CHAPTER PG

17: Electrostatics 2
18: Capacitance 31
19: Current Electricity 58
20: Magnetic Properties of Matter 85
21: Magnetic Effects of Current 107
22: Electromagnetic Induction 133
23: Alternating Current 159
24: Electromagnetic Waves 182
25: Ray Optics 196
26: Wave Optics 217
27: Dual Nature of Matter 238
28: Atomic Physics 261
29: Nuclear Physics 281
30: Semiconductors 294
Marks Premium DPPs - Physics (12th)

Electrostatics

Easy Questions

Question 1

A charge 'Q' μ C is placed at the centre of a cube. The flux through one face and two opposite faces of the
cube is respectively

A. A) 6ϵ0 μVm,
Q Q
3ϵ 0 μVm

B. B) 12ϵ0 μVm,
Q Q
ϵ 0 μVm

C. C) 6ϵ0 μVm,
Q Q
2ϵ 0 μVm

D. D) 12ϵ0 μVm,
Q Q
3ϵ 0 μVm

Question 2

A charge of 1μC is divided into two parts such that their charges are in the ratio of 2 : 3. These two
charges are kept at a distance 1 m apart in vacuum. Then, the electric force between them ( in N) is

A. A) 0.216
B. B) 0.00216
C. C) 0.0216
D. D) 2.16

Question 3

Three particles, each having a charge of 10μC are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side
10 cm. The electrostatic potential energy of the system is ( Given 4πε
1
0
= 9 × 10 9 N − m 2 C 2 )

A. A) Zero
B. B) ∞
C. C) 27 J
D. D) 100 J

Question 4

If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is ϕ 1 and ϕ 2 , the electric charge
inside the surface will be

A. A) (ϕ 2 − ϕ 1 )ε 0
B. B) (ϕ 1 + ϕ 2 )/ε 0
C. C) (ϕ 2 − ϕ 1 )/ε 0
D. D) (ϕ 1 + ϕ 2 )ε 0

Question 5

Choose the incorrect statement from the following.

A. A) The electric field in electrostatics obey principle of superposition

B. B) The electric field inside a perfect conductor is zero
C. C) The electric dipole will try to orient in a direction opposite to the external electric field
D. D) The electric flux passing through any closed surface enclosing the charges remains constant

Question 6

Shown in the figure are two point charges +Q and −Q inside the cavity of a spherical shell. The charges
are kept near the surface of the cavity on opposite sides of the centre of the shell. If σ 1 is the surface
charge on the inner surface and Q 1 net charge on it and σ 2 the surface charge on the outer surface and
Q 2 net charge on it then:

A. A) σ 1 = 0, Q 1 = 0 , σ 2 = 0, Q 2 = 0
B. B) σ 1 ≠ 0, Q 1 = 0 , σ 2 ≠ 0, Q 2 = 0
C. C) σ 1 ≠ 0, Q 1 ≠ 0 , σ 2 ≠ 0, Q 2 ≠ 0
D. D) σ 1 ≠ 0, Q 1 = 0 , σ 2 = 0, Q 2 = 0

Question 7

→
The flux of the electric field E = 24^i + 30^j + 28kNC
^ −1
through an area of 20 m 2 on the yz plane is

A. A) 480Nm 2 C −1
B. B) 600Nm C −1
2

C. C) 560Nm 2 C −1
D. D) 1640Nm 2 C −1

Question 8

Three charged particles A , B and C with charges −4q, 2q and −2q are present on the circumference of
a circle of radius d. The charged particles A, C and centre O of the circle formed an equilateral triangle as
shown in the figure. The electric field at the point O is
A. A) πε d2
√3q
0

B. B) πε d2
2√3q
0

C. C) 4πε d2
√3q
0

D. D) 4πε d2
3√3q
0

Question 9

The electric potential V is given as a function of distance ×( metre ) by V = (5x 2 + 10x − 4) volt.
Question: Value of electric field at x = 1 m is

A. A) −23 V/m
B. B) 11 V/m
C. C) 6 V/m
D. D) −20 V/m

Question 10

An infinite number of electric charges each equal to 5 nano-coulomb (magnitude) are placed along X-axis
at x = 1 cm, x = 2 cm, x = 4 cm, x = 8 cm. . .. and so on. In this set up if the consecutive charges
have opposite sign, then the electric field in newton/coulomb at x = 0 is :
1
( 4πε 0
= 9 × 10 9 N − m 2 /C 2 )

A. A) 12 × 10 4
B. B) 24 × 10
4

C. C) 36 × 10 4
D. D) 48 × 10 4

Question 11

Consider the following statement about electric field intensity and electric potential. A. The electric field
intensity due to a charged spherical shell is inversely proportional to square of its radius. B. The electric
potential due to a point charge is inversely proportional to the distance between charge and the point.

A. A) Both A and B are incorrect

B. B) Only B is correct
C. C) Only A is correct
D. D) Both A and B are correct

Question 12

The line AA ′ is on charged infinite A conducting plane which is perpendicular to the plane of the paper.
The plane has a surface density of charge σ and B is ball of mass m with a like charge of magnitude q. B
is connected by string from a point on the line AA ′ . The tangent of angle (0) formed between the line AA ′
and the string is

A. A) 2ε mg
qσ
0

B. B) 4πε mg
qσ
g

C. C) 2πe mg
qσ
0

D. D) ε mg
qσ
0

Question 13

→ at
A thin semi-circular ring of radius r has a positive charge q distributed uniformly over it. The net field E
the centre O is

A. A) 4π2 ε r2 ^
q
0
j
B. B) − 4π2 ε r2 ^
q
0
j
C. C) − 2π2 ε r2 ^
q
0
j
D. D) 2π2 ε r2 ^j
q
0

Question 14
' F ' is the force between the two identical charged particles placed at a distance ' Y ' from each other. If
the distance between the charges is reduced to half the previous distance, then force between them
becomes

A. A) F4
B. B) 4 F
C. C) 2 F
D. D) 2
F

Question 15

A few spherical equipotential surfaces are shown in the figure. The electric field at any point, at a distance
x from the centre, is

A. A) x2 perpendicular to the plane of paper

6

B. B) 600
x2
perpendicular to the plane of paper
C. C) x62 radially
D. D) 600
x2
radially

Question 16

Two points P and Q are maintained at the potentials of 10 V and −4 V respectively. The work done in
moving 100 electrons from P to Q is

A. A) −19 × 10
−17
J
B. B) 9.60 × 10 −17 J
C. C) −2.24 × 10 −16 J
D. D) 2.24 × 10
−16
J

Question 17

If 20 J of work has to be done to move an electric charge of 4 C from a point of potential 10 V to another
point of potential V , then the value of V is

A. A) 20 V
B. B) 30 V
C. C) 5 V
D. D) 15 V

Question 18

The work done in carrying a charge Q once around a circle of radius r about a charge q at the centre is

A. A) 4πε r
qQ
0

B. B) 4πε πr
qQ 1
0

C. C) 4πε ( 2πr
qQ 1
0
)
D. D) 0

Question 19

An electric dipole is formed by two equal and opposite charges q with separation d . The charges have
same mass m. It is kept in a uniform electric field E. If it is slightly rotated from its equilibrium orientation,
then its angular frequency ω is:

A. A) 2√ md
qE

B. B) √ md
2qE

C. C) √ 2md
qE

D. D) √ md
qE

Question 20

Three point charges 1C, −2C and −2C are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 1
metre. The work done by an external force to increase the separation of the charges to 2 metre in joule is (
ε 0 = permittivity of air)
A. A) 4πε
1
0

B. B) 8πε
1
0

C. C) 16πε
1
0

D. D) zero

Question 21

If a charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal charges Q such that the system is in
equilibrium then the value of q is

A. A) Q/2
B. B) −Q/2
C. C) Q/4
D. D) −Q/4

Question 22

If on combining two charged bodies, the current does not flow then
A. A) charge is equal on both
B. B) capacitance is equal on both
C. C) potential is equal on both
D. D) resistance is equal on both

Question 23

An electron of mass ' m ' and charge ' q ' is accelerated from rest in a uniform electric field of strength ' E '.
The velocity acquired by the electron when it travels a distance ' L ' is

A. A) √ mL
2qE

B. B) √ 2Em
qL

C. C) √ m
2qEL

D. D) √ mL
qE

Question 24

Charges Q, 2Q and −Q are given to three concentric conducting spherical shells A, B and C
respectively, as shown in the figure. The ratio of charges on the inner and outer surfaces of the shell C will
be ________. If your answer is K, mark absolute value of 2K as answer after rounding off to nearest
integer.

Question 25

The potential is varying with distance (x) as V = 12 (y 2 − 4x) volt. The electric field at x = 1 m and
y = 1 m is
A. A) 2^i + ^jVm
−1

B. B) −2^i + ^
jV m −1
C. C) 2^i − ^jVm
−1

D. D) −2^i + 2^jVm
−1

Question 26

A large metal plate has a surface charge density of 8. 85 × 10 −6 C m −2 . An electron having initial kinetic
energy of 8 × 10 J is moving towards the center of the plate. If the electron stops just before reaching
−17

the plate then the initial distance between the electron and the plate is [Take
ε 0 = 8. 85 × 10 −12 C 2 N m −2 ]
A. A) 0. 5 mm
B. B) 0. 1 mm
C. C) 0. 2 cm
D. D) 0. 02 cm

Question 27

The electric field and electric potential at a point due to a point charge are 500NC and 30 V
−1

respectively, then the magnitude of the charge is

A. A) 1.3 × 10 −9 C
B. B) 3 × 10
−12
C
C. C) 2 × 10 −10 C
D. D) 1.6 × 10 −20 C

Question 28

Two point charges +8q and −2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a point on
the x axis at which the net electric field due to these two point charges is zero is

A. A) 2 L
B. B) L/4
C. C) 8 L
D. D) 4 L

Question 29

If the linear charge density of a cylinder is 4μCm then electric field intensity at point 3.6 cm from axis is
−1

A. A) 4 × 10 5 NC
−1

B. B) 2 × 10 6 NC
−1

C. C) 8 × 10 7 NC
−1

D. D) 12 × 10 NC
7 −1

Question 30

A metal sphere of radius 'R' cm is charged with 4πμC situated in air. If ' σ ' is surface density of charge , 'E'
is electric intensity at a distance 'r' from the centre of sphere then 'r' is (ϵ 0 = permittivity of free space)

A. A) R√ 0σ
ϵ E

B. B) R√ ϵ0 E
σ

C. C) √ Rσ
0 ϵ E

D. D) √ ϵ E
Rσ
0

Moderate Questions
Question 31

→
The electric field intensity at all points in space is given by E = (√3ˆi − ˆj) Vm . The nature of
−1

equipotential lines in x − y plane, is shown by

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 32

Two thin spherical shells made of metal are at a large distance apart. One of radius 10 cm carries a
charge of +0.5 μC and the other of radius 20 cm carries a charge of +0.7 μC. The charge on each,
when they are connected by a suitable conducting wire is respectively

A. A) 0. 4 and 0.8 μC
B. B) +0.425 and +0.85 μC
C. C) +0.5 and +0.7 μC
D. D) +0.6 and +0.6 μC

Question 33

A conducting sphere S 1 of radius r 1 is connected by a conducting wire to another conducting sphere S 2 of

radius r 2 , where r 1 = 3 cm and r 2 = 2 cm. Before they are connected, s 1 carries charge of 10 units.
The electric potential at the point which is at a distance 4 cm from the centre of S 1 and a distance 3 cm
from the centre of S 2 is

A. A) 4πε 6
1 17
0

B. B) 4πε
1 3
0 2

C. C) 4πε 6
1 1
0

D. D) 4πε
1 17
0 12

Question 34

A spherical volume contains a uniformly distributed charge of density 1.0 × 10 −6 C/m 3 . Find the electrical
field (in N/C) at a point inside the volume at a distance 1 mm from the centre. ( Let
1
4πϵ 0 = 9 × 10 9 Nm 2 C −2 )

A. A) π8
B. B) 6π
C. C) π6
D. D) 12π

Question 35

A proton, a deutron and an α-particle having the same momentum, enters a region of uniform electric field
between the parallel plates of a capacitor. The electric field is perpendicular to the initial path of the
particles. Then the ratio of deflections suffered by them is

A. A) 1 : 2 : 8
B. B) 1 : 2 : 4
C. C) 1 : 1 : 2
D. D) None of these

Question 36

Which of the following set of characteristics of a material is suitable for using it as a dielectric in a
capacitor?

A. A) large dielectric constant and high dielectric strength

B. B) large dielectric constant and low dielectric strength
C. C) small dielectric constant and high dielectric strength
D. D) small dielectric constant and low dielectric strength
Question 37

A charged particle q is placed at the centre O of cube of length L (A B C D E F G H). Another same charge
q is placed at a distance L from O. Then the electric flux through ABCD is

A. A) q/4πϵ 0 L
B. B) zero
C. C) q/2πϵ 0 L
D. D) q/3πϵ 0 L

Question 38

Three charges −q 1 , +q 2 and −q 3 are placed as shown in the figure. The x-component of the force on
−q 1 is proportional to

A. A)
q2 q3
b2
− a2
cos θ
B. B)
q2 q3
b2
+ a2
sin θ
C. C)
q2 q3
b2
+ a2
cos θ
D. D)
q2 q3
b2
− a2
sin θ

Question 39

Two long coaxial and conducting cylinders of radius a and b are separated by a material of conductivity σ
and a constant potential difference V is maintained between them, by a battery. Then the current, per unit
length of the cylinder flowing from one cylinder to the other is -

A. A) ln(b/a)
4πσ
V
B. B) (b+a)
4πσ
V
C. C) ln(b/a)
2πσ
V
D. D) (b+a) V
2πσ

Question 40

→
An electric field E = 4xˆi − (y 2 + 1)ˆ
jN/C passes through the box shown in figure. The flux of the
electric field through surfaces ABCD and BCGF are marked as ϕ I and ϕ II respectively. The difference
between (ϕ I − ϕ II ) is (in Nm 2 /C ) ____________.

Question 41

Two balls of same mass and carrying equal charge are hung from a fixed support of length l. At
electrostatic equilibrium, assuming that angles made by each thread is small, the separation, x between
the balls is proportional to :

A. A) l
B. B) l 2
C. C) l 2/3
D. D) l 1/3

Question 42

A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod AB of length L as shown in the figure. The electric
potential at the point O lying at a distance L from the end A is :

A. A) 4π∈ L ln 2
Q
0

B. B) 4π∈ L
Q ln 2
0

C. C) 8π∈0 L
Q

D. D) 4π∈0 L
3Q

Question 43

The electrostatic potential inside a charged sphere is given as V = Ar 2 + B, where r is the distance from
the centre of the sphere, A and B are constants. Then, the charge density in the sphere is

A. A) 16Aε 0
B. B) −6Aε 0
C. C) 20Aε 0
D. D) −15Aε 0

Question 44

This question contains Statement-1 and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements. Statement - 1: For a charged particle moving from
point P to point Q, the net work done by an electrostatic field on the particle is independent of the path
connecting point P to point Q. Statement-2: The net work done by a conservative force on an object
moving along a closed loop is zero

A. A) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false

B. B) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.
C. C) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
D. D) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true

Question 45

​A wheel having mass m has charges +q and −q on diametrically opposite points. It remains in equilibrium
on a rough inclined plane in the presence of a uniform vertical electric field E . The value of E is

A. A) q
mg

B. B) 2q
mg

C. C)
mgtanθ
2q
D. D) none

Question 46

In an uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as function of
distance from the centre. The graph which would correspond to the above will be

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 47

Two spherical conductors A and B of radii 1 mm and 2 mm are separated by a distance of 5 cm and are
uniformly charged. If the spheres are connected by a conducting wire then in equilibrium condition, the ratio
of the magnitude of the electric fields at the surface of spheres A and B is

A. A) 1 : 4
B. B) 4 : 1
C. C) 1 : 2
D. D) 2 : 1

Question 48

In a region, the potential is represented by V(x, y, z) = 6x − 8xy − 8y + 6yz, where V is in volts and
x, y, z are in metres. The electric force experienced by a charge of 2 coulomb situated at point (1,1,1) is :
A. A) 6√5 N
B. B) 30 N
C. C) 24 N

D. D) 4√35 N

Question 49

A body of mass 1 g and carrying a charge 10 C passes from two points P and Q. P and Q are at
−8

electric potentials. 600 V and 0 V, respectively. The velocity of the body at Q is 20cms −1 . It velocity in
ms −1 at P is
A. A) √0.028

B. B) √0.056
C. C) √0.56

D. D) √5.6

Question 50

Three point charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right-angled isosceles triangle as shown
in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, find the value of q is [Take
Q
√2 = 1 .4] If your answer is K, mark absolute value of 10K as answer after rounding off to nearest
integer.

Question 51

A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S which makes an angle θ with a large charged conducting sheet
P, as show in the figure. The surface charge density σ of the sheet is proportional to

A. A) cos θ
B. B) cot θ
C. C) sin θ
D. D) tan θ

Question 52

A charge +q is placed at the origin O of X − Y axes as shown in the figure. The work done in taking a
charge Q from A to B along the straight line AB is

A. A) 4πε ( a−b
qQ
0 ab
)
B. B) 4πε0 ( b−a
qQ
ab )

C. C) 4πε ( ab2 − 1b )
qQ
0

D. D) 4πε ( ba2 − 1b )
qQ
0

Question 53
Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of −1 × 10 −2 C and 5 × 10 −2 C,
respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is

A. A) 2 × 10 −2 C
B. B) 3 × 10
−2
C
C. C) 4 × 10 −2 C
D. D) 1 × 10 −2 C

Question 54

Two metal plates having a potential difference of 800 V are 2 cm apart. It is found that a particle of mass
1. 96 × 10 −15 kg remains suspended in the region between the plates. The charge on the particle must
be (e = elementary charge)

A. A) 2 e
B. B) 3 e
C. C) 6 e
D. D) 8 e

Question 55

In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as a function of
distance from the centre. The graph which would correspond to the above will be

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 56

Two identical charged spheres are suspended by strings of equal lengths. The strings make an angle of
30 ∘ with each other. When suspended in a liquid of density 0.8 g cm −3 , the angle remains the same. If
density of the material of the sphere is 16 g cm −3 , the dielectric constant of the liquid is

A. A) 4
B. B) 3
C. C) 2
D. D) 1

Question 57

A solid sphere of radius r 1 = 1 cm carries charge distributed uniformly over it with density
ρ 1 = −3C/cm 3 . It is surrounded by a concentric spherical shell of radius r 2 = 2 cm carrying uniform
charge density ρ 2 = 12 C/cm 2 . If E d denotes the magnitude of the electric field at distance d from the
common centre of the spheres, then

A. A) E d = 3ε1d2 , d ≤ 1 cm
0

B. B) E d = ε 1d2 , d ≤ 1 cm
0

C. C) E d = 3εd , d ≤ 1 cm
0

D. D) E d = εd , d ≤ 1 cm
0

Question 58

In the following figures, which figure represents the variation of the electric field with distance from the
centre of a uniformly charged non-conducting spheres of radius R ?

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 59

In a system used for spraying cars, a car body is positively charged. Neutral droplets of paint are then
attracted to the car because the positive car body induces a charge on the droplets of paint. Which diagram
best shows the charge pattern?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 60

If the dielectric constant of a substance K = 43 , then the electric susceptibility χ in terms of vacuum
permittivity ε 0 is

A. A) 30
ε

B. B) 3ε 0
C. C) 43 ε 0
D. D) 34 ε 0

Hard Questions

Question 61

A charged particle having charge q and mass m moves rectilinearly under the action of an electric field
E(x) = (4 –3x) N/C where x is the distance in metre from the point where the particle was initially at
rest. The distance travelled by the particle till it comes instantaneously to rest again for the first time, is

A. A) 23 m
B. B) 3 m
4

C. C) 2 m
D. D) 83 m

Question 62

A body of mass M and charge q is connected to a spring of spring constant k. It is oscillating along x-
direction about its equilibrium position, taken to be at x = 0, with an amplitude A. An electric field E is
applied along the x-direction. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. A) The total energy of the system is \frac{1}{2} m \omega^2 A^2+\frac{1}{2} \frac{q^2 E^2}{k}

B. B) The new equilibrium position is at a distance: from x = 0

2qE
k
C. C) The new equilibrium position is at a distance: from x = 0
qE
2k
D. D) The total energy of the system is 12 mω 2 A 2 − 12 k
q 2E 2

Question 63

The space between the two large parallel plates is filled with a material of uniform charge density ρ.
Assume that one of the plate is kept at x = 0. The potential at any point x between these plates is given
by ( A and B are constants).

A. A) − 2ϵ0
ρx 3

B. B) − ( 2ϵ + Ax)
ρx 2
0

C. C) − ( 2ϵ + Ax + B)
ρx 2
0

ρx 3
D. D) − ( 4ϵ0 + Ax 2 + Bx)

Question 64

This question has statement 1 and statement 2 . Of the four choices given after the statements, choose the
one that best describes the two statements. An insulating solid sphere of radius R has a uniformly positive
charge density ρ. As a result of this uniform charge distribution there is a finite value of electric potential at
the centre of the sphere, at the surface of the sphere and also at a point out side the sphere. The electric
potential at infinity is zero. Statement 1: When a charge q is taken from the centre to the surface of the
sphere, its potential energy changes by 3ε Statement 2: The electric field at a distance r(r < R) from
qp
0

the centre of the sphere is 3ε0

ρr

A. A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1.
B. B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false
C. C) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true
D. D) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1

Question 65

Two concentric hollow spherical shells have radii r and R(R ≫ r). A charge Q is distributed on them such
that the surface charge densities are equal. The electric potential at the centre is

A. A) 4πε (R2 +r2 )

Q(R+r)
0

Q(R 2 +r 2 )
B. B) 4πε (R+r)
0

C. C) (R+r)
Q
D. D) zero

Question 66

Assertion (A) Electromagnetic force is enormously strong as compared to gravitational force. Yet, gravity
dominates in the large-scale phenomena (e.g. formation of galaxies). Reason (R) Existence of positive
and negative charges make matter mostly electrically neutral. Which of the following is true?

A. A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 67

A non-conducting solid sphere has radius R and uniform charge density. A spherical cavity of radius 4 is
R

hollowed out of the sphere. The distance between center of sphere and center of cavity is R
2 . If the charge
of the sphere is Q after the creation of the cavity and the magnitude of electric field at the center of the
cavity is E = K ( 4π∈ R2 ), determined the approximate value of K .
Q
0

A. A) 0.32
B. B) 0.78
C. C) 0.51
D. D) 0.45

Question 68

The potential (in volts) of a charge distribution is given by

V(z) = 30 − 5z 2 for |z| ≤ 1 m

V(z) = 35 − 10 |z| for |z| ≥ 1 m .

V(z) does not depend on x and y. If this potential is generated by a constant charge per unit volume ρ 0 (in
units of ϵ 0 ) which is spread over a certain region, then choose the correct statement.

A. A) ρ 0 = 20 ϵ 0 in the entire region

B. B) ρ 0 = 10 ϵ 0 for |z| ≤ 1 m and ρ 0 = 0 else where
C. C) ρ 0 = 20 ϵ 0 for |z| ≤ 1 m and ρ 0 = 0 else where
D. D) ρ 0 = 40 ϵ 0 in the entire region

Question 69

Two positive ions, each carrying a charge ' q ' are separated by a distance ' d '. If ' F ' is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons from each ion will be (e = charge on electron, ε 0 =
permittivity of free space)

A. A) √
4πε 0 d 2
e2
B. B) √
4πε 0 Fd
e2

C. C) √
4πε 0 Fd
e

D. D) √ 4πεe02Fd
2

Question 70

Three isolated metal spheres A, B, C have radius R, 2R, 3R respectively, and the same charge, Q. U A , U B
and U C be the energy density just outside the surface of the spheres. The relation between U A, U B and
U C is
A. A) U A > U B < U C
B. B) U A > U B > U C
C. C) U A < U B < U C
D. D) U A < U B > U C

Question 71

Two small equal point charges of magnitude q are suspended from a common point on the ceiling by
insulating mass less strings of equal lengths. They come to equilibrium with each string making angle θ
from the vertical. If the mass of each charge is m, then the electrostatic potential at the centre of line
joining them will be \left(\frac{1}{4 \pi \in_0}=k\right) \text {. }

A. A) 2√kmg tan θ

B. B) √kmg tan θ

C. C) 4√kmg/ tan θ

D. D) 4√kmg/ tan θ

Question 72

A hollow spherical shell of radius r has a uniform charge density σ. It is kept in a cube of edge 3r such that
the centres of the cube and the shell coincide. Then the electric flux coming out of one face of a cube is (
ε 0 - permittivity of free space)
A. A) πrε σ
2

B. B)
5ε 0
2πr 2 σ
C. C)
πr 2 σ
6ε 0

D. D) 2πr
2
σ
3ε 0

Question 73

A spherical drop of liquid carrying charge, Q has potential V 0 at its surface. If two drops of same charge
and radius combine to form a single spherical drop, then the potential at the surface of new drop is
(Assume, V = 0 at infinity.)

A. A) 2 3 V 0
1

B. B) 4 3 V 0
1
C. C) 6 3 V 0
1

D. D) 2
−1
3 V0

Question 74

The minimum velocity v with which charge q should be projected so that it manages to reach the centre of
the ring starting from the position shown in figure is

A. A) v = √ mR (2 − √2)
kQq

B. B) v = √ 2mR (2 − √2)
kQq

C. C) v = √ mR
kQq

D. D) v = √
kQq
(1 − √2)
√2mR

Question 75

In a cuboid of dimension 2 L × 2 L × L, a charge q is placed at the centre of the surface ' S ' having area
of 4 L 2 . The flux through the opposite surface to ' S ' is given by

A. A) 12ε
q
0

B. B) 3ε
q
0

C. C) 2ε0
q

D. D) 6ε
q
0

Question 76

Paragraph: The nuclear charge (Ze) is non-uniformly distributed within a nucleus of radius R. The charge
density ρ(r) [charge per unit volume] is dependent only on the radial distance r from the centre of the
nucleus as shown in figure. The electric field is only along the radial direction.
Question: The electric field at r = R is
A. A) independent of a
B. B) directly proportional to a
C. C) directly proportional to a 2
D. D) inversely proportional to a

Question 77

An infinitely long solid cylinder of radius R with uniform volume charge density ρ has a spherical cavity of
radius 2 with its centre on the axis of the cylinder as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the electric
R

field at a point P which is at a distance 2R from the axis of the cylinder is given by 6Kε . What is the value
23ρR
0

of K ?

Question 78

A disk of radius a4 having a uniformly distributed charge 6C is placed in the x − y plane with its centre at

2 , 0, 0). A rod of length a carrying a uniformly distributed charge 8C is placed on the x-axis from
( −a
x = a4 to x = 5a 4 . Two point charges −7C and 3C are placed at ( 4 , 4 , 0) and ( 4 , 4 , 0),
a −a −3a 3a

respectively. Consider a cubical surface formed by six surfaces x = ± a2 , y = ± a2 , z = ± a2 . The electric

flux through this cubical surface is

A. A)
−2C
ε0
B. B) 2C
ε0
C. C) 10C
ε0
D. D) 12C
ε0

Question 79

A spherical conducting shell of inner radius ' r 1 ' and outer radius ' r 2 ' has a charge ' Q '. A charge −q is
placed at the center of the shell. The surface charge density on the inner and outer surface of the shell will
be

A. A) 4πr2 and 4πr2

q Q−q
1 2

B. B) and 4πr2
q Q
4πr 21 2

C. C) 4πr2 and 4πr2

−q Q+q
1 2

D. D) zero and 4πr2

Q−q
2
Question 80

A spherically symmetric gravitational system of particles has a mass density ρ = { where

ρ0 for r ≤ R
0 for r > R
r 0 is a constant. A test mass can undergo circular motion under the influence of the gravitational field of
particles. Its speed V as a function of distance \(r(0

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 81

Six point charges, each of the same magnitude q, are arranged in different manners as shown in Column-
II. In each case, a point M and a line P Q passing through M are shown. Let E be the electric field and V
be the electric potential at M (potential at infinity is zero) due to the given charge distribution when it is at
rest. Now, the whole system is set into rotation with a constant angular velocity about the line P Q. Let B
the magnetic field at M and μ be the magnetic moment of the system in this condition. Assume each
rotating charge to be equivalent to a steady current.
A. A) (A) q,t, (B) q,s, (C) p,q,t, (D) r,s,t
B. B) (A) q,r,s, (B) r,s, (C) p,r, (D) r,s,t
C. C) (A) p,r,s, (B) r,s, (C) p,q,t, (D) r,s
D. D) (A) p,r, (B) q,s, (C) p,r,t, (D) r,s

Question 82

A thin spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Which of the following
graphs most closely represents the electric field E(r) produced by the shell in the range 0 ≤ r < ∞,
where r is the distance from the centre of the shell?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 83
The surface charge density of a thin charged disc of radius R is σ. The value of the electric field at the
centre of the disc is 2∈
σ
0
. With respect to the field at the centre, the electric field along the axis at a
distance R from the centre of the disc:

A. A) reduces by 70.7%
B. B) reduces by 29.3%
C. C) reduces by 9.7%
D. D) reduces by 14.6%

Question 84

Column I gives certain situations in which a straight metallic wire of resistance R is used and Column II
gives some resulting effects. Match the statements in Column I with the statements in Column II and
indicate your answer by darkening appropriate bubbles in the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.

A. A) A-p, r; B-r; C-q; D-p, q

B. B) A-p; B-s; C-s; D-p, q
C. C) A-q; B-r, s; C-s; D-p, q, r
D. D) A-r, s; B-q; C-p; D-p, q, s

Question 85

Positive and negative point charges of equal magnitude are kept at (0, 0, a2 ) and (0, 0, −a
2
), respectively.
The work done by the electric field when another positive point charge is moved from (−a, 0, 0) to
(0, a, 0) is
A. A) positive
B. B) negative
C. C) zero
D. D) depends on the path connecting the initial and final positions

Question 86

A simple pendulum of length L is placed between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor having electric
field E , as shown in figure. Its bob has mass m and charge q . The time period of the pendulum is given
by:
A. A) 2π L
√√ 2
qE
g 2 +( m )

B. B) 2π√ L
qE
(g+ m )

C. C) 2π√ L
qE
(g− m
)

D. D) 2π L
√ √g 2 − q2 E2
m2

Question 87

A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting cylinder of larger
radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral.

A. A) a potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the inner
cylinder
B. B) a potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the outer
cylinder
C. C) no potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a uniform line charge is kept along
the axis of the cylinders
D. D) no potential difference appears between the two cylinders when same charge density is given to
both the cylinders

Question 88

Two charge metallic spheres are joined by a very thin metal wire. If the radius of the larger sphere is four
times that of the smaller sphere, the electric field near the larger sphere is

A. A) twice that near the smaller sphere

B. B) quarter of that near the smaller sphere
C. C) same as that near the smaller sphere
D. D) half of that near smaller sphere

Question 89

A neutral sphere of radius r and density ρ is placed in a uniform electric field E that exists on the earth's
surface in the vertically upward direction. If the atomic number and the mass number of the material of the
sphere are Z and A respectively, then the fraction of electrons that should be removed from the sphere for
it to remain in equilibrium is [Assume that the sphere is able to hold the necessary charge without any
leakage. Here N A -- Avogadro number]

A. A) n n = eEN Z
ρgA
total A

B. B) n n = πeEN Z
4gA
total A

C. C) ntotal
n gA
= eENA Z
D. D) ntotal = 3eENA Z
n πρgA
Question 90

A spherically symmetric charge distribution is characterised by a charge density having the following
variations: ρ(r) = ρ o (1 − R
r
) for r < R ρ(r) = 0 for r ≥ R Where r is the distance from the centre of
the charge distribution ρ o is a constant. The electric field at an internal point (r < R) is:

A. A) 4εoo ( 3r − 4R
ρ r 2
)

B. B) ε0 ( 3 − 4R )
ρ0 r r2

C. C) 3εo ( 3 − 4R )
ρo r r2

D. D) 12εo ( 3r − 4R
ρ 2
r
o
)

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q31 - C Q61 - D
Q2 - B Q32 - A Q62 - A
Q3 - C Q33 - A Q63 - C
Q4 - A Q34 - D Q64 - C
Q5 - C Q35 - A Q65 - A
Q6 - D Q36 - A Q66 - A
Q7 - A Q37 - B Q67 - C
Q8 - A Q38 - B Q68 - B
Q9 - D Q39 - C Q69 - D
Q10 - C Q40 - 48 (Num) Q70 - B
Q11 - B Q41 - D Q71 - C
Q12 - D Q42 - B Q72 - D
Q13 - C Q43 - B Q73 - B
Q14 - B Q44 - B Q74 - A
Q15 - C Q45 - B Q75 - D
Q16 - D Q46 - C Q76 - A
Q17 - D Q47 - D Q77 - 16.00 (Num)
Q18 - D Q48 - D Q78 - A
Q19 - B Q49 - A Q79 - A
Q20 - D Q50 - 6 (Num) Q80 - C
Q21 - D Q51 - D Q81 - C
Q22 - C Q52 - A Q82 - A
Q23 - C Q53 - B Q83 - A
Q24 - 3 (Num) Q54 - B Q84 - C
Q25 - C Q55 - C Q85 - C
Q26 - A Q56 - C Q86 - A
Q27 - C Q57 - D Q87 - A
 Q28 - A Q58 - C Q88 - B
Q29 - B Q59 - D Q89 - C
Q30 - B Q60 - A Q90 - B

Capacitance

Easy Questions

Question 1

Three capacitors 3μF, 6μF and 6μF are connected in aeries to a source of 120V. The potential
difference, in volt, across the 3μF capacitor will be

A. A) 24
B. B) 30
C. C) 40
D. D) 60

Question 2

When a capacitor is connected to a battery

A. A) an alternating current flow in the circuit

B. B) no current flow in the circuit
C. C) a current flow for sometime and finally it decreases to zero
D. D) current keeps on increasing and reaches maximum after sometime

Question 3

In the circuit given below, the charge in μC, on the capacitor having 5μF is

A. A) 4.5
B. B) 9
C. C) 7
D. D) 15

Question 4

The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge
Q and area A, is
A. A) proportional to the square to the root of the distance between the plates.
B. B) linearly proportional to be distance between the plates.
C. C) independent of the distance between the plates.
D. D) inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

Question 5

A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the charging battery. If the plates are now
moved further apart by pulling them by means of insulting handles, then

A. A) the capacitance of the capacitor increases

B. B) the voltage across the capacitor increases
C. C) the energy stored in the capacitor decreases
D. D) the charge on the capacitor decreases

Question 6

The charge on 4μF capacitor, in the given circuit is

A. A) 24μC
B. B) 100μC
C. C) 2.4μC
D. D) 30μC

Question 7

The capacity of parallel plate condenser is 5μF. When a glass plate is placed between the plates of the
condenser, its potential difference reduces to 1/8 of the original value. The magnitude of relative dielectric
constant of glass is

A. A) 4
B. B) 6
C. C) 7
D. D) 8

Question 8

A capacitor of capacitance C 1 charged up to V volt and then connected to an uncharged capacitor C 2 .

Then, the final potential difference across each will be:

A. A) C1 +C
2C V
2
B. B) C +C
C V
1
1 2

C. C) (1 + C21 )V
C

D. D) (1 − C21 )V
C

Question 9

When the capacitor is fully charged then find the current drawn from the cell.

A. A) 9 mA
B. B) 2 mA
C. C) 1 mA
D. D) 3 mA

Question 10

The distance between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled and the area of each plate is
halved. If C is its initial capacitance, its final capacitance is equal to:

A. A) 2C
B. B) C/2
C. C) 4C
D. D) C/4

Question 11

India's wheat yield revolution in the 1960s was possible primarily due to:

A. A) hybrid seeds
B. B) increased chlorophyll content
C. C) mutations resulting in plant height reduction
D. D) acquired trait mutations.

Question 12

Four capacitors of equal capacitance have an equivalent capacitance C 1 when connected in series and an
equivalent capacitance C 2 when connected in parallel. The ratio C1 is:
C
2

A. A) 1/4
B. B) 1/16
C. C) 1/8
D. D) 1/12

Question 13
Three capacitors C 1 = 1μF, C 2 = 2μF and C 3 = 3 μF are connected as shown in figure, then the
equivalent capacitance between points A and B is

A. A) 3μF
B. B) 4μF
C. C) 5μF
D. D) 6μF

Question 14

A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance
between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is

A. A) 12 ε 0 E 2
B. B) E 2 Ad/ε 0
C. C) 12 ε 0 E 2 Ad
D. D) ε 0 EAd

Question 15

The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure is:

A. A) 3C
B. B) C
2
C. C) 2C
D. D) 3C/2

Question 16

Equivalent capacitance between A and B in the figure is

A. A) 20μF
B. B) 8μF
C. C) 12μF
D. D) 16μF

Question 17

Three capacitors each of capacity 4μF are to be connected in such a way that the effective capacitance is
6μF. This can be done by:
A. A) connecting all of them in series
B. B) connecting them in parallel
C. C) connecting two in series and one in parallel
D. D) connecting two in parallel and one in series

Question 18

Find the voltage drop across a capacitor connected with a resistance and a battery of 60 V in series after a
long time.

A. A) 0 V
B. B) 60 V
C. C) 30 V
D. D) 38 V

Question 19

The work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10 −18 coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100 microfarad is

A. A) 3.1 × 10 −26 joule

B. B) 4 × 10 −10 joule
C. C) 32 × 10 −32 joule
D. D) 16 × 10 −32 joule

Question 20

A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then disconnected from the charging battery. If the plates are now
moved farther apart by pulling at them by means of insulating handles, then

A. A) the energy stored in the capacitor decreases

B. B) the capacitance of the capacitor increases
C. C) the charge on the capacitor decreases
D. D) the voltage across the capacitor increases

Question 21

12mC and 6mC charges are given to the two conducting plates having same cross-sectional area and
placed face to face close to each other as shown in the figure. The resulting charge distribution in mC on
surface A, B, C and D are respectively,
A. A) 9, 3, −3, 9
B. B) 3, 9, −9, 3
C. C) 6, 6, −6, 12
D. D) 6, 6, 3, 3

Question 22

In a parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates, the distance ' d ' between the plates is changed
and the space is filled with dielectric constant 8 . The capacity of the capacitor is increased 16 times, the
distance between the plates is

A. A) 2 d
B. B) 4 d
C. C) d2
D. D) d4

Question 23

Electric field inside the given capacitor with dielectric is E and dielectric constant of material is K . Find
charge density σ on the plates. (Given E = 6 × 10 5 V/m, K = 6 )

A. A) 18.3 × 10 −6 C/m 2
B. B) 8.1 × 10 −7 C/m 2
C. C) 3.18 × 10 −5 C/m 2
D. D) 3.18 × 10 −10 C/m 2

Question 24

The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with air as medium is 3μF. With the introduction of a dielectric
medium between the plates, the capacitance becomes 15 μF . The permittivity of the medium in SI unit is
[ϵ 0 = 8 ⋅ 85 × 10 −12 SI unit]
A. A) 15
B. B) 8.845 × 10 −11
C. C) 0.4425 × 10 −10
D. D) 44. 5
Question 25

The potential difference between two parallel plates is 10 4 V. If the plates are separated by 0.5 cm, the
force on an electron between the plates is

A. A) 32 × 10 −13 N
B. B) 0.32 × 10 −13 N
C. C) 0.032 × 10 −13 N
D. D) 3.2 × 10 −13 N

Question 26

If the potential of a capacitor having capacity 6μF is increased from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in its
energywill be

A. A) 4 × 10 −4 J
B. B) 4 × 10 −6 J
C. C) 9 × 10 −4 J
D. D) 12 × 10
−6
J

Question 27

A parallel plate capacitor with air medium between the plates has a capacitance of 10μF. The area of
capacitor is divided into two equal halves and filled with two media (as shown in figure) having dielectric
constant K 1 = 2 and K 2 = 4. The capacitance of the system will be

A. A) 10μF
B. B) 20μF
C. C) 30μF
D. D) 40μF

Question 28

If dielectric is inserted in charged capacitor (battery removed), then quantity that remains constant is

A. A) capacitance
B. B) potential
C. C) intensity
D. D) charge

Question 29

Assertion : The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is proportional to charge on it. Reason
: Electric force is equal to charge per unit area.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 30

The potential energy of charged parallel plate capacitor is v 0 . If a slab of dielectric constant K is inserted
between the plates, then the new potential energy will be

A. A) K0
v

B. B) v 0 K 2
C. C) K
v0
2

D. D) v 0 2

Moderate Questions

Question 31

A parallel plate capacitor of capacity C 0 is charged to a potential V 0 . (i) The energy stored in the capacitor
when the battery is disconnected and the plate separation is doubled is E 1 . (ii) The energy stored in the
capacitor when the charging battery is kept connected and the separation between the capacitor plates is
doubled is E 2 . Then, E 1 /E 2 value is:

A. A) 4
B. B) 3/2
C. C) 2
D. D) 1/2

Question 32

A 4μF capacitor is charged by a 200 V battery. It is then disconnected from the supply and is connected to
another uncharged 2μF capacitor. During the process, loss of energy (in J ) is

A. A) 3.43 × 10 −2
B. B) 2.67 × 10 −2
C. C) 2.67 × 10 −4
D. D) 3.43 × 10
−4

Question 33

Assume each oil drop consists of a capacitance of C . If combine n drops to form a bigger drop, then the
capacitance of bigger drop C ′ would be

A. A) C ′ = 2n3 C
1/3

B. B) C ′ = 5n4 C
1/3

C. C) C ′ = n5 C
1/3
D. D) C ′ = C ⋅ n 1/3

Question 34

When a capacitor is fully charged as shown in the following figure, then current drawn from the cell is

A. A) 1 mA
B. B) 0. 5 mA
C. C) 2 mA
D. D) 5 mA

Question 35

The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are charged upto 200 volts. A dielectirc slab of thickness 4 mm is
inserted between its plates. Then, to maintain the same potential difference between the plates of the
capacitor, the distance between the plates is increased by 3.2 mm. The dielectric constant of the dielectric
slab is

A. A) 1
B. B) 4
C. C) 5
D. D) 6

Question 36

A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance C . It is discharged through a small coil of resistance wire,
embedded in a block of specific heat s and mass m under thermally isolated conditions. If the temperature
of the block is raised by ΔT , the potential difference V across the capacitor initially is

A. A) (
2msΔT 2
C )
B. B) ( 2msΔT
1/2
C )
C. C) ( 2msΔT
C )
D. D) 2msΔT C

Question 37

A parallel plate capacitor has a capacity 80 × 10 −6 F, when air is present between the plates. The volume
between the plates is then completely filled with a dielectric slab of dielectric constant 20. The capacitor is
now connected to a battery of 30 V by wires. The dielectric slab is then removed. Then, the charge that
passes now through the wire is

A. A) 45.6 × 10 −3 C
B. B) 25.3 × 10 −3 C
C. C) 120 × 10 −3 C
D. D) 125 × 10 −3 C

Question 38

Eight drops of mercury, each of same radius and same charge combine to form a bigger drop. The ratio of
capacitance of the bigger drop to that of each smaller drop is

A. A) 8 : 1
B. B) 4 : 1
C. C) 2 : 1
D. D) 1 : 1

Question 39

A parallel plate capacitor with air as a dielectric has capacitance C . A slab of dielectric constant K , having
same thickness as the separation between the plates is introduced so as to fill one-fourth of the capacitor
as shown in the figure. The new capacitance will be

A. A) (K + 3) C4
B. B) (K + 2) C4
C. C) (K + 1) C4
D. D) KC
4

Question 40

A capacitor of capacitance 9nF having dielectric slab of ε r = 2.4, dielectric strength 20MVm −1 , and
potential difference = 20 V. Calculate area of plates.

A. A) 2.1 × 10 −4 m 2
B. B) 4.2 × 10 −4 m 2
C. C) 1.4 × 10 −4 m 2
D. D) 2.4 × 10 −4 m 2

Question 41

A parallel plate capacitor of area ' A ' plate separation ' d ' is filled with two dielectrics as shown. What is
the capacitance of the arrangement?

A. A)
3Kε 0 A
4d
B. B) 4Kε
3d
0A

C. C)
(K+1)ε 0 A
2d

D. D)
K(K+3)ε 0 A
2(K+1)d

Question 42

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 20 μF is being charged by a voltage source whose potential is
changing at the rate of 3 V s −1 . The conduction current through the connecting wires, and the
displacement current through the plates of the capacitor would be, respectively:

A. A) zero, 60 μA
B. B) 60 μA, 60 μA
C. C) 60 μA, zero
D. D) zero, zero

Question 43

Two capacitors of capacities 1μF and CμF are connected in series and the combination is charged to a
potential difference of 120 V. If the charge on the combination is 80μC, the energy stored in the capacitor
of capacity C in μJ is

A. A) 1800
B. B) 1600
C. C) 14400
D. D) 7200

Question 44

A spherical capacitor has outer sphere of radius 5 cm and inner sphere of radius 2 cm. When the inner
sphere is earthed, its capacity is C 1 and when the outer sphere is earthed its capacity is C 2 . Then C1 is
C
2

A. A) 52
B. B) 25
C. C) 73
D. D) 37

Question 45

A parallel plate air capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a cell of emf V and then disconnected from
it. A dielectric slab of dielectric constant K , which can just fill the air gap of the capacitor, is now inserted in
it. Which of the following is incorrect?

A. A) The potential difference between the plates decreases K times.

B. B) The energy stored in the capacitor decreases K times.
C. C) The change in energy stored is 12 CV 2 ( K
1
− 1).
D. D) The charge on the capacitor is not conserved.
Question 46

The effective capacitances of two capacitors are 3 μF and 16μF, when they are connected in series and
parallel respectively. The capacitance of two capacitors are:

A. A) 10μF, 6μF
B. B) 8μF, 8μF
C. C) 12μF, 4μF
D. D) 1.2μF, 1.8μF

Question 47

An air-filled parallel plate capacitor has capacitance C . The capacitor is connected through a resistor to a
voltage source providing a constant potential difference V

A dielectric plate with a dielectric constant K is inserted into the capacitor, filling it completely. After the
equilibrium is established plate is quickly removed. Find the amount of heat generated in the resistor by the
time, the equilibrium is re-established.

