Rift Vlalley University Nekemte TVET College

Department of Pharmacy
Internal assessment for LEVEL IV pharmacy students

Instruction: Choose the best answer

1. For Asthma management Prednisolone is prescribed as 40mg BID for 5 day, then 40mg QD for 5
days, then 20mg QD for 11 days. If the available dose of prednisolone is 10mg, Calculate total

prednisone for 21 days?

A. 74

B. 62

C. 82

D .92

2. A physician prescribed PPF 800,000 IU injections IM/day for 7days for treatment of cellulitis. How
many vials should be dispensed for this patient if available strength of PPF is 4MIU?

A. 2
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 3
3. One of the following prescription information are used to adjusting of the dose of the drugs
A. Sex

B. Age

C. Address

D. Name

4. If the adult dose of a drug is 10mg.What is the dose for a child 8 years old using young’s rule?
A.2mg

B.5mg

C. 2.5mg

D.4mg

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5. The dose of ceftriaxone for treatment of meningitis is 100mg/Kg/ day in two divided dose. How
much of the ceftriaxone per dose should be given to a child who weighs 25Kg?

A. 1.25g

B. 2.5g

C. 0.125g

D. 0.25g

6. QOD means
A. every day

B. every six hour

C. every other day

D. Three times a day

7. hs means
A. in the mid night

B. at bed time

C. after meal

D. in the morning

8. QD means

A. every day

B. every six hour

C. every other day

D. Three times a day

9. A Doctor prescribed Amoxicillin 250mg/5ml suspension 1tsp tid for 10 day for one year
old child. if available strengths of Amoxicillin suspension is 125mg/5ml suspension How

many many ml should a child take per dose?

A.2.5ml

B. 10ml

C. 5ml

D.7.5ml

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 From the above question if the volume of one bottle of the Amoxicillin 125mg/5ml
10.
suspension is 100ml,how many dose will you dispense?

A. one bottle

B. two bottles

C. three bottles

D. four bottles

The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism of a drug is?

11.
A. Pharmacokinetics

B. Pharmacodynamics

C. Toxicology

D. oncology

What is the time at which drug starts to produce an effect?

12.
A. onset of action

B. duration of action

C. termination of action

D. half life

The fraction of drug that reach systemic circulation is

13.
A.distribution

B. Bioavailability

C. metabolism

D. absorption

Biotransformation of the drug is __________

14.
A. distribution

B. Bioavailability

C. metabolism

D. absorption

A drug that bind to receptor but does not produce a response is ______
15.
A. Agonist

B. Chemical

C. antagonist

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 D. Synergistic

Which type of Interaction happened between tetracycline and Ferrous sulfate

16.
when taken together?

A. Pharmacodynamic drug interaction

B. Pharmacokinetic drug interaction

C. Drug- food interaction

D. Drug- herb interaction

Which type of interaction occurs When two drug taken together and the effect of
17.
their combination is greater than the sum of effect of the individual drug?

A. Pharmacodynamic drug interaction

B. Pharmacokinetic drug interaction

C. Drug- food interaction

D. Drug- herb interaction

Which of the following drug is cholinergic agonist?

18.
A. salbutamol

B. Hyoscine

C. Pilocarpine

D. adrenalin

Which of the following drug is short acting selective beta 2 agonist?

19.
A. salbutamol

B. metoprolol

C. Pilocarpine

D. adrenalin

Which of the following is loop diuretic?

20.
A. Spironolactone

B. Furosemide

C. Hydrochlorothiazide

D. Acetazolamide

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 Which of the following is not common side effect of ACEI such as enalapril?
21.
A. angioedema

B. dry cough

C. ototoxicity

D. Hyperkalemia

Which of the following drug is direct vasodilator?

22.
A. Hydralazine

B. Hydrochlorothiazide

C. lisinopril

D. Candesartan

Which of the following drug act by competitive inhibition of the enzyme 3-

23.
hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A reductase (HMG CoA reductase)

A. Simvastatin

B. Lovastatin

C. Atorvastatin

D. all

Which of the following drug is coagulant?

24.
A. Warfarin

B. Heparin

C.Vitamin K

D. Asprin

Which of the following is class I (one) antiarrthmial drug?

25.
A. Digoxin

B. Amiadarone

C. Propranolol

D. quinidine

Which diuretic cause hypokalemia and ototoxicity as side effect?

26.
A. Spironolactone

B. Furosemide

C. Hydrochlorothiazide

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 D. mannitol

From the following drug which should be taken before meal?

