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XII-CBSE
EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR BOARD EXAM
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Around 15,000 Questions with Solutions & Key Points
EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
PHYSICS
7. What is the angle between electric field
CHAPTER-1
(E) and equipotential surface?
ELECTRIC CHARGE & FIELD
(a) 90° always (b) 0° always
1. An object has charge of 1C and gains 5
(c) 0° to 90° (d) 0° to 180°
1018 electrons. The net charge on the
8. If we carry a charge once around an
object becomes
equipotential path, then work done by the
(a) – 0.80 C (b) + 0.80 C
charge is
(c) + 1.80 C (d) + 0.20 C
(a) Infinity (b) Positive
2. Two point charges + 8q and – 2q are
located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. (c) Negative (d) zero
The point on x-axis at which net electric Each question consists of two statements,
field is zero due to these charges is
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
(a) 8 L (b) 4 L
correct answer, use the following code:
(c) 2 L (d) L
3. Consider an uncharged conducting (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
sphere. A positive charge is placed outside and Reason is a correct explanation of
the sphere the net charge on the sphere
Assertion.
is then,
(a) Negative and uniformly distributed (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
over the surface of sphere. but Reason is not a correct explanation
(b) Positive and uniformly distributed over of Assertion.
the surface of sphere.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(c) Negative and appears at a point surface
closest to point charge (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(d) zero 9. Assertion: Electric lines of force cross
4. Each of two point charges is double and
each other.
th ei r di stance is h al ved. Fo rce of
interaction becomes n times, where n is Reason: Electric field at a point does not
superimpose to give one resultant electric
(a) 4 (b) 1
field.
(c) 18 (d) 16
10. Assertion: In a non-uniform electric field
5. The minimum value of force acting
a dipole will have translator as well as
between two point charges placed 1m
rotatory motion.
apart from one another is
Reason: In a non-uniform electric field a
(a) 2.304 10 28 N (b) 2.304 1028 N dipole experiences a force as well as
(c) 9 109 N (d) 9 109 N torque.
6. A and B are two identical spherical charge 11. State Coulomb’s law in vector form and
bodies which repel each other with a force prove that F12 F21 , where letters have
F, kept at a finite distance. A third their usual meaning
uncharge sphere of same size brought in 12. Define electric field intensity. What is its
contact with sphere B and removed. It is SI unit? What is the relation between
then kept at a mid-point A and B. Find electric field and force?
the magnitude of force on C. 13. Sketch equipotential surface for
(a) F/2 (b) F/8 (a) A negative point charge
(c) F (d) zero (b) Two equal positive charges separated
by a small distance
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
14. Deduce the expression for the potential (b) Also find the electrostatic potential
energy of an electric dipole placed with energy of the system
its axis at an angle to the external (II) Calculate the work done to dissociate
electric field, E . Hence discuss the the system of three charges placed on
condition of ;its stable and unstable the vertices of a triangle as shown.
equilibrium.
15. A particle of mass m and charge q is
released from rest in a uniform electric
field of intensity E. Calculate the kinetic
energy attained by this particle after
moving a distance between the plates.
16. Two charges + q and + 9q are separated b
y a distance of 10a. Find the point on the
line joining the two charges where 21. (a) Derive an expression of electric field
electric field is zero. intensity due to a dipole on its axial
17. A particle of charge 2C and mass 1.6 gm position at a distance r from the centre
is moving with a velocity 4iˆ ms 1 . At t = 0 of the dipole. (r >> l) where ‘l’ is the
length of dipole.
the particles enters in a region having
(b) A thin semi-circular ring of radius r
an electric field E (in NC–1) = 80iˆ 60 ˆj . has a positive charge q distributed
Find the velocity of particle at it = 5 s. uniformly over it. The net electric
18. (a) Point charge (+ Q) is kept in the field E at the centre of the semi circular
vicinity of uncharged conducting plate. ring will be
Ske tch el ectric fiel d line s betw een 22. (a) Deduce an expression of electric
charge and plate. potential at a distance due to a point
(b) Plot a graph showing the variation of charge Q.
Coulomb force (F) versus 1/r2, where r is (b) Write down any four properties of
the distance between two point charges electric field lines.
(1C, 2C) and (1C, – 3C). Interpet the (c) Define equipotential surface. Write
graphs. down its properties.
19. (a) Derive an expression for torque acting (d) Why electric field lines nerve cross
on an electric dipole placed inside an each other.
uniform electric field (E).
(b) An electric dipole is formed by two CHAPTER-2
equal and opposite charges q with ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND
separation d. The charges have same
mass m. It is kept in a uniform CAPACITANCE
electric field E. If it is slightly rotated 1. Unit of electric potential is
from its equilibrium orientation, then (a) J/C (b) J/C
its angular frequency w will be (c) V-m (d) J/c-m
20. (I) Two charges 20 10–6 C and – 4 10–6 C 2. If 100 J of work has to be done in moving
are separated by a distance of 50 cm an electric charge of 4C from a place
in air where potential is – 10V to another place
(a) Find the point on the line joining the where potential is v volt, find the value of
charges, where the electric potential V
is zero (a) 5V (b) 10 V
(c) 25 V (d) 15 V
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
3. The potential of a large liquid drop when
eight drops combined is 20 V, then
potential of each single drop was
(a) 10 V (b) 7.5 V
(c) 5V (d) 2.5 V
4. The potential of an electric dipole varies
with distance r as
1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) 12
r r3 r4 (a) 4F (b) F
7
1
(d) 1 7
r2 (c) F (d) F
5. An electric field of 1000 V/m is applied to 4 12
an electric dipole at an angle of 45° the Each question consists of two statements,
value of electric dipole moment is 10–29 namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
c-m. What is the potential energy of the
electric dipole? correct answer, use the following code:
(a) 9 1020 J (b) 10 1029 J ( c ) (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
and Reason is a correct explanation of
20 1018 J (d) 7 1025 J
6. The graph shows the variation of voltage Assertion.
V across the plates of two capacitors A and (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
B versus increase of charge Q stored in
but Reason is not a correct explanation
them. Which of the capacitor has higher
capacitance? of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
9. Assertion : A ch arge capacitor i s
disconnected from a battery. Now, if its
plates are separated, further the P.E. will
fall.
Reason: Energy stored in a capacitor is
(a) Capacitor A not equal to the work done in charging it.
(b) Capacitor B 10. Assertion: Capacity of a parallel plate
(c) Both have same capacitance capacitor in creases w hen distan ce
(d) None of the above between the plates is decreases.
7. The potential energy of a charged parallel Reason: Capacitance of capacitor is
plate capacitor is U0. If a slab of dielectric directly proportional to distance between
constant K is inserted between the plates, them.
then new potential energy will be 11. De ri ve the capaci ty o f an isol ated
spherical conductor of radius R.
U0
(a) (b) U0K2 12. Write down the factors affecting the
K capacity of a parallel plate capacitor.
U0 13. Three charges Q, + q and + q are placed at
(c) (d) U 02
K2 the vertices of a right angle isosceles
8. Capacitance between points A and B is triang le as sh ow n be lo w. The n et
electrostatic P.E. of the configuration is
zero if the value of Q is
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
14. In the given circuit, the charge on V ( r2 ) r2
capacitor will be dV E . dr
V ( r1 ) r1
(b) Derive the equivalent capacity of the
network, where three capacitors C1, C2
an d C 3 are con ne cted i n se ri es
connection.
20. Two charges 2C and – 2C are placed at
points A and B 6cm apart.
(a) Identify an equipotential surface of the
system.
15. The distance between the plates of a (b) What is the direction of the electric
parallel plate capacitor is d. A metal plate field at every point on this surface?
d 21. Prove that energy stored per unit volume
of thickness is placed between the
2 1
in a capacitor is given by 0 E 2 , where E
plates. What will be the effect on the 2
capacitance. is the electric field of the capacitor.
16. Two dielectric slabs of dielectric constant 22. a spherical conducting shell of inner
K1 and K2 are filled in between the two radius r1 and outer radius r2 has a charge.
plates, each of area A of the parallel plate (a) A charge q is placed at the centre of
capacitor as shown in the figure. Find the the shell. What is the surface charge
net capacitance of the capacitor? Area of de nsi ty on the i nne r and outer
A surfaces of the shell?
each plate (b) Is the electric field inside a cavity (with
2
no charge) zero, even if the shell is
not spherical but any irregular shape?
Explain.
CHAPTER-3
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
1. The direction of the flow of current through
17. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance electric circuit is
C is charged to a potential V by a battery (a) from low potential to high potential
without disconnecting the battery the (b) From high potential to low potential
distance between the plates is tripled and
(c) does not depend upon potential value
a di el ectri c material of K = 10 is
(d) current can not flow through circuit
introduced between the plates of the
capacitor. Explain giving reasons, how will 2. The electric resistance of a conductor
the following be affected. depends upon
(a) Capacitance of the capacitor. (a) size of conductor
(b) Charge on the capacitor (b) temperature of conductor
18. Derive the expression of loss in energy (c) geometry of conductor
due to shearing of charge between two
(d) all of these
capacitors, when two capacitors are
connected with same polarity. 3. For which of the following dependences of
19. (a) Derive the relationship between E and drift velocity vd on electric field E, is Ohm’s
potential as law obeyed?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(a) vd E (b) vd E 2 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
and Reason is a correct explanation of
1
(c) vd E (d) vd Assertion.
E
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
4. Wi th i ncre ase in tempe ratu re the
but Reason is not a correct explanation
conductivity of
of Assertion.
(a) metals increases and of semiconductor
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
decreases
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(b) semiconductors increases and of
metals decreases 9. Assertion: In a simple battery circuit, the
point of the lowest potential is positive
(c) in both metals and semiconductors
increases terminal of the battery.
(d) in both metal and semiconductor Reason: The current flows towards the
decreases point of the higher potential, as it does in
such a circuit from the negative to the
5. An electric heater is connected to the
voltage supply. After few seconds, current positive terminal.
gets its steady value then its initial 10. Assertion: A larger dry cell has higher
current will be emf.
(a) equal to its steady current R eason: Th e emf of a dry cel l is
(b) slightly higher than its steady current proportional to its size.
(c) slightly less than its steady current 11. Two electric bulbs A and B are marked
(d) zero 220 V, 40 W and 220 V 60 W respectively.
6. In the series combination of two or more Which one has a higher resistance?
than two resistances 12. Two heated wires of the same dimensions
(a) the current through each resistance are first connected in series and then in
is same parallel to a source of supply. What will be
(b) the voltage through each resistance the ratio of heat produced in the two
is same cases?
(c) neither current nor voltage through 13. V.I graph for a metallic wire at two
each resistance is same different temperature is shown in figure.
(d) both current and voltage through each Which of these two temperature is higher
resistance are same and why?
7. In parallel combination of n cells, we
obtain
(a) more voltage (b) more current
(c) less voltage (d) less current
8. In a wheatstone bridge if the battery and
galvanometer are interchanged then the
deflection in galvanometer will 14. State one condition for maximum current
(a) change in previous direction
to be drawn from the cell?
(b) not change
(c) change in opposite direction 15. A set of n-identical resistors, each of
(d) none of these resistance R ohm when connected in
Each question consists of two statements, series have an effective resistance of X
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the oh m an d whe n th e re sisto rs are
correct answer, use the following code: co nn ecte d in parall el the e ffecti ve
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
resistance is Y ohm. Find the relation examples of elements which do not
between R, X and Y? obey Ohm’s law.
16. What happens to the resistance of the CHAPTER-4
wire when its length is increased to twice MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF CURRENT
its original length? 1. A strong magnetic field is applied on a
17. A battery of emf 10 V and internal stationary electron. Then the electron
resistance 3W is connected to a resistor. (a) moves in the direction of the field
If the current in the circuit is 0.5 A, what (b) remained stationary
is the resistance of the resistor? What is (c) moves perpendicular to the direction
the terminal voltage of the battery when of the field
the circuit is closed?
(d) moves opposite to the direction of the
18. At roo m te mperatu re 27.0 C, the field
re si stance of a he ati ng e lemen t is
2. The magnetic force F on a current
100 . What is the temperature of the
carrying conductor of length l in an
element if the resistance is found to be
external magnetic field B is given by
117 . Gi ve n th at the tempe ratu re
coefficient of the material of the resistor IB l B
(a) (b)
is 1.70 104 C 1 ? l I
19. A negligibly small current is passed (c) I (l B) (d) I 2l B
through a wire of length 15 m and uniform 3. A charged particle is moving on circular
cross-section 6.0 ´ 10 –7 m 2 , and its path with velocity v in a uniform magnetic
resistance is measured to be 5.0 . What field B, if the velocity of the charged
is the resistivity of the material at the particle is doubled and strength of
temperature of the experiment? magnetic field is halved, then radius
20. Derive the relationship between electric becomes
current (I) and drift velocity (V d) as, (a) 8 times (b) 4 times
I nAeVd , where symbols have atheir (c) 2 times (d) 16 times
usual meaning. 4. A charged particle would continue to move
21. In a metre bridge, the balance point is with a constant velocity in a region
found to be found to be at 39.5 cm from wherein, which of the following conditions
the end A, when the resistor Y is of 12.5 is not correct?
W. Determine the resistance of X. Why (a) E = 0, B 0 (b) E 0, B 0
are the connections between resistors in (c) E 0, B 0 (d) E = 0, B = 0
a wheatstone or meter bridge made of 5. Ampere’s circuital law is given by
thick copper strips?
(a) H . dl 0 I enc
22. (a) A steady current flow in a metallic
conductor of non-uniform cross- (b) B . dl 0 I enc
section. Which of these quantities is (c) B . dl 0 J
constant along the conductor: current,
current density, electric field, drift (d) B . H . dl 0 J
speed? 6. Which of the following statement is
(b) Is ohm’s law universally applicable for correc?
all conducting elements? If not, give
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(a) The magnetic field in the open space generated by the loop might affect
inside the toroid is constant adjacent circuits or components.
(b) The magnetic field in the open space
11. A bar magnet of magnetic moment M is
exterior to the toroid is constant
aligned parallel to the direction of a
(c) The magnetic field inside the core of
uniform magnetic field B. What is the
torroid is constant
work done to turn the magnet, so as to
(d) The magnetic field inside the core of
toroid is zero align its magnetic moment.
7. The magnetic moment of a current I (i) Opposite to the field direction
carrying circular coil of radius r and (ii) Normal to the field direction?
number of turns N varies as 12. Define angel of dip. Deduce the relation
1 1 connecting angle of dip and horizontal
(a) 2 (b)
r r
component of earth’s total magnetic field
(c) r (d) r2
with the horizontal direction.
8. A current carrying loop is placed in a
13. A point charge + q is moving with speed
uniform magnetic field. The torque acting
on it does not depend upon perpendicular to the magnetic field B as
(a) area of loop shown in the figure. What should be the
(b) value of current magnitude and direction of the applied
(c) magnetic field electric field so that the net force acting
(d) None of these on the charge is zero.
Each question consists of two statements,
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
correct answer, use the following code:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
and Reason is a correct explanation of
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true 14. The energy of a charged particle moving
but Reason is not a correct explanation in a uniform magnetic field does not
of Assertion. change. Why?
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
15. A short bar magnet placed with its axis
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
at 30° with a uniform external magnetic
9. Assertion: Cyclotron is a device which is
field of 0.25 T experiences a torque of
used to accelerate the positive ion.
magnitude equal to 4.5 ´ 10–2 J. What is
Reason: Cyclotron frequency depends
the magnitude of the magnetic momenta
upon the velocity.
of the magnet?
10. Assertion: In electric circuits, wires
16. Two wires loop PQRSP formed by joining
carrying currents in opposite direction
two semicircular wires of different radii
are often twisted together
carry a current I as shown in the figure.
Reason: If the wires are not twisted What is the direction of the magnetic
together, the combination of the wires induction at the centre C?
forms a current loop, the magnetic field
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(a) The earth’s magnetic field varies from
point to point in space. Does it also
change with time? If so, on what time
scale does it change appreciably?
17. Answer the following questions
(b) The earth’s core is known to contain
(a) Why does a paramagnetic sample
iron. Yet geologists do not regard this
display greater magnetization (for the
as a source of the earth’s magnetism.
same magnetizing field) when cooled?
Why?
(b) Why is diamagnetism, in contrast,
22. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J/
almost independent of temperature?
T lies aligned with the direction of a
18. A sample of paramagnetic salt contains uniform magnetic field of 0.22 T.
2.0 ´ 1024 atomic dipoles each of dipole
(a) What is the amount of work required
moment 1.5 ´ 10–23 J/T. The sample is
by an external torque to turn the magnet
placed under a homogeneous magnetic
so as to align its magnetic moment: (i)
field of 0.64 T, and cooled to a temperature
normal to the field direction, (ii) opposite
of 4.2 K. Th e de gree o f magn etic
to the field direction?
saturation achieved is equal to 15% . What
CHAPTER-5
is the total dipole moment of the sample
EMI & AC
for a magnetic field of 0.98 T and a
1. Th e magn etic e ne rg y stored i n an
temperature of 2.8 K?
inductor of inductance 4 H carrying a
19. A monoenergetic (18 keV) electron beam current of 2A is
initially in the horizontal direction is (a) 8 J (b) 4 J
subjected to a horizontal magnetic field (c) 4 mJ (d) 8 mJ
of 0.04 G normal to the initial direction. 2. A square loop of side 1 m and resistance
Estimate the up or down deflection of the 1 is placed in a magnetic field of 0.5T. If
beam over a distance of 30 cm (me = 9.11 ´ the plane of the loop is perpendicular to
10 –31
kg). [Note: Data in this exercise are the direction of the magnetic field, the
so chosen that the answer will give you magnetic flux through the loop is
an idea of the effect of earth’s magnetic (a) 0 (b) 2 weber
(c) 0.5 weber (d) 1 weber
field on the motion of the electron beam
from the electron gun to the screen in a 3. The current in an inductor of self-
inductance 4H changes from 4A to 2A in
TV set]
1s. The e.m.f. induced in the coil is
20. The current sensitivity of a moving coil
(a) – 2 V (b) 2 V
galvanometer increases by 20% when its
(c) – 4 V (d) 8 V
resistance is increased by a factor of two.