A. A) CV 2 (K − 1)
B. B) 12 CV 2 msup
C. C) CV 2 (K − 1)
2

D. D) 12 CV 2 (K 2 − 1)

Question 48

A parallel plate air capacitor has capacity C , distance of separation between plates is d and potential
difference V is applied between the plates. The force of attraction between the plates of the capacitor is

A. A) CV
2d .
2

B. B) CVd .
2

C. C) C2dV2 .
2 2

D. D) .
C 2V 2
2d

Question 49

A body of capacity 4μF is charged to 80 V and another body of capacity 6μF is charged to 30 V. When
they are connected the energy lost by 4μF capacitor is

A. A) 9.8 mJ
B. B) 4.6 mJ
C. C) 3.2 mJ
D. D) 2.5 mJ

Question 50

Three capacitors each of capacitance C and of breakdown voltage V are joined in series. The capacitance
and breakdown voltage of the combination will be

A. A) 3 , 3
C V

B. B) 3C, 3
V

C. C) C
3 ,3 V
D. D) 3C, 3 V

Question 51

Two identical capacitors, have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to potential V 1 and the
other to V 2 . The negative ends of the capacitors are connected together. When the positive ends are also
connected, the decrease in energy of the combined system is -

A. A) 14 C (V 21 − V 22 )
B. B) 14 C (V 12 + V 22 )

C. C) 14 C(V 1 − V 2 )
2

D. D) 14 C(V 1 + V 2 )
2

Question 52

A network of four capacitors capacity equal C 1 = C, C 2 = 2C, C 3 = 3C and C 4 = 4C are conducted to

a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of the change on C 2 and C 4 is:

A. A) 47
B. B) 22
3

C. C) 74
D. D) 3
22

Question 53

Two identical condensers M and N are connected in series with a battery. The space between the plates
of M is completely filled with a dielectric medium of dielectric constant 8 and a copper plate of thickness d2
is introduced between the plates of N . ( d is the distance between the plates). Then potential differences
across M and N are, respectively, in the ratio

A. A) 1 : 4
B. B) 4 : 1
C. C) 3 : 8
D. D) 1 : 6

Question 54

A conducting sphere of radius R carrying charge Q lies inside an uncharged conducting shell of radius 2R.
If they are joined by a metal wire, the amount of heat that will be produced is

A. A) 4πε
1 Q2
0
⋅ 4R
B. B) 4πε
1 Q2
0
⋅ 2R
C. C) 4πε
1 Q2
0
⋅ R
D. D) 4πε
2 Q2
0
⋅ 3R

Question 55

In the given figure, the capacitance C 1 , C 3 , C 4 , C 5 have a capacitance 4μF each. If

the capacitor C 2 has a capacitance 10μF, then effective capacitance between A and B will be

A. A) 2μF
B. B) 6μF
C. C) 4μF
D. D) 8μF.

Question 56

Find the charge on 2μF.

A. A) 18μF
B. B) 25μF
C. C) 15μF
D. D) 450 K

Question 57

\text { What would be the voltage across } C_3 \text { ? }

A. A) C1 +C
(C +C )V
1 2
2 +C 3

B. B) C1 +C12 +C3
C V

C. C) C +C2 +C
C V
2 2 3

D. D) C1 +C32 +C3
C V

Question 58

A parallel plate capacitor having cross-sectional area A and separation d has air in between the plates.
Now an insulating slab of the same area but the thickness, d2 , is inserted between the plates as shown in
figure having dielectric constant K(= 4). The ratio of new capacitance to its original capacitance will be,

A. A) 2 : 1
B. B) 8 : 5
C. C) 6 : 5
D. D) 4 : 1

Question 59

A capacitor of capacitance C 1 = 10μF to charged using 9 V battery. It is then removed from the battery
and connected to another capacitor C 2 = 20μF as shown in the figure. The charge on C 2 after
equilibrium has reached is

A. A) 6.0 × 10 −5 C
B. B) 60 × 10 −6 C
C. C) 3.0 × 10 −5 C
D. D) 3.0 × 10 −6 C

Question 60

Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K 1 and K 2 (K 1 < K 2 ) are inserted between plates of a
parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The variation of electric field ‘ E ’ between the plates with
distance ‘ d ’ as measured from plate P is correctly shown by:

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Hard Questions

Question 61

A body of capacity 4μF is charged to 80 V and another body of capacity 6μF is charged to 30 V. When
they are connected the energy lost by 4μF capacitor is
A. A) 9.8 mJ
B. B) 4.6 mJ
C. C) 3.2 mJ
D. D) 2.5 mJ

Question 62

In the given circuit, a charge of +80μC is given to the upper plate of the 4μF capacitor. Then in the
steady state, the charge on the upper plate of the 3μF capacitor is

A. A) +32μC
B. B) +40μC
C. C) +48μC
D. D) +80μC

Question 63

A combination of capacitors is set up as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the electric field, due to a
point charge Q (having a charge equal to the sum of the charges on the 4 μF and 9 μF capacitors), at a
point distant 30 m from it, would equal:

A. A) 420 N/C
B. B) 480 N/C
C. C) 240 N/C
D. D) 360 N/C

Question 64

A capacitance of 2 μF is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of 1.0 kV. A large
number of 1 μF capacitors are available which can withstand a potential difference of not more than
300 V. The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is:
A. A) 32
B. B) 2
C. C) 16
D. D) 24

Question 65

The gap between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of area A and distance between plates d, is filled
with a dielectric whose relative permittivity varies linearly from ϵ 1 at one plate to ϵ 2 at the other. The
capacitance of the capacitor is

A. A) [d0 ln(∈
ϵ (∈ −∈ )A
2 1
2 /∈ 1 )]

B. B)
ϵ 0 (∈ 2 +∈ 1 )A
2d

C. C)
ϵ 0 (∈ 1 +∈ 2 )A
d
D. D)
ϵ0 A
[dln(∈ 2 /∈ 1 )]

Question 66

Two square shaped metal plates of side 1 m, kept 0.01 m apart in air form a parallel plate capacitor. It is
connected to a battery of 500 V. The plates of the capacitor are then immersed in an insulting oil by
lowering the plates vertically with a speed of 0.001 ms −1 . If the dielectric constant of the oil is 11 , then
current drawn from the battery during this process is

A. A) 4.425 × 10 −6 A
B. B) 4.425 × 10 −5 A
C. C) 4.425 × 10 −9 A
D. D) 4.425 × 10 −2 A

Question 67

A parallel plate capacitor with area 200 cm 2 and separation between the plates 1.5 cm, is connected
across a battery of emf V. If the force of attraction between the plates is 25 × 10 −6 N, the value of V is
approximately: \left.\left(\varepsilon_0=8.85 \times 10^{-12} \frac{\mathrm{C}^2}{\text { N.m }}\right)^2\right)

A. A) 150 V
B. B) 100 V
C. C) 250 V
D. D) 300 V

Question 68

A circuit is connected as shown in the figure with the switch S open. When the switch is closed, the total
amount of charge that flows from Y to X is
A. A) zero
B. B) 54μC
C. C) 27μC
D. D) 81μC

Question 69

A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric
materials having dielectric constants k 1 , k 2 , k 3 and k 4 as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric
material is to be used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant k is
given by

A. A) k = k 1 + k 2 + k 3 + 3k 4
B. B) k = 23 (k 1 + k 2 + k 3 ) + 2k 4
C. C) k2 = k1 +k32 +k3 + k14

D. D) k = 3 4 ( k1 +k
2k k
1 2k 3k
4
+ k2 +k 4
+ k3 +k 4
)

Question 70

In the given circuit, charge Q 2 on the 2 μF capacitor changes as C is varied from 1 μF to 3 μF. Q 2 as a
function of 'C' is given properly by: (figures are drawn schematically and are not to scale)

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 71

two identical parallel plate capacitors of capacitance C each are connected in series with abattery of emf,
E as shown, If one of the capacitors is now filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant k, the amount of
charge which will flow through the battery is (neglect internal resistance of the battery)

A. A) 2(k−1)
k+1
CE
B. B) 2(k+1)
k−1
CE
C. C) k−2
k+2 CE
D. D) k+2
k−2
CE

Question 72

A parallel plate capacitor is made of two plates of length 1 , width w and separated by distance d. A
dielectric slab (dielectric constant K ) that fits exactly between the plates is held near the edge of the
plates. It is pulled into the capacitor by a force F = − ∂U
∂x
where U is the energy of the capacitor when
dielectric is inside the capacitor up to distance x (See figure). If the charge on the capacitor is Q then the
force on the dielectric when it is near the edge is:

A. A) 2wl2 ε K
Q2 d
o

B. B) 2dl2 ε ( K − 1)
Q2 W
0

C. C) 2wl2 ε (K − 1)
Q2 d
o

D. D) 2dl2 ε K
Q2 w
o

Question 73

A parallel plate capacitor having plates of area S and plate separation d , has capacitance C 1 in air. When
two dielectrics of different relative permittivities ( ε 1 = 2 and ε 2 = 4 ) are introduced between the two
plates as shown in the figure, the capacitance becomes C 2 . The ratio C2 is
C
1

Question 74

A parallel plate capacitor is made of two square plates of side a, separated by a distance d (d ≪ a). The
lower triangular portion filled with a dielectric of dielectric constant K, as shown in the figure. Capacitance
of this capacitor is:

A. A) 2d(K+1)
Kε a 2
0

B. B) d(K−1)
Kε a 2
0
ln K
C. C)
Kε 0 a 2
d ln K
D. D) 12 d0
Kε a 2

Question 75

A capacitor C is fully charged with voltage V 0 . After disconnecting the voltage source, it is connected in
parallel with another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C
2 . The energy loss in the process after the
charge is distributed between the two capacitors is :

A. A) 12 CV 02
B. B) 13 CV 02
C. C) 14 CV 02
D. D) 16 CV 02

Question 76

In the following circuit the switch S is closed at t = 0. The charge on the capacitor C 1 as a function of time
will be given by (C eq = C +
C C
1 2
1 C2 )

A. A) C 1 E [1 − exp(− C
tR
1
)]

B. B) C eq E exp[− RCt eq ]

C. C) C eq E [1 − exp(− RCt eq )]

D. D) C 2 E [1 − exp(− RC
t
)] 2

Question 77

A combination of parallel plate capacitors is maintained at a certain potential difference.

When a 3 mm thick slab is introduced between all the plates, in order to maintain the same potential
difference, the distance between the plates is increased by 2. 4 mm. Find the dielectric constant of the
slab.

A. A) 6
B. B) 4
C. C) 3
D. D) 5

Question 78

In the figure is shown a system of four capacitors connected across a 10 V battery. The charge that will
flow from switch S when it is closed is:

A. A) Zero
B. B) 20 μC from a to b
C. C) 5 μC from b to a
D. D) 5 μC from a to b

Question 79

A parallel plate capacitor C with plates of unit area and separation d is filled with a liquid of dielectric
constant K = 2. The level of liquid is d3 initially. Suppose the liquid level decreases at a constant speed v,
the time constant as a function of time t is

A. A) 5d+3vt
06ε R

B. B) 2d2 −3dvt−9v0 2 t2
(15d+9vt)ε R

C. C) 5d−3vt
06ε R

D. D) 2d2 +3dvt−9v0 2 t2
(15d−9vt)ε R

Question 80

A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 2 F is charged to a potential V . The energy stored in the capacitor
is E 1 . The capacitor is now connected to another uncharged identical capacitor in parallel combination.
The energy stored in the combination is E 2 . The ratio E2 is
E
1

A. A) 2 : 1
B. B) 2 : 3
C. C) 1 : 2
D. D) 1 : 4

Question 81

In the given circuit, a charge of +80μC is given to upper plate of a 4μF capacitor. At steady state, the
charge on the upper plate of the 3μF capacitor is

A. A) 60μC
B. B) 48μC
C. C) 80μC
D. D) 0μC

Question 82

The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is filled with a 'dielectric' whose 'dielectric
constant' varies with distance as per the relation: \mathrm{K}
(\mathrm{x})=\mathrm{K}_{\mathrm{o}}+\lambda \mathrm{x}(\lambda=\mathrm{a} \text { constant }) The
capacitance C, of the capacitor, would be related to its vacuum capacitance C o for the relation :

A. A) C = ln(1+K
λd
Co )
o λd

B. B) C = d⋅ln(1+K
λ
Co )
o λd

C. C) C = ln(1+λd/K
λd
Co )
o

D. D) C = d.ln(1+K
λ
Co )
o /λd

Question 83

Capacitance of an isolated conducting sphere of radius R 1 becomes n times when it is enclosed by a

concentric conducting sphere of radius R 2 connected to earth. The ratio of their radii ( R2 ) is:
R
1

A. A) n−1
n

B. B) 2n+1
2n

C. C) n+1
n
D. D) 2n+1
n
Question 84

Consider a parallel plate capacitor with plates in the shape of square and in XY -plane. The gap between
the plates is filled with dielectric material. The dielectric constant k varies with X-axis as
k(x) = [1 + ( Lx ) ], where α is a constant. Let C d and C a are capacitance in the presence of dielectric
α

and air, respectively. If the ratio C

Cd
= 76 , then the value of α must be
a

A. A) 3
B. B) 5
C. C) 7
D. D) 9

Question 85

Three capacitors of capacitances 25μF, 30μF and 45μF are connected in parallel to a supply of 100 V.
Energy stored in the above combination is E. When these capacitors are connected in series to the same
supply, the stored energy is x9 E. The value of x is _____.

Question 86

How will the voltage (V ) between the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor depend on the distance (d)
between the plates, if the charge on the capacitor remains the same?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 87

A series combination of n 1 capacitors, each of capacity C 1 is charged by source of potential difference

4 V. When another parallel combination of n 2 capacitors each of capacity C 2 is charged by a source of
potential difference V , it has the same total energy stored in it as the first combination has. The value of
C 2 in terms of C 1 is then
A. A) 16 n21 C 1
n

B. B) n2C 1
1 n2

C. C) 2 n2 C 1
n
1

D. D)
16C 1
n1 n2

Question 88

A 5 μF capacitor is charged fully by a 220 V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is
connected in series to another uncharged 2. 5 μF capacitor. If the energy change during the charge
redistribution is 100
X
J then value of X to the nearest integer is :

Question 89

One plate of a parallel plate capacitor is connected to a spring as shown in the figure. The area of each
plate of the capacitor is A and the distance between the plates is d, when the battery is not connected and
the spring is unstretched. After connecting the battery, in the steady state the distance between the plates
is 0.75d, then the force constant of the spring is

A. A) 38 0 d3
ε V 2A

B. B) 83 ε0 Vd3 A
2

C. C) 32
9 ε0 V 2 A
d3

D. D) 9
32 ε 0 V 2 A
d3

Question 90

What is the energy stored in the capacitor between terminals a and b of the network shown in the figure?
(Capacitance of each capacitor C = 1μF)
A. A) 12.5μJ
B. B) Zero
C. C) 25μJ
D. D) 50μJ

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - D Q31 - A Q61 - A
Q2 - C Q32 - B Q62 - C
Q3 - B Q33 - D Q63 - A
Q4 - C Q34 - B Q64 - A
Q5 - B Q35 - C Q65 - A
Q6 - A Q36 - B Q66 - C
Q7 - D Q37 - A Q67 - C
Q8 - B Q38 - C Q68 - C
Q9 - D Q39 - A Q69 - D
Q10 - D Q40 - B Q70 - C
Q11 - C Q41 - D Q71 - B
Q12 - B Q42 - B Q72 - C
Q13 - D Q43 - B Q74 - B
Q14 - C Q44 - A Q75 - D
Q15 - C Q45 - D Q76 - C
Q16 - B Q46 - C Q77 - D
Q17 - C Q47 - B Q78 - C
Q18 - B Q48 - A Q79 - A
Q19 - C Q49 - A Q80 - C
Q20 - D Q50 - C Q81 - B
Q21 - A Q51 - C Q82 - C
Q22 - C Q52 - B Q83 - A
Q23 - C Q53 - A Q84 - B
Q24 - C Q54 - A Q85 - 86 (Num)
Q25 - D Q55 - C Q86 - C
Q26 - C Q56 - C Q87 - D
Q27 - C Q57 - A Q88 - 4 (Num)
 Q28 - D Q58 - B Q89 - D
Q29 - D Q59 - A Q90 - A
Q30 - A Q60 - C

Current Electricity

Easy Questions

Question 1

A wire of resistance 5Ω is drawn out so that its new length is 3 times its original length. What is the
reistance of the new wire?

A. A) 45Ω
B. B) 15Ω
C. C) 5/3Ω
D. D) 5Ω

Question 2

In the circuit shown, the current through the 4Ω resistor is 1amp when the points P and M are connected
to a d.c. voltage source. The potential difference between the points M and N is

A. A) 3.2 volt
B. B) 1.5 volt
C. C) 1.0 volt
D. D) 0.5 volt

Question 3

In the nuclear decay given below : { }_{\mathrm{A}}^{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{X} \longrightarrow

\stackrel{\mathrm{A}}{\mathrm{A}+1} \mathrm{Y} \longrightarrow \mathrm{A}_{\mathrm{A}-4}
\mathrm{~B}^* \longrightarrow \stackrel{\mathrm{A}-4}{\mathrm{Z}-1} \mathrm{~B} The particles emitted in
the sequence are :

A. A) α, β, γ
B. B) β, α, γ
C. C) γ, β, α
D. D) β, γ, α
Question 4

A carbon resistor with colour code is shown in the figure. There is no fourth band in the resistor. The value
of the resistance is

A. A) 24MΩ ± 20%
B. B) 14kΩ ± 5%
C. C) 24kΩ ± 20%
D. D) 34kΩ ± 10%

Question 5

A Wheatstone bridge has the resistances 10Ω. 10Ω, 10Ω and 30Ω in its four arms. What resistance joined
in parallel to the 30Ω resistance will bring it to the balanced condition?

A. A) 2Ω
B. B) 5Ω
C. C) 10Ω
D. D) 15Ω

Question 6

A wire X is half the diameter and half the length of a wire Y of similar material. The ratio of resistance of X
to that of Y is

A. A) 8: 1
B. B) 4: 1
C. C) 2: 1
D. D) 1: 1

Question 7

In the circuit shown in figure potential difference between points A and B is 16 V. the current passing
through 2Ω resistance will be

A. A) 2.5 A
B. B) 3.5 A
C. C) 4.0 A
D. D) zero

Question 8
In the circuit shown in the figure, find the current in 45Ω.

A. A) 4 A
B. B) 2.5 A
C. C) 2 A
D. D) None of these

Question 9

When a wire of uniform cross section a, length l and resistance R is into a complete circle, resistance
between any two of diametrically opposite point will be:

A. A) R
4
B. B) 4R
C. C) R
8
D. D) R
2

Question 10

A battery of emf E and internal resistance r is connected with an external resistance R as shown in the
figure. The battery will act as a constant voltage source if

A. A) r << R
B. B) r >> R
C. C) r = R
D. D) It will never act as a constant voltage source

Question 11

The resistance of a wire is R. It is bent at the middle by 180 ∘ and both the ends are twisted together to
make a shorter wire. The resistance of the new wire is

A. A) 2R
B. B) R/2
C. C) R/4
D. D) R/8
Question 12

A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have:

A. A) a high resistance in parallel with its coil

B. B) a high resistance in series with its coil
C. C) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
D. D) a coil resistance in series with its coil

Question 13

When three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rating are connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the
power drawn by them will be:

A. A) 60 watt
B. B) 180 watt
C. C) 10 watt
D. D) 20 watt

Question 14

What should be the characteristic of fuse wire?

A. A) High melting point, high specific resistance.

B. B) Low melting point, low specific resistance.
C. C) High melting point, low specific resistance.
D. D) Low melting point, high specific resistance.

Question 15

The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is

A. A) 20Ω
B. B) 15Ω
C. C) 10Ω
D. D) 30Ω

Question 16

A constant voltage is applied between the two ends of a uniform metallic wire. Some heat is developed in it.
The heat developed is doubled if

A. A) both the length and the radius of the wire are halved.
B. B) both the length and the radius of the wire are doubled.
C. C) the radius of the wire is doubled.
D. D) the length of the wire is doubled.

Question 17

A 6 volt battery is connected to the terminal of a three metre long wire of uniform thickness and resistance
of 100 ohm. The difference of potential between two points on the wire separated by a distance of 50 cm
will be:

A. A) 2 volt
B. B) 3 volt
C. C) 1 volt
D. D) 1.5 volt

Question 18

Two batteries, one of emf 18 volts and internal resistance 2Ω and the other of emf 12 volts and internal
resistance 1Ω, are connected as shown. The voltmeter V will record a reading of:

A. A) 30 volt
B. B) 18 volt
C. C) 15 volt
D. D) 14 volt

Question 19

An electrical cable having a resistance of 0.2Ω delivers 10kw at 200 V D.C. to a factory. What is the
efficiency of transmission?

A. A) 65%
B. B) 75%
C. C) 85%
D. D) 95%

Question 20

In a Wheatstone's bridge all the four arms have equal resistance R. If the resistance of the galvanometer
arm is also R, the equivalent resistance of the combination as seen by the battery is:

A. A) R
4
B. B) R
2
C. C) R
D. D) 2R

Question 21

A 5-ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the fuse
wire is :

A. A) 0.04ohm
B. B) 0.2ohm
C. C) 5ohm
D. D) 0.4ohm

Question 22

A student measures the terminal potential difference (V) of a cell (of emf ε and internal) resistance r ) as a
function of the current (I) flowing through it. The slope and intercept of the graph between V and I, then
respectively equal to :

A. A) −ϵ and r
B. B) ∈ and −r
C. C) −r and ∈
D. D) r and −ϵ

Question 23

Two metal wires of identical dimensions are connected in series. If σ 1 and σ 2 are the electrical
conductivities of the metal wires respectively, the effective conductivity of the combination is

A. A) σ 1 + σ 2
B. B) σσ1+σ
σ2
1 2

C. C) σ2σ 1 σ2
1 +σ 2

D. D) σ2σ
1 +σ 2
1 σ2

Question 24

Specific resistance of a conductor increase with:

A. A) increase in the temperature

B. B) increase in the cross-section area
C. C) increase in the cross-section and decrease in the length
D. D) increase in the cross section area

Question 25

A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten per cent. Its new resistance and specific resistance
become respectively

A. A) 1.2 times, 1.1 times

B. B) 1.21 times, same
C. C) both remain the same
D. D) 1.1 times, 1.1 times

Question 26

To convert a galvanometer into a voltmeter one should connect a:

A. A) high resistance in series with galvanometer

B. B) low resistance in series with galvanometer
C. C) high resistance in parallel with galvanometer
D. D) low resistance in parallel with galvanometer

Question 27

A metal wire of circular cross-section has a n'sistance R 1 . The wire is now stretched without breaking, so
that its length is doubled and the density is assumed to remain the same. If the resistance of the wire now
beromes R 2 , then R 2 : R 1 is

A. A) 1 : 1
B. B) 1 : 2
C. C) 4 : 1
D. D) 1 : 4

Question 28

The magnets of two suspended coll galvanometers are of the same strength so that they produce identical
uniform magnetic fields in the region of the coils. The coil of the first one is in the shape of a square of side
a and that of the second one is circular of radius √π , When the same current is passed through the coils,
a

the ratio of the torque experienced by the first coil to that experienced by the second one is

A. A) 1 : 1
√π
B. B) 1: 1
C. C) π : 1
D. D) 1 : π

Question 29

The equivalent resistance between the points a and b of the electrical network shown in the figure is

A. A) 6r
B. B) 4r
C. C) 2r
D. D) r

Question 30

\text { The reading of the ammeter in the following figure will be }

A. A) 0.8 A
B. B) 0.6 A
C. C) 0.4 A
D. D) 0.2 A

Moderate Questions

Question 31

Heat is produced at a rate given by H in a resistor when it is connected across a supply of voltage V . If
now the resistance of the resistor is doubled and the supply voltage is made V /3, then the rate of
production of heat in the resistor will be

A. A) H/18
B. B) H/9
C. C) 6H
D. D) 18H

Question 32

The drift velocity of electrons in silver wire with cross-sectional area 3.14 × 10 −6 m 2 carrying a current of
20 A is. Given atomic weight of Ag = 108, density of silver = 10.5 × 10 3 kg/m 3
A. A) 2.798 × 10
−4
m/sec
B. B) 67.98 × 10 −4 m/sec
C. C) 0.67 × 10 −4 m/sec
D. D) 6.798 × 10 −4 m/sec

Question 33
For the circuit (figure), the current is to be measured. The ammeter shown is a galvanometer with a
resistance R G = 60.00Ω converted to an ammeter by a shunt resistance r s = 0.02Ω. The value of the
current is

A. A) 0.79 A
B. B) 0.29 A
C. C) 0.99 A
D. D) 0.8 A

Question 34

The current I is in the circuit shown is

A. A) 1.33A
B. B) zero
C. C) 2.00A
D. D) 1.00A

Question 35

In India electricity is supplied for domestic use at 220 V. It is supplied at 110 V in USA. If the resistance of
a 60 W bulb for use in India is R, the resistance of a 60 W bulb for use in USA will be:

A. A) R
B. B) 2R
C. C) R
4
D. D) R
2

Question 36

Four cells, each of emf E and internal resistance r, are connected in series across an external resistance
R. By mistake one of the cells is connected in reverse. Then the current in the external circuit is
A. A) 4r+R
2E

B. B) 4r+R
3E

C. C) 3r+R
3E

D. D) 3r+R
2E

Question 37
An electric bulb marked as 50W-200V is connected across a 100V supply. The present power of the bulb
is

A. A) 37.5W
B. B) 25W
C. C) 12.5W
D. D) 10W

Question 38

A battery is charged at a potential of 15 V for 8 hours when the current flowing is 10 A. The battery on
discharge supplies a current of 5 A for 15 hours. The mean terminal voltage during discharge is 14 V. The
"Watt-hour" efficiency of the battery is:

A. A) 82.5%
B. B) 80%
C. C) 90%
D. D) 87.5%

Question 39

A cell can be balanced against 110 cm and 100 cm of potentiometer wire, respectively with and without
being short circuited through a resistance of 10Ω Its internal resistance is

A. A) 1.0Ω
B. B) 0.5Ω
C. C) 2.0Ω
D. D) zero

Question 40

A galvanometer of 50ohm resistance has 25 divisions. A current 4 × 10 −4 ampere gives a deflection of

one division. To convert this galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25 volts, it should be
connected with a resistance of:

A. A) 2500Ω as a shunt
B. B) 2450Ω as a shunt
C. C) 2550Ω in series
D. D) 2450Ω in series

Question 41

Which of the following quantities do not change when a resistor connected to a battery is heated due to the
current?

A. A) Drift speed
B. B) Resistivity
C. C) Resistance
D. D) Number of free electrons

Question 42

Two cells, having the same e.m.f. are connected in series through an external resistance R. Cells have
internal resistances r 1 and r 2 (r 1 > r 2 ) respectively. When the circuit is closed, the potential difference
across the first cell is zero. The value of R is:

A. A) r 1 + r 2
B. B) r 1 − r 2
C. C) r1 +r
2
2

D. D)
r 1 −r 2
2

Question 43

In producing chlorine through electrolysis 100 watt power at 125 V is being consumed. How much chlorine
per minute is liberated ? E. C. E. of chlorine is 0.367 × 10 −6 kg/ coulomb:

A. A) 13.6mg
B. B) 17.6mg
C. C) 21.3mg
D. D) 24.3mg

Question 44

For the network shown in the figure the value of the current i is:

A. A) 935V
B. B) 185V
C. C) 5V
9
D. D) 5V
18

Question 45

What current will flow through the 2kΩ resistor in the circuit shown in the figure?

A. A) 3mA
B. B) 6mA
C. C) 12mA
D. D) 36mA

Question 46

Three resistances P , Q, R each of 2Ω and an unknown resistances S form the four arms of a Wheatstone
bridge circuit. When a resistance of 6Ω is connected in parallel ot S the bridge gets balanced. What is the
value of S ?

A. A) 3Ω
B. B) 6Ω
C. C) 1Ω
D. D) 2Ω ।

Question 47

A letter'A' is constructed of a uniform wire with resistance 1.0Ω per cm, The sides of the letter are 20 cm
and the cross piece in the middle is 10 cm long. The apex angle is 60. The resistance between the ends of
the legs is close to:

A. A) 50.0Ω
B. B) 10Ω
C. C) 36.7Ω
D. D) 26.7Ω

Question 48

For a cell, terminal potential difference is 2.2 V when circuit is open. If it reduces to 1.8 V when the cell is
connected to a resistance of 5Ω. The internal resistance of cell (r) is then:

A. A) 10
9 Ω
B. B) 10
9
Ω
C. C) 11
9
Ω
D. D) 59 Ω

Question 49

One Kg of copper is drawn into a wire of 1 mm diameter and a wire of 2 mm diameter. The resistance of
the two wires will be in the ratio

A. A) 2 : 1
B. B) 1 : 2
C. C) 16 : 1
D. D) 4 : 1

Question 50
A circuit consists of three batteries of emf E 1 = 1V, E 2 = 2V and E 3 = 3V and internal resistances
1Ω, 2Ω and 1Ω respectively which are connected in parallel as shown in the figure. The potential
difference between points P and Q is

A. A) 1.0V
B. B) 2.0V
C. C) 2.2V
D. D) 3.0V

Question 51

An electric cell of emf E is connected across a copper wire of diameter d and length l. The drift velocity of
electrons in the wire is v d . If the length of the wire is changed to 2l, the new drift velocity of electrons in the
copper wire will be

A. A) v d
B. B) 2v d
C. C) v d /2
D. D) v d /4

Question 52

The value of current I as shown in the given circuit diagram is

A. A) 2 A
B. B) 1. 5 A
C. C) 0. 9 A
D. D) 0. 2 A

Question 53

A cell of emf E is connected to a resistance R 1 for time t and the amount of heat generated in it is H . If
the resistance R 1 is replaced by another resistance R 2 and is connected to the cell at the same time t, the
amount of heat generated in R 2 is 4H. Then internal resistance of the cell is

A. A) 2R12+R2

B. B) √R 1 R 2
2√R 2 −√R 1
√R 2 −2√R 1
C. C) √R 1 R 2
√R 2 −2√R 1
2√R 2 −√R 1

D. D) √R 1 R 2
√R 2 −√R 1
√R 2 +√R 1

Question 54

Two periodic waves of intensities I 1 and I 2 pass through a region at the same time in the same direction.
The sum of the maximum and minimum intensities is

A. A) I 1 + I 2

B. B) (√I 1 + √I 2 )
2

C. C) (√I 1 − √I 2 )
2

D. D) 2 (I 1 + I 2 )

Question 55

Power dissipated across the 8Ω resistor in the circuit shown here is 2 watt. The power dissipated in watt
units across the 3Ω resistor is:

A. A) 3.0
B. B) 2.0
C. C) 1.0
D. D) 0.5

Question 56

Five equal resistance each of resistance R are connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V volts is
connected between A and B. The current flowing in AFCEF will be:

A. A) 3V
R
B. B) VR
C. C) 2R
V

D. D) 2V
R

Question 57

Three voltmeters A, B and C having resistances R, 1.5R and 3R, respectively, are connected as shown.
When some potential difference is applied between X and Y, the voltmeter readings are V A , V B and V C
respectively. Then -

A. A) V A ≠ V B = V C
B. B) V A = V B ≠ V C
C. C) V A ≠ V B ≠ V C
D. D) V A = V B = V C

Question 58

The I - V characteristics of a metal wire at two different temperatures (T 1 and T 2 ) are given in the
adjoining figure. Here, we can conclude that

A. A) T 1 > T 2
B. B) T 1 < T 2
C. C) T 1 = T 2
D. D) T 1 = 2T 2

Question 59

Calculate the effective resistance between A and B in following network.

A. A) 5Ω
B. B) 10Ω
C. C) 20Ω
D. D) 30Ω

Question 60

The resistance of a wire at 20 °C is 20 Ω and 500 °C is 60 Ω. At which temperature, its resistance will be
25 Ω ?
A. A) 50 °C
B. B) 60 °C
C. C) 70 °C
D. D) 80 °C

Hard Questions

Question 61

In the circuit shown below (on the left) the resistance and the emf source are both variable. The graph of
seven readings of the voltmeter and the ammeter (V and I, respectively) for different setting of resistance
and the emf, taken at equal intervals of time Δt, are shown (on the right) by the dots connected by the
curve EFGH. Consider the interval resistance of the battery to be negligible and the voltmeter and ammeter
to be ideal devices. Take R 0 = V 0 I 0
Then the plot of the resistance as a function of time corresponding to the curve EFGH is given by

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 62

Two circular rings of identical radii and resistance 36 Ω are placed as shown in the figure. Conducting
joints are made at points A and B and a cell of emf 20 V is connected between these two points. What is
the power (in W) delivered by the cell? [C 1 and C 2 are the centres of the two rings]
Question 63

A resistance of 2Ω is connected across one gap of a meter-bridge (the length of the wire is 100 cm ) and
an unknown resistance, greater than 2Ω, is connected across the other gap. When these resistances are
interchanged, the balance point shifts by 20 cm. Neglecting any corrections, the unknown resistance is

A. A) 3Ω
B. B) 4Ω
C. C) 5Ω
D. D) 6Ω

Question 64

The figure below shows a wheatstone bridge with resistors P and Q having almost equal resistance. When
R = 400 Ω, the bridge is in balanced condition. If on interchanging P and Q, the bridge is again balanced
for R = 405 Ω, then the value of X is

A. A) 404. 5 Ω
B. B) 402. 5 Ω
C. C) 403. 5 Ω
D. D) 401. 5 Ω

Question 65

Consider a thin square sheet of side L and thickness t, made of a material of resistivity ρ. The resistance
between two opposite faces, shown by the shaded areas in the figure is
A. A) directly proportional to L
B. B) directly proportional to t
C. C) independent of L
D. D) independent of t

Question 66

A student in a town in India, where the price per unit (1 unit = 1 kWh ) of electricity is ₹ 5. 00, purchases
a 1 kVA UPS (uninterrupted power supply) battery. A day before the exam, 10 friends arrive to the
student's home with their laptops and all connect their laptops to the UPS. Assume that each laptop has a
constant power requirement of 90 W. Consider the following statements.
I. All the 10 laptops can be powered by the UPS, if connected directly.
II. All the 10 laptops can be powered, if connected using an extension box with a 3 A fuse.
III. If all the 10 friends use the laptop for 5 h, then the cost of the consumed electricity is about ₹ 22. 50 .
Select the correct option with the true statements.

A. A) I only

B. B) I and II only

C. C) I and III only

D. D) II and III only .

Question 67

Given R 1 = 5.0 ± 0.2Ω, R 2 = 10.0 ± 0.1Ω. What is total resistance in parallel with possible
percentage error?

A. A) 15Ω ± 2%
B. B) 3. 3 Ω ± 3%
C. C) 15 Ω ± 3%
D. D) 3.3Ω ± 7%

Question 68

Statement 1In a Meter Bridge experiment, null point for an unknown resistance is measured. Now, the
unknown resistance is put inside an enclosure maintained at a higher temperature. The null point can be
obtained at the same point as before by decreasing the value of the standard resistance. and Statement 2
Resistance of a metal increase with increase in temperature.
A. A) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1.
B. B) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1.
C. C) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
D. D) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true

Question 69

As shown in the schematic below, a rod of uniform cross-sectional area A and length l is carrying a
constant current i through it and voltage across the rod is measured using an ideal voltmeter. The rod is
stretched by the application of a force F .

Which of the following graphs would show the variation in the voltage across the rod as function of the
strain ε when the strain is small. Neglect Joule heating.

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 70
Consider the circuit shown below where all resistors are of 1kΩ
If a current of magnitude 1 mA flows through the resistor marked X, what is the potential difference
measured between point P and Q ?

A. A) 21 V
B. B) 68 V
C. C) 55 V
D. D) 34 V

Question 71

Two batteries of emf E 1 and E 2 (E 2 > E 1 ) and internal resistances r 1 and r 2 respectively are connected
in parallel as shown in the figure. Then, which of the following statements is correct?

A. A) The equivalent emf E is smaller than E 1 .

B. B) The equivalent emf E = E 1 + E 2 .
C. C) The equivalent emf E is greater than E 2 .
D. D) The equivalent emf E of two cells is between E 1 and E 2 always.

Question 72

A uniform metallic wire of lenght L is mounted in two configurations. In configuration I (triangle), it is an

equilateral triangle and a voltage V is applied to corners A and B. In configuration 2 (circle), it is bent in the
form of a circle, and the potential v is applied at diameterically opposite points P and Q. The ratio of the
power dissipated in configuration 1 to configuration 2 is.

A. A) 2/3
B. B) 9/8
C. C) 5/4
D. D) 7/8

Question 73

In the circuit shown, n identical resistors R are connected in parallel (n > 1 ) and the combination is
connected in series to another resistor R 0 . In the adjoining circuit n resistors of resistance R are all
connected in series along with R 0 −
The batteries in both circuits are identical and net power dissipated in the n resistors in both circuits is
same. The ratio R 0 /R is

A. A) 1
B. B) n
C. C) n 2
D. D) 1/n

Question 74

Twelve resistors each of resistance 1 Ω are connected as shown in the figure. Net resistance between
points A and H would be

A. A) 56 Ω
B. B) 1 Ω
C. C) 34 Ω
D. D) 12
7
Ω

Question 75

When two identical batteries of internal resistance 1Ω each are connected in series across a resistor R,
the rate of heat produced in R is J 1 . When the same batteries are connected in parallel across R, the rate
is J 2 . If J 1 = 2.25J 2 then the value of R in Ω is

Question 76

Incandescent bulbs are designed by keeping in mind that the resistance of their filament increases with the
increase in temperature. If at room temperature, 100 W, 60 W and 40 W bulbs have filament resistances
R 100 , R 60 and R 40 , respectively, the relation between these resistances is
A. A) R1100 = R140 + R160

B. B) R 100 = R 40 + R 60
C. C) R 100 > R 60 > R 40
D. D) R1100 > R160 > R140

Question 77

A steady current I is set up in a wire whose cross-sectional area decreases in the direction of the flow of
the current. Then, as we examine the narrowing region,

A. A) the current density decreases in value

B. B) the magnitude of the electric field increases
C. C) the current density remains constant
D. D) the average speed of the moving charges remains constant

Question 78

A moving coil galvanometer of resistance 100 Ω shows full scale deflection when a current of 100 micro-
amperes passes through it. If it is intended to show full scale deflection when a current of 1 milliampere
passes through it, the value of shunt resistance in ohms to be connected to the galvanometer is.

A. A) 94
B. B) 10
3
C. C) 100
9
D. D) 900
7

Question 79

Paragraph: Electrical resistance of certain materials, known as superconductors, changes abruptly from a
non-zero value to zero as their temperature is lowered below a critical temperature T C (0). An interesting
property of superconductors is that their critical temperature becomes smaller than T C (0) if they are
placed in a magnetic field i.e., the critical temperature T C (B) is a function of the magnetic field strength B.
The dependence of T C (B) on B is shown in the figure.
Question: In the graphs below, the resistance R of a superconductor is shown as a function of its
temperature T for two different magnetic fields B 1 (solid line) and B 2 (dashed line). If B 2 is larger than B 1
, which of the following graphs shows the correct variation of R with T in these fields?

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 80

A student uses the resistance of a known resistor (1 Ω ) to calibrate a voltmeter and an ammeter using the
circuits shown below. The student measures the ratio of the voltage to current to be 1 × 10 3 Ω in circuit
(a) and 0. 999Ω in circuit (b). From these measurements, the resistance (in Ω ) of the voltmeter and
ammeter are found to be close to

A. A) 10 2 and 10 −2
B. B) 10 3 and 10 −3
C. C) 10 −2 and 10 2
D. D) 10 −2 and 10 3

Question 81

A light bulb of resistance R = 16Ω is attached in series with an infinite resistor network. with identical
resistances r as shown below. A 10 V battery derives current in the circuit. What should be the value of r
such that the bulb dissipated about 1 W of power.
A. A) 14.8Ω
B. B) 29.6Ω
C. C) 7.4Ω
D. D) 3.7Ω

Question 82

Two bars of radius ' r ' and ' 2r ' are kept in contact as shown. An electric current I is passed through the
bars. Which one of the following is correct?

A. A) Heat produced in bar BC is 4 times the heat produced in bar AB

B. B) Electric field in both halves is equal
C. C) Current density across AB is doubled that of across BC
D. D) Potential difference across AB is 4 times that of across BC

Question 83

To verify Ohm's law, a student is provided with a test resistor R T , a high resistance R 1 , a small resistance
R 2 , two identical galvanometers G 1 and G 2 , and a variable voltage source V . The correct circuit to carry
out the experiment is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)
D. D)

Question 84

A 10.0 W electrical heater is used to heat a container filled with 0.5 kg of water. It is found that the
temperature of the water and the container rise by 3K in 15 minutes. The container is then emptied,
dried, and filled with 2 kg of an oil. It is now observed that the same heater raises the temperature of the
container-oil system by 2K in 20 minutes. Assuming no other heat losses in any of the processes, the
specific heat capacity of the oil is

A. A) 2.5 × 10 3 JK −1 kg −1
B. B) 5.1 × 10 3 JK −1 kg −1
C. C) 3.0 × 10 3 JK −1 kg −1
D. D) 1.5 × 10 3 JK
−1
kg −1

Question 85

Two batteries V 1 and V 2 are connected to three resistors as shown below.

If V 1 = 2V and V 2 = 0 V, the current I = 3 mA. If V 1 = 0 V and V 2 = 4V , the current I = 4 mA.
Now, if V 1 = 10 V and V 2 = 10 V, the current I will be-

A. A) 7 mA
B. B) 15 mA
C. C) 20 mA
D. D) 25 mA

Question 86

A current of 0.1 A flows through a 25 Ω resistor represented by the circuit diagram. The current in the 80 Ω
resistor is
A. A) 0.1 A
B. B) 0.2 A
C. C) 0.3 A
D. D) 0.4 A

Question 87

A cylindrical copper rod has length L and resistance R. If it is melted and formed into another rod of length
2 L, the resistance will be
A. A) R
B. B) 2R
C. C) 4R
D. D) 8R.

Question 88

In the above arrangement, each side of the cube has 1 Ω resistance and it is known that the effective
resistance between A and B is 59 Ω. Now, if the resistor between A and B is removed, then find the
new effective resistance (in Ω) between the same two points. If your answer is K, mark 4K as answer after
rounding off to nearest integer.

Question 89

Paragraph: Electrical resistance of certain materials, known as superconductors, changes abruptly from a
non-zero value to zero as their temperature is lowered below a critical temperature T C (0). An interesting
property of superconductors is that their critical temperature becomes smaller than T C (0) if they are
placed in a magnetic field i.e., the critical temperature T C (B) is a function of the magnetic field strength B.
The dependence of T C (B) on B is shown in the figure.
Question: A superconductor has T C (0) = 100 K. When a magnetic field of 7.5 Tesla is applied, its T C
decreases to 75 K. For this material one can definitely say that when (Note : T = Tesla)
A. A) B = 5 T, T C (B) = 80 K
B. B) B = 5 T, 75 K < T C (B) < 100 K
C. C) B = 10 T, 75 K < T C (B) < 100 K
D. D) B = 10 T, T C (B) = 70 K

Question 90

Figure shows three resistor configurations R 1 , R 2 and R 3 connected to 3 V battery. If the power
dissipated by the configuration R 1 , R 2 and R 3 is P 1 , P 2 and P 3 , respectively, then

A. A) P 1 > P 2 > P 3
B. B) P 1 > P 3 > P 2
C. C) P 2 > P 1 > P 3
D. D) P 3 > P 2 > P 1

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q31 - A Q61 - D
Q2 - A Q32 - D Q62 - 100 (Num)
Q3 - B Q33 - C Q63 - A
Q4 - C Q34 - A Q64 - B
Q5 - D Q35 - C Q65 - C
Q6 - C Q36 - A Q66 - C
Q7 - B Q37 - C Q67 - B
Q8 - C Q38 - D Q68 - D
Q9 - A Q39 - A Q69 - A
Q10 - A Q40 - D Q70 - D
Q11 - C Q41 - D Q71 - D
Q12 - B Q42 - B Q72 - B
Q13 - D Q43 - B Q73 - A
Q14 - D Q44 - D Q74 - C
Q15 - C Q45 - A Q75 - 4 (Num)
Q16 - B Q46 - A Q76 - D
 Q17 - C Q47 - D Q77 - B
Q18 - D Q48 - A Q78 - C
Q19 - D Q49 - C Q79 - A
Q20 - C Q50 - B Q80 - B
Q21 - A Q51 - C Q81 - A
Q22 - C Q52 - C Q82 - A
Q23 - C Q53 - B Q83 - C
Q24 - A Q54 - D Q84 - A
Q25 - B Q55 - A Q85 - D
Q26 - A Q56 - C Q86 - C
Q27 - C Q57 - D Q87 - C
Q28 - B Q58 - B Q88 - 5 (Num)
Q29 - D Q59 - C Q89 - B
Q30 - C Q60 - D Q90 - C

Magnetic Properties of Matter

Easy Questions

Question 1

A particle mass m, charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of induction
→
B. After 3 s the kinetic energy of the particle will be
A. A) 3T
B. B) 2T
C. C) T
D. D) 4T

Question 2

Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased beyond Curie
temperature, then it will show

A. A) paramagnetism
B. B) anti-ferromagnetism
C. C) no magnetic property
D. D) diamagnetism

Question 3

Inside a bar magnet, the magnetic lines of force

A. A) are from S-pole to N -pole of the magnet.

B. B) do not exist
C. C) depend upon area of cross-section of bar magnet.
D. D) are from N -pole to S -pole of the magnet.

Question 4

A magnetizing field of 500 A/m produces a magnetic flux of 4 × 10 −5 Wb in an iron rod of cross-sectional
area 0.4cm 2 . The permeability of the rod in W/b/A-m is

A. A) 4 × 10
−6

B. B) 1 × 10 −3
C. C) 2 × 10
−4

D. D) 3 × 10 −5

Question 5

On applying an external magnetic field, to a ferromagnetic substance domains

A. A) align in the direction of magnetic field

B. B) align in the direction opposite to magnetic field
C. C) remain unaffected
D. D) None of the above

Question 6

The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is

A. A) much greater than one

B. B) one
C. C) between zero and one
D. D) equal to zero

Question 7

At two different places, the angles of dip are respectively 30 ∘ and 45 ∘ . At these two places the ratio of
horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is

A. A) √3 : √2
B. B) 1 : √2
C. C) 1: 2
D. D) 1 : √3

Question 8

Curie temperature is the temperature above which

A. A) Ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material

B. B) Ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic material
C. C) Paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic material
D. D) Paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic material

Question 9

If the magnetic dipole of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material are denoted by μ d , μ p
and μ f respectively, then:

A. A) μ d = 0 and μ p ≠ 0
B. B) μ d ≠ 0 and μ p = 0
C. C) μ p = 0 and μ f ≠ 0
D. D) μ d ≠ 0 and μ f ≠ 0

Question 10

If a diamagnetic substance is brought near the north or the south pole of a bar magnet, it is :

A. A) Attracted by both the poles

B. B) Repelled by both the poles
C. C) Repelled by the north pole and attracted by the south pole
D. D) Attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole

Question 11

If the B − H curves of two samples of X and Y of iron are as shown below, then which one of the
following statement is correct?

