B. carbonising. connection.
Option C. neutral. Correct Answer is. the soldering iron and
Correct Answer is. neutral. solder should be applied simultaneously to the
Explanation. BL/6-2 12.2.4 (Silver soldering is connection.
also known as low temperature brazing). Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 5. A flux is used in Question Number. 9. The type of flux to

soldering to. be used when soft soldering on aircraft is.
Option A. to dissolve oxides. Option A. active.
Option B. etch the metals surface for more Option B. non-active.
adhesion. Option C. either active or non-active.
Option C. to prevent solder spikes. Correct Answer is. non-active.
Correct Answer is. to dissolve oxides. Explanation. BL/6-1 4.2.8.
Explanation. NIL.BL/6-1 4.2.

Question Number. 10. The operational

Question Number. 6. Plumbers solder is temperature of soldering irons is.
grade. Option A. fjust above the melting point of
Option A. C. solder.
Option B. D. Option B. below the melting point of the
Option C. B. base metal.
Correct Answer is. D. Option C. 60°C above the melting point of
Explanation. NIL.BL/6-1 4.1 table 2. solder.
Correct Answer is. 60°C above the melting
point of solder.
Question Number. 7. Why is it necessary Explanation. NIL.
to use flux in all silver soldering operations?.
Option A. To increase heat conductivity.
Option B. To prevent overheating of the Question Number. 11. What elements is
base metal. solder made from?.

68
Option A. Tin, lead and copper. Option B. need not be cleaned off.
Option B. Tin and lead only. Option C. must be cleaned off with a
Option C. Tin, lead and silver. selected solvent.
Correct Answer is. Tin and lead only. Correct Answer is. must be cleaned off with a
Explanation. BL/6-1. selected solvent.
Explanation. CAIP BL/6-1 para 4.2.3.

Question Number. 12. General purpose

solders are graded by. Question Number. 17. A dry joint in
Option A. a colour coding. soldering is most likely to be caused by.
Option B. a letter coding. Option A. flux not used.
Option C. a numerical coding. Option B. components not hot enough.
Correct Answer is. a letter coding. Option C. wrong solder used.
Explanation. BL/6-1 table 2. Correct Answer is. components not hot
enough.
Explanation. All are possibly correct, but the
Question Number. 13. What solder iron not being hot enough is sure to produce a
should be used to solder aluminium?. dry joint.
Option A. D.T.D. 685 lead-silver-tin solder.
Option B. 90% tin and 10% zinc.
Option C. wire flux cored solder. Question Number. 18. What action is
Correct Answer is. wire flux cored solder. taken when soldering flux residue may have
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-1, 14. lodged in deep crevices of an assembly?.
Option A. It must be immersed in a weak
solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsed
Question Number. 14. Solder can be used thoroughly in running water.
to join. Option B. It must be immersed in a weak
Option A. some dissimilar metals. solution of phosphoric acid and rinsed in water.
Option B. only copper based metals. Option C. It must be thoroughly rinsed with
Option C. similar metals only. a weak solution of sulphuric acid and washed in
Correct Answer is. some dissimilar metals. cold water.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. It must be immersed in a
weak solution of hydrochloric acid and rinsed
thoroughly in running water.
Question Number. 15. A flux is used in Explanation. BL/6-1 8.6.
soldering to.
Option A. dissolve oxides.
Option B. prevent solder spikes. Question Number. 19. A phosphate
Option C. etch the metal surface for more based flux paste is for soldering.
adhesion. Option A. aluminium.
Correct Answer is. dissolve oxides. Option B. brass.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. stainless steel.
Correct Answer is. stainless steel.
Explanation. BL/6-1 4.2.5.
Question Number. 16. On completion of
soldering a non-activated flux.
Option A. must be cleaned off with an acid Question Number. 20. The soldering
solution. method where molten solder is pumped from

69
the bottom of a bath through a slot so that a Question Number. 24. Soft solder is
stationary wave of solder appears on the suited for joints, which are.
surface is known as the. Option A. subjected to fatigue.
Option A. rotary bath method. Option B. subjected to strong forces.
Option B. stationary wave method. Option C. subjected to small forces.
Option C. standing wave bath method. Correct Answer is. subjected to small forces.
Correct Answer is. standing wave bath Explanation. AC43 page 4061 para 4. BL/6-1.
method.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-1, 9.2.
Question Number. 25. Silver solder melts
within the range.
Question Number. 21. Solders are Option A. 400°C - 550°C.
available in two forms:. Option B. 200°C - 400°C.
Option A. stick solder with a rosin core and Option C. 600°C - 850°C.
solder in a wire form having a rosin core. Correct Answer is. 600°C - 850°C.
Option B. Solder in a wire form needing a Explanation. BL/6-2, Para 1.1.
separate flux and stick solder needing no flux at
all.
Option C. stick solder needing a separate Question Number. 26. The term 'dry
flux and solder in wire form having a rosin core. joint' is usually applied to.
Correct Answer is. stick solder needing a Option A. a metal being lightly heated.
separate flux and solder in wire form having a Option B. a defect associated with a
rosin core. soldered joint.
Explanation. BL/6-1 4.1. Option C. a water tight joint.
Correct Answer is. a defect associated with a
soldered joint.
Question Number. 22. A resurfaced Explanation. NIL.
soldering iron cannot be used effectively until
after the working face has been.
Option A. fluxed. Question Number. 27. Silver soldering is
Option B. polished. suited for.
Option C. tinned. Option A. electronic component soldering.
Correct Answer is. tinned. Option B. high temperature applications.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-1, 6.1.1. Option C. general soldering work.
Correct Answer is. high temperature
applications.
Question Number. 23. High temperature Explanation. BL/6-1 Para.4.1.2.
solder is used where the operating temperature
is high. It is an alloy of.
Option A. lead / copper / antimony. Question Number. 28. Silver solder is
Option B. tin / zinc / antimony / silver. made from.
Option C. tin / lead / antimony / silver. Option A. tin, copper and zinc.
Correct Answer is. tin / lead / antimony / Option B. copper, tin and silver.
silver. Option C. copper, zinc and silver.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-1, 4.1.2. Correct Answer is. copper, zinc and silver.
Explanation. Workshop Technology WAJ
Chapman Page 105.

70
Question Number. 29. The materials
most commonly soldered in soft soldering are. Question Number. 4. What is a good
Option A. brass and mild steel. weld?.
Option B. stainless steel and titanium. Option A. Build up by 1/8 inch in the middle
Option C. aluminium and magnesium. of the weld.
Correct Answer is. brass and mild steel. Option B. An oxide coating on the base
Explanation. NIL. metals.
Option C. Sides sloping to the base metals.
15b. Welding, Brazing, Soldering and Bonding. Correct Answer is. Sides sloping to the base
metals.
Explanation. Jeppesen A & P airframe
Question Number. 1. What purpose technician textbook p 4-9.
does flux serve in welding aluminium?.
Option A. Ensures proper distribution of the
filler rod. Question Number. 5. Brazing material is
Option B. Removes dirt, grease, and oil. made from.
Option C. Minimises or prevents oxidation. Option A. copper zinc and silver.
Correct Answer is. Minimises or prevents Option B. copper and tin and lead.
oxidation. Option C. copper, silver and tin.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. copper zinc and silver.
Explanation. Workshop Technology WAJ
Chapman Page 103.
Question Number. 2. The shielding
gases generally used in the Tungsten Inert Gas
(TIG) welding of aluminium consist of. Question Number. 6. Filing or grinding a
Option A. nitrogen or hydrogen, or a weld bead.
mixture of nitrogen and hydrogen. Option A. may be necessary to avoid adding
Option B. a mixture of nitrogen and carbon excess weight or to achieve uniform material
dioxide. thickness.
Option C. helium or argon, or a mixture of Option B. may be performed to achieve a
helium and argon. smoother surface.
Correct Answer is. helium or argon, or a Option C. reduces the strength of the joint.
mixture of helium and argon. Correct Answer is. reduces the strength of
Explanation. NIL. the joint.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10 3.

Question Number. 3. Which items listed

below is the most important consideration Question Number. 7. The primary
when selecting a welding rod?. reason for using flux when welding aluminium is
Option A. Thickness of the metal to be to.
welded only. Option A. prevent oxides from forming
Option B. Type of torch. ahead of the weld.
Option C. Type and thickness of the metal to Option B. prevent molten metal from
be welded. flowing too widely.
Correct Answer is. Type and thickness of the Option C. promote better fusion of the base
metal to be welded. metal at a lower temperature.
Explanation. BL/6-4 2 & 4.1.

71
Correct Answer is. prevent oxides from Option B. filler.
forming ahead of the weld. Option C. flux.
Explanation. BL/6-4 2. Correct Answer is. flux.
Explanation. BL6-4 8.2.2.

Question Number. 8. In Gas Tungsten

Arc (GTA) welding, a stream of inert gas is used Question Number. 12. Which statement
to. concerning a welding process is true?.
Option A. lower the temperature required Option A. In the oxyacetylene welding
to properly fuse the metal. process, the filler rod used for steel is covered
Option B. prevent the formation of oxides in with a thin coating of flux.
the puddle. Option B. In the metallic-arc welding
Option C. concentrate the heat of the arc process, filler material, if needed, is provided by
and prevent its dissipation. a separate metal rod of the proper material
Correct Answer is. prevent the formation of held in the arc.
oxides in the puddle. Option C. The inert-arc welding process uses
Explanation. NIL. an inert gas to protect the weld zone from the
atmosphere.
Correct Answer is. The inert-arc welding
Question Number. 9. After welding you process uses an inert gas to protect the weld
would normalise to. zone from the atmosphere.
Option A. remove oxidation from the Explanation. Jeppesen A & P airframe
welded joint. technician textbook pg 4-4 Gas Metal Arc
Option B. remove carbon build up from the Welding paragraph.
welded joint.
Option C. release the stresses from the
material. Question Number. 13. When inspecting a
Correct Answer is. release the stresses from butt-welded joint by visual means.
the material. Option A. the penetration should be 100
Explanation. Normalising removes local percent of the thickness of the base metal.
stresses set up by the heat, and in turn prevents Option B. the penetration should be 25 to
corrosion. 50 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
Option C. look for evidence of excessive
heat in the form of a very high bead.
Question Number. 10. The flux used Correct Answer is. the penetration should be
during brazing is a mixture of water and. 100 percent of the thickness of the base metal.
Option A. zinc chloride. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook
Option B. hydrochloric acid. 11-4 and Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 4-
Option C. borax powder. 2.Jeppesen A&P General Textbook 11-4 and
Correct Answer is. borax powder. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook 4-2.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 14. What is

Question Number. 11. Oxides form very undesirable in a good weld?.
rapidly when alloys or metals are hot. It is Option A. oxides mixed in with the filler
important, therefore, when welding aluminium material.
to use a. Option B. fusing the edges of materials to
Option A. solvent. be joined.

