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Solution To Mat - 121 Namssn Mock

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onyinyechijoel9
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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DEPARTMENT OF MATHEMATICS,

NATIONAL ASSOCIATION OF MATHEMATICAL SCIENCE STUDENTS OF


NIGERIA, UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN
CALCULUS & TRIGONOMETRY
SOLUTION TO MOCK EXAMINIATION
1 a. Given √ √ √ √
1 + 2x 4 1 + 4x 6 1 + 6x · · · 100 1 + 100x
y= √
3
√ √ √
1 + 3x 5 1 + 5x 7 1 + 7x · · · 101 1 + 101x
Find y ′ at x = 0.
Solution: √ √ √ √
1 + 2x 4 1 + 4x 6 1 + 6x · · · 100 1 + 100x
y= √
3
√ √ √ .
1 + 3x 5 1 + 5x 7 1 + 7x · · · 101 1 + 101x
Introduce ln to both sides
√ √ √ √ 
1 + 2x 4 1 + 4x 6 1 + 6x · · · 100 1 + 100x
ln(y) = ln √3
√ √ √
1 + 3x 5 1 + 5x 7 1 + 7x · · · 101 1 + 101x
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
ln(y) = ln( 1 + 2x 4 1 + 4x 6 1 + 6x · · · 100 1 + 100x) − ln( 3 1 + 3x 5 1 + 5x 7 1 + 7x · · · 101 1 + 101x)
√ √ √ √ √ √ √ √
ln(y) = (ln( 1 + 2x) ln( 4 1 + 4x) ln( 6 1 + 6x) · · · ln( 100 1 + 100x))−(ln( 3 1 + 3x) ln( 5 1 + 5x) ln( 7 1 + 7x) · · · ln( 101 1 + 101x)
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
ln(y) = (ln(1 + 2x) 2 ln(1 + 4x) 4 ln(1 + 6x) 6 · · · ln(1 + 100x) 100 )−(ln 1 + 3x) 3 ln(1 + 5x) 5 ln(1 + 7x) 7 · · · ln(1 + 101x) 101 )
Differentiate both sides
dy    
dx x x x x x x
= + + ··· + − + + ··· +
y 1 + 2x 1 + 4x 1 + 100x 1 + 3x 1 + 5x 1 + 101x
   
dy x x x x x x
=y + + ··· + − + + ··· +
dx 1 + 2x 1 + 4x 1 + 100x 1 + 3x 1 + 5x 1 + 101x
√ √ √ √ ∞
!
dy 1 + 2x 4 1 + 4x 6 1 + 6x · · · 100 1 + 100x X x x
= √ √ √ √ − .
dx 3
1 + 3x 5 1 + 5x 7 1 + 7x · · · 101 1 + 101x i=1 1 + 2ix 1 + (2i + 1)x
At x = 0,
dy
= 1(0 − 0) = 0
dx
b. Evaluate Dt arccos cosh e−3t , without simplifying your answer.


Solution: Dt means differentiate with respect to t.


Let
y = arccos(cosh(e−3t )).
Then
cos y = cosh(e−3t ).
Differentiate implicitly
dy
− sin y = −3e−3t sinh(e−3t )
dt
dy −3e−3t sinh(e−3t )
=
dt − sin y

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
dy 3e−3t sinh(e−3t )
=
dt sin y
Recall that y = arccos(cosh(e−3t )).
dy 3e−3t sinh(e−3t )
=
dt sin(arccos(cosh(e−3t )))
c. Use Logarithmic differentiation to find y ′ (u) as a function of u alone,
 1
(u + 1)(u − 2) 3
y(u) =
(u2 + 1)(u2 + 2)

Solution:   13
(u + 1)(u − 2)
y(u) =
(u2 + 1)(u2 + 2)
Introduce ln to both sides " 1 #
(u + 1)(u − 2) 3
ln(y) = ln
(u2 + 1)(u2 + 2)
 
