24-07-2024

4504CMD303034240001 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

1) A ball is thrown upward with a velocity of 100m/s. It will reach the ground after :-

(1) 10s
(2) 20s
(3) 5s
(4) 40s

2) Minimum value of 3sinθ + 4cosθ is :-

(1) –7
(2) –4
(3) –3
(4) –5

3) The radius of a sphere is (5.3 ± 0.1) cm. The percentage error in its volume is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) The smallest division on the main scale of a vernier calliper is 1 mm, and 10 vernier divisions
coincide with 9 main scale divisions. While measuring the diameter of a sphere, the zero mark of the
vernier scale lies between 20 and 21 mm and the fifth division of the vernier scale coincide with a
main scale division. Then diameter of the sphere is :-

(1) 20.5 mm
(2) 21.5 mm
(3) 21.51 mm
(4) 20.52 mm

5) If x = a – b, the maximum percentage error in the measurement of x will be :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A body is dropped from a height of 180 m. The time taken by it to reach ground (in sec.)

(1) 10 sec
(2) 18 sec
(3) 6 sec
(4) 8 sec

7) If K = find dimensional formula of K :-

(1) [LT–3]
(2) [L4T–4]
(3) [LT–4]
(4) [LT]

8) Dimensional formula of Planck's constant is similar to:

(1) torque
(2) work
(3) pressure
(4) angular momentum

9) Significant figure in 3400 are :-

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7

10) The engine of a train which is moving with constant acceleration passes an electric pole with a
velocity 'u' and the last compartment of the train crosses the same pole with a velocity v. Then find
the velocity with which the mid-point of the train passes the pole.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) The order of magnitude of 6.67 × 10–34 is :

(1) –34
(2) –35
(3) –33
(4) 33

12)

A body thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity u reaches maximum height in 6 seconds.
The ratio of the distance travelled by the body in the first second and the seventh second is :- (g = 10
m/s2 )

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 11 : 1
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 11

13) Value of is :-

(1) 25
(2) 35
(3) 15
(4) 30

14)

For a screw gauge of pitch 0.1 cm and 200 circular scale divisions, the least count will be :-

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 0.05 mm
(3) 0.005 mm
(4) 0.0005 mm

15) A body starts from rest and move with a uniform acceleration of 10 ms–2 for 5 seconds. During
the next 10 seconds it moves with uniform velocity. Find the total distance travelled by the body.

(1) 625 m
(2) 50 m
(3) 125 m
(4) 400 m

16) Assertion (A) : Physical relations involving addition and subtraction cannot be derived by
dimensional analysis.
Reason (R) : Numerical constants cannot be deduced by the method of dimensions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are false

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true

17) The displacement of a body is given to be proportional to the cube of time elapsed. The
magnitude of the acceleration of the body is :-

(1) Increasing with time

(2) Decreasing with time
(3) Constant but not zero
(4) Zero

18) A stone is dropped into a quiet lake and waves move in circles spreading out radially at a speed

of 0.25 m/s. At the instant when the radius of the circular wave is m, how fast is the enclosed area
increasing:-

(1)

(2)

(3) 2 m2/s

(4)

19) If time (T), velocity (V), and angular momentum (L) are taken as the fundamental units. Then the
dimension of mass (m) in terms of T, V and L is :

(1) [T–1 V1 L–2]

(2) [T1 V2 L–1]
(3) [T–2 V–1 L1]
(4) [T–1 V–2 L1]

20) A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus time (t) is as shown in the figure. The
maximum speed of the particle will be :-

(1) 110 m/s

(2) 55 m/s
(3) 550 m/s
(4) 660 m/s

21) If time t = (1 + 0.01)5 s, then value of t is approximately :-

(1) 1.03 s
(2) 5.05 s
(3) 1.05 s
(4) 5.00 s

22) The velocity time graph of a car moving along a straight road is shown in figure. The average

velocity of car in first 10 second is :-

(1) 2 m/s
(2) 4 m/s
(3) 6 m/s
(4) 8 m/s

23) The velocity time ( graph) of a moving object is given in figure. The maximum acceleration

is :

(1) 1 cm/s2
(2) 2 cm/s2
(3) 3 cm/s2
(4) 6 cm/s2
24) is–

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

25) If A and B have different dimensions, then which relation is dimensionally wrong :-

(1) A2 + B
(2) A3 + 4B2

(3)

(4) A2 + B2

26) The distances travelled by a body under constant acceleration from rest in the first, second and
third seconds are in the ratio :–

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 1 : 4 : 9
(3) 1 : 3 : 5
(4) None of these

27) If then is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

28) A ball is thrown vertically upwards with a velocity 20 m/s from the top of a tower. The height of
tower is 25 m from ground. Find maximum height of ball from ground (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 20 m
(2) 45 m
(3) 15 m
(4) 25 m

29) A particle is dropped vertically from rest, from a height. The time taken by it to fall through
successive distances of 1 km each will then be:-
(1) All equal, being equal to second
(2) In the ratio of the square roots of the integers

In the ratio of the difference in the square roots of the integers, i.e., ,
(3)
, ........

(4)
In the ratio of the reciprocals of the square roots of the integers, i.e., ......