72
Option C. 100% penetration by filler Question Number. 1. Fore and aft limits
material. of the CG.
Correct Answer is. oxides mixed in with the Option A. are determined by the pilot when
filler material. calculating the loading data.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. are specified by the
manufacturer.
Option C. are determined by the licensed
Question Number. 15. In selecting a torch engineer after a major check and weighing.
tip size to use in welding, the size of the tip Correct Answer is. are specified by the
opening determines the. manufacturer.
Option A. temperature of the flame. Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.3.2.
Option B. melting point of the filler metal.
Option C. amount of heat applied to the
work. Question Number. 2. What angle of turn
Correct Answer is. amount of heat applied to will double the weight of the aircraft?.
the work. Option A. 30°.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. 60°.
Option C. 45°.
Correct Answer is. 60°.
Question Number. 16. The most Explanation. NIL.
important consideration(s) when selecting
welding rod is/are.
Option A. material compatibility. Question Number. 3. The basic
Option B. current setting or flame equipment of an aircraft is.
temperature. Option A. that equipment which is required
Option C. ambient conditions. for every role of the aircraft for which the
Correct Answer is. material compatibility. aircraft is operated plus unusable fuel.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. all equipment including fuel and
oil necessary for a particular flight.
Option C. the crew equipment, and other
Question Number. 17. When inspecting a equipment including fuel and oil necessary for a
weld, you should make sure that. particular flight.
Option A. the parent (or basis) materials are Correct Answer is. that equipment which is
fully fused together. required for every role of the aircraft for which
Option B. the weld has inclusions inside the the aircraft is operated plus unusable fuel.
bead. Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 1.2 a.
Option C. there are voids either side of the
weld.
Correct Answer is. the parent (or basis) Question Number. 4. Aircraft
materials are fully fused together. measurements aft of the datum are.
Explanation. BL/6-4 13.1 (a) and BL/6-5 8.4 (a) Option A. either positive or negative.
and AC43.13-1B Page 4-54 Para.4-48. Option B. positive.
Option C. negative.
Correct Answer is. positive.
16a. Aircraft Weight and Balance. Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.2.1.

73
Question Number. 5. A Weight and Question Number. 9. Aircraft must be
Centre of Gravity Schedule is required by. reweighed.
Option A. all aircraft above 2730 kg MTWA. Option A. after two years from manufacture
Option B. all aircraft not exceeding 2730 kg only.
MTWA. Option B. after two years from manufacture
Option C. all aircraft regardless of weight. then at periods not exceeding five years.
Correct Answer is. all aircraft above 2730 kg Option C. at periods not exceeding five
MTWA. years.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9.1 (a). Correct Answer is. after two years from
manufacture then at periods not exceeding five
years.
Question Number. 6. Aircraft below Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.2.
5700kg not used for commercial air transport
purposes are required to be reweighed.
Option A. every 2 years. Question Number. 10. For purposes of
Option B. every 5 years. calculating weight and C of G position, an adult
Option C. as required by the CAA. male (with baggage) is considered to have a
Correct Answer is. as required by the CAA. mass of.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-3 6.4. Option A. 85 kg.
Option B. 65 kg.
Option C. 75 kg.
Question Number. 7. Variable load is Correct Answer is. 85 kg.
weight of. Explanation. JAR OPS (with baggage) and
Option A. crew, their baggage and AN(G)R Para 4 refers to Flight Crew mass of 85
equipment relevant to role. kg. (Cabin crew 75 kG).
Option B. fuel, oil and non-expendable
equipment relevant to role.
Option C. basic weight plus operating Question Number. 11. Points forward of
weight. the datum point are.
Correct Answer is. crew, their baggage and Option A. negative.
equipment relevant to role. Option B. neutral.
Explanation. BL/ 1-11 Para 1-2 (c). Option C. positive.
Correct Answer is. negative.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.2.1.
Question Number. 8. The term 'reaction'
used in weighing an aircraft refers to.
Option A. the sum of the loads on the main Question Number. 12. Where would you
landing gear only. find documented, the fore and aft limits of the
Option B. the individual loads on each C of G position?.
landing gear. Option A. In the aircraft Maintenance
Option C. the sum of the loads on all of the Manual.
landing gear. Option B. In the Flight Manual (or the
Correct Answer is. the individual loads on documentation associated with the C of A).
each landing gear. Option C. In the technical log.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 1.2 (f). Correct Answer is. In the Flight Manual (or
the documentation associated with the C of A).
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9.4 and 3.3.2.

74
 Option A. the pilot, flight crew and their
Question Number. 13. Previous weighing luggage.
records are. Option B. the passengers, baggage and fuel.
Option A. retained for 2 yrs only. Option C. the aircraft, minimum equipment,
Option B. are kept with aircraft records. unusable fuel and oil.
Option C. destroyed after 5 yrs. Correct Answer is. the aircraft, minimum
Correct Answer is. are kept with aircraft equipment, unusable fuel and oil.
records. Explanation. CAIP S BL/ 1-11 Para 1-2 (b).
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.7.

Question Number. 18. When an aircraft

Question Number. 14. A Load Sheet is has been reweighed under JAR OPS, what
compiled in the order of. should be done to the old Weight and Balance
Option A. Variable Load, Fuel Load, Report?.
Disposable Load, Basic Weight. Option A. Kept in the aircraft logbook.
Option B. Basic Weight, Variable Load, Option B. Destroyed after 3 months.
Disposable Load, Fuel Load. Option C. Kept in the weight and balance
Option C. Basic Weight, Variable Load, Fuel schedule.
Load, Disposable Load. Correct Answer is. Destroyed after 3 months.
Correct Answer is. Basic Weight, Variable Explanation. JAR OPS Subpart P.
Load, Disposable Load, Fuel Load.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 Page 24.
Question Number. 19. If the C of G of an
aircraft with a full complement of fuel is
Question Number. 15. A Weight and calculated. Then.
Centre of Gravity Schedule must be signed by. Option A. the C of G will always be within
Option A. the CAA. limits if it was within limits with full fuel tanks.
Option B. the pilot. Option B. the C of G must be recalculated
Option C. a Licensed aircraft engineer. with zero fuel to ensure it will still be within
Correct Answer is. a Licensed aircraft limits.
engineer. Option C. the C of G will only need to be
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9. recalculated if the fuel weight is behind the
aircraft C of G position.
Correct Answer is. the C of G must be
Question Number. 16. An aircraft which recalculated with zero fuel to ensure it will still
has its C of G forward of the Forward Limit. be within limits.
Option A. the take-off run will not be Explanation. NIL.
affected.
Option B. will have a longer take-off run.
Option C. will have a shorter take-off run. Question Number. 20. Cargo placed aft of
Correct Answer is. will have a longer take-off the datum will produce a.
run. Option A. neutral moment.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 3.3.1. Option B. negative moment.
Option C. positive moment.
Correct Answer is. positive moment.
Question Number. 17. The basic weight Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 5.4.4 (a).
of an aircraft is.

75
Question Number. 21. A load sheet. Option C. Basic weight plus unusable fuel
Option A. need not be carried on the plus oil.
aircraft if one remains at base. Correct Answer is. Basic weight plus
Option B. is always carried on the aircraft. unusable fuel plus oil.
Option C. is never carried on the aircraft. Explanation. Jeppesen A&P General Textbook
Correct Answer is. is always carried on the 6-2.
aircraft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 26. A Weight and
Centre of Gravity Schedule is to be raised.
Question Number. 22. The Datum point Option A. in triplicate, for the CAA, the
on an aircraft, for measuring C of G position operator and the maintenance organisation.
could be. Option B. in duplicate, for the CAA and the
Option A. the front bulkhead. operator.
Option B. anywhere on the aircraft. Option C. once only, for the CAA.
Option C. the nose of the aircraft. Correct Answer is. in duplicate, for the CAA
Correct Answer is. anywhere on the aircraft. and the operator.
Explanation. AC43 Page 10-1 para F, and A&P Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.9.4.
general textbook 6-4 Pg 250 'Datum'.

Question Number. 27. Where would you

Question Number. 23. Increasing the find the information on the conditions for
weight of an aircraft. weighing the aircraft?.
Option A. increases the glide range. Option A. Maintenance Manual.
Option B. has no affect on the glide range. Option B. Technical Log.
Option C. decreases the glide range. Option C. Flight Manual in conjunction with
Correct Answer is. has no affect on the glide the documents associated with the CofA.
range. Correct Answer is. Maintenance Manual.
Explanation. Mechanics of Flight Kermode Explanation. The information is in both Flight
Page 194. Manual and AMM. However the Flight Manual
is for the loaded aircraft, and the AMM is for
the Basic Aircraft, the latter being most relevant
Question Number. 24. A load Sheet must to the aircraft engineer.
be signed by.
Option A. a licensed aircraft engineer.
Option B. the Commander of the aircraft. Question Number. 28. In aeronautical
Option C. the Loading Officer. weighing terms.
Correct Answer is. the Commander of the Option A. all arms for forward of the
aircraft. reference datum are positive (+) and all arms aft
Explanation. NIL. of the reference datum are negative (-).
Option B. all reference datum are as per
company procedures.
Question Number. 25. What is meant by Option C. all arms for forward of the
empty weight?. reference datum are negative (-) and all arms
Option A. Basic weight only. aft of the reference datum are positive (+).
Option B. Basic weight minus unusable fuel Correct Answer is. all arms for forward of the
plus oil. reference datum are negative (-) and all arms
aft of the reference datum are positive (+).

76
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 3. When weighing an
aircraft with load cells.
Option A. only the main wheels are
Question Number. 29. Details on weighed.
recording of weight and C of G position can be Option B. the aircraft is jacked.
found in. Option C. a load cell should be placed under
Option A. BCAR section A. each set of wheels.
Option B. Air Navigation Order. Correct Answer is. the aircraft is jacked.
Option C. Airworthiness Notices. Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 4.4.
Correct Answer is. BCAR section A.
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 2.1.
Question Number. 4. When weighing an
aircraft, the hydrostatic weighing units are
Question Number. 30. If a new Weight positioned.
and Centre of Gravity Schedule is issued, the old Option A. either under or on top of each
one must be retained for. jack.
Option A. one year. Option B. one under each jack.
Option B. two years. Option C. one on top of each jack.
Option C. six months. Correct Answer is. one on top of each jack.
Correct Answer is. six months. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. JAR OPS 1.920.

16b. Aircraft Weight and Balance. Question Number. 5. When weighing an

aircraft, the hydraulic system should be.
Option A. empty.
Question Number. 1. A weighing cell is Option B. completely full.
based on the variation of. Option C. filled to 'maximum level' mark.
Option A. induced voltage with Correct Answer is. filled to 'maximum level'
displacement. mark.
Option B. resistance with strain. Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 1.2 (b).
Option C. differential currents with stress.
Correct Answer is. resistance with strain.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 6. When weighing an
aircraft by the weighbridge method, the aircraft
is.
Question Number. 2. When weighing an Option A. only levelled laterally.
aircraft using elastic load cells, the load cells go. Option B. jacked and levelled.
Option A. as a single unit or combination of Option C. resting on the wheels.
units under the aircraft wheels. Correct Answer is. resting on the wheels.
Option B. between undercarriage and Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 4.2.
aircraft.
Option C. between top of jack and the 17. Aircraft Handling and Storage.
aircraft.
Correct Answer is. as a single unit or
combination of units under the aircraft wheels. Question Number. 1. When mooring an
Explanation. Leaflet 1-4 4.5.1. aircraft what type of rope should be used?.
Option A. Nylon.