1 (u + 1)(u − 2)
ln(y) = ln
3 (u2 + 1)(u2 + 2)
1
ln((u + 1)(u − 2)) − ln((u2 + 1)(u2 + 2))

ln(y) =
3
Differentiate both sides
y′
 
1 1 1 2u 2u
= + − −
y 3 u + 1 u − 2 u2 + 1 u2 + 2
 
y 1 1 2u 2u
y′ = + − 2 − 2
3 u+1 u−2 u +1 u +2
  31
(u + 1)(u − 2)
Recall that y = .
(u2 + 1)(u2 + 2)
 1  
1 (u + 1)(u − 2) 3 1 1 2u 2u
y′ = + − −
3 (u2 + 1)(u2 + 2) u + 1 u − 2 u2 + 1 u2 + 2

d. If f (x) and g(x) are differentiable functions such that h(x) = f (x)g(x) then find h′ (x).
Solution:
h(x) = f (x)g(x)
Introduce ln to both sides
ln h(x) = ln f (x)g(x)
ln h(x) = g(x) ln f (x)
Differentiate both sides
h′ (x) f ′ (x)
= g(x) + ln f (x)g ′ (x)
h(x) f (x)
f ′ (x)
 
h′ (x) = h(x) g(x) + ln f (x)g ′ (x)
f (x)
f ′ (x)
 
h′ (x) = f (x)g(x) g(x) + ln f (x)g ′ (x) .
f (x)
2 a. If a body of mass m falling from rest under the action of gravity encounters an air resistance proportional to the
square of the velocity, then the body’s velocity t sec into the fall satisfies the differential equation
dv
m = mg − kv 2 ,
dt
where k is a constant that depends on the body’s aerodynamic properties and the density of the air. (We assume
that the fall is short enough so that the variation in the air’s density will not affect the outcome significantly.)

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
i. Show that r r !
mg gk
v= tanh t
k m
satisfies the equation above.
Solution: r r !
mg gk
v= tanh t (1)
k m
Differentiate v with respect to t.
r r r ! r !
dv mg gk gk gk
= sech2 t = g sech 2
t
dt k m m m

Multiply through by m r !
dv gk
m = mg sech2 t
dt m

Recall that sech2 x = 1 − tanh2 x.


r !!
dv gk
m = mg 1 − tanh2 t
dt m
r !
dv gk
m = mg − mg tanh2 t (2)
dt m
r r !
mg gk
Recall that v = tanh t ,
k m
r !
mg gk
v2 = tanh2 t
k m
r !
gk
kv 2 = mg tanh2 t (3)
m
If we substitute equation (3) into equation (2), we have
dv
m = mg − kv 2
dt
ii. Find the body’s limiting velocity, lim v.
t→∞
Solution:
r ! r
mggk
lim v = lim tanh
t
t→∞ t→∞ k m
r r !
mg gk
= lim tanh t
k t→∞ m

ex − e−x
Recall that tanh x =
ex + e−x
r r !
mg gk
lim v = lim tanh t
t→∞ k t→∞ m
√ gk √ gk
e m t − e− m t
r
mg
= lim √ √ gk
k t→∞ e gkm t + e− mt

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
√ gk
t
Factorise e m

√ gk
1 − e−2 m t
r
mg
lim v = lim √
t→∞ k t→∞ 1 − e−2 gk mt
r r
mg 1 − 0 mg
= · = .
k 1+0 k
Therefore, r
mg
lim v = .
t→∞ k
b. If x(t) = cos(t) and y(t) = sin(t). Find
d2024 x d2024 y
and
dt2024 dt2024
Solution:  nπ   nπ 
x(n) (t) = cos t + and y (n) (t) = sin t +
2 2

d2024 x
 
2024π
x(2024) (t) = 2024 = cos t + = cos (t + 1012π) = cos t
dt 2
Also,
d2024 y
 
2024π
y (2024) (t) = = sin t + = sin (t + 1012π) = sin t
dt2024 2

3 a. Show,
sin(A − B) sin(B − C) sin(C − A)
+ + =0
cos(A) cos(B) cos(B) cos(C) cos(C) cos(A)

