18-09-2024

2302CMD303003240004 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

1) What is the component of along ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) If , then is : -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these

3) If a unit vector is represented by then the value of 'c' is

(1) 1
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) Two forces, each numerically equal to 5 N, are acting as shown in the Fig. Then the resultant is

(1) 2.5 N
(2) 5 N
(3)
(4) 10 N
5) If , then angle between and will be : -

(1) 90°
(2) 120°
(3) 0°
(4) 60°

6) Which pair of the following forces will never give resultant force of 2 N?

(1) 2 N and 2 N
(2) 1 N and 1 N
(3) 1 N and 3 N
(4) 1 N and 4 N

7) A man weighs 80 kg. He stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a
uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale ? (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) Zero
(2) 400 N
(3) 800 N
(4) 1200 N

8) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale is :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 0.1 mm
(4) 1 mm

9) The circular scale of a micrometer has 200 divisions and pitch of 2 mm. Find the measured value

of thickness of a thin sheet.

(1) 3.41 mm
(2) 6.41 mm
(3) 3.46 mm
(4) 3.51 mm

10) A swimmer can swim in still water with 5 m/s. If a river is flowing with 4 m/s then find the time
to cross the river of width 300 m if he has to reach to exactly opposite point:

(1) 60 sec
(2) 75 sec
(3) 100 sec
(4)
sec

11)

A person, reaches a point directly opposite on the other bank of a flowing river, while swimming at a
speed of 5 m/s at an angle of 120° with the flow. The speed of the flow must be

(1) 2.5 m/s

(2) 3 m/s
(3) 4 m/s
(4) 1.5 m/s

12) If velocity of boat as seen from the ground is and velocity of river is then calculate
velocity of boat with respect to river:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last ‘t’
seconds of its ascent is :–

(1) ut

(2)

(3)

(4) (u+gt)t

14) A body of mass m moving along a straight line covers half the distance with a speed of 2 ms–1.
The remaining half of the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with a speed of 3 ms–1 and 5
ms–1 respectively. The average speed of the particle for the entire journey is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A body dropped from the top of a tower covers a distance 7x in the last second of its journey,
where x is the distance covered in first second. How much time does it take to reach the ground?

(1) 3 s
(2) 4 s
(3) 5 s
(4) 6 s

16)

A shell is fired vertically upwards with a velocity v1, from a trolley moving horizontally with velocity
v2. A person on the ground observes the motion of the shell as a parabola, whose horizontal range is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17)

A particle is to be projected, with a given velocity v, in such a way that its horizontal range becomes
equal to the maximum height attained by it. The required angle of projection is

(1) tan–1 (4)

(2) 45°
(3) 90°

(4)

18)

For same speed the range R of a projectile is same when its maximum heights are h1 and h2. What is
the releation between R, h1 and h2?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Equation of motion of a projectile is -

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The equation of projectile is y = 16x – the horizontal range is :-

(1) 16m
(2) 8m
(3) 64m
(4) 12.8m

21) Two trains, each 50 m long are travelling in opposite direction with velocity 10 m/s and 15 m/s.
The time of crossing is –

(1) 2s
(2) 4s
(3) 2√3 s
(4) 4√3 s

22) In the graph shown in figure the time is plotted along x-axis. Which quantity associated with the

projectile motion is plotted along the y-axis?

(1) kinetic energy

(2) momentum
(3) horizontal velocity
(4) none of the above

23) For angles of projection of a projectile at angles (45° – θ) and (45° + θ), the horizontal ranges
described by the projectile are in the ratio of :

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1

24) The velocity of a body of mass 20 kg decreases from 20 m/s to 5 m/s in a distance of 100 m.
Force on the body is : -
(1) –27.5 N
(2) –47.5 N
(3) –37.5 N
(4) –67.5 N

25) The momentum p (in kg ms–1) of a particle is varing with time t (in second) as p = 2 + 3t2. The
force acting on the particle at t = 3s will be : -

(1) 18 N
(2) 54 N
(3) 9 N
(4) 15 N

26) As shown in the figure, two equal masses each of 2 kg are suspended from a spring balance. The

reading of the spring balance will be

(1) Zero
(2) 2 kg
(3) 4 kg
(4) Between zero and 2 kg

27) Three weight A, B and C are connected by string as shown in the figure. The system moves over
a frictionless pulley. The tension in the string connecting A and B is (where g is acceleration due to

gravity)

(1) g

(2)

(3)

(4)
28) In the system shown in the adjoining figure, the tension T2 is:

(1) g
(2) 2g
(3) 5g
(4) 6g

29) The number of significant figures in 3400 is : -

(1) 7
(2) 6
(3) 12
(4) 2

30) The resistance where V = 100 ± 5 and i = 10 ± 0.2 amperes. What is the total error in R?

(1) 5%
(2) 7%
(3) 5.2%

(4)

31) If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by Ma Lb Tc, then the physical quantity will be

(1) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = –1
(2) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = –2
(3) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = –2
(4) Pressure if a = 1, b = –1, c = –2

32) The density of a sphere is measured by measuring its mass and diameter. If, it is known that the
maximum percentage errors in the measurement of mass and diameter are 2% and 3% respectively,
then find the maximum percentage error in the measurement of density?