30) An object accelerates from rest to a velocity 27.5m/s in 10 sec, then find distance covered in
total 20 sec starting from t = 0 (Assume acceleration as constant) :-

(1) 412.5 m
(2) 137.5 m
(3) 550 m
(4) 275 m

31) Kinetic energy , where x is position and t is time. Find the dimensions of αβ :-

(1) [ML–1T–2]
(2) [MLT–2]
0
(3) [MLT ]
0
(4) [M LT]

32) The slope of graph in figure at point A,B and C is mA, mB and mC respectively, then:

(1) mA > mB > mC

(2) mA < mB < mC
(3) mA = mB = mC
(4) mA = mB < mC

33) If a train travelling at 72 km/hr is to be brought to rest in a distance of 200 m, then its
retardation should be :-

(1) 20 m/s2
(2) 2 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 1 m/s2
34) Find Inet = –GMm

(1)
Inet = –

(2)
Inet = –
(3) Inet = –2GMm
(4) Inet = –4GMm

35)

The slope of straight line AB is :-

+
(1)

(2)
–

(3)

(4)
–

SECTION-2

1) A particle moves rectilinearly with initial velocity u and a constant acceleration a. Find the
average velocity of the particle in a time interval from t = 0 to t = t second of its motion :-

(1)
ut + a

(2)
ut + at
(3) ut + at

(4)
u+ at

2) A body moving with uniform acceleration in a straight line covers 25 m in the 5th second and 33 m
in the 7th second. Find its initial velocity and acceleration.

(1) 7 m/s, 4 m/s2

(2) 4 m/s, 7 m/s2
(3) 9 m/s, 5 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s, 9 m/s2

3) A system of unit in which unit of mass is 10 kg, unit of length is 1 km and time is 1 min. 1 J in this
system is equal to :-

(1) 360
(2) 3.6
(3) 36 × 105
(4) 36 × 10–5

4) If the displacement of a particle varies with time as :

(1) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t

(2) velocity of particle varies linearly with t
(3) velocity of particle is proportional to
(4) initial velocity of the particle is zero

5) A body slides on an inclined plane. If height of inclined plane is 'h' and length of inclined plane is
'l' and angle of inclination is θ then time taken for travelling from upper point to lower point of
incline :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
sinθ

6) The nth division of main scale coincides (n+1)th division of verneir scale. Given one main scale
division is equal to 'a' units. Find the least count of the vernier :-

(1)

(2) (n + 1)

(3)

(4) an

7) If R1 = (100 ± 5)Ω and R2 = (200 ± 10)Ω find the error in total resistance during parallel
combination :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) Find correct one :-

(a) sin 2A = 2 sinA cosA
(b) sin2θ + cos2θ = sec2θ – tan2θ
(c) sin (270° – θ) = –cos θ
(d) tan (–θ) = –tanθ

(1) Only a, d
(2) Only b, c
(3) Only a, b, d
(4) All

9) At time t volume of water in any vessel is

V = (4t3 – 3t2 + 2t) m3 then at t = 5 sec rate of flow is :-

(1) 25 m3/sec
(2) 32 m3/sec
(3) 23 m3/sec
(4) 272 m3/sec

10) A science student takes 100 observations in an experiment. Second time he takes 600
observations in the same experiment. By doing so the random error becomes :-

(1)
times
(2) 6 times
(3) unchanged
(4) 36 times

11) A particle starts from rests and travels a distance S with uniform acceleration, then it travels a
distance 2S with uniform speed, finally it travels a distance 3S with uniform retardation and comes
to rest. If the complete motion of the particle is a straight line then the ratio of its average velocity
to maximum velocity is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

12) A particle is moving on a straight line such that square of its velocity is directly proportional to
distance as shown in graph. What is the acceleration of the particle ?

(1)

(2) 1 m/s2
(3) 2 m/s2

(4)

13) A body is thrown up with a speed 49 m/s. it travels 5m in the last second of its ascent journey. If
the same body is thrown up with a velocity 98 m/s, how much distance (in m) will it travel in the last
second. (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 10 m
(2) 49 m
(3) 5 m
(4) 15 m

14) The numbers 7.845 and 7.835 on rounding off to 3 significant figures will give :

(1) 7.85 and 7.84

(2) 7.84 ad 7.83
(3) 7.85 and 7.83
(4) 7.84 and 7.84

15) A bullet moving with a velocity of 200 cm/s penetrates a wooden block and comes to rest after
traversing 4 cm inside it. What velocity is needed for travelling of 9 cm in same block (Assume same
retardation in both cases):

(1) 100 cm/s

(2) 136.2 cm/s
(3) 300 cm/s
(4) 250 cm/s
 CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

1) In the reaction, 4I– + Hg2+ → , moles of formed from 1 mol each of Hg2+ and I– will be :-

(1) 1 mol
(2) 0.5 mol
(3) 0.25 mol
(4) 2 mol

2) The volume of oxygen required for complete oxidation of 8L of CO at NTP will be :-

(1) 8 L
(2) 16 L
(3) 4 L
(4) 2 L

3) When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g) each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g)
formed is equal to :-

(1) 1 mol of HCl(g)

(2) 2 mol of HCl(g)
(3) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)
(4) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

4) If one mole of H2SO4 reacts with an excess of NaOH, how many moles of water are formed ?

(1) 2
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) The equivalent weight of phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the reaction,

NaOH + H3PO4 → NaH2PO4 + H2O is :-

(1) 59
(2) 49
(3) 25
(4) 98

6) If 20% nitrogen is present in a compound, then its minimum molecular weight will be :-
(At mass of 'N' = 14)

(1) 144
(2) 28
(3) 288
(4) 70

7) How many atoms are present in 1 mole of Ca(OH)2 ?