Proof: Note:

sin(A − B) = sin A cos B − sin B cos A


sin(B − C) = sin B cos C − sin C cos B
sin(C − A) = sin C cos A − sin A cos C

Then,
sin(A − B) sin(B − C) sin(C − A)
+ +
cos(A) cos(B) cos(B) cos(C) cos(C) cos(A)
sin A cos B − sin B cos A sin B cos C − sin C cos B sin C cos A − sin A cos C
= + +
cos A cos B cos B cos C cos C cos A
sin A cos B sin B cos A sin B cos C sin C cos B sin C cos A sin A cos C
= − + − + −
cos A cos B cos A cos B cos B cos C cos B cos C cos C cos A cos C cos A
sin A sin B sin B sin C sin C sin A
= − + − + −
cos A cos B cos B cos C cos C cos A
= tan A − tan A + tan B − tan B − tan C + tan C = 0

cos α sin α cos3 α sin3 α
b. If + = 1, find +
cos β cos β cos β sin β
Solution: Given that
cos α sin α cos α + sin α
+ = = 1.
cos β cos β cos β
This implies that
cos α + sin α = cos β.
Then
(cos α + sin α)3 = cos3 β.

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
By further evaluation, we have that

cos3 β = cos3 α + sin3 α + 3 cos2 α sin α + 3 cos α sin2 α


= cos3 α + sin3 α + 3(1 − sin2 α) sin α + 3 cos α(1 − cos2 α)
= cos3 α + sin3 α + 3 sin α − 3 sin3 α) + 3 cos α − 3 cos3 α)
= −2 cos3 α − 2 sin3 α + 3 sin α + 3 cos α
= −2(cos3 α + sin3 α) + 3(sin α + cos α)
= −2(cos3 α + sin3 α) + 3(cos β)

Thus,
cos3 β = −2(cos3 α + sin3 α) + 3(cos β)
If we divide through by cos β, we have

−2(cos3 α + sin3 α)
cos2 β = +3
cos β

−2(cos3 α + sin3 α)
cos2 β − 3 =
cos β
3 − cos2 β cos3 α + sin3 α
=
2 cos β
3 − (1 − sin2 β) cos3 α + sin3 α
=
2 cos β
2 + sin2 β cos3 α + sin3 α
=
2 cos β
Therefore
cos3 α sin3 α sin2 β sin3 α sin3 α
+ =1+ − +
cos β sin β 2 cos β sin β
2  
sin β cos β − sin β
=1+ + sin3 α .
2 sin β cos β

Hence,
cos3 α sin3 α sin2 β
 
cos β − sin β
+ =1+ + sin3 α .
cos β sin β 2 sin β cos β

c. Show that  
−1 1 1+x
tanh x = ln , −1 < x < 1
2 1−x

Proof: Let y = tanh−1 x, therefore tanh y = x.


Recall that
ey − e−y
tanh y = .
ey + e−y
This implies that
ey − e−y
=x
ey + e−y
ey − e−y = xey + xe−y .
Multiply through by ey .
e2y − 1 = xe2y + x
e2y − xe2y = x + 1
e2y (1 − x) = x + 1

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
x+1
e2y =
1−x
If we take the ln of both sides.  
x+1
2y = ln
1−x
 
1 x+1
y = ln
2 1−x
Recall that y = tanh−1 x, therefore,
 
1 1+x
tanh−1 x = ln , −1 < x < 1.
2 1−x

i. Using the immediate identity above, conclude that

tanh tanh−1 x = x


Proof: To show that


tanh tanh−1 x = x.