(1) 15%
(2) 18%
(3) 9%
(4) 11%

33) Dimensions of electrical resistance are : -

(1) [ML2T–3A–1]
(2) [ML2T–3A–2]
(3) [ML3T–3A–2]
(4) [ML–1L3T3A2]

34) The method of dimensional analysis can be used to derived which of the following relations : -

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

35) If the error in the measurement of radius of a sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination
of volume of the sphere will be : -

(1) 8%
(2) 2%
(3) 4%
(4) 6%

SECTION-II

1)

The value of is :-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

2)

Find the value of

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

3)
Equation of given line will be

(1) 2y = –x + 8

(2)

(3) y = – 4x + 2
(4) y = –2x + 4

4) Find the value of x for which the function

y = – 5x2 + 20x + 4 is maximum :-

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8

5)

The slope of graph for the equation y = 4x2 at point P is :

(1) 8
(2) 4
(3) 32
(4) 16

6)
A boat is moving in direction of vector with a speed of 10 m/s. Velocity vector of boat can be
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7)

A person travels along path OAB then average velocity of person in OAB trip

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 3 m/s
(3) 1 m/s
(4) 4 m/s

8) A particle experiences a constant acceleration for 20 sec after starting from rest. If it travels a
distance s1 in 10 sec and distance s2 in the next 10 sec, then

(1) s1 = s2

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The displacement-time graph for two particles A and B are straight lines inclined at angles of 30°
and 60° with the time axis. The ratio of velocities of vA : vB is

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 1 :
(3) :1
(4) 1 : 3

10) A body projected vertically upwards with a velocity u returns to the starting point in 4 seconds.
If g = 10 m/sec2, the value of u is

(1) 5 m/sec
(2) 10 m/sec
(3) 15 m/sec
(4) 20 m/sec

11) A particle moves along the sides AB, BC, CD of a square of side 25 m with a speed of 15 ms–1. Its
average velocity is

(1) 15 ms–1
(2) 10 ms–1
(3) 7.5 ms–1
(4) 5 ms–1

12) A packet is dropped from a balloon which is going upwards with the velocity 12 m/s, the velocity
of the packet after 2 seconds will be

(1) –12 m/s

(2) 12 m/s
(3) –7.6 m/s
(4) 7.6 m/s

13) A particle moves for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and then velocity 4 m/s for another 20
seconds and finally moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds. What is the average velocity of
the particle

(1) 3 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) Zero

14) A projectile is projected with a kinetic energy K. Its range is R. It will have the minimum kinetic
energy, after covering a horizontal distance equal to : -

(1) 0.25 R
(2) 0.5 R
(3) 0.75 R
(4) 1.0 R

15) A stone is thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity u from the top of a tower, reaches the
ground with a velocity 3u. The height of the tower is : -

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

1) When electrons in N-shell of excited hydrogen atom return to ground state, the number of
possible lines spectrum is:

(1) 6
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 3

2)

Which of the following set of quantum numbers belong to highest energy :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The difference in angular momentum associated with the electron in two successive orbits of
hydrogen atom is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
(n–1)

4) What is the ratio of the De-Broglie wave lengths for electrons accelerated through 200 volts
and 50 volts :-
(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 3 : 10
(4) 10 : 3

5) Two radiations have the ratio of energies 3:8. If first radiation has the wave number 150 cm–1,
then the wave number of second radiation will be :

(1) 200 cm–1

(2) 400 cm–1
(3) 20 cm–1
(4) 56.25 cm–1

6) No. of all subshell of n + l = 7 is.

(1) 4
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

7) The electrons identified by quantum numbers n and ℓ:

(a) n = 4, ℓ = 1 (b) n = 4, ℓ = 0
(c) n = 3, ℓ = 2 (d) n = 3, ℓ = 1
can be placed in order of increasing energy as :

(1) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)

(2) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(3) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)
(4) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)

8) The correct relations on the basis of the Bohr's theory are :-

(a) Velocity ∝

(b) frequency of revolution ∝

(c) Radius of orbit ∝ n2

(d) Energy of electron ∝

(1) Only (a)

(2) (a) and (c)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (c) and (d)

9) Which has highest e/m ratio ?

(1) He+2
(2) H+
(3) He+
(4) H

10) In any sub-shell, the maximum number of electrons having same value of spin quantum number
is-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Calculate the energy in joule corresponding to light of wavelength 45 nm : (Planck's constant h
= 6.63 × 10–34 Js; speed of light c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 4.42 × 10–15

(2) 4.42 × 10–18
(3) 6.67 × 1015
(4) 6.67 × 1011

12) The energy of second bohr orbit in the hydrogen atom is –3.41 eV. The energy of the second bohr
orbit of He+ ion would be :

(1) –0.85 eV
(2) –13.64 eV
(3) –1.70 eV
(4) –6.82 eV

13) A hydrocarbon contains 80% of carbon by mass then its molecular formula is :-

(1) CH4
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H6
(4) C2H2

14) What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 2 molal aqueous solution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
15) In a compound C, H and N are present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. If molecular weight of the
compound is 108, then the molecular formula of the compound is :-

(1) C2H6N2
(2) C3H4N
(3) C6H8N2
(4) C9H12N3

16) 15 ml of a gaseous hydrocarbon requires 45 ml of oxygen for complete combustion and 30 ml of

CO2 is formed. The formula of the hydrocarbon is :-

(1) C3H6
(2) C2H6
(3) C4H10
(4) C2H4

17) Volume of 2 mole of gas occupied at 2 atm and 273 K is :-

(1) 22.4 Litre

(2) 44.8 Litre
(3) 11.2 Litre
(4) 67.2 Litre

18) 50g sample of CaCO3 on dissociation produces 2.24 L CO2 at STP, find percentage purity of
CaCO3 in sample :-

(1) 50%
(2) 20%
(3) 10%
(4) 100%

19) Total number of electrons present in 48 g Mg2+ are :-

(1) 24 NA
(2) 2 NA
(3) 20 NA
(4) none of these

20) Carbon and oxygen react in ratio 3 : 8 by mass to form CO2. What weight of carbon should be
used to completely react with 32 gm of oxygen, for formation of CO2.