4. A 100 mH coil carries a current of 1A.
Calculate by what factor the voltage Energy stored in its magnetic field is
sensitivity changes? (a) 0.5 J (b) 0.05 J
21. Answer the following questions: (c) 1 J (d) 0.1 J
5. The magnetic flux linked to a circular coil
of radius R is
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
= 2t3 + 4t2 + 2t + 5 Wb (a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
and the Reason is a correct explanation
The magnetic of induced emf in the coil
of the Assertion.
at t = 5 s is
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
(a) 108 V (b) 197 V but Reason is not a correct explanation
(c) 150 V (d) 192 V of the Assertion.
6. When an ac voltage of 220 V is applied to (c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
incorrect.
the capacitor C, then
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
(a) the maximum voltage between plates incorrect.
is 220 V 9. Assertion: An alternating current does
(b) the current is in phase with the not show any magnetic effect.
applied voltage Reason: Alternating current does not vary
(c) the charge on the plate is not in phase with time.
with the applied voltage 10. Assertion: The inductive reactance limits
(d) power delivered to the capacitor per amplitude of the current in a purely
cycle is zero inductive circuit.
7. In the series LCR circuit shown the Reason: The inductive reactance is
impedance is independent of the frequency of the
current.
11. A bar magnet is moved in the direction
indicated by the arrow between two coils
PQ and CD. Predict the directions of
induced current in each coil.
(a) 200 (b) 100
(c) 300 (d) 500
8. Fi gu re sho ws a serie s LCR circu it
connected to a variable frequency 230 V
12. How does the mutual inductance of a pair
source.
of coils change when
(i) distance between the coils is increased
and
(ii) number of turns in the coils is
increased.
13. A light metal disc on the top of an
electromagnet is thrown up as the current
The source frequency which drives the is switched on. Why? Give reason.
circuit in resonance is 14. Two spherical bobs, one metallic and the
(a) 4 Hz (b) 5 Hz other of glass, of the same size are allowed
(c) 6 Hz (d) 8 Hz to fall freely from the same height above
the ground. Which of the two would reach
earlier and why?
Directions: These questions consist of two 15. De ri ve an expre ssio n for the sel f-
statements, each printed as Assertion and inductance of a long air-cored solenoid of
Reason. While answering these questions, you length l and number of turns N.
are required to choose any one of the following 16. At a hydroelectric power plant, the water
four responses. pressure head is at a height of 300 m and
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
the water flow available is 100 m3 s–1. If (b) dc only
the turbine generator efficiency is 60% (c) either ac or dc
estimate the electric power available (d) neither dc nor ac
from the plant (g = 9.8 ms–2) 4. Wavefront is the locus of all points, where
17. State Len’s law. Explain, by giving the particles of the medium vibrate with
examples that Len’s law is a consequence the same
of conservation of energy. (a) phase (b) amplitude
18. Write its SI unit for self-inductance of a (c) frequency (d) period
coil. Derive the expression for self- 5. A plane wave passes through a convex
inductance of a long solenoid of cross- lens. The geometrical shape o f the
sectional area ‘A’, length ‘l’ having ‘n’ wavefront that emerges is
turns per unit length (a) plane
19. Mention the two characteristic properties (b) diverging spherical
of the material suitable for making core (c) converging spherical
of a transformer. (d) none of these
20. When an ac source is connected across
6. A laser beam is used for locating distant
an ideal inductor, show on a graph the
nature of variation of the voltage and the objects because
current over one complete cycle. (a) it is monochromatic
21. Explain with the help of labeled diagram, (b) it is not chromatic
the principle construction and working of
(c) it is not observed
a transformer?
22. A coil of inductance 0.50 H and resistance (d) it has small angular spread
100 is connected to a 240 V. 50 Hz ac 7. In Young’s double slit experiment two
supply. disturbances arriving at a point P have
(a) What is the maximum current in the
phase difference of . The intensity of
coil? 3
(b) What is the time lag between the this point expressed as a fraction of
voltage maximum and the current maximum intensity I0 is
maximum? 3 1
(a) I 0 (b) I 0
42 23
(c) I 0 (d) I 0
CHAPTER-6 3 4
8. A slit of width a is illuminated by white
EM WAVES AND WAVE OPTICS
light. The first minimum for red light
1. Maxwell in his famous equations of ( = 6500 Å) will fall at = 30° when a
electromagnetics introduced the concept
will be
of
(a) ac current (a) 3200 Å (b) 6.5 10–4 mm
(b) displacement current (c) 1.3 micron (d) 2.6 10–4 cm
(c) impedance Each question consists of two statements,
(d) reactance namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
2. Displacement current goes through the correct answer, use the following code:
gap between the plates of a capacitor
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
when the charge on the capacitor
(a) is changing with time and Reason is a correct explanation of
(b) decreases Assertion.
(c) does not change (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(d) decreases to zero but Reason is not a correct explanation
3. The conduction current is same as of Assertion.
displacement current when source is
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(a) ac only
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. What is the intensity of light at a point
9. Assertion: Electromagnetic wave are where path difference is / 3 ?
transverse in nature. 20. Wh en a l ow fly ing aircraft passes
Reason : The electric and magnetic fields overhead, we sometimes notice a slight
in e le ctromag ne ti c wave s are shaking of the picture on our TV screen.
perpendicular to each other and the Suggest a possible explanation.
direction of propagation. 21. Given below are some famous numbers
asso ci ated w ith e le ctro magn etic
10. Assertion : Thin film such as soap bubble
radiations in different contexts in physics.
or a thin layer of oil on water show
beautiful colours when illuminated by State the part of the electromagnetic
white light. spectrum to which each belongs.
R eason: I t happen s du e to the (a) 21 cm (wavelength emitted by atomic
interference of light reflected from upper hydrogen in interstellar space)
and lower face of the thin film. (b) 1057 MHz (frequency of radiation
11. Write th e appli cati on of I nfra-red
arising from two close energy levels
radiations?
in hydrogen; known as Lamb shift)
12. Which constituent radiation of the
electromagnetic spectrum is used? 22. In Young’s double slit experiment, the
(1) to photograph internal parts of Human slits are separated by 0.24 mm. The
body screen is 1.2 m away from the slits. The
(2) For air aircraft navigation fringe width is 0.03 cm. Calculate the
13. Obtain an expression for the ratio of wave le ng th o f lig ht u se d in the
intensities at maxima and minima in an
experiment?
interference pattern.
14. What is the Brewster angle for air to glass CHAPTER-7
transition? (Refractive index of glass = 1.5) RAY OPTICS
15. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the 1. A short pulse of white light is incident
electric field oscillates sinusoid ally with from air to a gl ass slab at no rmal
a frequency of 2 1018 Hz and amplitude incidence. After travelling through the
48 V/m not complete slab, the first colour to emerge is
16. Estimate the distance for which ray optics (a) blue (b) green.
is good approximation for an aperture of
(c) violet (d) red
4mm and wavelength 400 nm.
2. An object approaches a convergent lens
17. Consider i nterference between two from the left of the lens with a uniform
sources of intensities I and 4I. What will speed 5 m/s and stops at the focus. The
be the intensity at points where phase image
differences are
(a) moves away from the lens with an
(a) (b) uniform speed 5 m/s.
2
18. In double-slit experiment using light of (b) moves away from the lens with an
wavelength 600 nm. The angular width uniform acceleration.
of a fringe formed on a distant screen is (c) moves away from the lens with a non-
0.1°. What is the spacing between the two uniform acceleration.
slits? (d) moves towards the lens with a non-
19. In Young’s double-slit experiemnt using uniform acceleration.
monochromatic light of wavelength , the 3. A passenger in an aeroplane shall
intensity of light at a point on the screen (a) never see a rainbow.
where path difference is , is K units. (b) may see a primary and a secondary
rainbow as concentric circles.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(c) may see a primary and a secondary
rainbow as concentric arcs.
(d) shall never see a secondary rainbow.
4. You are given four sources of light each
one providing a light of a single colour –
red, blue, green and yellow. Suppose the
angle of refraction for a beam of yellow
light corresponding to a particular angle
of incidence at the interface of two media
(a) 1 (b) 2
is 90°. Which of the following statements
is correct if the source of yellow light is (c) 3 (d) 4
replaced with that of other lights without 7. An ice cube has a bubble inside. When
changing the angle of incidence? viewed from one side the apparent
(a) The beam of red light would undergo distance of the bubble is 12 cm. When
viewed from the opposite side, the
total internal reflection.
apparent distance of the bubble is
(b) The beam of red light would bend
observed as 4 cm. If the side of the ice
towards normal while it gets refracted
cube is
through the second medium.
24cm, the refractive index of the ice cube
(c) The beam of blue light would undergo
is
total internal reflection. 3 2
(a) (b)
(d) The beam of green light would bend 2 3
away from the normal as it gets 6 4
(c) (d)
refracted through the second medium. 5 3
8. An object is placed on the principal axis
5. The radius of curvature of the curved of a concave mirror at a distance of 1.5 f(f
surface of a plano-convex lens is 20 cm. is the focal length). The image will be at,)
If the refractive index of the material of (a) 3f (b) –3f
the lens be 1.5, it will (c) 1.5 f (d) – 1.5 f
(a) act as a convex lens only for the objects Each question consists of two statements,
that lie on its curved side. namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
(b) act as a concave lens for the objects correct answer, use the following code:
that lie on its curved side. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
and Reason is a correct explanation of
(c) act as a convex lens irrespective of
Assertion.
the side on which the object lies.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(d) act as a concave lens irrespective of
but Reason is not a correct explanation
side on which the object lies.
of Assertion.
6. The direction of ray of light incident on a (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
concave mirror is shown by PQ while
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
directions in which the ray would travel
9. Assertion: The size of the mirror affect
after reflection is shown by four rays the natuer fo the iamge.
marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 which of the four
Reason: Small mirrors always form a
rays correctly shows the direction of virtual image.
reflected ray?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
10. Assertion: Optical fibres make use of total focal length is 0.3 m and the refractive
internal reflection. index of the material of the lens is 1.5
Reason: Light undergoes successive total 16. Show that the limiting value of the angle
internal reflections as it moves through of prism is twice its critical angle. Hence
an optical fibre. define critical angle.
11. The line AB in the ray diagram represents 17. A card sheet divided into squares each of
a lens. State whether the lens is convex size 1mm2 is being viewed at a distance
or concave? of 9 cm through a magnifying glass (a
converging lens of focal length 9 cm) held
close to the eye.
(a) What is the magnification produced by
the lens? How much is the area of each
square in the virtual image?
(i)
(b) What is the angular magnification
(magnifying power) of the lends
18. A beam of light converges at a point P.
Now a lens is placed in the path of the
convergent beam 12 cm from P. At what
point does the beam converge if the lens
is
(a) a convex lens of focal length 20 cm
(ii) (b) a concave lens of focal length 16 cm
19. a converging lens of focal length 6.25 cm
is used as a magnifying glass if near point
of the observer is 25 cm from the eye and
12. (a) Write the necessary conditions for the the lens is held close to the eye. Calculate
phenomenon of total interal reflection (a) distance of object from the lens
to occur. (b) angular magnification
(b) Write the relation between refractie 20. An equiconvex lens of radius of curvature
index and critical angle for a given pair R is cut into two equal parts by a vertical
of optical media. plane, so it becomes a plano-convex lens.
13. Gi ve reason s fo r th e fol lo wi ng If f is the focal length of equiconvex lens,
observations on the surface of the moon then what will be focal length of the
(a) Sunrise and sunset are abrupt planoconvex lens?
(b) Sky appears dark 21. A lens forms a real image of an object.
(c) a rainbow is never formed. The distance of the object, from the lens
14. An object of size 3.0 cm is placed 14 cm is u cm and the distance of the image from
in front of a concave lens of focal length the lens is v cm. The given graph shows
21 cm. Describe the image produced by the variation of v and u.
the lens. What happens if the object is
moved further away from the lens?
15. Find the radius of curvature of the convex
surface of a plane convex lens, whose
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(a) What is the nature of the lens? (a) n = 1 (b) n = 2
(b) Using the graph find the focal length (c) n = 3 (d) n = 4
of the lens? 7. Light energy emited by star is due to
22. A small candle, 2.5 cm in size is placed at (a) breaking of nuclei
27 cm in front of a concave mirror of (b) joiing of nuclei
radius of curvature 36 cm. At what (c) burning of nuclei
distance from the mirror should a screen (d) reflection of solar light
be placed in order to obtain a sharp image? 8. Fast neutron can easily be slowed down by
Describe the nature and size of the image. (a) the use fo lead shielding
If the candle is moved closer to the mirror, (b) passing them through water
how would the screen have to be moved? (c) elastic collisions with heavy nuclei
CHAPTER-8 (d) applying a strong electric field
Each question consists of two statements,
DUAL NATURE ATOMS AND NUCLEI
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
1. In photoelectric effect, the photoelectric
correct answer, use the following code:
current is independent of (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(a) intensity of incident light and Reason is a correct explanation of
(b) potential difference applied between Assertion.
the two electrodes (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(c) the nature of emitter material but Reason is not a correct explanation
(d) frequency of incident light of Assertion.
2. The rest mass of photon is (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
hv mnh
(a) (b) 9. Assertion : Nu cl ear fo rce be tw ee n
c
neutron-neutron, proton-neutron and
hv nh
(c) (d) proton-proton is approximately the same
m
Reason: The nuclear force does not
3. Th e matter wave pi cture of
el ectromagn etic w ave/radiati on depend on the electric charge.
elegantly incorporated the 10. Assertion: Binding energy per nucleon is
(a) Heinsenberg’s uncertainty principle nearly constant for element in the range
(b) correspondence principle A = 30 to A = 170
(c) cosmic theory
Reason: The nuclear force between two
(d) Hertz’s observations
4. The wavelength limit present in the Pfund nucleons falls rapidly to zero as their
series is distance is more than a few femtometres.
( R 1.097 107 m 1 ) 11. Define Bohr’s radius
(a) 1572 nmn (b) 1898 nm 12. What fraction of tritium will remain after
(c) 2278 nm (d) 2535 nm 25 years? Given the half life of tritium as
5. In the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, 12.5 years.
the lowest orbit corresponds to 13. An electron and an alpha particle have
(a) infinite energy th e same de Bro gl ie wave le ng th
(b) maximum energy associated with them? How are their
(c) minimum energy kinetic energies related to each other?
(d) zero energy 14. Assu me that th e freque ncy of the
6. A triply ionized beryllium (Be 3+) has the radiation incident on a metal plate is
same orbital radius as the ground state greater than its threshold frequency. How
of hydrogen. Then the quantum state n
will the following change, if the incident
of Be3+ is
radiation is doubled?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(a) Kinetic energy of electrons CHAPTER-9
(b) Photoelectric current SEMICONDUCTOR
15. A difference of 2.3 eV separates two 1. In good conductors of electricity the type
energy levels in an atom. What is the of bonding that exist is
radiation frequency when the atom (a) Van der Walls (b) covalent
transitions from the upper level to the (c) ionic (d) metallic
lower level? 2. If the energy of a photon of sodium light
16. De fi ne thresho ld wave le ng th for ( = 589 nm) equals the band gap of
ph otoe le ctri c effe ct? de Bro gl ie semiconductor, the minimum energy
wavelength associated with an electron required to create hole electron pair
associated through a potential difference (a) 1.1 eV (b) 2.1 eV
(c) 3.2 eV (d) 1.5 eV
V is . What will be the new wavelength
3. Potential barrier developed in a junction
wh en the acce le rati ng po te ntial is
diode opposes the flow of
increase to 4V? (a) minority carrier in both regions only
17. A 12.5 eV electron beam is used to (b) majority carriers only
bombard gaseous hydrogen at room (c) electrons in p region
temperature. What series of wavelengths (d) holes in p region
will be emitted? 4. In a half wave rectifier circuit operating
from 50 Hz mai ns freque ncy, the
18. A hydrogen atom initially in the ground fundamental frequency in the ripple would be
level absorbs a photon, which excites it (a) 25 Hz (b) 50 Hz
to the n = 4 l evel . D etermi ne the (c) 70.7 Hz (d) 100 Hz
wavelength and frequency of the photon. 5. Which of the following is correct for n-type
semiconductor?
19. Calculate the
(a) electron is the majoriaty carriers and
(a) momentum, and trivalent atoms are dopants
(b) de Broglie wavelength of the electrons (b) electrons are majority carriers and
accelerated thro ugh a po tential pentavalent atoms are dopants
difference of 56 V. (c) holes are majoriaty carriers and
pentavalent atoms are dopants
20. The wavelength of light from the spectral
(d) holes are majo rity carriers and
emission line of sodium is 589 nm. Find trivalent atoms are dopants
the kinetic energy at which 6. If a small amounta of antimony is added
(a) an electron and to germanium crystral
(a) its resistance is increased
(b) a neutron, would have the same de
(b) it becomes a p-type semiconductor
Broglie wavelength (c) there will be moe free electrons than
21. Light of wavelength 488 nm is produced holes in the semiconductor
by an argon laser which is used in the (d) none of these
photoelectric effect. When light from this 7. Hole is
(a) an anti-particle of electron
spectral line is incident on the emitter,
(b) a vacancy created when an electron
th e stoppi ng ( cu t-o ff) po te ntial of leaves a covalent bond
photoelectrons is 0.38 V. Find the work (c) absence of free electrons
function of the material from which the (d) an artificially created particle
emitter is made. 8. A potential barrier of 0.50 V exists in a
p-n junction. if the depletion region is
22. The equivalent energy of 1 g of substance is
5.0 107 m thick, what is the electric field
(a) 9 1013 J (b) 6 1012 J
in this region?
(c) 3 1013 J (d) 6 1013 J (a) 106 V/m (b) 107 V/m
(c) 105 V/m (d) 104 V/m
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
Directions: These questions consist of two 17. If the ratio of the concentration of
statements, each printed as Assertion and el eclron s to that o f ho le s in a
Reason. While answering these questions, you semiconductor is 7/5 and the ratio of
are required to choose any one of the following current is 7/4 then find the ratio of their
four responses. drift velocityes?
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct 18. A ph otodio de i s fabri cate d from a
and the Reason is a correct explanation semiconductor with band gap of 2.8 eV.
of the Assertion. Can it detect on wavelength of 6000 nm?