Recall that   r !
−1 1 1+x 1+x
tanh x = ln = ln ,
2 1−x 1−x
and
ey − e−y
tanh y = .
ey + e−y
Therefore
q q
1+x 1+x
ln − ln
−1
 e 1−x
−e 1−x
tanh tanh x = q
1+x
q
1+x
ln − ln
e 1−x
+e 1−x
q q
1+x 1−x
ln ln
e 1−x
−e 1+x
= q
1+x
q
1−x
.
ln ln
e 1−x
+e 1+x

Recall that eln x = x. Then, we have


q q √ √
1+x 1−x
− √1+x − √1−x
−1
 1−x 1+x 1−x 1+x
tanh tanh x =q q = √ √
1+x
+ 1−x √1+x + √1−x
1−x 1+x 1−x 1+x

1 + x − (1 − x) 2x
= = =x
1 + x + (1 − x) 2

Hence, tanh tanh−1 x = x




s  2
d2 y
 
T0 ρgx ρg dy
d. If y = cosh , show that 2 = 1+ where T0 is the tension in the cable, ρ is the density
pg T0 dx T0 dx
per unit length of the cable, g is the magnitude of the acceleration due to gravity.
Proof:  
T0 ρgx
y= cosh .
pg T0

   
dy T0 pg ρgx ρgx
= · sinh = sinh
dx pg T0 T0 T0

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
d2 y
 
pg ρgx
= cosh .
dx2 T0 T0
Recall that
cosh2 x = 1 + sinh2 x
p
cosh x = 1 + sinh2 x
s
d2 y
 
pg 2 ρgx
= 1 + sinh
dx2 T0 T0
 
dy ρgx
Also, recall that = sinh . Then
dx T0
s 2
d2 y

pg dy
2
= 1+
dx T0 dx

Figure 1: Unit Circle

4 a. Use Figure 1 to show


sin α
lim =1
α→0 α

Proof: From the diagram,

Area △ACQ < Area of sector ACB < Area △ADB.

This implies that


1 1 1
sin α < α < tan α
2 2 2
α 1
1< <
sin α cos α
sin α
1> > cos α.
α
Using Squeeze theorem,
lim 1 = 1 and lim cos α = 1.
α→0 α→0

It follows that
sin α
lim = 1.
α→0 α

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
b. Assume that lim− f (θ) exists and
θ→1

θ2 + θ − 2 f (θ) θ2 + 2θ − 1
≤ 2 ≤ . Find lim f (θ).
θ+3 θ θ+3 θ→1−

Proof: Given that


θ2 + θ − 2 f (θ) θ2 + 2θ − 1
≤ 2 ≤ ,
θ+3 θ θ+3
such that the limit lim− f (θ) exists.
θ→1
Multiply through by θ2 .
θ4 + θ3 − 2θ2 θ4 + 2θ3 − θ
≤ f (θ) ≤
θ+3 θ+3
Let
θ4 + θ3 − 2θ2 θ4 + 2θ3 − θ
h(θ) = and g(θ) = .
θ+3 θ+3
Notice that
θ4 + θ3 − 2θ2 θ4 + 2θ3 − θ
lim− h(θ) = lim− =0 and lim− g(θ) = lim− = 0.
θ→1 θ→1 θ+3 θ→1 θ→1 θ+3
By Squeeze theorem,
lim f (θ) = 0.
θ→1−


c. Evaluate,

q π
lim t + t3 cos
t→0 t
Proof: Using squeeze theorem π
−1 ≤ cos ≤ 1.
t
p√
Multiply through by t + t3 .
√ √ √
q q π q
− t + t3 ≤ t + t3 cos ≤ t + t3 .
t
Let
√ √
q q
h(t) = − t + t3 and g(t) = t + t3 .
Notice that
√ √
q q
lim h(t) = lim − t + t3 = 0 and lim g(θ) = lim t + t3 = 0.
t→0 t→0 t→0 t→0