(1) 30 × 6.02 × 1023

(2) 5 × 6.02 × 1023
(3) 6 × 6.02 × 1023
(4) 6.02 × 1023

8) 'x' L N2 gas at S.T.P. contains 3×1022 molecules, then the number of molecules in 'x' L ozone at
STP will be :-

(1) 3 × 1022
(2) 4 × 1023
(3) 6.02 × 1023
(4) 3 × 1024

9) Actual weight of CH4 is :-

(1) 2.67 × 10–23 g

(2) 16 g
(3) 16NA g
(4) All of the above

10) The number of atoms N and Cl are 2 × 105 and

6 × 105 respectively. It's empirical formula is

(1) NCl
(2) NCl3
(3) NCl4
(4) NCl2

11) Which of the following contains maximum number of atoms ?

21
(1) 6.02 × 10 molecules of CO2
(2) 22.4 L of CO2 at S.T.P.
(3) 0.44 g of CO2
(4) 88 mg of CO2

12) How many moles of Al2(SO4)3 will contain

0.6 mol of oxygen atoms :-

(1) 0.1
(2) 0.2
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.05

13) An organic compound contains 40% C, 6.66% H and rest oxygen by mass. What will be its
empirical formula ?

(1) CHO
(2) CH2O
(3) C2H2O
(4) CH4O

14) Nitric acid (HNO3) is 1.6% H, 22.2%N and 76.2% O by mass. All pure samples of HNO3 have this
composition, according to the

(1) Law of multiple proportions

(2) Law of reciprocal proportions
(3) Law of definite proportions
(4) Law of conservation of mass

15) Total number of neutron in 36 g of heavy water is :-

(1) 2NA
(2) 16NA
(3) 18NA
(4) 36NA

16) Calculate the reported result and number of significant figure of (41.6325 – 41.612) :-

(1) 0.0205, 4
(2) 0.020, 3
(3) 0.020, 2
(4) 0.0205, 3

17) The haemoglobin of most mammals contains approximately 0.33% of iron by mass. The
molecular mass of haemoglobin is 67200. The number of iron atoms in each molecule of
haemoglobin is-

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 6

18) Mole fraction of methanol in a mixture of methanol and ethanol is 0.40. The percentage (by
mass) of methanol in the mixture is
(1) 31.7%
(2) 41%
(3) 25.32%
(4) 18.6%

19) Equivalent weight of bivalent metal is 32.7. Molecular weight of it's chloride is :

(1) 68.2
(2) 103.7
(3) 136.4
(4) 166.3

20) The wavelength of the radiation emitted, when in a hydrogen atom electron falls from infinity to
stationary state one, would be
(Rydberg constant = 1.097 × 107 m–1)

(1) 91 nm
(2) 191 nm
(3) 406 nm
(4) 9.1 × 10–8 nm

21) If 9.9 eV energy is supplied to H atom, the number of spectral lines emitted is equal to:-

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

22) The energy of H–atom in nth orbit is En then energy in nth orbit of singly ionised helium atom will
be :-

(1) 4En
(2) En/4
(3) 2En
(4) En/2

23) The increasing order for the values of e/m (charge/mass) ratio is :-

(1) e, p, n,

(2) e, p, ,n
(3) n, p, ,e
n, , p, e
(4)

24) The ratio of speeds of electron in K-shell and

L-shell of H-atoms :-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

25) An element with mass number 81 contains 31.7% more neutrons as compared to protons. Find
the symbol of the atom :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

26) Number of wave in third Bohr's orbit of hydrogen is :

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 9
(4) 12

27) Which EM waves have longest wavelength.

(1) Radio waves

(2) Ultraviolet rays
(3) Micro waves
(4) X rays

28) If the de-Broglie wavelength of the fourth Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is 4nm, the
circumference of the orbit will be : ,

(1) 4nm
(2) 14nm
(3) 16nm
(4) 61nm

29) How many number of orbitals are present in

L-shell ?

(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 1

30) Which of the following atomic orbital does'nt have nodal plane?
(1) Px
(2) dxy
(3) s
(4)

31) In a given atom, no two electrons can have the same values for all the four quantum numbers.
This called :-

(1) Hund’s rule

(2) Aufbau principle
(3) Uncertainty principle
(4) Pauli’s exclusion principle

32) Assertion : On increasing the frequency of electromagnetic wave, the energy of the photon
increases.
Reason : Energy of a photon, E = hv, where E is energy of photon and v is frequency of
electromagnetic wave.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

33) Maximum number of electrons in 4p-orbital is :-

(1) 32
(2) 6
(3) 2
(4) 10

34)

Which quantum no. is not related with schrodinger's equation :-

(1) Principal
(2) Azimuthal
(3) Magnetic
(4) Spin

35) In H-atom, electron transits from 6th orbit to 1st orbit in multistep. Then spectral lines in visible
region will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 9
(3) 6
(4) 15
 SECTION-2

1) Statement I : Ψ has no physical significance.

Statement II : Ψ2 is important parameter to decide probability of finding an electron.

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

2) In photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy of photoelectrons increases linearly with the :-

(1) Wavelength of incident light

(2) Frequencey of incident light
(3) Velocity of incident light
(4) Atomic mass of an element

3) The number of 'd-electrons' in Ag+ (Atomic number of Ag = 47)

(1) 20
(2) 10
(3) 18
(4) 17

4) The electron identified by quantum numbers

n and
i . n = 4, = 1
ii. n = 4, = 0
iii. n = 3, = 0
iv. n = 3, = 1
can be placed in order of increasing energy

(1) iii < iv < i < ii

(2) iii < iv < ii < i
(3) i < iii < ii < iv
(4) iii < i < iv < ii

5) n = 3, ℓ = 1, m = 0 represents which orbital ?