Justify
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct
but Reason is not a correct explanation 19. The graph shown in the figure represents
a plot of current versus voltage for a given
of the Assertion.
semi-conductor. Indentifty the region, if
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
any over which the semi-conductor has a
incorrect.
negative resistance
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are
incorrect.
9. Assertion: The thickness of depletion
layer is fixed in all semiconductor devices.
R eason: Free charg e carrie rs are
available in depletion layer.
10. Assertion : Th e co nducti vi ty o f an
intrinsic semiconductor depends on its
temperature
Reason: No important electronic devices
can be devel oped u si ng i ntri nsic
semiconductor.
11. Explain the formation of the barrier 20. In the figure, potential difference between
potential in a p-n junction.. A and B is-:
12. Explain the term ‘depletion layer’ and
potential barrier’ in a p-n junction diode
in forward biasing and draw its I-V
characteristics.
13. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram,
the working of a p-n junction diode as a
half-wave rectifier.
14. Distinguish between a metal and an
insulator on the basis of energy band
diagram
15. (a) Explain the formation of a p-n 21. Draw the circuit diagram of a full-wave
junction.. rectifier using P– n junction diode. Explain
(b) Can we take one slab of P-type its working and shown the output and
semiconductor and physically join it to Input wave forms
another n-type semiconductor to get a p-
n junction? Explain. 22. What are logic gates? Define five common
16. Name the important processes that occurs lo gi c gate s th at are of sig ni fi cant
during the formation of a p-n junction. importance.
Explain briefly, with the help of a suitable
diagram, how a p-n junction is formed .
Define the term “barrier potential”?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER-1 SOLUTION Reason: If a non-volatile solute is added
1. A solution of glucose in water is labelled to a solvent to give a solution, the vapour
as 10% w/w, what would be the molality pressure of the solution is found to be
and mole fraction of each component in greater than the vapour pressure of the
th e so lu ti on ? If th e de nsity of pure solvent.
solution 1.2g mL1 , then what shall be the 7. Assertion: The boiling point of 200 mL
molarity of the solutions? of 1 M urea solution is less than that of
2. Two elements A and B form compounds 200 mL of 2 M glucose solution.
having AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in Reason: Elevation of boiling point is
20 g of benzene (C6H6), 1 g of AB2 lowers directly proportional to the number of
the freezing point by 2.3 K whereas 1.0 of species present in the solution.
AB 4 l ow ers it by 1.3 K. The mol ar 8. Read the passage given below and
depression constant for benzene is 5.1 kg answer the following questions:
mol-1. Calculate atomic masses of A and The properties of the solution which
B. depend only on the number of solute
particles but not on the nature of the
3. Suggest the most important type of
solute are called colligative properties.
intermolecular attractive interaction in
Relative lowering in vapour pressure is
the following pats.
also an example of colligative properties.
For an experiment, sugar solution is
(i) n-hexane and n-octane
prepared for which lowering in vapour
(ii) I2 and CCl4 pressure was found to be 0.061 mm Hg
(Vapour pressure of water at 20° C is 17.5
(iii)NaClO4 and water mm of Hg.)
(i) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
(iv) acetonitrile (CH3CN) and acetone for the given solution is:
(C3H6O). (a) 0.00348 (b) 0.061
(v) acetonitrile (CH 3 CN) and acetone (c) 0.122 (d) 1.75
(C3H6O).
(ii) The vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of
4. Nalo rphe ne ( C 19 H 21 NO 3 ), simil ar to solution will be:
morphine, is used to combat withdrawal
symptoms in narcotic users. Dose of (a) 17.5 (b) 0.061
nalorphene generally given is 1.5 mg. (c) 17.439 (d) 0.00348
Calculate the mass of 1.5 × 10-3 m (iii)Mole fraction of sugar in the solution
aqueous solution required for the above is:
dose. (a) 0.00348 (b) 0.9965
(c) 0.061 (d) 1.75
5. Calculate the depression in the freezing OR
point of water when 10 g of (i) If weight of sugar taken is 5 g 108 g of
CH3CH2CHClCOOH is added to 250 g of water then molar mass of sugar will be:
water. Ka = 1.4 × 10-3, Kf = 1.86 K kg (a) 358 (b) 120
mol-1. (c) 240 (d) 400
(ii) The vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of
6. Assertion: The pressure exerted by the
water at 293 K when 25 g of glucose is
vapour in equilibrium with a liquid at a dissolved in 450g of water is:
given temperature is called is (a) 17.2 (b) 17.4
vapour pressure. (c) 17.120 (d) 17.02
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
9. Read the passage given below and answer (c) about three times
the following questions: Few colligative (d) about six times
properties are: 12. Which of the following statements is
(a) relative lowering of vapour pressure : false?
depends only on molar concentration (a) Units of atmospheric pressure and
of sol ute (mole fractio n) and osmotic pressure are the same.
independent of its nature.
(b) In reverse osmosis, solvent molecules
(b) depression in freezing point it is
move through a semipermeable
proporti on al to the mol al
membrane from a region of lower
conccentration of solution.
concentration of solute to a region of
(c) elevation of boiling point : it is
higher concentration.
proporti on al to the mol al
concentration of solute. (c) Th e valu e of mo lal de pressi on
(d) osmotic pressure : it is proportional to constant depends on nature of
the molar concentration of solute. solvent.
The following questions are multiple (d) Relative lowering of vapour pressure,
choice questions. Choose the most is a dimensionless quantity.
appropriate answer 13. We have three aqueous solutions of NaCl
(i) Relative lowering of vapour pressure labe ll ed as ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ w ith
of asolution is given by: concentrations 0.1M, 0.01M and 0.001M,
p0 ps p0 ps respectively. The value of van’t Hoff factor
(a) p0
(b) ps fo r th ese sol utio ns w ill be in the
order______.
p0 p0 ps (a) i A < i B < i C (b) i A > iB > iC
(c) p (d) p p
s s 0 (c) i A = i B = i C (d) i A < i B > i C
(ii) Boiling part of water on addition of 14. The freezing point depression for water
NaCl is 1.86° C/m. If 5.00 g of Na 2SO 4 is
(a) Increases dissolved in 45.00 g H 2O, the freezing
(b) Decreases point is changed by –3.82°C, calculate the
(c) Remains constant van’t Hoff factor for Na2SO4.
(d) First increases then decreases
(a) 0.381 (b) 2.05
(iii)Which of the following will be having
highest freezing part: (c) 2.63 (d) 3.11
(a) 1 M NaCl (b) 1 M Na2SO4 15. On mixing, octane and heptane form an
(c) 1 M Na3PO4 (d) 1 M Glucose ideal solution. At 373 K, the vapour
(iv) Duri ng osmo sis the pressure is pressure of two liquid components (octane
applied on which compartment. and heptane) are 45 kPa and 105 kPa
(a) Concentrated respectively. Vapour pressure of the
(b) Dilute solution obtained by mixing 25 g of
(c) First Concentrated and then dilute heptane and 35 g of octane will be (molar
(d) First dilute and then Concentrated mass of heptane = 100 g mol-1 and octane
10. Which of the following aqueous solutions = 114 g mol-1)
should have the highest boiling point?
(i) 1.0 M NaOH (ii) 1.0 M Na2SO4 (a) 144.5 kPa (b) 72.0 kPa
(iii) 1.0 M NH4NO3 (iv) 1.0 M KNO3
(c) 36.1 kPa (d) 96.2 kPa
11. In comparison to a 0.01 M solution of
glucose, the depression in freezing point 16. A solution containing 0.072 g atom of S
of a 0.01 M MgCl2 sol utio n is in 100 g of a solvent (Kf = 7.0) gave a F.
_____________. P. depression of 0.84°C, the molecular
(a) the same formula of sulphur in solution is:
(b) about twice
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(a) S 6 (b) S r G of cell reaction is an extensive
(c) S 5 (d) S 9 propertry.
17. Benzoic acid undergoes dimerisation in
(d) Ecell is an extensive property while r G
benzene solution. The Van’t Hoff factor
of cell reaction is an intensive prop-
‘i’ is related to the degree of dissociation
erty.
x of the acid as:
3. Using the data given below find out the
(a) i = (1 – x) (b) i = 1 + x strongest reducing agent.
x x
E Cr 1.33V
E Cl 1.36V
(c) i 1 (d) i 1 O2 /Cr 3
2 7 2 /Cl
2 2
18. Components of a binary mixture of two E MnO
/Mn2
1.51V E Cr 3
/Cr
0.74V
4
liquids A and B were being separated by
(a) Cl (b) Cr
distillation. After some time separation
of components stopped and composition (c) Cr3+ (d) Mn2+
of vapour phase became same as that of 4. 0m NH4OH is equal to ___________________.
liquid phase. Both the components started
0 0 0
coming in the distillate. Explain why this (a) m NH4OH m NH4Cl HCl
happened. 0 0 0
(b) m NH4Cl m NaOH NaCl
19. Explain why on addition of 1 mol of NaCl
to 1 litre of water, the boiling point of water 0 0 0
(c) m NH4Cl m NaCl NaOH
increases, while addition of 1 mol of
0 0 0
methyl alcohol to one litre of water (d) m NH4Cl mNaCl NH4Cl
decreases its boiling point.
5. The electrode potentials for
20. Concentration terms such as mass
percentage, ppm, mole fraction and Cu2 aq e Cu aq and
molality are independent of temperature,
Cu aq e Cus are 0.15V and 0.50V
ho we ve r mo lari ty is a fun ctio n of
temperature. Explain.
respectively. The value of E Cu2 /Cu will be:
21. 0.90 g of a non-electrolyte was dissolved
(a) 0.150 V (b) 0.500 V
in 87.90g of benzene. This raised the
(c) 0.325 V (d) 0.650 V
boiling point of benzene by 0.25°C. If the
molecular mass of non-electrolyte is 6. Give n, E I 1M 0.54 V, and
2 /I
103.0 g/mo l, cal cu late the mol al
elevation constant for benzene? E Br /Br 1M 1.09 V
2
22. What is the significance of Henry’s Law On this bsis the feasible reaction is:
constant KH? (a) 2Br I2 Br2 2I
CHAPTER-2
(b) I2 2Br 2I Br
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
(c) 2I Br I2 2Br
1. An electrochemical cell can behave like an
electrolytic cell when__________. (d) 2I 2Br I2 Br2
(a) Ecell = 0 (b) Ecell > Eext 7. Calculate the standard cell potential for
th e fo llow ing Galvanic cel l,
(c) Eext > Ecell (d) Ecell = Eext
Cr|Cr 3 ||Cd 2 |Cd
2. Which of the following statement is cor-
rect? Given,E 3 0.74V and E 2 0.40 V
Cr /Cr Cd /Cd
(a) Ecell and r G of cell reaction both are
(a) 0.74 V (b) 0.34 V
extensive properties.
(c) 0.34 V (d) 1.14 V
(b) Ecell and r G of cell reaction both are
intensive properties
(c) Ecell is an intensive property while
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
Each question consists of two statements, 0 H 349.6 S cm2 mol 1 and
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
0 HCOO 54.6 S cm 2 mol 1 .
correct answer, use the following code: 16. How much electricity is required in cou-
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true lomb for the oxidation of
(i) 1 mol of H2O to O2?
and Reason is a correct explanation of (ii) 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3?
Assertion. 17. Read the passage given below and
answer the following questions:
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
but Reason is not a correct explanation Molar conductivity of ions are given as
product of charge on ions to their ionic
of Assertion. mobilities and faraday’;s constant.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false. An nAn F here is theionicmobility of An
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
8. Assertion: Ecell should have a positive Fo r el ectrol ytes say A xB y , mo lar
value for the cell to function. conductivity is given by
Reason: Ecathode < Eanode
9. Assertion: E Ag /Ag increases with increase mA
xB y
x n An F y m A m F
in concentration of Ag+ ions.
Reason: E Ag /Ag has a positive value. Ions Ionic mobility
10. Aqueous copper sulphate solution and K+ 7.616 × 10-4
aqueous silver nitrate solution are
electrolysed by 1ampere current for 10
Ca 2+ 12.33 × 10-4
minutes in separate electrolytic cells. Will
the mass of copper and sil ver de-
posited on the cathode be same or differ- Br- 8.09 × 10-4
ent? Explain your answer.
11. A galvanic cell has electrical potential of SO24 16.58 × 10-4
1.1V. If an opposing potential of 1.1V is The following questions are multiple
applied to this cell, what will happen to
the cell reaction and current flowing choice questions. Choose the most
through the cell? appropriate answer:
12. Solutions of two electrolytes ‘A’ and ‘B’ are (i) At infinite dilution, the equivalent
diluted. The m of 'B ' increases 1.5 conductance of CaSO4 is:
times while that of A increases 25 times. (a) 256 × 10-4 (b) 279
Which of the two is a strong electrolyte?
(c) 23.7 (d) 2.0 × 10-8
Justify your answer.
13. Un der what co ndition is (ii) If the degree of dissociation of CaSO4
ECell 0 or r G 0 ? solution is 10% then equivalent
14. The cell in which the following reaction conductance of CaSO4 is:
occurs (a) 3.59 (b) 36.9
3 2
2Fe aq 2I aq 2Fe aq I2 s h a s (c) 27.9 (d) 30.6
E cell 0.236 V at 298 K . OR
Calculate standard Gibbs energy and equi- Th e co rrect order o f equi vale nt
librium constant for the reaction. conductance at infinite dilution of LiCl,
15. The molar conductance of 0.025 mol L-1 of
NaCl, KCl is:
methanoic acid is 46.1 Scm2 mol-1. Cal-
culate its agree of dissociation and (a) LiCl = NaCl = KCl
di ssociati on constant. Given (b) LiCl > NaCl > KC
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(c) KCl > LiCl > NaCl (iii)The equilibrium constant for the
(d) KCl > NaCl > LiCl following reaction is:
(iii)Wh at i s the u ni t of equi vale nt Ce3 Fe 3
Fe2 Ce 4
conductivity?
(Given,
(a) ohm-1cm2eq-1 (b) ohm cm2eq-1
ECe4 /Ce3 1.44 V and EFe3 /Fe2 0.68V )
(c) ohm-1cm eq-1 (d) ohm cm-2eq-1
(a) 7.6 × 1012 (b) 6.5 × 1010
(iv) If the molar conductance value of Ca2+ (c) 5.2 ×109 (d) 3.4 × 1012
and Cl- at infinite dilution are 118.88 × OR
10-4 m2 mho mol-1 and 77.33 × 10-4 m2 mho
mo l -1 re specti ve ly the n th e mo lar The solubility product of a saturated
conductance of CaCl 2 (in m2 mho mol-1) solution of Ag2CrO4 in water at 298 K if
will be: the emf of the cell
(a) 120.18 × 10-4 (b) 135 × 10-4 Ag|Ag satd. Ag2CrO4 soln||Ag 0.1M Ag
is 0.164 V at 298 K, is:
(c) 120.18 × 10-4 (d) 192.1 × 10-4
(a) 3.359 1012 mol 3L3
18. Read the passage given below and answer
(b) 2.287 1012 mol3 L3
the following questions:
(c) 1.158 1012 mol3L3
The electrochemical cell shown below is (d) 4.135 1012 mol3L3
concentration cell.
(iv) To calculate the emf of the cell, which
M|M2+ (saturated solution of a sparingly of the following options is correct?
soluble salt, MX2) ||m2+ (0.001 mol (a) emf Ecathode Eanode
dm-3)|M (b) emf Eanode Ecathode
(c) emf Eanode Ecathode
The emf of the cell depends on the
(d) None of these
difference in concentration of M2+ ions at
19. A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolysed be-
the two electrodes. The emf of the cell at
tween platinum electrodes using a cur-
298 K is 0.059 V. rent of 5 amperes for 20 minutes. What
mass of Ni is deposited at the cathode?
The following questions are multiple
20. Write the Nernst equation and emf of the
choice questions. Choose the most
following cells at 298 K:
appropriate answer:
(a) Mg s |Mg 2 0.001M ||Cu2 0.0001 M |Cu s
3 -9
(i) The solubility product (Ksp, mol dm ) (b) Fe s |Fe 2 0.0 01 M ||H 1M |H 2 g 1 bar |Pt s
of M X 2 at 298 K bases on the
(c) Sn s |Sn2 0.050M||H 0.020M|H2 g 1bar |Pt s
concentration cell is (take 2.303 × R
× 298/F = 0.059) (d) Pt s |Br 0.010 M |Br2 1||H 0.030 M|H2 g 1bar |Pt s
21. The resistance of a conductivity cell con-
(a) 2 × 10-15 (b) 4 × 10-15 taining 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K is
(c) 3 × 10-12 (d) 1 × 10-12 1500 . What is the cell constant if con-
ductivity of 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K
is 0.146 10-3S cm-1
(ii) The value of G in kJ mol for the
1
22. Given the standard electrode potentials.
given cell is (take 1 F = 96500 C mol-1)
K / K 2.93V, Ag / Ag 0.80V
(a) 3.7 (b) –3.7
(c) 10.5 (d) – 11.4 Hg 2 / Hg 0.79V
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
Mg 2 / Mg 2.37 V. Cr 3 / Cr 0.74V (d) Further increase in pressure will
change the rate of reaction.
Arrange these metals in their increasing
order of reducing power. 6. For a reaction, P Q R S .
CHAPTER-3 The curve which depicts the variation of
the concentration of products is:
CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. Rate law for the reaction A 2B C
is found to be: Rate = k[A][B]
Concentration of reactant ‘B’ is doubled,
keeping the concentration of ‘A’ constant,
the value of rate constant will be____.
(a) the same (b) doubled (a) P (b) Q
(c) quadrupled (d) halved (c) R (d) S
2. A first order reaction is 50% completed in
1.26 × 1014 s. How much time would it take 7. In reaction, 2 x y , the concentra-
for 100% completion? tion of x decreases from 3.0 M to 1.5 M in
(a) 1.26 × 1015 s (b) 2.52 × 1014 s 4 min. The rate of the reaction is:
(c) 2.52 × 1028 s (d) infinite (a) 0.187 M min-1
3. Which of the following statement is not (b) 1.87 M min-1
correct for the catalyst? (c) 2.75 × 10-1M min-1
(a) It catalyses the forward and backward (d) 0.75 M min-1
reaction to the same extent 8. For the reaction,
(b) It alters G of the reaction 5Br BrO3 6H 3Br2 3H2 O
(c) It is a substance that does not change if
the equilibrium constant of a reaction.