(1) 10g
(2) 15g
(3) 12g
(4) 6g
21) 7.5 g of a gas occupy 5.6 L of volume of NTP. The gas is :-

(1) NO
(2) N2O
(3) CO
(4) CO2

22) In reaction 2A + B2 → 2AB, if 100 atoms of A and 100 molecules of B2 react then

(1) A is limiting reagent and 200 molecules of AB will form

(2) B is limiting reagent and 100 molecules of AB will form
(3) A is limiting reagent and 100 molecules of AB will form
(4) B is limiting reagent and 200 molecules of AB will form

23) How many moles of P4 can be produced by reaction of 0.10 moles Ca3(PO4)3F, 0.36 moles SiO2
and 0.90 moles C according to the following reaction ?
4Ca5(PO4)3F+18SiO2+30C 3P4+2CaF2+18CaSiO3 + 30CO

(1) 0.060
(2) 0.030
(3) 0.045
(4) 0.075

24)

The weight of one molecule of a compound C60H122 is

(1) 1.2 × 10–20 gram

(2) 1.4 × 10–21 gram
(3) 5.025 × 1023 gram
(4) 6.023 × 1023 gram

25) Which of the following is incorrect ?

(1) F —→ F– : Energy released

(2) O– —→ O–2 : Energy released
(3) N —→ N– : Energy absorbed
(4) Sr —→ Sr– : Energy absorbed

26) The last element of the p-block in 6th period is represented by the outermost electronic
configuration :-

(1) 7s2 7p6

0
(2) 5f14 6d10 7s2 7p
(3) 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p6
(4) 4f14 5d10 6s2 6p4
27) Which of the following has maximum EA, EN and I.P. respectively ?
(A) A = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6
(B) B = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2, 3p5
(C) C = 1s2, 2s2, 2p5
(D) D = 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s1

(1) A, B, D
(2) B, C, A
(3) B, A, C
(4) C, B, D

28) Correct relation of acidic strength :-

(1) H2O > H2S

(2) H2S > H2Se
(3) H2Te > H2S
(4) H2S > H2Te

29)

The ionization energy will be maximum for the process.

(1) Ba → Ba+
(2) Be → Be+
(3) Cs → Cs+
(4) Li → Li+

30) Select amphoteric compound among given :

(1) CO
(2) GeO2
(3) SnO
(4) SiO2

31) Correct order of ionic radii is

(1) Ti4+ < Mn7+

(2) 37Cl– < 35Cl–
(3) K+ > Cl–
(4) P3+ > P5+

32) Assertion :- Magnitude of electron gain enthalpy for oxygen is less than that of fluorine but
greater than that of nitrogen.
Reason :- Ionisation enthalpy order is as follows : O < N < F.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False

33) The correct values of ionization enthalpies (in kJ mol–1) of Si, P, Cl and S respectively are:-

(1) 786, 1012, 999, 1256

(2) 1012, 786, 999, 1256
(3) 786, 1012, 1256, 999
(4) 786, 999, 1012, 1256

34) Among the following configuration, the element which has the highest electron affinity is :

(1) [Ne]3s13p2
(2) [Ne]3s23p5
(3) [Ne]3s23p4
(4) [Ne]3s23p63d54s1

35) The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of F, Cl, Br and I, having atomic
number 9, 17, 35 and 53 respectively, is :-

(1) I > Br > Cl > F

(2) F > Cl > Br > I
(3) Cl > F > Br > I
(4) Br > Cl > I > F

SECTION-II

1) The correct order of the decreasing ionic radii among the following isoelectronic species are :

(1) Ca2+ > K+ > S2– > Cl–1

(2) Cl– > S2– > Ca2+ > K+
(3) S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
(4) K+ > Ca2+ > Cl– > S2–

2) In which of the following option, the order of arrangement does not agree with the variation
of property indicated against it?

(1) Li < Na < K < Rb (increasing metallic radius)

(2) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (increasing ionic size)
(3) B < C < N < O (electronegativity)
(4) I < Br < Cl < F (increasing electron gain enthalpy)

3) In which one of the following species, the central atom has the type of hybridisation which is not
the same as that persent in the other three ?
(1) PCl5
(2) SF4
–
(3) I3
2–
(4) SbCl5

4) Overlapping of 2 atomic orbitals can lead to formation of :-

(1) σ bond
(2) π bond
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) None

5) If the lattice energy of NaF is 'x' then lattice energy of MgO may be :–

(1) kx
(2) 2 kx
(3) 4 kx
(4) 8 kx

6) H2O is polar, whereas BeF2 is not. It is because :

(1) The electronegativity of F is greater than that of O

(2) H2O involves hydrogen bonding whereas BeF2 is a discrete molecule
(3) H2O is linear and BeF2 is angular
(4) H2O is angular and BeF2 is linear

7) Which of the following ion has not bond order of 2.5 ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

8) Mg cation has polarising power close to that of:-

(1) Li+
(2) Na+
(3) K+
(4) Cs+

9) The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) Which of the compound is hypervalent :–

(1) IF7
(2) NH3
(3) BeF2
(4) CH4

11) Identify correct match among following :-

(1) ClF3 ; planar and nonpolar

(2) PCl5 ; non planar and polar
(3) BF3 ; Planar and polar
(4) SF6 ; Non planar and nonpolar

12) Incorrect code regarding shape is :-

– –
(1) Linear : N3 , (CN)2, ICl2
–
(2) Pyramidal : CH3 , NH3, XeO3
⊕ •
(3) Trigonal planar : CH3 , CH3 , CH3
+
(4) Tetrahedral : SiH4, XeO4, PCl4

13) Total no. of Antibonding electrons present in O2 will be :-

(1) 6
(2) 8
(3) 4
(4) 2

14) Which molecule contain both polar and non polar bonds ?