(1) 3dxy
(2)
(3) 3pz
(4)

6) The d-orbitals (4d, 5d, .......) are similar to 3d orbital in

(1) Shape
(2) Energy
(3) Size
(4) All of these

7) If uncertaintity in position is zero then uncertaintity in momentum is -

(1) Zero
(2) h/2 π
(3) h/π
(4) Infinite

8) What mass of 10% pure sulphur will produce

5.6L SO2 at NTP ?

(1) 8g
(2) 80 g
(3) 0.8 g
(4) 800 g

9) Number of significant digits in ?

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 6

10)

Which is incorrect statement :-

(1) Volume of 1 g eq. of O2 at NTP = 11.2 L

(2) 1g-equivalent O2 = 0.25 mol O2
(3) 1 g-atom of nitrogen = 14 g nitrogen atom
(4) N × V(L) = number of moles × valence factor

11) Electron can not reside inside the nucleus can be proved by using

(1) Milliken oil drop experiment

(2) Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
(3) Bohr's atomic model
(4) Plank's quantum theory

12) In which mode of expression, the concentration of a solution remains independent of

temperature?
(1) Molarity
(2) Normality
(3) Formality
(4) Molality

13) 8g of sulphur are burnt to form SO2, which is oxidised by Cl2 water. The solution is treated with
BaCl2 solution. The amount of BaSO4 precipitated is :

(1) 1.0 mole

(2) 0.5 mole
(3) 0.75 mole
(4) 0.25 mole

14) 4 mol H2 are ignited with 0.25 mol O2. The weight of water formed is

(1) 4.5 g
(2) 9 g
(3) 18 g
(4) 36 g

15) What is the molarity of 0.4 N Na2CO3 solution:-

(1) 0.2 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.8 M
(4) 0.6 M

BOTANY

SECTION-1

1) What is true for a prokaryotic cell ?

(1) They are smaller in size

(2) Multiply more rapidly than eukaryotic cell
(3) They may vary greatly in shape and size
(4) All of these

2) Statement I : Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory.

Statement II : Rudolf Virchow gave final shape to the cell theory.

(1) Statement I is correct.

(2) Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statements are correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.

3) Which among the statements is incorrect:

a. Basic unit of life is the cell in some living organism
b. Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existence
c. Unicellular organisms are capable of performing the essential function of life

(1) Only a and b

(2) Only b and c
(3) Only a
(4) Only c

4) Match the following column correctly.

Column - I
Column - II Size
Cell

(I) Mycoplasma (A) Longest cell

(II) Nerve cell (B) 0.3 μm

(III) Ostrich egg (C) 3-5 μm

Largest isolated
(IV) Bacteria (D)
single cell
(1) (I) – (A), (II) – (B), (III) – (C), (IV) – (D)
(2) (I) – (B), (II) – (A), (III) – (D), (IV) – (C)
(3) (I) – (A), (II) – (C), (III) – (B), (IV) – (D)
(4) (I) – (D), (II) – (C), (III) – (B), (IV) – (A)

5) Glycocalyx of a bacterial cell may occur in the form of a loose sheath called __A__ in some, while
in other it may be thick & tough called __B__ .

(1) A – Capsule, B – Slime layer

(2) A – Slime layer, B – Capsule
(3) A – Mesosome, B – Capsule
(4) A – Capsule, B – Mesosome

6) Match the column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II
(Event) (Scientist)

First live Singer &

(A) (i)
cell Nicolson

George
(B) Nucleus (ii)
Palade

Fluid-mosaic
(C) (iii) Leeuwenhoek
model
 (D) Ribosome (iv) Robert Brown
(1) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

7) The small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the cell. In some bacteria, they are known to help
attach the bacteria to rocks in streams and also to the host tissues :

(1) Filament
(2) Pili
(3) Basal body
(4) Fimbriae

8) Which of the following is not the part of cell envelope in bacteria?

(1) Glycocalyx
(2) Cell wall
(3) Inclusion bodies
(4) Cell membrane

9) Membrane less cell organelle usually present in animal cell and associated with cell division is :

(1) Ribosome
(2) Centrosome
(3) Nucleolus
(4) All of the above

10) Match the columns I with columns II and choose the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(A) RER (P) Connect the cytoplasm

(B) SER (Q) Synthesis of lipid

Protection from mechanical damage and

(C) Plasmodesmata (R)
infection

(D) Cell wall (S) Protein synthesis and secretion

(1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-P, B-S, C-Q, D-R
(3) A-Q, B-S, C-P, D-R
(4) A-S, B-Q, C-P, D-R

11) Which of the following characteristics is correct about cell wall of plant cells.

(1) Gives shape to cell

(2) Helps in cell to cell interaction
(3) Provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules
(4) All of the above

12) Which of the following is true regarding prokaryotes:

(1) Presence of cell wall surrounding the cell membrane except in mycoplasma
(2) Genetic material not enveloped by nuclear membrane
(3) Small circular DNA present outside genomic DNA that confers unique features to bacteria
(4) All are true

13) Cell wall of algae is made up of

(1) Chitin
(2) Peptidoglycan
(3) Cellulose, hemicellulose, pectinase
(4) Cellulose, galactans, mannans, CaCO3

14) Vesicles from ER fuse with -

(1) Forming face of golgi body.