A. A) Both X and Y are suitable for making electromagnets.

B. B) Both X and Y are suitable for making permanent magnet.
C. C) X is suitable for making permanent magnet and Y for making electromagnet.
D. D) X is suitable for making electromagnet and Y is suitable for permanent magnet.

Question 12

The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:

A. A) diamagnetic material only

B. B) paramagnetic material only
C. C) ferromagnetic material only
D. D) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials

Question 13

Magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance is

A. A) Large and positive
B. B) Small and positive
C. C) Small and negative
D. D) Large and negative

Question 14

If M z = magnetization of a paramagnetic sample, B = external magnetic field, T = absolute

temperature, C = curie constant then according to Curie's law in magnetism, the correct realtion is

A. A) M Z = CB
T

B. B) M Z = CB
T
C. C) C =
MZ B
T
D. D) C = T2
Mz B

Question 15

A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves:

A. A) from stronger to the weaker parts of the field

B. B) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
C. C) perpendicular to the field
D. D) in none of the above directions

Question 16

Above curie temperature:

A. A) a paramagnetic substance becomes ferromagnetic

B. B) a ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
C. C) a paramagnetic substance becomes diamagnetic
D. D) a diamagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic

Question 17

The susceptibility of a magnetism at 300 K is 1.2 × 10 −5 . The temperature at which the susceptibility
increases to 1.8 × 10 −5 is

A. A) 150 K
B. B) 200 K
C. C) 250 K
D. D) 20 K

Question 18

At the magnetic north pole of the earth, the value of horizontal component of earth's magnetic field and
angle of dip are, respectively
A. A) zero, maximum
B. B) maximum, minimum
C. C) maximum, maximum
D. D) minimum, minimum

Question 19

At a certain place, the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is √3 times the vertical component.
The angle of dip at that place is

A. A) 30 ∘
B. B) 60
∘

C. C) 45 ∘
D. D) 90
∘

Question 20

Relative permeability of an iron is 5500 , then its magnetic susceptibility will he

A. A) 5500 × 10 −3
B. B) 5500 × 10 3
C. C) 5499
D. D) 5501

Question 21

According to Curie's law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute temperature T is

proportional to:

A. A) T1
B. B) T
C. C) T12
D. D) T 2

Question 22

The magnitude of magnetic fields at a distacne 'r' from the centre of a short bar magnet, in longitudinal
position to transverse position is in the ratio

A. A) 4:1
B. B) 2:1
C. C) 1:4
D. D) 1:2

Question 23

The wave described by y = 0.25 sin(10πx − 2πt), where x and y are in metre and t in second, is a
wave travelling along the
A. A) - ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz
B. B) +ve x direction with frequency πHz and wavelength λ = 0.2 m
C. C) + ve x direction with frequency 1 Hz and wavelength λ = 0.2 m
D. D) -ve x direction with amplitude 0.25 m and wavelength λ = 0.2 m

Question 24

An iron rod is placed parallel to magnetic field of intensity 2000 A m. The magnetic flux through the rod is
6 × 10 −4 Wb and its cross-sectional area is 3 cm 2 . The magnetic permeability of the rod in
Wb A −1 m −1 is
A. A) 10
−1

B. B) 10 −2
C. C) 10 −3
D. D) 10
−4

Question 25

Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is
placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance D from the centre O as shown in the
figure
The force on the charge Q is

A. A) zero
B. B) directed along OP
C. C) directed along P O
D. D) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper

Question 26

A bar magnet having a magnetic movement of 2 × 10 4 JT −1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A

horizontal magnetic field B = 6 × 10 −4 T exists in the space. The work done in taking the magnet slowly
from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60 ∘ from the field is :

A. A) 2 J
B. B) 0.6 J
C. C) 12 J
D. D) 6 J

Question 27

The variation of susceptibility (χ) with absolute temperature (T ) for a paramagnetic material is
represented as:
A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 28

The magnetic force acting on a charged particle of charge −2μc in a magnetic field of 2 T acting in y
direction, when the particle velocity is (2^i + 3^j) × 10 6 ms −1 , is :

A. A) 8 N in z - direction
B. B) 8 N in z− direction
C. C) 4 N in z - direction
D. D) 8 N in y− direction

Question 29

For two types of magnetic materials A and B, variation of χ ( χ : susceptibility) vs. temperature T is
1

shown in the figure. Then

A. A) A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic
B. B) A is ferromagnetic and B is diamagnetic
C. C) A is paramagnetic and B is ferromagnetic
D. D) A is paramagnetic and B is diamagnetic

Question 30

A compass needle which is allowed to move in a horizontal plane is taken to a geomagnetic pole. It

A. A) will become rigid showing no movement

B. B) will stay in any position
C. C) will stay in north-south direction only
D. D) will stay in east-west direction only

Moderate Questions

Question 31

The variation of intensity of magnetisation (I) and the applied magnetic field intensity (H) for three magnetic
materials ' X ′ , ′ Y ′ and ' Z ' are shown in the graph as OX, OY and OZ respectivley. The materials ' X ′ , ′ Y ′
and ' Z ' respectively are

A. A) paramagnetic, diamagnetic, ferromagnetic

B. B) diamagnetic, paramagnetic, ferromagnetic
C. C) ferromagnetic, diamagnetic, paramagnetic
D. D) diamagnetic, ferromagnetic, paramagnetic

Question 32

The free space inside a current carrying toroid is filled with a material of susceptibility 2 × 10 −2 . The
percentage increase in the value of magnetic field inside the toroid will be

A. A) 2%
B. B) 0.2%
C. C) 0.1%
D. D) 1%

Question 33

A magnetic needle of negligible breadth and thickness compared to its length, oscillates in a horizontal
plane with a period T . The period of oscillation of each part obtained on breaking the magnet into n equal
parts and perpendicular to the length is

A. A) T
B. B) n
T

C. C) nT
D. D) n
1

Question 34

The angle of dip at a place is 37 and the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field is 6 × 10 −5 T.
∘

The earth's magnetic field at this place is (tan 37 ∘ = 34 )

A. A) 7 × 10 −5 T
B. B) 6 × 10
−5
T
C. C) 5 × 10 −5 T
D. D) 10 −4 T

Question 35

A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole moment M is bent in the form of an arc as shown in figure.
The new magnetic dipole moment will be

A. A) M
B. B) π M
3

C. C) π2 M
D. D) 2
M

Question 36

A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes
oscillations with a time period of 2 s in earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24μT. When a horizontal field of
18μT is produced opposite to the earth's field by placing a current carrying wire, the new time period of
magnet will be

A. A) 1 s
B. B) 2 s
C. C) 3 s
D. D) 4 s

Question 37

The magnetic needle of a vibration magnetometer makes 12 oscillations per minute in the horizontal
component of earth's magnetic field. When an external short bar magnet is placed at some distance along
the axis of the needle in the same line, it makes 15 oscillations per minute. If the poles of the bar magnet
are interchanged, the number of oscillations it makes per minute is

A. A) √61
B. B) √63
C. C) √65
D. D) √67

Question 38

A deflection magnetometer is placed with its arm along the east-west direction and a bar magnet is placed
along the arm of the magnetometer. Due to the magnet, the deflection observed is θ and the period of
oscillation of the needle in the magnetometer is T. When the magnet is removed, the period of oscillation is
T 0 . The relation between T and T 0 is
A. A) T 2 = T 20 cos θ
B. B) T = T 0 cos θ
C. C) T = cos0θ
T

T2
D. D) T 2 = cos0θ

Question 39

Two bar magnets having geometry with magnetic moments M and 2M are first placed in such a way that
their similar poles are same side then its time period of oscillation is T 1 . Now the polarity of one of the
magnet is reversed then the time period of oscillation is T 2 , so:

A. A) T 1 < T 2
B. B) T 1 = T 2
C. C) T 1 > T 2
D. D) T 2 = ∞

Question 40

The length of a magnet is large compared to its width and breadth. The time period of its oscillation in a
vibration magnetometer is 2 s. The magnet is cut along its length into three equal parts and three parts are
then placed on each other with their like poles together. The time period of this combination will be

A. A) 2 s
B. B) 2/3 s
C. C) 2√3 s
D. D) 2/√3 s

Question 41

A series combination of n 1 capacitors, each of value C 1 , is charged by a source of potential difference 4 V

. When another parallel combination of n 2 capacitors, each of value C 2 , is charged by a source of potential
difference V , it has the same (total) energy stored in it, as the first combination has. The value of C 2 , in
terms of C 1 , is then

A. A) n2Cn1
1 2

B. B) 16 n2 C 1
n
1

C. C) 2 nn21 C 1
D. D)
16C 1
n1 n2

Question 42

The magnetization of bar magnet of length 5 cm, cross sectional area 2 cm 2 and net magnetic moment
1 Am 2 is
A. A) 3 × 10mA
5

B. B) 4 × 10mA
5

C. C) 2 × 10mA
5

D. D) 1 × 10mA
5

Question 43

A paramagnetic substance, in the form of a cube with sides 1 cm, has a magnetic dipole moment of
20 × 10 −6 J T −1 , when a magnetic intensity of 60 × 10 3 A m −1 is applied. Its magnetic susceptibility is
A. A) 3.3 × 10 −4
B. B) 2.3 × 10 −2
C. C) 4.3 × 10
−2

D. D) 3.3 × 10 −2

Question 44

A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth's magnetic field with a period T . What happens to its period and
motion if its mass is quadrupled?

A. A) motion remains simple harmonic with time period = T2

B. B) motion remains S.H.M with time period = 2T
C. C) motion remains S.H.M. with time period = 4T
D. D) motion remains S.H.M and period nearly constant

Question 45

If a bar magnet of pole strength m and magnetic moment M is cut equally 5 times parallel to its axis and
again 3 times perpendicular to its axis, then the pole strength and magnetic moment of each piece are
respectively

A. A) 20 , 4
m M

B. B) m M
5 , 20
C. C) 6 , 24
m M

D. D) m ,M
5 24

Question 46

The mid points of two small magnetic dipoles of length d in end-on positions, are separated by a distance x
(x >> d). The magnitude of force between them is proportional to x −n where n is :

A. A) 3
B. B) 4
C. C) 2
D. D) 1

Question 47

A magnet of length 10 cm and magnetic moment 1Am is placed along side AB of an equilateral triangle
2

ABC . If the length of the side AB is 10 cm. The magnetic induction at the point C is
(μ 0 = 4π × 10 −7 Hm −1 )
A. A) 10 −9 T
B. B) 10 −7 T
C. C) 10 −5 T
D. D) 10 −4 T

Question 48

A short bar magnet placed in a horizontal plane has its axis aligned along north-south direction. Null points
are found on the axis of the magnet at 20 cm from the centre of magnet. The earth's magnetic field at the
place is B and angle of dip is 0 ∘ . If the total magnetic field on the normal bisector of the magnet 20 cm
from the centre of the magnet is 0.6G, then the magnitude of B is.

A. A) 0.2G
B. B) 0.4G
C. C) 1.2G
D. D) 0.3G

Question 49

An electron of charge e is moving in a circular orbit of radius r around a nucleus, at a frequency υ.

The magnetic moment associated with the orbital motion of the electron is
A. A) 2πυer 2

B. B) πυr
2

2
C. C) πeυr 2

D. D)
πυr 2
4

Question 50

A deflection magnetometer is placed with its arm along the east-west direction (tan A position) and a
short bar magnet is placed symmetrically along its axis at some distance with its north pole pointing
towards east. In this position the needle of the magnetometer shows a deflection of 60°. If we double the
distance of the bar magnet, then the deflection will be

A. A) sin −1 [ 83 ]
√

B. B) cos −1 [ 8 ]
√3

C. C) tan −1 [ 8 ]
√3

D. D) cot −1 [ 83 ]
√

Question 51

Two bar magnets A and B are placed one over the other and are allowed to Vibrate in a vibration
magnetometer. They make 20 oscillations per minute when the similar poles of A and B are on the same
side, while they make 15 oscillations per minute when their opposite poles lie on the same side. If M A and
M B are the magnetic moments of A and B and if M A > M B , the ratio of M A and M B is
A. A) 4 : 3
B. B) 25 : 7
C. C) 7 : 5
D. D) 25 : 16

Question 52

A short magnetic needle is pivoted in a uniform magnetic field of induction 1 T. Now, simultaneously
another magnetic field of induction √3 T is applied at right angles to the first field; the needle deflects
through an angle θ whose value is

A. A) 30 ∘
B. B) 45
∘

C. C) 90 ∘
D. D) 60 ∘

Question 53

A ferromagnetic material is heated above its curie temperature. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?

A. A) Ferromagnetic domains are perfectly arranged

B. B) Ferromagnetic domains become random
C. C) Ferromagnetic domains are not influenced
D. D) Ferromagnetic material changes into diamagnetic material

Question 54

The ratio of magnetic fields due to a bar magnet at the two axial points P1 and P2 which are separated
from each other by 10 cm is 25 : 2. P1 Point is situated at 10 cm from the centre of the magnet. (Points
P1 and P2 are on the same side of magnet and distance of P1 and P2 from the centre of magnet is much
greater than the distance of two ends of the magnet from the centre). Magnetic length of the bar magnet is

A. A) 5 cm
B. B) 10 cm
C. C) 15 cm
D. D) 20 cm

Question 55

If θ 1 and θ 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other,
then the true angle of dip θ is given by

A. A) cot 2 θ = cot 2 θ 1 + cot 2 θ 2

B. B) tan 2 θ = tan 2 θ 1 + tan 2 θ 2
C. C) cot 2 θ = cot 2 θ 1 − cot 2 θ 2
D. D) tan 2 θ = tan 2 θ 1 − tan 2 θ 2

Question 56

Two identical short bar magnets each having magnetic moment M are placed at a distance of 2d with their
axes perpendicular to each other in a horizontal plane. The magnetic induction at a point midway between
them is

A. A)
√2μ 0 M
4πd 3

B. B)
√3μ 0 M
4πd 3
C. C)
μ0 M
2πd 3

D. D)
√5μ 0 M
4πd 3

Question 57

A magnet freely suspended in a vibration magnetometer makes 40 oscillations per minute at place A and
20 oscillations per minute at a place B. If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field at A is
36 × 10 −6 T, then its value at B is
A. A) 30 × 10 −6 T
B. B) 9 × 10 −6 T
C. C) 144 × 10 −6 T
D. D) 288 × 10 −6 T

Question 58

The intensity of magnetization of a bar magnet is 5.0 × 10 4 Am . The magnetic length and the area of
−1

cross-section of the magnet are 12cm and 1cm 2 respectively. The magnitude of magnetic moment of this
bar magnet is (in SI unit)

A. A) 0.6
B. B) 1.3
C. C) 1.24
D. D) 2.4

Question 59

If r is the orbital radius and v is the orbital velocity of an electron in a hydrogen atom, then its magnetic
dipole moment is

A. A)
evr
2π

B. B) evr
C. C) evr
2
D. D) evr

Question 60

The plane of a dip circle is set in the geographic meridian and the apparent dip is δ 1 . It is then set in a
vertical plane perpendicular to the geographic meridian. The apparent dip angle is δ 2 . The declination θ at
the place is

A. A) tan −1 (tan δ 1 tan δ 2 )

B. B) tan −1 (tan δ 1 + tan δ 2 )

C. C) tan −1 ( tan δ1 )
tan δ
2

D. D) tan −1 (tan δ 1 − tan δ 2 )

Hard Questions

Question 61

Two short bar magnets have their magnetic moments 1.2Am and 1.0Am . They are placed on a
2 2

horizontal table parallel to each other at a distance of 20 cm between their centres, such that their north
poles pointing towards geographic south. They have common magnetic equatorial line. Horizontal
component of earth's field is 3.6 × 10 −5 T. Then, the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at mid point
of the line joining their centers is ( 4π0 = 10 −7 N/m)
μ

A. A) 3.6 × 10 −5 T
B. B) 1.84 × 10 −4 T
C. C) 2.56 × 10 −4 T
D. D) 5.8 × 10 −5 T

Question 62

The deflection produced in a tangent galvanometer, whose coil has a resistance of 9Ω is 30 ∘ . The potential
difference across the coil is 4.5 V. If the number of turns in the coil is 10 , the radius of the coil is (Given,
B H = 3.14 × 10 −5 T )
A. A) 2√3 × 10 −2 m
B. B) 10√3 × 10 −2 m
C. C) 6 × 10
−2
m
D. D) 3.5 × 10 −2
m

Question 63

The distance of two points on the axis of a magnet from its centre is 10 cm and 20 cm respectively. The
ratio of magnetic intensity at these points is 12. 5 : 1. The length of the magnet will be

A. A) 5 cm
B. B) 25 cm
C. C) 20 cm
D. D) 10 cm

Question 64

The earth is considered as a short magnet with its centre coinciding with the geometric centre of earth. The
angle of dip ϕ related to the magnetic latitude αλ as

A. A) tan ϕ = 2 tan
1
α
B. B) tan λ = 2 tan ϕ
C. C) tan λ = 2 tan ϕ
D. D) tan ϕ = 2 tan λ

Question 65

A magnetic needle lying parallel to the magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through an angle
45 ∘ . The torque required to maintain the needle in this position will be
A. A) √2W
B. B) 1
√3W

C. C) (√2 − 1)W
D. D) √W
( 2−1)

Question 66

A hoop and a solid cylinder of same mass and radius are made of a permanent magnetic material with their
respective axes. But the magnetic moment of hoop is twice of solid cylinder. They are placed in a uniform
magnetic field in such a manner that their magnetic moments make a small angle with the field. If the
oscillation periods of hoop and cylinder are T h and T c respectively, then:

A. A) T h = 2T c
B. B) T h = T c
C. C) T h = 0.5T c
D. D) T h = 1.5T c

Question 67

A compass needle oscillates 20 times per minute at a place where the dip is 45° and the magnetic field is
B 1 . The same needle oscillates 30 times per minute at a place where the dip is 30° and magnetic field is
B 2 . Then B 1 : B 2 is
A. A) 9√3 : 4√2

B. B) 4√2 : 9√3
C. C) 3√3 : 2√2

D. D) 2√2 : 3√3

Question 68

The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance at −173 °C is 1. 5 × 10 −2 . To have the

susceptibility 0. 5 × 10 , the change in temperature in °C is
−2

A. A) 100
B. B) 180
C. C) 200
D. D) 220

Question 69

A wire of length L = 20 cm is bent into a semi-circular arc and the two equal halves of the arc are
uniformly charged with charges +Q and −Q as shown in the figure. The magnitude of the charge on each
half is |Q| = 10 3 ε 0 , where ε 0 is the permittivity of free the space. The net electric field at the centre O is

A. A) (25 × 10 3 )ˆi NC −1

B. B) (50 × 10 3 )ˆi NC −1

C. C) (25 × 10 3 )ˆj NC
−1

D. D) (50 × 10 3 )ˆj NC −1

Question 70
A small bar magnet experiences a torque of 0.016Nm when placed with its axis at 30 ∘ with an external
field of 0.04 T. If the bar magnet is replaced by a solenoid of cross-sectional area of 1 cm 2 and 1000 turns
but having the same magnetic moment as that of bar magnet, then the current flowing through the solenoid
is

A. A) 2 A
B. B) 4 A
C. C) 6 A
D. D) 8 A

Question 71

A magnetic compass needle oscillates 30 times per minute at a place where the dip is 45° and 40 times
per minute where the dip is 30°. If B 1 and B 2 are the net magnetic fields due to the earth at the two
places respectively, then the ratio B 1 /B 2 is approximately equal to

A. A) 3.6
B. B) 1.8
C. C) 1.2
D. D) 0.7

Question 72

Two short bar magnets of length 1 cm each have magnetic moments 1 .20 A m 2 and 1 .00 A m 2
respectively. They are placed on a horizontal table parallel to each other with their N poles pointing
towards the south. They have a common magnetic equator and are separated by a distance of 20 .0 cm.
The value of the resultant horizontal magnetic induction at the mid-point O of the line joining their centres
is close to
( Horizontal component of earth's magnetic induction is 3 .6 ×10 −5 Wb m −2 )

A. A) 3 .50 ×10
−4
Wb m −2
B. B) 5 .80 ×10 −4 Wb m −2
C. C) 3 .6 ×10
−5
Wb m −2
D. D) 2 .56 ×10 −4 Wb m −2

Question 73

A magnet freely suspended in a vibration magnetometer makes 40 oscillations per minute at place A and
20 oscillations per minute at a place B. If the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field at A is
36 × 10 −6 T, then its value at B is
A. A) 30 × 10 −6 T
B. B) 9 × 10 −6 T
C. C) 144 × 10 −6 T
D. D) 288 × 10 −6 T

Question 74
 At a certain place a magnet makes 30 oscillations per minute. At another place where the magnetic field is
double, its time period will be

A. A) 4 s
B. B) 2 s
C. C) 12 s
D. D) √2 s

Question 75

Two small magnets have their masses and lengths in the ratio 1:2. The maximum torques experienced by
them in a uniform magnetic field are the same. For small oscillations, the ratio of their time periods is

A. A) 1
2√2
B. B) 1
√2
C. C) 1
2
D. D) 2√2

Question 76

A 25 cm long solenoid has the radius 2 cm and 500 turns. It carries a current of 15 A. If it is equivalent to
−
− → Magnetic moment →
a magnet of the same size and magnetization M ( volume ), then M is:

A. A) 3π A m −1
B. B) 30000 A m −1
C. C) 30000π A m −1
D. D) 300 A m −1

Question 77

Two indentical magnetic dipoles of magnetic moment 1.0Am each,placed at a separation of 2 m with
2

their axes perpendicular to each other. The resultant magnetic field at a point midway between the dipoles
is

A. A) √5 × 10 −7 T
B. B) 5 × 10 −7 T
C. C) 10
−7
T
D. D) 2 × 10 −7 T

Question 78

A fighter plane of length 20 m, wing span (distance from tip of one wing to the tip of the other wing) of 15 m
and height 5 m is flying towards east over Delhi. Its speed is 240 ms −1 . The earth's magnetic field over
Delhi is 5 × 10 T with the declination angle ~0 o and dip of θ such that sin θ = 23 . If the voltage
−5

developed is V B between the lower and upper side of the plane and V W between the tips of the wings then
V B and V W are close to :
A. A) V B = 40 mV ; V W = 135 mV with left side of pilot at higher voltage
B. B) V B = 45 mV ; V W = 120 mV with right side of pilot at higher voltage
C. C) V B = 40 mV ; V W = 135 mV with right side of pilot at high voltage
D. D) V B = 45 mV ; V W = 120 mV with left side of pilot at higher voltage

Question 79

A thin spherical shell of radius R is cut into two equal halves and then each of its halves is charged to the
same uniform surface charge density σ. If F is the force exerted on each half to keep them at equilibrium,
then F is proportional to

A. A) ε1 σ 2 R
0

B. B) 1 σ2
ε0 R

C. C) ε1 σ 2
2

0 R
D. D) 1
ε0 σ R2
2

Question 80

The mid points of two small magnetic dipoles of length d in end-on positions, are separated by a distance x
(x ≫ d). The magnitude of force between them is proportional to x −n where n is :

A. A) 3
B. B) 4
C. C) 2
D. D) 1

Question 81

A bar magnet has a magnetic moment equal to 5 × 10 −5 Wb m. It is suspended in a magnetic field which
has a magnetic induction B = 8π × 10 −4 T. The magnet vibrates with a period of vibration equal to 15 s.
The moment of inertia of magnet is

A. A) 4.54 × 10 4 kg m 2
B. B) 4.54 × 10 −5 kg m 2
C. C) 4.54 × 10 −4 kg m 2
D. D) 4.54 × 10 5 kgm 2

Question 82
Match the following
The correct answer is

A. A) A-(i), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(ii)

B. B) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
C. C) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
D. D) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)

Question 83

Two magnets held together in earth's magnetic field when the same polarity together causes 12 vib/ min
and when opposite poles 4 vib/min. What is the ratio of magnetic moments? If your answer is K, mark 4K
as answer after rounding off to nearest integer.

Question 84

The magnetic needle of a vibration magnetometer makes 12 oscillations per minute in the horizontal
component of earth's magnetic field. When an external short bar magnet is placed at some distance along
the axis of the needle in the same line, it makes 15 oscillations per minute. If the poles of the bar magnet
are interchanged, the number of oscillations it makes per minute is

A. A) √61
B. B) √63
C. C) √65
D. D) √67

Question 85

The magnetic needle of a vibration magnetometer makes 12 oscillations per minute in the horizontal
component of earth's magnetic field. When an external short bar magnet is placed at some distance along
the axis of the needle in the same line, it makes 15 oscillations per minute. If the poles of the bar magnet
are interchanged, the number of oscillations it makes per minute is √n. What is the value of n?

Question 86

At a certain place a magnet makes 30 oscillations per minute. At another place where the magnetic field is
double, its time period will be

A. A) 4 s
B. B) 2 s
C. C) 12 s
D. D) √2 s
Question 87

The electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave of amplitude 2 V m −1 varies with time and propagates
along z-axis. The average energy density of the magnetic field (in Jm −3 ) is

A. A) 13.29 × 10
−12

B. B) 8.86 × 10 −12
C. C) 17.72 × 10 −12
D. D) 4.43 × 10
−12

Question 88

Two bar magnets A and B are placed one over the other and are allowed to vibrate in a vibration
magnetometer. They make 20 oscillations per minute when the similar poles of A and B are on the same
side, while they make 15 oscillations per minute when their opposite poles lie on the same side. If M A and
M B are the magnetic moments of A and B and if M A > M B , the ratio of M A and M B is
A. A) 4 : 3
B. B) 25 : 7
C. C) 7 : 5
D. D) 25 : 16

Question 89

A bar magnet is 10 cm long is kept with its north (N)-pole pointing north. A neutral point is formed at a
distance of 15 cm from each pole. Given the horizontal component of earth's field is 0.4 Gauss, the pole
strength of the magnet is

A. A) 9 A-m
B. B) 6.75 A-m
C. C) 27 A-m
D. D) 1.35 A-m

Question 90

Assertion : The true geographic north direction is found by using a compass needle. Reason : The
magnetic meridian of the earth is along the axis of rotation of the earth.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - C Q31 - D Q61 - C
Q2 - A Q32 - A Q62 - B
Q3 - A Q33 - B Q63 - D
 Q4 - C Q34 - D Q64 - D
Q5 - A Q35 - B Q65 - D
Q6 - D Q36 - D Q66 - B
Q7 - A Q37 - B Q67 - D
Q8 - B Q38 - A Q68 - C
Q9 - A Q39 - A Q69 - A
Q10 - B Q40 - B Q70 - D
Q11 - C Q41 - D Q71 - D
Q12 - A Q42 - D Q72 - D
Q13 - B Q43 - A Q73 - B
Q14 - B Q44 - B Q74 - D
Q15 - A Q45 - C Q75 - A
Q16 - B Q46 - B Q76 - B
Q17 - B Q47 - D Q77 - A
Q18 - A Q48 - B Q78 - D
Q19 - A Q49 - C Q79 - D
Q20 - C Q50 - C Q80 - B
Q21 - A Q51 - B Q81 - D
Q22 - B Q52 - D Q82 - B
Q23 - C Q53 - B Q83 - 5 (Num)
Q24 - C Q54 - B Q84 - B
Q25 - A Q55 - A Q85 - 63 (Num)
Q26 - D Q56 - D Q86 - D
Q27 - C Q57 - B Q87 - B
Q28 - B Q58 - A Q88 - B
Q29 - B Q59 - C Q89 - B
Q30 - B Q60 - C Q90 - D

Magnetic Effects of Current

Easy Questions

Question 1

The magnetic moment (μ) of a revolving electron around the nucleus varies with principal quantum
number n as

A. A) μ ∝ n
B. B) μ ∝ 1/n
C. C) μ ∝ n 2
D. D) μ ∝ 1/n 2 .

Question 2

When a charged particle moving with velocity v → , the force on

→ is subjected to a magnetic field of induction B
it is non-zero. This implies that:

A. A) angle between is either zero or 180 ∘

B. B) angle between is necessarily 90 ∘
C. C) angle between can have any value other than 90 ∘
D. D) angle between can have any value other than zero and 180 ∘

Question 3

A proton of mass m moving with a speed v ( << c. velocity of light in vacuum) completes circular orbit in
time T in a uniform Whetic ficld. If the speed of the proton is increased to √2 v, what will be time needed
to plete the circular orbit?

A. A) √T
B. B) T
C. C) √
T
2
D. D) T2

Question 4

A circular coil of radius R carries an electric current. The magnetic field due to the coil at a point on the axis
of the coil located at a distance r from the center of the coil, such that r >> R, varies as

A. A) 1/r
B. B) 1/r 3/2
C. C) 1/r 2
D. D) 1/r 3 .

Question 5

A magnetic needle is placed in a uniform magnetic field and is aligned with the field. The needle is now
rotated by an angle of 60 ∘ and the work done is W . The torque on the magnetic needle at this position is

A. A) 2√3w
B. B) √3w

C. C) 23 w
√

D. D) 43 W
√

Question 6

The cyclotron frequency of an electron gyrating in a magnetic field of 1 T is approximately

A. A) 28MHz
B. B) 280MHz
C. C) 2.8GHz
D. D) 28GHz.

Question 7

A circular loop and a square loop are formed from two wires of same length and cross section. Same
current is passed through them. Then, the ratio of their dipole moments is

A. A) 4
B. B) π2
C. C) 2
D. D) π4

Question 8

In the following diagram, which particle has highest e/m value?

A. A) A
B. B) B
C. C) C
D. D) D

Question 9

Two parallel beams of positrons moving in the same direction will

A. A) repel each other

B. B) will not interact with each other
C. C) attract each other
D. D) be deflected normal to the plane containing the two beams

Question 10

A current of 1 A is flowing along positive x -axis through a straight wire of length 0.5m placed in a region of
a magnetic field given by B = (2i + 4j)T. The magnitude and the direction of the force experienced by
the wire respectively are

A. A) √18N, along positive z -axis

B. B) √20N, along positive x -axis
C. C) 2N, along positive z -axis
D. D) 4N, along positive y -axis
 Question 11

An electron is travelling along the x-direction. It encounters a magnetic field in the y-direction. Its
subsequent motion will be

A. A) straight line along the x-direction

B. B) a circle in the xz plane
C. C) a circle in the yz plane
D. D) a circle in the xy plane.

Question 12

A beam of clectron passes undeflected through mutually perpendicular electric and magnetic fields. If the
electric field is switched off, and the same magnetic field is maintained, the electrons move:

A. A) in a circular orbit
B. B) along a parabolic path
C. C) along a straight line
D. D) in an elliptical orbit.

Question 13

A particle with charge q moves with a velocity v in a direction perpendicular to the directions of uniform
clectric and magnetic ficlds, E and B respectively, which are mutually perpendicular to each other. Which
one of the following gives the condition for which the particle moves undeflected in its original trajectory?

A. A) v = E
B
B. B) v = E
B

C. C) v = √ B
E

D. D) v = q E
B

Question 14

Which of the following relation represent Biot-Savart's law?

–
A. A) dB = 4π0 d×
– μ –r
r
–
B. B) dB = 4π r3
– μ 0 dl×^r

–
C. C) dB = 4π r3
– μ 0 d×–r
–
D. D) dB = 4π0 d×
– μ –r
r 4

Question 15

Current through ABC and A ′ B ′ C ′ is I. What is the magnetic field at P ? BP = PB = r ( Here

′

C ′ B ′ PBC are collinear)

A. A) B = 4π
1 2I
r
B. B) B = 4π0 ( 2I
μ
r
)
C. C) B = 4πo ( rI )
μ

D. D) Zero

Question 16

A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the:

A. A) speed of the particle remains unchanged

B. B) direction of the particle remains unchanged
C. C) acceleration remains unchanged
D. D) velocity remains unchanged

Question 17

A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated
magnetic moment μ is given by:

A. A) qvR 2
B. B) qvR 2 /2
C. C) qvR
D. D) qvR/2.

Question 18

A charge ' q ' moves in a region where the electric field and the magnetic field both exist, then the force on
it is:

A. A) q(v →
→ × B)
→ + q(v→ × B)
B. B) qE →
→ + q(B
C. C) qE → × v→)
 → + q(B
D. D) qE → × v→)

Question 19

The magnetic field of a given length of wire for a single turn coil at the centre is ' B ' then, its value for two
turns coil for the same wire is:

A. A) B
4
B. B) B
2
C. C) 4B
D. D) 2B

Question 20

To which of the following quantities, the radius of the circular path of a charged particle moving at right
angles to a uniform magnetic field is directly proportional?

A. A) energy of the particle

B. B) magnetic field
C. C) charge of the particle
D. D) momentum of the particle

Question 21

Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field, a charged particle moves with constant speed V in a circle
of radius R. The time period of rotation of the particle :

A. A) Depends on both v and R

B. B) Depends on v and not on R
C. C) Depends on R and not on v
D. D) Is independent of both v and R

Question 22

A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is suspended between the pole of a permanent
magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to current i in the triangle a torque τ acts on it, the side l
of the triangle is:

A. A)
2 τ
√3
( Bi )
1/2
B. B) 2( τ
)
√3Bi

C. C) 2 ( Bi
τ 1/2
)
√3
D. D) 1 Bi
τ
√3

Question 23

An equilateral triangle is made by uniform wires AB, BC, CA. A current I enters at A and leaves from
the mid point of BC . If the lengths of each side of the triangle is L, the magnetic field B at the centroid O
of the triangle is

A. A) 4π0 ( 4L
μ
L
)
B. B) 2π ( L )
μ 0 4L

C. C) 4π ( L )
μ0 2L

D. D) zero

Question 24

A wire in the form of a square of side a carries a current i. Then, the magnetic induction at the centre of the
square is (Magnetic permeability of free space = μ 0 )

A. A) 2πa
μd i

B. B)
μj√2
πa

C. C)
2√2μ d
πa
D. D)
μ0 j
√2πα

Question 25

Two changes +q and −q are attached to the two ends of a light rod of length L, as shown in figure. The
→ . The magnetic force on the system of
system is given a velocity v perpendicular to magnetic field B
charges and magnitude of force on one charge by the rod, are respectively

A. A) zero, zero
B. B) zero, qvB
C. C) 2qvB, 0
D. D) 2qvB, qvB

Question 26
A straight conductor 0.1m long moves in uniform magnetic field 0.1T. The velocity the conductor is 15m/s
and is directer perpendicular to the field. The emf inducod between the two ends of the conductor is

A. A) 0.10V
B. B) 0.15V
C. C) 1.50V
D. D) 15.00v

Question 27

A bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 200Am . The magnet is suspended in a magnetic field of
2

0.30NA −1 m −1 . The torque required to rotate the magnet from its equilibrium position through an angle of
30 ∘ , will be
A. A) 30N -m

B. B) 30√3N − m
C. C) 60N -m
D. D) 60√3N ⋅ m

Question 28

Assertion : If a proton and an a-particle enter a uniform magnetic field perpendicularly with the same
speed, the time period of revolution of aparticle is double that of proton. Reason : In a magnetic field, the
period of revolution of a charged particle is directly proportional to the mass of the particle and is inversely
proportional to charge of particle.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 29

A straight wire of length 2m carries a current of 10A. If this wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field of
0.15 T making an angle of 45 with the magnetic field, the applied force on the wire will be
∘

A. A) 1.5N
B. B) 3N

C. C) 3√2N
D. D) 3 N
√2

Question 30

Assertion : The energy of charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field does not change. Reason :
Work done by magnetic field on the charge is zero.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Moderate Questions

Question 31

A square conducting loop is placed near an infinitely long current carrying wire with one edge parallel to the
wire as shown in the figure. If the current in the straight wire is suddenly halved. which of the following
statements will be true? "The loop will .......".

A. A) stay stationary
B. B) move towards the wire
C. C) move away from the wire
D. D) move parallel to the wire

Question 32

Consider two infinitely long wires parallel to Z-axis carrying same current I in the positive Z direction. One
wire passes through the point L at coordinates (−1, +1) and the other wire passes through the point M
at coordinates (−1, −1). The resultant magnetic field at the origin O will be

A. A) √ ^j
μ0 I
2 2π
B. B) 2π
μ0 I ^
j
C. C)
μ0 I ^
i
2√2π

D. D)
μ0 I ^
4π j

Question 33

A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 'B' in different orientations I, II, III and IV as
shown in the figure. The correct order of decreasing potential energy is ( n
^-unit vector normal to the plane
of the loop)

A. A) I, III, II, IV
B. B) I, II, III, IV
C. C) I, IV, II, III
D. D) III, IV, I, II

Question 34

Two concentric coils of 10 turns each are placed in the same plane. Their radii are 20 cm and 40 cm and
carry 0.2 and 0.3 A. current respectively in opposite directions. The magnetic induction (in T) at the centre
is

A. A) 4 μ 0
3

B. B) 54 μ 0
C. C) 74 μ 0
D. D) 4 μ 0
9

Question 35

An electron beam travels with a velocity of 1.6 × 10 7 ms −1 perpendicularly to magnetic field of intensity
0.1 T. The radius of the path of the electron beam (m e = 9 × 10 −31 kg )
A. A) 9 × 10 −5 m
B. B) 9 × 10 −2 m
C. C) 9 × 10 −4 m
D. D) 9 × 10 −3 m

Question 36

Velocity and acceleration vectors of charged particle moving perpendicular to the direction of a magnetic
field at a given instant of time are v = 2^i + c^j and a = 3^i + 4^j respectively. Then the value of c is
→ →
A. A) 3
B. B) 1.5
C. C) −1.5
D. D) −3

Question 37

An electron revolves in a circle of radius 0.4Ã … with a speed of 10 6 m/s in a hydrogen atom. The
magnetic field produced at the centre of the orbit due to the motion of the electron (in Tesla) is :
[μ 0 = 4π × 10 −7 H/m, charge on the electron = 1.6 × 10 −19 C]
A. A) 0.1
B. B) 1.0
C. C) 10
D. D) 100

Question 38

The period of oscillation of a bar magnet at a place is 2 s. At the same place, the period of oscillation of
another identical bar magnet whose magnetic moment is 4 times to that of first magnet is

A. A) 4 s
B. B) 1 s
C. C) 2 s
D. D) 0.5 s

Question 39

A dielectric circular disc of radíus R carries a unform surface charge density σ. If it rotates about its axis
with angular velocity ω, the magnetic fíeld at the cente of dísc is :
μ 0 σωR 2
A. A) 2π
B. B)
μ 0 σωR
2
μ 0 σωR 2
C. C) 4

D. D)
μ 0 σωR 2
2√2

Question 40

A current ' I ′ is flowing along an infinite, straight wire, in the positive Z -direction and the same current is
flowing along a similar parallel wire 5m apart, in the negative Z-direction. A point P is at a perpendicular
distance 3m from the first wire and 4m from the second. What will be magnitude of the magnetic field B of
P?
A. A) 12 (u 0 I)
5

B. B) 24
7
(μ 0 I)
C. C) 24
5
(μ 0 I)
D. D) 288 (μ 0 I)
25
Question 41

The magnetic field at the point of intersection of diagonals of a square wire loop of side L carrying a current
I is
A. A) πL
0μ I

B. B) πL0
2μ I

C. C)
√2μ 0 I
πL

D. D)
2√2μ o I
πL

Question 42

Magnetic induction at the centre of a circular loop of area πm 2 is 0.1 tesla. The magnetic moment of the
loop is ( μ 0 = permeability of air )

A. A) μ0
0.1π

B. B) 0.2π
μ 0

C. C) 0.3π
μ0

D. D) 0.4π
μ 0

Question 43

Two infinite line-charges parallel to each other are moving with a constant velocity v in the same direction
as shown in the figure. The separation between two line-charges is d. The magnetic attraction balances the
electric repulsion when, [c = speed of light in free space]

A. A) v = √2c
B. B) v = c
√2

C. C) v = c
D. D) v = 2c

Question 44

Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry currents I c and I e respectively as shown in figure.
Assuming that these are placed in the same plane, the magnetic field will be zero at the centre of the loop
when separation H is
A. A) Iec π
I R

B. B) IIc R
eπ

C. C) IπIRc
e

D. D) .
Ie π
Ic R

Question 45

Two short magnets AB and CD are in the X − Y plane and are parallel to X-axis and co-ordinates of
their centres respectively are (0, 2) and (2, 0). Line joining the north-south poles of CD is opposite to that
of AB and lies along the positive X-axis. The resultant field induction due to AB and CD at a point
P (2, 2) is 100 × 10 −7 T. When the poles of the magnet CD are reversed, the resultant field induction is
50 × 10 −7 T. The value of magnetic moments of AB and CD (in Am 2 ) are :
A. A) 300; 200
B. B) 600; 400
C. C) 200; 100
D. D) 300; 150

Question 46

An electron moves with speed 2 × 10 5 m/s along the positive x-direction in the presence of a magnetic
field of induction B = ^i + 4^j − 3k
^ (in tesla). The magnitude of the force experienced by the electron in
newtons is ( Charge on the electron = 1.6 × 10
−19
C)
A. A) 1.18 × 10 −13
B. B) 1.28 × 10 −13
C. C) 1.6 × 10 −13
D. D) 1.72 × 10 −13

Question 47

An electron in a circular orbit of radius 0.05nm performs 10 16 revolutions per second. The maghetic
moment due to this rotation of electron is (in Am )
2

A. A) 2.16 × 10
−23

B. B) 3.21 × 10 −22
C. C) 3.21 × 10 −24
D. D) 1.26 × 10 −23

Question 48

Three long, straight, parallel wires carrying different currents are arranged as shown in the diagram. In the
given arrangement, let the net force per unit length on the wire ' C ' be F→. If the wire ' B ' is removed
without disturbing the other two wires, then the force per unit length on wire ' A ' is

→
A. A) −F
→
B. B) 3F
→
C. C) 2F
→
D. D) −3F

Question 49

Magnetic field induction at the centre of a circular coil of radius 5 cm and carrying a current 0.9 A is (in SI
units) (ε 0 = absolute permittivity of air in SI units, velocity of light = 3 × 10 8 ms −1 )

A. A) ε 1016
1
0

B. B) 10ε0
16

C. C)
ε0
10 16
D. D) 10 ε 0
16

Question 50

A proton of mass m and charge q is moving in a plane with kinetic energy E . If there exists a uniform
magnetic field B, perpendicular to the plane of the motion, the proton will move in a circular path of radius

A. A) qB
2Em

B. B)
√2Em
qB

C. C) 2qB
√
Em

D. D) √ mB
2Eq
Question 51

A proton and an α-particle, moving with the same velocity, enter into a uniform magnetic field, acting
normal to the plane of their motion. The ratio of the radii of the circular paths described by the proton and α
-particle is

A. A) 1 : 2
B. B) 1 : 4
C. C) 1 : 16
D. D) 4 : 1.

Question 52

Two particles, A and B, having equal charges, after being accelerated through the same potential
difference enter into a region of uniform magnetic field and the particles describe circular paths of radii R 1
and R 2 resporctively. The ratio of the masses of A and B is

A. A) √R 1 /R 2
B. B) R 1 /R 2
C. C) (R 1 /R 2 )
2

D. D) (R 2 /R 1 )
2

Question 53

A current ' i ' is flowing through a wire of length ' L '. If it is made into a circular loop of one turn, then its
magnetic moment is

A. A) 4π
L2 i

B. B) 4π
L2

C. C) L4π2 i
D. D) 4πL 2 i

Question 54

A proton, a deuteron (nucleus of 1 H 2 ) and an α-particle with same kinetic energy enter a region of uniform
magnetic field moving at right angles to the field. The ratio of the radii of their circular paths is :

A. A) 1 : 2 : 4
B. B) 1 : √2 : 1

C. C) 2 : √2 : 1
D. D) 1 : 1 : 2

Question 55

A bar magnet of magnetic moment M and moment of inertia I is freely suspended such that the magnetic
axial line is in the direction of magnetic meridian. If the magnet is displaced by a very small angle (θ), the
angular acceleration is (Magnetic induction of earth's horizontal field = B H )

A. A)
MB H θ
I
B. B)
IB H θ
M
C. C)
Mθ
IB H
D. D) Iθ
MB H

Question 56

The ratio of magnetic field and magnetic moment at the centre of a current carrying circular loop is x.
When both the current and radius is doubled the ratio will be

A. A) x/8
B. B) x/4
C. C) x/2
D. D) 2x

Question 57

As shown in the figure, a single conducting wire is bent to form a loop in the form of a circle of radius 'r'
concentrically inside a square of side ' a ', where a : r = 8 : π. A battery B drives a current through the
wire. If the battery B and the gap G are of negligible sizes, determine the strength of magnetic field at the
common centre O.

A. A) ⋅ 2πa √2(√2 − 1)
μ0 ∣

B. B) 2πa (√2 + 1)
μ0 I

C. C) πa
0μ I
2√2(√2 + 1)
D. D) πa
0μ I
2√2(√2 − 1)

Question 58

Two wires A and B are of lengths 40 cm and 30 cm. A is bent into a circle of radius r and B into an arc
of radius r. A current i 1 is passed through A and i 2 through B. To have the same magnetic inductions at
the centre, the ratio of i 1 : i 2 is

A. A) 3 : 4
B. B) 3 : 5
C. C) 2 : 3
D. D) 4 : 3

Question 59

A wire in the form of a square of side a carries a current i. Then, the magnetic induction at the centre of the
square is (Magnetic permeability of free space = μ 0 )
A. A) 2πa
dμ i

B. B)
μj√2
πa

C. C)
2√2μ d
πa
D. D)
μ0 j
√2πα

Question 60

The expression for the magnetic energy stored in a solenoid of length L, in terms of magnetic field B and
area A is

A. A) 2μ1 B 2 AL
0

B. B)
1 2
2ϵ 0 B AL

C. C)
1 2
2μ 0 BA L

D. D) 1 2
2ϵ 0 BA L

Hard Questions

Question 61

A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two adjacent fixed points and carries a current I in the
clockwise direction, as shown in the figure. When the system is put in a uniform magnetic field of strength
B going into the plane of the paper, the wire takes the shape of a circle. The tension in the wire is

A. A) IBL
B. B) IBL
π
C. C) IBL
2π
D. D) IBL
4π

Question 62

A magnetic field B = B 0^j exists in the region a < x < 2a and B = B 0^j in the region 2a < x < 3a,
where B 0 is a positive constant. A positive point charge moving with a velocity v = v 0^i, where v 0 is a
positive constant, enters the magnetic field at x = a. The trajectory of the charge in this region can be like

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 63

Two circular loops L 1 and L 2 of wire carrying equal and opposite currents are placed parallel to each other
with a common axis. The radius of loop L 1 is R 1 and that of L 2 is R 2 . The distance between the centres
of the loops is √3R 1 . The magnetic field at the centre of L 2 shall be zero if

A. A) R 2 = 4R 1
B. B) R 2 = 2R 1
C. C) R 2 = √2R 1
D. D) R 2 = 8R 1

Question 64

A semi-circular loop of radius 30 cm wire carries current 6 A. An uniform magnetic field 0.5 T is present
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. What is the magnitude of force exerted on the wire?