(d) It provides an alternate mechanism d Br d BrO3
k1 Br , k 2 Br ,
by reducing activation energy be- dt dt
tween reactants and products.
4. The value of rate constant of a pseudo first d Br2
k 3 Br then k1, k2 and k3 are
order reaction__________. dt
(a) depends on the concentration of reac- related as:
tants present in small amount (a) k1 = 5k2 = 1.66 k3
(b) depends on the concentration of reac- (b) 3k1 = k2 = 5k3
tants present in excess. (c) 5k1 = 3k2 = k3
(c) is independent of the concentration of (d) k1 = k2 = k3
reactants. Each question consists of two statements,
(d) depends only on temperature.
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
5. At high pressure the following reaction is
zero order. correct answer, use the following code:
1130 K
2NH3 g N2 g 3H2 g (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
Platium catalyst
and Reason is a correct explanation of
Which of the following options are correct
for this reaction? Assertion.
(a) Rate of reaction = Rate constant
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(b) Rate of the reaction depends on con-
centration of ammonia but Reason is not a correct explanation
(c) Rate of decomposition of ammonia will of Assertion.
remain constant until ammonia dis-
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
appears completely
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
17. Read the passage given below and answer
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
the following questions:
9. Assertion: All collision of reactant mol-
A reaction is said to be the first order if
ecules lead to product formation.
the rate of the reaction depends upon one
Reason: Only those collisions in which
molecules have correct orientation and concentration term only. For a first order
sufficient kinetic energy lead to compound reaction of the type A Products, the
formation. rate of the reaction is given as: Rate= k
10. Assertion: Rate constants determined [A]. The differential rate law is given as:
from Arrhenius equation are fairly accu-
rate for simple as well as complex mol- dA
k A . The integrated rate law is:
ecules. dt
Reason: Reactant molecules undergo
chemical change irrespective of their ori- ln
A kt
, wh ere [A ] is the
entation during collision. A 0
11. For a zero orde r re acti on w ill the
concentration of reactant left at time t
molecularity be equal to zero? Explain.
and [A]0 is the initial concentration of the
12. For a general reaction A B , plot of
reactant , k is the rate constant.
concentration of A vs time is given in
figure. Answer the following question on The following equations are multiple
the basis of this graph. choice questions the most appropriate
(a) What is the order of the reaction? answer:
(b) What is the slope of the curve? (i) The unit of rate constant for a order
(c) What are the units of rate constant? reaction is:
(a) s-1 (b) mol L1 s1
(b) L1 mol s1 (d) L2 mol 2 s 1
(ii) Half-life period of a first order reaction
is 10 mi n. S tartin g wi th i ni ti al
concentration 12M, the rate after 20
min is:
13. Fo r th e re acti on
(a) 0.693 × 3 M min-1
O3 (b) 0.0693 × 4 M min-1
3O2 g ,
2O3 g was found to
t (c) 0.0693 M min-1
4
be 5.0 10 at m / s at m / s. (d) 0.0693 × 3 M min-1
O2 OR
Determine the value of in atm/s 50% of a first order reaction is complete
t
during this period of time? in 23 mi nu te s. Calcul ate th e ti me
14. A chemical reaction 2A 4B C in gas required to complete 90% of the reaction.
phase occurs in a closed vessel. The con- (a) 70.4 minutes (b) 76.4 minutes
centration of B is found to be increased by (c) 38.7 minutes (d) 35.2 minutes
5 × 10 mol L-1 in 10 second. (iii)Fo r a fi rst o rder re acti on
15. For the reaction A B C D , the rate of
A products, the concentration of A
reaction doubles when the concentration
of A doubles, provided the concentration changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40
of B is constant. To what order does. A minutes. The rate of reaction when the
enter into the rate expression? concentration of A is 0.01 M, is:
16. Draw a graph for
(a) 3.47 × 10-4 M/min
(a) Concentration of reactant agains time
for a zero order reaction. (b) 3.47 × 10-5 M/min
(b) Log [R0]/[R] against time for a first or- (c) 1.73 × 10-4 M/min
der reaction. (d) 1.73 × 10-5 M/min
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
18. Read the passage given below and the 21. Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into
following questions: glucose and fructose according to the first
Th e fo ll ow in g re acti on , order rate law, with t1/2 = 3.00 hours. What
fraction of sample of sucrose remains af-
A g Pg Q g R g , fo ll ow s fi rst ter 8 hours?
order kinetics. The half-life 22. The rate constant for the first order de-
composition of H2O2 is given by the follow-
period of this reaction is 69.3s at 500 C . ing equation:
The gas A is enclosed in a container at log k = 14.34 – 1.25 × 104K/T
500°C and at a pressure of 0.4 atm. Calculate Ea for this reaction and at what
temperature will its half-life be 256 min-
The following questions are multiple
utes?
choice questions. Choose the most
CHAPTER-4
appropriate answer:
ALKYL HALIDES HALOALKANES
(i) The rate constant for the reaction is:
(a) 0.4 s-1 (b) 0.02 s-1 1. The order of reactivity of following alcohols
(c) 0.01 s-1 (d) 0.3 s-1 with halogen acids is ___________.
(A) CH3CH2— CH2— OH
OR
(B) CH CH CH OH
3 2
The pressure of the gas A after 230 s will be: |
(a) 0.04 atm (b) 0.36 atm CH3
(c) 0.4 atm (d) 0.036 atm
CH3
(ii) The total pressure of the system after |
230s will be: (C) CH3CH2 C OH
|
(a) 2.15 atm (b) 0.36 atm CH3
(c) 0.4 atm (d) 3.08 atm
(a) (A) > (B) > (C) (b) (C) > (B) > (A)
(iii)The plot of ln[A] vs t will be: (c (B) > (A) > (C) (d) (A) > (C) > (B)
(a) linear with slope = k 2. Which of the following alcohols will yield
the corresponding alkyl chloride on
(b) linear with intercept = ln [A]0 reaction with concentrated HCl at room
(c) linear with slope = ln [A]0 temperature?
(d) linear with intercept = [A]0 (a) CH3CH2 CH2 OH
(iv) Which of the following is not an
(b) CH3CH2 CH
|
OH
example of first reaction?
CH3
(a) C2H4g H2g C2H6 g
(c) CH CH CH CH OH
(b) 2N2O5g 4NO2g O2(g 3 2
|
2
Pt CH3
(c) 2NH3 g
N2 g 3H2 g
(d) 2N2O5 g 4NO2g O2 g CH3
|
19. What is the effect of temperature on the
(d) CH3CH2 C OH
rate constant of a reaction? How can this |
effect of temperature on rate constant be CH3
represented quantitatively?
20. A reaction is first order in A and second 3. Arrange the following compounds in the
order in B. increasing order of their densities.
(a) Write the differential rate equation.
(b) How is the rate affected on increasing
the concentration of B three times?
(c) How is the rate affected when the con (a) (b)
centrations of both A and B are
doubled?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
Each question consists of two statements,
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
(c) (d) correct answer, use the following code:
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(a) (a) > (b) < (c) < (d) (b) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b) and Reason is a correct explanation of
(c) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) (d) (b) < (d) < (c) < (a)
Assertion.
4. Arrange the following compounds in in-
creasing order of their boiling points. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
but Reason is not a correct explanation
(a) of Assertion.
(b) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
CH3
| 9. Assertion: It is difficult to replace chlo-
H C C CH3 ri ne by – OH i n ch loro benzene in
(c) 3
| comparrison to that in chloroethane.
Br
Reason: Chlorine-carbon (C –Cl) bond in
(a) (b) < (a) < (c) (b) (a) < (b) < (c) chlorobenzene has a partial double bond
(c) (c) < (a) < (b) (d) (c) < (b) < (a) character due to resonance.
5. Identify the compound Y in the following
10. Assertion: tert-Butyl bromide undergoes
reaction.
Wurtz reaction to g ive 2, 2, 3, 3-
tetramethylbutane.
Reason: Wurtz reaction, alkyl halides re-
act with sodium in dry ether to give
hydrocarbon containing double the num-
(a) (b) ber of carbon atoms present in the halide.
11. Which of the compounds will react faster
in SN1 reaction with the OH– ion?
CH3 CH2 Cl or C6H5 CH2 Cl
(c) (d)
12. Which of the following compounds (a) and
(b) will not react with a mixture of NaBr
6. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the pres-
and H2SO4. Explain why?
ence of iron (III) chloride giving ortho and
para halo compounds. The reaction is:
(a) Electrophilic elimination reaction (a) CH3CH2CH2OH (b)
(b) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(c) Free radical addition reaction 13. Which of the products will be major prod-
(d) Nucleophilic substitution reaction uct in the reaction given below? Explain.
7. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to un-
dergo_____________. CH3CH CH2 HI CH3CH2CH2I CH3CHICH3
(a) SN1 reaction A B
(b) SN2 reaction 14. Classify the following compounds as pri-
(c) Elimination mary, secondary and tertiary halides.
(d) Racemisation (a) 1-Bromobut-2-ene
8. Which of the following alkyl halides will (b) 4-Bromopent-2-ene
undergo SN1 reaction most readily?
(c) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
(a) CH3 3 C F (b) CH3 3 C Cl 15. Compound ‘A’ with molecular formula
C4H9Br is treated with sq. KOH solution.
(c) CH3 3 C Br (d) CH3 3 C I
The rate of this reaction depends upon
the concentration of the compound ‘A’ only.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
When another optically active isomer ‘B’ (a) CH3O (b) C 6H5O
of this compound was treated with sq. KOH
solution, the rate of reaction was found to (c) CH3 2 CHO (d) CH3 3 CO
be dependent on concentration of com-
(iv) Tertiary allkyl halides are practically
pound and KOH both.
inert to substitution by SN2 mechanism
(i) Write down the structural formula of because of
both compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’.
(a) insolubility
(ii) Out of these two compounds, which
(b) instability
one will be converted to the product
with inverted configuration. (c) inductive effect
(d) steric hindrance
16. Write the structures and names of the
compounds formed when compound ‘A’ OR
with molecu lar formula, C7H8 is treated Which of the following is the correct order
with Cl2 in the presence of FeCl3. of decreasing SN2 reactivity?
17. Read the passage gven below and answer (a) RCH2X > R2CHX> R3CX
the following questions (b) R3CX > R3CHX > RCH2X
Nucdeophilic substitution reactions are (c) R2CHX > R3CX > RCH2X
of two types; substitution nucleophilic (d) RCH2X > R3CX > R2CHX
bi mo le cu la ( S 2 ) an d su bsti tu ti on 18. Read the passage given below and
nu cl eo phi li c uni mo le cul ar ( S N 1) answer the following qustions :
depending on molecules taking part in A chlorocompound (A) on reduction with
de te rmin in g th e rate of reactio n. Zn-Cu and ethanol gives the hydrocarbon
Reactivity of alkyl halide towards SN1 and (B) with five carbon atoms. When (A) is
SN2 reactions depends on various factors dissolved in dry ether and treated with
such as steric hindrance stability of so di um metal it g ave 2,2,5,5-
intermediate or transition state and tetramethylhexane. The treatment of (A)
po larity o f sol ven t S N 2 reactio n with alcoholic KCN gives compound (C).
me chan ism is favoured mostly by The following questions are multiple
primary alkyl halide then seconaary and choice questions. Choose the most
then tertiary. This order is reversed in appropriate answer :
case of SN1 reactions (i) The compound (A) is
The following questions are multiple (a) 1-chloro-2, 2-dimethyl propane
ch oce qu estinn s. Choo se the mo st
(b) 1-chloro-2, 2-dimethyl butane
appropriate answer :
(c) 1-chloro-2-methyl butane
(i) Which of the following is most reactive
(d) 2-chloro-2-methyl butane
to wards nu cl eo phi li c su bsti tu ti on
(ii) The reaction of (C) with Na, C2H2OH
reaction?
gives
(a) C6H5Cl
(a) (CH3 )3 C CH2CONH2
(b) CH2 CHCl
(b) CH3 3 CNH2
(c) ClCH2CH CH2
(c) CH3 3 C CH2 CH2NH2
(d) CH3CH CHCl
(ii) Isopro py l ch lo ri de u ndergo es (d) CH3 2 CHCH2NH2
hydrolysis by (iii)The reaction of (A) with aq. KOH will
(a) SNl mechanism preferably favour
(b) SN2 mechanism
(c) SNl and SN2 mechanism (a) SN 2 mechanism
(d) neither SN1 nor SN2 mechanism (b) SN 2 mechanism
(iii)The most reactive nucleophile among
(c) E1 mechanism
the following is
(d) E2 mechanism
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(iv) Compound (B) is act with sodium hydroxide solution in
(a) n-pentane water?
(b) 2,2-dimethylpropane (a) C6H5OH (b) C6H5CH2OH
(c) (CH3)3COH (d) C2H5OH
(c) 2-methylbutane
3. Arrange the following compounds in in-
(d) none of these. creasing order of boiling point.
19. Predict all the alkenes that would be Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol,
formed by dehydrohalogenation of the fol- pentan-1-ol
lowing halides with sodium ethoxide in (a) Propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol,
ethanol and identify the major alkene. pentan-1-ol
(a) 1-Bromo-1-methylcyclohexane (b) Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol,
(b) 2-Chloro-2-methylbutane pentan-1-ol
(c) 2, 2, 3-Trimethyl-3-bromopentane (c) Pentan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol,
20. Explain why propan-1-ol
(a) the dipole moment of chlorobenzene (d) Prentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol,
is lower than that of cychlohexyl chlo- propan-1-ol
ride? 4. Mark the correct increasing order of re-
(b) alkyl halides, though polar, are immis- activity of the following compounds with
cible with water? HBr/HCl.
(c) Grignard reagents should be prepared
under anhydrous conditions?
21. The treatment of alkyl chlorides with
aqueous KOH leads to the formation of
alcohols but in the presence of alcoholic
KOH, alkenes are major products. Explain.
22. What happens when
(i) n-butyl chloride is treated with alcoholic
KOH,
(ii) bromobenzene is treated with Mg in
the presence of dry ether, (a) i < ii < iii (b) ii < i < iii
(iii) chlorobenzene is subjected to hydroly- (c) ii < iii < i (d) iii < ii < i
sis, 5. Give IUPAC name of the compound given
(iv) ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous below:
KOH,
CH3 CH CH2 CH2 CH CH3
(v) methyl bromide is treated with sodium | |
in the presence of dry ether, Cl OH
(vi) methyl chloride is treated with KCN? (a) 2-Chloro-5-hydroxyhexane
(b) 2-Hydroxy-5-chlorohexane
CHAPTER-5 (c) 5-Chlorohexan-2-ol
ALCOHOL, PHENOL & ETHER (d) 2-Chlorohexan-5-ol
1. Which of the following compounds is aro- 6. Phenol is less acidic than _____________.
matic alcohol? (a) ethanol
(b) o-nitrophenol
(c) o-methylphenol
(d) o-methoxyphenol
7. Which of the following species can act as
the strongest base?
(a)
OH (b)
OR
(a) A, B, C, D (b) A, D
(c) B, C (d) A (c)
OC6H5 (d)
2. Which of the following compounds will re-
8. Monochlorination of toluene in sunlight
followed by hydrolysis with aq. NaOH
yields.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(a) o-Cresol A compound (X) containing C, H and O is
(b) m-Cresol unreactive towards sodium. It also does
(c) 2, 4-Dihydroxytoluene not react with Schiff’s reagent. On reflux-
(d) Benzyl alcohol ing with an excess of hydroiodic acid, (X)
Each question consists of two statements, yields only one organic product (Y). On
hydrolysis, (Y) yields a new compound (Z)
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
which can be converted into (Y) by re-
correct answer, use the following code: action with red phosphorus and iodine.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true The compound (Z) on oxidation with
potassium permanganate gives a carboxy-
and Reason is a correct explanation of lic acid. The equivalent weight of this acid
Assertion. is 60.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true The following questions are multiple
but Reason is not a correct explanation choice questions. Choose the most appro-
priate answer:
of Assertion.
(i) The compound (X) is an:
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(a) acid (b) aldehyde
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. (c) alcohol (d) ether
9. Assertion: Addition reaction of water to
(ii) The IUPAC name of the acid formed is:
but-1-ene in acidic medium yields butan-
1-ol (a) methanoic acid
Reason: Addition of water in acidic me- (b) ethanoic acid
dium proceeds through the formation of (c) propanoic acid
primary carbocation.
(d) butanoic acid
10. Assertion: p-nitrophenol is more acidic
than phenol. (iii)Compound (Y) is:
Reason :Ni tro gro up hel ps i n the (a) ethyl iodide
stabilisation of the phenoxide ion by dis- (b) methyl iodide
persal of
(c) propyl iodide
negative charge due to resonance.
11. Why is the C-O-H bond angle in alcohols (d) mixture of (a) and (b)
slightly less than the tetrahedral angle 18. Read the passage given below and answer
where as the C–O–C bound angle in ether the following questions:
is slightly greater? An organic compound (A) having molecu-
12. Ethers can be prepared by williamson syn- lar formula C6H6O gives a characteristic
thesis in which an alkyl halide is reacted colour with aqueous FeCl3 solution. (A)
on treatement with CO2 and NaOH at 400
with sodium alkoxide. Di-tert-butyl ether
K under pressure gives a compound (C).
can’t be prepared by this method. Explain. The compound (C) react with acetyl chlo-
13. Explain why is OH group in phenols more ride to give (D) which is a popular pain
strongly held as compared to OH group in killer.
alcohols. The following questions are multiple
14. Arrange water, ethanol and phenol in in- choice questions. Choose the most appro-
creasing order of acidity and give reason priate answer:
for your answer. (i) Compound (A) is:
15. Alcohols react with active metals e.g. Na, (a) 2-hexanol
K etc. to give corresponding alkoxides. (b) dimethyl ether
Write down the decreasing order of reac- (c) phenol
tivity of sodium metal towards primary, (d) 2-methyl pentanol
secondary and tertiary alcohols.