77
Option B. Fibre, tied tight due to stretch
when wet. Question Number. 5. If ice and snow is
Option C. Fibre, with some slack due to found on the wings of an aircraft. Before flight
shrinkage when wet. the.
Correct Answer is. Nylon. Option A. snow should be removed but ice
Explanation. Leaflet 10-1 4.3.1. Although fibre can remain because it has no appreciable affect
(manila) rope can be used (with some slack) the on the airflow.
A&P Mechanic General Handbook says Nylon is Option B. all snow and ice must be
preferred (Pg.510). Also, fibre rope does not removed.
shrink when wet, it shrinks when it dries. Option C. ice should be removed but snow
can remain because the airflow will remove it.
Correct Answer is. all snow and ice must be
Question Number. 2. Removal of ice by removed.
the use of deicing fluid on the aircraft, before Explanation. GOL/1-1 7.9.2. AL/11-3 3.1.
flight.
Option A. must be 1 hour before flight to
enable fluid to be cleaned from aircraft. Question Number. 6. There is ice and
Option B. will provide sufficient prevention snow on a helicopter blade. You.
of ice formation until take off. Option A. wipe off excess snow and leave
Option C. may remove ice for a period of ice.
time depending on the airfield conditions. Option B. leave a layer of ice.
Correct Answer is. may remove ice for a Option C. remove all traces of ice and snow.
period of time depending on the airfield Correct Answer is. remove all traces of ice
conditions. and snow.
Explanation. AL/11-3 3.1.4. Explanation. AL/11-3 2.2.

Question Number. 3. When deicing an Question Number. 7. Why is the last

aircraft with pressure deicing fluid, the sensors part of towing an aircraft, done in a straight
on the outside of the aircraft should. line?.
Option A. have their heating switched on. Option A. To relieve side pressure from the
Option B. be fitted with blanks or bungs. main wheels.
Option C. not be blanked. Option B. To relieve hydraulic pressure from
Correct Answer is. be fitted with blanks or the steering mechanism.
bungs. Option C. To allow nose wheel chocks to be
Explanation. AL/11-3 5.3.1. placed at 90 degrees to the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. To relieve side pressure
from the main wheels.
Question Number. 4. When Ground Explanation. NIL.
Power is connected to aircraft, the generators
are.
Option A. paralleled to supply. Question Number. 8. Aluminium clad
Option B. paralleled to supply for ground alloy sheet should not be polished with
starting only. mechanical buffing wheels as this.
Option C. never paralleled. Option A. will cause large static charges to
Correct Answer is. never paralleled. build up.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. may remove the aluminium
coating.

78
Option C. may remove the alloy coating. Option B. the main gear.
Correct Answer is. may remove the Option C. the nose gear.
aluminium coating. Correct Answer is. the main gear.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. CAIP S GOL/ 1-1 Para 3-1-6.

Question Number. 9. An aircraft should Question Number. 13. When a helicopter

be cleared of snow. lands, how does the pilot signal to ground staff
Option A. using air blast. when it is safe to approach the aircraft?.
Option B. using cold fluid. Option A. Turn the anti collision lights off.
Option C. using hot fluid. Option B. Flash the landing lights.
Correct Answer is. using air blast. Option C. Flash the Nav lights.
Explanation. CAIP S AL/11-3 Para 5. Correct Answer is. Turn the anti collision
lights off.
Explanation. ANO Section 2 Rule 9.
Question Number. 10. When refueling an
aircraft from a tanker, why are the aircraft and
tanker bonded together?. Question Number. 14. When the park
Option A. To discharge static electricity from brake has been applied on an aircraft which has
the aircraft to the tanker. a pressurized hydraulic system and is reading
Option B. To maintain the aircraft and maximum system pressure, the brake gauges to
tanker at the same electrical potential. the left and right main wheels will read.
Option C. To enable the aircraft re-fuel Option A. no indication.
pumps to be operated from the tanker Option B. full system pressure.
electrical supply. Option C. full scale deflection.
Correct Answer is. To maintain the aircraft Correct Answer is. full system pressure.
and tanker at the same electrical potential. Explanation. NIL.
Explanation. Pallett - Aircraft Electrical
Systems Pg.95.
Question Number. 15. De-icing fluid Type
1 is used.
Question Number. 11. When turning and Option A. for short holdover times.
towing an aircraft, why should sharp radiuses Option B. where the ambient temperature
be avoided?. is below -10degrees Centigrade.
Option A. Power steering leaks could occur. Option C. where holdover times are long.
Option B. Scrubbing of main-wheel tyres Correct Answer is. for short holdover times.
could occur. Explanation. AL/11-3 2.6. Jeppesen A&P
Option C. Scrubbing of nose-wheel tyres Airframe Technician Textbook Page 13-14.
could occur.
Correct Answer is. Scrubbing of main-wheel
tyres could occur. Question Number. 16. When picketing a
Explanation. Leaflet 10-1 3.2.4. helicopter you.
Option A. tie down one blade.
Option B. fit sleeves to the blades to protect
Question Number. 12. When an aircraft is them if they strike the ground.
pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should Option C. fit sleeves and tie off all blades.
be attached to. Correct Answer is. fit sleeves and tie off all
Option A. the tail cone. blades.

79
Explanation. Leaflet 10-1 4.4.1. Option C. To take compression and shear
loads.
Correct Answer is. To take shear loads.
Question Number. 17. Which is bad Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe Textbook
practice for removing the ice and snow in the 1-27.
cold weather?.
Option A. Dry snow by hot air.
Option B. Deep ice by de-icing fluid. Question Number. 5. When using a
Option C. Use brush for deep wet snow. D.T.I. to check the run-out of a shaft, readings
Correct Answer is. Dry snow by hot air. of -15 to +25 would indicate a run-out of.
Explanation. AL/11-3 5.0. Option A. 0.025 inches.
Option B. 0.020 inches.
18a. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and Option C. 0.040 inches.
Assembly Techniques. Correct Answer is. 0.020 inches.
Explanation. CAIP S EL/3-3 Para. 3.2.

Question Number. 1. Taper pins resist

what loads. Question Number. 6. A dent is
Option A. compression. measured in a tubular push-pull rod by.
Option B. shear. Option A. passing a ball down its bore.
Option C. tension. Option B. callipers and feeler gauges.
Correct Answer is. shear. Option C. a steel ball and micrometer.
Explanation. A&P Technician General Correct Answer is. a steel ball and
Textbook 8-29. micrometer.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 2. What test do you

do on a bonded join?. Question Number. 7. What is used on
Option A. Shear. Magnesium to re-protect it?.
Option B. Peel. Option A. Selenious Acid.
Option C. Tension. Option B. Deoxidine.
Correct Answer is. Peel. Option C. Chromic Acid.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. Selenious Acid.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 3. What would you

use to check the run-out on a control rod?. Question Number. 8. In the procedure
Option A. Micrometer + ball bearing. to be followed after spillage of battery acid,
Option B. DTI + V blocks. neutralizing is carried out.
Option C. 3 leg trammel + feeler gauge. Option A. by washing with distilled water.
Correct Answer is. DTI + V blocks. Option B. by applying a coating of Vaseline.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. with a dilute solution of sodium
bicarbonate.
Correct Answer is. with a dilute solution of
Question Number. 4. Taper pins are sodium bicarbonate.
used in which of the following applications?. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-2 5.4.1.
Option A. To take compression loads.
Option B. To take shear loads.

80
Question Number. 9. After carrying out Option C. cathode and the negative lead the
an identification test of aluminium alloy with earth.
caustic soda, the caustic soda should be Correct Answer is. anode and the negative
neutralized with. lead to the cathode.
Option A. Chromic anhydride solution. Explanation. Positive to the anode.
Option B. Copper sulphate solution.
Option C. Phosphoric acid.
Correct Answer is. Chromic anhydride Question Number. 14. The bonding
solution. resistance of primary structure must not
Explanation. BL/4-2 Para 2-4-5 'Note'. exceed.
Option A. 0.05 ohms.
Option B. 0.005 ohms.
Question Number. 10. To neutralize Option C. 0.5 ohms.
spilled battery acid on aluminium alloy, use. Correct Answer is. 0.05 ohms.
Option A. sulphuric acid. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.8 table 1.
Option B. bicarbonate of soda.
Option C. caustic soda.
Correct Answer is. bicarbonate of soda. Question Number. 15. What is the
Explanation. BL/4-1 4.1.3. maximum resistance between the main earth
system and a metal plate on which the earthing
device (tyre) is resting?.
Question Number. 11. Hydrogen Option A. 100 megohms.
embrittlement of high tensile steel is caused if it Option B. 1 megohm.
is treated with. Option C. 10 megohms.
Option A. Zinc Chromate. Correct Answer is. 10 megohms.
Option B. Nitric acid. Explanation. EEL/1-6 Para 3.10.8 & Leaflet 9-1
Option C. Phosphoric acid. 3.10.8.
Correct Answer is. Phosphoric acid.
Explanation. BL/4-2 3.2.2 (iii) BL/7-4 5.2.
Question Number. 16. The three
electrical checks carried out on aircraft are (1)
Question Number. 12. Dents in a tubular continuity (2) bonding (3) insulation. What is
push-pull rod are not allowed. the order in which they are executed?.
Option A. anywhere on the rod. Option A. 2-3-1.
Option B. in the middle third of the rod. Option B. 1-2-3.
Option C. in the end thirds of the rod. Option C. 2-1-3.
Correct Answer is. in the middle third of the Correct Answer is. 2-1-3.
rod. Explanation. Bonding - Continuity, Insulation,
Explanation. NIL. Function.

Question Number. 13. When checking a Question Number. 17. When an earth-
diode forward bias function, the positive lead of return terminal assembly has to be replaced
the ohmmeter should be placed on the. which of the following checks must be carried
Option A. cathode and the negative lead to out?.
the anode. Option A. Bonding and continuity tests.
Option B. anode and the negative lead to Option B. Bonding and millivolt drop tests.
the cathode.

81
Option C. Bonding and insulation resistance Correct Answer is. To avoid breaking down a
tests. high resistance film that might exist between
Correct Answer is. Bonding and millivolt drop contacting surfaces.
tests. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.2. A problem of
Explanation. EEL/1-6 Para 3.7.2 & Leaflet 9-1 poor continuity could be caused by oxidation at
3.7.2. connectors. Using too high a voltage in a
continuity test might 'overlook' the problem
and give a false good reading.
Question Number. 18. When carrying out
millivolt drop checks on a circuit, what is an
approximate guide for a correct reading?. Question Number. 21. When replacing a
Option A. 10 millivolts for every 15 amps bonding connection and the original conductor
flowing. cannot be matched exactly, which of the
Option B. 10 millivolts for every 5 amps following replacements would you use?.
flowing. Option A. One manufactured from the same
Option C. 5 millivolts for every 10 amps type of material, but of greater cross sectional
flowing. area should be selected.
Correct Answer is. 5 millivolts for every 10 Option B. One manufactured from any piece
amps flowing. of Nyvin cable having the correct current
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.3 (b). EEL/1-6. capacity may be used.
Option C. One manufactured from any
conducting material of the same cross sectional
Question Number. 19. Effective area be used.
continuity is not possible unless which of the Correct Answer is. One manufactured from
following conditions exists?. the same type of material, but of greater cross
Option A. All circuit earths are sectional area should be selected.
disconnected. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.5.2.
Option B. The portion of the circuit under
test must constitute a simple series circuit with
no parallel paths. Question Number. 22. What is a typical
Option C. All manually operated switches minimum insulation resistance value for an
must be off. aircraft undercarriage bay?.
Correct Answer is. The portion of the circuit Option A. 10 megohms.
under test must constitute a simple series Option B. 5 megohms.
circuit with no parallel paths. Option C. 2 megohms.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.2.3. EEL / 1-6 Para 4- Correct Answer is. 2 megohms.
2-3. Explanation. EEL/1-6 Para 4-5-4 (a) & Leaflet
9-1 4.5.4 (a).