27.
A. cimetidine

B. Ibuprofen

C. Asprin

D. Omeprazole

Absorption of the following drug is decreased when taken with Antacid Except
28.
one drug? A. tetracycline

B. Fluoroquinolone

C. itriconazole

D. Amoxicillin

Which is the most widely used drugs for chemotherapy-induced emesis?

29.
A. Ondanseron

B. Metoclopramide

C. Promethazine

D. Chlorpromazine

If toxic substance is ingested or drug overdose is recently taken which drug

30.
should be taken? A. Antiemetic

B. emetics

C. antiviral

D. antihypertensive

Which of the following drug are NOT beta lactam antibiotics?

31.
A. Vancomycin

B. Penicillin

C. Cephalosporin

D. Carbapenam

When you dispense Cloxacillin capsule what do you advice the patient?
32.
A. To take immediately after food

B. To take one hour before food

C. to drink high volume of water

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 D. To take thirty minutes after food

When antacid prescribed with ciprofloxacin what do you advice the patient?
33.
A. Not to drink high volume of water

B. To take by making at least two hour time gap

C. to take at the same time

D. not to eat food

When you dispense oral cotrimoxazole what do you advice the patient?
34.
A. Not to drink high volume of water

B. to drink high volume of water

C. To take fatty food

D. not to eat food

35. Which antibicterial agent causes aplastic anemia?

A. Chloramphenicol

B. Ciprofloxacin

C. Amocixillin

D. ceftriaxon

36. From the following antibiotics which one is NOT categorized under macrolide?

A. Erythromycin

B. Azithromycin

C. Clindamycin

D. Clarithromycin

37. Which of the following is true about aminoglycosides?

A. They are antivirals

B. Ciprofloxacin is Aminoglycoside

C. They can cause side effect such as nephrotoxicity, neurotoxic and ototoxicity

D .Vancomycin is aminoglycoside

38. Which of the following conditions increases absorption of griseofulvin?

A. Taking before food

B. Drinking high volume of water

C. Taking at night

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 D. taking with fatty food

39. Which of the following drug is used for treatment of disease caused by herpes simplex,

herpes zoster and varicella zoster?

A. Dolutegravir

B. Acyclovir

C.Nevirapin

D. Amantadine

40. What is the most common side effect of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor?

A. Lactic acidosis

B. Rashes

C. metabolic abnormality

D.CNS disturbance

41. Why small dose of ritonavir is combined with other protease inhibitor?

A. to get synergistic effect

B. to decrease metabolism of other protease inhibitors

C. to decrease side effect

D. to provide additive effect

42. Which the following ARV drug is integrase inhibitor?

A. Ritonavir

B. Efavirenz

C. tenofovir

D. Dolutegravir

43. from the following which is not component of drug management cycle?

A. selection

B. procurement

C. disposal

D. Distribution

44. If Stock on hand of Cephalexin is 10,000 capsule and AMC is 5000 capsule what is its months of stock?

A. two

B. twenty

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 C. three

D. four

45. In VEN analysis drug that are used for treatment of common health problem around health

facility is categorized as

A. vital

B. Essential

C. non-essential

D .none

46. In ABC analysis drug that consume most of annual drug budget (70-80 % of total budget) is

categorized as

A. Category A

B. Category B

C. Category C

D. Category D

47. Which of the following is correctly matched concerning stock records?

A. Bin card and stock card =transaction record

B. IFRR and RRF = stock keeping record

C. Daily dispensing register =consumption record

D. model 19 and model 22 = stock keeping record

48. Which of the following is true about bincard?

A. it is used at health post, health center and hospitals

B. it gives as information about the price

C. it is handled by pharmacy head or pharmacy clerk.

D. it has information about location of products

49.
Which is a solution instilled into body cavity?

A. ear drop
B. Elixir
C. Linctus
D. syrup

50. Which test is intended to detect incompletely sealed ampules of parenteral product?

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A. leaker test
B. Clarity test
C. Sterility test
D. Pyrogen test
51. Which of the followings is liquid dosage form?
A. tablet
B. capsule
C. powder
D. tincture
52. Which is the mixture of two immiscible liquid?
A. Solution
B. Emulsion
C. suspension
D. ointment
53. Which dosage form contains liquid drug is filled in the gelatin capsule?

A. Hard gelatin Capsule

B. B. Granules
C. Tablet
D. soft gelatin capsule

54. Which ethical principle is to avoid causing deliberate harm, risk of harm and harm?
A. Beneficence

B. Autonomy

C. non maleficence

D. justice

55. Among the following which one is pressurized dosage form?

A. Soft gelatin capsule

B. Aerosols
C. granules
D. capsule

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56. Tablet placed under the tongue is___

A. Chewable

B. buccal

C. Sublingual

D. effervescent

57. Solid medicated preparation designed for insertion into the vagina is_________

A. suppository
B. Pessary
C. Enema
D. douche

58. Which system sets priorities for drug selection and drug procurement according
to the potential health impact of individual drugs?