A. A) 0.9 N
B. B) 1.8 N
C. C) 0.8 N
D. D) 1.4 N

Question 65
A charged particle of mass m 1 and charge q 1 is revolving in a circle of radius r. Another charged particle
of charge q 2 and mass m 2 is situated at the centre of the circle. If the velocity and time period of the
revolving particle be v and T respectively, then

Question 66

→
An electron enters an electric field having intensity E = 3i + 6^j + 2k
^ ⋅ Vm −1 and magnetic field having
induction B = 2^i + 3^j T with a velocity v = 2^i + 3^j ms −1 . The magnitude of the force acting on the
electron is (Given, e = −1.6 × 10 −19 C)

A. A) 2.02 × 10
−18
N
B. B) 5.16 × 10 −16 N
C. C) 3.72 × 10 −17 N
D. D) None of the above

Question 67

A circular coil of radius R and N turns has negligible resistance. As shown in the schematic figure, its two
ends are connected to two wires and it is hanging by those wires with its plane being vertical. The wires are
connected to a capacitor with charge Q through a switch. The coil is in a horizontal uniform magnetic field
B o parallel to the plane of the coil. When the switch is closed, the capacitor gets discharged through the
coil in a very short time. By the time the capacitor is discharged fully, magnitude of the angular momentum
gained by the coil will be (assume that the discharge time is so short that the coil has hardly rotated during
this time)

A. A) 2 NQB o R 2
π

B. B) πNQB o R 2
C. C) 2πNQB o R 2
D. D) 4πNQB o R 2

Question 68

Two concentric coils of 10 turns each are placed in the same plane. Their radii are 20 cm and 40 cm and
carry 0.2 and 0.3 A. current respectively in opposite directions. The magnetic induction (in T) at the centre
is

A. A) 4 μ 0
3

B. B) 54 μ 0
C. C) 4 μ 0
7

D. D) 94 μ 0

Question 69

Two parallel wires in the plane of the paper are distance X 0 apart. A point charge is moving with speed u
between the wires in the same plane at a distance X 1 from one of the wires. When the wires carry current
of magnitude I in the same direction, the radius of curvature of the path of the point charge is R 1 . In
contrast, if the currents I in the two wires have directions opposite to each other, the radius of curvature of
the path is R 2 . If X0 = 3 , value of R1 is
X R
1 2

Question 70

In the xy - plane, the region y > 0 has a uniform magnetic field B 1 ˆ

k and the region y < 0 has another
uniform magnetic field B 2 ˆ
k. A positively charged particle is projected from the origin along the positive
y − axis with speed v 0 = π m s −1 at t = 0, as shown in the figure. Neglect gravity in this problem. Let
t = T be the time when the particle crosses the x − axis from below for the first time. If B 2 = 4B 1 , the
average speed of the particle, in m s −1 , along the x − axis in the time interval T is ________.

Question 71

Statement I A vertical iron rod has a coil of wire wound over it at the bottom end. An alternating current
flows in the coil. The rod goes through a conducting ring as shown in the figure. The ring can float at a
certain height above the coil. Statement II In the above situation, a current is induced in the ring which
interacts with the horizontal component of the magnetic field to produce an average force in the the upward
direction.

A. A) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II is a correct explanation for Statement

B. B) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II is NOT a correct explanation for Statement I
C. C) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
D. D) Statement I is false, Statement II is true

Question 72

A circular loop of radius r of conducting wire connected with a voltage source of zero internal resistance
produces a magnetic field B at its centre. If instead, a circular loep of radius 2r, made of same material,
having the same cross-section is connected to the same voltage source, what will be the magnetic ficld at
its centre?

A. A) B
2
B. B) B
4
C. C) 2B
D. D) B

Question 73

An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as shown below. It carries a current of I ampere
and the radius of the circular loop is R metre. Then, the magnitude of magnetic induction at the centre of
the circular loop is

A. A) 2πR
μ I
0

B. B) 2R
μ 0 nI

C. C) 2πR (π + 1)
μ0 I

D. D) 2πR
0μ I
(π − 1)

Question 74

Two short magnets AB and CD are in the X − Y plane and are parallel to X-axis and co-ordinates of
their centres respectively are (0, 2) and (2, 0). Line joining the north-south poles of CD is opposite to that
of AB and lies along the positive X-axis. The resultant field induction due to AB and CD at a point
P (2, 2) is 100 × 10 −7 T. When the poles of the magnet CD are reversed, the resultant field induction is
50 × 10 −7 T. The value of magnetic moments of AB and CD (in Am 2 ) are :
A. A) 300; 200
B. B) 600; 400
C. C) 200; 100
D. D) 300; 150

Question 75

A magnetic dipole is under the influence of two orthogonal magnetic fields, B 1 = 0.5 × 10 −3 T and
B 2 = 0.866 × 10 −3 T. If the dipole comes to stable equilibrium at an angle θ with respect to B 2 field,
then the value of θ is
A. A) 45 ∘
B. B) 30
∘

C. C) 60 ∘
D. D) 90
∘

Question 76

→ = B 0 (2 − x )k
A straight wire is placed in a magnetic field that varies with distance x from origin as B ^.
a
Ends of wire are at (a, 0) and (2a, 0) and it carries a current I. If force on wire is F→ = IB 0 ( ka
2
)^j, then
value of k is

A. A) 1
B. B) 5
C. C) −1
D. D) 12

Question 77

A long straight wire carrying a current of 30 A is placed in an external uniform magnetic field of induction
4 × 10 −4 T. The magnetic field is acting parallel to the direction of current. The magnitude of the resultant
magnetic induction in tesla at a point 2.0 cm away from the wire is (μ 0 = 4π × 10 H/m)
−7

A. A) (a) 10 −4
B. B) 3 × 10 −4
C. C) 5 × 10 −4
D. D) 6 × 10 −4

Question 78

A moving coil galvanometer has 50 turns and each turn has an area 2 × 10 −4 m 2 . The magnetic field
produced by the magnet inside the galvanometer is 0.02 T . The torsional constant of the suspension wire
is 10 −4 N m rad . When a current flows through the galvanometer, a full scale deflection occurs if the
−1

coil rotates by 0.2 rad . The resistance of the coil of the galvanometer is 50 Ω . This galvanometer is to be
converted into an ammeter capable of measuring current in the range 0 − 1.0 A . For this purpose, a
shunt resistance is to be added in parallel to the galvanometer. The value of this shunt resistance, in ohms,
is __________. If your answer is K, mark 2K as answer after rounding off to nearest integer.

Question 79

Paragraph
A special metal S conducts electricity without any resistance. A closed wire loop, made of S , does not allow
any change in flux through itself by inducing a suitable current to generate a compensating flux. The
induced current in the loop cannot decay due to its zero resistance. This current gives rise to a magnetic
moment which in turn repels the source of magnetic field or flux. Consider such a loop, of radius a, with its
center at the origin. A magnetic dipole of moment m is brought along the axis of this loop from infinity to a
point at distance r(≫ a) from the center of the loop with its north pole always facing the loop, as shown in
the figure below.
The magnitude of magnetic field of a dipole m, at a point on its axis at distance r, is 2π0 rm3 , where μ 0 is the
μ

permeability of free space. The magnitude of the force between two magnetic dipoles with moments, m 1
and m 2 , separated by a distance r on the common axis, with their north poles facing each other, is ,
km 1 m 2
r4
where k is a constant of appropriate dimensions. The direction of this force is along the line joining the two
dipoles.

QuestionThe work done in bringing the dipole from infinity to a distance r from the centre of the loop by
the given process is proportional to:

A. A) r5
m

B. B) m
2

r 5

C. C) r6
m2

D. D) m
2

r 7

Question 80

A uniform current is flowing along the length dinfinite, straight. thin. hollow cylinder dradius R The magnetic
field B produced at perpendicular distance d from the axis of the cylinder is plotied in a graph. Which of the
following figures looks like the plot?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 81

Two wires each carrying a steady current I are shown in four configurations in Column I. Some of the
resulting effects are described in Column II. Match the statements in Column I with the statements in
Column II and indicate your answer by darkening appropriate bubbles in the 4 × 4 matrix given in the
ORS.

A. A) A-p; B-p, s; C-p; D-q

B. B) A-p, q; B-r, s; C-r, s; D-r, s
C. C) A-q; B-s; C-s; D-p, q
D. D) A-q, r; B-p; C-q, r; D-q, s

Question 82

Two wires A and B are of lengths 40 cm and 30 cm. A is bent into a circle of radius r and B into an arc
of radius r. A current i 1 is passed through A and i 2 through B. To have the same magnetic inductions at
the centre, the ratio of i 1 : i 2 is

A. A) 3 : 4
B. B) 3 : 5
C. C) 2 : 3
D. D) 4 : 3

Question 83

A small circular loop of area A and resistance R is fixed on a horizontal xy-plane with the center of the
loop always on the axis n̂ of a long solenoid. The solenoid has m turns per unit length and carries current
I counter clockwise as shown in the figure. The magnetic field due to the solenoid is in n̂ direction. List-I
gives time dependences of n̂ in terms of a constant angular frequency ω. List-II gives the torques
A 2 μ 20 m 2 I 2 ω
experienced by the circular loop at time t = 6ω
π
, Let α = 2R .

List-I List-II

(i) (p)
1
√2
(sin ωtˆj + cos ωtˆ
k) 0

(ii) (q)
1
√2
(sin ωtˆi + cos ωtˆj) − α4 ˆi

(iii) 1
√2
(sin ωtˆi + cos ωtˆ
k) (r) 3α ˆ
4 i

(iv) (s)
1 αˆ
√2
(cos ωtˆj + sin ωtˆ
k) 4j
 (t) − 3α
4
ˆi

Which one of the following options is correct?

A. A) i → q, ii → p, iii → s, iv → t
B. B) i → s, ii → t, iii → q, iv → p
C. C) i → q, ii → p, iii → s, iv → r
D. D) i → t, ii → q, iii → p, iv → r

Question 84

Two long parallel wires separated by 0.1m carry currents of 1 A and 2 A, respectively in opposite
directions. A third current-carrying wire parallel to both of them is placed in the same plane such that it feels
no net magnetic force. It is placed at a distance of

Question 85

A bar magnet of magnetic moment M and moment of inertia I is freely suspended such that the magnetic
axial line is in the direction of magnetic meridian. If the magnet is displaced by a very small angle (θ), the
angular acceleration is (Magnetic induction of earth's horizontal field = B H )

A. A)
MB H θ
I
B. B)
IB H θ
M
C. C)
Mθ
IB H
D. D) Iθ
MB H

Question 86

A steady current I goes through a wire loop P QR having shape of a right angle triangle with
P Q = 3x, P R = 4x and QR = 5x. If the magnitude of the magnetic field at P due to this loop is
), find the value of k.
μ I
0
k ( 48πx

Question 87

A thin charged rod is bent into the shape of a small circle of radius R the charge per unit length of the rod
being λ. The circle is rotated about its axis with a time period T and it is found that the magnetic field at a
distance ' d ' away (d >> R) from the center and on the axis, varies as Rdn . The values of m and n
m

respectively are

A. A) m = 2, n = 2
B. B) m = 2, n = 3
C. C) m = 3, n = 2
D. D) m = 3, n = 3

Question 88

A long conducting wire carrying a current I is bent at 120 ∘ (see figure). The magnetic field B at a point P
on the right bisector of bending angle at a distance d from the bend is (μ 0 is the permeability of free space)

A. A) 2πd
3μ I
0

B. B) 2πd
0μ I

C. C) √
μ0 I
3nd

D. D)
√3μ 0 I
2πd

Question 89

A wire of length l is bent into a circular loop of radius R and carries a current I . The magnetic field at the
centre of the loop is B. The same wire is now bent into a double loop of equal radii. If both loops carry the
same current I and it is in the same direction, the magnetic field at the centre of the double loop will be

A. A) Zero
B. B) 2 B
C. C) 4 B
D. D) 8 B

Question 90

An α-particle (mass 4 amu) and a singly charged Sulphur ion (mass 32 amu) are initially at rest. They are
accelerated through a potential V and then allowed to pass into a region of uniform magnetic field which is
normal to the velocities of the particles. Within this region, the α-particle and the sulphur ion move in
circular orbits of radii R α and R S , respectively. The ratio ( RSα ) is __________ .
R

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q31 - C Q61 - C
Q2 - D Q32 - B Q62 - A
Q3 - B Q33 - C Q63 - D
Q4 - D Q34 - B Q64 - B
Q5 - B Q35 - C Q66 - D
Q6 - D Q36 - C Q67 - B
Q7 - D Q37 - C Q68 - B
 Q8 - D Q38 - B Q69 - 3 (Num)
Q9 - C Q39 - B Q70 - 2 (Num)
Q10 - C Q40 - C Q71 - A
Q11 - B Q41 - D Q72 - B
Q12 - A Q42 - B Q73 - D
Q13 - A Q43 - C Q74 - A
Q14 - C Q44 - A Q75 - B
Q15 - B Q45 - A Q76 - C
Q16 - A Q46 - C Q77 - C
Q17 - D Q47 - D Q78 - 11 (Num)
Q18 - B Q48 - D Q79 - C
Q19 - C Q49 - A Q80 - C
Q20 - D Q50 - B Q81 - D
Q21 - D Q51 - A Q82 - A
Q22 - B Q52 - C Q83 - C
Q23 - D Q53 - A Q85 - A
Q24 - C Q54 - B Q86 - 7 (Num)
Q25 - B Q55 - A Q87 - D
Q26 - B Q56 - A Q88 - D
Q27 - A Q57 - D Q89 - A
Q28 - A Q58 - A Q90 - 4 (Num)
Q29 - D Q59 - C
Q30 - D Q60 - A

Electromagnetic Induction

Easy Questions

Question 1

Two inductors L 1 and L 2 are connected in parallel and a time varying current flows as shown in figure.
The ratio ot current i1 at any ime t Is
i
2

A. A) L2
L
1

B. B) L12
L

L 22
C. C) 2
(L 1 +L 2 )
 L 21
D. D)
(L 1 +L 2 ) 2

Question 2

The back emf in a DC motor is maximum when,

A. A) the motor has picked up maximum speed

B. B) the motor has just started moving
C. C) the speed of motor is still on increase
D. D) the motor has just been switched off

Question 3

A metal disc of radius : 'R' rorates with an angular velocity ' ω ' 'about an axis perpendicular to its plane
passing through its centre in a magnetic' field of induction ' B ' acting perpendicular to the plane of the disc.
The magnitude of induced. e.m.f. between the rim and axis of the disc is

A. A) πBR 2

B. B)
2π 2 BR 2
ω
C. C) πBR ω
2

D. D) BR2 ω
2

Question 4

The back emf induced in a coil, when current changes from 1 ampere to zero in one milli-second, is 4 volts,
the self inductance of the coil is

A. A) 1 henry
B. B) 4 henry
C. C) 10 −3 henry
D. D) 4 × 10 henry
−3

Question 5

Two different coils have self inductance 8mH and 2mH. The current in both coils are increased at same
constant rate. The ratio of the induced emf's in the coil is

A. A) 4 : 1
B. B) 1 : 4
C. C) 1 : 2
D. D) 2 : 1

Question 6

Lenz's law is a consequence of law of conservation of

A. A) energy only
B. B) charge only
C. C) momentum only
D. D) energy and momentum

Question 7

Two coils of self inductance 2mH and 8 mH are placed so close together that the effective flux in one coil
is completely linked with the other. The mutual inductance between these coils is:

A. A) 16mH
B. B) 10mH
C. C) 6mH
D. D) 4mH

Question 8

The magnetic flux linked with a coil (in Wb) is given by the equation ϕ = 5t 2 + 3t + 16. The magnitude
of induced emf in the coil at the fourth second will be:

A. A) 33 V
B. B) 43 V
C. C) 108 V
D. D) 10 V

Question 9

An inductor may store energy in

A. A) its electric field

B. B) its coil
C. C) its magnetic field
D. D) Both electric and magnetic fields

Question 10

A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it the magnetic flux linked with each
turn of the solenoid is 4 × 10 −3 Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is:

A. A) 4 H
B. B) 3 H
C. C) 2 H
D. D) 1 H

Question 11

The ratio of secondary and primary turns of step-up transformer is 4 : 1. If a current of 4 A is applied to the
primary, the induced current in secondary will be

A. A) 8 A
B. B) 2 A
C. C) 1 A
D. D) 0.5 A

Question 12

The magnetic energy stored in an inductor of inductance 4 μH carrying a current of 2 A is:

A. A) 8 μJ
B. B) 4 μJ
C. C) 4 mJ
D. D) 8 mJ

Question 13

A coil of 40 henry inductance is connected in series with a resistance of 8ohm and the combination is
joined to the terminals of a 2 volt battery. The time constant of the circuit is:

A. A) 5 seconds
B. B) 1/5 seconds
C. C) 40 seconds
D. D) 20 seconds

Question 14

Mutual inductance of two coils can be increased by

A. A) decreasing the number of turns in the coils

B. B) increasing the number of turns in the coils
C. C) winding the coils on wooden cores
D. D) None of these

Question 15

Eddy currents are produced when

A. A) a metal is kept in varying magnetic field

B. B) a metal is kept in steady magnetic field
C. C) a circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
D. D) through a circular coil, current is passed

Question 16

A rectangular, a square, a circular and an elliptical loop, all in the (x − y) plane, are moving out of a
uniform magnetic field with a constant velocity, v
→ = vi. The magnetic field is directed along the negative z-
axis direction. The induced emf, during the passage of these loops, out of the field region, will not remain
constant for

A. A) the rectangular, circular and elliptical loops

B. B) the circular and the elliptical loops
C. C) only the elliptical loop
D. D) any of the four loops

Question 17

The laws of electromagnetic induction have been used in the construction of a

A. A) galvanometer
B. B) voltmeter
C. C) electric motor
D. D) generator

Question 18

The radius of the circular conducting loop shown in figure is R. Magnetic field is decreasing at a constant
rate α. Resistance per unit length of the loop is ρ. Then current in wire AB is ( AB is one of the
diameters)

A. A) Rα
2ρ from B to A

B. B) Rα
2ρ
from A to B

C. C) 2Rα
ρ
from A to B

D. D) zero

Question 19

A 800 turn coil of the effective area 0.05 m 2 is kept perpendicular to the magnetic field 5 × 10 −5 T.
When the plane of the coil is rotated by 90 o around any of its coplanar axis in 0.1 s, the emf induced in the
coil will be:

A. A) 2 V
B. B) 0.2 V
C. C) 2 × 10 −3 V
D. D) 0.02 V

Question 20

Assertion : Only a change in magnetic flux will maintain an induced current in the coil. Reason : The
presence of large magnetic flux through a coil maintains a current in the coil if the circuit is continuous.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 21

A rectangular loop PQMN with movable arm PQ of length 12 cm and resistance 2Ω is placed in a
uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T acting perpendicular to the plane of the loop as shown in figure. The
resistance of the arms MN, NP and MQ are negligible. The current induced in the loop when arm PQ is
moved with velocity 20 ms −1 is

A. A) 0.12 A
B. B) 0.06 A
C. C) 0.24 A
D. D) 0.18 A

Question 22

A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is rotated with constant angular velocity of 10rad/s in a region of magnetic
field of 0.1 T which is perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. The EMF generated between its centre and
the rim is

A. A) 0.25 V
B. B) 0.125 V
C. C) 0.5 V
D. D) zero

Question 23

A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5H. The magnetic flux linked with the coil is:

A. A) 0.5 Wb
B. B) 12.5 Wb
C. C) zero
D. D) 2 Wb

Question 24

A circular disc of radius 0.2 m is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction π1 ( W

m2
b
) in such a way that
→
its axis makes an angle of 60 ∘ with B. The magnetic flux linked with the disc is

A. A) 0.02 Wb
B. B) 0.06 Wb
C. C) 0.08 Wb
D. D) 0.01 Wb

Question 25

A square loop of side 1 m and resistance 1 Ω is placed in a magnetic field of 0. 5 T. If the plane of loop is
perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field, the magnetic flux through the loop is:

A. A) 0. 5 weber
B. B) 1 weber
C. C) zero weber
D. D) 2 weber

Question 26

A conductor 10 cm long is moved with a speed 1 m/s perpendicular to a field of strength 1000 A/m. The
e.m.f. induced in the conductor is [Given : μ 0 = 4π × 10 −7 Wb/Am ]

A. A) πmV
B. B) 2πmV
C. C) 40πμV
D. D) 4πμV

Question 27

If electron is moving from A to B in wire AB, then current induced in the coil is

A. A) anticlockwise
B. B) clockwise
C. C) arbitrary direction
D. D) no current will be induced.

Question 28

The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount Δϕ in a time Δt. Then the total
quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during the time Δt is represented by:

A. A) Q = R ⋅ Δt
1 Δϕ

B. B) Q = R
Δϕ

C. C) Q = Δt
Δϕ

D. D) Q = R ⋅ Δt
Δϕ

Question 29
The magnetic flux linked to a circular coil of radius R is: ϕ = 2t 3 + 4t 2 + 2t + 5 Wb The magnitude of
induced emf in the coil at t = 5 s is:

A. A) 108 V
B. B) 197 V
C. C) 150 V
D. D) 192 V

Question 30

A long solenoid of diameter 0. 1 m has 2 × 10 4 turns per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of 100
turns and radius 0. 01 m is placed with its axis coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in the
solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0 A from 4 A in 0. 05 s. If the resistance of the coil is 10π 2 Ω, the
total charge flowing through the coil during this time is

A. A) 32π μC
B. B) 16 μC
C. C) 32 μC
D. D) 16π μC

Moderate Questions

Question 31

Two coils, X and Y, are kept in close vicinity of each other. When a varying current, I(t), flows through
coil X, the induced emf(V (t)) in coil Y, varies in the manner shown here. The variation of I(t), with time,
can then be represented by the graph labelled as graph :
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

A. A) A
B. B) C
C. C) B
D. D) D

Question 32

Match the following columns

A. A) (a) p,q, (b) p,q, (c) p, (d) q,r
B. B) (a) p, (b) p,q,s, (c) p,s, (d) q,r,s
C. C) (a) p,q, (b) p, q, (c) p,s, (d) p,q,r
D. D) (a) p, (b) p, s, (c) p, (d) p,q,s

Question 33

→
The figure shows a circular area of tthe radius R where a uniform magnetic field B is going into the plane
of the paper and increasing in magnitude at a constant rate. In that case, which of the following graphs,
drawn schematically, correctly shows the variation of the induced electric field E(r)?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)
Question 34

An inductor of inductance L = 400mH and resistors of resistance R 1 = 2Ω and R 2 = 2Ω are connected

to a battery of emf 12 V as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible. The
switch S is closed at t = 0. The potential drop across L as a function of time is

A. A) t e −3t V
12

B. B) 6 (1 − e −t/0.2 )V
C. C) 12e −5t V
D. D) 6e −5t V

Question 35

A long, rectangular conducting loop of width l mass m and resistance R is placed partly in a perpendicular
magnetic field B. It is pushed downwards with velocity v so that it may continue to fall freely. The velocity v
is (g = acceleration due to gravity)

A. A)
mgR 2
Bl
B. B)
mgR
B2 l2
C. C)
mgl
B2 R2
D. D)
B2 l2 R
mg

Question 36

A rectangular loop has a sliding connector PQ of length ℓ and resistance RΩ and it is moving with a speed
v as shown. The set-up is placed in a uniform magnetic field going into the plane of the paper. The three
currents I 1 , I 2 and I are

A. A) I 1 = −I 2 = Bℓv
R
, I = 2 Bℓv
R
B. B) I 1 = I 2 = Bℓv 2 Bℓv
3R , I = 3R
C. C) l 1 = I 2 = I = R
Bℓv

D. D) I 1 = I 2 = Bℓv Bℓv
6R , I = 3R

Question 37

A long solenoid has 20 turns per cm. A small loop of area π4 cm 2 is placed inside the solenoid normal to
its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from 1. 0 A to 3. 0 A in 0. 2 s, what is the
magnitude of the induced emf in the loop while the current is changing?

A. A) 2. 4 μV
B. B) 3. 2 μV
C. C) 7. 2 μV
D. D) 4. 8 μV

Question 38

A metal loop of area 10 cm 2 is placed in a region such that its area vector points along k
^. The region
contains a uniform magnetic field of magnitude 1.73 T that points in the direction ^i + ^ ^. When the
j+k
magnetic field is switched off, the field decreases to zero at a steady rate in 10 s, then the magnitude of
emf induced in the loop is

A. A) 0.10mV
B. B) 0.17mV
C. C) 1mV
D. D) 1.7mV

Question 39

A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of radius, r. The magnetic field changes with time at a
→
rate, ddtB . Loop one of radius R > r encloses the region, r and loop two of radius, R is outside the region
of magnetic field as shown in the figure below. Then the emf generated is
A. A) 0 in loop one and zero in loop two.
→ →
B. B) − dt πr 2 in loop one and − dt πr 2 in loop two.
dB dB

→
C. C) − ddtB πr 2 in loop one and infinite in loop two.
→
D. D) − ddtB πr 2 in loop one and zero in loop two.

Question 40

To measured a magnetic field between the magnetic poles of a loud speaker, a small coil having 30 turns
and 2.5 cm 2 area is placed perpendicular to the field and removed immediately. If the total charge flown
through the coil is 75 × 10 −3 C and the total resistance of wire and galvanometer is 0.3Ω, then the
magnitude of the magnetic field is

A. A) 0.03 T
B. B) 0.3 T
C. C) 3 T
D. D) 3 × 10 2 T

Question 41

The figure shows certain wire segments joined together to form a coplanar loop. The loop is placed in a
perpendicular magnetic field in the direction going into the plane of the figure. The magnitude of the field
increases with time. I 1 and I 2 are the currents in the segments ab and cd. Then,

A. A) I 1 > I 2
B. B) I 1 < I 2
C. C) I 1 is in the direction ba and I 2 is in the direction cd
D. D) I 1 is in the direction ab and I 2 is in the direction dc

Question 42

A metallic rod of length l is tied to a string of length 2l and made to rotate with angular speed ω on a
horizontal table with one end of the string fixed. If there is a vertical magnetic field B in the region, the
e.m.f. induced across the ends of the rod is:
A. A)
4Bωl 2
2
B. B) 5Bωl 2
2
C. C) 2Bωl 2
2
D. D) 3Bωl 2
2

Question 43

A circular coil of radius 10 cm, 500 turns and resistance 2Ω is placed with its plane perpendicular to the
horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field. It is rotated about its vertical diameter through 180 ∘ in
0.25 s. The current induced in the coil is (Horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field at that place is
3.0 × 10 −5 T )
A. A) 1.9 × 10 −3 A
B. B) 2.9 × 10 −3 A
C. C) 3.9 × 10 −3 A
D. D) 4.9 × 10 −3 A

Question 44

A circular coil of area 0.01 m 2 and 40 turns is rotated about its vertical diameter with an angular speed of
50 rads −1 in a uniform horizontal magnetic field 0.05 T. If the average power loss due to joule heating is
25 mW, then the closed loop resistance of the coil is
A. A) 50Ω
B. B) 12.5Ω
C. C) 75Ω
D. D) 20Ω

Question 45

A big circular coil of 1000 turns and average radius 10 m is rotating about its horizontal diameter at
2 rad s −1 . If the vertical component of earth's magnetic field at that place is 2 × 10 −5 T and electrical
resistance of the coil is 12. 56 Ω, then the maximum induced current in the coil will be:

A. A) 1. 5 A
B. B) 1 A
C. C) 2 A
D. D) 0. 25 A

Question 46
A long solenoid having 100 turns per cm carries a current of π4 A. At the centre of it is placed a coil of 200
turns of cross-sectional area 25 cm 2 having its axis parallel to the field produced by the solenoid. When
the direction of the current in the solenoid is reversed with in 0.04 s, the induced emf in the coil is

A. A) 0.2 V
B. B) 0.4 V
C. C) 0.002 V
D. D) 0.016 V

Question 47

A long solenoid is carrying a current I = I 0 sin(ωt), having N turns per unit length and radius R. A
square loop is placed inside the solenoid with its plane perpendicular to the solenoid axis, and its corners
touching the solenoid. Now the emf induced in the square coil.

A. A) μ 0 NI 0 R 2 sin(ωt)
B. B) 2μ 0 Nl 0 R 2 sin(ωt)

C. C) 2μ 0 NI 0 R
˙ 2 ω cos(ωt)
D. D) μ 0 NI 0 R 2 πω cos(ωt)

Question 48

As shown in figure, two vertical conducting rails separated by distance 1.0 m are placed parallel to z-axis.
At z = 0, a capacitor of 0.15 F is connected between the rails and a metal rod of mass 100gm placed
across the rails slides down along the rails. If a constant magnetic fields of 2.0 T exists perpendicular to
the plane of the rails, what is the acceleration of the rod? (Take g = 9.8 m/s 2 )

A. A) 2.5 m/s 2
B. B) 1.4 m/s 2
C. C) 9.8 m/s 2
D. D) 0

Question 49

A uniform coil of self-inductance 1.8 × 10 H and resistance 6Ω is broken up into two identical coils.
−4

These two coils are then connected in parallel across a 12 V battery. The circuit time constant and steady
state current through the battery respectively are

A. A) 30μs, 8 A
B. B) 30 ms, 8 mA
C. C) 30 s, 8 A
D. D) 300 s, 800 A
Question 50

The pure inductors each of inductance 6H are connected as shown in the figure. Their equivalent
inductance between the points ' P ' and ' Q ' is

A. A) 0.5H
B. B) 18H
C. C) 6.3H
D. D) 2H

Question 51

Two conducting circular loops of radii R 1 and R 2 are placed in the same plane with their centres
coinciding. If R 1 ≫ R 2 , the mutual inductance M between them will be directly proportional to:

A. A) R12
R

B. B) R
R
2
1
R 22
C. C) R1
R2
D. D) R1
2

Question 52

In the given circuit, when S 1 is closed, the capacitor C gets full charged. Then S 1 is kept open and S 2 is
closed. Hence

A. A) The current in the circuit is in the same direction.

B. B) The instantaneous current in the circuit may be V √ L .

C

C. C) The energy stored in the circuit is purely in the form of magnetic energy.
D. D) There is no exchange of energy between inductor L and capacitor C .

Question 53

The self-inductance of two coils of a transformer is 20mH and 30mH. What is the resistance between
them?
A. A) 0
B. B) 1.5Ω
C. C) 600Ω
D. D) Infinite

Question 54

For a toroid N = 500, radius = 40 cm, and area of cross section = 10 cm 2 . Find inductance.

A. A) 125μH
B. B) 250μH
C. C) 0.00248H
D. D) zero

Question 55

A circular coil of area 100 cm 2 and 20 turns is kept in magnetic field of flux density 2 Wb − m 2 . It rotates
from a position where its plane makes an angle of 30 ∘ with the field to a position perpendicular to the field
in a time 0.2 s. Find the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil due to its rotation.

A. A) 2 V
B. B) 3 V
C. C) 1.5 V
D. D) 1 V

Question 56

The current (I) in the inductance is varying with time according to the plot shown in figure.
Which one of the following is the correct variation of voltage with time in the coil?

A. A)

B. B)
C. C)

D. D)

Question 57

A conducting square frame of side a and a long straight wire carrying current I are located in the same
plane as shown in the figure. The frame moves to the right with a constant velocity V. The e.m.f induced in
the frame (when the centre of the frame is at a distance x from the wire) will be proportional to :

A. A) x12
B. B) 1
2
(2x−a)

C. C) 1
(2x+a) 2

D. D) (2x−a)(2x+a)
1

Question 58

A small square loop of wire of side l is placed inside a large square loop of side L(L >> l). If the loops
are coplanar and their centres coincide, the mutual induction of the system is directly proportional to :

A. A) Ll
B. B) L
l

C. C) Ll
2

D. D) lL
2
Question 59

A semicircular wire of radius r rotates in uniform magnetic field B about its diameter with angular velocity ω
. If the total resistance of the circuit is R, then the mean power generated per period of rotation is
2
(πBr 2 ω)
A. A) 8R
B. B) πBrω 2
8R
(πBrω) 2
C. C) 8R
D. D) 0

Question 60

A long straight wire carrying current I and a rectangular frame with side lengths a and b lie in the same
plane as shown in the figure. The mutual inductance of the wire and frame is

A. A) 2π0 ab
μ

B. B) 4π a
μ b

C. C) 2π ln 2
μ0 a

D. D) 2π ln 2
μ0 b

Hard Questions

Question 61

An equilateral triangular loop ADC having some resistance is pulled with a constant velocity v out of a
uniform magnetic field directed into the screen. At time t = 0, side DC of the loop is at edge of the
magnetic field. The induced current (i) versus time (t) graph will be as

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 62

A copper rod of mass m slides under gravity on two smooth parallel rails, with separation l and set at an
angle of θ with the horizontal. At the bottom, rails are joined by a resistance R. There is a uniform magnetic
field B normal to the plane of the rails, as shown in the figure. The terminal speed of the copper rod is:

A. A)
mgR cos θ
B2 l2
B. B)
mgR sin θ
B2 l2
C. C)
mgR tan θ
B2 l2
D. D)
mgR cot θ
B2 l2

Question 63
A circular wire loop of radius R is placed in the x − y plane centered at the origin O. A square loop of side
a(a << R) having two turns is placed with its centre at z = √3R along the axis of the circular wire loop,
as shown in figure.
The plane of the square loop makes an angle of 45 ∘ with respect to the z-axis. If the mutual inductance
between the loops is given by 2p/2 , then the value of p is
0μ a2
R

Question 64

Consider a toroid with rectangular cross section, of inner radius a, outer radius b and height h, carrying n
number of turns. Then the self-inductance of the toroidal coil when current I passing through the toroid is

A. A)
μ0 n2 h b
2π ln ( a )
B. B)
μ 0 nh b
2π ln ( a )

C. C)
μ0 n2 h a
2π ln ( b )
D. D)
μ 0 nh
2π
ln ( ab )

Question 65

A current I = 10 sin (100π t) A. is passed in first coil, which induces a maximum e.m.f of 5π volt in
second coil. The mutual inductance between the coils is –

A. A) 10 mH
B. B) 15 mH
C. C) 25 mH
D. D) 5 mH

Question 66

As shown in figure, the two parallel conducting rails, in a horizontal plane, are connected at one end by an
inductor of inductance L. A slider (metallic) of mass m, is imparted a velocity v 0 , upon the rails, as shown
in figure. The period of oscillation of the conducting rod is
A. A) π2 Bl
√mL

B. B) 2π3BlmL
√

C. C) 2π BlmL
√

D. D) 3π2BlmL
√

Question 67

A non–conducting ring of radius R having uniformly distributed charge Q starts rotating about x–x' axis
passing through diameter with an angular acceleration α, as shown in the figure. Another small conducting
ring having radius a (a ≪ R) is kept fixed at the centre of bigger ring is such a way that axis xx ' is
passing through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. If the resistance of small ring is r = 1 Ω, find the
induced current in it in ampere.
(Given q = 16×10 C, R = 1 m, a = 0.1 m, α = 8 rad s −2 )
2
μ0

Question 68

A short solenoid (length l and radius r with n turns per unit length) lies well inside and on the axis of a very
long, coaxial solenoid (length L, radius R and N turns per unit length, with R > r). Current I follows in
the short solenoid. Choose the correct statement.

A. A) There is uniform magnetic field μ 0 nI in the long solenoid.

B. B) Mutual inductance of the solenoids is πμ 0 r 2 nNl.
C. C) Flux through outer solenoid due to current I in the inner solenoid is proportional to the ratio R/r.

D. D) Mutual inductance of the solenoids is πμ 0 rRnNlL/(rR) .

1/2

Question 69

In the given electrical circuit, if the switch S is closed then the maximum energy stored in the inductors is:

A. A) 3 J
B. B) 9 J
C. C) 12 J
D. D) 6 J

Question 70

Two long coaxial solenoids of radius R and 2R have equal number of turns per unit length. They carry
time-varying currents i 1 = 2kt and i 2 = kt respectively, in the same direction. A point charge released
between the solenoids at a distance r, is seen to move along a circular path. Then the value of r is

A. A) r = R√2
B. B) r = 3R/2
C. C) r = R√3
D. D) It can be any value between R and 2R

Question 71

A long solenoid of cross-sectional radius R has a thin insulated wire ring of uniform cross-section tightly put
on its winding. The ring is made out of two different material such that one half of the ring has a resistance
10 times that of the other half. The magnetic induction produced by the solenoid varies with time as
B = bt, where b is a constant. The magnitude of the electric field strength in the ring (other than the
induced electric field) is

A. A) 11
9
Rb
B. B) 22 Rb
9

C. C) 9 Rb
D. D) Rb

Question 72

An inductor of inductance L = 400mH and resistors of resistances R 1 = 2Ω and R 2 = 2Ω are

connected to a battery of emf 12 V as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the battery is
negligible. The switch S is closed at t = 0. The potential drop across L as a function of time is
A. A) 6e −5t V
B. B) 12
t e
−3t
V
C. C) 6 (1 − e −t/0.2 )V
D. D) 12e −5t V

Question 73

A square metal loop of side 10 cm and resistance 1 Ω is moved with a constant velocity partly inside a
uniform magnetic field of 2 Wb m , directed into the paper, as shown in the figure. The loop is connected
−2

to a network of five resistors each of value 3 Ω. If a steady current of 1 mA flows in the loop, then the
speed of the loop is -

A. A) 0.5 cm s −1
B. B) 1 cm s −1
C. C) 2 cm s −1
D. D) 4 cm s −1

Question 74

A square loop EF GH of side a, mass m and total resistance R is falling under gravity in a region of
transverse non-uniform magnetic field given by B = B 0 a , where B 0 is a positive constant and y is the
y

position of side EF of the loop. If at some instant the speed of the loop is v, then the total Lorentz force
acting on the loop is

B 20 a 2 v
A. A) F = 2R
2B 20 a 2 v
B. B) F = R
 B 20 a 2 v
C. C) F = R
D. D) zero

Question 75

A uniform rod P Q of length l and mass m is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. It is hinged at one of
its ends and touches the conducting circular loop at another end. The system is subjected to vertical
magnetic field B0. Rod is given angular velocity ω 0 about the axis passing through P . If the time after
which its angular velocity becomes half is ab mRln2
B2 l2
. Find the value of (a + b), where a and b are smallest
positive integers.

Question 76

A rectangular loop of wire is placed in the XY -plane with its side of length 3 cm parallel to the X-axis and
the side of length 4 cm parallel to the Y -axis. It is moving in the positive X-direction with the speed
10 cm/s. A magnetic field exists in the space with its direction parallel to the Z -axis. The field decreases
by 2 × 10 −3 T/cm along the positive X-axis and increases in time by 2 × 10 −2 T/s. The induced emf in
the wire is

A. A) −4.8 × 10 −5 V
B. B) 4.8 × 10 −5 V
C. C) 0
D. D) 3.6 × 10 −5 V

Question 77

A metal bar AB can slide on two parallel thick metallic rails separated by a distance l. A resistance R and
an inductance L are connected to the rails as shown in the figure. A long straight wire, carrying a constant
current I 0 is placed in the plane of the rails as shown. The bar AB is held at rest at a distance x 0 from the
long wire. At t = 0, it is made to slide on the rails away from the wire.

It is observed that at time t = T , the metal bar AB is at a distance of 2x 0 from the long wire and the
resistance R carries a current i 1 . The net charge that has flown through resistance R from t = 0 to t = T
is
A. A) R [ 2π ln(2) − Li 1 ]
1 μ0 l

B. B) R [ π ln(2) − Li 1 ]
1 μ0 I0 l

C. C) R
1 μ0 I0 l
[ 2π ln(2) − Li 1 ]

D. D) R
1 μ0 I0
[ 2π ln(2) − Li 1 ]

Question 78

A conducting rod of length L lies in XY -plane and makes an angle 30 ∘ with X-axis. One end of the rod
lies at origin initially. A magnetic field also exists in the region pointing along positive Z -direction. The
magnitude of the magnetic field varies with y as B 0 ( L ) , where, B 0 is a constant. At some instant the rod
y 3

starts moving with a velocity v 0 along X-axis. The emf induced in the rod is

A. A)
B0 V0 L
64
B. B)
B0 V0 L
16
C. C) B 0 V 0 L
D. D) 64B 0 v L
0

Question 79

A conducting ring of circular cross-section with inner and outer radii a and b is made out of a material of
resistivity ρ. The thickness of the ring is h. It is placed coaxially in a vertical cylindrical region of a magnetic
field B = krt, where k is a positive constant, r is the distance from the axis and t is the time. If the current
through the ring is I = ( kh
αp
) [b 3 − a 3 ], then what is the value of α?

Question 80
A wire bent as a parabola y = kx 2 is located in a uniform magnetic field of induction B, the vector B being
perpendicular to the plane xy. At t = 0, the sliding wire starts sliding from the vertex O with a constant
acceleration a linearly as shown in Fig. Find the emf induced in the loop -

A. A) By√ k
2a

B. B) By√ 4a
k

C. C) By√ k
8a

D. D) By√ ak

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q28 - B Q55 - D
Q2 - A Q29 - D Q56 - D
Q3 - D Q30 - C Q57 - D
Q4 - D Q31 - A Q58 - D
Q5 - A Q32 - B Q59 - A
Q6 - A Q33 - A Q60 - D
Q7 - D Q34 - C Q61 - B
Q8 - B Q35 - B Q62 - B
Q9 - C Q36 - B Q63 - 7 (Num)
Q10 - D Q37 - B Q64 - A
Q11 - C Q38 - A Q65 - D
Q12 - A Q39 - D Q66 - C
Q13 - A Q40 - B Q67 - 8 (Num)
Q14 - B Q41 - D Q68 - B
Q15 - A Q42 - B Q69 - A
Q16 - B Q43 - A Q70 - A
Q17 - D Q44 - D Q71 - B
Q18 - D Q45 - B Q72 - D
Q19 - D Q46 - B Q73 - C
Q20 - C Q47 - C Q74 - C
Q21 - A Q48 - B Q75 - 7 (Num)
Q22 - B Q49 - A Q76 - C
Q23 - B Q50 - D Q77 - C
 Q24 - A Q51 - C Q78 - A
Q25 - A Q52 - B Q79 - 9 (Num)
Q26 - C Q53 - D Q80 - C
Q27 - D Q54 - A

Alternating Current

Easy Questions

Question 1

If in a circuit current lags behind EMF by π/2. Then it is a/an

A. A) resistor circuit
B. B) capacitor
C. C) inductor circuit
D. D) CR circuit.

Question 2

A resistance R and inductance L and a capacitor C all are connected in series with an AC supply. The
resistance of R is 16 ohm and for a given frequency, the inductive reactance of L is 24 ohm and capacitive
reactance of C is 12ohm. If the current in the circuit is 5 amp., find the potential difference across R, L
and C.

A. A) 30,20,50 volt
B. B) 40,100,60 volt
C. C) 70,110,60 volt
D. D) 80,120,60 volt

Question 3

An alternating current in a circuit is given by I = 20 sin(100πt + 0.05π) A. The r.m.s. value and the
frequency of current respectively are

A. A) 10A and 100Hz

B. B) 10A and 50Hz
C. C) 10√2A and 50Hz
D. D) 10√2 A and 100Hz

Question 4

An altermating current is flowing through a series L − C − R circuit. It is found that the current reaches a
value of 1mA at both 200Hz and 800Hz frequency. What is the resonance frequency of the circuit?

A. A) 600Hz
B. B) 300Hz
C. C) 500Hz
D. D) 400Hz

Question 5

A small signal voltage V(t) = V 0 sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C:

A. A) Current I(t), lags voltage V(t) by 90 o

B. B) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source
C. C) Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
D. D) Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180 o

Question 6

A lamp is connected is series with a capacitor and an AC source, what happens if the capacity of the
capacitor is reduced?

A. A) The lamp shines more brightly

B. B) The lamp shines less brightly
C. C) There is no change in the brightness of the lamp
D. D) Brightness may increase or decrease depending on the frequency of the AC

Question 7

The output voltage of a transfor mer connected to 220 V line is 1100 V at 2 Acurrent. Itsefficiency is
100%. The current coming from the line is
A. A) 20 A
B. B) 10 A
C. C) 11 A
D. D) 22 A

Question 8

Power dissipated in an LCR series circuit connected to an a.c. source of emf ε is :

A. A) ε 2 R/√R 2 + (Lω − Cω
1 2
)

B. B) ε 2 R/ [R 2 + (Lω − Cω ) ]
1 2

C. C) ε 2 √[R 2 + (Lω − Cω ) ]/R

1 2

1 2
ε 2 [R 2 +(Lω− Cω ) ]
D. D) R

Question 9

The r.m.s. value of potential difference V shown in the figure is

A. A) V 0
B. B) V 0 /√2
C. C) V 0 /2

D. D) V 0 /√3

Question 10

The turn ratio of transformers is given as 2 : 3. If the current through the primary coil is 3 A, thus calculate
the current through load resistance

A. A) 1 A
B. B) 4.5 A
C. C) 2 A
D. D) 1.5 A

Question 11

In an AC circuit, the instantaneous values of emf and current are e = 200 sin 314t volt and
I = sin (314t + π
3 ) amp. The average power consumed in watt is
A. A) 200
B. B) 100
C. C) 50
D. D) 25

Question 12

An alternating voltage e = 200√2 sin(100 t) volt is connected to 1 μF capacitor through AC ammeter.