OR
16. What is the structure and IUPAC name of Compound (C) is:
glycerol?
(a) salicylic acid
17. Read the passage given below and answer
(b) salicyladehyde
the following questions:
(c) benzoic acid
(d) benzaldehyde
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(ii) Number of carbon atoms in compound (b) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the
(D) is: presence of pyridine
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) Phenol and benzoyl chloride in the
presence of ZnCl2
(c) 8 (d) 9
(d) Phenol and benzaldehyde in the pres-
(iii) The conversion of compound (A) to (C) ence of palladium
is know as: 2. Can nizaro’s reactio n is not given
(a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction by__________.
(b) Kolbe’s reaction
(c) Schimdt reaction (a)
(d) Swarts reaction
(iv) Compound (A) on heating with com
pound (C) in presence of POCl3 gives a (b)
compound (D) which is used:
(a) in perfumery as a flavouring agent (c) HCHO
(b) as an antipyretic (d) CH3CHO
(c) as an analgesic 3. Addition of water to alkynes occurs in
acidic medium and in the presence of Hg2+
(d) as an intestinal antiseptic ions as a catalyst. Which of the following
19. (a) Name the starting material used in products will be formed on addition of wa-
the industrial preparation of phenol. ter to but-1-yne under these conditions.
(b) Write complete reaction for the bro- O
mination of phenol in aqueous and non ||
aqueous medium. (a) CH3 CH2 CH2 C H
(c) Explain why Lewis acid is not required
O
in bromination of phenol? ||
20. Write the menchanism of the reaction of (b) CH3 CH2 C CH3
H1 with methoxybenzene.
O
21. How are the following conversions carried ||
out? (c) CH3 CH2 C OH CO2
(i) Propene Propan-2-ol.
O O
(ii) Benzyl chloride Benzyl alcohol. || ||
(iii) Ethyl magnesium chloride Propan (d) CH3 C OH H C H
1-ol. 4. Which of the following compounds is most
(iv) Methyl magnesium bromide reactive towards nucleophilic addition re-
2-Methylpropan-2-ol. actions?
22. Show how will you synthesise: O
(a) ||
(i) 1-phenylethanol from a suitable alkene.
CH3 C H
(ii) cyclohexylmethanol using an alkyl
halide by an SN2 reaction. O
(iii) pentan-1-ol using a suitable alkyl (b) ||
halide? CH3 C CH3
CHAPTER-6
(c)
ALDEHYDE, KETONE & CARBOXYLIC ACID
O
1. Compound || can be prepared (d)
Ph O C Ph
byu the reaction of ___________. 5. The correct order of increasing acidic
(a) Phenol and benzoic acid in the pres- strength is ___________.
ence of NaOH (a) Phenol < Ethanol < Chloroacetic acid
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
< Acetic acid 9. Cynohydrin contain
(b) Ethanol < Phenol < Chloroacetic acid (a) one —OH and two—CN groups
< Acetic acid
(b) one —CN and two—OH groups
(c) Ethanol < Phenol < Acetic acid <
Chloroacetic acid (c) two F—CN groups
(d) Chloroacetic acid < Acetic acid < Phe- (d) one — OH and one — CN groups
nol < Ethanol
Each question consists of two statements,
6. In the reaction,
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
H3 C CH CH CH2 CH2 CN
correct answer, use the following code:
(i )AlH i Bu
2
(ii )H2O (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
Identify the product formed in the given
and Reason is a correct explanation of
reaction.
(a) H3C CH2CH2CH2CH2CN Assertion.
(b) H3C CH CH CH2CH2CHO (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(c) H3C CCH2CH2CH2CH2CHO but Reason is not a correct explanation
(d) None of the above of Assertion.
7. Select the structure of chromium complex
formed when the toluene reacts with (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
chromylchloride to give benzaldehyde on
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
hydrolysis.
10. Assertion: The hydrogen atom in car-
bonyl compounds is less acidic.
(a)
Reason: The anion formed after the loss
of hydrogen atom is resonance
stabilised.
(b) 11. Assertioin: Aromatic aldehydes and form-
aldehyde undergo Cannizaro reaction.
Reason: Aromatic aldehydes are almost
as reactive as formaldehyde.
(c)
12. Alkenes and carbonyl com-
pounds , both contain a bond but
alkenes show electrophilic addition reac-
(d)
tions whereas carbonly compounds show
nucleophilic addition reactions. Explain.
8. Which of the following reactions is/are 13. Oxidation of ketones involves carbon-car-
correct reagarding the preparation of ke- bon bond cleavage. Name the products
tone? formed on o xidation of
(a) Treatement of acyl chlorides with 2, 5-dimethylhexan-3-one.
dialkyl cadmium, prepared by the re- 14. Complete the following reaction sequence.
action of cadmium chloride with
Grignard reagent, gives ketones O
||
(b) When benzene or substituted benzene (i)CH3MgBr
CH3 C CH3
(ii)H2O
Nametal
(A)
Ether
CH3 Br
(B) C
is treated with acid chloride in the
presence of anhydrous aluminium 15. Why are carboxylic acids more acidic than
chloride, it gives the corresponding alcohols or phenols although all of them
ketone. this reaction is known as have hydrogen atom attached to a oxygen
Friedel-Craft’s acylation reaction atom (—O—H)?
(c) All of the above 16. Identify the compound A, B and C in the
following reaction.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
Mg/ether 2
i CO CH3 OH/H
CH3 — Br A
(ii) Water
B
C
17. Read the passage given below and answer (a)
the following questions:
(A), (B) and (C) are three non-cyclic func-
tional isomers of a carbonyl compound
with molecular formula C4H8O. Isomers (b)
(A) and (C) gives positive Tollen’s test
whereas isomer (B) does not give Tollen’s
test but gives positive iodoform test. Iso-
mers (A) and (B) on reduction wi th (c)
Zn(Hg)/conc. HCl give the same product
(D). The following questions are multiple (d) None of these
choice questions. Choose the most appro- 18. Read the passage given below and answer
priate answer: the following questions:
(i) Compound A is: Aldehydes and ketones are reduced to pri-
mary and secondary alcohols respectively
CH3 – CH – CHO by NaBH4 or LiAlH4 as well as catalytic
|
(a) hydrogenation. The carbonyl group of al-
CH3
dehydes and ketones is reduced to
(b) CH3CH2CH2CHO
group on treatment with Zn-Hg conc. HCl
O (Clemmensen reduc tion) or with hydra-
(c) ||
CH3 C CH2 CH3 zine followed by NaOH or KOH in highly
boiling solvent such as ethylene glycol
(d) None of these (Wolff-Kishner reduction). A l de h y de ds
OR differ from ketones in their oxidation re-
Compound (C) is: actions. Aldehydes are easily oxidised to
carboxylic acids on treatent with HNO3,
(a) iso-bytyraldehyde KMnO4, K2Cr2O7 etc. Even mild oxidised
(b) butyraldehyde under vigorous conditions i.e., strong
(c) crotonaldehyde oxidising agents and at elevated tempera-
(d) acrolein tures, to give mixture of carboxylic acids
having lesser number of C-atoms than the
(ii) Compound (B) can be obtained by: parent ketone.
dil.H SO HgSO
(a) CH3 C C CH2 333K
2
4 4
(i) Which of the following cannot be made
by reduction of ketone or aldehyde
Dry distill
(b) CH3CH2COO 2 Ca
with NaBH4 in methanol ?
(a) 1-Butanol
B2H6 /THF
(c) CH3 C C CH3
H2O2 /NaOH
(b) 2-Butanol
O3 (c) 2-Methyl-1-propanol
(d) CH3 CH CH CH3
Zn/H2O
(d) 2-Methyl-2-propanol
(iii)Out of (A), (B) and (C) isomers, which (ii) The carbonyl compound producing an
one is least reactive towards addition of optically active product by reaction
HCN? with LiAlH4 is:
(a) A (a) propanone
(b) B (b) butanone
(c) C (c) 3-pentanone
(d) All are equally reactive (d) benzophenone
(iv) What will be the product when (B) re- (iii)A substance C4H10O(X) yields on oxi-
acts with ethylene glycol in presence dation a compund C4H8O which gives an
of HCl oxime and a positive iodoform test. The
gas? substance X on treatment with conc.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
H2SO 4 gives C4H 8. The structure of the 22. Two moles of compound (A) on treatement
compound (X) is: with a strong base gives two compounds
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (B) and (C). The compound (B) on dehydro-
genation with Cu gives (A) while acidifi-
(b) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
cation of (C) gives carboxylic acid (D) hav-
(c) (CH3)3COH ing molecular formula CH2O2, Identify (A)
(d) CH3CH2–O–CH2CH3 to (D).
CHAPTER-7 AMINES
(iv) In the oxidation of by acidi- 1. Benzylamine may be alkylated as shown
fied K2Cr2O7, the products are: in the folowing equation:
O
(a) 14|| C 6H5CH2NH2 R — X C 6H5CHNHR
CH3 C OH and CH3CH2COOH
Which of the following alkylhalides is best
O
suited for this reaction through S N 1
|| 14 mechanism?
(b) CH CH – C– OH and CH CH
3 2 2 3 2 COOH (a) CH3Br (b) C6H5Br
(c) C6H5CH2Br (d) C2H5Br
14
(c) CH3CH2CH2COOH HCOOH 2. In order to prepare a 1° amine from an
alkyl halide with simultaneous addition
(d) None of these of one CH2 group in the
OR carbon chain, the reagent used as source
of nitrogen is __________.
The appropriate reagent for the following
transformation is: (a) Sodium amide, NaNH2
(b) Sodium azide, NaN3
(c) Potassium cyanide, KCN
(d) Potassium phthalimide, C6H4(CO)2N-K+
3. Amongs the given set of reactants, the
most appropriate for preparing 2° amines
is _____.
(a) NH2,NH2, -OH (b) NaBH4
(a) 2 R — Br NH3
(c) H2/Ni (d) AlCl3
19. What product will be formed on reaction of (b) 2 R — Br NaCN followed by H2/Pt
propanal with 2-methylpropanal in the
presence of NaOH? What products will be (c) 1 R — NH2 RCHO followed by H2/Pt
formed? Write the name of the reaction
(d) 1 R — Br 2 mol + potassi um
also.
+/
phthalimide followed by H3O heat
20. Compound ‘A’ was prepared by oxidation
of compound ‘B’ with alkaline KMnO 4. 4. The correct IUPAC n ame for
Compound ‘A’ on Redcution with lithium CH2=CHCH2NHCH3 is:
aluminium hydride gets converted back (a) Allylmethylamine
to compound ‘B’. When compound ‘A’ is (b) 2-amino-4-pentene
heated with compound B in the presence (c) 4-aminopent-1-ene
of H2SO4 it products fruity smell of (d) N-methylprop-2-en-1-amine
compound C. To which family the com- 5. The correct decreasing order of basic
pounds ‘A’. ‘B’ and ‘C’ belongs to? strength of the follwoing species is____.
21. A compound ‘A’ with formula C5H10O gives
H2O,NH3 ,OH ,NH2
a positive 2, 4-DNP test but a nagative
Toilen’s test it can be oxidizing to carboxy- (a) NH2 OH NH3 H2O
lic acid ‘B’ of molecular formula C3H6O2,
when treated with alk. KMnO4 under vig- (b) OH NH2 H2O NH3
orous conditions. The salt of ‘B’ gives a (c) NH3 H2O NH2 OH
hydrocarbon ‘C’ on Kolbes’ e l e c tr o l y t i c
decarboxylation. Identify A, B,C & write (d) H2O NH3 OH NH2
chemical equations.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
6. Best method for preparing primary amines 10. Assertion: Only a small amount of HCl is
from alkyl halides without changing the required in the reduction of nitro com-
number of carbon atoms in the chain is: pounds with iron scrap and HCl in the
(a) Hofmann bromamide reaction presence of steam.
(b) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis Reason: FeCl2 formed gets hydrolysed to
(c) Sandmeyer reaction release HCl during the reaction.
(d) Reaction with NH3 11. How will you carry out the following con-
7. Which of the folowing compounds is the versions?
weakest Bronsted base? (a) toluene p toluidine
(b) p toluidine diazonium chloride
(a) (b) p toluic acid
12. A solution contains 1 g mol. each of p-tolu-
ene diazonium chloride and p-nitrophenyl
diazo nium chloride. To this 1 g mol. al-
kaline solution of phenol is added. Predict
(c) (d) the major product. Explain your answer.
13. Give the structure of ‘A’ in the following
8. The correct increasing order of basic reaction.
strength for the following compound
is__________.
14. Under what reaction conditions (acidic/
basic) , th e co upli ng reaction of
aryldiazonium chloride with aniline is
carried out?
(a) II < III < I (b) III < I < II 15. A primary amine, RNH2 can be reacted
(c) III < II < I (d) II < I < III with CH 3—X to get secondary amine,
Each question consists of two statements, R—NHCH3 but the only disadvantage is
that 3° amine and quaternary ammonium
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the salts are also obtained as side products.
correct answer, use the following code: Can you suggest a method where RNH2
forms only 2° amine?
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true 16. Write following conversions:
and Reason is a correct explanation of (a) nitrobenzene acetanilide
Assertion. (b) Acetaanilide p nitroaniline
17. Read the passage given below and answer
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
the following questions:
but Reason is not a correct explanation A mixture of two aromatic compounds (A)
and (B) was separated by dissolving in chlo-
of Assertion.
roform followed by extraction with aque-
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false. ous KOH solution. The organic layer con-
taining compound (A), when heated with
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. alcoholic solution of KOH produce C7H5N
9. Assertion: Acylation of amines gives a (C) associated with unpleasant odour.
monosubstituted product whereas alkyla- The following questions are multiple
tion of amines gives polysubstituted choice questions. Choose the most appro-
product. priate answer:
Reason: Acyl group sterically hinders the (i) What is A ?
approach of further acyl groups. (a) C6H5NH2 (b) C6H5CH3
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(c) C6H5CHO (d) None of these weaker bases than ammonia and ali-
OR phatic amines. Electron-donating groups
The reaction of (A) with alcoholic solution such as –CH 3–OCH3, etc. increase the ba-
of KOH to produce (C) of unpleasant odour sicity while electron-withdrawing substi-
is called. tutes such as –NO2, –CN, halogens etc.
(a) Sandmeyer reaction decrease the basicity of amines. The ef-
(b) Carbylamine reaction fect of these sub stituents is more at p
(c) Ullmann reaction than at m-positions.
(d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction The following questions are multiple
(ii) The alkaline aqueous layer (B) when choice questions. Choose the most appro-
heated with chloroform and then priate answer:
acidified give a mixture of isomeric (i) Which one of the following is the
compound of molecular formula stongest base in aqueous solutions?
C7H6O2. (B) is: (a) Methyl amine
(a) C6H5CHO (b) C6H5COOH (b) Trimethyl amine
(c) C6H5CH3 (d) C6H5OH (c) Aniline
(iii)In the chemical reactio n, (d) Dimethyl amine
CH3CH2NH2 CHCl3 3KOH A B 3H2O, (ii) Which order of basicity is correct?
(a) Aniline > m-toluidine > o-toluidine
the compounds (A) and (B) are respec-
(b) Aniline > o-toluidine > m-toluidine
tively.
(c) o-toluidine > aniline > m-toluidine
(a) C2H5NC and KCl
(d) o-toluidine < aniline < m-toluidine
(b) C2H5CN and KCl
(iii)What is the decreasing order of basic-
(c) CH3CH2CONH2 and KCl
ity of primary, secondary and terrtiary
(d) C2H5NC and K2CO3
ethylamines and NH3?
(iv) Di rect nitrati on of an aromatic
compound (A) is not feasible because: (a) NH3 C2H5NH2 (C2H5 )2NH C2H5 3 N
(a) the reaction cannot be stopped at
(b) C2H5 3 N(C2H5 )3 N(C2H5 )2NH C2H5NH2 NH3
the mononitration stage
(b) a mixture of o, m and p-nitroaniline (c) C2H5 2 NH C2H5NH2 C2H5 3 N NH3
is always obtained
(c) nitric acid oxidises most of the aro (d)
C H
2 5 2 NH C H
2 5 3 2 5N C H NH NH
2 3
matic compound to give oxidation (iv) The order of basic strength among the
products along with only a small following amines in benzene solution is:
amount of nitrated products
(a) CH3NH2 CH3 3 N CH3 2 NH
(d) all of the above
18. Read the passage given below and answer (b) CH3 3 N CH3 2 NH CH3NH2
the following questions:
The amines are basic in nature to the (c) CH3NH2 CH3 2 NH CH3 3 N
presence of a lone pair of electron on N-
atom of the – NH2 group which it can do- (d) CH3 3 N CH3NH2 CH3 2 NH
nate to electron dificient compounds. Ali- OR
phatic amine are stronger bases than Choose the correct statement.
NH3 because of the +I effect of the alkyl (a) Methylamine is slightly acidic
groups. Greater the number of alkyl (b) Methylamine is less basic than am-
groups attached to N-atom, higher is the monia
electron density on it and more will be the (c) Methylamine is a stronger base than
basicity. Thus, the order of basic nature ammonia
of amines is expected to be 3° > 2° > 1°, (d) Methylamine forms salts with alkalies
however the ob served order is 2° > 1° > 19. An aromatic compound ‘A’ on treatment
3°. This is explained on the basis of crowd- with aqueous ammonia and heating forms
ing on N-atom of the amine by alkyl groups compound ‘B’ which on heating with Br2
which binders the approach and bonding and KOH forms a compound ‘C’ of molecu-
by a proton, consequently, the electron lar formula C6H7N. Write the structures
pair which is present on N is unavailable and IUPAC names of compounds A, B
for donation and hence 3° amine are the and C.
weakest bases. Aromatic amines are 20. Arrange the following:
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(i) In decreasing order of the pKb values: 4. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two
C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH and nucleotides together by phosphodiester
C6H5NH2 linkage. Between which carbon atoms of
(ii) In increasing order of basic strength: pentose sugars of nucleotides are these
C6H5NH2, C6H5N(CH3)2, (C2H5)2NH and linkages present?
CH3NH2 (a) 5’ and 3’ (b) 1’ and 5’
(iii)In increasing order of basic strength: (c) 5’ and 5’ (d) 3’ and 3’
(a) Aniline, p-nitroaniline and p-toluidine 5. Which of the following statements is not
true about glucose?