(1)
(2) HCl
(3) CCl4
(4) H2O2

15) Carbon dioxide is isostructural with which of the following molecule

(1) HgCl2
(2) SnCI2
(3) SO2
–
(4) NO2
 BOTANY

SECTION-I

1) Gap between meiosis I and Meiosis II is called:-

(1) Interkinesis
(2) Interphase
(3) Karyokinesis
(4) Synapsis

2) How many times divisions will occur in an isolated tip cell to form 128 cells ?

(1) 128
(2) 127
(3) 32
(4) 7

3) If the number of bivalents are 10 in metaphase –I, what shall be the number of chromosome in
daughther cells after meiosis-I and meiosis-II respectively :-

(1) 10 and 5
(2) 5 and 15
(3) 10 and 10
(4) 20 and 10

4) If you are provided with root tips of onion in your class and are asked to count the chromosomes
which of the following stages can you most conveniently look into :-

(1) Telophase
(2) Anaphase
(3) Prophase
(4) Metaphase

5) Meiosis in diploid organism results in :-

(1) Production of Gametes

(2) Reduction in the number of chromosomes
(3) Introduction of variation
(4) All of the above

6) Amitosis is common in :-

(1) Root meristem

(2) Eukaryotic cells
(3) Prokaryotic cells
(4) Endosperm

7) For all given below organisms reproduction is synonymous with growth except :-

(1) Bacteria
(2) Amoeba
(3) Honey bee
(4) Unicellular algae

8) Which of the following is not a defining property of living being?

(1) Reproduction
(2) Metabolism
(3) Conciousness
(4) Cellular organization

9) Which point is known as the twin characteritics of growth?

(1) Increases in mass and number

(2) Metabolism
(3) Increase in the number of individuals
(4) Sense of environment

10) 'Virus' word was given by :-

(1) Ivanowsky
(2) Stanley
(3) Beijerinek
(4) Pasteur

11) Sexual reproduction in fungi is by all of the following, except

(1) oospores
(2) ascopores
(3) zoospores
(4) basidiospores

12) Deuteromycetes is a :-

(1) Form class with sexual reproduction

(2) True class with or without sexual reproduction
(3) Form class with septate mycelium
(4) Subclass of ascomycetes

13) Which kingdom is nutritionally most diversed group of organisms and have eukaryotic cellular
organisation ?

(1) Monera
(2) Protista
(3) Fungi
(4) Plantae

14) Bacteria play important role in :

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) As decomposer
(3) Production of antibiotics
(4) All of the above

15) Cell wall is absent in :-

(1) Diatoms and dinoflagellates

(2) Euglenoids and slime moulds
(3) Bacteria and fungi
(4) Mycoplasma and BGA

16) Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct sequence ?

A–Terminalisation of chiasmata
B–Crossing over
C–Synapsis
D–Disjunction of chromosomes
E–Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
The correct sequence is :-

(1) A → B → C → D → E
(2) E → D → C → B → E
(3) C → B → D → E → A
(4) C → B → E → A → D

17) If the pollen grain of a plant has 40 Pg of DNA in its nucleus then how much DNA would a
diploid cell of the same organism have in metaphase of mitosis ? :-

(1) 40 Pg
(2) 120 Pg
(3) 160 Pg
(4) 80 Pg

18) _________is the best stage to study the morphology of chromosome :-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

19) Identify A,B,C and D in the given diagram depicting cell cycle and select the correct option:-

A B C D

(1) G0 G1 S G2

(2) G1 S G2 M

(3) G1 G0 S M

(4) S G0 G1 G2
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20)

During gamete formation, the enzyme recombinase formed during :-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Prophase-II
(3) Metaphase-I
(4) Anaphase-II

21)

In the above sequence of figure. Showing different stage of cell division.

The missing stage is in the gap between (i) & (ii)
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22)

In meiosis, crossing over occurs between the:-

(1) non-sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes

(2) sister chromatids of non-homologous chromosomes
(3) non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(4) sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes

23)

What is not incorrect sequence of meiosis Iphases.

(1) Leptotene, pachytene, zygotene,diakinesis, diplotene

(2) Diplotene, leptotene, pachytene,zygotene, diakinesis
(3) Diakinesis, diplotene, leptotene, zygotene,Pachytene
(4) Leptotene, zygotene, pachytene,diplotene, diakinesis

24)

Which of the following statements is correct about cell plate formation during cytokinesis of plant
cell ?

(1) Starts from periphery and grows towards centre of the cell
(2) Cell plate is not formed due to presence of rigid cell wall
(3) Starts in the centre of the cell and grows outward to meet the existing lateral walls
(4) Start from periphery and grows towards outside of the cell.

25)

Which one is wrong (wrtMeiosis)

(1) Four daughter cells are formed which are not identical to mother cell and amongthemselves.
(2) Meiosis-II is similar to mitosis and variation are produced.
(3) Occurs in diploid cell.
(4) Require to complete sexual reproduction

26)

In meiosis-I, a bivalent is an association of

(1) Four chromatids and four centromeres

(2) Two chromatids and two centromeres
(3) Four chromatids and two centromeres
(4) Four centromeres and two chromatids

27)

Recombinase enzyme involves in which phase of Meiosis?