The reading of ammeter is

A. A) 5 mA
B. B) 10 mA
C. C) 15 mA
D. D) 20 mA

Question 13

A circuit has a resistance of 12Ω and an impedance of 15Ω. The power factor of the circuit will be

A. A) 0.8
B. B) 0.4
C. C) 1.25
D. D) 0.125
Question 14

In the circuit shown below, the ac source has voltage V = 20 cos(ωt) volt with ω = 2000rad/s The
amplitude of the current will be nearest to

A. A) 2 A
B. B) 3.3 A
C. C) 2/√5 A

D. D) √5 A

Question 15

In an AC circuit an alternating voltage e = 200√2 sin 100t volt is connected to a capacitor of capacity
1μF. The rms value of the current in the circuit is
A. A) 100 mA
B. B) 200 mA
C. C) 20 mA
D. D) 10 mA

Question 16

In series LCR circuit, the phase difference between applied voltage and current is

A. A) positive when X L > X C

B. B) positive when X C > X L
C. C) 90 ∘
D. D) 0 ∘

Question 17

An alternating voltage V = V 0 sin ot is appliedacross a circuit. As a result, a current

I = I 0 sin(ωt − π/2) flows in it. The power consumed per cycle is
A. A) zero
B. B) 0.5 V 0 I 0
C. C) 0.707 V 0 I 0
D. D) 1.414 V 0 I 0

Question 18

The core of a transformer is laminated because:

A. A) ratio of voltage in primary and secondary may be increased

B. B) energy losses due to eddy currents may be minimised
C. C) the weight of the transformer may be reduced
D. D) rusting of the core may be prevented

Question 19

A standard filament lamp consumes 100 W when connected to 200 V a.c. mains supply. The peak current
through the bulb will be :

A. A) 0.707 A
B. B) 1 A
C. C) 1.414 A
D. D) 2 A

Question 20

When an AC source of emf E with frequency ω = 100 Hz is connected across a circuit, the phase
difference between E and current I in the circuit is observed to be π4 as shown in the figure. If the circuit
consist of only RC or RL in series, then

A. A) R = 1kΩ, C = 5μF
B. B) R = 1kΩ, L = 10H
C. C) R = 1kΩ, L = 1H
D. D) R = 1kΩ, C = 10μF

Question 21

A coil of inductance 8μH is connected to a capacitor of capacitance 0.02μF. To what wavelength is this
circuit tuned?

A. A) 7.54 × 10 3 m
B. B) 4.12 × 10 2 m
C. C) 15.90 × 10 3 m
D. D) 7.54 × 10 m
2

Question 22

The peak value of an alternating emf ' e ' given by e = e 0 cos ωt is 10 volt and its frequency is 50 Hz. At
time t = 600
1
s, the instantaneous e.m.f is
A. A) 10 V
B. B) √ V
10
3
C. C) 5 V
D. D) 5√3 V
Question 23

In an AC circuit the potential differences across an inductance and resistance joined in series are
respectively 16 V and 20 V. The total potential difference of the source is

A. A) 20.0 V
B. B) 25.6 V
C. C) 31.9 V
D. D) 53.5 V

Question 24

A series resonant LCR circuit has a quality factor (Q-factor) 0.4 . If R = 2kΩ, C = 0.1μF, then the value
of inductance is

A. A) 0.1H
B. B) 0.064H
C. C) 2H
D. D) 5H

Question 25

An alternating volta ge E = 200√2 sin(100t) is connected to 1 microfarad capacitor through AC

ammeter. The reading of ammeter shall be

A. A) 10 mA
B. B) 20 mA
C. C) 40 mA
D. D) 80 mA

Question 26

A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is
0.5amp, the efficiency of the transformer is approximately.
A. A) 50%
B. B) 90%
C. C) 10%
D. D) 30%

Question 27

A coil has resistance 30 ohm and inductive reactance 20 ohm at 50 Hz frequency. If an ac source, of 200
volt, 100 Hz, is connected across the coil, the current in the coil will be

A. A) 4.0 A
B. B) 8.0 A
C. C) 7.2 A
D. D) 2.0 A

Question 28

The core of any transformer is laminated so as to

A. A) reduce the energy loss due to eddy currents

B. B) make it light weight
C. C) make it robust \& strong
D. D) increase the secondary voltage

Question 29

In a transformer number of turns in primary circuit is 500 and in secondary circuit number of turns is 10 .
The load resistance is 10Ω and voltage of secondary coil is 50 V. Then find the current in primary circuit.

A. A) 0.2 A
B. B) 0.3 A
C. C) 0.4 A
D. D) 0.1 A

Question 30

The impedance of a circuit consists of 3Ω resistance and 4Ω reactance. The power factor of the circuit is

A. A) 0.4
B. B) 0.6
C. C) 0.8
D. D) 1

Moderate Questions

Question 31

A transformer consisting of 300 turns in the primary and 150 turns in the secondary gives output power of
2.2 kW . If the current in the secondary coil is 10 A , then the input voltage and current in the primary
coil are:

A. A) 440 V and 20 A
B. B) 220 V and 20 A
C. C) 440 V and 5 A
D. D) 220 V and 10 A

Question 32

A capacitor of capacitance 2μF is connected in the tank circuit of an oscillator oscillating with a frequency
of 1kHz. If the current flowing in the circuit is 2 mA, the voltage across the capacitor will be

A. A) 0.16 V
B. B) 0.32 V
C. C) 79.5 V
D. D) 159 V.

Question 33

The plot given below is of the average power delivered to an LRC circuit versus frequency. The quality
factor of the circuit is :

A. A) 5.0
B. B) 2.0
C. C) 2.5
D. D) 0.4

Question 34

A resistor and an inductor are connected in series to an AC source of voltage 150 sin(100πt + π) volt. If
the current in the circuit is 5 sin (100πt + 2π
3 ) ampere, then the average power dissipated and the
resistance of the resistor are respectively

A. A) 187.5 W, 30Ω
B. B) 187.5 W, 15Ω
C. C) 375 W, 30Ω
D. D) 375 W, 15Ω

Question 35

A transformer with efficiency 80% works at 4 kW and 100 V. If the secondary voltage is 200 V, then the
primary and secondary currents are respectively

A. A) 40 A and 16 A
B. B) 16 A and 40 A
C. C) 20 A and 40 A
D. D) 40 A and 20 A

Question 36

An alternating voltage V = V 0 sin ωt is applied across a circuit. As a result, a current

I = I 0 sin (ωt − π
2 ) flows in it. The power consumed per cycle is
A. A) zero
B. B) 0.5 V 0 I 0
C. C) 0.707 V 0 I 0
D. D) 1.414 V 0 I 0

Question 37

The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as

1
i= sin(100πt) ampere
√2
1
e= sin(100πt + π/3) volt
√2

The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit is

A. A) 4
1

B. B) 4
√3

C. C) 2
1

D. D) 18

Question 38

A direct current of 5 A is superposed on an alternating current I = 10 sin ωt flowing through the wire. The
effective value of the resulting current will be

A. A) (15/2)A
B. B) 5√3 A
C. C) 5√5 A
D. D) 15 A

Question 39

In the circuit shown in the figure, the AC source gives a voltage V = 20 cos(2000t) neglecting source
resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading will be

A. A) 0 V, 0.47 A
B. B) 282 V, 1.41 A
C. C) 1.41 V, 0.47 A
D. D) 15 V, 837 A

Question 40
An alternating current of frequency 50 Hz has the peak value as 14 ⋅ 14 A. The time taken by the
alternating current in reaching from zero to maximum value and r.m.s. value of current will be respectively

A. A) 0.025 s, 5 A
B. B) 0 ⋅ 005 s, 5 A
C. C) 0 ⋅ 005 s, 10 A
D. D) 0 ⋅ 025 s, 10 A

Question 41

A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of the bulb
decreases when

A. A) frequency of the AC source is decreased

B. B) number of turns in the coil is reduced
C. C) a capacitance of reactance X C = X L is included in the same circuit
D. D) an iron rod is inserted in the coil

Question 42

The following series L − C − R circuit, when driven by an emf source of angular frequency 70 kilo-
radians per second, the circuit effectively behaves like

A. A) purely resistive circuit

B. B) series R-L circuit
C. C) series R-C circuit
D. D) series L-C circuit with R = 0

Question 43

What is the value of inductance L for which the current is a maximum in a series LCR circuit with
C = 10μF and ω = 1000 s −1 ?
A. A) 100mH
B. B) 1mH
C. C) Cannot be calculated unless R is known
D. D) 10mH

Question 44

In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f . The
current leads the voltage by 45 ∘ . The value of C is:

A. A) πf(2πf(L−R)
1
B. B) 2πf(2πfL−R)
1

C. C) πf(2πfL+R)
1

D. D) 2πf(2πfL+R)
1

Question 45

In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an AC voltage source are all connected in series. When L is removed
from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is π/3. If instead, C
is removed from the circuit, the phase difference is again π/3. The power factor of the circuit is

A. A) 1/2
B. B) 1/√2
C. C) 1
D. D) √3/2

Question 46

Assertion : We use a thick wire in the secondary of a step down transformer to reduce the production heat.
Reason : When the plane of the armature is parallel to the line of force of magnetic field, the magnitude of
induced e.m.f. is maximum.

A. A) If both the assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but assertion is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
C. C) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 47

The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic flux
ϕ linked with the primary coil is given by ϕ = ϕ v + 4t, where ϕ is in webers, t is time in seconds and ϕ v is
a constant, the output voltage across the output voltage across the secondary coil is:

A. A) 120 volts
B. B) 220 volts
C. C) 30 volts
D. D) 90 volts.

Question 48

A series LR circuit is connected to an ac source of frequency ω and the inductive reactance is equal to 2R
. A capacitance of capacitive reactance equal to R is added in series with L and R. The ratio of the new
power factor to the old one is :

A. A) √ 23

B. B) √ 25

C. C) √ 32
D. D) √ 52

Question 49

In a series LCR circuit, the voltage across the resistance, capacitance and inductance is 10 V each. If the
capacitance is short circuited the voltage across the inductance will be

A. A) 10 V
B. B) 10√2 V
C. C) 10/√2 V
D. D) 20 V

Question 50

An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 10Ω and an inductance of 2H. If an AC voltage of 120 V and
frequency 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the current would be nearly

A. A) 0.72 A
B. B) 0.16 A
C. C) 0.48 A
D. D) 0.80 A

Question 51

An alternating voltage is given by E = 100 sin(ω + π6 )V . The voltage will be maximum for the first time
when is (T = periodic time)

A. A) 12
T

B. B) 2
T

C. C) 6
T

D. D) T3

Question 52

In the given circuit, rms value of current (Irms) through the resistor R is :

A. A) 2 A
B. B) 2 A
1

C. C) 20 A

D. D) 2√2 A
Question 53

For the AC circuit shown below, phase difference between emf and current is 4 radian as shown in the
π

graph. If the impedance of the circuit is 1414Ω, then the values of P and Q are

A. A) 1kΩ, 10μF
B. B) 1kΩ, 1μF
C. C) 1kΩ, 10mH
D. D) 1kΩ, 1mH

Question 54

The average value of a.c. voltage is given by V = V m sin(ωt) over time interval t = 0 to = ωπ is

A. A) πm
v

B. B) 0
C. C) V m
D. D) 2 V
π
m

Question 55

A resistor of resistance R, capacitor of capacitance C and inductor of inductance L are connected in

parallel to AC power source of voltage ε 0 sin ωt. The maximum current through the resistance is half of the
maximum current through the power source. Then value of R is

A. A)
√3
1
ωC− ωL

B. B) √3 ωC
1
− ωL
C. C) √5 ωC − ωL
1

D. D) None of these

Question 56

In a given series LCR circuit R = 4Ω, X L = 5Ω and X C = 8Ω, the current

A. A) Leads the voltage by tan −1 (3/4).

B. B) Leads the voltage by tan −1 (5/8).
C. C) Lags the voltage by tan −1 (3/4).
D. D) Lags the voltage by tan −1 (5/8).
Question 57

Which one of the following curves represents the variation of impedance ( Z ) with frequency f in series
LCR circuit?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 58

An AC source of angular frequency ω is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current
flowing in the circuit found to be I . Now the frequency of the source is changed to 3 , (maintaining the
ω

same voltage) the current in the circuit is found to be halved. What is the ratio of reactance to resistance at
the original frequency?

A. A) √ 7
5

B. B) √ 34

C. C) √ 5
3

D. D) √ 5
7

Question 59

The output of a step down transformers is measured to be 48 V when connected to a 12 W bulb. The value
of peak current is
A. A) √ A
1
2
B. B) √2 A
C. C)
1
A
2√2
D. D)
1
4 A

Question 60

The coils of a step-down transformer have 500 and 5000 turns. In the primary coil an AC current of 4 A at
2200 V is sent. The value of the current and potential difference in the secondary coil is
A. A) 20 A, 220 V
B. B) 0.4 A, 22000 V
C. C) 40 A, 220 V
D. D) 40 A, 22000 V

Hard Questions

Question 61

A transformer having an efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V, 3 kW power supply. If the current in the
secondary coil is 6 A, then the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil
respectively, are

A. A) 300 V, 15 A
B. B) 450 V, 15 A
C. C) 450 V, 13.5 A
D. D) 600 V, 15 A

Question 62

The output voltage (taken across the resistance) of a LCR series resonant circuit falls to half its peak
value at a frequency of 200 Hz and again reaches the same value at 800 Hz. The bandwidth of this
circuit is:

A. A) 200 Hz
B. B) 200√3 Hz
C. C) 400 Hz
D. D) 600 Hz

Question 63

The equation of current in a purely inductive circuit is 5 sin(49πt − 30°). If the inductance is 30 mH then
the equation for the voltage across the inductor, will be

A. A) 1. 47 sin(49πt − 30°)
B. B) 1. 47 sin(49πt + 60°)
C. C) 23. 1 sin(49πt − 30°)
D. D) 23. 1 sin(49πt + 60°)

Question 64

In an AC circuit, voltage V = V 0 sin ωt and inductor L is connected across the circuit. Then the
instantaneous power will be
V2
A. A) 2ωL
0
sin ωt
−V 2
B. B) 2ωL0 sin ωt
−V 2
C. C) 2ωL0 sin 2ωt
V2
D. D) ωL
0
sin 2ωt

Question 65

A current of 5 A is flowing at 220 V in the primary coil of a transformer. If the voltage produced in the
secondary coil is 2200 V and 50% of power is lost, then the current in the secondary coil is

A. A) 0 .25 A
B. B) 2 .5 A
C. C) 0 .5 A
D. D) 5 A

Question 66

When 100 V d.c. is applied across a coil, a current of 1 A flows through it. When 100 V a.c. of 50 Hz is
applied to the same coil only 0.5 A flows. The inductance of the coil is

A. A) 0.55 H
B. B) 5.5 mH
C. C) 0.55 mH
D. D) 55 mH.

Question 67

An ac voltmeter connected between points A and B in the circuit below reads 36 V. If it is connected
between A and C, the reading is 39 V. The reading when it is connected between B and D is 25 V. What
will the voltmeter read when it is connected between A and D?) Assume that the voltmeter reads true rms
voltage values and that the source generated a pure ac.)

A. A) √481 V
B. B) 31V
C. C) 61V
D. D) √3361 V
Question 68

An ideal capacitor of capacitance 0 .2 μF is charged to a potential difference of 10 V. The charging

battery is then disconnected. The capacitor is then connected to an ideal inductor of self inductance
0. 5 mH. The current at a time when the potential difference across the capacitor is 5 V is:
A. A) 0. 15 A
B. B) 0. 17 A
C. C) 0. 34 A
D. D) 0. 25 A

Question 69

If the input voltage V i to the circuit below is given by V i (t) = A cos(2πft), the output voltage is given by
V o (t) = B cos(2πft + ϕ)
Which one of the following four graphs best depict the variation of ϕ vs f ?

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 70
A 10 Ω resistance is connected across 220 V − 50 Hz AC supply. The time taken by the current to
change from its maximum value to the rms value is:

A. A) 2. 5 ms
B. B) 1. 5 ms
C. C) 3. 0 ms
D. D) 4. 5 ms

Question 71

In the above circuit, C = 23 μF , R 2 = 20 Ω, L = 103 H and R 1 = 10 Ω. Current in L-R 1 path is I 1

√ √

and in C-R 2 path it is I 2 . The voltage of AC source is given by, V = 200√2 sin (100 t) volts. The phase
difference between I 1 and I 2 is:

A. A) 60 o
B. B) 0 o
C. C) 30 o
D. D) 150 o

Question 72

When the rms voltages V L , V C and V R are measured respectively across the inductor L, the capacitor C
and the resistor R in a series LCR circuit connected to an AC source, it is found that the ratio
V L : V C : V R = 1 : 2 : 3. If the rms voltage of the AC source is 100 V, then V R is close to :
A. A) 50 V
B. B) 70 V
C. C) 100 V
D. D) 90 V

Question 73

A 100 V, AC source of frequency 500 Hz is connected to an LCR circuit with L = 8.1 mH,
C = 12.5 μF, R = 10 Ω all connected in series as shown in the figure. What is the quality factor of the
circuit?
A. A) 2.02
B. B) 2.54
C. C) 50.54
D. D) 200.54

Question 74

An ac voltage of 10 sin ωt volt is applied to a pure inducfor of inductance 10H. The current through the
inductor in ampere is

A. A) 1θ sin (ωt − π2 )
B. B) ω sin (ωt − 2 )
π

C. C) ω12 sin (ωt − π2 )

D. D) ω 2 sin (ωt − π2 )

Question 75

An electric kettle has two heating coils. When one of the coils is connected to a.c. source, the water in the
kettle boils in 10 minute. When the other coil is used the water boils in 40 minute. If both the coils are
connected in parallel, the time taken by the same quantity of water to boil will be:

A. A) 8 minute
B. B) 4 minute
C. C) 25 minute
D. D) 15 minute

Question 76

A power transmission line feeds input power at 2400 V to a step-down transformer and which delivers
power at 240 V with its primary windings having 5000 turns. If the current in the primary coil of the
transformer is 5 A and its efficiency is 80%, then what is the output current (in A)?

Question 77

At the moment t = 0, when the charge on the capacitor C 1 is zero, the switch is closed. If I 0 be the
current through inductor at t = 0, then for t > 0 (initially C 2 is uncharged)
A. A) maximum current through inductor equals 20
I

B. B) maximum current through inductor equals C +C

1 0 C I
1 2

C. C) maximum charge on C 1 =
C 1 I 0 √LC 2
C 1 +C 2

D. D) maximum charge on C 1 = C 1 I 0 √ C +C
L
1 2

Question 78

You are given many resistances, capacitors and inductors. These are connected to a variable DC voltage
source (the first two circuits) or an AC voltage source of 50 Hz frequency (the next three circuits) in
different ways as shown in Column II. When a current I (steady state for DC or rms for AC ) flows through
the circuit, the corresponding voltage V 1 and V 2 (indicated in circuits) are related as shown in Column I.
Match the two

A. A) (A) R,S,T, (B) Q,R,T, (C) P, (D) Q,R,S

B. B) (A) R,S,T, (B) Q,R,S,T, (C) P,Q, (D) Q,R,S,T
C. C) (A) S,T, (B) Q,R,T, (C) P,Q, (D) Q,R,S,T
D. D) (A) S,T, (B) Q,R,S,T, (C) P, (D) Q,R,S

Question 79

Find the peak current and resonant frequency of the following circuit (as shown in figure).

A. A) 2 A and 50 Hz
B. B) 0. 2 A and 100 Hz
C. C) 2 A and 100 Hz
D. D) 0. 2 A and 50 Hz

Question 80

A constant voltage of 25 V is applied to a series L − R circuit at t = 0, by closing a switch. What is the

potential difference across the resistor and the inductor at time t = 0 ?

A. A) 0 V, 25 V
B. B) 12.5 V, 1.25 V
C. C) 10 V, 15 V
D. D) 25 V, 0 V

Question 81

An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf
V = 10 sin 340 t. The power loss in AC. circuit is:
A. A) 0.51 W
B. B) 0.67 W
C. C) 0.76 W
D. D) 0.89 W

Question 82

A transformer has 100 turns in the primary coil and carries 8 A current. If the input power is 1 kW, the
number of turns in secondary coil to have 500 V of output will be

A. A) 100
B. B) 200
C. C) 400
D. D) 300

Question 83

A circuit consists of a coil with inductance L and an uncharged capacitor of capacitance C . The coil is in a
constant uniform magnetic field such that the flux through the coil is ϕ. At time t = 0 min, the magnetic
field is abruptly switched OFF. Let ω 0 = 1/√LC and ignore the resistance of the circuit. Then,

A. A) current in the circuit is I(t) = (ϕ/L) cos ω 0 t

B. B) magnitude of the charge on the capacitor is |Q(t)| = 2Cω 0 |sin ω 0 t|
C. C) initial current in the circuit is infinite
D. D) initial charge on the capacitor is Cω 0 ϕ

Question 84

In the circuit shown in the figure, the ratio of the quality factor and the band width is _____ s.
Question 85

Paragraph: The capacitor of capacitance C can be charged (with the help of a resistance R ) by a voltage
source V , by closing switch S 1 while keeping switch S 2 open. The capacitor can be connected in series
with an inductor L by closing switch S 2 and opening S 1 .
Question: Initially, the capacitor was uncharged. Now, switch S 1 is closed and S 2 is kept open. If time
constant of this circuit is τ , then

A. A) after time interval τ , charge on the capacitor is CV /2

B. B) after time interval 2τ , charge on the capacitor is CV / (1 − e −2 )
C. C) the work done by the voltage source will be half on the heat dissipated when the capacitor is fully
charged
D. D) after time interval 2τ , charge on the capacitor is CV (1 − e −1 )

Question 86

The primary winding of a transformer has 100 turns and its secondary winding has 200 turns. The primary
is connected to an AC supply of 120 V and the current flowing in it is 10 A. The voltage and the current in
the secondary are

A. A) 240 V, 5 A
B. B) 240 V, 10 A
C. C) 60 V, 20 A
D. D) 120 V, 20 A

Question 87

A transformer with efficiency 80% works at 4 kW and 100 V. If the secondary voltage is 200 V, then the
primary and secondary currents are respectively

A. A) 40 A and 16 A
B. B) 16 A and 40 A
C. C) 20 A and 90 A
D. D) 40 A and 20 A

Question 88
Consider the infinite ladder circuit shown below.
For which angular frequency ω will the circuit behave like a pure inductance?

A. A) √
LC
2
B. B)
1
√LC

C. C)
2
√LC

D. D)
2L
√C

Question 89

A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q 0 is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0. The
time at which the energy is stored equally between the electric and the magnetic field is :

A. A) π4 √LC
B. B) 2π√LC

C. C) √LC
D. D) π√LC

Question 90

In the adjacent circuit, the instantaneous current equation is

π
A. A) 2 sin(100t − 4 )
π
B. B) √2 sin(100t − 4 )

π
C. C) √2 sin(200t − 4 )
π
D. D) √2(100t + 4 )

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - C Q31 - C Q61 - B
Q2 - D Q32 - C Q62 - B
Q3 - C Q33 - B Q63 - D
Q4 - D Q34 - B Q64 - C
Q5 - B Q35 - A Q65 - A
 Q6 - B Q36 - A Q66 - A
Q7 - B Q37 - D Q67 - A
Q8 - B Q38 - B Q68 - B
Q9 - B Q39 - B Q69 - C
Q10 - C Q40 - C Q70 - A
Q11 - C Q41 - D Q71 - D
Q12 - D Q42 - B Q72 - D
Q13 - A Q43 - A Q73 - B
Q14 - A Q44 - D Q74 - A
Q15 - C Q45 - C Q75 - A
Q16 - A Q46 - B Q76 - 40 (Num)
Q17 - A Q47 - A Q77 - D
Q18 - B Q48 - D Q78 - B
Q19 - A Q49 - C Q79 - D
Q20 - D Q50 - B Q80 - A
Q21 - D Q51 - C Q81 - A
Q22 - D Q52 - A Q82 - C
Q23 - B Q53 - A Q83 - A
Q24 - B Q54 - D Q84 - 10 (Num)
Q25 - B Q55 - A Q85 - B
Q26 - B Q56 - A Q86 - A
Q27 - A Q57 - C Q87 - A
Q28 - A Q58 - C Q88 - C
Q29 - D Q59 - C Q89 - A
Q30 - B Q60 - C Q90 - B

Electromagnetic Waves

Easy Questions

Question 1

The electromagnetic waves travel in free space with the velocity of

A. A) sound
B. B) light
C. C) greater than that of light
D. D) greater than that of sound

Question 2
If λ v , λ x and λ m represent the wavelength of visible light, X-rays and microwaves respectively, then:

A. A) λ m > λ x > λ v
B. B) λ m > λ v > λ x
C. C) λ v > λ x > λ m
D. D) λ v > λ m > λ x

Question 3

Match List - I with List - II:

List - I List - II
(Electromagnetic waves) (Wavelength)
(a) AM radio waves (i) 10 −10 m
(b) Microwaves (ii) 10 2 m
(c) Infrared radiations (iii) 10 −2 m
(d) X-rays (iv) 10 −4 m

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c)-(i), (d) - (iv)

B. B) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
C. C) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
D. D) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

Question 4

Which is having a minimum wavelength?

A. A) X-rays
B. B) Ultraviolet rays
C. C) γ-rays
D. D) Cosmic rays

Question 5

The velocity of electromagnetic radiation in a medium of permittivity ∈ 0 and permeability μ 0 is given by

A. A) √ ε 0
μ
0

B. B) √ μ00
ε

C. C) √μ 0 ε 0
D. D) 1
√μ 0 ε 0

Question 6

Assertion : The energy of X-ray photon is greater than that of light (visible) photon. Reason : X-ray photon
in vacuum travels faster than light photon.
A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 7

The velocity of the electromagnetic wave is parallel to:

→×E
A. A) B →
→×B
B. B) E →
→
C. C) E
→
D. D) B

Question 8

The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it belong?

A. A) Infra-red rays
B. B) Ultraviolet rays
C. C) γ -rays
D. D) X-rays

Question 9

Assertion : X-rays can penetrate through the flesh but not through the bones. Reason : The penetrating
power of X-rays depends on voltage.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 10

Which one of the following statements is 'NOT" the property of light?

A. A) Light involves transportation of energy.

B. B) Light can travel through vacuum.
C. C) Light requires material medium for propagation.
D. D) Light has finite speed.

Question 11

The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are:

A. A) in opposite phase and perpendicular to each other

B. B) in opposite phase and parallel to each other
C. C) in phase and perpendicular to each other
D. D) in phase and parallel to each other

Question 12

To produce an instantaneous displacement current of 2 mA in the space between the parallel plates of a
capacitor of capacitance 4μF, the rate of change of applied variable potential difference ( dV
dt
) must be
A. A) 200 V/s
B. B) 400 V/s
C. C) 800 V/s
D. D) 500 V/s

Question 13

Which wavelength of sun is used finally as electric energy?

A. A) Radio waves
B. B) Infra red waves
C. C) Visible light
D. D) Micro waves

Question 14

Assertion : Electromagnetic radiations exert pressure. Reason : Electromagnetic-waves carry both

momentum and energy.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 15

Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?

A. A) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same
time
B. B) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
C. C) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction
of propagation of wave
D. D) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation

Question 16

Assertion : Dipole oscillations produce electromagnetic waves. Reason : Accelerated charge produces
electromagnetic waves.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 17

The frequency order for X-rays (A), γ-rays (B), UV rays (C) is

A. A) B > A > C
B. B) A > B > C
C. C) C > B > A
D. D) A > C > B

Question 18

The E.M. wave with shortest wavelength among the following is

A. A) Ultraviolet rays
B. B) X-rays
C. C) Gamma-rays
D. D) Microwaves

Question 19

→
An EM wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity V = V ˆi. The instantaneous oscillating electric
field of this em wave is along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating magnetic field of the EM wave will
be along

A. A) −y direction
B. B) +z direction
C. C) −z direction
D. D) −x direction

Question 20

Assertion : In electromagnetic waves electric field and magnetic field lines are perpendicular to each
other.Reason : Electric field and magnetic field are self sustaining.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 21

The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of an
electromagnetic wave is:
(c = speed of electromagnetic waves)
A. A) 1 : 1
B. B) 1 : c
C. C) 1 : c 2
D. D) c : 1

Question 22

Assertion : When a charged particle moves in a circular path. It produces electromagnetic wave. Reason :
Charged particle has acceleration.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 23

Solid targets of different elements are bombarded by highly en ergetic electron beams. The frequency (f) of
the characteristic X-rays emitted from different targets varies with atomic number Z as

A. A) f ∝ √Z
B. B) f ∝ Z 2
C. C) f ∝ Z
D. D) f ∝ Z 3/2 .

Question 24

Assertion : Crystalline solids can cause X-rays to diffract. Reason : Interatomic distance in crystalline solids
is of the order of 0.1 nm.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 25

The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave
propagating in vacuum is equal to

A. A) the speed of light in vacuum

B. B) reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
C. C) the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum
D. D) unity

Question 26

Characteristic X-rays are produced due to

A. A) transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with target atoms
B. B) transition of electron from higher to lower electrons orbits in an atom
C. C) heating of the target
D. D) transfer of energy in collision of electrons with atoms in the target.

Question 27

CO 2 laser uses
A. A) microwaves
B. B) infra red
C. C) ultra violet
D. D) visible light

Question 28

Which of the following rays are not electromagnetic waves?

A. A) X-rays
B. B) γ-rays
C. C) β-rays
D. D) heat rays

Question 29

Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?

A. A) red
B. B) blue
C. C) green
D. D) violet

Question 30

Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?

A. A) A charge moving at constant velocity

B. B) A stationary charge
C. C) A chargeless particle
D. D) An accelerating charge

Moderate Questions

Question 31

In an electromagnetic wave in free space the root mean square value of the electric field is
E rms = 6 V m −1 . The peak value of the magnetic field is
A. A) 1.41 × 10 −8 T
B. B) 2.83 × 10 −8 T
C. C) 0.70 × 10
−8
T
D. D) 4.23 × 10 −8 T

Question 32

An X-ray tube is operated at 15kV. Calculate the upper limit of the speed of the electrons striking the
target.

A. A) 7.26 × 10 m/s
7

B. B) 7.62 × 10 7 m/s
C. C) 7.62 × 10 cm/s
7

D. D) 7.26 × 10 9 m/s

Question 33

The equation that represents magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave which is propagating along x-
direction with wavelength 10 mm and maximum electric field 60Vm in y-direction is (where, c = speed
−1

of light)

A. A) (6 × 10 −7 ) sin[0.2π(ct − x)]kT
^

B. B) (2 × 10
−7 ^
) sin[200π(ct − x)]kT
C. C) (2 × 10 ) sin[200π(ct − x)]^i T
−7

D. D) (6 × 10
−7
) sin[02π(ct − x)]^iT

Question 34

Hard X-rays for the study of fractures in bones should have a minimum wavelength of 10 m. The
−11

accelerating voltage for electrons in X-ray machine should be

A. A) < 124.2kV
B. B) > 124.2kV
C. C) between 60kV and 70kV
D. D) = 100kV.

Question 35

For a plane electromagnetic wave propagating in x-direction, which one of the following combinations
gives the correct possible directions for the electric field (E ) and magnetic field (B) respectively?

A. A) ˆj + ˆ
k, ˆj + ˆ
k
B. B) −ˆj + ˆ
k, − ˆj − ˆ
k
C. C) ˆj + ˆ
k, − ˆj − ˆ
k
D. D) −ˆj + ˆ
k, − ˆj + ˆ
k

Question 36
What is the amplitude of the electric field in a parallel beam of light intensity ( π ) m2 ? [ Assume,
15 W
2
1
4πε 0
= 9 × 10 9 Nm
C2
]

A. A) 60 N/C
B. B) 50 N/C
C. C) 40 N/C
D. D) 30 N/C

Question 37

Suppose that the electric field amplitude of electromagnetic wave is E 0 = 120NC and its frequency
−1

f = 50MHz. Then, which of the following value is incorrectly computed?

A. A) Magnetic field amplitude is 400nT.
B. B) Angular frequency of EM wave is π × 10 8 rad/s.
C. C) Propagation constant (angular wave number) is 2.1rad/m.
D. D) Wavelength of EM wave is 6 m.

Question 38

An electromagnetic wave of frequency 1 × 10 14 Hz is propagating along z -axis. The amplitude of the

electric field is 4 V/m. If ε 0 = 8.8 × 10 −12 C /N-m 2 , then the average energy density of electric field
2

will be

A. A) 35.2 × 10 −12 J/m

3

B. B) 35.2 × 10 J/m 3
−10

C. C) 35.2 × 10 −11 J/m

3

D. D) 35.2 × 10 −13 J/m

3

Question 39

An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3.0 MHz passes from vacuum into a non-magnetic medium with
permittivity, ϵ = 16ϵ 0 . Where, ϵ 0 is the free space permittivity. The change in wavelength is

A. A) −75 m
B. B) +75 m
C. C) −50 m
D. D) +50 m

Question 40

→
The magnetic field of a plane electromagnetic wave is given by B = 3 × 10 −8 cos (1.6 × 10 3 x+
48 × 10 10 t) ^j, then the associated electric field will be:
A. A) 3 × 10 −8 cos (1.6 × 10 3 x + 48 × 10 10 t)^i/m

B. B) 3 × 10 −8 sin (1.6 × 10 3 x + 48 × 10 10 t)^i/m

C. C) 9 sin (1.6 × 10 3 x − 48 × 10 10 t)k

^ V/m
D. D) 9 cos (1.6 × 10 3 x + 48 × 10 10 t)k
^ V/m

Question 41

At an instant, a plane electromagnetic wave has its magnetic field in the direction of the vector ^i − ^j and its
electric field is in the direction of ^i + ^j. The wave is travelling along which direction?

A. A) +x-direction
B. B) −x-direction
C. C) +z-direction
D. D) -z-direction

Question 42

Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium with a speed of 2 × 10 8 m s −1 . The relative permeability of the
medium is 1. Find the relative permittivity.

A. A) 2.25
B. B) 3.25
C. C) 3.70
D. D) 4.20

Question 43

→ →
If E and K represent electric field and propagation vectors of the EM waves in vacuum, then magnetic field
vector is given by: ( ω - angular frequency) :
→ →
A. A) ω1 (K × E)
→ →
B. B) ω(E × K)
→ →
C. C) ω(K × E)
→ →
D. D) K × E

Question 44

In the following List A consists of wave length range of different of EM waves and List B consists of ways
to produce them. Match the following Lists.

A. A) 3 2 1 4
B. B) 2 3 4 1
C. C) 4 3 2 1
D. D) 1 4 3 2

Question 45

A capacitor of capacitance C , is connected across an ac source of voltage V , given by V = V 0 sin(ωt)

. The displacement current between the plates of the capacitor would then be given by___

A. A) I d = ωC0 sin(ωt)
V

B. B) I d = ωC0 cos(ωt)
V

C. C) I d = V 0 ωC cos(ωt)
D. D) I d = V 0 ωC sin(ωt)

Question 46

Δλ is the difference between the wavelength of k α line and the minimum wavelength of the continuous X-
ray spectrum when the X-ray tube is operated at a voltage V . If the operating voltage is changed to V /3,
then the above difference is Δλ ′ . Then

A. A) Δλ ′ = 5Δλ
B. B) Δλ ′ = 4Δλ
C. C) Δλ ′ = 3Δλ
D. D) Δλ ′ < 3Δλ

Question 47

The electric field associated with an electro magnetic wave in vacuum is given by E = i
40 cos (kz − 6 × 10 8 t), where E, z and t are in volt/m, metre and second respectively. The value of
wave vector k is

A. A) 2 m −1
B. B) 0.5 m −1
C. C) 6 m −1
D. D) 3 m −1

Question 48

The refractive index and the permeability of a medium are respectively 1.5 and 5 × 10 −7 Hm . The
−1

relative permittivity of the medium is nearly

A. A) 25
B. B) 15
C. C) 6
D. D) 10

Question 49
For a plane eletromagnetic wave, the electric field is given by
→ will be
→
E = 90 sin (0.5 × 10 3 x + 1.5 × 10 11 t)k. v/m. The corresponding magnetic field B
→ = 3 × 10 −7 sin (0.5 × 10 3 x + 1.5 × 10 11 t)^i T
A. A) B
→ = 3 × 10 −7 sin (0.5 × 10 3 x + 1.5 × 10 11 t)^j T
B. B) B
→ = 27 × 10 9 sin (0.5 × 10 3 x + 1.5 × 10 11 t)^j T
C. C) B
→
D. D) B = 3 × 10 −7 sin (0.5 × 10 3 x + 1.5 × 10 11 t)kT
^

Question 50

List-I List-II
A. ∮ EdA (i) 0
Match the following List-I with List-II. B. ∮ BdA (ii) − dϕdtB
Q
C. ∮ Edl (iii) E0
D. ∮ Bdl (iv) μ 0 (i c + i d )

A. A)
A B C D
(iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

B. B)
A B C D
(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

C. C)
A B C D
(iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

D. D)
A B C D
(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Question 51

Calculate the wavelength of the k a line for z = 31, when a = 5 × 10 7 Hz 1/2 for a characteristic X-ray
spectrum.

A. A) 1.33Å
B. B) 1.33 nm
C. C) 133 × 10 −10 m
D. D) 133 nm

Question 52

An electromagnetic wave passes through space and its equation is given by E = E 0 sin(ωt − kx) where
E is electric field. Energy density of electromagnetic wave in space is
A. A) 12 ε 0 E 20
B. B) 4 ε 0 E 20
1

C. C) ε 0 E 20
D. D) 2ε 0 E 20

Question 53
 If 10% of the power of a (100π) W light bulb is converted to visible radiation, then the average intensity of
visible radiation at a distance of 10 m is

A. A) 0. 025 W m −2
B. B) 0. 01 W m −2
C. C) 0. 031 W m −2
D. D) 0. 05 W m −2

Question 54

An electromagnetic wave of frequency v = 3.0MHz passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with
relative permittivity ε = 4.0 Then:

A. A) Wavelength is double and frequency become half.

B. B) Wavelength is halved and frequency remains unchanged.
C. C) Wavelength and frequency both remain unchanged.
D. D) Wavelength is doubled and frequency unchanged.

Question 55

The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave is given by:

B y = 2 × 10 −7 sin(π × 10 3 x + 3π × 10 11 t) T. Calculate the wavelength.
A. A) π × 10 3 m
B. B) 2 × 10 −3 m
C. C) 2 × 10 3 m
D. D) π × 10 −3 m

Question 56

Which of the following Maxwell's equations is valid for time varying conditions but not valid for static
conditions :
→ →
A. A) ∮ B ⋅ dl = μ 0 I
→ →
B. B) ∮ E ⋅ dl = 0
→ →
C. C) ∮ E ⋅ dl = − ∂tB
∂ϕ

− → →
D. D) ∮ D ⋅ dA = Q

Question 57

When two different materials A and B having atomic number Z 1 and Z 2 are used as the target in Coolidge
γ-ray tube at different operating voltage V 1 and V 2 respectively their spectrums are found as below.

The correct relation is

A. A) V 1 > V 2 and Z 1 > Z 2
B. B) V 1 < V 2 and Z 1 < Z 2
C. C) V 1 < V 2 and Z 1 > Z 2
D. D) V 1 > V 2 and Z 1 < Z 2

Question 58

The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by

Ex = 0
E y = 2.5NC −1 cos [(2π × 10 6 rads −1 )t − (π × 10 −2 radm −1 )x] The wave is
Ez = 0
A. A) moving along y direction with frequency 2π × 10 6 Hz and wavelength 200 m.
B. B) moving along x direction with frequency 10 6 Hz and wavelength 100 m
C. C) moving along x direction with frequency 10 Hz and wavelength 200 m
6

D. D) moving along −x direction with frequency 10 6 Hz and wavelength 200 m

Question 59

The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by :

Ex = 0
N rad rad
E y = 2.5 cos [(2π × 10 6 )t − (π × 10 −2 )x]
C m s

E z = 0. The wave is :
A. A) Moving along - x direction with frequency 10 Hz and wavelength 200 m
6

B. B) Moving along y direction with frequency 2π × 10 6 Hz and wavelength 200 m

C. C) Moving along x direction with frequency 10 Hz and wavelength 100 m
6

D. D) Moving along x direction with frequency 10 6 Hz and wavelength 200 m

Question 60

In a travelling plane electromagnetic wave, the maximum magnetic field is 1.26 × 10 −4 T. The intensity of
the wave is (Assume, μ 0 = 1.26 × 10 −6 H/m )

A. A) 1.56 × 10 m2
6 W

B. B) 1.89 × 10 6 m
W
2

C. C) 8.92 × 10 m2
5 W

D. D) 4.62 × 10 6 m
W
2
Correct Answers for this Chapter
Q1 - B Q21 - A Q41 - D
Q2 - B Q22 - A Q42 - A
Q3 - C Q23 - B Q43 - A
Q4 - D Q24 - C Q44 - C
Q5 - D Q25 - B Q45 - C
Q6 - C Q26 - B Q46 - C
Q7 - B Q27 - C Q47 - A
Q8 - D Q28 - C Q48 - C
Q9 - B Q29 - A Q49 - B
Q10 - C Q30 - D Q50 - C
Q11 - C Q31 - B Q51 - A
Q12 - D Q32 - A Q52 - A
Q13 - B Q33 - B Q53 - A
Q14 - B Q34 - B Q54 - B
Q15 - C Q35 - B Q55 - B
Q16 - A Q36 - A Q56 - C
Q17 - A Q37 - C Q57 - D
Q18 - C Q38 - A Q58 - A
Q19 - B Q39 - A Q59 - D
Q20 - B Q40 - D Q60 - B

Ray Optics

Easy Questions

Question 1

Two thin lenses of focal lengths f 1 and f 2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combinations is

A. A) f11 f2 2
f +f

B. B) √ f1
f
2

C. C) √ f2
f
1

D. D)
f 1 +f 2
2

Question 2

A person can see clearly object only when they lie between 50 cm to 400 cm from his eyes. In order to
increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the
person has to use, will be
A. A) Convex, +2. 25 D
B. B) Concave, −0. 25 D
C. C) Concave, −0. 2 D
D. D) Convex, + 0. 15 D

Question 3

An object is placed on the principal axis of a concave mirror at a distance of 1. 5f (f is the focal length).
The image will be at,

A. A) −3 f
B. B) 1. 5 f
C. C) −1. 5 f
D. D) 3 f

Question 4

A wire mesh consisting of very small squares is viewed at a distance of 8 cm through a magnifying
converging lens of focal length 10 cm, kept close to the eye. The magnification produced by the lens is

A. A) 5
B. B) 8
C. C) 10
D. D) 20 .

Question 5

A small coin is resting on the bottom of a beaker filled with liquid. A ray of light from the coin travels upto
the surface of the liquid and moves along its surface. How fast is the light travelling in the liquid?

A. A) 2.4 × 10 8 m/s
B. B) 3.0 × 10 8 m/s
C. C) 1.2 × 10 m/s
8

D. D) 1.8 × 10 8 m/s

Question 6

An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is
displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be

A. A) 30 cm towards the mirror

B. B) 36 cm away from the mirror
C. C) 30 cm away from the mirror
D. D) 36 cm towards the mirror

Question 7

A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right-angled prism. The refractive
index of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1. 39, 1. 44 and 1. 47
respectively.

The prism will:

A. A) Separate all the three colours from one another

B. B) Not separate the three colours at all
C. C) Separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours
D. D) Separate the blue colour part from the red and green colours

Question 8

The speed of light in media M 1 and M 2 is 1.5 × 10 8 m/s and 2.0 × 10 8 m/s respectively. A ray of light
enters from medium M 1 to M 2 at an incidence angle i. If the ray suffers total internal reflection, the value
of i is

A. A) equal to sin
−1
( 23 )
B. B) equal to or less than sin −1 ( 35 )
C. C) equal to or greater than sin −1 ( 4 )
3

D. D) less than sin

−1
( 23 )

Question 9

Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the
mirror]

Column 1 Column 2
(A) m = −2 (a) Convex mirror
(B) m = − 12 (b) Concave mirror
(C) m = +2 (c) Real image
(D) m = + 12 (d) Virtual image

A. A) A → b and c; B → b and c; C → b and d; D → a and d

B. B) A → a and c; B → a and d; C → a and b; D → c and d
C. C) A → a and d; B → b and c; C → b and d; D → b and c
D. D) A → c and d; B → b and d; C → b and c; D → a and d

Question 10

A concave mirror of focal length f 1 is placed at a distance of d from a convex lens of focal length f 2 . A
beam of light coming from infinity and falling on this convex lens concave mirror combination returns to
infinity. The distance d must be equal

A. A) f 1 + f 2
B. B) −f 1 + f 2
C. C) 2f 1 + f 2
D. D) −2f 1 + f 2

Question 11

A ray of light is incident on a 60 prism at the minimum deviation position. The angle of refraction at the
∘

first face (ie, incident face) of the prism is

A. A) zero
B. B) 30 ∘
C. C) 45
∘

D. D) 60
∘

Question 12

Assertion : The stars twinkle while the planets do not. Reason : The stars are much bigger in size than the
planets.

A. A) if both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
B. B) if both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
C. C) if assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) if both assertion and reason are false statements.

Question 13

The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10 Hz and wavelength is 5000Å. The refractive index
14

of material will be.

A. A) 1.50
B. B) 3.00
C. C) 1.33
D. D) 1.40

Question 14

A horizontal ray of light is incident on the right-angled prism with prism angle 6 ∘ . If the refractive index of
the material of the prism is 1.5 , then the angle of emergence will be
A. A) 4 ∘
B. B) 6 ∘
C. C) 9 ∘
D. D) 10 ∘

Question 15

An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1. 5 (near-normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed
from one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is

A. A) 8
B. B) 10
C. C) 12
D. D) 16

Question 16

A biconvex lens has radii of curvature 20 cm each. If the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1. 5,
the power of the lens is:

A. A) +20 D
B. B) +5 D
C. C) infinity
D. D) +2 D

Question 17

Assertion : Owls can move freely during night. Reason : They have large number of rods on their retina.

A. A) if both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
B. B) if both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
C. C) if assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) if both assertion and reason are false statements.