Question Number. 20. Why is a low

voltage supply used for continuity testing?. Question Number. 23. The
Option A. To prevent fuses 'blowing' and recommended insulation resistance of a DC
lamps burning out. motor is.
Option B. To avoid damage to the wiring. Option A. 2 megohms.
Option C. To avoid breaking down a high Option B. 0.5 megohms.
resistance film that might exist between Option C. 5 megohms.
contacting surfaces. Correct Answer is. 0.5 megohms.

82
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 Para.4.5.4 (Rotating Option C. Fretting corrosion in aluminium
machinery). alloys.
Correct Answer is. Fretting corrosion in
aluminium alloys.
Question Number. 24. Bonding value for Explanation. CAIP BL/4-1 3.1.5.
secondary structure is a maximum of.
Option A. 0.05 ohms.
Option B. 1 ohm. Question Number. 28. What is indicated
Option C. 0.5 ohms. by the wrinkling of the underside of an aircraft
Correct Answer is. 1 ohm. skin?.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 para.3.8. EEL 1-6 3.8. Option A. Hogging.
Option B. Fretting.
Option C. Sagging.
Question Number. 25. Wrinkling of an Correct Answer is. Hogging.
aircraft skin will. Explanation. Hogging produces wrinkling on
Option A. cause rivets to pull. the underside of the wing. Sagging produces
Option B. weaken the skin. wrinkling on the upper side of the wing.
Option C. increase drag on the aircraft.
Correct Answer is. cause rivets to pull.
Explanation. All three are possibly correct, but Question Number. 29. What is used to
c is the most probable. re-protect magnesium?.
Option A. Selenious acid.
Option B. Deoxidine.
Question Number. 26. You have removed Option C. Chromic acid.
a bolt from a critical bolted joint for inspection Correct Answer is. Selenious acid.
and rectification. What action should you take Explanation. CAIP S BL/7-5 6.3.1.
prior to inspection?.
Option A. Before any inspection is carried
out, the nut/bolt and hole must be cleaned with Question Number. 30. What is used on
a solvent such as trichloroethylene. magnesium to remove corrosion?.
Option B. Clean the bolt shank and thread Option A. Strontium chromate.
and re-grease and replace bolt and check for Option B. Chromic acid / sulphuric acid
side-play. solution.
Option C. A preliminary inspection should Option C. Selenious acid.
be made before the hole is cleaned. Correct Answer is. Chromic acid / sulphuric
Correct Answer is. A preliminary inspection acid solution.
should be made before the hole is cleaned. Explanation. CAIP S BL/4-2 2.4.4. BL/7-5 9.3.5
Explanation. CAIP AL/7-5 5.4. (i).

Question Number. 27. On inspection of a Question Number. 31. Galvanic corrosion

critical bolted joint you witness black or grey refers to a type of.
dust or paste. What type of corrosion has taken Option A. corrosion between two pieces of
place and what type of material is involved?. material.
Option A. Exfoliation corrosion in Option B. plating process.
magnesium alloys. Option C. surface corrosion.
Option B. Galvanic corrosion in magnesium Correct Answer is. corrosion between two
alloys. pieces of material.

83
Explanation. AC43 6-20. Option A. 0.5 Megohm or 100 kilohm per
sq.ft. of surface area whichever is less.
Option B. 1 ohm.
Question Number. 32. Chromating used Option C. 0.05 ohm.
on magnesium alloys produces. Correct Answer is. 0.5 Megohm or 100
Option A. chromium surface kilohm per sq.ft. of surface area whichever is
electrochemically. less.
Option B. a chromate film surface. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.8 Table 1 or EEL/1-6
Option C. metal chromates on the 3.5.
electrochemically.
Correct Answer is. a chromate film surface.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/7-5 Para.4. Question Number. 36. Removal of
corrosion from aluminium clad alloy is best
done.
Question Number. 33. Chromating used Option A. mechanically by buffing.
on magnesium alloys. Option B. chemically by trichloroethylene.
Option A. uses chromium and converts the Option C. chemically by sulphuric acid
surface electrochemically. solution.
Option B. uses chromates and converts the Correct Answer is. chemically by sulphuric
surface chemically. acid solution.
Option C. uses chromium, which is Explanation. NIL.
deposited on the surface.
Correct Answer is. uses chromates and
converts the surface chemically. Question Number. 37. Control methods
Explanation. BL/7-3 11. Chromate treatment for galvanic corrosion include.
sometimes called 'chromate conversion'. Option A. reducing cyclic stressing and
increasing cross sectional area.
Option B. joining similar metals and using
Question Number. 34. When carrying out jointing compounds.
a bonding test in the presence of an anodic Option C. ensuring correct heat treatments
coating, what should you do?. and correct alloying.
Option A. Take account of the resistance of Correct Answer is. joining similar metals and
the coating. using jointing compounds.
Option B. Disregard the resistance of the Explanation. NIL.
coating.
Option C. Penetrate the coating so a good
electrical contact is made. Question Number. 38. The treatment for
Correct Answer is. Penetrate the coating so a stress corrosion is.
good electrical contact is made. Option A. not the same as fatigue corrosion.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 3.10.6 and Option B. the same as for surface corrosion
note from 3.6.6. or surface cracks in sheet metal.
Option C. always the replacement of the
part.
Question Number. 35. Maximum value of Correct Answer is. always the replacement of
resistance between all isolated parts which may the part.
be subjected to appreciable electrostatic Explanation. NIL.
charging and the main earth.

84
Question Number. 39. Very light Option C. when painting an aircraft.
corrosion on aluminium alloy can be removed Correct Answer is. when re-protecting after
by. corrosion.
Option A. using a solvent. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. rubbing with wire wool.
Option C. using Alocrom 1200.
Correct Answer is. using a solvent. Question Number. 44. When carrying out
Explanation. NIL. insulation resistance checks.
Option A. the measurement is always
infinity if the cable is installed correctly.
Question Number. 40. To remove Option B. the measurement will also show
corrosion on Fe metals use. cable continuity.
Option A. selenious acid rust remover. Option C. the measurement varies
Option B. sulphuric acid rust remover. depending upon the ambient conditions of the
Option C. phosphoric acid rust remover. aircraft under test.
Correct Answer is. phosphoric acid rust Correct Answer is. the measurement varies
remover. depending upon the ambient conditions of the
Explanation. NIL. aircraft under test.
Explanation. EEL/1-6 4.5.3, Leaflet 9-1 4.5.3.

Question Number. 41. The usual

manufacturer's anti corrosive process to be Question Number. 45. How is damage
applied to Fe aircraft parts is. classified on an aircraft skin?.
Option A. cadmium plating. Option A. Negligible, repairable,
Option B. anodising. replacement.
Option C. metal spraying. Option B. Negligible, allowable,
Correct Answer is. cadmium plating. replacement.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. Negligible, allowable, repairable.
Correct Answer is. Negligible, repairable,
replacement.
Question Number. 42. An intervention Explanation. NIL.
defect is one where.
Option A. the engineer has the discretion on
whether to intervene. Question Number. 46. When carrying out
Option B. there is a requirement for the a millivolt drop test on a terminal, the
maintenance engineer to intervene. maximum value should be.
Option C. the defect occurred because of Option A. 50mV/10A.
some previous maintenance action. Option B. 10mV/10A.
Correct Answer is. the defect occurred Option C. 5mV/10A.
because of some previous maintenance action. Correct Answer is. 5mV/10A.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.3 (b). EEL/1-6.

Question Number. 43. Vapour phase Question Number. 47. A jury strut is
inhibitor should be used. used.
Option A. when re-protecting after Option A. as a reference when checking the
corrosion. C of G position.
Option B. when degreasing a component.

85
Option B. as a datum when placing the
aircraft in a rigging position. Question Number. 1. Damaged
Option C. to support the structure during chromate film should be repaired by using.
repairs. Option A. phosphoric acid 10% by weight in
Correct Answer is. to support the structure water.
during repairs. Option B. selenious acid 10% by weight in
Explanation. NIL. water.
Option C. selenious acid 20% by weight in
water.
Question Number. 48. Run out' on a Correct Answer is. selenious acid 10% by
control rod is measured by. weight in water.
Option A. micrometer, surface plate and Explanation. BL/7-3 5.2.
vee-blocks.
Option B. surface plate, vernier callipers and
vee-blocks. Question Number. 2. Stop Drilling' is the
Option C. dial test indicator, surface plate process of.
and vee-blocks. Option A. drilling holes to stop a crack at the
Correct Answer is. dial test indicator, surface crack ends.
plate and vee-blocks. Option B. drilling holes in a metal prior to
Explanation. NIL. riveting.
Option C. drilling a rivet head to remove it
from the metal.
Question Number. 49. How do you check Correct Answer is. drilling holes to stop a
the resistance of a fire bottle cartridge?. crack at the crack ends.
Option A. Use an insulation tester. Explanation. NIL.
Option B. Use a multimeter.
Option C. Use a light and bulb.
Correct Answer is. Use a multimeter. Question Number. 3. When inserting a
Explanation. NIL. helicoil insert, which way does the tang face?.
Option A. Away from the hole.
Option B. Towards the hole.
Question Number. 50. If after forming a Option C. Towards the mandrel.
crimp in an electrical condutor a high resistance Correct Answer is. Towards the hole.
is suspected, how would you carry out a check Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician
without disturbing the connection?. General Textbook Page 8-31.
Option A. Use a multimeter set to millivolts
and carry out a millivolts drop test.
Option B. Carry out an insulation check. Question Number. 4. On a patch repair
Option C. Use a multimeter set to ohms to you should use.
check the resistance. Option A. material one gauge thicker than
Correct Answer is. Use a multimeter set to the original structure.
millivolts and carry out a millivolts drop test. Option B. the same rivet spacing as the
Explanation. NIL. original structure.
Option C. only aluminium alloy rivets.
Correct Answer is. the same rivet spacing as
18b. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and the original structure.
Assembly Techniques. Explanation. AC43 Page 4-32.