(1) Leptotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene
(4) Diplotene

28) Spindle fibres are formed of :-

(1) Tubulin
(2) Fibrin
(3) Flagellin
(4) Flagellin
29) Shape of metacentric chromosomes in anaphase is :-

(1) L shaped
(2) V shaped
(3) J shaped
(4) I shaped

30) Which of the following is not taxonomic category for mango ?

(1) Sapindales
(2) Dicotyledonae
(3) Angiospermae
(4) Poaceae

31) Find the correct statements from the followings

(A)Each rank or taxon, in fact represents a unit of classification
(B) Every step in taxonomic hierarchy represents a rank or category
(C) A taxonomic category is a part of ovarall taxonomic hierarchy
(D) Taxonomic categories are not distinct biological entities, they are only morphological aggregates

(1) A, B & D are correct

(2) A, C & D are correct
(3) A, B & C are correct
(4) Only A and B are correct

32) Taxonomically known number of species is

(1) 1.7 billion

(2) 17 lakh
(3) 5-30 million
(4) 17 million

33) Genus represents :

(1) An individual plant or animal

(2) A collection of plants or animals
(3) Group of closely related species of plants or animals
(4) None of the above

34) Consider the following statements (A–D) :

(A) Taxonomic groups are distinct biological entities and not merely morphological aggregates.
(B) The collection of actual specimens of plant and animal species is the prime source of taxonomic
studies.
(C) Monographs provide information for identification of names of plant species found in an area.
(D) Each statement in the key called couplet.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) C and D
(4) Only D

35) According to hierarchical system of classification which of the following is correct :-

(A) Similarities decrease from species to kingdom
(B) Similarities increase from kingdom to species
(C) Dissimilarities decrease from division to species
(D) Similarities increase from species to class

(1) Only ABC

(2) Only BCD
(3) Only BC
(4) ABCD all

SECTION-II

1)

Which name is correct according to ICBN :-

(1) Mangifera Indica

(2) Homo sapien sapien
(3) Solanum - tuberosum
(4) Solanum tuberosum Linn.

2) Mode of nutrition in monera is ___

(1) Autotrophic only

(2) Heterotrophic only
(3) Saprotrophic only
(4) Both Autotroph and Heterotroph

3) Diatomite (keiselgurh) and red tide are produced by :-

(1) Euglenoids and dinoflagellates respectively

(2) Chrysophyta and slime moulds respectively
(3) Chrysophyta and dinoflagellates respectively
(4) Dinoflagellates only

4) The motile bacteria possess :-

(1) flagella which consist of flagellin protein

(2) flagella which consist of pilin protein
(3) flagella which consist of tubulin protein
(4) flagella which help in conjugation

5) Which disease/s caused by prion?

(1) Mad cow disease

(2) Cr Jacob disease (CJD)
(3) Potato Spindle Tuber Disease (PSTD)
(4) 1 & 2

6) Which of the following have chlorophyll-a and perform oxygenic photosynthesis :-

(1) Nostoc
(2) Anabaena
(3) Oscillatoria
(4) All of the above

7) Archaebacteria live in harsh habitat like :

(1) Extreme salty area

(2) Hot springs
(3) Marshy areas
(4) All of these

8)

Heterocysts are :-

(1) Thick walled, non-green cells

(2) Present in cyanobacteria
(3) Sites to fix atmospheric nitrogen into nitrogenous compounds
(4) All of the above

9)

Fungi prefer to grow in

(1) cold and humid place

(2) warm and humid place
(3) warm and dry place
(4) cold and dry place

10)

The DNA of E.coli is

(1) Double stranded and linear

(2) Double stranded and circular
(3) Single stranded and linear
(4) Single stranded and circular

11) In favourable condition bacteria reproduce by :

(1) Aplanospores formation

(2) Conidia formation
(3) Binary fission
(4) Endospore formation

12) The number of nucleus in a dikaryotic cell of fungi is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Which one one of the following matches is correct ?

Sexual
1 Alternaria reproduction Deuteromycetes
absent

Reproduction
2 Mucor by Ascomycetes
Conjugation

Parasitic
3 Agaricus Basidiom ycetes
fungus

Aseptate
4 Phytophthora Basidiom ycetes
mycelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Select incorrect statement w.r.t. T4 bacteriophages

(1) Have polygonal head

(2) Contractile tail without tail-sheath
(3) Six tail fibres
(4) ds-DNA as the genetic material

15) The number of kingdoms in five kingdom classification with only chemoautotrophic mode of
nutrition is/are :-

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-I

1) Which of the following conditions cause erythroblastosis fetalis?

(1) Mother Rh+ve and foetus Rh−ve

(2) Mother Rh−ve and foetus Rh+ve
(3) Both mother and foetus Rh−ve
(4) Both mother and foetus Rh+ve

2) Statement-I : Cardiac arrest is the state, when heart is not pumping blood effectively enough to
meet the needs of the body.
Statement-II : Thrombokinase is important for the activation of prothrombin.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

3) Which of the following types of portal circulation is not found in humans.

(1) Hepatic portal circulation.

(2) Renal portal circulation.
(3) Hypophyseal portal circulation.
(4) All the above given are not found in humans.

4) Single circulation is seen in

(1) Mammals
(2) Aves
(3) Amphibians
(4) Fishes

5) Assertion : Open circulatory system is present in arthropods and molluscs.