(b) C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5CH2NH2
(a) It is an aldohexose
(iv) In decreasing order of basic strength (b) On heating with HI it forms n-
in gas phase: hexane
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N and NH3 (c) It is present in furanose form
(v) In increasing order of boiling point: (d) It does not give 2, 4-DNP test
C2H5OH, (CH3)2NH, C2H5NH2 6. DNA and RNA contain four bases each.
(vi) In increasing order of solubility in Which of the following bases is not
water: present in RNA?
C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2 (a) Adenine (b) Uracil
21. Give one chemical test to distinguish be- (c) Thymine (d) Cytosine
tween the following pairs of compounds. 7. Each po lype ptide in a prote in h as
aminoacids linked with each other in a
(i) Methylamine and dimethylamine
specific sequence. This sequence of
(ii) Secondary and tertiary amines
amino acids is said to be______.
(iii)Ethylamine and aniline (a) primary structure of proteins.
(iv) Aniline and benzylamine (b) seconday structure of proteins.
(v) Aniline and N-methylaniline (c) tertiary structure of proteins.
22. Describe a method for the identification (d) quaternary structure of proteins.
of primary, secondary and terti ary 8. Which of the following bases is not
amines. Also write chemical equations of present in DNA?
the reactions involved. (a) Adenine (b) Thymine
(c) Cytosine (d) Uracil
CHAPTER-8
Each question consists of two statements,
BIOMOLECULES
1. Sucrose (cane sugar) is a disaccharide. namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
One molecule of sucrose on hydrolysis correct answer, use the following code:
gives_____. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(a) 2 molecules of glucose
(b) 2 molecules of glucose and Reason is a correct explanation of
+ 1 molecule of fructose Assertion.
(c) 1 molecule of glucose (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
+ 1 molecule of fructose
but Reason is not a correct explanation
(d) 2 molecules of fructose
2. Which of the following polymer is stored of Assertion.
in the liver of animals? (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(a) Amylose (b) Cellulose
(c) Amylopectin (d) Glycogen (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
3. Proteins are found to have two different 9. Assertion: D(+) – Glucose is dextrorota-
types o f se condary stru ctures viz. tory in nature.
Reason: ‘D’ represents its dextrorota-
helix and pleated sh eet struc tory nature
ture. helix structure of protein is 10. Assertion: In presence of enzyme, sub-
stabilised by: stance molecule can be attacked by
(a) Peptide bonds the reagent effectively.
(b) van der Waals forces Reason: Active sites of enzymes hold
(c) Hydrogen bonds the substrate molecule in a suitable
(d) Dipole-Dipole interactions position.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
11. Name the sugar present in milk. How
many monosaccharide units are present
in it? What are such oligosaccharides
called?
12. How do you explain the presence of all the (i)
six carbon atoms in glucose in a straight
chatin?
13. Name the linkage connecting monosac-
charide units in polysaccharides. Arrange in order of increasing acid
14. Under what conditions glucose is con- strengths.
verted to gouconic and saccharic acid? (a) X > Z > Y (b) Z < X < Y
15. Amino acids can be classified as
(c) X> Y> Z (d) Z > X > Y
, , , and so on depending upon (ii) In aqueous solutions, amino acids
the relative position of amino group with mostly exist as
respect to carboxyl group. Which type of
(a) NH2 CHR COOH
amino acids form polypetide chain in
proteins? (b) NH2 CHR COO
16. Some enzymes are named after the r e -
action, where they are used. What name (c) N N 3CHRCOOH
is given to the class of enzymes which
catalyse the oxidation of one s u b s t r a t e (d) H3 N CHRCOO
with simultaneous reduction of another
(iii)Amino acids are least soluble
substrate.
(a) at pH
17. Read the pessage gtven below and
(b) at pH7
answer the following questions:
(c) at their isoelectric points
H
(d) none of these.
H2NCHRCOO
OH
II (iv) The pK a1 and pK a2 of an amino acid
H
H3 N CHRCOO H3 N CHRCOOH
are 2.3 and 9.7 respectively.
I OH III
The isoelectric poiont of the amino acid
(i) When a solution of an -amino acid is (a) 12.0 (b) 7.4
placed in an electric field depending (c) 6.0 (d) 3.7
on the pH of the medium, following OR
(ii) In acidic solution, -amino acids A tripeptide (X) on partial hydrolisis gave
exist as cation III, and there is a net two dipeptides Cys-Gly and Glu-Cys.
migra tion of amino acid towards the Identify the tripeptide.
cathode. (a) Glu-Cys-Gly (b) Gly-Glu-Cys
(iii) If II and III are exactly balanced there (c) Cys-Gly-Glu (d) Cys-Glu-Gly
is no net migration; under such condi 18. Read the passage given below and answer
tions any one molecule exists as a posi the following questions: Carbohydrates are
tive ion and as a negative ion for polyhydroxy aldehydes and ketones and
exactly the same amount of time, and those com pounds which on hydrolysis
any small movement in the direction give such compounds are also carbohy-
of one electrodie is subsequently can- drates. The carbohydrates which are not
celled by an equal movement back to- hydrolysed are called monosaccharides.
ward the other electrode. The pH of the Monosaccharides with aldehydic group
solution in which a particul ar are called aldose and those which free
amino acid does not migrate un- ketonic gro ups are call ed ketose.
der the influence of an electric field Carbohydrates are optically active. Num-
is called the isoelectric point of that ber of optical isomeers = 2n Wh en n =
amino acid number of asymmetric carbons. Carbohy-
The following questions are matiple drates are mainly synthesised by plants
choice questions. Choose the most during photosyn thesis. The monosaccha-
appropriate answer : rides give the characteristic reaction of
alcohols and carbonyl group (aldehydes
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
and ketones). It has been bound that to gluconic acid.
these monosac charides exist in the form 19. Protein found in a biological system with
of cyclic structures. In cyclization, the – a unique three-dimensional structure
OH groups (ge nerally C 5 or C 4 i n and biological activity is called a native
aldohexoses and C5or C6 in ketohexoses) protein. When a protein in its native
combine with the aldehyde or keto group. form, is subjected to a physical change
As a result, cyclic structures of five or six like change in temperature or a chemi
membered rings containing one oxygen cal change like, change in pH, denatur
atom are formed, e.g., glucose form a ring ation of protein takes place. Explain the
structure. Glucose contains one al - cause.
dehyde group, one 1° alcoholic group a n d 20. Activation energy for the acid catalysed
four 2° alcoholic group in its open chain hydrolysis of sucrose is 6.22 kJ mol-1
structure. while the activation energy is only 2.15
The following questions are mulitiple kJ mol-1 when hydrolysis is catalysed by
choice questions. Choose the most the enzyme sucrase. Explain.
appropriate answer: 21. Which varieties of nucleosides are i n -
volved in the formation of phosphodiester
(i) First member of ketos sugar is:
linkages present in dinucleotides? What
(a) ketoriose (b) ketotetrose does the word diester in the name of link-
(c) ketopentose (d) ketohexose age indicate? Which acid is involved in
(ii) In the formation of this linkage?
22. Explain the terms primary and
CH2OHCHOHCHOHCHOHCHOHCHO,
secondary structure of proteins. What is
the number of optical isomers will be:
(a) 16 (b) 8 the difference between helix and
(c) 32 (d) 4 pleated sheet structure of proteins?
(iii)Some statements are given below:
1. Glucose is aldohexose. CHAPTER-9 P-BLOCK
2. Naturally occuring glucose is 1. On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride
dextrorotatory. salt. colourless fumes are evolved but in
3. Glucose contains three chiral case of todided salt violet fumes come out.
centres. This is because:
(a) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2
4. Glucose contains one 1° alcoholic
group adn four 2° alcoholic groups. (b) HI is of violet colour
(c) HI gets oxidised to I2
Among the above, correct statements
are: (d) HI changes to HIO3
2. In a cyclo trimetapho spho ri c acid
(a) Both of them must be aldoses
molecule, how many single and double
(b) They are epimers at C-3. bonds are present?
(c) The carbon atoms 1 and 2 in both (a) 3 double bonds: 9 single bonds
have the same configuration. (b) 6 double bonds: 6 single bonds
(d) The carbon atoms, 3, 4 and 5 in (c) 3 double bonds: 12 single bonds
both have the same configura
(d) Zero double bonds: 12 single bonds
tion.
3. Which of the following pairs of ions are
OR
isoelectronic and isostructural?
Which of the following reactions of glu-
cose can be explained only by its cyclic (a) CO23 , NOa (b) ClO3 ,CO32
structure?
(c) SO23 ,NO3 (d) ClO3 ,SO32
(a) Glucose forms cyanohydrin with
HCN. 4. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the
(b) Glucose reacts with hydroxy lamine to group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the
form an oxime. halogen acids should have highest bond
(c) Pentaacetate of glucose does not dissociation enthalpy?
react with hydroxylamine. (a) HF (b) HCl
(d) Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid (c) HBr (d) SbH2
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
5. Which of the following acids forms three 12. (a) Though nitrogen exhibits +5 oxidation
series of salts? state, it does not form pentahalide.
(a) H3PO2 (b) H3BO3 (b) PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
(c) H3PO4 (d) H3PO3 Why?
6. On heating ammonium dichromate and (c) Write the reaction of thermal
barium azide separately we get: decomposition of sodium azide.
(a) N2 in both cases 13. Write balanced equations for the following:
(b) N2 with ammonium dichromate and (i) NaCl is heated with sulphuric acid in
NO with barium azide the presence of MnO2.
(c) N2O with ammonium dichromate and (ii) Chlorine gas is passed into a solution
N2 with barium azide of NaI in water
(d) N2O with ammonium dichromate and 14. Give th e formula and describe the
NO2 with barium azide structure of a noble gas species which is
7. The oxidation state of central atom in the isostructural with:
anion of compound NaH2PO2 will be___.
(i) IC14 (ii) IBr2 (iii) BrO3
(a) +3 (b) +5
(c) +1 (d) –3 15. Knowing the electron gain enthalpy
8. A black compound of manganese react values for O and O– and O ? O2– as –141
with a halogen acid to give greenish and 702 kJ mol–1 respectively, how can
yellow gas. When excess of this gas reacts you account for the formation of a large
with NH3 an unstable trihalide is formed. number of oxides having O2– species and
In this process the oxdiation state of not O–?
nitrogen changes from____ . (Hint: Consider lattice energy factor in the
(a) – 3 to + 3 (b) – 3 to 0 formation of compounds).
(c) – 3 to +5 (d) 0 to – 3 16. (a) The HNH angle value is higher than
HPH, HAsH and HSbH angles. Why?
Each question consists of two statements,
[Hint: Can be explained on the basis
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the of sp3 hybridisation in NH3 and only
correct answer, use the following code: s–p bonding between hydrogen and
other elements of the group].
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(b) Why does R3P = O exist but R3N = O
and Reason is a correct explanation of does not (R = alkyl group)?
Assertion. (c) Nitrogen exists as diatomic molecule
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true and phosphorus as P4. Why?
but Reason is not a correct explanation 17. Reed the passoge gvea below and answer
the following qestions :
of Assertion.
Under the nomal conditions, noble gases
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
are monoatomic and have cdosed shell
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. clectronlc configuration. Lighter noble
9. Assertion: HI cannot be prepared by the gases have low boling points due to weak
Reaction: of KI with concentrated H2SO4.
dispersion forces between the atoms and
Reason: HI has lowest H-X bond strength
th e abse nce of o th er I nteratomlc
among halogen acids.
10. Assertion: SF6 cannot be hydrolysed but interactions. Xenon, one of the important
F4 can be. noble gas, formns a series of compounds
Reason: Six F atoms in SF6 prevent the with luorine with oxidation number
attack of H2O on sulphur atoms of SF6. +2% +4 and +6. AIl xenon fluorides are
11. Arrange the following in order of property strong oxidising agents. XeF 4 reacts
indicated for each set: violently with water to give XeF3 . The
(a) F2, Cl2, Br2, I2 - increasing bond geometry of xeno n compounds can
dissociation enthalpy.
bededuced by considering the total
(b) HF, HCl, HBr, HI-increasing acid
number of electron pairs in their valence
strength.
sh el l. The fo ll ow in g que stio ns are
(c) NH3, PH3, AsH3, SbH3, BiH3-increasing
base strength.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
multiple choice questions. Choose the (i) Oxygen shows +2 oxidation state in
most appropriate answer: (a) OF2 (b) H2O
(i) Among noble gases (from He to Xe) only (c)Cl2O (d) H2O2
xenon reacts with fluorine to form stable (ii) Like sulphur, oxygen is not able to
show +4 and +6 oxidation states because
xenon fluorides because xenon
(a) oxygen is a gas while sulphur is a solid
(a) has the largest size
(b) sulphur has high ionisation enthalpy
(b) has the lowest ionisation enthalpy
as compared to.oxygen
(c) has the highest heat of vapourisation
(c) oxygen has no d-orbitals in its valence
(d) is the most readily available noble gas.
shell
(ii) The structure of XeO3 is (d) oxygen has high electron affinity as
(a) square planar (b) pyramidal compared to sulphur.
(c) linear (d) T-shaped OR
OR Compounds of sulphur with +4 oxidation
XeF6 is expected to be state acts as a/an
(a) oxidising agent (a) oxidising agent
(b) reducing agent (b) reducing agent
(c) unreactive (c) both oxidising as well as reducing
(d) strongly basic. agent
(iii) In the preparation of compound of (d) cannot be predicted
xenon, Bartlett had taken O 2 PtF6 as a base (iii)Oxidation state of suiphur in
compound. This is because Na2S4O6 is
(a) both O2 an Xe have same size (a) 7/2 (b) 5/2
(b) both Xe and O2 have same electron (c) 1/2 (d) 3/2
gain enthalpy (iv) The oxidation states of sulphur in
(c) both have almost same ionisation S8SO3 and H,S are respectively
enthalpy (a) 0, +6 and –2 (b) +6. 0 and –2
(d) both Xe and O2 are gases (c) –2. 0 and +6 (d) +2, +6 and –2
(iv) The oxidation state of xenon in XeO3 19. In the preparation of H2SO4 by Contact
is Process, why is SO3 not absorbed directly
(a) +4 (b) +2 in water to form H2SO4?
(c) + (d) +6 20. Write a balanced chemical equation for
the reaction showing catalytic oxidation
18. Read the passage glven below and answer
of NH3 by atmospheric oxygen.
the following questions :
21. Write the structure of pyrophosphoric
All the elements of group 16 have ns 2 np 4 p acid.
configuration in their outermost shell. 22. PH3 forms bubbles when passed slowly in
Therefore, the atoms of these elements water but NH3 dissolves. Explain why?
try to gain or share two electrons to
achieve noble gas configuration. Sulphur CHAPTER-10 d & f-BLOCK
and other elements ofgroup 16 are less 1. The electronic configuration of Cu(II) is
electronegative than oxygen, so, they
cannot accept electrons easily. By sharing 3d 9 whereas that of Cu(I) is 3d10 . Which
of two electrons with other elements, of the following is correct?
(i) Cu(II) is more stable
th ese el emen ts acqui re ns 2 np 6
(ii) Cu(II) is less stable
configuration and exhibit +2 oxidation (iii) Cu(I) and Cu(II) are equally stable
state. Except oxygen,group l6 elements (iv) Stability of Cu(I) and Cu(II) depends
have vacant d-orbitals in their valence on hature of copper salts
shell to which electrons can be promoted 2. Metallic radii of some transition elements
from p- and s-orbitals of the same shell. are gi ve n be lo w. Wh ich of the se
As a result, they can show +4 and +6 elementas will have highest density?
oxidation states also. The following Element Fe Co Ni Cu
questions are multiple choice questions. Metallic radii/pm 126 125 125 128
Choose the most appropriate answer :
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
3. Th e magn etic n atu re o f el emen ts Each question consists of two statements,
depends on the presence of unpaired namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
electrons. Identify the configuration of correct answer, use the following code:
transition element, which shows highest
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
magnetic moment.
and Reason is a correct explanation of
(i) 3d 7 (ii) 3d5
Assertion.
(iii) 3d 8 (iv) 3d 2
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
4. On addition of small amount of KMnO4to
but Reason is not a correct explanation
co ncen trated H2SO4 , a gree n oi ly
of Assertion.
compound is is obtained which is highly
explosive in nature. Identify the compund (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
from the follwing. (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(i) Mn2O7 (ii) MnO2 9. Assertion : Cu2 iodide is not known.
(iii) MnSO4 (iv) Mn2O3 Reason : Cu2 oxideses I to iodine.
5. Which of the following reactions are 10. Assertion : Actinoids form relativley less
disproportionation reactions? stable compl ex es as compare d to
(a) Cu Cu2 Cu lanthanoids.
Reason : Actionoids can utilise their 5f
(b) 3MnO4 4H 2MnO4 MnO2 2H2O orbitals along with 6d orbitals in bonding
(c) 2KMnO4 K 2MnO4 MnO2 O2 but lanthanoids do not use their 4f orbital
for bonding.
(d) 2MnO4 3Mn2 2H2O 5MnO2 4H
11. Although Cr3 and Co2 ions have same
(i) a, b (ii) a,b, c
number of unpaired electrons but the
(iii) b, c, d (iv) a,d
magnetic moment of Cr3 is 3.87 B.M. and
6. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic
acid solution, the decolourisation is slow that of Co2 is 4.87 B.M. Why?
in the beg in ni ng but becomes 12. Although +3 oxidation states is the
instantaneous after some time because ch aracte ri stic o xdatio n state of
lanthano ids bu t ceriu m sh ow s +4
(i) CO2 is formed as the product.
oxidation state also. Why?
(ii) Reaction is exothermic. 13. Although Zr belongs to 4d and Hf belongs
(iii) MnO4 catalyses the reaction. to 5d transiton series but it is quite
difficult to separate them. Why
(iv) Mn2 acts as autocatalyst.
14. While filling up of electrons in the atomic
7. Which of the following is amphoteric
orbitals, the 4s orbital is filled before then
oxide?
3d orbital but reverse happens during the
Mn2O7 ,CrO3 ,Cr2O3 ,CrO, V2O5 ,V2O4 ionisation of hte atom.