(2) Trans face of golgi body.
(3) Plasma membrane to remove them out from cell.
(4) Maturing face of golgi body.

15) Mitosis occurs in

(1) Meristematic tissues

(2) In plants both haploid & diploid cells
(3) Male honey bee
(4) More than on option

16) In animal cells lipid-like steroidal hormones are synthesised in:

(1) RER
(2) Cytoskeleton
(3) SER
(4) Cristae

17) Which of the following statements regarding vacuole is/are correct?

a) Vacuole is bound by a double membrane called tonoplast
b) Vacuole is bound by a single membrane called tonoplast
c) In plant cells the vacuoles can occupy up to 20 to 30% of the volume of the cell

(1) Statements a and c are correct

(2) Statements b and c are correct
(3) Only statement c is correct
(4) Only statement b is correct

18) ___ are membrane bound vesicular structure formed by the process of packaging in the golgi
apparatus

(1) Lysosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosome
(4) Centriole

19) Statement-1 : Typically mitochondria is sausage shaped or cylindrical.

Statement-2 : Inner membrane of mitochondria divides it's lumen in two aqueous compartments
i.e., the outer compartment and the inner compartment.

(1) Statement-1 is correct but Statement-2 is incorrect

(2) Both Statement-1 and 2 are correct.
(3) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct
(4) Both Statement-1 and 2 are incorrect.

20) Which of the following is not true of a eukaryotic cell?

(1) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the mitochondria

(2) It has 80S type of ribosome present in the cytoplasm
(3) Mitochondria contain single circular DNA
(4) Membrane bound organelles are present

21) Match the following group I and II

Group-I Group-II

A Amyloplast I Carbohydrates

B Elaioplast II Xanthophyll

C Aleuroplast III Protein

D Chromoplast IV Fat

E Chloroplast V Chlorophyll
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-II, E-V
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-V
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II, E-V
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II, E-V

22) Cytoskeleton not only provide mechanical support but also performs-
(A) Motility
(B) Maintenance of the shape of the cell
(C) Photosynthesis
(D) Protein synthesis

(1) A & C only

(2) A and D only
(3) A & B only
(4) C & D only

23) Axoneme are found in :-

(1) The core of centriole

(2) Core of cilia and flagella
(3) Filament of cytoskeleton
(4) Inner membrane of Mitochondria.

24) Statement I : Nucleolus stained by the basic dyes was given the name chromatin by Robert
Brown
Statement II : Nucleoplasm contain larger and more numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively
carrying out protein synthesis.

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct.
(4) Only statement II is correct.

25) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-II
Column-I
(centromere
(Chromosome)
position)

Slightly away
(A) Acrocentric (i)
from middle

Middle
(B) Submetacentric (ii)
centromere

Close to its
(C) Telocentric (iii)
end

Terminal
(D) Metacentric (iv)
centromere
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

26) Choose the correct sequence of events occuring during mitosis:-

(A) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform..
(B) All the chromosomes coming to lie at the equator.
(C) In animal cell, the appearance of a furrow in the plasma membrane.
(D) Centrosome duplication during interphase, begins to move towards opposite poles of the cell.
(E) Centromeres split and chromatids separate.

(1) D→A→E→B→C
(2) C→A→E→D→B
(3) E→B→A→D→C
(4) D→B→E→A→C

27) If there are 16 chromosomes in each root cell of onion, then what will be the number of
chromosome in G1 phase and G2 phase respectively -

(1) 32 and 16
(2) 16 and 32
(3) 16 and 16
(4) 32 and 32

28) Chromatin condensation and movement of duplicated centrosomes towards opposite pole can be
observed during-

(1) Prophase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Anaphase
(4) Telophase

29) Which of the following marks the start of metaphase?

(1) Completion of bivalent chromosome formation

(2) Assemblage of microtubules of nucleoplasm
(3) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
(4) Duplication of chromosome

30) Identify the above figure with their respective events :-

(1) Prophase ⇒ condensation of chromatin start

(2) Telophase ⇒ Centromere split and chromatids separate
(3) Metaphase ⇒ Initiation of the assembly of mitotic spindle
Telophase ⇒ Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosomes clusters at each pole forming
(4)
two daughter nuclei

31) Microbodies are

(1) Minute vesicles
(2) Present in only animal cells
(3) Self duplicating organelles
(4) Double membrane bound structure

32) Statement I : The stage between the two meiotic divisions is called interkinesis.
Statement II : Interkinesis is followed by prophase II.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.

33) Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

(A) Prophase – I (i) Appearance of recombination nodules.

(B) Metaphase – II (ii) Splitting of centromere

(C) Anaphase – II (iii) Chromosomes align at the equator

Bivalents chromosomes align on the

(D) Metaphase – I (iv)
equatorial plate
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

34) In meiosis crossing over is initiated at

(1) Lepotene
(2) Zygotene
(3) Diplotene
(4) Pachytene

35) Zygotene is important because of

(1) Formation of synaptonemal complex

(2) Marked by terminalisation of chiasmata
(3) Chiasmata formation
(4) Chromosomes not start pairing together

SECTION-2

1) Assertion : Cell is the fundamental, structural and functional unit of all living organisms.
Reason : The cytoplasm is the main arena of cellular activities in both the plants and animal cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Animal cell is delimiting by -

(1) Tonoplast
(2) Cell wall
(3) cytoplasm
(4) Plasma membrane

3) Identify the following A, B, C, D and choose correct option :

(1) A-Red blood cell, B-White blood cell, C-Mesophyll cells, D-Columnar epithelium
(2) A-White blood cell, B-Red blood cell, C-Columnar epithelium, D-Mesophyll cells
(3) A-Columnar epithelium, B-Mesophyll cells, C-Red blood cell, D-White blood cell
(4) A-Red blood cell, B-White blood cell, C-Columnar epithelium, D-Mesophyll cells

4) Assertion: Ribosomes are found in all cells i.e. in both eukaryotic as well as prokaryotic cells.
Reason: Ribosomes are non membrane bound cell organelles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Assertion (A) : The ribosomes of a polysome translate the mRNA into proteins.
Reason (R) : Reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of
inclusion bodies.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
6) What is true for cell membrane ?