Question 18

The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope at a wavelength of 5000Å is of the order of:

A. A) 10 6 rad
B. B) 10
−2
rad
C. C) 10 −4 rad
D. D) 10 −6 rad

Question 19

A beam of light composed of red and green ray is incident obliquely at a point on the face of rectangular
glass slab. When coming out on the opposite parallel face, the red and green ray emerge from:

A. A) two points preparing in two different non parallel directions

B. B) two points propagating in two different parallel directions
C. C) one point propagating in two different directions
D. D) one point propagating in the same directions

Question 20

A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometers from
two objects. The minimum distance between these two objects, which can be resolved by the telescope,
when the mean wavelength of light is 5000Å, is of the order of:

A. A) 0.5 m
B. B) 5 m
C. C) 5 mm
D. D) 5 cm

Question 21

The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays the distance between the
objective and eyepiece is 20 cm. The focal length of lenses are

A. A) 10 cm, 10 cm
B. B) 15 cm, 5 cm
C. C) 18 cm, 2 cm
D. D) 11 cm, 9 cm

Question 22

When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane sheet of
glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index

A. A) equal to that of glass

B. B) less than one
C. C) greater than that of glass
D. D) less than that of glass

Question 23

Assertion : By roughening the surface of a glass sheet its transparency can be reduced. Reason : Glass
sheet with rough surface absorbs more light.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
 B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 24

The refractive index of the material of a prism is √2 and its refracting angle is 30 ∘ . One of the refracting
surface of the prism is made a mirror inward. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the
other face will retrace its path after reflection from the mirrored surface if its angle of incidence on the prism
is:

A. A) 45
∘

B. B) 60 ∘
C. C) 0
D. D) 30 ∘

Question 25

Assertion : Goggles have zero power. Reason : Radius of curvature of both sides of lens is same

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 26

Two plane mirrors are inclined at 70 ∘ . A ray incident on one mirror at angle, θ after reflection falls on
second mirror and is reflected from there parallel to first mirror. The value of θ is:

A. A) 45
∘

B. B) 30 ∘
C. C) 55
∘

D. D) 50 ∘

Question 27

An object is immersed in a fluid. In order that the object becomes invisible, it should

A. A) behave as a perfect reflector

B. B) absorb all light falling on it
C. C) have refractive index one
D. D) have refractive index exactly matching with that of the surrounding fluid.

Question 28

An equi-convex lens has power P it is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal
axis. The power of one part will be
A. A) 0
B. B) 2
P

C. C) P4
D. D) P

Question 29

A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive index of the lens. Then
its focal length will:

A. A) become zero
B. B) become infinite
C. C) become small, but non-zero
D. D) remain unchanged

Question 30

Two thin lenses of focal lengths f 1 and f 2 are in contact and coaxial. The power of the combination is

A. A) √ f1
f
2

B. B) √ f21
f

C. C) f1 f 2
f +f
1 2

D. D) f1 f 2
f +f
1 2

Moderate Questions

Question 31

A double convex lens has focal length 25 cm. The radius of curvature of one of the surfaces is doubled of
the other. Find the radii, if the refractive index of the material of the lens is 1.5.

A. A) 100 cm, 50 cm
B. B) 25 cm, 50 cm
C. C) 18.75 cm, 37.5 cm
D. D) 50 cm, 100 cm

Question 32

A person uses +1.5D glasses to have normal vision from 25 cm onwards. He uses a +20D lens as a
simple microscope to see an object. What is the maximum magnifying power if he uses the microscope
without glasses.

A. A) 8
B. B) 9
C. C) 10
D. D) 11
Question 33

In a convex lens of focal length F , the minimum distance between an object and its real image must be

A. A) 3F
B. B) 4F
C. C) 32 F
D. D) 2F

Question 34

For the given incident ray as shown in the figure, the condition of the total internal reflection of this ray and
the minimum refractive index of prism will be:

A. A)
√3+1
2

B. B)
√2+1
2

C. C) √ 32

D. D) √ 76

Question 35

A short straight object of length l lies along the central axis of a spherical concave mirror, at a distance X
from the mirror. The focal length of the mirror is F . If the length of the image in the mirror is l ′ , then ratio
( ll ) is (assume, l << and l << F )
′

A. A) F −X
F

B. B) ( F
F −X 2
)
C. C) ( F −X )
F 2

D. D) X
F

Question 36

A thin glass prism of angle 9 ∘ with refractive index 1.4 is combined with another glass prism of refractive
index 1.6 as shown in the figure. The combination of the prism provides dispersion without deviation.
Determine the angle (A) of the second prism.
A. A) 9 ∘
B. B) 12
∘

C. C) 6 ∘
D. D) 4 ∘

Question 37

We wish to see inside an atom. Assuming the atom to have a diameter of 100pm, this means that one
must be able to resolve a width of say 10pm. If an electron microscope is used, the minimum electron
energy required is about

A. A) 1.5keV
B. B) 15keV
C. C) 150keV
D. D) 1.5MeV.

Question 38

What minimum separation between two objects a human eye would be able to resolve, if the eye pupil
diameter is 2 mm and the two objects are 20 m away from the eye? (Assume, human eye to be equivalent
to a convex lens and consider the average wave length of light as 600 nm )

A. A) 7.32 mm
B. B) 8.72 mm
C. C) 6.2 mm
D. D) 4.71 mm

Question 39

With the help of a telescope that has an objective of diameter 200 cm, it is proved that light of wavelengths
of the order of 6400Å coming from a star can be easily resolved. Then, the limit of resolution is

A. A) 39 × 10 8 deg
B. B) 39 × 10 8 rad
C. C) 19.5 × 10 rad
8

D. D) 19.5 × 10 8 deg

Question 40

Two identical thin Plano-convex glass lenses (refractive index 1.5 ) each having radius of curvature of
20 cm are placed with their convex surfaces in contact at the center. The intervening space is filled with oil
of refractive index 1.7 The focal length of the combination is

A. A) −20 cm
B. B) −25 cm
C. C) −50 cm
D. D) 50 cm

Question 41

A convex lens of focal length 0.15 m is made of a material of refractive index 32 . When it is placed in a
liquid, its focal length is increased by 0.225 m. The refractive index of the liquid is

A. A) 4
7

B. B) 54
C. C) 4
9

D. D) 32

Question 42

A bulb is located on a wall. Its image is to be obtained on a parallel with the help of a convex lens. If the
distance between parallel walls is ' d ' then the required focal length of the lens placed in between the walls
is:

A. A) only 4
d

B. B) only d2
C. C) more than 4 but less than 2
d d

D. D) less than or equal to d4

Question 43

In the figure shown here, what is the equivalent focal length of the combination of lenses (Assume that all
layers are thin)?

A. A) −50 cm
B. B) 40 cm
C. C) −40 cm
D. D) −100 cm

Question 44

An equiconvex lens is cut two halves along (i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the figure. Let f, f ′ , f ′′ be
the focal length of the complete lens, of each half in case (i) and each half in case (ii), respectively. Choose
the correct statement from the following:

A. A) f ′ = f, f ′′ = 2f
B. B) f ′ = 2f, f ′′ = f
C. C) f ′ = f, f ′′ = f
D. D) f = 2f, f ′′ = 2f

Question 45

Figure shows a ray of light entering and passing through a dense glass slab and emerging from the other
side. If the angle i = 60 ∘ , slab thickness b = 0.04 m and the refractive index of glass = √3, the parallel
shift d between the emerging and entering rays in mm is

A. A) √ 4
3

B. B) √ 3
4

C. C)
40
√3

D. D) 15√3

Question 46

A convex lens has its radii of curvature equal. The focal length of the lens is f . If it is divided vertically into
two identical plano-convex lenses by cutting it, then the focal length of the plano-convex lens is ( μ = the
refractive index of the material of the lens)

A. A) f

B. B) 2
f

C. C) 2f
D. D) (μ − 1)f

Question 47

The difference in the number of wavelengths, when yellow light propagates through air and vacuum
columns of the same thickness, is one. The thickness of the air column is Refractive index of air
μ c = 1.0003, Wavelength of yellow light in vacuum = 6000Å
A. A) 1.8 mm
B. B) 2 mm
C. C) 2 cm
D. D) 2.2 cm

Question 48

The two surfaces of a biconvex lens has same radii of curvatures. This lens is made of glass of refractive
index 1.5 and has a focal length 10 cm in air. The lens is cut into two equal halves along a plane
perpendicular to its principal axis to yield two plano-convex lenses. The two pieces are glued such that the
convex surfaces touch each other. If this combination lens is immersed in water (refractive index = 4/3 ),
its focal length (in cm ) is :

A. A) 5
B. B) 10
C. C) 20
D. D) 40

Question 49

A point object O is placed on the axis of a cylindrical piece of glass of refractive index 1.6 as shown in the
figure. One surface of the glass piece is convex with radius of curvature 3 mm. The point appeared to be
at 5 mm on the axis when viewed along the axis and from right side of convex surface. The distance of the
point object from the convex surface is :

A. A) 4 mm
B. B) 6 mm
C. C) 3 mm
D. D) 2.5 mm

Question 50

A point object is placed at a distance of 60 cm from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm. If a plane mirror
were put perpendicular to the principal axis of the lens and at a distance of 40 cm from it, the final image
would be formed at a distance of :

A. A) 20 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.

B. B) 30 cm from the lens, it would be a real image.
C. C) 30 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.
D. D) 20 cm from the plane mirror, it would be a virtual image.

Question 51

A prism is made up of material of refractive index √3. The angle of the prism is Å. If the angle of minimum
deviation is equal to the angle of the prism, then the value of A is:

A. A) 30 ∘
B. B) 45 ∘
C. C) 60
∘

D. D) 75 ∘

Question 52

When a glass prism of refracting angle 60 ∘ is immersed in a liquid its angle of minimum deviation is 30 ∘ .
The critical angle of glass with respect to the liquid medium is

A. A) 42
∘

B. B) 45 ∘
C. C) 50
∘

D. D) 52 ∘

Question 53

The apparent depth of water in cylindrical water tank of diameter 2R cm is reducing at the rate of x cm/
minute when water is being drained out at a constant rate. The amount of water drained in c.c. per minute
is ( n 1 = refractive index of air, n 2 = refractive index of water).

A. A)
xπR 2 n 1
n2

B. B)
xπR 2 n 2
n1

C. C)
2πRn 1
n2
D. D) πR x.2

Question 54

A plano-convex lens fits exactly into a plano-concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to each other.
If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices μ 1 and μ 2 and R is the radius of curvature of
the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of the combination is

A. A) 2(μ +μ )
R
1 2

B. B) 2(μ R−μ )
1 2

C. C) (μ −μ
R
1 2)

D. D) (μ 2R
2 −μ 1 )
Question 55

A 2.0 cm tall object is placed 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm. What is the size
and nature of the image?

A. A) 4 cm, real
B. B) 4 cm, virtual
C. C) 1.0 cm, real
D. D) none of these

Question 56

A person wear normal spectacles in which the distance between glasses and eyes is approximately 2 cm,
then power required is -5 D. If he wears contact lens, then the required power is

A. A) −5.2D
B. B) −4.54D
C. C) +5.2D
D. D) +4.7D

Question 57

Consider a concave mirror of 10 cm focal length illuminated by an object kept at a distance of 25 cm. The
distance at which the image is formed and its magnification respectively are

A. A) −16.7 cm and -0.67

B. B) 7.1 cm and 0.29
C. C) −16.7 cm and 0.67
D. D) 7.1 cm and -0.29

Question 58

A converging mirror is placed on the right hand side of a converging lens as shown in the figure. The focal
length of the mirror and the lens are 20 cm and 15 cm respectively. The separation between the lens and
the mirror is 40 cm and their principal axes coincide. A point source is placed on the principal axis at a
distance d to the left of the lens. If the final beam comes out parallel to the principal axis, then the value of
d is:

A. A) 4 cm
B. B) 8 cm
C. C) 12 cm
D. D) 16 cm
Question 59

A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way
that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is

A. A) 10 cm
B. B) 15 cm
C. C) 2.5 cm
D. D) 5 cm

Question 60

A convex lens A of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens B of focal length 5 cm are kept along the
same axis with a distance d between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on A leaves B as a parallel
beam, then the distance d in cm will be :

A. A) 50
B. B) 15
C. C) 25
D. D) 30

Hard Questions

Question 61

A point object is placed as shown. The two pieces are of the same lens of focal length 10 cm. Find the
distance (in cm) between the two images formed by two pieces of the lens.

Question 62

An empty tank has concave mirror as its bottom. When sunlight falls normally on the mirror, it is focussed
at a height of 32 cm from the mirror. If the tank is filled with water upto a height of 20 cm, then the sunlight
focusses at (refractive index of water = 43 )

A. A) 16 cm above water level

B. B) 9 cm above water level
C. C) 16 cm below water level
D. D) 9 cm below water level

Question 63
A thin converging lens of focal length f = 25 cm forms the image of an object on a screen placed at a
distance of 75 cm from the lens. The screen is moved closer to the lens by a distance of 25 cm. The
distance through which the object has to be shifted, so that its image on the screen in sharp again is

A. A) 37.5 cm
B. B) 16.25 cm
C. C) 12.5 cm
D. D) 13.5 cm

Question 64

Diameter or aperture of a plano-convex lens is 6 cm and its thickness at the centre is 3 mm. The image of
an object formed is real and twice the size of the object. If the speed of light in the material of the lens is
2 × 10 8 m s −1 . The distance where the object is placed from the plano-convex lens is
… … … × 15 cm.

Question 65

A converging lens of focal length 15 cm and a converging mirror of focal length 20 cm are placed with
their principal axes coinciding. A point source S is placed on the principal axis at a distance of 12 cm from
the lens, as shown in figure. It is found that the final beam comes out parallel to the principal axis. Let the
separation between the mirror and the lens be 10 × k. Find k.

Question 66

A convex lens with lateral magnification 2 is used to image a point at the bottom of a tank. The image of the
point is formed 60 cm above the lens. Now a liquid is filled into the tank to a height of 24 cm. It is found
that the distance of the image of the same point is now 120 cm above the lens. Find the refractive index of
the liquid.

A. A) 1.31
B. B) 1.33
C. C) 1.36
D. D) 1.39

Question 67

An observer can see through a pinhole the top end of a thin rod of height h, placed as shown in the figure.
The beaker height is 3h and its radius h. When the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a height 2h, he can
see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive index of the liquid is
A. A) 2
5

B. B) √ 2
5

C. C) √ 2
3

D. D) 32

Question 68

A narrow parallel beam of light is incident on a transparent sphere of refractive index n. If the beam finally
gets focussed at a point situated at a distance = 2 × (radius of sphere) from the centre of the sphere, then
find n?

A. A) 3
4

B. B) 32
C. C) − 6
4

D. D) −2
3

Question 69

A cylindrical tube filled with water (μ w = 3 ) is closed at its both ends by two thin, silvered plano-convex
4

lenses, as shown in the figure. Refractive index of lenses L 1 and L 2 are 2.0 and 1.5, while their radii of
curvatures are 5 cm and 9 cm, respectively. A point object is placed somewhere at a point O on the axis of
the cylindrical tube. If it is found that all the images formed by multiple refractions and reflections coincide
with the object, then the distance between both the lenses is

A. A) 8 cm
B. B) 18 cm
C. C) 10 cm
D. D) 14 cm

Question 70

A point source of light is placed at a distance h below the surface of a large deep lake. Neglecting the
partial reflection of light during refraction, the percentage of light energy that escapes from the water
surface is [μ water = 4/3]

A. A) 50%
B. B) 25%
C. C) 20%
D. D) 17%

Question 71

Consider a point object situated at a distance of 30 cm from the centre of sphere of radius 2 cm and
refractive index 1.5 as shown in the figure. If the refractive index of the region surrounding this sphere is
1.4 , then the position of the image due to refraction by sphere with respect to the centre is

A. A) 30 cm
B. B) 45 cm
C. C) ∞
D. D) 28 cm

Question 72

A glass sphere having refractive index (3/2) is having a small irregularity at its centre. It is placed in a
liquid of refractive index 43 such that the surface of the liquid is at a distance r above the sphere, where
r = 20 cm is radius of the sphere. If the irregularity is viewed from above then what is it's distance (in cm)
from the centre where eye will observe the irregularity?

Question 73

the curvature radii of a concavo-convex glass lens are 20 cm and 60 cm. The convex surface of the lens
is silvered. With the lens horizontal, the concave surface is filled with water. The focal length of the effective
mirror is (μ of glass = 1. 5, μ of water = 43 )

A. A) 13 cm
90

B. B) 80
13
cm
C. C) 3 cm
20

D. D) 45
8
cm
Question 74

A thin biconvex lens of refractive index 3/2 is placed on a horizontal plane mirror as shown in the figure.
The space between the lens and the mirror is then filled with water of refractive index 4/3. It is found that
when a point object is placed 15 cm above the lens on its principle axis, the object coincides with its own
image. On repeating with another liquid, the object and the image again coincide at a distance 25 cm from
the lens. Calculate the refractive index of the liquid.

A. A) 1 ⋅ 6
B. B) 3.2
C. C) 0.8
D. D) 2

Question 75

A ray of light is incident on a surface of glass slab at an angle 45°. If the lateral shift produced per unit
thickness is 1 m, then the angle of refraction produced at the incident surface is
√3

A. A) tan −1 ( 2 )
√3

B. B) tan −1 (1 − √ 23 )

C. C) sin −1 (1 − √ 23 )

D. D) tan −1 (√ 2
)
√3−1

Question 76

An observer whose least distance of distinct vision is d, views his own face in a convex mirror of radius of
curvature r. The magnification produced can not exceed?

A. A)
r
d+√r 2 +d 2
B. B)
r
d+√d 2 −r 2
C. C) r
d−√r+d
D. D) r
d+√d+r

Question 77

Two lenses A and B having focal lengths 2.0 cm and 5.0 cm, respectively are placed 14 cm apart. Lens
A is placed to the left of lens B. An object is placed 3 cm to the left of lens A. The distance of the image
from lens A will be

A. A) 3 cm
40

B. B) 82
3 cm
C. C) 5 cm
112

D. D) 5 cm
92

Question 78

A glass rod of rectangular cross-section is bent into the shape shown in the figure below. A parallel beam of
light falls perpendicularly on the flat surface A. Determine the minimum value of the ratio R/d for which all
light entering the glass through surface A will emerge from the glass through the surface B. The index of
refraction of the glass is 1. 5.

Question 79

The graph between object distance u and image distance v for a lens is given below. The focal length of
the lens is

A. A) 5 ± 0.1
B. B) 5 ± 0.05
C. C) 0.5 ± 0.1
D. D) 0.5 ± 0.05

Question 80

A printed page is kept pressed by a transparent cube of edge t. The refractive index of the cube varies as
μ(z) = 1 + zt , where z is the vertical distance from bottom of the cube. If viewed from top, then the
printed letters appear to be shifted by an amount

A. A) (1 − ln 2)t
B. B) (2 ln 2 − 1)t
C. C) 2 ln 2
t
D. D) 3 ln 2
2t

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q28 - D Q55 - A
Q2 - B Q29 - B Q56 - B
Q3 - A Q30 - D Q57 - A
Q4 - A Q31 - C Q58 - C
Q5 - D Q32 - B Q59 - D
Q6 - B Q33 - B Q60 - B
Q7 - C Q34 - C Q61 - 6 (Num)
Q8 - C Q35 - C Q62 - B
Q9 - A Q36 - C Q63 - C
Q10 - C Q37 - B Q64 - 3 (Num)
Q11 - B Q38 - A Q65 - 4 (Num)
Q12 - B Q39 - B Q66 - B
Q13 - B Q40 - C Q67 - B
Q14 - C Q41 - B Q68 - A
Q15 - C Q42 - D Q69 - B
Q16 - B Q43 - D Q70 - D
Q17 - C Q44 - A Q71 - A
Q18 - D Q45 - C Q72 - 13 (Num)
Q19 - B Q46 - C Q73 - A
Q20 - C Q47 - B Q74 - A
Q21 - C Q48 - D Q75 - B
Q22 - A Q49 - A Q76 - A
Q23 - C Q50 - D Q77 - B
Q24 - A Q51 - C Q78 - 2 (Num)
Q25 - A Q52 - B Q79 - B
Q26 - D Q53 - B Q80 - A
Q27 - D Q54 - C

Wave Optics

Easy Questions

Question 1

In an interference experiment, the spacing between successive maxima or minima is

A. A) λd/D
B. B) λD/d
C. C) dD/λ
D. D) λd/4D

Question 2

In single slit diffraction pattern

A. A) central fringe has negligible width than others

B. B) all fringes are of same width
C. C) central fringes do not exist
D. D) None of the above

Question 3

Young's double slit experiment is performed in water, instead of air, then fringe width

A. A) decreases.
B. B) becomes infinite.
C. C) increases.
D. D) remains same.

Question 4

Two coherent sources of intensities l 1 and I 2 produce an interference pattern on screen. The maximum
intensity in the interference pattern is

A. A) [√I 1 + √I 2 ]
2

B. B) I 1 + I 2
C. C) (I 1 + I 2 )
2

D. D) I 21 + I 22

Question 5

In Young's double slit experiment, the 6 th maximum with wavelength ′ λ 1 ′ is at a distance ′ d 1 ′ from the
central maximum and the 4 th maximum with wavelength λ 2 is at distance d 2 . Then d1 is
d
2

A. A) 23
λ1
λ2
B. B) 32
λ1
λ2
C. C) 23
λ2
λ1
D. D) 32
λ2
λ1

Question 6

In an interference experiment, third bright fringe is obtained at a point on the screen with a light of 700 nm.
What should be the wavelength of the light source in order to obtain 5 th bright fringe at the same point?

A. A) 500 nm
B. B) 630 nm
C. C) 750 nm
D. D) 420 nm

Question 7

Two coherent sources of light interfere and produce fringe patterns on a screen. For central maximum, the
phase difference between the two waves will be

A. A) zero
B. B) π
C. C) 2
3π

D. D) π2

Question 8

The phenomenon of interference is based on

A. A) Conservation of momentum
B. B) Quantum nature of light
C. C) Conservation of energy
D. D) Conservation of charge

Question 9

A parallel beam of monochromatic light falls normally on a single narrow slit. The angular width of the
central maximum in the resulting diffraction pattern

A. A) decreases with increase of slitwidth.

B. B) increases with increase of slitwidth.
C. C) decreases with decrease of slitwidth.
D. D) may increase or decrease.

Question 10

In a Young's double slit experiment, if there is no initial phase-difference between the light from the two
slits, a point on the screen corresponding to the fifth minimum has path difference.

A. A) 5 λ2
B. B) 10 2
λ

C. C) 9 2
λ

D. D) 11 λ2

Question 11

After passing through a polariser a linearly polarised light of intensity I is incident on an analyser making an
angle of 30 ∘ with that of the polariser. The intensity of light emitted from the analyser will be :

A. A) 2
I
B. B) 3
I

C. C) 4
3I

D. D) 2I
4

Question 12

A glass slab of thickness 4 cm contains the same number of waves as in 'x' cm of water column when both
are transversed by the same monochromatic light. If the refractive indices of glass and water for that light
are 3 and 3 respectively, the value of x will be
5 4

A. A) 20
9
cm
B. B) 54 cm
C. C) 5 cm
D. D) 20
9 cm

Question 13

For Young's double slit experiment, two statements are given below:

Statement I : If screen is moved away from the plane of slits, angular separation of the fringes remains
constant.

Statement II : If the monochromatic source is replaced by another monochromatic source of larger

wavelength, the angular separation of fringes decreases.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

B. B) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
C. C) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
D. D) Statement I is true but Statement II false.

Question 14

A graph is plotted between the fringe-width (z) and the distance (D) between the slit and eye-piece,
keeping other adjustment same. The correct graph is

A. A) (B)
B. B) (A)
C. C) (C)
D. D) (D)

Question 15

In Young's double slit experiment the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength λ of the light
used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width
of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21 o (with same λ and D) the separation
between the slits needs to be changed to

A. A) 2. 1 mm
B. B) 1 .9 mm
C. C) 1.8 mm
D. D) 1.7 mm

Question 16

At the first minimum adjacent to the central maximum of a single-slit diffraction pattern, the phase
difference between the Huygen's wavelet from the edge of the slit and the wavelet from the midpoint of the
slit is:
π
A. A) 2 radian
B. B) π radian
π
C. C) 8 radian
π
D. D) 4 radian

Question 17

For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength λ, diffraction is produced by a single slit whose
width a is of the order of the wavelength of the light. If D is the distance of the screen from the slit, the
width of the central maxima will be:
2Dλ
A. A) a
Dλ
B. B) a
C. C)
Da
λ

D. D) 2Da
λ

Question 18

In a simple slit diffraction pattern intensity and width of fringes are

A. A) unequal width
B. B) equal width
C. C) equal width and equal intensity
D. D) unequal width and unequal intensity

Question 19

In Young's double slit experiment, first slit has width four times the width of the second slit. the ratio of the
maximum intensity to the minimum intensity in the interference fringe system is :

A. A) 2 : 1
B. B) 4 : 1
C. C) 9 : 1
D. D) 8 : 1

Question 20

In Young's double slit experiment the distance between the slits and the screen is doubled. The separation
between the slits reduced to half. As a result the fringe width:

A. A) is halved
B. B) becomes four times
C. C) remains unchanged
D. D) is doubled

Question 21

In Young's double slit experiment if the slit widths are in the ratio 1 : 9. The ratio of the intensity at minima
to that at maxima will be

A. A) 1
B. B) 1/9
C. C) 1,4
D. D) 1/3

Question 22

In a Young's double slit experiment, a student observes 8 fringes in a certain segment of screen when a
monochromatic light of 600 nm wavelength is used. If the wavelength of light is changed to 400 nm, then
the number of fringes he would observe in the same region of the screen is:

A. A) 8
B. B) 9
C. C) 12
D. D) 6

Question 23

A parallel beam of light of wavelength λ is incident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction pattern formed on
a screen placed perpendicular to the direction of the incident beam. At the second minimum of the
diffraction pattern, the phase difference between the rays coming from the two edges of slit is:

A. A) 2π
B. B) 3π
C. C) 4π
D. D) ππ

Question 24

In Young's double slit experiment, green light is incident on the two slits. The interference pattern is
observed on a screen. Which one of the following changes would cause the observed fringes to be more
closely spaced?

A. A) Reducing the separation between the slits.

B. B) Using blue light instead of green light.
C. C) Using red light instead of green light.
D. D) Moving the screen away from the slits.

Question 25

A Fraunhofer diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width 0 ⋅ 3 mm is obtained on a screen placed at a
distance of 3 m from the slit. The first minima lie at 5 ⋅ 5 mm on either side of the central maximum on the
screen. The wavelength of light used is

A. A) 6000Å
B. B) 5500Å
C. C) 4500Å
D. D) 5000Å

Question 26

When unpolarised light is passed through crossed polaroids, then light passing through first polaroid

A. A) also passes through second polaroid.

B. B) partially passes through second polaroid.
C. C) is blocked by second polaroid.
D. D) passes with greater intensity.

Question 27

Light is incident at an angle i on a glass slab. The reflected ray is completely polarised. The angle of
refraction is

A. A) 90 ∘ − i
B. B) 180 ∘ − i
C. C) 90 ∘ + i
D. D) ¯i

Question 28

From Brewster's law, except for polished metallic surface, the polarising angle

A. A) depends on wave length and is different for different colours.

B. B) independent of wavelength and is different for different colours.
C. C) independent of wavelength and is same for different colours.
D. D) depends on wavelength and is same for different colours.

Question 29
A parallel beam of monochromatic light of wavelength 5 × 10 −7 m is incident normally on a single narrow
slit of width 10 mm. At what angle of diffraction, the first minima is observed?
−3

A. A) sin −1 ( 1 )
√2

B. B) sin −1
(1)
C. C) sin −1 ( 2 )
√3

D. D) sin −1 ( 12 )

Question 30

If the screen is moved away from the plane of the slits in a Young's double slit experiment, then the:

A. A) angular separation of the fringes increases

B. B) angular separation of the fringes decreases
C. C) linear separation of the fringes increases
D. D) linear separation of the fringes decreases

Moderate Questions

Question 31

The intensity at the maximum in a Young's double slit experiment is I 0 . Distance between two slits is
d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one
of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d ?

A. A) I 0
B. B) 40
I

C. C) 4 I 0
3

D. D) 20
I

Question 32

In Young's double slit experiment when a glass plate of refractive index 1.44 is introduced in the path of
one of the interfering beams, the fringes are displaced by a distance ' y '. If this plate is replaced by another
plate of same thickness but of refractive index 1.66, the fringes will be displaced by a distance

A. A) 2
3y

B. B) 3
2y

C. C) 4
5y

D. D) 5
4y

Question 33

In biprism experiment, the 4 th dark band is formed opposite to one of the slits. The wavelength of light
used is ( D = distance between source and screen, d = distance between the slits)

A. A) 9D
d2
B. B) 11D
d2

C. C) 14D
d2

D. D) 7D
d2

Question 34

In Young's double slit experiment, the distance between the slits is 3 mm and the slits are 2 m away from
the screen. Two interference patterns can be obtained on the screen due to light of wavelength 480 nm
and 600 nm respectively. The separation on the screen between the 5 th order bright fringes on the two
interference patterns is

A. A) 6 × 10
−4
m
B. B) 8 × 10 −4 m
C. C) 12 × 10
−4
m
D. D) 4 × 10 −4 m

Question 35

In Young's double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart and are illuminated by photons of two
wavelengths λ 1 = 12000Å and λ 2 = 10000Å. At what minimum distance from the common central
bright fringe on the screen 2 m from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference pattern coincide with a
bright fringe from the other?

A. A) 8 mm
B. B) 6 mm
C. C) 4 mm
D. D) 3 mm

Question 36

The angular width of a fringe in a double slit experiment is found to be 0. 2° on a screen 1 m away. The
wavelength of light used is 600 nm. The change in angular width of the fringe if the entire measurement
system is immersed in water is [Use refractive index of water as 43 ]

A. A) 0. 05°
B. B) 0. 10°
C. C) 0. 15°
D. D) 0. 20°

Question 37

In Young's double slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen is ′ K ′ unit for path
difference ′ λ ′ . What would be the intensity at a point if path difference is λ4 ?
′

A. A) zero
B. B) K
4
C. C) K
D. D) 2
K

Question 38

Choose the incorrect statement.

A. A) The fringe width in a Young's double slit experiment reduces when the width between the two slits
increases.
B. B) The central fringe observed for in a single slit diffraction experiment is a bright fringe.
C. C) The resolving power of the microscope is reciprocal to the maximum separation of two points seen
as distinct.
D. D) Polarisation phenomenon is observed only for transverse waves.

Question 39

Light consisting of a plane waves of wavelength, λ 1 = 8 × 10 −5 cm and λ 2 = 6 × 10 −5 cm generates

an interference pattern in Young's double slit experiment. If n 1 denotes the n 1 th dark fringe due to light of
wavelength λ 1 which coincides with n 2 th bright fringe due to light of wavelength λ 2 , then

A. A) n 1 = 3, n 2 = 1
B. B) n 1 = 4, n 2 = 5
C. C) n 1 = 1, n 2 = 2
D. D) n 1 = 3, n 2 = 2

Question 40

In a Young's double slit experiment the intensity of light when slit is at distance λ from central is I. What will
be the intensity at the distance of slit is λ6 ?

A. A) 6
I

B. B) 12
I

C. C) 34 I
D. D) 8
I

Question 41

In an interference, the intensity of two interfering waves are I and 4I respectively. They produce intensity
at two points A and B with phase angle of π/2 and π respectively. Then difference in between them is

A. A) I
B. B) 2I
C. C) 4I
D. D) 5I

Question 42

In the Young's double slit experiment, the resultant intensity at a point on the screen is 75% of the
maximum intensity of the bright fringe. Then the phase difference between the two interfering rays at that
point is

A. A) 6
π

B. B) π4
C. C) 3
π

D. D) π2

Question 43

If the slit width is 2 mm and wavelength of light used is 4000Å, then Fresnel distance is nearly

A. A) 2 mm
B. B) 10 m
C. C) 20 km
D. D) 2μm

Question 44

In a Young's double slit experiment, a light of wavelength 500 nm falls on it. Its slits separation is 2 mm
and distance between plane of slits and screen is 2 m then, find distance of a point on the screen from
central maxima where intensity becomes 50% of central maxima.

A. A) 1000μm
B. B) 500μm
C. C) 250μm
D. D) 125μm

Question 45

In a biprism experiment, the slit separation is 1 mm. Using monochromatic light of wavelength 5000Å, an
interference pattern is obtained on the screen. Where should the screen be moved, so that the change in
fringe width is 12 ⋅ 5 × 10 −5 m ?

A. A) Away or towards the slit by 25 am

B. B) Away or towards the slit by 12 ⋅ 5 cm
C. C) Away from the slit by 5 cm
D. D) Towards the slit by 10 cm

Question 46

A light beam of wavelength 800 nm passes through a single slit and projected on a screen lsept at 5 m
away from the slit. What should be the slit width for the ray optics approximation to be valid?

A. A) 0.5 mm
B. B) 2 mm
C. C) 1.5 mm
D. D) 0.25 mm
Question 47

A point source is kept at a distance of 1000 m has an illumination I . To change the illumination to 16I the
new distance should become

A. A) 250 m
B. B) 500 m
C. C) 750 m
D. D) 800 m

Question 48

In Yong's double slit experiment, in interference pattern, a minimum is observed exactly in front of one slit.
The distance between the two coherent source is ' d ' and ' D ' is the distance between the source and
screen. The possible wavelength used are inversely proportional to

A. A) D, 5D, 9D …
B. B) D, 3D, 5D …
C. C) 3D, 4D, 5D …
D. D) 3D, 7D, 10D …

Question 49

In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width a the first minimum is observed at an angle 30 when
o

light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:

A. A) sin
−1
( 14 )
B. B) sin −1 ( 23 )
C. C) sin
−1
( 12 )
D. D) sin −1 ( 34 )

Question 50

In Young's double slit interference experiment the wavelength of light used is 6000Å. If the path difference
between waves reaching a point P on the screen is 1.5 microns, then at that point P .

A. A) Second bright band occurs

B. B) Second dark band occurs
C. C) Third dark band occurs
D. D) Third bright band occurs

Question 51

In Young's double slit experiment, the two slits are d distance apart. Interference pattern is observed on the
screen at a distance D from the slits. Fist dark fringe is observed on the screen directly opposite to one of
the slits. The wavelength of the light is.

A. A) D
2

2d
B. B) dD
2
C. C) 2D
d2

D. D) d
D2

Question 52

On placing a thin film of mica of thickness 12 × 10 −5 cm in the path of one of the interfering waves in
Young's double slit experiment using monochromatic light, the fringe pattern shifts through a distance equal
to width of a bright fringe. If wavelength used is λ = 6 × 10 −5 cm, the refractive index of mica is

A. A) 1.4
B. B) 1.1
C. C) 1.3
D. D) 1.5

Question 53

A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm.
The aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 5 × 10 −5 cm. The distance of the
first dark band of the diffraction pattern from the centre of the screen is

A. A) 0.10 cm
B. B) 0.25 cm
C. C) 0.20 cm
D. D) 0.15 cm

Question 54

Unpolarised light is incident from air on plane surface of a material of refractive index μ. At a particular
angle of incident i it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of
the following options is correct for this situation?

A. A) i = sin
−1
( μ1 )
B. B) Reflected light is polarized with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence
C. C) Reflected light is polarized with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incident

D. D) i = tan −1 ( μ )
1

Question 55

A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter d forms an image of intensity I . Aperture of diameter
d
2
in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will
be respectively

A. A) f and 14

B. B) 4 and I2
3f

C. C) f and 3I
4
D. D) 2f and 2I
Question 56

When light of an unknown polarisation is examined with a polaroid, it is found to exhibit maximum intensity
I 0 along y-axis and minimum intensity 2Y3 0 along x-axis. The intensity transmited through a polaroid with
pass axis at 45 to y-axis (in x - y plane) is
∘

A. A) 58 }
0
B. B)
f0
2
C. C) 5
6 f0
D. D)
f0
4

Question 57

Light is incident normally on a diffraction grating through which the first diffraction is seen at 32 . In this
∘

case the second order diffraction will be

A. A) at 80
∘

B. B) at 64 ∘
C. C) at 48
∘

D. D) there is no second order diffraction

Question 58

In Young's double slit experiment, point A on the screen has a path difference of λ and point B on the
screen has a path difference of λ4 . What is the ratio of the intensities at point A to B ?

A. A) 1 : 1
B. B) 2 : 1
C. C) 1 : 2
D. D) 4 : 1

Question 59

A beam of light is incident on a glass plate at an angle of 60 ∘ . The reflected ray is polarized. If angle of
incidence is 45 ∘ then angle of refraction is

A. A) sin
−1
( √16 )

B. B) sin −1 ( 1 )
√3

C. C) sin
−1
(√ 32 )

D. D) cos −1 (√ 32 )

Question 60

Two Polaroids P 1 and P 2 are placed with their axis perpendicular to each other. Unpolarised light with
intensity I 0 is incident on P 1 . A third polaroid P 3 is kept in between P 1 and P 2 such that its axis makes an
angle 45 with that of P 1 . The intensity of transmitted light through P 2 is
o

A. A) I20
B. B) 40
I

C. C) 80
I

D. D) 160
I

Hard Questions

Question 61

In Young's double-slit experiment, one of the slits is wider than the other, so that the amplitude of light from
one slit is double of that from the other slit. If I m is the maximum intensity, what is the resultant intensity
when they interfere at phase difference ϕ?

A. A) 9m (1 − 8cos 2 2 )
I ϕ

B. B) 9m (1 + 8cos 2 2 )
I ϕ

C. C) 9m (1 − 8cos 2 ϕ)
I

D. D) 9m (1 − sin 2 2 )
I ϕ

Question 62

In a Young's double slit experiment with light of wavelength λ, the separation of slits is d and distance of
screen is D such that D ≫ d ≫ λ . If the Fringe width is β , the distance from point of maximum intensity
to the point where intensity falls to half of the maximum intensity on either side is:

A. A) 4
β

B. B) 3
β

C. C) 6
β

D. D) 2
β

Question 63

Unpolarized light of intensity 32 W m −2 passes through three polarizers such that transmission axes of
the first and second polarizer make an angle 30° with each other and the transmission axis of the last
polarizer is crossed with that of the first. The intensity of the final emerging light will be

A. A) 32 W m −2
B. B) 3 W m −2
C. C) 8 W m −2
D. D) 4 W m −2

Question 64

Unpolarized light of intensity I is incident on a system of two polarizers, A followed by B. The intensity of
emergent light is 2 . If a third polarizer C is placed between A and B the intensity of emergent light is
I
reduced to 3 . The angle between the polarizers A and C is θ , then
I

1
A. A) cos θ = ( 23 ) 4
1
B. B) cos θ = ( 3 ) 4
1

1
C. C) cos θ = ( 13 ) 2
1
D. D) cos θ = ( 3 ) 2
2

Question 65

Four monochromatic and coherent sources of light emitting waves in phase at placed on y axis at
y = 0, a, 2a and 3a. If the intensity of wave reaching at point P far away on y axis from each of the
source is almost the same and equal to I 0 , then the resultant intensity at P for a = λ8 is nI 0 . The value
of [n] is.
Here [] is greatest integer function.

Question 66

When Young's double slit experiment is performed in air, the Y-coordinates of central maxima and 10
th

maxima are 2 cm and 5 cm respectively. If the apparatus is immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.5 ,
the corresponding Y-coordinates will be

A. A) 2 cm, 7.5 cm
B. B) 3 cm, 6 cm
C. C) 2 cm, 4 cm
D. D) 43 cm, 10
3 cm

Question 67

Two coherent point sources S 1 and S 2 vibrating in phase emit light of wavelength λ. The separation
between them is 2λ as shown in figure. The first bright fringe is formed at P due to interference on a
screen placed at a distance D from S 1 (D >> λ), then OP is

A. A) √2D
B. B) 1.5D
C. C) √3D
D. D) 2D

Question 68

Two point sources S 1 and S 2 separated by a distance 10μm emit light waves of wavelength 4μm in
phase. A circular wire of radius 40μm is placed around the sources as shown in figure, then ( O is the
centre of the circle and OS 1 = OS 2 )

A. A) points A and B are dark and points C and D are bright

B. B) points A and B are bright and point C and D are dark
C. C) points A and C are dark and points B and D are bright
D. D) points A and C are bright and points B and D are dark

Question 69

The pass-axes of two polarisers were kept such that the incident unpolarised beam of intensity I 0 , gets
completely blocked. Another polariser was introduced in between these two polarisers with its pass-axis
60 ∘ with respect to the pass-axis of the first one. The output intensity would then become
A. A) 0
B. B) 32
3
I0
C. C) 16 I 0
3

D. D) 38 I 0

Question 70

A ray of light passes four transparent glass slabs having refractive indices μ 1 , μ 2 , μ 3 and μ 4 as shown in
the figure. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the incident ray AB, then

A. A) μ 1 = μ 2
B. B) μ 2 = μ 3
C. C) μ 3 = μ 4
D. D) μ 4 = μ 1

Question 71

A double slit experiment is performed with light of wavelength 500 nm. A thin film of thickness 2μm and
refractive index 1.5 is introduced in the path of the upper beam. The location of the central maximum will

A. A) remain unshifted
B. B) shift downward by nearly two fringes
C. C) shift upward by nearly two fringes
D. D) shift downward by 10 fringes.

Question 72

A parallel beam of light of intensity I 0 is incident on a coated glass plate. If 25% of the incident light is
reflected from the upper surface and 50% of light is reflected from the lower surface of the glass plate, the
ratio of maximum to minimum intensity in the interference region of the reflected light is
2
1
+√ 38
A. A) (
2
1
)
2 −√ 38
2
1
+√ 38
B. B) (
4
1
)
2 −√ 38

C. C) 8
5

D. D) 85

Question 73

Radio waves coming at ∠α to vertical are received by radar after reflection from a nearby water surface
and directly. The height of the antenna from the water surface so that it records a maximum intensity,
should be (wavelength = λ)

λ
A. A) 4cosα
2λ
B. B) 4cosα
3λ
C. C) 6cosα
5λ
D. D) 7cosα

Question 74

In the arrangement shown in the figure, slits S 3 and S 4 are having a variable separation Z . Point O on the
screen is at the common perpendicular bisector of S 1 S 2 and S 3 S 4 . (Assume D >> d)

The minimum value of Z for which the intensity at O is zero is

A. A) 2d
3λD

B. B) λD
2d
C. C) 3d
λD

D. D) λD
d

Question 75

A monochromatic light source S of wavelength 440 nm is placed slightly above a plane mirror M as
shown. Image of S in M can be used as a virtual source to produce interference fringes on the screen. The
distance of source S from O is 20.0 cm, and the distance of screen from O is 100.0 cm (figure is not to
scale). If the angle θ = 0.50 × 10 radians, the width of the interference fringes observed on the screen
−3

is −

A. A) 2.20 mm
B. B) 2.64 mm
C. C) 1.10 mm
D. D) 0.55 mm

Question 76

In YDSE arrangement as shown in the figure, fringes are seen on screen using monochromatic source S
∘
having wavelength 3000 A (in the air). S 1 and S 2 are two slits separated by d = 1 mm and D = 1 m
. Left of slits S 1 and S 2 medium of refractive index n 1 = 2 is present and to the right of S 1 and S 2
medium of n 2 = 2 , is present. A thin slab of thickness 't' is placed in front of S 1 . The refractive index of
3

n 3 of the slab varies with distance from it's starting face as shown in figure.

In order to get central maxima at the centre of the screen, the thickness of the slab (in μm) required is:
Question 77

Unpolarised light from air incidents on the surface of a transparent medium of refractive index 1.414 such
that the reflected light is completely polarised. Match the angles given in List-I with the corresponding
values given in List-II.
The correct match is Codes $

A B C D

A. A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

B. B) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
C. C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
D. D) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Question 78

A plane mirror of length 30 cm is placed horizontally along with a vertical screen. A monochromatic point
source of light is placed 20 cm to the left off the left edge of the mirror, at a height of 2 mm above the
∘
plane of the mirror. If the wavelength of light used is 6400 A, then find the number of complete bright
fringes formed.

Question 79

A vessel ABCD of 10 cm width has two small slits S 1 and S 2 sealed with identical glass plates of equal
thickness. The distance between the slits is 0.8 mm. POQ is the line perpendicular to the plane AB and
passing through O, the

middle point of S 1 and S 2 , A monochromatic light source is kept at S, 40 cm cm below P and 2 m from
the vessel, to illuminate the slits as shown in the figure alongside. After a liquid is poured into the vessel
and filled upto OQ, it was found that the central bright fringe is now located at Q. Calculate the refractive
index of that liquid.