(i) V2O5 ,Cr2O3 Explain why?
(ii) Mn2O7 ,CrO3 15. Why is Cr2 reducing and Mn3 oxiding
when both have Mn3 configuration ?
(iii) CrO, V2O5
16. Wh y is the E 0 valu e fo r th e
(iv) V2O5 , V2O4 3 2
Mn / Mn couple much more positive
8. Gadolinium belongs to 4f series. It’s
atomic number is 64. Which of the than Cr 3 / Cr 2 or Fe3 / Fe2 ? Explain.
fo ll ow in g is the co rrect el ectron ic 17. Read the passage given below and
configuration of gadolinium? answer the following questions:
(i) Xe 4f 75d1 6s2 (ii) Xe 4f 65d2 6s2 The unique behaviour of Cu, having a
positive E accounts for its inability to
(iii) Xe 4f 86d2 (iv) Xe 4f 95s1
liberate H2 form acid. Only Toxidsing acids
(nitric and hot concetrated sulphuric
acid) react with Cu, the acids being
reduce. The stability of the half-filled
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(d 5 ) subshell in Mn2 and the completly (ii) Titanium and copper both in the first
series of transition metals exhibits +1
fi lled (d10 ) co nfig uratio n in Zn2 are oxidation state most frequent.
related to their E(M3 / M2 ) values. The (iii) Cu ion is stable in aqueous solutions.
low value of sc reflects the stability of (iv) The E value for the Mn3 / Mn2 couple
Sc3 which has a noble gas configuration. is much more positive than that
The comparativley high value for Mn for Cr / Cr2or Fe 3 / Fe .
2 5
show ns that Mn (d ) is parti cularly (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv
stable, whereass a comparatively low (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
value for Fe shows the extra stability of OR
2
Fe3 (d5 ). The cömparatively low value for The stability of Cuaq rather
V is related to the stability of V 2 (half-
than Cuaq is due to
filled , t 2g level). 2
(a) more negative hydHof Cu(aq )
The following questions are multiple
choice questions. Choose the most 2
(b) less negative dydH of Cu(aq )
appropriate answer :
2
(i) Standard reduction electrode potential (c) more positive hydH of Cu(aq )
of Zn2 / Zn is – 0.76V. This means 2
(d) less positive hydH of Cu(aq ).
(a) ZnO cannot be reduced to Zn by H2 18. Read the passage gven below and answer
under standard conditions the following questions :
(b) Zn cannot liberate H2 with The f-block elements are those in which
the differentiating electron enters the
concentrated acids (n-2) forbital. There are two series of
(c) Zn is generally the anode in an f-block elements corresponding to filling
electrochemical cell of 4f and 5forbitals. The series of 4f-
(d) Zn is generally the cathode in an orbitals is called lanthanides.Lanthanides
electrochemical cell. show different oxidation states depending
(i i) E valu es fo r th e cou pl es upon stabil ity of
Cr 3 / Cr 2 Mn3 / Cr2 a n d f 0 ,f 7and f 14 configurations, though the
Mn3 / Mn2 are 0.41 and 1.51 volts most common oxidation states is +3.
There is a regular decrease in size of
respectively. These values suggest
lanthanides ions with increase in atomic
that
number which is known as lanthanide
(a) Cr2 acts as a reducing agent contraction.
whereas Mn3 acts as an oxidizing The following qaestions are mutiple
agent choice questions. Choose the most
(b) Cr2 is more stable than Cr3 state appropriate answer:
(i) The atomic n1umbers of three
(c) Mn3 is more stable than Mn2 lanthanide elements X, Y and Z are
(d) Cr2 acts as an oxidizing agent 65, 68 and 70 respectively, their
whereas Mn3 acts as a reducing agent Ln3 electronic configuration is
(iii)The reduction potential values of M, (a) 4f 8 ,4f 11,4f 13 (b) 4f 11,4f 8 ,4f 13
N and O are +2.46, -1.13 and -3.13 V
(c) 4f 0 ,4f 2 ,4f 11 (d) 4f 3 ,4f 7 , 4f 9
respectively. Which of the following
order is correct re gardi ng the ir (ii) Lanthanide contraction is observed in
reducing property? (a) Gd (b) At
(a) O > N > M (b) O > M > N (c) Xe (d) Te
(c) M > N > 0 (d) M > 0 > N (iii)Which of the following is not the
(iv) Which of the following statements are configuration of lanthanoid?
true? (a) Xe 4f 10 6s2 (b) Xe 4f15d1 6s2
(i) Mn2 compounds are more stable
(c) Xe 4d14 5d10 6s2 (d) Xe 4f 7 5d1 6s2
than Fe2 towards oxidation to +3 state
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
OR CHAPTER-11
Name a member of the lanthanojd series CO-ORDINATION COMPOUND
wh ich is we ll kno wn to ex hibit +4
1. The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl 6]4- is 18.000
oxidation state
(a) Cerium (Z = 58) cm-1. The CFSE for tetrahedral [CoCl4]2- will
(b) Europium (Z= 63) be:
(c) Lanthanum (Z =57) (a) 18.000 cm-1 (b) 16.000 cm-1
(d) Gadolinium (Z = 64) (c) 8,000 cm -1
(d) 20,000 cm-1
(iv) Identify the incorrect statement 2. The stabilisation of coordination com-
among the following pounds due to chelation is called the che-
(a) Lanthanoid contraction is the late effect. Which of the following is the
accumulation of successive most stable complex species?
shrinkages. (a) [Fe(CO)5] (b) [Fe(CN6]3-
(b) The different radii of Zr and Hf due to (c) [Fe(C2O4)3] 3-
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
consequence of the lanthanoid 3. Due to the presence of ambidentate
contraction ligands coordination compounds show
(c) Shielding power of 4felectrons is quite isomerism. Pal ladi u m
weak complexes of the type [Pd(C6H5)2(SCN)2] and
(d) There is a decrease in the radii of the [Pd(C6H5)2(NCS)2] are:
atoms or ions as one proceeds from (a) linkage isomers
La to Lu. (b) coordination isomers
19. Write down teh electronic configuration
(c) ionisation isomers
of
(d) geometrical isomers
(i) Cr3 (ii) Cu (iii) Co2 4. When 1 mol CrCl3.6H2O is treated with
(iv) Mn (v) Pm
2 3 (vi) Ce 4 excess of AgNO3, 3 mol of AgCl are ob-
tained. The formula of the complex is:
(vii) Lu 2 (viii) Th4
20. Explain giving reason: (a) CrCl3 H2O 3 .3H2O
(i) Transition metals and many of their
compounds show paramagnetic (b) CrCl 2 H2O 4 Cl.2H2O
behaviour.
(ii) The enthalpies of atomisation of the (c) CrCl 2 H2O 5 Cl2 .H2O
transition metals are high.
(d) Cr H2O 6 Cl3
(iii) The transition metals generally form
coloured compounds 5. What kind of isomerism exists between
(iv) Transition metals and their many [Cr(H 2 O] 6 ]Cl 3 ( vio let) and
compounds act as good catalyst. [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O (greyish-green)?
21. How would you account for the following ? (a) linkage isomerism
(i) Of the d 4 species, Cr2 is strongly (b) solvate isomerism
(c) ionisation isomerism
reducing while manganese (III) is
(d) coordination isomerism
strongly oxidizing.
6. Which of the following species is not ex-
(ii) Cobalt (II)is stable in squeous solution
but in the presence of complexing pected to be a ligand?
reagents, it sis easily oxidized. (a) NO (b) NH4
(iii) The d1 configuration is very unstable (c) NH2CH2CH2NH2 (d) CO
in ions. 7. A chelating agent has two or more than
22. Given example and suggest reasons for two donor atoms to bind to a single metal
the following features of the transition ion. Which of the following is not a chelat-
metal chemistry: ing agent?
(i) The lowest oxide of transition metal (a) thiosulphato
is basic, hte highest is acidic. (b) oxalato
(ii) A transiton metal exhibits higher (c) glycinato
ox idatio n state s in ox ides and (d) ethane-1, 2 diamine
fluorides.
(i ii) The hig he st oxi datio n state is 8. IUPAC name of Pt NH3 2 Cl NO2 is:
exhibited in oxo-anions of a metal. (a) Platinum diaminechloronitrite
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(b) Chloronitrito-N-ammineplatinum (II) 17. Read the passage given below and answer
(c) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum the following quesitons:
(II)
Coordination compounds are formulated
(d) Diamminechloronitrito-N-platinate
(II) and according to the IUPAC system.
Each question consists of two statements, Fe w ru le s namin g co ordi nati on
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the compounds are:
correct answer, use the following code: (I) In ionic complex, the cation is named
first and then the anion.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(II) In the coordination entity, the ligands
and Reason is a correct explanation of are named first and then the central
Assertion. metal ion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true (II) When more than one type of ligands
but Reason is not a correct explanation are presen t, they are named in
alphabetical order or preference
of Assertion.
without any consideration of charge.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false. The following are multiple choice
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. Choose the most appropriate answer:
9. Assertion: (i) The IUPAC name of the complex
Cr H2 O 6 Cl2 and Fe H2O 6 Cl2 are [Pt(NH3)3Br(NO2)Cl]Cl is:
(a) triamminechlorobro-monitroplatinum
reducing in nature. (IV) chloride
Reason: Unpaired electrons are present
(b) triamminebromonitro-
in their d-orbitals.
chloroplatinum (IV) chloride
10.
Assertion: Fe CN 6
3
ion shows mag- (c) triamminebromido-
chloridonitroplatinum (IV) chloride
netic moment corresponding to two (d) triamminenitrochlorobromo-
upaired electrons. platinum (IV) chloride
Reason: Because it has d 2sp 3 type (ii) The IUPAC name of [Ni(CO)4] is:
hybridisation.
(a) tetracarbonylnickel (II)
11. Give the electronic configuration of the
(b) tetracarbonylnickel(0)
following complexes on the basis of Crys-
tal Field Splitting theory. (c) tetracarbonylnickelate(II)
4 2
(d) tetracarbonylnickelate(0)
CoF6 3 , Fe CN 6 and Cu NH3 6 . (iii)As per IUPAC nomenclature, the
2
name of the complex [CoH2O)4(NH3)2]Cl3 is:
12. Magnetic moment of MnCl 4 is 5.92 (a) tetraaquadiamminecobalt
BM. Explain giving reason. (II) chloride
13. CuSO 4 .5H 2O is blue in colour while (b) tetraaquadiamminecobalt(III) chloride
CuSO4 is colourless. Why? (c) diammineteraaquacobalt(II) chloride
14. Name the type of isomerism when (d) diamminetetraaquacobalt(III) chloride
ambidenate ligands are attached to cen- (iv) Which of the following represents
tral metal ion. Gi ve two correct formula of dichloridobis (ethane-
examples of ambidentate ligands
1, 2- diamine)cobalt(III) ion?
15. Arrange following complex ions in in-
(a) [CoCl2(en)]2+ (b) [CoCl2(en)2]2+
creasing order of crystal field splitting +
(c) [CoCl2(en)] (d) [CoCl2(en)2]+
energy 0 : OR
n Correct formula of pentaamminenitro-O-
16. A complex of the type M AA 2 X 2 is
cobalt(III) sulphate is:
known to be optically active. What does (a) [Co(NO2)(NH3)5]SO4
this indicate (b) [Co(ONO)(NH3)5]SO4
about the structure of the complex? Give (c) [Co(NO2)(NH3)4](SO4)2
one example of such complex. (d) [Co(ONO)(NH3)4](SO4)2
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
18. Read the passage given below and answer (iv) Which of the given complexes are outer
the following questions: orbital complexes?
Iron forms many complexes in its +2 and (a) (A) and (B) only (b) (B) and (C)
+3 oxidation states such as (c) (A) and (C) only (d) (B) and (D) only
4
[Fe H2 O 6 ]2 A ; Fe CN 6 19. Using valence bond theory, explain the
3 3 following in relation to the complexes
B ;[Fe H2O 6 ] C ; Fe CN 6 D , given below:
etc., They exibit, different magnetic 3 3 3
Mn CN6 , Co NH3 6 , Cr H2O6 ,FeCl6
4
properties and undergo different hybridisation
(a) Type of hybridisation
of iron. (b) Inner or outer orbital complex
The following questions are multiple choice (c) Magnetic behaviour
questions. Choose the most appropriate answer: (d) Spin only magnetic moment value
(i) Which of the following statements is 20. CoSO 4Cl.5NH 3 exists in two isomeric
forms ‘A’ and ‘B’. Isomer ‘A’ reacts with
correct?
AgNO3 to give white precipitate, but does
(a) (B) is paramagnetic while (C) is
not react with BaCl2. Isomer ‘B’ gives white
diamagnetic precipitate with BaCl2 but does not react
(b) Both (B) and (D) are outer orbital with AgNO3. Answer the following ques-
complexes tions.
(c) Both (A) and (C) are paramagnetic (a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ and write their
(d) (A) is outer orbital complex and (C) is structural formulas.
inner orbital complex. (b) Name the type of isomerism involved.
(ii) Th e co mplex h aving max imum (c) Give the IUPAC name of ‘A’ and ‘B’.
magnetic moment is: 21. Write IUPAC names of the following coor-
(a) (A) (b) (B) dination compounds :
(c) (C) (d) (D) (a) Co NH3 6 Cl3 (b) Co NH3 5 Cl2
OR
Which of the following does not represent (c) K 3 Fe CN6 (d) K 3 F e C 2 O 4 3
correct configuration of the d-orbital in
the given complexes? (e) K 2 PdCl4
4
(a) A : t2g e2g (b) B : t62g e0g (f) Pt NH3 2 Cl NH2 CH3 Cl
(c) C : t42g e1g (d) D : t52g e0g 22. Indicate the types of isomerism exhibited
by the following complexes and draw the
(iii) The spin only magnetic moment of structures of these isomers:
complexes (A), (B), (C) and (D) are (a) K Cr H2O 2 C2O4 2
respectively
(in BM) (b) Co enCl3 3
(a) 2 6, 0 35, 3 (b) 0, 2 6, 35, 3 (c) Co NH3 5 NO2 NO3 2
(c) 15,2 6, 3,0 (d) 3, 8,0, 15 (d) Pt NH3 H2 O Cl 2
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
BIOLOGY
CHAPTER-01 (a) sy ne rg id, zy go te and pri mary
endosperm nucleus
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
(b) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
FLOWERING PLANTS
(c) antipodal, synergid and primary
1. Choose the correct statement from the
endosperm nucleus
following. [NCERT Exemplar]
(d) synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.
(a) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit
autogamy 8. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate
after fertilisation are
(b) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit
geitonogamy (a) synergids and primary endosperm cell
(c) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both (b) synergids and antipodals
autogamy and geitonogamy (c) antipodals and primary endosperm
(d) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit cell
autogamy (d) egg and antipodals.Assertion-Reason
2. Which of the following structures are Questions
haploid in nature? In the following questions a statement of
(a) nucellus and antipodals assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given. Choose the correct answer out of the
(b) Microspore and antipodals
following choices.
(c) Egg cell and antipodals
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct
(d) Egg and central cell statemen ts an d reason is correct
3. Filiform apparatus performs the function of explanation for assertion.
(a) opening the pollen tube (b) Assertion and reason both are correct
(b) guiding the pollen tube to egg statements but reason is not correct
(c) entry of pollen tube into synergids explanation for assertion.
(d) prevents growth of more than one (c) Assertion is correct statement but reason
pollen tube is wrong statement.
4. Unisexuality of flowers prevent (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
(a) geitonogamy is correct statement.
(b) autogamy 9. Assertion : The endosperm of angiosperms
(c) xenogamy is generally triploid (3n).
(d) both geitonogamy and xenogamy Reason : It devel ops from pri mary
5. A particular species of plant produces light, endosperm nucleus formed by fusion of
non-sticky pollen in large numbers and its haploid male gamete and diploid secondary
stigmas are long and feathery. These nucleus.
modifications facilitate pollination by 10. Assertion : Dictogamy refers to maturation
(a) insects (b) water of male and female sex organs at different
(c) wind (d) animals. times.
6. From among the situations given below, Reason : This is a safeguard against cross
choose the one that prevents both autogamy fertilisation.
and geitonogamy. Case-based/Source-based Question
(a) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual 11. Given below is an enlarged view of one
flowers microsporangium of a mature anther.
(b) Dioecious plant bearing only male or
female flowers
(c) Monoecious plant with bisexual
flowers
(d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers
7. In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid,
diploid and triploid structures are
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(i) An anthe r wi th malfun ctio ni ng
tapetum often fails to produce viable
male gametophytes.
Give one reason.
(ii) Th e me io cy te of rice has 24
ch ro mo so mes. Ho w many
chromosomes are present in its
endosperm?
(iii) State the reason why pollen grains
lose their viability when the tapetum
in the anther is (i) Name ‘a’, ‘b’ and ‘c’ wall layers.
malfunctioning. (ii) Mention the characteristics and
12. Observe the figure of fertilised embryo sac function of the cells forming wall layer
of an angiosperm and answer the questions ‘c’.
that follow. 19. Draw a longitudinal section of a post-
pollinated pistil showing entry of pollen tube
into a mature embryo sac. Label filiform
apparatus, chalazal end, hilum, antipodals,
male gametes and secondary nucleus.
20. (a) Draw a labelled sketch of a mature 7-
celled, 8-nucleate embryo-sac.
(b) Which one of the cell in an embryo-
sac produce endosperm after double
fertilisation?
21. Given bel ow are the events that are
obse rved i n artificial hybri di sati on
(i) In the embryos of a typical dicot and a programme. Arrange them in the correct
grass, which are the true homologous sequential order in which they are followed
structures? in the hybridisation programme.
(ii) Normally one embryo develops in one (a) re-bagging;
seed but when an orange seed is (b) selection of parents;
squeezed many embryo s of
(c) bagging;
different shapes and sizes are seen.
Mention how it has happened.
(d) dusting the pollen on stigma;
(iii) How many nuclei are present in a fully
developed male gametophyte of flowering (e) emasculation;
plants? (f) collection of pollen from male parent.