Reason : In arthropods and molluscs blood pumped by the heart passes through large vessels into
open spaces or body cavities called sinuses.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
6) First heart sound is :-

(1) Lub sound at the end of systole

(2) Lub sound at the beginning of ventricular systole
(3) Dub sound at the end of systole
(4) Dub sound at the beginning of ventricular systole

7) Chordae tendinae in the heart are found in

(1) Ventricle
(2) Left auricle
(3) Right auricle
(4) None of these

8) Match Column I with Column II :

Column I Column II

(a) Eosinophils (i) Coagulation

(b) RBC (ii) Universal Recipient

(c) AB Group (iii) Resist Infections

(d) Platelets (iv) Contraction of Heart

(e) Systole (v) Gas transport

(1) a-v , b-ii , c-iii , d-i , e-iv
(2) a-ii , b-v , c-iii , d-iv , e-i
(3) a-iii , b-v , c-ii , d-i , e-iv
(4) a-iv , b-ii , c-v , d-iii , e-i

9) What would be the stroke volume of a person if the cardiac output is increased to 7.2 litre but
heart of person beats 60 as it is initially :

(1) 90 ml
(2) 80 ml
(3) 100 ml
(4) 120 ml

10) Functional residual capacity (FRC) includes

a. TV b. IRV c. RV d. ERV

(1) a + c
(2) b + d
(3) c+d
(4) a + b + d

11) The oxygen - Hb dissociation curve will show a right shift in case of :
(1) Low pCO2
(2) High pO2
(3) High pCO2
(4) Less H+ concentration

12)

Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers _______ ml of CO2 to the alveoli.

(1) 20 ml
(2) 4 ml
(3) 5 ml
(4) 15 ml

13) Pneumotaxic centre is situated in :-

(1) Medulla
(2) Pons
(3) Cerebrum
(4) Hypothalamus

14) Cardiac notch is associated with _____ in human

(1) Right lung

(2) Left lung
(3) Pulmonary heart
(4) Two chamber heart

15)

In carbon monoxide poisoning there is

(1) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration

(2) Decrease in oxygen availability to lungs
(3) Decrease in free haemoglobin
(4) None of the above

16) Which of the following statement are/is true ?

(1) Alveolar wall is one celled thick.

(2) The total thickness of diffusion membrane is much less than a millimeter.
(3) At the level of alveoli gaseous exchange occurs by simple diffusion.
(4) All of these

17) Match the column I and column II.

 Column-I Column-II

(a) pO2 in oxygenated blood (i) 104 mm Hg

(b) pCO2 in oxygenated blood (ii) 40 mm Hg

(c) pO2 in Alveoli (iii) 45 mm Hg

(d) pCO2 in Deoxygenated blood (iv) 95 mm Hg

(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
(3) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
(4) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i

18) In which chronic disorder alveolar walls are damaged :-

(1) Bronchitis
(2) Asthma
(3) Emphysema
(4) Occupational

19) Assertion: A protein is a homopolymer.

Reason: It is made of same type of amino acids.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false
(4) If both assertion and reason are false

20) Malonate is the

(1) Coenzyme part of the enzyme Succinate dehydrogenase

(2) Non-competitive inhibitor of the enzyme Succinate dehydrogenase
(3) Activator of the enzyme Succinate dehydrogenase
(4) Competitive inhibitor of the enzyme Succinate dehydrogenase

21) Palmitic acid and Arachidonic acid are having ______ and ______ carbon atoms respectively.

(1) 16 and 18
(2) 18 and 20
(3) 16 and 20
(4) 14 and 18

22) is :-
(1) Glucose
(2) Galactose
(3) Glycerol
(4) Fructose

23) To analyse chemical composition of living tissue, we solubilise them in :-

(1) HNO3
(2) HCl
(3) CF3COOH
(4) CCI3COOH

24) Which of the following substance is a polymer of fructose ?

(1) Insulin
(2) Hyluronic acid
(3) Inulin
(4) Heparin

25) Read the following carefully:

a. Enzymes are denatured at high temperature but in certain exceptional organisms they are
effective even at temperature 80-90 ⁰C
b. Enzymes are highly specific
c. Most enzymes are proteins but some are lipids.
d. Enzymes require optimum pH for maximal activity.
How many is/are wrong :

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

26) Find out the correct match from the following table

Column I Column II Column III

Acid
(i) Polysaccharide Biomacro molecule
Insoluble fraction

Acid
(ii) Lipid Biomacro molecule
soluble fraction

Acid
(iii) Protein Biomicro molecule
insoluble pool
(1) i only
(2) i and ii
(3) iii only
(4) ii and iii

27) What does x and y represent in the structure given below ?

(1) (x) = Uridylic acid, (y) = Uridine

(2) (x) = Uridine, (y) = Uridylic acid
(3) (x) = Uridine, (y) = Uracil
(4) (x) = Uracil, (y) = Uridine

28) Which types of tissues our heart is made up of?

(A) Epithelial (B) Connective
(C) Muscular (D) Nervous.

(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) A, B & C
(4) A, B, C & D

29) How many features given below in box are present in skeletal muscles?

Voluntary, Uninucleate, Attached to bones,

Striations, Intercalated discs
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

30) Which of the following statement defines the characteristics of neuroglial cells :-

(1) These are non sensory and supporting cells.

(2) These are secretory cells.
(3) These are sensory cells.
(4) These are sensory and supporting cells.

31) In neuron how many structures have granular bodies called Nissl's granules.
(a) Cell body (b) Dendrites (c) Axon hillock
(d) Axon terminal (e) synaptic knob

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 1

32) Which one of the following types of cell is involved in making of the inner walls of blood vessels ?

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Stratified epithelium

33) It serves as a support framework for epithelium. It contains fibroblast, macrophages and mast
cells. It is known as.

(1) Dense regular tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense irregular tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

34) Identify the following epithelium, this epithelium is found in :

(1) Walls of blood vessels

(2) Ducts of glands
(3) Lining of stomach
(4) Air sacs of lungs

35) Which of the following junctions help to stop substances from leaking across a tissue ?