A. ABC

B. VEN

C. Consumption

D. Morbidity

59. In VEN system which group of drugs is potentially lifesaving?

A. Vital drugs
B. Essen drugs
C. Normal usage drugs
D. Less essential; drugs
60. Concerning ABC analysis select wrong statement
A. It is a powerful tool in selection, procurement, management of
distribution, and use.
B. Class A item (10 to 20% of items, 75 to 80% percent of expenditures

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 C. Class B item are usually 10 to 20% of items and 15 to 20% of
expenditures
D. Class C items often are mostly high- volume, fast moving drugs.
61. In which purchasing model drugs are purchased once a year?
A. Annual purchasing
B. Scheduled purchasing
C. Perpetual purchasing
D. Continuous purchasing
62. Which not correct about key principles of good pharmaceutical
Procurement?
A. Procurement by brand names
B. Limitation of procurement by essential drug list, Formulary & treatment
guidelines
C. Procurement in bulk
D. Sole- source commitment
63. What are the quantities of usable stock available at a particular point in
time?
A. stock on hand
B. Average monthly consumption
C. Loss/adjustment
D. Lead time
64. Which of the following is the reason for positive adjustment?
A. transfer out
B. transfer in
C. expire
D. damage
65. Which of the following is true about bin card and stock card
A. Bin card includes cost
B. Stock card includes batch number
C. Both Bin card and stock card include expire date
D. Bin card include location

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66. Which record system is used in the issuing pharmaceuticals to dispensing
units within a health Centre or hospital?
A. RRF
B. IFRR
C. HPMR
D. bincard
67. If the calculated consumption of ceftriaxone at Nekemte Hospital is 2000
vials, ending balance in the store is 100 and ending balance in DU is 200 vials
and days of stock out is zero what is maximum stock level?
A. 4000Vials
B. 3700vials
C.3800Vial
D. 3900 vials
68. From above statement what is quantity of ceftriaxone needed to reach max?
A. 4000Vials

B. 3700vials

C.3800Vial

D. 3900 vials

69. Which of the following is true about Ethiopian IPLS?

A. Hospitals and health centers should have minimum 1 month of stock
B. Hospitals and health centers should have maximum 2 months of stock
C. Hospitals’ and health centers’ emergency order point is 0.25 month
D. Hospitals and health centers should have minimum 2 months of stock
70. If a hospital’s SOH of cephalexin 500mg capsule is 60box and AMC is 20box
what is months of stock?
A. 0.33
B.3

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 C.6
D. 2
71. From the above case what is the stock status of the hospital?
A. Below EOP
B. above maximum
C. it is ok
D. D. below minimum
72. Receiving voucher or model is?
A. Mosel 19
B. Model 22
C. Model 20
D. Model 21
73. What does near expire drug mean?
A. Drug with less than 6 months of shelf life
B. drugs with 75% remaining shelf life
C. Drug with less than 6 months of shelf life
D. BUD
74. Where do health posts get their supplies when they report using HPMR
monthly?
A. Hospital
B. Health Center
C. EPSS
D. Woreda Health office
75. Among the following which is not true about storage guide line?
A. Clean the storeroom regularly
B. Store pharmaceuticals in a dry, well-lit, well-ventilated storeroom – out of
direct sunlight
C. Store drugs in water penetration area
D. Keep fire safety equipment available, functional, and train employees to
use it
76. If instruction for storage says “Keep cool” the temperature should be stored

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 A. between 8°–15°C
B. should be frozen
C. between 15°–25°C
D. between 2°–8°C
77. Which is OTC drug?
A. diclofenac
B. pethidine
C. Amoxicillin
D. Enalapril
78. For pediatric patient weighing 22 pound a medication is to be given at 2.5
mg/kg/dose is prescribed, what is dose given at once?
A. 25 mg
B. 0.25 mg
C. 250mg
D. 0.025mg
79. If the dose of ceftriaxone for treatment of meningitis is 100mg/kg/day in two
divided dose for 5 days how many should be given per dose for 5kg child?
A.1250mg
B. 250mg
C. 0.25mg
D. 0.4mg

80. A patient needs 26 units of insulin in the morning and 14 units in the evening.
How many units will be administered per day?
A. 14units
B. 26units
C. 40 units
D. 60inits

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