86
Question Number. 5. What tap do you
use when fitting a Helicoil?. Question Number. 9. On a composite
Option A. The same as the original thread repair the vacuum should be.
size. Option A. above required level.
Option B. The next size up from the original Option B. below required level.
tap size. Option C. at the required level.
Option C. The tap supplied with the Helicoil Correct Answer is. at the required level.
kit. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. The tap supplied with the
Helicoil kit.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 10. If bridging strips or
bonding cords are fractured, what action may
be taken?.
Question Number. 6. When fitting a Option A. The broken ends can be repaired
thread insert. with an “in-line” splice.
Option A. the insert should be tapped in Option B. A new conductor should be fitted.
using a hammer. Option C. The broken ends can be soldered.
Option B. the hole should be expanded Correct Answer is. A new conductor should
using a tap supplied by the insert manufacturer. be fitted.
Option C. a thread the next size up from the Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.6.3.
original should be tapped.
Correct Answer is. the hole should be
expanded using a tap supplied by the insert Question Number. 11. A UNF threaded
manufacturer. wire thread insert may be identified.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-10 3.2.2. Option A. by a black painted tang.
Option B. by a red painted tang.
Option C. by an unpainted tang.
Question Number. 7. A stud broken off Correct Answer is. by a black painted tang.
below the surface is removed by. Explanation. BL/6-22 3.1.
Option A. using a stud box.
Option B. a stud remover tool fitted into a
drilled hole. 18c. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
Option C. cutting a slot in it and removing Assembly Techniques.
with a screwdriver.
Correct Answer is. a stud remover tool fitted
into a drilled hole. Question Number. 1. Transducers used
Explanation. A stud box could only be used if it in ultrasonic testing exhibit which of he
is broken above the surface. following effects?.
Option A. Hyper-acoustic.
Option B. Ferromagnetic.
Question Number. 8. A thread insert is Option C. Piezoelectric.
made from. Correct Answer is. Piezoelectric.
Option A. white metal. Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 page 3 para
Option B. aluminium alloy. 3.2.
Option C. stainless steel.
Correct Answer is. stainless steel.
Explanation. NIL.

87
Question Number. 2. The eddy current Option C. At room temperature away from
method of N.D.T. uses. direct sunlight.
Option A. AC or DC. Correct Answer is. At room temperature
Option B. Direct current. away from direct sunlight.
Option C. Alternating current. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1.
Correct Answer is. Alternating current.
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 page 1 para
2.1. Question Number. 7. When carrying out
a colour contrast test on a pressure vessel.
Option A. the dye should be applied to the
Question Number. 3. To measure the outside and the developer to the inside.
thickness of a paint finish, what type of NDT Option B. the dye should be applied to the
inspection is used?. inside and the developer to the outside.
Option A. A woodpecker. Option C. both the dye and the developer
Option B. Ultrasonic. should be applied to the outside.
Option C. Radiographic. Correct Answer is. the dye should be applied
Correct Answer is. Ultrasonic. to the inside and the developer to the outside.
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 4-5 para 1.4. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1.

Question Number. 4. When carrying out Question Number. 8. When leak testing
a dye penetrant test, after the developer has with a colour contrast field kit, the soak time for
been applied it should be inspected. a component less than 1/8 in. (3mm) thick
Option A. after 30 minutes. would be.
Option B. as soon as the developer is dry Option A. at least twice the normal soak
and again after approximately 10 minutes. time.
Option C. after 1 hour. Option B. at least 3 times the normal soak
Correct Answer is. as soon as the developer time.
is dry and again after approximately 10 minutes. Option C. at least the normal soak time.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Paras 7-1 and Correct Answer is. at least 3 times the
7-2. normal soak time.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-2.

Question Number. 5. During a colour

contrast test the penetrant time should be. Question Number. 9. When using a
Option A. longer for a small crack. colour contrast dye penetrant kit, and a small
Option B. shorter for a small crack. crack is suspected in the material.
Option C. longer for a wide crack. Option A. less developer should be used.
Correct Answer is. longer for a small crack. Option B. less inhibitor should be used.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-1. Option C. a magnifying glass is
recommended.
Correct Answer is. a magnifying glass is
Question Number. 6. How should a dye recommended.
penetrant field kit be stored?. Explanation. CAAIP\'s leaflet 4-2 pg 6 para 7.5.
Option A. At a cold temperature in a
darkened room.
Option B. In direct sunlight. Question Number. 10. What NDT method
would you use to detect delamination?.

88
Option A. Colour contrast dye penetrant. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para.6.
Option B. Ultrasound.
Option C. Eddy current.
Correct Answer is. Ultrasound. Question Number. 15. The main
Explanation. Leaflet 4-5 1.4. advantage of dye penetrant inspection is.
Option A. the part to be inspected does not
require cleaning.
Question Number. 11. Magnetic particle Option B. the defect must be opened to the
testing detects faults. surface.
Option A. transverse. Option C. the penetrant solution works on
Option B. longitudinally. any non-porous material.
Option C. longitudinal and transverse. Correct Answer is. the penetrant solution
Correct Answer is. transverse. works on any non-porous material.
Explanation. CAAIP 4-7, 2.2 The flaw must be Explanation. NIL.
between 45 degrees and 90 degrees to the flux
lines.
Question Number. 16. To detect a
minute crack using dye penetrant inspection
Question Number. 12. Dye penetrant in a usually requires.
cold climate. Option A. the surface to be highly polished.
Option A. takes longer to work. Option B. a longer than normal penetrating
Option B. is not affected. time.
Option C. works more quickly. Option C. that the developer be applied to a
Correct Answer is. takes longer to work. flat surface.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-2. Correct Answer is. a longer than normal
penetrating time.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-1.
Question Number. 13. If after spraying
the developer, red blotches appear, the part.
Option A. has sub-surface defects. Question Number. 17. When checking an
Option B. was not cleaned properly. item with the magnetic particle inspection
Option C. is porous. method, circular and longitudinal magnetization
Correct Answer is. is porous. should be used to.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-3. Option A. evenly magnetize the entire part.
Option B. ensure uniform current flow.
Option C. reveal all possible defects.
Question Number. 14. What is the Correct Answer is. reveal all possible defects.
purpose of the developer in a dye penetrant Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 2 and leaflet 4-7, 4.5.
inspection?.
Option A. It acts a s a blotter to draw out
the penetrant that has seeped into the crack. Question Number. 18. Which type crack
Option B. It is drawn to the crack by can be detected by magnetic particle inspection
electrostatic attraction. using either circular or longitudinal
Option C. It seeps into the crack and makes magnetisation?.
it show up. Option A. 45°.
Correct Answer is. It acts a s a blotter to draw Option B. longitudinal.
out the penetrant that has seeped into the Option C. transverse.
crack. Correct Answer is. 45°.

89
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 4-7 para 2.2. Option B. high permeability and low
retentivity.
Option C. high permeability and high
Question Number. 19. Surface cracks in retentivity.
aluminium castings and forgings may usually be Correct Answer is. high permeability and low
detected by. retentivity.
Option A. submerging the part in a solution Explanation. NIL.
of hydrochloric acid and rinsing with clear
water.
Option B. gamma ray inspection. Question Number. 23. The 'Dwell Time'
Option C. the use of dye penetrants and of a dye-penetrant NDT inspection is the.
suitable developers. Option A. time it takes for a defect to
Correct Answer is. the use of dye penetrants develop.
and suitable developers. Option B. time the penetrant is allowed to
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 1.6.2. stand.
Option C. amount of time the developer is
allowed to act.
Question Number. 20. Which of these Correct Answer is. time the penetrant is
metals is inspected using the magnetic particle allowed to stand.
inspection method?. Explanation. A&P General Textbook 12-3 Pg
Option A. Magnesium alloys. 447 Para 2.
Option B. Aluminium alloys.
Option C. Iron alloys.
Correct Answer is. Iron alloys. Question Number. 24. What non-
Explanation. Leaflet 4-7 1.1. destructive testing method requires little or no
part preparation, is used to detect surface or
near-surface defects in most metals, and may
Question Number. 21. One way a part also be used to separate metals or alloys and
may be demagnetized after magnetic particle their heat-treat conditions?.
inspection is by. Option A. Eddy current inspection.
Option A. slowly moving the part out of an Option B. Magnetic particle inspection.
AC magnetic field of sufficient strength. Option C. Ultrasonic inspection.
Option B. slowly moving the part into an AC Correct Answer is. Eddy current inspection.
magnetic field of sufficient strength. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. subjecting the part to high
voltage, low amperage AC.
Correct Answer is. slowly moving the part out Question Number. 25. Gamma Ray
of an AC magnetic field of sufficient strength. Testing of combustion chambers will show up.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-7 4.9.2. Option A. grey on white background.
Option B. black on lighter background.
Option C. light grey on black background.
Question Number. 22. The testing Correct Answer is. light grey on black
medium that is generally used in magnetic background.
particle inspection utilises a ferromagnetic Explanation. NIL.
material that has.
Option A. low permeability and high
retentivity. Question Number. 26. Which of these
non-destructive testing methods is suitable for

90
the inspection of most metals, plastics and Option A. on the outside with developer on
ceramics for surface and subsurface defects?. the outside.
Option A. Eddy current inspection. Option B. on the inside, with developer on
Option B. Magnetic particle inspection. the outside.
Option C. Ultrasonic inspection. Option C. on the inside with the developer
Correct Answer is. Ultrasonic inspection. on the inside.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. on the inside, with
developer on the outside.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 9-1.
Question Number. 27. Ultrasonic flaw
detectors use.
Option A. high frequency sound waves. Question Number. 31. In order for dye
Option B. a magnetic field. penetrant inspection to be effective, the
Option C. x-rays. material being checked must.
Correct Answer is. high frequency sound Option A. be non-magnetic.
waves. Option B. be magnetic.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. have surface cracks.
Correct Answer is. have surface cracks.
Explanation. A&P General Textbook 12-2 Pg
Question Number. 28. Defects are 446 (B).
indicated in the dye penetrant crack detection
test by.
Option A. red lines on a white background. Question Number. 32. Which of the
Option B. yellowish green marks. following metals can be inspected using the
Option C. green lines and dots. magnetic particle inspection method?.
Correct Answer is. red lines on a white Option A. Aluminium alloys.
background. Option B. Iron alloys.
Explanation. NIL. Option C. Magnesium alloys.
Correct Answer is. Iron alloys.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 29. NDT using colour
dye process at temperatures below 15°C will.
Option A. not be affected by the Question Number. 33. After completion
temperature. of electromagnetic crack detection, the test
Option B. retard the penetrant action of the piece must be.
dye and penetration time is extended. Option A. allowed to cool to room
Option C. mean choosing alternative NDT temperature as slowly as possible.
method. Option B. de-magnetised before returning
Correct Answer is. retard the penetrant to service.
action of the dye and penetration time is Option C. allowed to lose any residual
extended. magnetism over as long a period possible.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 4-2. Correct Answer is. de-magnetised before
returning to service.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 30. When using dye
penetrant NDT on a tank, the dye penetrant
should be applied. Question Number. 34. Which of the
following N.D.T. techniques cannot be used on a

91
component manufactured from austenitic Option C. The discontinuity is found in a
stainless steel?. non-stressed area of the part.
Option A. Magnetic - particle. Correct Answer is. The discontinuity is found
Option B. Penetrant dye. in a highly stressed area of the part.
Option C. Hot oil and chalk. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. Magnetic - particle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 39. When inspecting a
component which is being subjected to the hot
Question Number. 35. Fluorescent fluid chalk process, the examination for defects
penetrant processes for the detection of cracks should be carried out.
or material defects are used with. Option A. whilst the item is still quite hot.
Option A. a tungsten light source. Option B. immediately on removal of the
Option B. an ultra-violet radiation source. item from the chalk cabinet.
Option C. an infra-red light source. Option C. when the item is quite cool.
Correct Answer is. an ultra-violet radiation Correct Answer is. when the item is quite
source. cool.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-3 Para 1-5. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-1 3.