A. A) 1.0016
B. B) 2.0032
C. C) 1.0010
D. D) 1.0026

Question 80

A screen is at a distance D = 80 cm from a diaphragm having two narrow slits S 1 and S 2 which are
d = 2 mm apart. The slit S 1 is covered by a transparent sheet of thickness t 1 = 2.5 μm and the slit S 2
by another sheet of thickness t 2 = 1.25 μm ​as shown in the figure. Both sheets are made of the same
material having a refractive index μ m = 1.40. Water is filled in space between the diaphragm and the
screen. A monochromatic light beam of wavelength λ = 5000 Å is incident normally on the diaphragm.
Assuming the intensity of the beam to be uniform and slits of equal width, calculate the ratio of intensity at
C to the maximum intensity of interference pattern obtained on the screen, where C is the foot of the
perpendicular bisector of S 1 S 2 . [Refractive index of water, μ w = 4/3]

A. A) 34
B. B) 2
1

C. C) 13
D. D) 35

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - B Q28 - A Q55 - C
Q2 - D Q29 - D Q56 - C
Q3 - A Q30 - C Q57 - D
Q4 - A Q31 - D Q58 - B
 Q5 - B Q32 - A Q59 - A
Q6 - D Q33 - D Q60 - C
Q7 - A Q34 - D Q61 - B
Q8 - C Q35 - B Q62 - A
Q9 - A Q36 - A Q63 - B
Q10 - C Q37 - D Q64 - A
Q11 - C Q38 - C Q65 - 6 (Num)
Q12 - C Q39 - C Q66 - C
Q13 - D Q40 - C Q67 - C
Q14 - C Q41 - C Q68 - C
Q15 - B Q42 - C Q69 - B
Q16 - B Q43 - B Q70 - D
Q17 - A Q44 - D Q71 - C
Q18 - C Q45 - A Q72 - A
Q19 - C Q46 - B Q73 - A
Q20 - B Q47 - A Q74 - D
Q21 - C Q48 - B Q75 - B
Q22 - C Q49 - D Q76 - 2 (Num)
Q23 - C Q50 - C Q77 - D
Q24 - B Q51 - B Q78 - 37 (Num)
Q25 - B Q52 - D Q79 - A
Q26 - C Q53 - D Q80 - A
Q27 - A Q54 - B

Dual Nature of Matter

Easy Questions

Question 1

De-Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated by a voltage of 50 V is close to

(|e| = 1.6 × 10 −19 C, m e = 9.1 × 10 −31 kg, h = 6.6 × 10 −34 J s)
A. A) 0.5 Å
B. B) 1.2 Å
C. C) 1.7 Å
D. D) 2.4 Å

Question 2
The ratio of momentum of an electron and α-particle which are accelerated from rest by a potential
difference of 100 V is

A. A) 1
B. B) √(2 m e /m a )
C. C) √(m e /m α )

D. D) √(m e /2 m α )

Question 3

An electron is accelerated through a potential difference of 45.5 V. The velocity acquired by it is ( in ms −1

)

A. A) 10
6

B. B) zero
C. C) 4 × 10
6

D. D) 4 × 10 4

Question 4

The work function of a certain metal is 3.31 × 10 −19 J. Then, the maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectrons emitted by incident radiation of wavelength 5000Å is (Given, h = 6.62 × 10 −34 J
s, c = 3 × 10 8 ms −1 , e = 1.6 × 10 −19 C)
A. A) 2.48eV
B. B) 0.41eV
C. C) 2.07eV
D. D) 0.82eV

Question 5

In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength λ, the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting
wavelength is changed to 3λ/4, the speed of the fastest emitted electron will become

A. A) v√ 34

B. B) v√ 3
4

C. C) less than v√ 3
4

D. D) greater than v√ 43

Question 6

The following graph represents the variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a metal surface. Here
I 1 , I 2 and I 3 represents intensities and γ 1 , γ 2 , γ 3 represent frequency for curves 1,2 and 3 respectively,
then
A. A) γ 1 = γ 2 and I 1 ≠ I 2
B. B) γ 1 = γ 3 and I 1 ≠ I 3
C. C) γ 1 = γ 2 and I 1 = I 2
D. D) γ 2 = γ 3 and I 1 = I 3

Question 7

If the kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha particle and a proton having same de-Broglie wavelength are
ε 1 , ε 2 and ε 3 respectively, then
A. A) ε 1 > ε 3 > ε 2
B. B) ε 1 = ε 2 = ε 2
C. C) ε 1 < ε 3 < ε 2
D. D) ε 1 > ε 2 > ε 3

Question 8

Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is produced by a helium neon laser. The power emitted is
9 mW. The number of photons arriving per sec on the average at a target irradiated by this beam is:
A. A) 3 × 10 16
B. B) 9 × 10 15
C. C) 3 × 10 19
D. D) 9 × 10 17

Question 9

According to de-Broglie hypothesis, the wavelength associated with moving electron of mass m is msubsup.
Using mass energy relation and Planck's quantum theory, the wavelength associated with photon is
msubsup. If the energy (E) of electron and photon is same then relation betweenmsupmsubsup and msubsup
is

A. A) λ p α λ e
B. B) λ p α λ 2e
C. C) λ p α√λ e
D. D) λ p α λ1
e

Question 10

The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength λ of the light falling on the cathode is
gradually changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as follows :

A. A)
B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 11

Electrons are accelerated through a potential difference V and protons are accelerated through a potential
difference 4 V. The de - Broglie wavelengths are λ e and λ p for electrons and protons respectively. The
ratio of λ e is given by: (given m e is mass of electron and m p is mass of proton).
λ
p

A. A) √ m
mp
e

B. B) √ m e
m
p

C. C) 2 √ m e
1 m
p

D. D) 2√ me
mp

Question 12

The stopping potential for photoelectrons from a metal surface is V 1 when monochromatic light of
frequency v 1 is incident on it. The stopping potential becomes V 2 when monochromatic light of another
frequency is incident on the same metal surface. If h be the Planck's constant and e be the charge of an
electron, then the frequency of light in the second case is

A. A) v 1 − he (V 2 + V 1 )
B. B) v 1 + v h (V 2 + V 1 )
e

C. C) v 1 − he (V 2 − V 1 )
D. D) v 1 + h (V 2 − V 1 )
e

Question 13

Proton (p) and electron (e) will have same deBroglie wavelength when the ratio of their momentum is
(assume, m p = 1849 m e )

A. A) 1 : 43
B. B) 43 : 1
C. C) 1 : 1849
D. D) 1 : 1

Question 14

A point source of light is used in an experiment of photo-electric effects. If the distance between the source
and the photo-electric surface is doubled, which of the following may result?

Question 15

From the figure describing photoelectric effect we may infer correctly that

A. A) Na and Al both have the same threshold frequency

B. B) Maximum kinetic energy for both the metals depend linearly on the frequency
C. C) The stopping potentials are different for Na and Al for the same change in frequency
D. D) Al is a better photo sensitive material than Na

Question 16

A proton and an alpha particle are subjected to same potential difference V . Their de-Broglie wavelengths
λ p , λ α will be in the ratio
A. A) 2 : 1
B. B) 2√2 : 1
C. C) 1 : 1
D. D) 1 : 2
Question 17

If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, it's de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor

A. A) 2
B. B) 2
1

C. C) √2
D. D) 1
√2

Question 18

In photoelectric effect if the intensity of light is doubled, then maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons will
become

A. A) double
B. B) half
C. C) four times
D. D) no change

Question 19

If the wavelength is brought down from 6000Å to 4000Å in a photoelectric experiment then what will
happen?

A. A) The work function of the metal will increase

B. B) The threshold frequency will decrease
C. C) No change will take place
D. D) Cut off voltage will increase

Question 20

If the energy of a photon is 10eV, then its momentum is

A. A) 5.33 × 10
−23
kg m/s
B. B) 5.33 × 10 −25
kg m/s
C. C) 5.33 × 10 −29
kg m/s
D. D) 5.33 × 10 −27 kg m/s

Question 21

If the potential difference used to accelerate electrons is doubled, by what factor does the de-Broglie
wavelength associated with the electrons change?

A. A) Wavelength is decreased to 3 times.

1

B. B) Wavelength is increased to 12 times.

C. C) Wavelength is increased to times.
1
√2

D. D) Wavelength is decreased to 1 times.

√2
Question 22

The de-Broglie wavelength of a proton (charge = 16. ×10 C, mass = 16. ×10 −27 kg) accelerated
−19

through a potential difference of 1kV is

A. A) 600Å
B. B) 09. ×10 −12 m
C. C) 7Å
D. D) 0.9 nm

Question 23

A particle of mass 1 mg has the same wavelength as an electron moving with a velocity of 3 × 10 ms −1 .
6

The velocity of the particle is (Mass of electron = 9.1 × 10 −31 kg )

A. A) 2.7 × 10 −18 ms −1
B. B) 9 × 10
−2
ms −1
C. C) 3 × 10 −31 ms −1
D. D) 2.7 × 10
−21
ms −1

Question 24

A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies 1.8 × 10 14 Hz and 2.2 × 10 4 Hz. Two identical
photons of energy 0.825eV each are incident on them. Then photoelectrons are emitted by ( Take
h = 6.6 × 10 −34 J − s)
A. A) B alone
B. B) A alone
C. C) Neither A nor B
D. D) Both A and B

Question 25

The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is ..... (radius of the
first orbit of hydrogen atom = 0.53Å ).

A. A) 1.67 A
B. B) 3.33Å
C. C) 1.06Å
D. D) 0.53Å

Question 26

The deBroglie wavelength associated with a steel ball of mass 1000gm moving at a speed of 1 ms −1 is
[h = 6.626 × 10 −34 Js]
A. A) 6.626 × 10 −31 m
B. B) 6.626 × 10
−37
m
C. C) 6.626 × 10 −34 m
D. D) 6.626 × 10
34
m

Question 27

The speed of an electron having a wavelength of 10 m is

−10

A. A) 7.25 × 10 6 m/s
B. B) 5.25 × 10 6 m/s
C. C) 6.26 × 10 m/s
6

D. D) 4.24 × 10 6 m/s.

Question 28

The momentum of electrons having a wavelength 2Å (given, h = 6.626 × 10 −34 J-s,

m = 9.1 × 10 −35 kg) is
A. A) 6.313 × 10
−1
−24
kg −ms
B. B) 3.313 × 10 −24 kg − ms −1
C. C) 9.313 × 10
−25
kg − ms −1
D. D) 12.313 × 10 −24 kg − ms −1

Question 29

When a certain metal surface is illuminated with light of frequency v, the stopping potential for photoelectric
current is V 0 . When the same surface is illuminated by light of frequency 2v the stopping potential is 40 .
V

The threshold frequency for photoelectric, emission is

A. A) 6v
B. B) 3
v

C. C) 2v
3
D. D) 3
4v

Question 30

The maximum velocity of the photoelectron emitted by the metal surface is 'v'. Charge and mass of the
photoelectron is denoted by 'e' and 'm' respectively. The stopping potential in volt is

A. A)
v2
( me )

B. B) ve
2

(m)

C. C) 2( m )
v2
e

D. D)
v2
2( me )

Moderate Questions

Question 31
An electron, in a hydrogen-like atom, is in an excited state. It has a total energy of −3.4eV. The kinetic
energy and the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron are respectively

A. A) +3.4eV, 0.66 × 10 −9 m
B. B) −3.4eV, 1.99 × 10
−9
m
C. C) 2.8eV, 2.38 × 10 −10 m
D. D) 1.1eV, 1.28 × 10 −9 m

Question 32

When photon of energy 4. 0 eV strikes the surface of a metal A, the elected photoelectrons have
maximum kinetic energy T A eV and de-Broglie wavelength λ A . The maximum kinetic energy of
photoelectron liberated from another metal B by photon of energy 4. 50 eV is T B = (T A − 1. 50) eV. If
the de-Broglie wavelength of these photoelectrons λ B = 2λ A , then choose the correct statement(s).

A. A) The work function of A is 1. 50 eV

B. B) The work function of B is 4. 0 eV
C. C) T A = 3. 2 eV
D. D) All of the above

Question 33

The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity c/2 ( c = velocity of light in vacuum) is
equal to the wavelength of a photon. The ratio of the kinetic energies of electron and photon is

A. A) 1 : 4
B. B) 1 : 2
C. C) 1 : 1
D. D) 2 : 1

Question 34

Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic surface for frequencies v 1 and v 2 of the incident light
rays (v 1 > v 2 ). If the maximum values of kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted in the two cases are
in the ratio of 1 : k, then the threshold frequency of the metallic surface is

A. A) k−1
2 v −v
1

B. B)
kv 1 −v 2
k−1
C. C)
kv 2 −v 1
k−1
D. D) v 2 −v 1
k

Question 35

Two particles move at right angle to each other. Their de Broglie wavelengths are λ 1 and λ 2 respectively.
The particles suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The de Broglie wavelength λ of the final particle, is given
by:

A. A) λ = λ1 + λ2
2 1 1
B. B) λ =
λ 1 +λ 2
2
C. C) λ = √λ 1 λ 2
D. D) λ12 = 12 + 12
λ1 λ2

Question 36

An electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from second Bohr orbit to ground state and the energy difference of
the two states is radiated in the form of photons. These are then allowed to fall on a metal surface having a
work-function equal to 4.2 eV, then the stopping potential is [Energy of electron in n th orbit = − 13.6
n2
eV]
A. A) 2 V
B. B) 4 V
C. C) 6 V
D. D) 8 V

Question 37

An α-particle moves in a circular path of radius 0.83 cm in the presence of a magnetic field of
0.25 Wb/m 2 . The de-Broglie wavelength associated with the particle will be
A. A) 1Å
B. B) 0.1Å
C. C) 10Å
D. D) 0.01Å

Question 38

If the kinetic energy of a particle is increased by 16 times, the percentage change in the de Broglie
wavelength of the particle is

A. A) 25%
B. B) 75%
C. C) 60%
D. D) 50%

Question 39

The electric field associated with a light wave is given by E = E 0 sin[(1.57 × 10 )(x − ct)] (where x
7

and t are in metre and second respectively). The stopping potential when this light is used in an experiment
on photoelectric effect with the emitter having work function ϕ = 1.9 eV is.

A. A) 0.6 eV
B. B) 1.2 eV
C. C) 1.8 eV
D. D) 2.4 eV

Question 40
The de-Broglie wavelength (λ B ) associated with the electron orbiting in the second excited state of
hydrogen atom is related to that in the ground state (λ G ) by:

A. A) λ B = 3λ G
B. B) λ B = 2λ G
C. C) λ B = λ G
3

D. D) λ B = λ G
2

Question 41

The magnetic field associated with a light wave is given, at the origin, by
B = B 0 [sin(3.14 × 10 7 )ct + sin(6.28 × 10 7 )ct]. If this light falls on a silver plate having a work
function of 4 .7 eV, what will be the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons?

(c = 3 × 10 8 m s −1 , h = 6 .6 ×10 −34 J s)
A. A) 6 .82 eV
B. B) 7 .72 eV
C. C) 12 .5 eV
D. D) 8 .52 eV

Question 42

Both an electron and a photon have same de-Broglie wavelength of 1.2Å. The ratio of their energies is
nearly

A. A) 1 : 100
B. B) 1 : 10
C. C) 1 : 1000
D. D) 1 : 1

Question 43

A and B are two metals with threshold frequencies 1.8 × 10 14 Hz and 2.2 × 10 14 Hz. Two identical
photons of energy 0.825eV each are incident on them. Then photoelectrons are emitted by (Take
h = 6.6 × 10 −34 J − s )
A. A) B alone
B. B) A alone
C. C) neither A nor B
D. D) both A and B

Question 44

The threshold frequency for a metallic surface corresponds to an energy of 6.2eV, and the stopping
potential for a radiation incident on this surface 5 V. The incident radiation lies in

A. A) X-ray region
B. B) ultra-violet region
C. C) infra-red region
D. D) visible region

Question 45

The kinetic energy of the photoelectrons increases by 0.52eV when the wavelength of incident light is
changed from 500 nm to another wavelength which is approximately

A. A) 400 nm
B. B) 1250 nm
C. C) 1000 nm
D. D) 700 nm

Question 46

In an electron microscope, the resolution that can be achieved is of the order of the wavelength of
electrons used. To resolve a width of 7.5 × 10 −12 m, the minimum electron energy required is close to:

A. A) 100 keV
B. B) 25 keV
C. C) 1 keV
D. D) 500 keV

Question 47

In an experiment on photoelectric effect photons of wavelength 300nm eject electrons from a metal of
work function 2.25eV. A photon of energy equal to that of the most energetic electron corresponds to the
following transition in the hydrogen atom:

A. A) n = 2 to n = 1 state
B. B) n = 3 to n = 1 state
C. C) n = 3 to n = 2 state
D. D) n = 4 to n = 3 state

Question 48

The P.E. ' U ' of a moving particle of mass ' m ' varies with ' x ' is shown in the figure. The de-Broglie
wavelength of the particle in the regions 0 ≤ x ≤ 1 and x > 1 are λ 1 and λ 2 respectively. If the total
energy of the particle is ' nE ', then the ratio λ 1 /λ 2 is
A. A) √ n−1
n 2

B. B) √ n−1
n

C. C) √ n−1
n

D. D) √
n(n−1)
n

Question 49

The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated between two plates having a potential difference of
900 V is neariy.

A. A) 0.015nm
B. B) 0.01nm
C. C) 0.02mm
D. D) 0.04nm

Question 50

An α -particle moves in a circular path of radius 1 cm in a uniform magnetic field of 0. 125 T. The de
Broglie wavelength associated with the α -particle is

A. A) 1. 65 × 10 −12 m
B. B) 3. 3 × 10 −12 m
C. C) 4. 95 × 10 −12 m
D. D) 6. 6 × 10 −12 m

Question 51

The potential difference V required for accelerating an electron to have the de Broglie wavelength of 1Å is

A. A) 100 V
B. B) 125 V
C. C) 150 V
D. D) 200 V

Question 52

The photosensitive metallic surface has work function hv 0 fall on this surface, the electrons come out with
a maximum velocity of 4 × 10 m/s. When the photon energy is increased 5hv 0 . Then maximum velocity
6

of photoelectrons will be:

A. A) 2 × 10 m/s
7

B. B) 2 × 10 6 m/s
C. C) 8 × 10 6 m/s
D. D) 8 × 10 5 m/s
Question 53

A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a plane surface of area A, normally and is perfectly reflected. If
energy E strikes the surface in timet then average pressure exerted on the surface is (c = speed of light )

A. A) zero
B. B) E/Atc
C. C) 2E/Atc
D. D) E/c

Question 54

In a photoelectric experiment, a graph of maximum kinetic energy (KE max ) against the frequency of
incident radiation (v) is plotted. If A and B are the intercepts on the X and Y axis respectively the
Planck's constant is given by

A. A) A+B
B. B) A
B

C. C) A × B
D. D) A
B

Question 55

A particle of mass 2 × 10 kg has de-Broglie wavelength of 3.3 × 10 −10 m. The kinetic energy of this
−27

particle is (Plank's Constant h = 6.6 × 10 −34 J − s)

A. A) 5 × 10
−20
J
B. B) 8 × 10 −20 J
C. C) 1 × 10 −21 J
D. D) 6 × 10
−22
J

Question 56

An electron of mass msup has de-Broglie wavelength msupmsup when accelerated through potential
difference msup. When proton of mass msup, is accelerated through potential difference 9msup, the de-
Broglie wavelength associated with it will be (Assume that wavelength is determined at low voltage)

A. A) 3 √ m
λ M

B. B) 3 . m
λ M

C. C) λ3 √ Mm

D. D) λ3 . M
m

Question 57

When a certain metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the stopping
potential for photoelectric current is 3V 0 and when the same surface is illuminated with light of wavelength
2λ, the stopping potential is V 0 . The threshold wavelength of this surface for photoelectric effect is
A. A) 6λ
B. B) 4λ
λ
C. C) 4
λ
D. D) 6

Question 58

When a certain photosensitive surface is illuminated with a monochromatic light of frequency ν, the
stopping potential of the photo current is − 20 . When the surface is illuminated by monochromatic light of
V

frequency ν2 , the stopping potential is −V 0 . The threshold frequency for photoelectric emission is

A. A) 3
5v

B. B) 2
3v

C. C) 43 v
D. D) 2v

Question 59

Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1eV and 2.5eV respectively illuminate a
metallic surface whose work function is 0.5eV successively. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons
will be

A. A) 1 : 2
B. B) 1 : 1
C. C) 1 : 5
D. D) 1 : 4

Question 60

The additional energy that should be given to an electron to reduce its de-Broglie wavelength from 1 nm to
0.5 nm is
A. A) four times initial energy
B. B) thrice the initial energy
C. C) equal to the initial energy
D. D) twice the initial energy

Hard Questions

Question 61

→
An electron (mass m ) with initial velocity v = v 0ˆi + v 0ˆ
j is in an electric filed E = −E 0 ˆ
k. If λ 0 is initial
→
de-Broglie wavelength of electron, its de-Broglie wave length at time t is given by:

A. A)
λ 0 √2
2 2 2
√1+ emE2 v2t
0
B. B)
λ0
e2 E 2 t2
√1+ m2 v2
0

C. C)
λ0
2 E 2 t2
√1+ e
2m 2 v 20

D. D)
λ0
2 2 2
√2+ emE2 v2t
0

Question 62

An electron in an excited state of Li 2+ ion has angular momentum 3h

2π
. The de Broglie wavelength of the
electron in this state is pπα 0 (where a 0 is the Bohr radius). The value of p is

Question 63

Photons of energy 2.4eV and wavelength λ fall on a metal plate and release photoelectrons with a
maximum velocity v. By decreasing λ by 50%, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons becomes 3v. The
work function of the material of the metal plate is

A. A) 2.1eV
B. B) 1.7eV
C. C) 2.8eV
D. D) 2.0eV

Question 64

In a photoelectric experiment, a monochromatic light is incident on the emitter plate E , as shown in the
figure. When switch S 1 is closed and switch S 2 is open, the photoelectrons strike the collector plate C with
a maximum kinetic energy of 1eV. If switch S 1 is open and switch S 2 is closed and the frequency of the
incident light is doubled the photoelectrons strike the collector plate with a maximum kinetic energy of
20eV. The threshold wavelength of the emitter plate is

A. A) 5233.3Å
B. B) 4133.3Å
C. C) 4166.7Å
D. D) 5336.7Å

Question 65

Two electrons in two hydrogen-like atoms A and B have their total energies E A and E B in the ratio
E A : E B = 1 : 2 . Their potential energies U A and U B are in the ratio U A : U B = 1 : 2 . If λ A and λ B
are their de-Broglie wavelengths, then λ A : λ B is
A. A) 1 : 2
B. B) 2 : 1
C. C) 1 : √2
D. D) √2 : 1

Question 66

Radiation of wavelength 300 nm and intensity 100 W m −2 falls on the surface of a photosensitive
material. If 2% of the incident photons produce photo electron, the number of photoelectrons emitted from
an area of 2 cm 2 of the surface is nearly

A. A) 15 × 10 11
B. B) 6.04 × 10
14

C. C) 1.5 × 10 12
D. D) 60.4 × 10
15

Question 67

Light of wavelength 180nm ejects photoelectron from a plate of a metal whose work function is 2eV. If a
uniform magnetic field of 5 × 10 −5 T is applied parallel to plate, what would be theradius of the path
followed by electrons ejected normally from the plate with maximum energy?

A. A) 1.239 m
B. B) 0.149 m
C. C) 3.182 m
D. D) 2.33 m

Question 68

Photons of wavelength λ emitted by a source of power P incident on a photo cell. If the current produced
in the cell is I , then the percentage of incident photons which produce current in the photo cell is. (where,
h is Planck's constant and c is the speed of light in vacuum)
A. A) 100eP
ln λ
c

B. B)
100eP λ
Ihc

C. C)
100/hλ
eP C

D. D)
100/hc
eP λ

Question 69

Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the ground
state irradiates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.57 V. The threshold
frequency of the material is

A. A) 4 × 10 15 Hz
B. B) 5 × 10 15 Hz
C. C) 1.6 × 10 15 Hz
D. D) 2.5 × 10 15 Hz

Question 70

A silver sphere of radius 1 cm and work function 4.7eV is suspended from an insulating thread in free-
space. It is under continuous illumination of 200 nm wavelength light. As photoelectrons are emitted, the
sphere gets charged and acquires a potential. The maximum number of photoelectrons emitted from the
sphere is A × 10 Z (where 1 < A < 10 ). The value of Z is

Question 71

An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity v = v 0ˆi(v 0 > 0) is moving in an electric field
→
→
E = −E 0ˆi(E 0 > 0) where E 0 is constant. If at t = 0, de-Broglie wavelength is λ 0 = h
mv 0 , then its de-
Broglie wavelength after time t is given by

A. A) λ 0

B. B) λ 0 (1 + mv0 )
eE t
0

C. C) λ 0 t
D. D)
λ0
eE t
(1+ mv0 )
0

Question 72

The beam of light has three wavelengths 4144Ã, 4972Ã and 6216Ã with a total intensity of
3.6 × 10 −3 Wm 2 equally distributed amongst the three wavelengths. The beam falls normally on the area
1 cm 2 of a clean metallic surface of work function 2.3eV. Assume that there is n0 loss of light by reflection
and that each energetically capable photon ejects one electron. Calculate the number of photoelectrons
liberated in 2 s

A. A) 2 × 10 9
B. B) 1.075 × 10 12
C. C) 9 × 10
8

D. D) 3.75 × 10 6

Question 73

Particle A of mass m A = m 2
moving along the x -axis with velocity v 0 collides elastically with another
particle B at rest having mass m B = m3 . If both the particles move along the x -axis after the collision, the
change Δλ in the wavelength of the particle A, in terms of its de-Broglie wavelength (λ 0 ) before the
collision is:

A. A) Δλ = 2 λ 0
3

B. B) Δλ = 52 λ 0
C. C) Δλ = 2λ 0
D. D) Δλ = 4λ 0

Question 74
Photoelectric effect experiments are performed using three different metal plates p, q and r having work
functions φ p = 2.0eV, φ q = 2.5eV and φ r = 3.0eV, respectively. A light beam containing wavelengths
of 550 nm, 450 nm and 350 nm with equal intensities illuminates each of the plates. The correct I − V
graph for the experiment is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D) None of these

Question 75

Two particles A and B of same mass have their de-Broglie wavelengths in the ratio X A : X B = K : 1.
Their potential energies U A : U B = 1 : K 2 . The ratio of their total energies E A : E B is

A. A) K 2 : 1
B. B) 1 : K 2
C. C) K : 1
D. D) 1 : K

Question 76

The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for three
different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement ?
A. A) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations same frequencies having same intensity.
B. B) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities
C. C) Curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequencies but of different intensities
D. D) Curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities

Question 77

An electron is moving on a circular path around a stationary neutron under gravitation interaction. Mass of
the neutron and electron are M and m respectively. If Bohr’s quantum condition holds here the minimum
permissible de Broglie wavelength associated with the electron will be

A. A) 2πGMm
2
h

B. B) 2πGMm2
h2

C. C) 2πGM
2
h
2m

D. D) 4πGM
2
h
2m

Question 78

The maximum kinetic energy of a photoelectron liberated from the surface of lithium with work function
2.35eV by electromagnetic radiation whose electric component varies with time as :
E = a [1 + cos (2πf 1 t)] cos 2πf 2 t (where a is a constant ) is (f 1 = 3.6 × 10 15 Hz, and
f 2 = 1.2 × 10 15 Hz and Planck's constant h = 6.6 × 10 −34 Js)
A. A) 2.64 eV
B. B) 7.55 eV
C. C) 12.52 eV
D. D) 17.45 eV

Question 79

The energy of a photon is equal to the kinetic energy of a proton. If λ 1 is the de-Broglie wavelength of a
proton, λ 2 the wavelength associated with the proton and if the energy of the photon is E , then (λ 1 /λ 2 ) is
proportional to

A. A) E 4
B. B) E 1/2
C. C) E 2
D. D) E

Question 80

When 0.50Ã X-rays strike a material, the photoelectrons from the k shell are observed to move in a circle
of radius 23 mm in a magnetic field of 2 × 10 tesla acting perpendicularly to the direction of emission of
−2
photoelectrons. What is the binding energy of k-shell electrons?

A. A) 3.5keV
B. B) 6.2keV
C. C) 2.9keV
D. D) 5.5keV

Question 81

An electron of charge e and mass m moving with an initial velocity v 0^i is subjected to all electric field E 0^j.
The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron at a time t is (Initial de-Broglie wavelength of the electron = λ 0 )

A. A) λ 0
e 2 E 02 t 2
B. B) λ 0 √1 +
m 2 v 20

C. C)
λ0
e2 E 2 t2
√1+ 0
m2 v2
0

D. D)
λ0
e 2 E 02 t 2
(1+ )
mv 2 0

Question 82

A photon of energy E ejects a photoelectron from a metal surface whose work function is W 0 . If this
electron enters into a uniform magnetic field of induction B in a direction perpendicular to the field and
describes a circular path of radius r, then the radius r is given by, (in the usual notation)

A. A)
√2m(E−W 0 )
eB
B. B) √2m (E − W 0 )eB

C. C)
√2e(E−W 0 )
mB

D. D)
√2m(E−W 0 )
eB

Question 83

A particle X of mass m and initial velocity u collides with another particle Y of mass 4 , which is at rest.
3m

The collision is head-on and perfectly elastic. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths λ Y and λ X after the
collision is,

A. A) 4 : 3
B. B) 2 : 32
C. C) 3 : 4
D. D) 1 : 6

Question 84

Two particles having de-Broglie wavelengths λ 1 and λ 2 , while moving along mutually perpendicular
directions, undergo perfectly inelastic collision. The de-Broglie wavelength λ, of the final particle is
A. A) λ =
λ1 λ2
√λ 21 +λ 22

B. B) λ = √λ 1 λ 2
C. C) λ = √λ 1 + λ 2
D. D) λ =
λ 1 +λ 2
2

Question 85

Electrons with de-Broglie wavelength λ fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of the
emitted X-rays is

A. A) λ 0 = 2mcλ
2

h
B. B) λ 0 = mc
2h

C. C) λ 0 = 2mhc2 λ
2 2 3

D. D) λ 0 = λ

Question 86

A photoelectric material having work-function ϕ 0 is illuminated with a light of wavelength λ (λ < ϕhc ). The
0

fastest photoelectron has a de Broglie wavelength λ d . A change in wavelength of the incident light by Δλ
results in a change Δλ d in λ d . The ratio Δλd is proportional to
Δλ

λ3
A. A) λd2
λ3
B. B) λd
λ2
C. C) λd2
D. D) λd
λ

Question 87

A beam of light has two wavelengths of 4972Å and 6216Å with a total intensity of 3.6 × 10 −3 Wm −2
equally distributed among the two wavelengths. The beam falls normally on an area of 1 cm 2 of a clean
metallic surface of work function 2.3eV. Assume that there is no loss of light by reflection and that each
capable photon ejects one electron. The number of photoelectrons liberated in 2 s is approximately:

A. A) 6 × 10 11
B. B) 9 × 10 11
C. C) 11 × 10
11

D. D) 15 × 10 11

Question 88

At an incident radiation frequency of v 1 , which is greater than the threshold frequency, the stopping
potential for a certain metal is V 1 . At frequency 2v 1 the stopping potential is 3V 1 . If the stopping potential
at frequency 4v 1 is nV 1 , then n is

A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 6
D. D) 7

Question 89

A particle A of mass m and initial velocity v collides with a particle B of mass 2 which is at rest. The
m

collision is head on, and elastic. The ratio of the de-Broglie wavelengths λ A to λ B after the collision is:

A. A) λA = 2
λ 1
B

B. B) λA = 3
λ 1
B

C. C) λBA = 2
λ

D. D) λA = 23
λ
B

Question 90

A proton is fired from very far away towards a nucleus with charge Q = 120e, where e is the electronic
charge. It makes a closest approach of 10fm to the nucleus. The de Broglie wavelength (in units of fm ) of
the proton at its start is: (take the proton mass, m p = (5/3) × 10 −27 kg; h/e = 4.2× 10 −15 J. S/C;
1
4πε 0 = 9 × 10 9 m/F; 1fm = 10 −15 m

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - C Q32 - B Q62 - 2 (Num)
Q2 - D Q33 - B Q63 - A
Q3 - C Q34 - B Q64 - B
Q4 - B Q35 - D Q65 - D
Q5 - D Q36 - C Q66 - B
Q6 - A Q37 - D Q67 - B
Q7 - A Q38 - B Q68 - D
Q8 - A Q39 - B Q69 - C
Q9 - A Q40 - A Q70 - 7 (Num)
Q10 - B Q41 - B Q71 - D
Q11 - D Q42 - A Q72 - B
Q12 - D Q43 - B Q73 - D
Q13 - D Q44 - B Q74 - D
Q15 - B Q45 - A Q75 - B
Q16 - B Q46 - B Q76 - C
Q17 - D Q47 - C Q77 - B
Q18 - D Q48 - C Q78 - D
Q19 - D Q49 - D Q79 - B
Q20 - D Q50 - A Q80 - B
Q21 - D Q51 - C Q81 - C
Q22 - B Q52 - C Q82 - B
 Q23 - A Q53 - C Q83 - D
Q24 - B Q54 - B Q84 - A
Q25 - B Q55 - C Q85 - A
Q26 - C Q56 - C Q86 - A
Q27 - A Q57 - B Q87 - B
Q28 - B Q58 - B Q88 - D
Q29 - B Q59 - A Q89 - C
Q30 - D Q60 - D Q90 - 7 (Num)
Q31 - A Q61 - C

Atomic Physics

Easy Questions

Question 1

The magnetic moment (m orb ) of a revolving electron around the nucleus varies with the principal quantum
number (n) as

A. A) m orb ∝ n 2
B. B) m orb ∝ n2
1

C. C) m orb ∝ n1
D. D) m orb ∝ n

Question 2

An electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from the first excited state'to the ground state. What will be the
percentage change in the speed of electron?

A. A) 25%
B. B) 50%
C. C) 75%
D. D) 100%

Question 3

How the linear velocity v of an electron in the Bohr orbit is related to its quantum number m

A. A) v ∝ n
1

B. B) v ∝ n2
1

C. C) v ∝
1
√n

D. D) v × n

Question 4
To which of the following the angular velocity of the electron in the n -th Bohr orbit is proportional?

A. A) n 2
B. B) n12
C. C) n13/2
D. D) n3
1

Question 5

The shortest wavelengths of Paschen, Balmer and Lyman series are in the ratio

A. A) 9 : 1 : 4
B. B) 1 : 4 : 9
C. C) 9 : 4 : 1
D. D) 1 : 9 : 4

Question 6

If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit with level n 1 = 2 to an orbit with level n 2 = 1 the
emitted radiation has a wavelength given by

A. A) λ = 5/3R
B. B) λ = 4/3R
C. C) λ = R/4
D. D) λ = 3R/4

Question 7

The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is −13.6eV. What is the potential energy of the electron in this
state?

A. A) 0eV
B. B) −27.2eV
C. C) 1eV
D. D) 2eV.

Question 8

A 12.5 ev electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at ground state. The energy level upto
which the hydrogen atoms would be excited is

A. A) 2
B. B) 3
C. C) 4
D. D) 1

Question 9
The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr's orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in second
orbit of hydrogen atom, then the change in angular momentum will be:

A. A) L2
B. B)
zero
C. C)
L
D. D)
2L

Question 10

Monochromatic radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a hydrogen sample in ground state. Hydrogen

atom absorbs a fraction of light and subsequently emits radiations of six different wavelengths. The
wavelength λ is

A. A) 97. 5 nm
B. B) 121. 6 nm
C. C) 110. 3 nm
D. D) 45. 2 nm

Question 11

If the wavelength of 1 st line of Balmer series of hydrogen is 6561Å, the wavelength of the 2 nd line of
series will be

A. A) 9780Å
B. B) 4860Å
C. C) 8857Å
D. D) 4429Å

Question 12

An electron makes a transition from an excited state to the ground state of a hydrogen - like atom. Then

A. A) kinetic energy decreases, potential energy increases but total energy remains same
B. B) kinetic energy and total energy decrease but potential energy increases
C. C) its kinetic energy increases but potential energy and total energy decrease
D. D) kinetic energy, potential energy and total energy decrease

Question 13

In hydrogen atoms, radius of the smallest orbit of the electron is a 0 , the radius of the third orbit is

A. A) 90
a

B. B) 3a 0
C. C) 6a 0
D. D) 9a 0

Question 14

The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = n 1 to n = n 2 state. The time period of the
electron in the initial state n 1 is eight times that in the final state n 2 . The possible values of n 1 and n 2 are

A. A) n 1 = 8, n 2 = 1
B. B) n 1 = 4, n 2 = 2
C. C) n 1 = 2, n 2 = 4
D. D) n 1 = 1, n 2 = 8

Question 15

The transition of an electrom from n 2 = 5, 6, … … …. to n 1 = 4 gives rise to

A. A) Pfund series
B. B) Lyman series
C. C) Paschen series
D. D) Brackett series

Question 16

If the series limit wavelength of Lyman series for the hydrogen atom is 912Å, then the series limit
wavelength for Balmer series of hydrogen atoms is

A. A) 912Å
B. B) 912 × 2Å
C. C) 912 × 4Å
D. D) 912
2 Å

Question 17

Assertion : It is essential that all the lines available in the emission spectrum will also be available in the
absorption spectrum. Reason : The spectrum of hydrogen atom is only absorption spectrum.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 18

The ratio of minimum wavelength of Lyman and Balmer series will be

A. A) 1.25
B. B) 0.25
C. C) 5
D. D) 10

Question 19

In Rutherford experiment, for head-on collision of a-particles with a gold nucleus, the impact
parameter is

A. A) of the order of 10 −10 m

B. B) zero
C. C) of the order of 10 −6 m
D. D) of the order of 10 −14 m

Question 20

One of the lines in the emission spectrum of Li 2+ has the same wavelength as that of the 2 nd line of
Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum. The electronic transition corresponding to this line is
n = 12 → n = x. Find the value of x
A. A) 8
B. B) 6
C. C) 7
D. D) 5

Question 21

The ionization energy of hydrogen is 13.6eV. The energy of the photon released when an electron jumps
from the first excited state (n = 2) to the ground state of a hydrogen atom is

A. A) 3.4eV
B. B) 4.53eV
C. C) 10.2eV
D. D) 13.6eV

Question 22

The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first to second excited states is

A. A) 1/4
B. B) 4/9
C. C) 9/4
D. D) 4

Question 23

An electron of an atom transits from n 1 to n 2 . In which of the following maximum frequency of photon will
be emitted?

A. A) n 1 = 1 to n 2 = 2
B. B) n 1 = 2 to n 2 = 1
C. C) n 1 = 2 to n 2 = 6
D. D) n 1 = 6 to n 2 = 2

Question 24

Two elements A and B with atomic numbers Z A and Z B are used to produce characteristic X-rays with
frequencies v A and v B respectively. If Z A : Z B = 1 : 2, then v A : v B will be

A. A) 1 : √2
B. B) 1 : 8
C. C) 4 : 1
D. D) 1 : 4

Question 25

The energy of electron in the nth orbit of hydrogen atom is expressed as E n = −13.6
n2
eV. The shortest and
longest wavelength of Lyman series will be

A. A) 910Ã, 1213Ã
B. B) 5463Ã, 7858Ã
C. C) 1315Ã, 1530Ã
D. D) None of these

Question 26

The wavelength of Lymen series for first number is

A. A) 4×1.097×10
7

3 m
B. B) 4×1.097×107 m
3

C. C) 4
m
3×1.097×10 7
D. D) 3
4 × 1.097 × 10 7 m

Question 27

If the electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from third orbit to second orbit, the wavelength of the emitted
radiation in term of Rydberg constant is

A. A) 5R
6

B. B) 5R
36

C. C) 7R
64

D. D) None of these

Question 28

As the electron in Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom passes from state n = 2 to, n = 1, the KE(K) and the
potential energy (U) changes as

A. A) K four fold, U also four fold

B. B) K two fold, V also two fold
C. C) K four fold, U two fold
D. D) K two fold, U four fold

Question 29

According to Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom, the total energy of the electron in the n th stationary orbit is

A. A) directly proportional to n
B. B) inversely proportional to n
C. C) directly proportional to n 2
D. D) inversely proportional to n 2

Question 30

The wavelength of the first line of Lyman series for H - atom is equal to that of the second line of Balmer
series for a H-like ion. The atomic number Z of H-like ion is

A. A) 4
B. B) 1
C. C) 2
D. D) 3

Moderate Questions

Question 31

The frequency for a series limit of Balmer and Paschen series respectively are msubsup and msubsup. If the
frequency of the first line of Balmer series is msubsup then the relation betweenmsupmsubsup, msubsup and
msubsup is

A. A) f 1 − f 2 = f 3
B. B) f 1 + f 3 = f 2
C. C) f 1 + f 2 = f 3
D. D) f 2 − f 3 = 2f 1

Question 32

If R is the Rydberg Constant in cm −1 , then hydrogen atom does not emit any radiation of wave-length in
the range of

A. A) R to 3R cm
1 4

B. B) 5R to 5R cm
7 19

C. C) R
4
to 5R
36
cm
D. D) R to 7R cm
9 144

Question 33
v 1 is the frequency of the series limit of Lyman series, v 2 is the frequency of the first line of Lyman series
and v 3 is the frequency of the series limit of the Balmer series. Then

A. A) v 1 − v 2 = v 3
B. B) v 1 = v 2 − v 3
C. C) v1 = v1 + v1
2 1 3

D. D) v = v + v
1 1 1
1 2 3

Question 34

In hydrogen spectrum, if the shortest wavelength in Balmer series is λ, the shortest wavelength in Brackett
series is

A. A) λ
B. B) λ/2
C. C) 4λ
D. D) 9λ

Question 35

Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of λ = 975 Å. Number of spectral
lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be:

A. A) 3
B. B) 2
C. C) 6
D. D) 10

Question 36

Ratio of centripetal acceleration for an electron revolving in 3 rd orbit to 5 th Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is

A. A) 424
21
B. B) 625
81
C. C) 125
4
D. D) 61
775

Question 37

In a hydrogen atom, the electron is making 6.6 × 10 revs −1 around the nucleus in an orbit of radius
15

0.528 A. The magnetic moment (A − m 2 ) will be

A. A) 1 × 10 −15
B. B) 1 × 10
−10

C. C) 1 × 10 −23
D. D) 1 × 10
−27

Question 38
The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest
wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest integer) is

A. A) 802 nm
B. B) 823 nm
C. C) 1882 nm
D. D) 1648 nm

Question 39

Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from second
excited to the first excited state. The ratio of the wavelength λ 1 : λ 2 emitted in the two cases is

A. A) 7/5
B. B) 27/20
C. C) 27/5
D. D) 20/7

Question 40

A hydrogen atom is in ground state. Then to get six lines in emission spectrum, wavelength of incident
radiation should be

A. A) 800Å
B. B) 825Å
C. C) 975Å
D. D) 1025Å

Question 41

The diagram shows different transitions across the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Among
these, which transition represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?

A. A) (II)
B. B) (I)
C. C) (IV)
D. D) (III)

Question 42

Which state of triply ionised beryllium (Be 3+ ) has the same orbital radius as that of ground state of
hydrogen?
Question 43

Excitation energy of a hydrogen like ion in its first excitation state is 40.8eV. Energy needed to remove the
electron from the ion in ground state is

A. A) 54.4eV
B. B) 13.6eV
C. C) 40.8eV
D. D) 27.2eV

Question 44

In hydrogen atom, electron excites from ground state to higher energy state and its orbital velocity is
reduced to ( 13 ) of its initial value. The radius of the orbit in the ground state is R. The radius of the orbit
rd

in that higher energy state is

A. A) 2R
B. B) 3R
C. C) 27R
D. D) 9R

Question 45

Assuming f to be the frequency of the electromagnetic wave corresponding to the first line in
Balmer series, the frequency of the immediate next line is

A. A) 0. 5f
B. B) 1. 35f
C. C) 2. 05f
D. D) 2. 70f

Question 46

The wavelength of second Balmer line in hydrogen &spectrum is 600 nm The wavelength for its third line in
Lyman series is

A. A) 800nm
B. B) 600nm
C. C) 400nm
D. D) None of the above

Question 47

A light from Paschen series of hydrogen atom is able to eject photoelectrons from a metal. Then the work
function of the metal is

A. A) 3 : 4eV
B. B) 1.54eV
C. C) None of these
D. D) 1.1eV

Question 48

The collision of an electron with kinetic energy 5.5eV and a hydrogen atom in its ground state can be
described as

A. A) completely inelastic
B. B) may be completely inelastic
C. C) may be partially elastic
D. D) elastic

Question 49

In a hydrogen-like species, the net force acting on a revolving electron in an orbit as given by the Bohr
model is proportional to [n →principal quantum number, Z →atomic number]

A. A) n4
Z3

B. B) Zn 2
3

C. C) Zn3
2

D. D) Zn 3
4

Question 50

If Δr 1 represents the difference in radii of stationary orbits for n = 3 and n = 4 in a hydrogen atom and
Δr 2 represents the difference in radii of stationary orbits for n = 8 and n = 9, then the value of Δr 1
Δr 2 is

A. A) 0.71
B. B) 0.41
C. C) 2.43
D. D) 14.82

Question 51

The ratio of speed of electrons in the first excited state of hydrogen atom to the speed of light in vacuum is
[Given, Planck's constant = 6.625 × 10 Js and permittivity of free space is 8.85 × 10 −12 Fm −1 ]
−34

A. A) 5 × 10 −3
B. B) 7.3 × 10 −3
C. C) 3.6 × 10 −3
D. D) 36.5 × 10 −3

Question 52

An α-particle after passing through potential difference of V volt collides with a nucleus. If the atomic
number of the nucleus is Z , then distance of closest approach is
A. A) 14. 4 V Å
Z

B. B) 14. 4 V m
Z

C. C) 14. 4 VZ m
D. D) 14. 4 Z Å
V

Question 53

Assertion (A) The impact parameter for α-particles by 180 ∘ is zero. Reason (R) Zero impact parameter
means that the α-particles tend to hit the centre of the nucleus.

A. A) Both A and R are true and R is a correct explanation for A.

B. B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation for A.
C. C) A is true but R is false.
D. D) A is false but R is true.

Question 54

For hydrogen atom electron in n th Bohr orbit, the ratio of the radius of orbit to its de-Broglie wavelength is

A. A) 2π
n

B. B) 2π
n2

C. C) 2πn
1

D. D) 2πn
1
2

Question 55

The angular momentum of an electron moving in an orbit of hydrogen atom is 1.5 ( π ). The energy in the
h

same orbit is nearly

A. A) −1.3eV
B. B) −1.4eV
C. C) −1.5eV
D. D) −1.6eV

Question 56

The following statements are given about hydrogen atom. A. The wavelengths of the spectral lines of
Lyman series are greater than the wavelength of the second spectral line of Balmer series. B. The orbits
correspond to circular standing waves in which the circumference of the orbit equals a whole number of
wavelengths.