(1) Adhering junction

(2) Gap junction
(3) Tight Junction
(4) Both (1) & (2)

SECTION-II

1) Match column–I with column–II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II

Simple
A. (i) Wall of heart
columnar
 Cardiac Site of joint of long
B. (ii)
muscle bone

Inner lining of
Adipose
C. (iii) stomach and
tissue
intestine

Below the skin in the

Hyaline
D. (iv) abdomen, buttocks,
cartilage
thighs and breasts

(v) Diaphragm
(1) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii), D–(iv)
(2) A–(iii), B–(v), C–(ii), D–(iv)
(3) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(v)
(4) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)

2) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ligaments are dense irregular tissue.
Statement II : Cartilage is a dense regular tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

3) How many statements are correct regarding neural tissue ?

(1) Neurons, the unit of neural system and are excitable cells.
(2) Neurons, the unit of neural system are non excitable cells
(3) Neuroglia make up more than one half the volume of neural tissue in our body
(4) Neuroglia cell are supporting cell

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

4) Match the following column-I with column-II.

Column-I Column-II

a. Areolar tissue i. bone to bone

b. Tendons ii. loose connective tissue

c. Ligaments iii. bone to muscle

Dense irregular connective

d. iv. in the skin
tissue
(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(4) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

5)

The below diagrammatic representation is the formula of -

(1) Lecithin
(2) Cholesterol
(3) Uridylic acid
(4) Phosphatic acid

6) Which of the following is a nucleoside of DNA ?

(1) Adenosine
(2) Guanine
(3) Deoxyguanosine
(4) Deoxyguanylic acid

7) Which of the following is true w.r.t. structure of a polysaccharide?

(1) Right end is reducing and left end is non-reducing

(2) Right end is non-reducing and left end is reducing
(3) Both, left and right ends are reducing
(4) Both, left and right ends are non-reducing

8) Respiratory centre of brain is mainly stimulated by–

(1) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood

(2) Carbon dioxide content in the arterial blood
(3) Oxygen content in the venous blood
(4) Oxygen content in the arterial blood

9) Statement-I : Inspiration occur when intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric
pressure.
Statement-II : Inspiration is initiated by the contraction of Diaphragm and external inter coastal
muscles.
(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

10) Which of the following muscles contracts during forceful expiration-

(1) Diaphragm
(2) Internal Intercostal Muscles(IICM)
(3) External Intercostal Muscles (EICM)
(4) IICM and EICM

11) Identify a to e in the given figure w.r.t. concept of activation energy :

a - activation energy without enzyme

b - activation energy with enzyme
(1) c - energy of substrate
d - energy of product
e - transition state
a - activity energy with enzyme
(2) b-energy of substrate
d - energy of product
b - activation energy with enzyme
c - energy of substrate
(3)
d - energy of product
e - kinetic energy
a - energy of substrate
(4) b - energy of product
d - transition energy

12) Select the correct statement:

Increase in substrate concentration, increases the velocity of enzymatic reaction at first then it
(1)
reaches maximum and further increment does not occur.
In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor closely resembles the substrate in its molecular
(2)
structure.
(3) Competitive inhibition are often used in the control of bacterial pathogens.
(4) All of these

13) Plasma without clotting factors is called

(1) Platelets
(2) Anticoagulant
(3) Coagulant
(4) Serum

14) Find out the incorrect statements and choose the correct option accordingly.
(I) Interstitial fluid (tissue fluid) and lymph have almost similar composition
(II) Lymph and interstitial fluid have no larger proteins and RBCs
(III) Exchange of the nutrients and gases, etc, between the blood and cells always occurs through
tissue filud
(IV) Interstitial fluid has the same mineral distribution as that of the plasma
(V) Lymph can be defined as the blood minus RBC but has specialised lymphocytes

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) IV and V
(4) None of the above

15) Correct match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II
(A) Neutrophils (1) 20-25% of WBC
(B) Basophils (2) 2-3% of WBC
(C) Monocytes (3) 6-8% of WBC
(D) Eosinophils (4) 0.5-1% of WBC
(E) Lymphocytes (5) 60-65% of WBC

(1) A-l, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-5

(2) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-l
(3) A-5, B-4, C-l, D-2, E-3
(4) A-5, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-l
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-I

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 2 2 3 4 4 4 2 3 1 1 2 2 2 4 1 4 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 3 1 3 1 2 4 3 4 2 4 4 2 4 4

SECTION-II

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 1 1 1 4 1 3 2 4 4 4 3 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 4 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 4 3 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 2 3

SECTION-II

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 4 4 3 3 4 1 1 4 1 4 3 1 4 1

BOTANY

SECTION-I

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 4 3 4 4 3 3 1 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 4 3 2 2 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 1

SECTION-II

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 1 4 4 4 4 2 2 3 2 1 2 1

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-I

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 2 2 4 1 2 1 3 4 3 3 2 2 2 3 4 3 3 4 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 3 4 3 4 1 4 4 2 1 3 3 4 3 3

SECTION-II

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 1 2 2 1 3 1 2 1 2 1 4 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

Component of along is

or B2 = 2.
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

2)

or

or
or or
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

3)

4)

5)

Resultant of two vector and can be given by

If θ = 0° then

6)

If two vectors A and B are given then range of their resultant can be written as (A – B) ≤ R ≤ (A + B)
i.e., Rmax = A + B and Rmin = A – B.
If B = 1 and A = 4 then their resultant will lies in between 3 N and 5 N. It can never be 2 N.
If these three vectors are represented by three sides of triangle then they from equilateral triangle.