Question Number. 36. What is an isotope Question Number. 40. Circular

the power source of?. magnetization of a part can be used to detect
Option A. X-Rays. defects.
Option B. Ultra Violet Rays. Option A. perpendicular to the concentric
Option C. Gamma Rays. circles of magnetisation.
Correct Answer is. Gamma Rays. Option B. parallel to the long axis of the
Explanation. CAAIP\'s leaflet 4-6 para 2. part.
Option C. perpendicular to the long axis of
the part.
Question Number. 37. The fluid used in Correct Answer is. perpendicular to the
the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive concentric circles of magnetisation.
testing is a mixture of. Explanation. CAIP BL/8-5 para 2.1.
Option A. lubricating oil and petrol.
Option B. lubricating oil and lard oil.
Option C. lubricating oil and paraffin. Question Number. 41. An indication of
Correct Answer is. lubricating oil and porosity when using a penetrant dye crack
paraffin. detection method is.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-1 Para 3-2. Option A. areas where dye is not showing.
Option B. an area of scattered dots of dye.
Option C. closely spaced dots of dye formed
Question Number. 38. Under magnetic in a line.
particle inspection, a part will be identified as Correct Answer is. an area of scattered dots
having a fatigue crack under which condition?. of dye.
Option A. The discontinuity pattern is Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 7.3.
straight.
Option B. The discontinuity is found in a
highly stressed area of the part. Question Number. 42. In a test for
adequate demagnetization of a component

92
after a magnetic particle test, the test compass Question Number. 46. When carrying out
should not deflect. a penetrant dye crack test, before the dye is
Option A. more than 1° when standing due applied the surface being tested should be.
east of the component. Option A. etch primed.
Option B. more than 1° when standing due Option B. thoroughly degreased.
south of the component. Option C. painted with developer fluid.
Option C. more than 1° when standing Correct Answer is. thoroughly degreased.
north-east of the component. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 Para 2-4.
Correct Answer is. more than 1° when
standing due east of the component.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-7 4.10.2. Question Number. 47. When carrying out
a dye penetrant inspection, what time should
elapse after applying the developer before
Question Number. 43. If on application of inspecting the component?.
developer it all turns to a pinkish hue, what has Option A. Initial inspection after 30 seconds
happened?. followed by a 2nd inspection after 10 minutes.
Option A. Thin porosity. Option B. After 15 minutes.
Option B. The hue has pinked. Option C. After 10 minutes.
Option C. Incorrect cleaning. Correct Answer is. Initial inspection after 30
Correct Answer is. Incorrect cleaning. seconds followed by a 2nd inspection after 10
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 4-2 Para 6-6. minutes.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 Para 7-2.

Question Number. 44. If dye penetrant

inspection indications are not sharp and clear, Question Number. 48. When should the
the most probable cause is that the part. developer be applied to the component?.
Option A. is not damaged. Option A. After excess penetrant has been
Option B. was not correctly degaussed removed and the area completely dried.
before the developer was applied. Option B. Before applying penetrant.
Option C. was not thoroughly cleaned Option C. Before the penetrant dries.
before developer was applied. Correct Answer is. After excess penetrant has
Correct Answer is. was not thoroughly been removed and the area completely dried.
cleaned before developer was applied. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 Para 1.5, 5.4.1.
Explanation. AC43 5.60 G.

Question Number. 49. To check the

Question Number. 45. The pattern for an structure of a wing.
inclusion is a magnetic particle build-up Option A. ultrasound NDT is used.
forming. Option B. high voltage X-rays are used.
Option A. a single line. Option C. low voltage X-rays are used.
Option B. parallel lines. Correct Answer is. high voltage X-rays are
Option C. a fern-like pattern. used.
Correct Answer is. parallel lines. Explanation. BL/8-4 2.1.6.
Explanation. AandP Mechanics General
Handbook Pg 474 para 2.
Question Number. 50. Which of the
following NDT methods requires that the

93
orientation (or direction) of the defect be Question Number. 54. When using the
known before the test can commence?. colour contrast NDT.
Option A. Ultrasonic and Dye Penetrant. Option A. the surface paint should be
Option B. Magnetic Particle and Ultrasonic. removed.
Option C. X-Ray and Magnetic Particle. Option B. the surface should be lightly
Correct Answer is. Magnetic Particle and scuffed.
Ultrasonic. Option C. the surface should be bead
Explanation. Leaflet 4-5 1.2. blasted.
Correct Answer is. the surface paint should
be removed.
Question Number. 51. Which of the Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 2.1.
following defects could not be detected by Eddy
Current NDT inspection?.
Option A. A crack in a glass fibre reinforced Question Number. 55. When using dye
plastic cowl. penetrant field kit, removal of excess penetrant
Option B. A crack in a magnesium alloy is done by applying the solvent by.
wheel casting. Option A. spraying once direct on the part.
Option C. Heat damage of a Haynes Alloy Option B. spraying twice direct on the part.
turbine blade. Option C. using a lint free cloth.
Correct Answer is. A crack in a glass fibre Correct Answer is. using a lint free cloth.
reinforced plastic cowl. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 5.3.
Explanation. BL/8-8 2.

Question Number. 56. Liquid penetrant

Question Number. 52. Which of the tests can be used to detect.
following methods could be used to detect the Option A. internal porosity in castings.
presence of tiny drops of Mercury in a large Option B. corrosion wall thinning in pipes
area of aircraft hull structure after an accident and tubes.
with a mercury thermometer?. Option C. fatigue cracks in magnesium alloy
Option A. X-Ray. parts.
Option B. Magnetic Particle. Correct Answer is. fatigue cracks in
Option C. Ultrasonic. magnesium alloy parts.
Correct Answer is. X-Ray. Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 4-2 2.3.
Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 57. Water-washable

Question Number. 53. Which of the liquid penetrants differ from Post-emulsification
following NDT methods requires that the penetrants in that they.
surface of the test piece is cleaned down to Option A. do not need an emulsifier added.
bare metal?. Option B. need not be removed from
Option A. Eddy Current. surfaces prior to development.
Option B. Magnetic Particle. Option C. can only be used on aluminium
Option C. Dye-penetrant. alloys.
Correct Answer is. Dye-penetrant. Correct Answer is. do not need an emulsifier
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 2.1. added.
Explanation. BL/8-2 1.3.

94
Question Number. 58. When using a Option C. longitudinal and transverse to the
post-emulsification penetrant, the timing is flux direction.
most critical during. Correct Answer is. transverse to the flux
Option A. penetrant removal. direction only.
Option B. emulsification. Explanation. Leaflet 4-7 2.2.
Option C. penetration.
Correct Answer is. emulsification.
Explanation. BL/8-7 para 4.2. Question Number. 63. A hairline crack
would show up on a dye penetrant inspection
as.
Question Number. 59. A liquid penetrant Option A. a continuous line of small dots.
test cannot. Option B. a thin broken line or chain.
Option A. be used on porous materials. Option C. a group of dots spread over a
Option B. locate sub-surface discontinuities. wide area.
Option C. be used on non-metallic surfaces. Correct Answer is. a continuous line of small
Correct Answer is. locate sub-surface dots.
discontinuities. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 7.4.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2, A&P Technician
General Textbook 12-4 Pg 448 Para 3 (B).
Question Number. 64. When carrying out
an ultrasonic inspection, what is the gel used
Question Number. 60. Hot air drying of for?.
articles during liquid penetrant testing is carried Option A. To create a good sonic coupling
out at a temperature of. between the the probe and the test piece.
Option A. 75°F. Option B. To reduce the friction between
Option B. 250°F. the probe and the test piece.
Option C. 130°F. Option C. To prevent the test piece from
Correct Answer is. 130°F. becoming scratched by the probe.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 5.4.3. There is no Correct Answer is. To create a good sonic
reference in old CAIP S. coupling between the the probe and the test
piece.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-5 3.4.
Question Number. 61. To check the
structure of a wing, which NDT is used?.
Option A. Radiographic. Question Number. 65. Fluorescent dye
Option B. Dye penetrant. penetrant is suited for what materials?.
Option C. Magnetic Flaw. Option A. Non magnetic non-ferrous
Correct Answer is. Radiographic. materials.
Explanation. NIL. Option B. Ferrous magnetic materials.
Option C. Plastics and non magnetic
materials.
Question Number. 62. Magnetic Flux Correct Answer is. Non magnetic non-ferrous
detection will show defects which are. materials.
Option A. transverse to the flux direction Explanation. Leaflet 4-3 1.2. CAIP S BL/8-7.
only.
Option B. longitudinal to the flux direction
only.

95
Question Number. 66. In film
radiography, image quality indicators (IQI) are
usually placed. Question Number. 70. The substance
Option A. between the intensifying screen used in ultrasound inspection is.
and the film. Option A. a couplant to allow sound waves
Option B. on the film side of the object. to travel.
Option C. on the source side of the test Option B. a cleaning agent to keep the
object. components clean.
Correct Answer is. on the source side of the Option C. a developer.
test object. Correct Answer is. a couplant to allow sound
Explanation. BL/8-4 3.3.1. waves to travel.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-5 4.5.2 BL/8-3 3.3.

Question Number. 67. Which type crack

will probably cause the most build-up in the Question Number. 71. Dye penetrant
magnetic particle indicating medium?. defects are marked using.
Option A. Grinding. Option A. crayon, unless used in a highly
Option B. Shrink. stresses area.
Option C. Fatigue. Option B. pencil.
Correct Answer is. Fatigue. Option C. chalk.
Explanation. A&P Mechanics General Correct Answer is. crayon, unless used in a
Handbook Pg.473. highly stresses area.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-3 5.4BL/8-2 7.5.

Question Number. 68. When using dye

penetrant NDT on a tank, the penetrant should Question Number. 72. A pressure vessel
be applied. of thickness 1/16 inch to 1/8 inch is being
Option A. on the inside, with developer on tested with dye penetrant. The penetrant
the inside. should be left for.
Option B. on the outside, with developer on Option A. 3 times longer than normal.
the outside. Option B. less than normal.
Option C. on the inside, with developer on Option C. the same length of time as
the outside. normal.
Correct Answer is. on the inside, with Correct Answer is. 3 times longer than
developer on the outside. normal.
Explanation. BL/8-2 9. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 9.2.

Question Number. 69. To detect a fault Question Number. 73. Which of the
with magnetic particle flaw detection, the test following NDT techniques cannot be used on a
requires. component manufactured from austenitic
Option A. two passes in any direction. stainless steel?.
Option B. one pass in any direction. Option A. Penetrant dye.
Option C. two passes at 90 degrees to each Option B. Magnetic particle.
other. Option C. Hot oil and chalk.
Correct Answer is. two passes at 90 degrees Correct Answer is. Magnetic particle.
to each other. Explanation. Austenitic Stainless Steel is non-
Explanation. BL/8-5 2.1. magnetic.