(1) Proteins not present on peripheri

(2) Percentage of carbohydrates is higher than proteins.
The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables the lateral movement of proteins within the overall
(3)
bilayer.
(4) The membrane of the human RBCs has approximately 52 percent protein and 48 percent lipids.

7) Statement I : Non-polar tail of saturated hydrocarbons is protected from the aqueous

environment.
Statement II : Lipids are arranged within the cell membrane with the hydrophobic tails towards the
inner part.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only statement II is correct
(3) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(4) Both statements I and II are correct

8) The middle lamella is :

(1) A layer mainly of Ca pectate which glues the different neighbouring cells together
(2) A layer which holds the different neighbouring cells together
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) A structure which connects the cytolplasm of neighbouring cell

9) Assertion : Mitochondria, chloroplast and peroxisome are not a part of endomembrane system.
Reason : Mitochondria, Chloroplast and Peroxisome are not coordinated with the ER, golgi complex,
lysosome and vacuoles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

10) Both the cilium and flagellum emerge from ______like structure called the basal body.

(1) Kinetochore
(2) Satellite
(3) Centriole
(4) Telomere

11) Following are the sketch given in figure below are belong in meosis :-
Choose the correct sequence of diagram from the options given below :-

(1) D→B→E→C→A
(2) A→D→E→C→B
(3) A→E→D→C→B
(4) A→C→E→D→B

12) The phase of a cell cycle in which cell does not proliferate but remains metabolically active is
called

(1) G0 phase
(2) Synthesis phase
(3) Resting phase
(4) Gap1 phase

13) Select the characteristic key events of Anaphase

a. Spindle fibre attach to the kinetochore of chromosome.
b. Centromere splits and chromatids are separated.
c. Chromosomal material condenses to form compact mitotic chromosomes.
d. Separated chromatids moves to opposite poles.

(1) a and c only

(2) a and b only
(3) b and d only
(4) c and d only

14) The beginning of diplotene is recognized by:

(1) Appearance of recombination nodules

(2) Crossing over
(3) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex
(4) Appearance of chiasmata

15) Significance of meiosis lies in

(1) Reduction of chromosome number by half.

Conservation of specific chromosome number of each species is achieved across generations in
(2)
sexually reproducing organisms
(3) Increase the genetic variability
(4) All of the above
 ZOOLOGY

SECTION-1

1) Glycogen is -

(1) Polymer of amino acids

(2) Polymer of fatty acids
(3) Unsaturated fats
(4) Polymer of glucose

2) Read the following given statements and select the correct option w.r.t. lipids.
Statement A: Lipids are generally water insoluble.
Statement B : Oils have lower melting point than ghee.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Both statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

3) Assertion (A) : Starch is a polymer of glucose.

Reason (R) : It is made of several glucose units.

(1) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) If A is true, but R is false
(4) If A is false, but R is true

4) Which of the following is not strictly a biomacromolecule?

(1) Proteins
(2) Lipids
(3) Polysaccharides
(4) Nucleic acid

5) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Starch gives blue colour with iodine
Statement-II : Starch forms helical tertiary structure which can hold I2 molecule.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answers from the options given below :

(1) Statement-I is true while II is false

(2) Statement-I is false while II is true
(3) Statement-I and II both are true
(4) Statement-I and II both are false
6) How many total carbons are found in palmitic acid?

(1) 15
(2) 16
(3) 17
(4) 18

7) Lipids are extracted with acid insoluble fraction because

(1) Its molecular weight is less than 800 Da

(2) It form vesicles which are not water soluble
(3) It is polymer
(4) It is not a polymer

8) Palmitic acid is an example of :–

(1) Essential amino acid

(2) Non essential amino acid
(3) Saturated fatty acid
(4) Unsaturated fatty acid

9) Which of the following is a monomer of chitin?

(1) N-Acetyl glucosamine

(2) N-Acetyl galactosamine
(3) β- 1,2 fructose
(4) α-1,4galactose

10)

Cholesterol belongs to -

(1) Enzyme
(2) Carbohydrate
(3) Lipid
(4) Protein

11) Choose a correct statement w.r.t. glycerol–

(1) It's a fatty acid that has a carboxyl group attached to a methyl group
(2) It is an ester of three fatty acids and alcohol
(3) It is also known as trihydroxypropane
(4) It is a simple unsaturated fatty acid with three double bonds

12) Which of following characteristics hold true for glycogen?

(1) Unbranched
(2) Structural polysaccharide of plants
(3) Right end is reducing
(4) Give blue colour with I2.

13) Select the statement which holds true for lipids.

(1) Arachidonic acid has 20C excluding carboxyl carbon.