Hence,

q π
lim t + t3 cos = 0.
t→0 t

5 a. Let f (x) = x(x + 1)(x + 2) · · · (x + 2021) and let g = f ◦ f ◦ f . Calculate g ′ (0).


b. If y = u(x)v(x), show that
d3 (uv) d3 u d2 u dv du d2 v d3 v
= 3v + 3 2 +3 2
+u 3
dx dx dx dx dx dx dx
Proof: Given that
y = u(x)v(x).
Using product rule,
dy dv du
=u +v
dx dx dx

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
d2 y d2 v d2 u du dv
2
=u 2 +v 2 +2
dx dx dx dx dx
3 3 2 3 2
 2
du d2 v

d y d v du d v d u dv d u d u dv
=u 3 + +v 3 + +2 +
dx3 dx dx dx2 dx dx dx2 dx2 dx dx dx2
Opening the bracket and rearranging

d3 y d3 u d2 u dv d2 u dv d2 v du d2 v du d3 v
3
= 3v + 2 2 + 2 +2 2 + 2 +u 3
dx dx dx dx dx dx dx dx dx dx dx
Thus,
d3 (uv) d3 u d2 u dv du d2 v d3 v
= 3v + 3 2 +3 + u .
dx dx dx dx dx dx2 dx3

c. Like every sequence defined by a linear recurrence with constant coefficients, the Fibonacci numbers have a
closed-form expression. It has become known as the Binet’s Formula, named after the French mathematician
Jacques Philippe Marie Binet, though it was already known by Abraham de Movire and Daniel Bernoulli:
φn − ψ n
Fn = √ , n≥1
5
where √
1+ 5
φ= ≈ 1.6180339887 . . .
2
is the golden ratio, and ψ is its conjugate:

1− 5 1
ψ= = 1 − φ = − ≈ −0.6180339887 . . .
2 φ
Now, show that
Fn+1
lim = φ.
n→∞ Fn
Proof:
φn − ψ n
Fn = √ , n≥1
5
φn+1 − ψ n+1
Fn+1 = √
5

φn+1√
−ψ n+1 √
Fn+1 5 φn+1 − ψ n+1 5
= φn√
−ψ n
= √ · n
Fn 5 φ − ψn
5
n+1 n+1
φ −ψ
=
φn
− ψn
φn+1
− φ−n−1
=
φn − φ−n

Divide through by φn+1 , we have


Fn+1 1 − φ−2n−2
= −1
Fn φ − φ−2n−1
Fn+1 1 − φ−2n−2 1
lim = lim −1 −2n−1
= −1 = φ
n→∞ Fn n→∞ φ −φ φ
Hence,
Fn+1
lim = φ.
n→∞ Fn

© NAMSSN-UI 2024
d. If y = e−kt (A cosh(qt) + B sinh(qt)) where A, B, q and k are constants, show that

d2 y dy
+ 2k + (k 2 − q 2 )y = 0.
dt2 dt

Proof: Given that


y = e−kt (A cosh(qt) + B sinh(qt)) .
dy
= −ke−kt (A cosh(qt) + B sinh(qt)) + e−kt (Aq sinh(qt) + Bq cosh(qt))
dt
d2 y
= e−kt (k 2 A − kBq + q 2 B) cosh(qt) + (k 2 B − kAq + q 2 A) sinh(qt)
 
dt2

This means that

e−kt (k 2 A − kBq + q 2 B) cosh(qt) + (k 2 B − kAq + q 2 A) sinh(qt) +


 

2k −ke−kt (A cosh(qt) + B sinh(qt)) + e−kt (Aq sinh(qt) + Bq cosh(qt))




+(k 2 − q 2 )e−kt (A cosh(qt) + B sinh(qt)) = 0



1

1 Mathematics reflects human will, reason, and the pursuit of aesthetic perfection, combining logic, intuition, analysis, construction,

generality, and individuality.

© NAMSSN-UI 2024

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