96
 Question Number. 78. The eddy current
Question Number. 74. The dye penetrant method of flaw detection can detect.
field test kit consists of cans of. Option A. sub surface flaws only.
Option A. penetrant, cleaner, developer and Option B. surface flaws and those just
a brush. beneath the surface.
Option B. spray penetrant, spray cleaner Option C. surface flaws only.
and spray developer. Correct Answer is. surface flaws and those
Option C. penetrant, cleaner and developer. just beneath the surface.
Correct Answer is. spray penetrant, spray Explanation. Leaflet 4-8.
cleaner and spray developer.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 79. With dye
penetrant how is the developer applied?.
Question Number. 75. The liquid applied Option A. Using a tank.
to a component being checked by magnetic Option B. As an even layer of chalk applied
particle inspection is for. over the area.
Option A. acting as a transmission medium Option C. At a distance of 10 to 12 inches
for the test. with several passes.
Option B. to prevent corrosion occurring Correct Answer is. At a distance of 10 to 12
from contact with the probe. inches with several passes.
Option C. to prevent scratching of the Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 6.
surface by the probe.
Correct Answer is. acting as a transmission
medium for the test. Question Number. 80. When using the
Explanation. NIL. dye penetrant method crack detection, the
indications on a short, deep crack are.
Option A. single dots.
Question Number. 76. Which is the Option B. circles.
preferred method of test for aluminium alloy Option C. long chain.
alloy?. Correct Answer is. single dots.
Option A. Electroflux. Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 7.
Option B. Magnaflux.
Option C. Ultrasonic.
Correct Answer is. Ultrasonic. Question Number. 81. A deep internal
Explanation. NIL. crack in a structural steel member is detected
by.
Option A. x-ray or ultrasonic process.
Question Number. 77. A composite flap Option B. fluorescent penetrant method.
panel has corrosion. What NDT method will you Option C. magnetic flaw method.
use to detect?. Correct Answer is. x-ray or ultrasonic
Option A. Low voltage x-ray. process.
Option B. Coin tap test. Explanation. Leaflet 4-6.
Option C. High voltage x-ray.
Correct Answer is. Low voltage x-ray.
Explanation. Leaflet 6-9 Appendix 1 Paragraph Question Number. 82. The ultrasonic
4. method of crack detection can be used on.

97
Option A. surface and subsurface defects on Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 4.1.
all metals.
Option B. surface and subsurface defects on
ferrous metals only. Question Number. 87. What NDT would
Option C. subsurface defects on all metals. you carry out on aluminium alloy?.
Correct Answer is. surface and subsurface Option A. Electroflux.
defects on all metals. Option B. Magnetic flaw.
Explanation. leaflet 4-5 1.1 and 4.2.2. Option C. Ultrasonic.
Correct Answer is. Ultrasonic.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. Porosity in cast
materials.
Option A. only occurs on the surface. 18d. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
Option B. is only detectable on the surface. Assembly Techniques.
Option C. is detectable as a surface or sub
surface defect.
Correct Answer is. is detectable as a surface Question Number. 1. Where would you
or sub surface defect. disconnect a chain?.
Explanation. NIL. Option A. At a bolted joint.
Option B. At an riveted joint.
Option C. At a spring clip joint.
Question Number. 84. When using the Correct Answer is. At a bolted joint.
fluorescent ink flaw detection method, the Explanation. CAIP S EEL/ 3-1 Para 8-3-1 (b) &
component should be inspected using an. CAAIP S Leaflet 5-4 3.4.
Option A. ultraviolet lamp.
Option B. infrared lamp.
Option C. ordinary lamp and special glasses. Question Number. 2. How many times
Correct Answer is. ultraviolet lamp. can a locking plate be used?.
Explanation. Leaflet 4-3 1.5. Option A. 3 times, then discarded.
Option B. indefinitely providing it is a good
fit around the component to be locked.
Question Number. 85. When using the Option C. once, then discarded.
dye penetrant method of crack detection, it Correct Answer is. indefinitely providing it is
should not normally be used at temperatures. a good fit around the component to be locked.
Option A. above 20°C. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 2-5 5.1.
Option B. below 0°C.
Option C. above 15°C.
Correct Answer is. below 0°C. Question Number. 3. A hi-lock collar
Explanation. Leaflet 4-2 4.2. should be.
Option A. not lubed or washed because
they are lubed at manufacture.
Question Number. 86. When using the Option B. washed in solvent before fitting.
dye penetrant method, the part should be kept Option C. lubricated before fitting.
wet with the penetrant for. Correct Answer is. not lubed or washed
Option A. 5 minutes. because they are lubed at manufacture.
Option B. 15 minutes. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. up to one hour.
Correct Answer is. up to one hour.

98
Question Number. 4. When drilling out Option C. flexibility.
a rivet, use a drill. Correct Answer is. sufficient clamping
Option A. larger than the hole. without over-stressing.
Option B. same size as the hole. Explanation. NIL.
Option C. smaller than the hole.
Correct Answer is. same size as the hole.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says Question Number. 9. What is generally
'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet', the best procedure to use when removing a
but CAIP S BL/6-29 para 10.1 says 'slightly solid shank rivet?.
smaller'. We chose the former, because it is Option A. Drill through the manufactured
current. Also A&P Technician Airframe Textbook head and shank with a drill one size smaller
2-67. than the rivet and remove the rivet with a
punch.
Option B. Drill through the manufactured
Question Number. 5. When riveting two head and shank with a shank size drill and
dissimilar sheets of metal together the joint remove the rivet with a punch.
should be protected with. Option C. Drill to the base of the
Option A. jointing compound. manufactured rivet head with a drill one size
Option B. paint. smaller than the rivet shank and remove the
Option C. grease. rivet with a punch.
Correct Answer is. jointing compound. Correct Answer is. Drill to the base of the
Explanation. NIL. manufactured rivet head with a drill one size
smaller than the rivet shank and remove the
rivet with a punch.
Question Number. 6. The maximum Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 6-4 3.7.1 says
temperature for Nyloc nuts is. 'drill equal in diameter than that of the rivet',
Option A. 120°C. but CAIP S BL/6-29 para 10.1 says 'slightly
Option B. 100°C. smaller'. Both documents say 'to the base of the
Option C. 160°C. head only'.
Correct Answer is. 120°C.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 10. What action is
taken with a common circlip removed from a
Question Number. 7. What type of rivet component?.
would you use when there is access to only one Option A. It is replaced with a new item on
side of the work?. assembly.
Option A. Blind. Option B. It is checked for springiness.
Option B. Pop. Option C. It is examined for distortion.
Option C. Hilok. Correct Answer is. It is checked for
Correct Answer is. Blind. springiness.
Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-28. Explanation. NIL.

Question Number. 8. Torque loading is Question Number. 11. The maximum bolt
carried out to provide. diameter for which a 1/16 split pin may be used
Option A. as tight a joint as possible. is.
Option B. sufficient clamping without over- Option A. 7/16.
stressing. Option B. 1/4.

99
Option C. 3/8. Explanation. The threads are lubricated at
Correct Answer is. 3/8. manufacture - not during fitting.
Explanation. Leaflet 2-5 table 1.

Question Number. 16. A jury strut is one

Question Number. 12. Why is a giving.
shouldered stud used?. Option A. a temporary support.
Option A. To provide a rigid assembly. Option B. a part of the structure that takes
Option B. To decrease weight without loss only tensile loads.
of strength. Option C. additional support to a stressed
Option C. As a replacement for a damaged area.
stud. Correct Answer is. a temporary support.
Correct Answer is. To provide a rigid Explanation. CAIP S AL/7-14 Para 2-3-5.
assembly.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 17. Which type of
repair has to be used where the damage is large
Question Number. 13. A thread insert is and lost strength of the area has to be
removed by. restored?.
Option A. once fitted, a thread insert must Option A. Filling plate and patch.
not be removed. Option B. Patch repair to the punctured
Option B. using a drill the major diameter of skin.
the thread insert. Option C. Insert and butt strap.
Option C. a special drill provided by the Correct Answer is. Insert and butt strap.
thread insert manufacturer. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. a special drill provided by
the thread insert manufacturer.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 18. Which of the
following actions would be taken to fit a locking
device to a nut or bolt, if the correct torque has
Question Number. 14. When fitting been reached but the locking device will not
Rivnuts into position, how are they secured and fit?.
prevented from rotating?. Option A. Tighten further until device fits.
Option A. Locknut at the rear. Option B. File the base of the nut.
Option B. A locating key. Option C. Change the nut or bolt for one
Option C. Peened. that will achieve the desired condition.
Correct Answer is. A locating key. Correct Answer is. Change the nut or bolt for
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Airframe one that will achieve the desired condition.
Technician Textbook Page 2-48. Explanation. BL/6-30 para 3.3.

Question Number. 15. Hi-loks are Question Number. 19. In the Push-pull
installed with the. tube linkage used in aircraft flying control
Option A. thread and shank not lubricated. systems, how is the length of the tube
Option B. shank lubricated when fitting. adjusted?.
Option C. thread lubricated when fitting. Option A. Fit anew push-pull tube.
Correct Answer is. thread and shank not Option B. By adjusting end fittings at each
lubricated. end of the tube.

100
Option C. It is fixed and does not require Option B. a PLI washer can be affected by
adjusting. thread lubricant.
Correct Answer is. By adjusting end fittings at Option C. a PLI washer can only be used
each end of the tube. once.
Explanation. NIL. Correct Answer is. a PLI washer can only be
used once.
Explanation. CAIP AL/7-8 4.5.3.
Question Number. 20. Spotfacing is done
to.
Option A. provide a flat area on a rough Question Number. 24. Which of the
surface. following jointing compounds should not be
Option B. compensate for height in lieu of a used in the vicinity of a joint where the
spring washer. temperature may exceed 200°C?.
Option C. provide a good surface for Option A. DTD 900.
welding. Option B. DTD 200.
Correct Answer is. provide a flat area on a Option C. DTD 369.
rough surface. Correct Answer is. DTD 369.
Explanation. NIL. Explanation. CAIP S AL/7-8 3.4.

Question Number. 21. When fitting a Question Number. 25. Why is jointing
hydraulic component, the hydraulic seal should compound applied to the surfaces of material
be lubricated with. being joined together prior to riveting?.
Option A. with a specified hydraulic oil. Option A. To act as a sealant and prevent
Option B. grease. filiform corrosion.
Option C. the same fluid that is used in the Option B. To inhibit electrolytic action.
hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol). Option C. To prevent swarf damage.
Correct Answer is. the same fluid that is used Correct Answer is. To inhibit electrolytic
in the hydraulic system (e.g. skydrol). action.
Explanation. Hydraulic seals are lubricated Explanation. CAIP S BL/6-29.
with the same hydraulic fluid that they are used
with.
Question Number. 26. A metallic stiff nut.
Option A. cannot be torque loaded.
Question Number. 22. A gap in a firewall Option B. cannot be used in areas in excess
can be plugged by. of 250oC.
Option A. an aluminium plate. Option C. is pre lubricated and does not
Option B. a fireproof bung or bush. need lubricating.
Option C. a plastic bung. Correct Answer is. cannot be used in areas in
Correct Answer is. a fireproof bung or bush. excess of 250oC.
Explanation. A gap in a firewall must be filled Explanation. Leaflet 3-4 4.2.3 (assuming it
with approved fireproof material. means HTS cad plated and not CRS, but a and b
are not correct anyway).

Question Number. 23. In a critically

bolted joint. Question Number. 27. How do you
Option A. a PLI washer can be used more prevent earth loops forming on screened
than once only with self locking nuts. cables?.

101
Option A. Do not earth the screen. Option B. 1.8 inch nominal length 1/2 inch
Option B. Earth both ends of the screen. BSF.
Option C. Earth one end of the screen. Option C. 1.8 inch plain shank 1/2 inch UNF.
Correct Answer is. Earth one end of the Correct Answer is. 1.8 inch plain shank 1/2
screen. inch UNF.
Explanation. Electromagnetic Compatibility. Explanation. Leaflet 3-3 2.3.4. BL/2-3 2.1.2.
Earth one end of the screen.