(2) Palmitic acids has 18C carbon excluding carboxyl carbon.
(3) Gingelly oil have lower melting point
(4) None of these

14) Skeletal muscles are

(1) Involuntary muscles

(2) Smooth in appearance
(3) Striated in appearance
(4) Both 1 and 2

15) In this tissue, fibres & fibroblasts are compactly packed.

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Areolar connective tissue
(3) Dense connective tissue
(4) Specialized connective tissue

16) Consider the following statemens (i) - (iii) each with one or two blanks.
(i) Bones have a hard and non-pliable grounds substance rich in _(1)_ and (2) which give bone is
strength.
(ii) Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are called (3)
epithelium.
(iii) (4) junctions help to stop substance from leaking across a tissue.
Which one of the following options, gives the correct fill ups for the respective blanks from (1) to (4)
in the statements ?

(1) (3)-glandular, (4) Tight

(1)-calcium salts, (2)-collagen fiber,
(2)
(3)-glandular (4)-Excetory
(3) (3)-glandular, (4)-Adhering
(1)-magnesium satls, (2)-elastic fibres,
(4)
(3)-compound

17) Tendon is an example of which of the following connective tissue?

(1) Loose connective tissue

(2) Dense connective tissue
(3) Specialised connective tissue
(4) All of the above
18)

Which tissue is associated with filtration and diffusion ?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) All of these

19) In Endocrine glands-

(1) Duct is absent

(2) Duct is Present
(3) Both endocrine & exocrine parts are present
(4) None of the above

20) Which epithelium is found in the lining of intestine and help in secretion and absorption ?

(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium with microvilli
(3) Columnar epithelium with microvilli
(4) Columnar epithelium without microvilli

21) The ciliated columnar epithelial cells in humans are known to occur in :-

(1) Bile duct and oesophagus

(2) Bronchioles and fallopian tube
(3) Fallopian tube and urethra
(4) Renal pelvis and stomach

22)

The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and
function :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
 Tissue Location Function
Glandular
(1) (B) Intestine Secretion
epithelium
Attach
Collagen skeletal
(2) (C) Cartilage
fibres muscles to
bones
Smooth Heart
(3) (D) Heart
muscle tissue contraction
Secretion
Columnar
(4) (A) Nephron and
epithelium
absorption
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

23) Walls of blood vessels, Air sacs of lungs contain ____ :-

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(3) Simple columnar epithelium
(4) Compound epithelium

24) Salivary gland is an example of :-

(1) Exocrine gland

(2) Endocrine gland
(3) Mixed gland
(4) Holocrine gland

25) The function of the gap junction is to :

(1) stop substance from leaking across a tissue

(2) performing cementing to keep neighbouring cells together
Facilitate communication between adjoining cells by connecting the cytoplasm for rapid transfer
(3)
of ions, small molecules and some large molecules
(4) separate two cells from each other.

26) Assertion: Ligaments attach skeletal muscles to bones.

Reason: Tendons attach one bone to another.

(1) Assertion is true and Reason is false

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
27)

The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of :

(1) Bone
(2) Cartilage
(3) Ligament
(4) Areolar tissue

28) Which of the following is made up of cube like cells?

(1) Epithelium of fallopian tubes

(2) Epithelium of PCT
(3) Epithelium of stomach
(4) Epithelium of alveoli

29) Which tissue links and supports other tissues/organs of the body?

(1) Epithelial tissue

(2) Connective tissue
(3) Neural tissue
(4) All of these

30) Which of the following is not secreted by exocrine glands?

(1) Earwax
(2) Oil
(3) Milk
(4) None of these

31) Which of the following is unicellular glandular epithelium?

(1) Salivary gland

(2) Islets of langerhan’s
(3) Goblet cells
(4) All of these

32) Long slender cells with basal nuclei are found in

(1) Cuboidal epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Squamous epithelium
(4) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium

33)

A connective tissue in which loose matrix is present, below the skin, the cells are specialised to store
fat is called

(1) Adipose tissue

(2) Areolar tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

34)

Structural polysaccharide among following is

(1) Cellulose
(2) Glycogen
(3) Starch
(4) Inulin

35) Assertion : Connective tissue are the most abundant tissue in complex animals.
Reason : It connects different body parts, tissues and organs.

(1) Assertion is true but the reason is false

(2) Assertion is fales but reason is true
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion
(4) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion

SECTION-2

1) The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below represent four different types of animal tissues.
Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given along with its correct location and

function : Tissue Location Function

(1) B–Tissue-Areolar Tissue, Location-Skin, Function-Secretion

(2) D–Tissue-Bone, Location-Tip of nose, Function-support
A–Tissue-Compound epithelium,
(3)
Location-Skin, Function-Protection
 C–Tissue-Dense irregular Tissue, Location-Tendon,
(4)
Function-Connect Bone to muscle

2)

A six carbon sugar with aldehyde group is

(1) Ribose
(2) Deoxyribose
(3) Fructose
(4) Glucose

3) The product of endocrine glands

(1) Milk
(2) Digestive juices
(3) Saliva
(4) Hormones

4) Cotton fibres are made up of

(1) Cellulose
(2) Glycogen
(3) Chitin
(4) Starch

5) Identify the given structure and select the correct option.

(1) It is a component of DNA

(2) It is an example of hexose sugar
(3) It is component of RNA
(4) It is an acidic amino acid

6)

Identify the molecule given below with their respective statement:-

(1) Lecithin - Present in cytoplasm
(2) Cephalin - Present in blood
(3) Fatty acid - Present in ribosome
(4) Lecithin - Present in cell membrane

7) It serves as a support framework for epithelium. It contains fibroblast, macrophages and mast
cells. It is known as.