7)
 Reading of weighing scale = m(g+a)
= 80(10 + 5) = 1200 N

8) 9 MSD = 10 VSD

1VSD = MSD
L.C. = 1MSD – 1VSD

0.1mm = MSD
1MSD = 1 mm.

9)

Least count =
zero error = (CSR) (least count)
Final reading = (MSR + CSR × L.C) – (zero error)
= (3 × 2 mm + 46 × .01 mm) – (.05mm)
= 6.41 mm

10)

11) sin 30° =

u = 2.5 m/s

12)

13)

Let time of ascent be T then

Let h be the distance covered during last ‘t’ second of its ascent
Velocity at point B = v = u – g(T – t)
 OR
Distance covered during the last 't' second of ascent = distance covered during the first 't'

second of decent

14)

Average speed during BC :

Average speed during AC :

15)

Let total time = t

16) R =

17) Here
This gives .
 18)

19)

20)

21)

22)

Horizontal component.

23)

(45° – θ) and (45° + θ)

Range → 1 : 1

24)

Using v2 = u2 + 2as

Substituting the values, we get

25)

at t = 3s,

26)
In this case, one 2 kg wt on the left will act as the support for the spring balance. Hence its reading
will be 2 kg.

27)

28)

From the figure, it follows that

T1 = 3g
2g + T1 = T2
or T2 = 2g + 3g
= 5g

29) 2 as trailing zero are not count as significant digit.

30)

Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

31)

32)
 33)

34)

Using dimensional analysis we can't derive physical formulas having more than one part in addition
or subtraction and formula having trignomatric exponential and logarithmic expression.

35)

Differentiating,
Error in the determination of the volume
= 3 × 2% = 6%

36)

(1)9 – (0)9 + sin

1–0+1–0=2

37)

= Area under y - x graph

area = (5 × 1) + (1 × 5) – (1 × 5) = 5

38)

Using y = mx + c

⇒m=
⇒c=4
⇒ 2y = –x + 8
 39)

y = –5x2 + 20x + 4

= –10x + 20 = 0 ⇒x=2

= –10
∴ y is max. at x = 2

40)

slope at P = 8 × 2 = 16

41)

42)
Displacement = OB =

45)

Time of flight = 4 sec ⇒ u = 20 m/s.

46)

47)

When packet is released rom the balloon, it acquires the velocity of balloon of value 12 m/s. Hence
velocity of packet after 2 sec, will be
v = u + gt = 12 – 9.8 × 2 = –7.6 m/s.

48)

Time average velocity =

49)

Kinetic energy is minimum at the highest point, and the highest point is attained after covering
distance equal to 0.5R.
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).
 50)

Let h be the height of the tower.

Using v2 – u2 = 2as, we get :
(–3u)2 – u2 = 2(–g)(–h)
Here, u = u, a = –g, s = –h and v = –3u (upward direction +ve).
∴ 9u2 – u2 = 2gh or h = 4u2/g
Hence, the correct answer is option (2).

CHEMISTRY

51)

No. of spectral line during transition,

60)

Maximum no. of electrons having same value of spin quantum number is equal to the number of
orbitals.

61) E = =

70)

71)

7.5 g of gas
Volume = 5.6 L

⇒ ⇒

Molar mass = 7.5 × 4 = 30

NO ⇒ 14 + 16 = 30

83)

Si → 786, P → 1012, Cl → 1256, S → 999

84)

Chlorine ([Ne]3s23p5) has the highest electron affinity in periodic table.

86)
Among the isoelectronic species, size increases with the increase in negative charge. Thus S2– has
the highest negative charge and hence largest in size followed by Cl–, K+ and Ca2+.

87) NCERT-XI, Part-I, Chemical bonding

88)

SbCl52–

= sp3d2

91)

94) NO2+ → sp NO2- sp2 NO2 sp2

95) hypervalent IF7

BOTANY

107)

NCERT Pg. # 4

110)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 26

116)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 168, 169, para-(10.4.1,10.4.2)

118)

NCERT Pg. No. 123

119) NCERT Pg. No. 121

120) NCERT Pg. No. 126

121) NCERT diagram 10.2, 10.2C Pg. # 165, 166

 122) Crossing over is the phenomena that occurs between two non-sister chromatids of
homologous chromosomes

124) NCERT Page No. 166

127) NCERT Page No. 168

133)

NCERT Pg. No. 9

135) NCERT Page No. 8

137)

NCERT Pg.#17/Table 2.1

141)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 19

142)

NCERT Pg.# 19

ZOOLOGY

152)

NCERT Pg. # 203

153)

NCERT Pg. # 201

154)

NCERT PAGE NO. 282

161)

NCERT Pg. No. 274.

162) Ncert Pg No. 275

165)

167)
NCERT, Pg. no. # 272 (Table 17.1)

168)

NCERT XI, Pg. # 275, Last Para

169)

NCERT pg- 149

170)

NCERT pg no.158

171)

NCERT Page no. 106

173)

NCERT XI Pg.# 142 para. 2

175)

NCERT pg : 154, 155

176)

NCERT XI Page no. 104,105

179)

NCERT page- 303

180)

The characteristics of neuroglial cells are that they are nonsensory and supporting cells.

181)

NCERT Pg # 317, 21.3

182)

NCERT XI Pg. # 101

184) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 101, Fig-7.1 (c)

189)

Areolar tissue — Loose connective tissue

Tendons — bone to muscle
Ligaments — bone to bone
 Dense irregular connective tissue — in the skin

194)

NCERT XI Page No. # 270

198)

NCERT Page No - 279