A. A) A is false, B is true
B. B) A is true, B is false
C. C) A is false, B is false
D. D) A is true, B is true

Question 57
When an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the third orbit to the second orbit, it emits a photon of
wavelength λλ ′ . When it jumps from the fourth orbit to third orbit, the wavelength emitted by the photon will
be

A. A) 20
13 λ
B. B) 16
25
λ
C. C) 16 λ
9

D. D) 7 λ
20

Question 58

A hydrogen sample is prepared in a particular excited state A of quantum number, n A = 3. The ground
state energy of hydrogen atom is −|E|. The photons of energy 12 are absorbed in the sample which
|E|

results in the excitation of some electrons to excited state B of quantum number n B , whose value is

A. A) 6
B. B) 4
C. C) 5
D. D) 7

Question 59

Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10 7 m −1 , the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in
hydrogen spectrum will be:

A. A) 0.025 × 10 m −1
4

B. B) 0.5 × 10 7 m −1
C. C) 0.25 × 10 m −1
7

D. D) 2.5 × 10 7 m −1

Question 60

A monochromatic radiation of wavelength λ is incident on a hydrogen sample in ground state. The sample
subsequently emits radiation of six different wavelengths, then the value of λ is [Use ch = 1242eV − m ]

A. A) 80 nm
B. B) 85.5 nm
C. C) 97.4 nm
D. D) 100.2 nm

Hard Questions

Question 61

A sample of atomic hydrogen gas is irradiated by a beam of ultraviolet radiation having a wavelength
between 100 nm and 200 nm. Assuming that the atoms are in the ground state, the wavelength which will
have low intensity in the transmitted beam is

A. A) 104 nm
B. B) 103 nm
C. C) 105 nm
D. D) 100 nm

Question 62

An electron from various excited states of hydrogen atom emit radiation to come to the ground state. Let
λ n , λ g be the de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the n th state and the ground state respectively. Let
∧ n be the wavelength of the emitted photon in the transition from the n th state to the ground state. For
large n, (A, B are constants)

A. A) ∧ 2n ≈ λ
B. B) ∧ n ≈ A + λB2
n

C. C) ∧ n ≈ A + Bλ n
D. D) ∧ 2n ≈ A + Bλ 2n

Question 63

Paragraph: In a mixture of H − H + gas (He + is singly ionised He atom), H atoms and He + ions are
excited to their respective first excited states. Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total excitation energy
to He ions (by collisions). Assume that the Bohr model of atom is exactly valid.Question: The wavelength
+

of light emitted in the visible region by He ions after collisions with H atoms is
+

A. A) 6.5 × 10
−7
m
B. B) 5.6 × 10 −7 m
C. C) 4.8 × 10 −7 m
D. D) 4.0 × 10
−7
m

Question 64

If the series limit frequency of Balmer series is ν B , then the series limit frequency of the Brackett series is

A. A) 25B
4ν

B. B) 9B
ν

C. C) 4B
ν

D. D) 4B
9ν

Question 65

Potential energy between a proton and an electron is given by U = Ke , then radius of Bohr's orbit can be
2

3R 3
given by

A. A) Keh2m
2

B. B)
6π 3 Ke 2 m
n3 h2
C. C) 2π Ke 2 m
n h2
D. D) 4π Ke 2 m
2

n3 h2
Question 66

Two electrons are moving with non-relativistic speeds perpendicular to each other. If corresponding de
Broglie wavelengths are λ 1 and λ 2 , their de Broglie wavelength in the frame of reference attached to their
centre of mass is:

A. A) λ CM = λ 1 = λ 2
B. B) λ = λ + λ
1 1 1
1 1 2

C. C) λ CM =
2λ 1 λ 2
√λ 21 +λ 22

D. D) λ CM = (
λ 1 +λ 2
2
)

Question 67

A proton is fired from very far away towards a nucleus with charge Q = 120e, where e is the electronic
charge. It makes the closest approach of 10 fm to the nucleus. The de Broglie wavelength (in fm) of the
proton at its start is:
(m p = (5/3) × 10 −27 kg; h/e = 4 ⋅ 2 × 10 −15 J s C −1 ; 1
4πε 0 = 9 × 10 9 N m 2 C −2 ; 1 fm= 10 −15 m)
A. A) 7
B. B) 5
C. C) 9
D. D) 3

Question 68

The distance of closest approach of an alpha particle to a nucleus when the alpha particle moves towards
the nucleus with linear momentum P is d. The distance of closest approach of alpha particle to nucleus, if
the linear momentum of the alpha particle is 1.5P

A. A) 3
2d

B. B) 2
3d

C. C) 4d
9
D. D) 94d

Question 69

The radiation corresponding to 3 → 2 transition of a hydrogen atom falls on a gold surface to generate
photoelectrons. These electrons are passed through a magnetic field of 5 × 10 T. Assume that the
−4

radius of the largest circular path followed by these electrons is 7 mm, the work function of the metal is:
(Mass of electron = 9. 1 × 10 kg)
−31

A. A) 1. 36 eV
B. B) 1. 88 eV
C. C) 0. 16 eV
D. D) 0. 82 eV
Question 70

In the Bohr model an electron of mass m moves in a circular orbit around the proton. Considering the
orbiting electron to be a circular current loop, the magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom, when the
electron is in nth excited state. (Assume, h = Planck's constant)

A. A) ( 2m 2π )
e n2 h

B. B) ( m
e nh
) 2π
C. C) ( 2m ) 2π
e nh

D. D) ( m
e n h 2
) 2π

Question 71

Imagine an electron moving in the potential field of a proton given by V = V 0 ln rr where r 0 is a positive
0

constant and r is the distance between the electron and proton. Assuming Bohr's model to be applicable,
the variation of r n with n (principal quantum number) is

A. A) r n ∝ n
B. B) r n ∝ n1
C. C) r n ∝ n 2
D. D) r n ∝ n12

Question 72

Electrons in a certain energy level n = n 1 , can emit 3 spectral lines. When they are in another energy
level, n = n 2 , they can emit 6 spectral lines. The ratio of orbital speeds of the electrons is

A. A) 4 : 3
B. B) 3 : 4
C. C) 2 : 1
D. D) 1 : 2

Question 73

The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest
wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest integer) is

A. A) 802 nm
B. B) 823 nm
C. C) 1882 nm
D. D) 1648 nm

Question 74

A hydrogen-like atom (atomic number Z) is in a higher excited state of quantum number n. This excited
atom can make a transition to the first excited state by successively emitting two photons of energies
10.20 eV and 17.00 eV respectively. Alternatively, the atom from the same excited state can make a
transition to the second excited state by successively emitting two photons of energy 4.25 eV and
5.95 eV respectively. Determine the value of Z. [Ionization energy of hydrogen atom = 13.6 eV]

Question 75

The emission series of hydrogen atom is given by \frac{1}{\lambda}=R\left(\frac{1}{n_{1}^{2}}-\frac{1}

{n_{2}^{2}}\right) where R is the Rydberg constant. For a transition from n 2 to n 1 , the relative change
Δλ/λ in the emission wavelength if hydrogen is replaced by deuterium (assume that the mass of proton
and neutron are the same and approximately 2000 times larger than that of electrons) is

A. A) 0.025%
B. B) 0.005%
C. C) 0.0025%
D. D) 0.05%

Question 76

Paragraph: The key feature of Bohr's theory of spectrum of hydrogen atom is the quantization of angular
momentum when an electron is revolving around a proton. We will extend this to a general rotational
motion to find quantized rotational energy of a diatomic molecule assuming it to be rigid. The rule to be
applied is Bohr's quantization condition.Question: A diatomic molecule has moment of inertia I. By Bohr's
quantization condition its rotational energy in the nth level ( n = 0 is not allowed) is

A. A) n2 ( 8π2 I )
1 h2

B. B) n1 ( 8πh2 I )
2

C. C) n ( 8πh2 I )
2

D. D) n 2 ( 8π2 I )
h2

Question 77

The radius of the first orbit of hydrogen is r H , and the energy in the ground state is - 13.6eV. Considering
a μ − -particle with a mass 207m e revolving round a proton as in hydrogen atom, the energy and radius of
proton and μ − - combination respectively in the first orbit are (assume nucleus to be stationary)

A. A) −13.6 × 207eV, 207

CH

B. B) −207 × 13.6eV, 207r H

C. C) − 207 eV, 207
13.6 F

D. D) − 13.6
207 eV, 207r H

Question 78

In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest wavelengths of Lyman and Balmer series are λ 1 and λ 2 respectively.
The Rydberg constant of hydrogen is

A. A)
λ 1 +λ 2
2

B. B)
4(λ 2 −λ 1 )
3λ 1 λ 2
C. C)
3(λ 2 −λ 1 )
4λ 1 λ 2

D. D)
2(λ 2 −λ 1 )
3λ 1 λ 2

Question 79

If the wavelength of the n th line of Lyman series is equal to the de-Broglie wavelength of electron in initial
orbit of a hydrogen like element (Z = 11). Find the value of n.

Question 80

A diatomic molecule is made of two masses m 1 and m 2 which are separated by a distance r. If we
calculate its rotational energy by applying Bohr's rule of angular momentum quantization, its energy will be
given by ( n is an integer)
(m 1 +m 2 ) 2 n 2 h 2
A. A)
2m 21 m 22 r 2

B. B) 2(mn+m
2 2
h
2
1 2 )r

C. C) (m +m )r2
2n 2 h 2
1 2

(m 1 +m 2 )n 2 h 2
D. D) 2m 1 m 2 r 2

Question 81

In the Bohr model an electron moves in a circular orbit around the proton. Considering the orbiting electron
to be a circular current loop, the magnetic moment of the hydrogen atom, when the electron is in n th
excited state, is :

A. A) ( 2m 2π )
e n2 h

B. B) ( m
e nh
) 2π
C. C) ( 2m ) 2π
e nh

D. D) ( m ) 2π
e n2 h

Question 82

A particle of mass m moves around the origin in a potential 12 mω 2 r 2 , where r is the distance from the
origin. Applying the Bohr model in this case, the radius of the particle in its n th orbit in terms of
a = √h/(2πmω) is
A. A) a√n
B. B) an
C. C) an 2
D. D) an √n

Question 83

A light of energy 12. 75 eV is incident on a hydrogen atom in its ground state. The atom absorbs the
radiation and reaches to one of its excited states. The angular momentum of the atom in the excited state
is xπ × 10 −17 eVs. The value of x is ______ (use h = 4. 14 × 10 –15 eVs, c = 3 × 10 8 m s –1 )
Question 84

In the Bohr's model of hydrogen-like atom the force between the nucleus and the electron is modified as
F= e2
4πε 0 ( r12 + β
r3
), where β is a constant. For this atom, the radius of the n th orbit in terms of the
Bohr radius (a 0 = mπe 2 ) is :
0 ε h2

A. A) r n = a 0 n − β
B. B) r n = a 0 n 2 + β
C. C) r n = a 0 n 2 − β
D. D) r n = a 0 n + β

Question 85

∘
For sodium light, the two yellow lines occur at λ 1 and λ 2 wavelengths. If the mean of these two is 6000 A
∘
and |λ 2 − λ 1 | = 6 A, then the approximate energy difference between the two levels corresponding to
λ 1 and λ 2 is
A. A) 2 × 10 −3 eV
B. B) 2 eV
C. C) 2000 eV
D. D) 2 × 10
−6
eV

Question 86

A particle of mass m moves in a circular orbit in a central potential field U(r) = 2 kr 2 . If Bohr's
1

quantization conditions are applied, radii of possible orbitals and energy levels vary with quantum number
n as:
A. A) r n ∝ n 2 , E n ∝ n2
1

B. B) r n ∝ √n, E n ∝ n
C. C) r n ∝ n, E n ∝ n
D. D) r n ∝ √n, E n ∝ n1

Question 87

A stationary hydrogen atom in the first excited state emits a photon. If the mass of the hydrogen atom is m
and its ionization energy is E , then the recoil velocity acquired by the atom is [speed of light = c]

A. A) [√ 2m + c 2 ] − c
3E

B. B) [√ 4m + c 2 ] − c
3E

C. C) 4mc
3E

D. D) mc
E

Question 88
Imagine an atom made up of a proton and a hypothetical particle of double the mass of the electron but
having the same charge as that of the electron. Apply the Bohr atom model and consider all possible
transitions of this hypothetical particle to the first excited level. The longest wavelength photon that will be
emitted has wavelength λ, (given in terms of Rydberg constant R for hydrogen atom) equal to

A. A) 5R
9

B. B) 5R
36

C. C) 5R
18

D. D) R
4

Question 89

For hydrogen atom, λ 1 and λ 2 are the wavelengths corresponding to the transitions 1 and 2 respectively
as shown in figure. The ratio of λ 1 and λ 2 is 32 . The value of x is ______.
x

Question 90

Muon (μ −1 ) is negatively charged (|q| = |e|) with a mass m μ = 200 m e , where m e is the mass of the
electron and e is the electronic charge. If μ −1 is bound to a proton to form a hydrogen like atom, identify
the correct statements (A) Radius of the muonic orbit is 200 times smaller than that of the electron (B) the
speed of the μ −1 in the nth orbit is 200
1
times that of the election in the nth orbit (C) The lonization energy
of muonic atom is 200 times more than that of an hydrogen atom (D) The momentum of the muon in the
nth orbit is 200 times more than that of the electron

A. A) (A), (B), (D)

B. B) (B), (D)
C. C) (C),(D)
D. D) (A), (C), (D)

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - D Q31 - A Q61 - B
Q2 - B Q32 - B Q62 - B
Q3 - A Q33 - A Q63 - C
Q4 - D Q34 - C Q64 - C
Q5 - C Q35 - C Q65 - D
Q6 - B Q36 - B Q66 - C
Q7 - B Q37 - C Q67 - A
Q8 - B Q38 - B Q68 - C
Q9 - C Q39 - C Q69 - D
 Q10 - A Q40 - C Q70 - C
Q11 - B Q41 - D Q71 - A
Q12 - C Q42 - 2 (Num) Q72 - A
Q13 - D Q43 - A Q73 - B
Q14 - B Q44 - D Q74 - 3 (Num)
Q15 - D Q45 - B Q75 - A
Q16 - C Q46 - D Q76 - D
Q17 - D Q47 - D Q77 - A
Q18 - B Q48 - D Q78 - B
Q19 - B Q49 - A Q79 - 24 (Num)
Q20 - B Q50 - B Q80 - D
Q21 - C Q51 - C Q81 - C
Q22 - C Q52 - A Q82 - A
Q23 - B Q53 - A Q83 - 828 (Num)
Q24 - D Q54 - A Q84 - C
Q25 - A Q55 - C Q85 - A
Q26 - A Q56 - A Q86 - B
Q27 - B Q57 - D Q87 - A
Q28 - A Q58 - A Q88 - C
Q29 - D Q59 - C Q89 - 27 (Num)
Q30 - C Q60 - C Q90 - D

Nuclear Physics

Easy Questions

Question 1

An alpha particle ( 4 He) has a mass of 4.00300 amu. A proton has a mass of 1.00783 amu and a neutron
has a mass of 1.00867 amu respectively. The binding energy of alpha estimated from these data is the
closest to

A. A) 27.9MeV
B. B) 22.3MeV
C. C) 35.0MeV
D. D) 20.4MeV

Question 2

The mass of 7 N is 15.00011amu, mass of 8 O 16 is 15.99492 amu and m p = 1.00783 amu. Determine
15

binding energy of last proton of 8 O 16 .

A. A) 2.13MeV
B. B) 0.13MeV
C. C) 10MeV
D. D) 12.13MeV

Question 3

A particle having almost zero mass and exactly zero charge is

A. A) positron
B. B) electron
C. C) neutron
D. D) neutrino

Question 4

Two different radioactive elements with half-lives ' T 1 ' and ' T 2 ' have undecayed atoms ' N 1 ′ and ′ N 2 ′
respectively, present at a given instant. The ratio of their activities at this instant is

A. A) N1 N2
T T
1 2

B. B) T1 T2
N N
1 2

C. C) N1 T1
N T
2 2

D. D) N12 T21
N T

Question 5

A radio-active material is reduced to 1/8 of its original amount in 3 days. If 8 × 10 kg of the material is
−3

left after 5 days. The initial amount of the material is

A. A) 700gm
B. B) 900gm
C. C) 475gm
D. D) 256gm

Question 6

Which one is correct about fission?

A. A) Approx. 0.1% mass converts into energy.

B. B) Most of energy of fission is in the form of heat.
C. C) In a fission of U 235 about 200 eV energy is released.
D. D) On an average, one neutron is released per fission of U 235

Question 7

Two radioactive elements A and B initially have same number of atoms. The half life of A is same as the
average life of B. If λ A and λ B are decay constants of A and B respectively, then choose the correct
relation from the given options.

A. A) λ A = λ B
B. B) λ A = 2λ B
C. C) λ A = λ B ln 2
D. D) λ A ln 2 = λ B

Question 8

Some amount of a radioactive substance (half-life = 10 days ) is spread inside a room and consequently,
the level of radiation becomes 50 times the permissible level for normal occupancy of the room. After how
many days will the room be safe for occupation?

A. A) 20 days
B. B) 34. 8 days
C. C) 56. 4 days
D. D) 62. 9 days

Question 9

An isotope of the original nucleus can be formed in a radioactive decay, with the emission of following
particles.

A. A) one α and one β

B. B) one α and two β
C. C) one α and four β
D. D) four α and one β

Question 10

In a radioactive disintegration, the ratio of initial number of atoms to the number of atoms present at time
t= 1
2λ is [λ = decay constant ]

A. A) e
1

B. B) √e
C. C) e
D. D) 2e

Question 11

For nuclei with mass number close to 119 and 238 , the binding energies per nucleon are approximately
7.6MeV and 8.6MeV respectively. If a nucleus of mass number 238 breaks into two nuclei of nearly
equal masses, what will be the approximate amount of energy released in the process of fission?

A. A) 214MeV
B. B) 119MeV
C. C) 2047MeV
D. D) 1142MeV
Question 12

If M O is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8 O 17 , M p and M n are the masses of a proton and a neutron,
respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is

A. A) (M O − 8M p )c 2
B. B) (M O − 8M p − 9M n )c 2
C. C) M O c 2
D. D) (M O − 17M n )c 2

Question 13

The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as N 0 counts per minute at t = 0 and e0 counts per
N

minute at t = 5 min. The time (in minutes) at which the activity reduces to half its value is

A. A) log e 5
2

B. B) log5 2
e

C. C) 5 log 10 2
D. D) 5 log e 2

Question 14

The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The time taken between 40% decay and 85% decay
of the same radioactive substance is

A. A) 15 minutes
B. B) 90 minutes
C. C) 60 minutes
D. D) 30 minutes

Question 15

Activity of a radioactive sample decreases to ( 13 ) of its original value in 3 days. Then in 9 days its
rd

activity reduces to

A. A) ( 18
1
) of the original value
B. B) ( 9 ) of the original value
1

C. C) ( 27 ) of the original value

1

D. D) ( 13 ) of the original value

Question 16

If T is the half-life of a radioactive substance then its instantaneous rate of change of activity is proportional
to

A. A) √T
B. B) T
C. C) T 2
D. D) T −2

Question 17

Let binding energy per nucleon of nucleus is denoted by E bn and radius of nucleus is denoted as r. If
mass number of nuclei A, B and 64 and 125 respectively then

A. A) r A < r B , E bnA < E bnB

B. B) r A < r B , E bnA < E bnA
C. C) r A = 5 r B , E bnA < E bnB
4

D. D) r A < r B , E bnA > E bnB

Question 18

Radon- 222 has a half-life of 3.8 days. If one starts with 0.064kg of radon-222, the quantity of radon- 222
left after 19 days will be

A. A) 0.002kg
B. B) 0.062kg
C. C) 0.032kg
D. D) 0.024kg

Question 19

For the radioactive nuclei that undergo either a or β decay, which one of the following cannot occur?

A. A) Isobar of original nucleus is produced

B. B) Isotope of the original nucleus is produced
C. C) Nuclei with higher atomic number than that of the original nucleus is produced
D. D) Nuclei with lower atomic number than that of the original nucleus is produced

Question 20

Nuclear energy is released in fission since binding energy per nucleon is

A. A) sometimes larger and sometimes smaller

B. B) larger for fission fragments than for parent nucleus
C. C) same for fission fragments and nucleus
D. D) smaller for fission fragments than for parent nucleus

Question 21

In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted β -particles are

A. A) the electrons present inside the nucleus

B. B) the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
C. C) the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms
D. D) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
Question 22

The energy released by the fission of one uranium atom is 200MeV. The number of fissions per second
required to produce 3.2 W of power is (Take 1eV = 1.6 × 10 −19 J )

A. A) 10
7

B. B) 10 10
C. C) 10 15
D. D) 10
11

Question 23

The half of a radioactive substance is 25 minutes The time between 50% decay and 87.5% decay of the
substance will be

A. A) 75 min
B. B) 25 min
C. C) 37.5 min
D. D) 50 min

Question 24

A nucleus breaks into two nuclear parts, which have their velocity ratio 2 : 1. The ratio of their nuclear radii
will be

A. A) √2
B. B) 2
1

C. C) 1/3
1
2
D. D) 1
√2

Question 25

In a radioactive material the activity at time t 1 , is A 1 and at a later time t 2 , it is A 2 . If the decay constant of
the material is λ, then

A. A) A 1 = A 2 e −λ(t1 −t2 )
B. B) A 1 = A 2 e λ(t1 −t2 )
C. C) A 1 = A 2 (t 2 /t 1 )
D. D) A 1 = A 2

Question 26

A nucleus of uranium decays at rest into nuclei of thorium and helium. Then :

A. A) the helium nucleus has less momentum than the thorium nucleus
B. B) the helium nucleus has more momentum than the thorium nucleus
C. C) the helium nucleus has less kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
D. D) the helium nucleus has more kinetic energy than the thorium nucleus
Question 27

The variation of decay rate with number of active nuclei is correctly shown in graph

A. A) D
B. B) C
C. C) A
D. D) B

Question 28

What is the particle x in the following nuclear reaction : 94 Be + 42 He → 12

6 C+x

A. A) electron
B. B) proton
C. C) Photon
D. D) Neutron

Question 29

Three specimens A, B, C of same radioactive element has activities 1 microcurie, 1 rutherford and 1
becquerel respectively. Which specimen has maximum mass?

A. A) A
B. B) B
C. C) C
D. D) all have equal masses

Question 30

In the nuclear reaction 14

7 N + X → 6 C + 1 H the X will be
14 1

A. A) 0−1 e
B. B) 11 H
C. C) 21 H
D. D) 10 n

Moderate Questions

Question 31

Match the following columns

A. A) (a) p,q, (b) p, (c) p, (d) p,q

B. B) (a) p,q,r, (b) p, s, (c) p,r, (d) p,q,r
C. C) (a) p,q, (b) p, r, (c) p,s, (d) p,q,r
D. D) (a) p,s, (b) p, s, (c) p, (d) p,q

Question 32

What will be the energy released in joule, in the process of fission by 1mg of 240
92 U. Assume energy release
per fission is 200MeV. [useAvogadro's number as 6 × 10 23 and 1eV = 1.6 × 10 −19 J ]

A. A) 6.2 × 10 J
7

B. B) 7.0 × 10 7 J
C. C) 8.0 × 10 J
7

D. D) 8.2 × 10 7 J

Question 33

A ancient discovery found a sample, where 75% of the original carbon (C 14 ) remains. Then the age of the
T 1 (C 14 ) = 5730 years, ln 0.5 = −0.7
sample is ( 2
)
ln(0.75) = −0.3
A. A) 2300 years
B. B) 2456 years
C. C) 2546 years
D. D) 3456 years

Question 34

Consider a nucleus 60
30X . It's approximate density is (Take
1 amu = 1. 6 × 10 −27 kg, R o = 1. 2 × 10 −15 m)
A. A) 1. 2 × 10 18 kg m −3
B. B) 8. 5 × 10 19 kg m −3
C. C) 3. 3 × 10 16 kg m −3
D. D) 2. 2 × 10 17 kg m −3

Question 35

Two radioactive materials Y 1 and Y 2 initially contain same number of nuclei. Their decay constants are
9λs −1 and 6λs −1 respectively. The time after which the ratio of number of undecayed nuclei of Y 1 and Y 2
becomes e is
1

A. A) 3λ
1
s
B. B) 15λ s
1

C. C) 10λ s
1

D. D) 8λ
1
s

Question 36
The half-life of a radioactive sample is T . The fraction of the initial mass of the sample that decays in an
interval T /2 is

A. A) 1
√2

B. B) √2

C. C)
(√2−1)
√2

D. D)
(√2+1)
√2

Question 37

An active nucleus decays to one-third ( 13 ) in 20 Hrs. The fraction of original activity remaining after
80 Hrs is
A. A) 16
1

B. B) 81
1

C. C) 36
1

D. D) 54
1

Question 38

Consider a radioactive nuclide which follow decay rate given by A(t) = A 0 2 (t/t0 } , where A(t) is the
fraction of radioactive material remaining after time t from the initial A 0 at zero time. Let A 1 be the fraction
of original activity which remains after 120 hours. Likewise A 2 is the fraction of original activity remaining
after 200 hours. If A2 = 1.6, then the half-life (t 0 ) will be
A
2

A. A) 10 hours
B. B) 20 hours
C. C) 40 hours
D. D) 60 hours

Question 39

In the fusion reaction, 1 H 2 + 1 H 2 → 2 He + Q, Q is energy released. If ' c ' is the speed of light and ' m '
4

is the mass of each deuterium nucleus then the mass of helium nucleus formed is

A. A) 2 m + c2
Q

B. B) mc2
Q

C. C) m + c2
Q

D. D) 2 m − c2
Q

Question 40

Half-life of a radioactive substance A is two times the half-life of another radioactive substance B. Initially
the number of nuclei of A and B are N A and N B respectively. After three half-lives of A, the number of
nuclei of both are equal. Then NA is
N
B

A. A) 3
1
B. B) 14
C. C) 6
1

D. D) 18

Question 41

The activity of a freshly prepared radioactive sample is 10 10 disintegrations per second, whose mean life is
10 −9 s. The mass of an atom of this radioisotope is 10 −25 kg. The mass (in mg ) of the radioactive sample
is

Question 42

The radius of an atomic nucleus of mass number 64 is 4. 8 fermi. Then the mass number of another atomic
nucleus of radius 6 fermi is

A. A) 64
B. B) 81
C. C) 100
D. D) 125

Question 43

A radioactive nucleus can decay by two different processes. The half lives of the first and second decay
processes are 5 × 10 and 10 years respectively. Then, the effective half-life of the nucleus is
3 5

A. A) 105 × 10 5 yr
B. B) 4762yr
C. C) 10 4 yr
D. D) 47.6yr

Question 44

An alloy is composed of two radioactive materials A and B having equal weight. The half life of A and B
are 10 yrs and 20yrs respectively. After time t, the alloy was found to consist of ( e )kg of A and 1 kg of B
1

. . If the atomic weight of A and B are same, then the value of t is (Assume, ln 2 = 0.7 )

A. A) ( 7 )yrs
200

B. B) ( 10
7
)yrs
C. C) 7 yrs
D. D) 70 yrs

Question 45

In the nuclear fusion reaction 1 H 2 + 1 H 3 → 2 He + n, if the repulsive potential energy between the two
4

nuclei is 2.07 × 10 −14 J, then the temperature at which the gases must be heated to initiate the reaction is
( Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10 −23 JK −1 )
A. A) 10 9 K
B. B) 10 7 K
C. C) 10 K
5

D. D) 10 12 K

Question 46

If the binding energy of N 14 is 7. 5 MeV per nucleon and that of N 15 is7. 7 MeV per nucleon. then the
energy required to remove a neutron from N 15 is

A. A) 5. 25 MeV
B. B) 0. 2 MeV
C. C) 10. 5 MeV
D. D) 0. 4 MeV

Question 47

A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments which fly off with velocities in the ratio 3 : 1. The ratio of
radii of the fragments is

A. A) 1 : 3 1/3
B. B) 3 1/3 : 4
C. C) 4 : 1
D. D) 2 : 1

Question 48

A radioactive nucleus can decay in two different processes with half life 0.7hr and 0.3hr. The effective
average life of the nucleus in minutes approximately is (value of ln 2 = 0.7 )

A. A) 14
B. B) 18
C. C) 24
D. D) 26

Question 49

The half life of neutron is 693 seconds. What fraction of neutrons will decay when a beam of neutrons,
having kinetic energy of 0.084 eV, travells a distance of 1 km ? (mass of neutron = 1.68 × 10 −27 kg,
and ln 2 = 0.693 )

A. A) 0.25 × 10 ∧ − 5
B. B) 0.5 × 10 ∧ − 5
C. C) 0.8 × 10 ∧ − 5
D. D) 10 ∧ − 5

Question 50

The energy equivalent to a mass of 1 kg is

A. A) 9 × 10 13 J
B. B) 9 × 10 9 J
C. C) 9 × 10 16 J
D. D) 9 × 10 6 J

Question 51

The half life of a stream of radioactive particles moving along a straight path with a constant kinetic energy
of 4eV is 1 minute. The percentage of particles which decay before travelling a distance of 3.6 km is
(Mass of the radioactive particles = 3.2 × 10 −21 kg and charge of the electron = 1.6 × 10 −19 C ).

A. A) 87.5
B. B) 175
C. C) 37.5
D. D) 75

Question 52

Consider the following statements A and B. Identify the correct choice in the given answer. A.
p − n, p − p and n − n forces between nucleons are not equal and charge dependent. B. In nuclear
reactor the fission reaction will be in accelerating state if the value of neutron reproduction factor A > 1.

A. A) Both A and B are correct

B. B) Both A and B are wrong
C. C) A is wrong and B is correct
D. D) A is correct and B is wrong

Question 53

The masses of neutron, proton and deutron in amu are 1.00893, 1.00813 and 2.01473, respectively. The
packing fraction of the deutron in amu is

A. A) 11.65 × 10
−4

B. B) 23.5 × 10 −4
C. C) 33.5 × 10 −4
D. D) 47.15 × 10 −4

Question 54

The half-life of Ra is 1620 years. Then the number of atoms decay in one second in 1 g of radium
226

(Avogadro number = 6.023 × 10 23 )

A. A) 4.23 × 10
9

B. B) 3.16 × 10 10
C. C) 3.61 × 10 10
D. D) 2.16 × 10
10
Question 55

Two radioactive materials R 1 and R 2 have decay constants 6λ and λ, respectively. The half life of R 2 is
1.4 × 10 17 s. Initially they contain some number of nuclei. The time at which the ratio of the remaining
nuclei of R 2 to that of R 1 will be e is ( Let ln 2 = 0.7)

A. A) 2 × 10 16 s
B. B) 4 × 10 16 s
C. C) 3 × 10
16
s
D. D) 5 × 10 16 s

Question 56

Some laws/processes are given in Column I. Match these with the physical phenomena given in Column II
and indicate your answer by darkening appropriate bubbles in the 4 × 4 matrix given in the ORS.

A. A) A-p, r; B-p, q, s; C-p; D-q

B. B) A-p; B-p, s; C-p; D-q
C. C) A-p, r; B-p, q; C-p, r; D-q, s
D. D) A-r, s; B-q; C-p; D-p, q, s

Question 57

A radioactive sample S 1 having an activity of 5μCi has twice the number of nuclei as another sample S 2
which has an activity of 10μCi. The half lives of S 1 and S 2 can be

A. A) 20 yr and 5 yr, respectively

B. B) 20 yr and 10 yr, respectively
C. C) 10 yr each
D. D) 5 yr each

Question 58

The half-life period of element X is same as the mean life time of element Y . Assume initially X and Y
have same number of atoms. Then

A. A) Initially X and Y have same decay rates

B. B) Always X and Y decay at same rate
C. C) Y decays faster than X
D. D) X decays faster than Y

Question 59

A radioactive element X converts into another stable element Y . Half life of X is 2 hours. Initially only X is
present. After a time t, if the ratio of atoms of X to Y is 1 : 4, then the value of t is

A. A) 2 hours
B. B) 4 hours
C. C) between 4 hours and 6 hours
D. D) 6 hours

Question 60

If 200MeV of energy is released in the fission of one nucleus of 236

92 U, the number of nuclei that must
undergo fission to release an energy of 1000 J is

A. A) 3.125 × 10
13

B. B) 6.25 × 10 13
C. C) 12.5 × 10
13

D. D) 3.125 × 10 14

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q21 - B Q41 - 1 (Num)
Q2 - D Q22 - D Q42 - D
Q3 - D Q23 - D Q43 - B
Q4 - D Q24 - C Q44 - A
Q5 - D Q25 - A Q45 - A
Q6 - A Q26 - D Q46 - C
Q7 - C Q27 - C Q47 - A
Q8 - C Q28 - D Q48 - B
Q9 - B Q29 - A Q49 - A
Q10 - B Q30 - D Q50 - C
Q11 - A Q31 - C Q51 - A
Q12 - B Q32 - C Q52 - C
Q13 - D Q33 - B Q53 - A
Q14 - C Q34 - D Q54 - C
Q15 - C Q35 - A Q55 - B
Q16 - D Q36 - A Q56 - A
Q17 - D Q37 - B Q57 - A
Q18 - A Q38 - B Q58 - C
Q19 - B Q39 - D Q59 - C
Q20 - B Q40 - D Q60 - A

Semiconductors

Easy Questions

Question 1
Carbon, silicon and germanium atoms have four valence electrons each. Their valence and conduction
bands are separated energy band gaps represented (E g ) C , (E g ) Si , and (E g ) Ge respectively. Which one
of the following relationship is true in their case?

A. A) (E g ) C > E g ) Si
B. B) (E g ) C < E g )
Si
C. C) (E g ) C = E g ) Si
D. D) (E g ) C > (E g ) Ge

Question 2

In an n − p − n transistor

A. A) the emitter has higher degree of doping compared to that of the collector
B. B) the collector has higher degree of doping compared to that of the emitter
C. C) both the emitter and collector have same degree of doping
D. D) the base region is most heavily doped

Question 3

In the circuit shown, the value of β of the transistor is 48 . If the base current supplied is 200μA, what is
the voltage at the terminal Y?

A. A) 0.2 V
B. B) 0.5 V
C. C) 4 V
D. D) 4.8 V

Question 4

The output of an OR gate is connected to both the inputs of a NAND gate. The combination will serve as a:

A. A) NOT gate
B. B) NOR gate
C. C) AND gate
D. D) OR gate

Question 5
Assertion : A diode lasers are used as optical sources in optical communication. Reason : Diode lasers
consume less energy.

A. A) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
B. B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
C. C) If assertion is true but reason is false
D. D) If both assertion and reason are false.

Question 6

For the given circuit of the p − n junction diode which is correct?

A. A) In forward bias the voltage across R is V

B. B) In reverse bias the voltage across R is V
C. C) In forward bias the voltage across R is 2 V
D. D) In reverse bias the voltage across R is 2 V

Question 7

Transfer characteristic [output voltage (V 0 ) vs input voltage (V i )] for a base biased transistor in CE
configuration is as shown in the figure. For using transistor as a switch, it is used

A. A) in region III
B. B) both in region (I) and (III)
C. C) in region II
D. D) in region I

Question 8

The potential barrier, in the depletion layer, is due to

A. A) ions
B. B) electrons
C. C) holes
D. D) forbidden band.
Question 9

In LED visible light is produced by

A. A) gallium phosphide
B. B) gallium arsenide
C. C) germanium phosphide
D. D) silicon phosphide

Question 10

A junction diode has a resistance of 25Ω when forward biased and 2500Ω when reverse biased. The
current in the diode, for the arrangement shown will be

A. A) 15 A
1

B. B) 17 A
C. C) 25 A
1

D. D) 180
1
A

Question 11

When a p-n diode is reverse biased, then

A. A) no current flows
B. B) the depletion region is increased
C. C) the depletion region is reduced
D. D) the height of the potential barrier is reduced.

Question 12

Reverse bias applied to a junction diode

A. A) lowers of the potential barrier

B. B) raises the potential barrier
C. C) increases the majority carrier current
D. D) increases the minority carrier current

Question 13

A n − p − n transistor conducts when:

A. A) both collector and emitter are positive with respect to the base
B. B) collector is positive and emitter is negative with respect to the base
C. C) collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as the base
D. D) both collector and emitter are negative with respect to the base
Question 14

The schematic symbol of light emitting diode (LED) is

A. A)

B. B)

C. C)

D. D)

Question 15

For which logic gate the following statement is true? The output is high if and only if all inputs are high.

A. A) AND
B. B) OR
C. C) NOR
D. D) NAND

Question 16

In an oscillator, for sustained oscillations, Barkhausen criterion is Aβ equal to (A = voltage gain without
feedback, β = feedback factor)
A. A) Zero
B. B) 2
1

C. C) 1
D. D) 2

Question 17

Which of the following logic gates is a universal gate?

A. A) OR
B. B) NOT
C. C) AND
D. D) NAND.

Question 18

In a p − n junction:

A. A) high potential is at n-side and low potential at p-side

B. B) high potential is at p-side and low potential at n-side
C. C) p and both are at same potential
D. D) undetermined

Question 19

Assume that each diode as shown in the tịgure has a forvard bias resistance of 50Ω and an infinite reverse
bias resistance. The current through the resistance 150Ω is

A. A) 0.66A
B. B) 0.05A
C. C) zero
D. D) 0.04A

Question 20

In the bandgap between valence band and conduction band in a material is 5.0eV, then the material is

A. A) semiconductor
B. B) good conductor
C. C) superconductor
D. D) insulator
 Question 21

In a common emitter configuration, a transistor has β = 50 and input resistance 1kΩ. If the peak value of
a.c. input is 0.01 V then the peak value of collector current is

A. A) 0.01μA
B. B) 0.25μA
C. C) 100μA
D. D) 500μA

Question 22

The circuit is equivalent to

A. A) AND gate
B. B) OR gate
C. C) Not gate
D. D) None of these

Question 23

The resultant gate and its Boolean expression for the given circuit is

A. A) OR, A + B

B. B) NOR, A + B
–

C. C) NAND, A ⋅ B
–

D. D) AND, A ⋅ B

Question 24

How many NAND gates are required to form an AND gate?

A. A) 1
B. B) 2
C. C) 3
D. D) 4

Question 25

Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?

A. A) OR
B. B) NAND
C. C) AND
D. D) NOR.

Question 26

The forbidden gap in the energy bands of silicon is

A. A) 2.6eV
B. B) 1.1eV
C. C) 0.1eV
D. D) 6eV

Question 27

The combination of gates shown below yields

A. A) OR gate
B. B) NOT gate
C. C) XOR gate
D. D) NAND gate

Question 28

A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50 , an input impedance of 100Ω and an output
impedance of 200Ω. The power gain the amplifier is

A. A) 500
B. B) 1000
C. C) 1250
D. D) 50

Question 29

When a semiconducting device is connected in series with a battery and a resistance, a current is found to
flow in the circuit. If however, the polarity of the battery is reversed, practically no current flows in the
circuit. The device may be

A. A) a p -type semiconductor
B. B) a n -type semiconductor
C. C) an intrinsic semiconductor
D. D) a p − n junction
Question 30

Which of the following gates correspond to the truth table given below?

A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0

A. A) NAND
B. B) OR
C. C) XOR
D. D) NOR

Moderate Questions

Question 31

The symbolic representation of four logic gates are given below : (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
The logic symbols for OR, NOT and NAND gates are respectively :

A. A) (i), (iii), (iv)

B. B) (iii), (iv), (ii)
C. C) (iv), (i), (iii)
D. D) (iv), (ii), (i)

Question 32

When a zener diode is used as a regulator with zener voltage of 10 V, nearly five times the load current
passes through the zener diode. What should be the series resistance for the zener diode. If load
resistance is 2kΩ and the unregulated voltage supplied is 16 V.

A. A) 500Ω
B. B) 100Ω
C. C) 200Ω
D. D) 800Ω

Question 33

Following diagram performs the logic function of:

A. A) AND gate
B. B) NAND gate
C. C) OR gate
D. D) XOR gate

Question 34

A p - n junction diode can withstand upto 20 mA current under forward bias. The diode has a potential
difference of 0.5 V across it, which is assumed to be independent of current. What is the maximum voltage
of the battery used to forward bias the diode when a resistance of 125Ω is connected in series with it?

A. A) 3.0 V
B. B) 2.5 V
C. C) 3.2 V
D. D) 2.0 V

Question 35

In the common-base configuration, a transistor has current amplification factor 0.95 . If the transistor is
used in common-emitter configuration and base current changes by 2μA, then the change in the collector
current is

A. A) 19μA
B. B) 0.91μA
C. C) 1.9μA
D. D) 38μA

Question 36

In a p - n − p transistor working as a common base amplifier, when the current gain is 0.96 and emitter
current is 7.2 mA, the base current is

A. A) 0.4 mA
B. B) 0.2 mA
C. C) 0.29 mA
D. D) 0.35 mA

Question 37

A change of 0. 04 volts takes place between the base and the emitter when an input signal is connected to
the common emitter transistor amplifier. As a result, 20 μA change takes place in the base current and a
change of 2 mA takes place in the collector current. The input resistance and AC current gain are

A. A) 1 kΩ &100
B. B) 2 kΩ &100
C. C) 2 kΩ &1000
D. D) 1 kΩ & 200

Question 38

Two diodes are connected in the following fashion. Provision is made to connect either +5 V or ground
(0 V) to the points A to B. The output Q will act as

A. A) OR gate
B. B) AND gate
C. C) XOR gate
D. D) NAND gate

Question 39

The figure shows a logic circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C . The voltage wave forms across
A, B and C are as given. The logic circuit gate is

A. A) OR gate
B. B) NOR gate
C. C) AND gate
D. D) NAND gate

Question 40

For an LED to emit light in visible region of the electromagnetic spectrum, it can have energy band gap in
the range of, (Plank's constant, h = 6.6 × 10 −34 Js and speed of light, e = 3 × 10 8 ms −1 in vacuum)

A. A) 0.1 eV to 0.4 eV
B. B) 0.9 eV to 1.6 eV
C. C) 1.7 eV to 3.1 eV
D. D) 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV

Question 41

A common emitter transistor amplifier has a current gain of 50 . If the load resistance is 4kΩ and input
resistance is 500Ω, the voltage gain of the amplifier is

A. A) 100
B. B) 200
C. C) 300
D. D) 400

Question 42

The circuit is equivalent to

A. A) AND gate
B. B) NAND gate
C. C) NOR gate
D. D) OR gate

Question 43

Assertion (A) Si and GaAs are the preferred materials for solar cells. Reason (R) Both these materials have
energy band gaps much below the energy level corresponding to the maximum solar irradiance ln the solar
spectrum. The correct answer is

A. A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

B. B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
C. C) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
D. D) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.

Question 44

The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The voltage
waveforms of A, B and C are as shown below:
The logic circuit gate is:

A. A) OR gate
B. B) AND gate
C. C) NAND gate
D. D) NOR gate

Question 45

In a p − n junction, an electric field of 5 × 10 5 V m exists in the depletion region. The minimum kinetic
energy of a conduction electron, in order to diffuse from n-side to the p-side, is found to be 3. 2 × 10 −20 J.
The width of the depletion region is,
A. A) 2 × 10 −4 cm
B. B) 8 × 10
−5
cm
C. C) 5 × 10 −6 cm
D. D) 4 × 10
−5
cm

Question 46

An n − p − n transistor is connected in common-emitter configuration as shown in the figure. If the

collector current is 5 mA, V BE = 0.6 V, V CE = 3 V and common-emitter current amplification factor is
50 , then the values of R 1 and R 2 are respectively.

A. A) 1kΩ, 74kΩ
B. B) 74kΩ, 1kΩ
C. C) 37kΩ, 2kΩ
D. D) 2kΩ, 37kΩ

Question 47

The class of materials having the largest band gap in the following is

A. A) Metals
B. B) Semi-metals
C. C) Semiconductors
D. D) Insulators

Question 48

The output characteristics of an n − p − n transistor represent, ( I C = collector current, V CE = potential

difference between collector and emitter, I B = base current, V BB = voltage given to base, V BE = the
potential difference between base and emitter)

A. A) changes in I C as I B and V BB are changed

B. B) changes in I C with changes in V CE (I B = constant )
C. C) changes in I B with changes in V CE
D. D) change in I C as V BE is changed

Question 49

In a nuclear reactor, the main purpose of the moderator is to

A. A) Initiate the fission process by giving away its neutron

B. B) Slow down the fast neutrons
C. C) Cool down the excess of heat generated in the reactor

D. D) Absorb excess of neutrons and control the reaction rate

Question 50

Photodiodes are mostly operated in reverse biased condition because

A. A) Fractional change in minority carriers produce higher forward current

B. B) Fractional change in majority carriers produce higher reverse current
C. C) Fractional change in minority carriers produce higher reverse current
D. D) Fractional change in majority carriers produce higher forward current

Question 51

A p-n photodiode is made of a material with a band gap of 2.0eV. The minimum frequency of the radiation
that can be absorbed by the material is nearly

A. A) 10 × 10 14 Hz
B. B) 5 × 10
14
Hz
C. C) 1 × 10 14 Hz
D. D) 20 × 10 14 Hz

Question 52

If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the ripple will be:

A. A) 25 Hz
B. B) 50 Hz
C. C) 70.7 Hz
D. D) 100 Hz

Question 53

To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct

A. A) A-1, B-0, C-0

B. B) A-1, B-0, C-1
C. C) A-1, B-1, C-0
D. D) A-0, B-1, C-0

Question 54

The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y . The voltage
waveforms of A, B and Y are as given
The logic gate is

A. A) NOR gate
B. B) OR gate
C. C) AND gate
D. D) NAND gate

Question 55

The energy of a photon in a monochromatic light of wavelength 621 nm matches with the band gap of a
semiconducting material. Then the minimum energy required to create an electron-hole pair from the
semiconductor is [Take hc = 1242eV − nm, where h is Planck's constant and c is speed of light in
vacuum]

A. A) 3.4eV
B. B) 1.7eV
C. C) 2eV
D. D) 2.2eV

Question 56

In the diode-based rectifier circuit given below, if V s = V m sin ωt and the diode is ideal, then the average
value of V L is

A. A) (R +R
LR m V
L S) π

B. B) R L V m sin ωt
C. C) (R +R
LR
L S)
Vm
D. D) (R +R
LR
L S)
V m sin ωt

Question 57

Current I through a given p − n junction when a voltage V is applied across it is given to be

V
I = I 0 (e 2VT − 1) where I 0 and V T are constants. If r d (I) is the dynamic resistance of the junction, then
r d (1000I 0 ) = αr d (10I 0 ), where α is approximately equal to
A. A) 10
B. B) 1/10
C. C) 1/100
D. D) 1/1000
Question 58

The circuit as shown in figure,

the equivalent gate is

A. A) NOR gate
B. B) OR gate
C. C) AND gate
D. D) NAND gate

Question 59

In a Zener regulated power supply a Zener diode with V z = 6 V is used for regulation. The load current is
4 mA and the unregulated input voltage is 10 V. To get a Zener current five times the load current the
value of series resistor R S is nearly

A. A) 150Ω
B. B) 167Ω
C. C) 175Ω
D. D) 159Ω

Question 60

The circuit given below represents which of logic operations?

A. A) AND
B. B) NOT
C. C) OR
D. D) NOR.

Correct Answers for this Chapter

Q1 - A Q21 - D Q41 - D
Q2 - A Q22 - B Q42 - C
Q3 - A Q23 - A Q43 - A
Q4 - B Q24 - B Q44 - B
Q5 - B Q25 - C Q45 - D
Q6 - A Q26 - B Q46 - B
Q7 - B Q27 - A Q47 - D
Q8 - A Q28 - C Q48 - B
Q9 - B Q29 - D Q49 - B
Q10 - B Q30 - D Q50 - A
Q11 - B Q31 - D Q51 - B
Q12 - B Q32 - C Q52 - D
Q13 - B Q33 - A Q53 - B
Q14 - B Q34 - A Q54 - D
Q15 - A Q35 - D Q55 - C
Q16 - C Q36 - C Q56 - A
Q17 - D Q37 - B Q57 - C
Q18 - A Q38 - B Q58 - A
Q19 - D Q39 - A Q59 - B
Q20 - D Q40 - C Q60 - A