(1) Dense regular tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense irregular tissue
(4) Areolar tissue

8) Select the correct match based on graph given

(1) A - Proteins
(2) E - Lipids
(3) B - Nucleic acids
(4) C - Ions

9) Select the correct statement about a Adipose connective tissue:-

(1) It is a type of dense connective tissue

(2) Mostly found beneath the skin
(3) It forms a shock-absorbing cushion
(4) Both (2) & (3)

10) Which of the following tissue has a free surface?

(1) Connective tissue

(2) Muscular tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Neural tissue

11) Assertion (A) : The epithelium lining the body cavities, ducts and tubes is call simple
epithelium
Reason (R) : It is composed of a single layer of cells

(1) Both A and R are correct and R explains A

(2) Both A and R are correct and R can not explain A
(3) Only A is correct
(4) Only R is correct

12) Mark the odd one :-

(1) RBC
(2) WBC
(3) Platelets
(4) Cartilage

13) Statement I - Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion and are
called glandular epithelium :
Statement II - On the basis of location, glands are divided into two categories namely exocrine and
endocrine glands.

(1) Both statements are true

(2) Both statements are false
(3) Only statement I is true
(4) Only statement II is true

14) Which one of the following is a non-reducing carbohydrate ?

(1) Maltose
(2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose
(4) Ribose

15) Main source of energy in Animal Body are-

(1) Proteins
(2) Carbohydrates
(3) Nucleic acids
(4) Fats
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 4 2 1 3 3 3 4 1 3 3 2 1 3 1 2 1 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 4 3 4 3 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 3 1

SECTION-2

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 1 4 2 3 1 2 4 4 1 3 4 3 4 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 3 1 1 4 4 2 1 1 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 2 1 3 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 1 4 2 2 1 1 3 2 3 4 1 3 4 1

SECTION-2

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 1 2 3 1 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 2 1

BOTANY

SECTION-1

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 3 2 2 4 4 3 2 4 4 4 4 1 4 3 4 1 1 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 3 2 4 1 4 3 1 3 4 1 1 4 4 1

SECTION-2

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 4 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 1 1 3 3 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-1

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 1 2 1 2 2 3 1 3 3 3 3 3 3 1 2 1 1 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 1 1 1 3 3 2 2 2 4 3 2 1 1 3

SECTION-2

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 4 4 1 2 4 4 2 4 3 1 4 3 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

Minimum value is

3)

% error in volume = 3 × % error in radius.

4)

L.C. = M.S.D. – V.S.D.

L.C. = 1 mm – × 1 mm

L.C. = mm = 0.1 mm
Reading of diameter = M.S.R. + (L.C.) (V.S.R.)
= 20 + (0.1) (5)
= 20.5 mm

6)

7) ⇒ = [L'T–4]

11)

since 6.67 is more than 5 so power of 10 must be increased by 1

12) S1 = S12 ⇒ S1
st th st
upward = S6
th
downward

S7 = S1 downward
th st

So,

17) s = kt3 (k = constant)

∴v=
 ∴a=

18)

Given = 0.25 m/s and r =

Area, A = πr2

= (0.25) = 2 m2/s

20)

The area under the acceleration-time graph gives change in velocity. Since, particle starts with u =0,

therefore change in velocity = vƒ – vi = vmax – 0 = area under a – t graph = × 10 × 11 = 55 m/s.

21)

(1 + 0.01)5 = 1 + 5(0.01)
= 1.05

24)

28) H = 25 +

30)

31)

[β] = [t]
[β] = [T] --- (1)
[α] = [MLT–1] --- (2)
∴ [αβ] = [MLT–1T]
0
= [MLT ]

33)

u = 72 km/hr = 20 m/s
v=0
s = 20 m
v2 = u2 + 2as
0 = 400 + 2a × 200
a = –1m/s2, so retardation = 1 m/s2

35) slope of straight line =

slope of straight line =

37)

...(i)

...(ii)

(ii) – (i) =

By (i)

41)

(n + 1) divisions of verneir scale = n divisions of main scale

1 VSD =
Leastcount = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

= 1 MSD – MSD

42)
 45) No. of observation

48) S = gt2
not depends on initial speed.

49)

In 7.845, the preceeding digit is even, it becomes 7.84

In 7.835, the preceeding digit is odd, it becomes 7.84

50) As v2 = u2 – 2as ⇒ u2 = 2as ( v = 0)

⇒ u2 ∝ s ⇒

⇒ u2 =

CHEMISTRY

61) 6.02 × 1021 molecules = 3 × 6.023 × 1021 atoms

22.4 L CO2 at STP = 3 × 6.023 × 1023 atoms

0.44 g CO2 =
= 3 × 6.02 × 1020 atoms

88 mg CO2 =
= 6 × 6.02 × 1020 atom

66) 41.6325 – 41.612 = 0.0205

S. f. = 2

80)
Fact

89)

[Old NCERT Page-61]

BOTANY

103)

NCERT Pg # 125

104) NCERT Pg. # 127

107)

NCERT Pg. # 129

108)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 128

109)

NCERT-XI, Page No. 126

111)

NCERT Page No. 132

112)

NCERT Pg # 132, 138

114)

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ZOOLOGY

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In a normal man 55 - 65% of energy is available in carbohydrate forms.