Question Number. 32. A UNF bolt is

Question Number. 28. When fitting a indicated by.
shackle pin, fit with. Option A. a triangle on the head.
Option A. head uppermost. Option B. 2-3 rings on the head.
Option B. 0.020. Option C. green dye.
Option C. a shake-proof washer under the Correct Answer is. 2-3 rings on the head.
head. Explanation. CAAIP Leaflet 3-3 2.3.4 (a).
Correct Answer is. head uppermost.
Explanation. The heads of all fasteners should 18e. Disassembly, Inspection, repair and
be uppermost where possible. Assembly Techniques.

Question Number. 29. The threads on a Question Number. 1. Immediately after

stud. carrying out an insulation check, which of the
Option A. are of opposite hand at each end following applies?.
of the plain of portion. Option A. A continuity check must be
Option B. are of the same hand at each end carried out before switching on the circuit for
of the plain portion. the first time.
Option C. are continuous throughout its Option B. The readings observed and the
length and there is no plain portion. atmospheric conditions at the time should be
Correct Answer is. are of the same hand at noted and compared to previous readings.
each end of the plain portion. Option C. The observed readings should be
Explanation. The threads on a stud are the noted and an independent check carried out by
same hand at each end of the plain portion. another engineer.
Correct Answer is. The readings observed
and the atmospheric conditions at the time
Question Number. 30. The angle should be noted and compared to previous
between starts on a double start thread is. readings.
Option A. 180 degrees. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.5.3. EEL / 1-6 Para 4-
Option B. 120 degrees. 5-3.
Option C. 90 degrees.
Correct Answer is. 180 degrees.
Explanation. NIL. Question Number. 2. An Insulation test
is carried out on a group of cables and a low
reading obtained. What action would you take?.
Question Number. 31. What does 18N Option A. A low reading would be expected
and contiguous circles on the head of a bolt because the cables are in parallel.
indicate?. Option B. Change or renew all the cables
Option A. 1.8 inch threaded portion and involved in the test.
plain shank 1/2 inch UNF.

102
Option C. Break the circuit down and carry Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 Para.4.3.
out further checks.
Correct Answer is. Break the circuit down
and carry out further checks. Question Number. 6. Electrical cables
Explanation. EEL / 1-6 Para 4-4-2 & Leaflet 9-1 installed on aircraft. What is used to indicate a
4.4.2. fault?.
Option A. Bonding test.
Option B. Continuity test.
Question Number. 3. BITE systems to be Option C. Resistance test.
used on the ground only are deactivated by. Correct Answer is. Continuity test.
Option A. on take off. Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 9-1, 4.2.1.
Option B. the parking break.
Option C. by the undercarriage retraction.
Correct Answer is. on take off. Question Number. 7. When checking
Explanation. A proximity switch on the resistance of a cable to the starter motor what
undercarriage will signal a computer (Airbus) or test is carried out?.
a Proximity Sensor Control Unit (Boeing). This Option A. Millivolt drop test.
signal is then sent to all appropriate units. Option B. Safety Ohmmeter.
Option C. Time Domain Reflectometer.
Correct Answer is. Millivolt drop test.
Question Number. 4. After the normal Explanation. NIL.
function test of an individual circuit has been
completed and the circuit switched off. 19a. Abnormal Events.
Option A. a second function test must be
carried out to verify the first.
Option B. the fuse should be removed and Question Number. 1. When inspecting
the circuit again switched on to check the an aircraft after a lightning strike, you should
isolation of the circuit concerned. observe.
Option C. a duplicate check must be carried Option A. entry damage.
out in accordance with AWN 3. Option B. all signs of burning.
Correct Answer is. the fuse should be Option C. entry and exit damage.
removed and the circuit again switched on to Correct Answer is. all signs of burning.
check the isolation of the circuit concerned. Explanation. AL/7-1 5.4.
Explanation. CAIP S EEL/1-6 Para 4-6-3.

Question Number. 2. To ensure

Question Number. 5. A millivolt drop protection against HIRF affecting audio and
check is to be carried out on a heavy duty relay. navigation aids.
The Millivoltmeter would be connected to the Option A. ensure that all audio and
relay. navigation equipment is adequately screened.
Option A. when contacts closed and power Option B. inspect and check all bonding
is on. leads to ensure their serviceability and replace
Option B. when contacts open and power if defective.
off. Option C. ensure that the correct number of
Option C. when contacts are open and static wicks are fitted.
power is on. Correct Answer is. ensure that all audio and
Correct Answer is. when contacts closed and navigation equipment is adequately screened.
power is on.

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Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Question Number. 7. After a heavy
Fuller. landing you should check.
Option A. engine compressor shaft
alignment.
Question Number. 3. Which of the Option B. engine thrust alignment.
following is a preventive process against HIRF?. Option C. engine module alignment.
Option A. Monitoring HIRF on the Correct Answer is. engine thrust alignment.
communication system. Explanation. Leaflet 6-3 2.8 (b)©.
Option B. Visual inspections.
Option C. Periodically checking aircraft
bonding. Question Number. 8. A lightning strike
Correct Answer is. Visual inspections. on an aircraft would show.
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Option A. the entry and exit point.
Fuller. Option B. the entry point only.
Option C. the exit point only.
Correct Answer is. the entry and exit point.
Question Number. 4. How do you Explanation. NIL.
prevent aquaplaning during landing?.
Option A. Reduce flare.
Option B. Use reverse thrust. Question Number. 9. When an engine is
Option C. Put flaps up. not in direct electrical contact with its
Correct Answer is. Use reverse thrust. mounting, how should it be bonded?.
Explanation. Aquaplaning is caused by Option A. With at least one primary
excessive speed on a wet runway. Reverse conductor.
thrust slows the aircraft and allows the wheels Option B. With at least two primary
to continue turning (rather than 'planing' which conductors on one side of the engine.
they do if they are locked by the brakes). Option C. With at least two primary
conductors, one each side of the engine.
Correct Answer is. With at least two primary
Question Number. 5. Skin wrinkling on conductors, one each side of the engine.
the lower surface of a wing is caused by. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.5.9. EEL/1-6 Para
Option A. hogging. 3.5.7.
Option B. tension.
Option C. sagging.
Correct Answer is. hogging. Question Number. 10. On a composite
Explanation. NIL. aircraft, large items are bonded.
Option A. by use of large copper strips.
Option B. Don't need to be bonded because
Question Number. 6. After a report of they are made of an insulating material.
flight through heavy turbulence, you would. Option C. by primary bonding leads
Option A. check the aircraft symmetry. attached to a cage.
Option B. carry out a major overhaul. Correct Answer is. by primary bonding leads
Option C. not carry out any checks. attached to a cage.
Correct Answer is. check the aircraft Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.4.2.
symmetry.
Explanation. CAAIP S Leaflet 6-3.
Question Number. 11. HIRF interference
occurs when.

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Option A. in use on mid frequencies. Option B. To prevent high potential
Option B. in use on low frequencies. differences between metallic parts from
Option C. in use on all frequencies. building up.
Correct Answer is. in use on all frequencies. Option C. To prevent lightening strikes.
Explanation. HIRF is a problem from 10kHz - Correct Answer is. To prevent high potential
18GHz (Civil-40 GHz Military) Understanding differences between metallic parts from
HIRF By Gerald L. Fuller. building up.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.2.

Question Number. 12. Non metallic parts

of the aircraft. Question Number. 16. In order to
Option A. do not require to be bonded maintain HIRF protection, bonding checks
because they are non conductive. between airframe and electrical components
Option B. must be bonded by bonding carrying voltages greater than 50V RMS or dc
leads. should not exceed.
Option C. must be bonded by application of Option A. 0.05 ohm.
conductive paint. Option B. 1 ohm.
Correct Answer is. must be bonded by Option C. 1 M ohm.
application of conductive paint. Correct Answer is. 1 ohm.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 Para.3.4.4. Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 3.8 table 1CAIP S
EEL/1-6 Para 3.8 Table 1.

Question Number. 13. Whenever

possible a functional test should be carried out Question Number. 17. Ribbon cables
on an aircraft using which power supply?. affected by mutual impedance and current loop
Option A. The aircraft battery. leakage should be protected by.
Option B. The aircraft generators. Option A. earthing each alternate conductor
Option C. An external supply. to separate points.
Correct Answer is. An external supply. Option B. connecting all conductors to a
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 4.6.1. common earth.
Option C. shielding each individual
conductor.
Question Number. 14. How many Correct Answer is. earthing each alternate
primary bonding conductors are required on an conductor to separate points.
engine?. Explanation. NIL.
Option A. 1 only.
Option B. 2 on one side. 19b. Abnormal Events.
Option C. 1 on each side.
Correct Answer is. 1 on each side.
Explanation. Leaflet 9-1 Para 3.5.9 and EEL/1-6 Question Number. 1. An aircraft with
Para.3.5.9. under-wing mounted engines has a heavy
landing, where would you expect to see
wrinkling of the skins?.
Question Number. 15. What is the Option A. Bottom skin caused by engine
primary purpose of bonding of metallic parts of inertia.
an aircraft?. Option B. Top skin only.
Option A. To provide a return path for Option C. On the top and bottom skins.
electrical two-wire system.

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Correct Answer is. On the top and bottom
skins. Question Number. 5. On an aircraft
Explanation. Leaflet 6-3 2.6 (a) and AL/7-1 which has had a heavy landing, on the lower
Para 2-6 (a). wing you may see.
Option A. sagging.
Option B. hogging.
Question Number. 2. Which of the Option C. wrinkling.
following could be a primary cause of HIRF Correct Answer is. wrinkling.
protection failure?. Explanation. Leaflet 6-3 para.2.6.
Option A. Corrosion on bonding leads.
Option B. Broken or missing static wicks.
Option C. Unserviceable radio filters. Question Number. 6. After a reported
Correct Answer is. Unserviceable radio filters. lightning strike.
Explanation. Understanding HIRF By Gerald L. Option A. the flight controls should be
Fuller. checked for full and free movement before the
next flight.
Option B. the flight controls need to be
Question Number. 3. What is the reason checked for full and free movement only if a
for a primary bonding connection’s large cross- bonding lead to one of the control surfaces is
sectional area?. found to be burned or broken.
Option A. To carry the static discharge Option C. the aircraft and its systems must
current to the conducting nose wheel. have a major overhaul before the next flight.
Option B. To carry lightening discharge Correct Answer is. the flight controls should
current should the need arise. be checked for full and free movement before
Option C. To maintain the airframe at the the next flight.
same potential throughout. Explanation. NIL.
Correct Answer is. To carry lightening
discharge current should the need arise.
Explanation. CAAIP S leaflet 9-1 3.3.1
Jeppesen A&P Mechanics Handbook Pg.452.

Question Number. 4. When an aircraft

has been struck by lightning.
Option A. control surface bearings and
hinges should be checked for stiffness in
operation.
Option B. control surface freedom of
movement need not be checked provided skin
punctures are less than 3/16 inch diameter.
Option C. control surface freedom of
movement need not be checked providing the
bonding is undamaged.
Correct Answer is. control surface bearings
and hinges should be checked for stiffness in
operation.
Explanation. Leaflet 6-3 6.4 CAIP S AL/7-1 5.4.

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