13. The microscopic pollen grains of the past 22. Write the differen ces be tween w ind-
are obtained as fo ssils. Mention the pollinated and insect-pollinated flowers.
characteristic of the pollen grains that Give an example of each type.
makes it happen.
14. The diploid number of chromosomes in an CHAPTER-02
angiospermic plant is 16. What will be the SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN
number of chromosomes in its endosperm
FLOWERING PLANTS
and antipodal cells?
15. How do flowers of Vallisneria get pollinated? 1. Which hormone of pituitary gland regulates
16. How many microspore mother cells would Sertoli cells?
be required to produce one hundred pollen (a) LH (b) FSH
grains in a pollen sac? And why? (c) GH (d) prolactin
17. In a flowering plant a microspore mother 2. Th e co rrect se que nce of stage s in
cell produce four male gametophytes while spermatogenesis are:
a megaspore mother cell form only one (a) spermato go ni a spermati d
female gametophyte. Explain. spermatocyte ! sperm
18. Given alongside is an enlarged view of one (b) spermatocyte spermatogonia
microsporangium of a mature anther.
spermatid sperm
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(c) spermatogonia spermatocyte (c) Assertion is correct statement but reason
spermatid sperm is wrong statement.
(d) spermati d spermatocyte (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
spermatogonia sperm is correct statement.
3. Seminal plasma in humans is rich in : 9. Assertion : The embryo with 8 to 16
(a) fructose and calcium blastomeres is called a morula.
(b) glucose and calcium Reason : The morula continuously divides
(c) Progesterone and testosterone to transform into trophoblast.
(d) potassium and calcium 10. Assertion : After implantation, finger-like
4. The signals of parturition originate from projections appear on the trophoblast called
chorionic villi.
(a) placenta
Reason : Chorionic villi are surrounded by
(b) fully developed foetus
the uterine tissue and the maternal blood.
(c) oxytocin released from pituitary
Case-based/Source-based Question
(d) both placenta and fully developed
11. Study the graph given below and answer the
foetus
questions that follow:
5. The Leydig cells are a source of
(a) fructose (b) androgens
(c) progesterone (d) mucus
6. The function of corpus luteum is to produce
(a) estrogen (b) progesterone
(c) HCG (d) relaxin
7. Match between the following representing (i) What is the importance of LH surge?
parts of the sperm and their functions and
(ii) Identify the ovarian phases during the
choose the correct option.
menstrual cycle.
Column I Column II
(a) 5th day to 12th day of the cycle.
(A) Head (i) Enzymes
(b) 14th day of the cycle.
(B) Middle piece (ii) Sperm motility
(iii) Menstrual cycles are absent during
(C) Acrosome (iii)Energy pregnancy. Why?
(D) Tail (iv) Genetic 12. Study the figure given below:
material
(a) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(d) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
8. Number of chromosomes in polar body of
human is
(a) 23 (b) 46
(c) 21 (d) 1
In the following questions a statement of
assertion followed by a statement of reason is (i) Pick out and name the cells that
given. Choose the correct answer out of the undergo spermiogenesis.
following choices. (ii) Differentiate between spermiogenesis
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and spermiation?
statemen ts an d reason is correct (iii) How many sperms will be produced
explanation for assertion. from 50 primary spermatocytes?
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct 13. The following is the illustration of the
statements but reason is not correct sequence of ovarian events (a – i) in a
explanation for assertion. human female.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
21. Given alongside is the diagram of a human
ovum surrounded by a few sperms. Observe
the diagram and answer the following ques-
tions:
(i) Identify the figure that illustrates
ovulation and mention the stage of
oogenesis it represents.
(ii) Name the ovarian hormone and the
pituitary hormone that have caused
the above mentioned event.
(iii) Explain the changes that occur in the
uterus simul tane ou sl y in (a) Compare the fate of sperms shown in
anticipation. the diagram.
14. Males in whom testes fail to descend to the (b) What is the role of zona pellucida in
scrotum are generally infertile. Why? this process?
(c) Analyze the changes occurring in the
15. The path of sperm transport is given below.
ovum during the process.
Provide the missing steps in blank boxes.
(d) Mention what helps in the entry of
sperm into the ovum.
(e) Specify the region of female reproduc-
tive system where the event repre-
sented in the diagram takes place.
16. How is the entry of only one sperm and not 18. Explain the ovarian and uterine events that
occur during a menstrual cycle in a human
many e nsured i nto an o vu m du ri ng
female, under the influence of pituitary and
fertilisation in humans?
ovarian hormones respectively.
17. Identify the figure given below and the part 19. (a) Describe the events of spermatogen-
labelled “A”. esis with the help of a schematic rep-
resentation.
(b) Write two differences between sper-
matogenesis and oogenesis.
20. (a) Name the hormones secreted and
write their functions:
(i) by corpus luteum and placenta (any
two).
(ii) during follicular phase and parturi-
tion.
(b) Name the stages in a human female
18. Write th e lo cati on an d fu ncti on s of where:
myometrium and endometrium. (i) Corpus luteum and placenta co-exist.
19. Corpus luteum in pregnancy has a long life. (ii) Corpus luteum temporarily ceases to
However, if fertilisation does not take place exist.
it remains active only for 10"12 days. Why? 21. (a) Given below is the T.S. of human ovary.
20. (a) Where does spermatogenesis occur in Identify the following in the diagram:
human testes? Describe the process
of spermatogenesis upto the formation
of spermatozoa.
(b) Trace the path of spermatozoa from
the testes upto the ejaculatory duct
only.
OR (i) Corpus luteum
Schematically represent and explain the (ii) Secondary oocyte
events of spermatogenesis in humans.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(iii) Antrum (a) Syphilis (b) AIDS
(iv) Primary follicle (c) Gonorrhea (d) Genital warts
(v) Blood vessels 6. Condoms are one of the most popular
(b) Explain the changes the primary oo- contraceptives because of the following
cyte undergoes while in different fol- reasons.
licular stages before ovulation.
(a) Th ese are effe ctive barrie rs for
22. Study the illustration given and answer the insemination
questions that follow:
(b) They do not interfere with coital act
(i) Identify ‘a’ and ‘e’.
(ii) Name and state the function of ‘c’. (c) These help in reducing the risk of
(iii) Identify ‘d’. STDs
(iv) Explain the role of hormones in the (d) All of the above
formation and release of ‘a’. 7. Which of the followings is/are barrier
(v) Draw a diagram of ‘b’ separately and method of contraception?
label the parts:
(a) Rhythm method/Periodic abstinence
— that help its entry into ‘a’; (b) Lactational amenorrhea
— that carry genetic material;
(c) Withdrawal method
— that help in its movement.
(d) None of these
CHAPTER-03 8. Which of the followings is not a cause of
population explosion in India?
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
1. Emergency contraceptives are effective if (a) Better health care
used within (b) Increased IMR
(a) 72 hrs of coitus (c) Decline MMR
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation (d) Increased population of reproductive age
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation 9. Choose the correct statement regarding the
(d) 72 hrs of implantation ZIFT procedure.
2. Choose the right one among the statements (a) Ova collected from a female donor are
given below. transferred to the fallopian tube to
(a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user facilitate zygote formation.
herself (b) Zygote is collected from a female donor
(b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in and transferred to the fallopian tube
the uterus (c) Zygote is collected from a female donor
(c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis and transferred to the uterus
(d) Ova collected from a female donor and
(d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
transferred to the uterus
3. Following statements are given regarding
In the following questions a statement of
MTP.
assertion followed by a statement of reason is
(i) MTPs are generally advised during first given. Choose the correct answer out of the
trimester following choices.
(ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive (a) Assertion and reason both are correct
method statemen ts an d reason is correct
(iii) MTPs are always surgical explanation for assertion.
(iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified (b) Assertion and reason both are correct
medical personnel statements but reason is not correct
4. Choose the correct option. explanation for assertion.
(a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) Assertion is correct statement but reason
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) is wrong statement.
5. From the sexually transmitted diseases (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
mentioned below, identify the one which is correct statement.
does not specifically affect the sex organs. 10. Assertion : Diaphragms and cervical caps
are barriers made of rubber.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
Reason : They block the entry of sperms (iii) Mention any two events that are
through the cervix. in hi bi te d by the in take o f oral
11. Assertion : I n barrie r me th ods of co ntrace pti ve pil ls to pre ve nt
co ntraceptio n o vum an d sperms are pregnancy in humans.
prevented from physical meeting. 14. Wh y is tubectomy co nsidered a
contraceptive method?
Reason : Barrier methods are used during
coitus to prevent entry of sperms into the 15. In case of an infertile couple, the male
female reproductive tract. partner can inseminate normally but the
mobility of sperms is below 40 percent.
Case-based/Source-based Question Which kind of ART is suitable in this
12. Given below is the diagram of CuT, a si tu atio n to fo rm an embry o in the
commonly used contraceptive method. laboratory conditions, without involving a
Based on the information answer the donor?
following questions: 16. A woman’s husband is infertile. So the lady
has decided to have baby by taking sperms
from sperm bank. Which technique will you
suggest for her pregnancy?
17. What technique would you suggest for
correcting infertility caused due to very low
sperm counts of a male partner?
18. The alarming population growth is leading
to scarcity of basic requirements. Suggest
with reasons, any two population control
measures other than contraception to
(i) A mother of one year old daughter address the situation.
wanted to space her second child. Her 19. Why is ‘Saheli’ considered to be an improved
doctor suggested CuT. Explain its form of oral contraceptive for human
contraceptive actions. female?
(ii) Brin g ou t on e mai n di fferen ce 20. How do copper and hormone releasing IUDs
between CuT and LNG-20. act as contraceptives? Explain.
(iii) A newly married couple does not want
21. A woman has certain queries as listed
to produce children at least for one
below, before starting with contraceptive
ye ar and also no t to u se any
pills. Answer them.
contraceptives. Suggest a method to
prevent pregnancy. (a) What do contraceptive pills contain and
13. Study th e di ag ram o f th e fe male how do they act as contraceptives?
reproductive system given below. Answer (b) What schedule should be followed for
the questions taking these pills?
based on the diagram. 22. (a) List any four characteristics of an ideal
contraceptive.
(b) Name two intrauterine contraceptive
devices that affect the motility of
sperms.
23. If implementation of better techniques and
new strategies are required to provide more
efficient care and assistance to people, then
wh y is the re a statutory ban on
(i) What does the diagram depict? amniocentesis?
(ii) At what stage zygote can be introduced 24. What are the consequences of population
in the fallopian tube in Zygote Intra explosion?
Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
CHAPTER-04 7. Z Z/ZW type of sex determination is seen
in [NCERT Exemplar]
Principles of Inheritance and Variation
(a) platypus (b) snails
1. Which one of the following is an example of (c) cockroach (d) peacock
polygenic inheritance? 8. A cross between two tall plants resulted in
(a) Skin colour in humans. offspring having few dwarf plants. What
(b) Flower colour in Mirabilis jalapa. would be the genotypes of both the parents?
(c) Production of male honey bee. (a) TT and Tt (b) Tt and Tt
(c) TT and TT (d) Tt and tt
(d) Pod hsape in garden pea.
2. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, Assertion-Reason Questions
round seed shape (RR) was dominant over In the following questions a statement of
wrinkled seeds (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) assertion followed by a statement of reason is
was dominant over green cotyledon (yy). given. Choose the correct answer out of the
What are the expected phenotypes in the following choices.
F2 generation of the cross RRYY × rryy? (a) Assertion and reason both are correct
(a) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons, statements and reason is correct
and wrinkled se eds wi th yel low explanation for assertion.
cotyledons. (b) Assertion and reason both are correct
(b) On ly rou nd seeds wi th g re en statements but reason is not correct
cotyledons. explanation for assertion.
(c) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow (c) Assertion is correct statement but
cotyledons. reason is wrong statement.
(d) Only wrinkled seeds with green (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
cotyledons. is correct statement.
3. Test cross involves 9. Assertion : ABO blood group system is a good
(a) crossing between two genotypes with example of pleiotropic genes.
dominant trait Reason : In ABO blood group system, when
(b) crossing between two genotypes with IA and IB alleles are present together, both
recessive trait express themselves.
(c) crossing between two F1 hybrids 10. Assertion : In birds, femal es are
(d) crossing the F1 hybrid with a double he te ro game ti c and mal es are
recessive genotype. homogametic.
4. If a plant heterozygous for tallness is selfed, Reason : In birds, females have ZW sex
the F2 generation has both tall and dwarf chromosomes and males have ZZ sex
plants. It proves the principle of chromosomes.
(a) dominance Case-based/Source-based Question
(b) segregation
11. Study the figures given below and answer
(c) independent assortment
th e qu estio ns that fol lo w.
(d) incomplete dominance
5. In sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is
replaced by valine. Which one of the
following triplets codes for valine?
(a) G G G (b) A A G
(c) GAA (d) G U G
6. Person having genotype IA IB would show the
blood group as AB. This is because of (i) In a dihybrid cross, when would the
(a) pleiotropy proporti on o f paren tal ge ne
(b) co-dominance combinations be much
(c) segregation higher than non-parental types, as
(d) incomplete dominance experimentally shown by Morgan and
his group?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(ii) If two genes are located far apart from 20. A pea plant with purple flowers was crossed
each other on a chromosome, how the with white flowers producing 50 plants with
frequency of recombination will get only purple flowers. On selfing, these plants
affected? produced 482 plants with purple flowers and
(iii) What are ‘true breeding lines’ that are 162 with white flowers. What genetic
used to study inheritance pattern of mechanism accounts for these results?
traits in plants? Explain.
12. A relevant portion of â-chain of haemoglobin 21. Snapdragon shows incomplete dominance
of a normal human is given below: for flower colour. Work out a cross and
explain the phenomenon. How is this
inheritance different from Mendelian
pattern of inheritance? Explain.
22. (a) Explain the phenomena of dominance,
multiple allelism and co-dominance
13. The codon for the sixth amino acid is GAG. taking ABO blood group as an example.
The sixth codon GAG mutates to GAA as a (b) What is the phenotype of the following?
result of mutation ‘A’ and into GUG as a
re su lt o f mutation ‘B’. Hae mo gl obin (i) IA i (ii) ii
structure did not change as a result of 23. During his studies on genes in Drosophila
mu tati on ‘A’ w he re as h ae mo gl obin
that were sex-linked. T.H. Morgan found
structure changed because of mutation ‘B’
population phenotypic ratios deviated from
leading to sickle shaped RBCs.
expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1. Explain the conclusion
(i) Explain giving reasons how could
he arrived at.
mutation ‘B’ change the haemoglobin
structure and not mutation ‘A’. CHAPTER-05
(ii) Write the genotype of (i) an individual MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
who is carrier of sickle cell anaemia 1. Which of the following steps in transcrip-
gene but apparently unaffected, and tion is catalysed by RNA polymerase?
(ii) an i ndividual affecte d wi th the 2. Control of gene expression in prokaryotes
disease. take place at the level of
14. Why, in a test cross, did Mendel cross a tall 3. Which of the following statements is cor-
pea plant with a dwarf pea plant only? rect about the role of regulatory proteins in
15. Name the stage of cell division where transcription in prokaryotes?
segregation of an independent pair of 4. Which was the last human chromosome to
chromosomes occurs. be completely sequenced?
16. For the expression of traits, genes provide 5. Which of the following are the functions of
only the potentiality and the environment RNA?
provides the opportunity. Comment on the 6. While analysing the DNA of an organism a
veracity of the statement. total number of 5386 nucleotides were
17. Give an example of a human disorder that found, out of
is caused due to a single gene mutation. which the proportion of different bases were:
Adenine = 29% , Guanine = 17% , Cytosine
18. During a monohybrid cross involving a tall
= 32% ,
pea plant with a dwarf pea plant, the
offspring populations were tall and dwarf in Thymine = 17% . Considering the Chargaff’s
equal ratio. Work out a cross to show how it rule it can be concluded that
is possible. 7. In some viruses, DNA is synthesised by
using RNA as template. Such a DNA is
19. With the help of a Punnett square, find the called
percentage of heterozygous individuals in
8. If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the cod-
a F2 population in a cross involving a true
ing strand of DNA in a transcription unit is:
breeding pea plant with green pods and a
5' - A T G A A T G - 3', the sequence of bases
true breeding pea plant with yellow pods
in its RNA transcript would be
respectively.
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In the following questions a statement of as- 12. Observe the diagram of the polynucleotide
sertion followed by a statement of reason is chain and answer the questions.
given. Choose the correct answer out of the fol-
lowing choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct expla-
nation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct ex-
planation for assertion.
(i) The fact that a purine base always
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason pairs through hydrogen bonds with a
is wrong statement. pyrimidine base
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason in the DNA double helix leads to
is correct statement.
(a) the antiparallel nature
9. Assertion : The human genome comprise
(b) the semiconservative nature
of a large amount of repetitive sequences.
(c) uniform width throughout DNA
Reason : The repetitive sequences in the
genome do not have direct coding functions. (d) uniform length in all DNA
10. Assertion : Eukaryotic mRNA requires post- (ii) How does the flow of genetic informa-
transcriptional modifications to form func- tion in HIV deviate from the ‘Central
tional dogma’ pro po se d by
Francis Crick?
mRNA.
(iii) Write the role of histone protein in
Reason : Eukaryotic transcripts possess
packaging of DNA in eukaryotes.
extra non-functional gene segments called
introns. 13. How many base pairs would a DNA segment
of length 1.36 nm have?
Case-based/Source-based Question
14. What do ‘X’ and ‘Y’ represent in the tran-
11. Study the schematic representation of the
scription unit of the DNA molecule shown?
genes involved in the lac operon given be-
low and
answer the questions that follow:
(i) Sometimes cattle or even human be- 15. Why hnRNA is required to undergo splic-
ings give birth to their young ones that ing?
have extremely different sets of or- 16. How is repetitive/satellite DNA separated
gans like limbs/position of eye(s), etc. from bulk genomic DNA for various genetic
Why? experiments?
(ii) What will prevent the binding of the 17. A DNA segment has a total of 2,000 nucle-
molecule ‘M’ with the operator gene? otides, out of which 520 are adenine con-
Mention theevent that follows. taining nucleotides. How many purine
bases this DNA segment possesses?
18. (a)
Look at the above sequence and mention
the events (A), (B) and (C).
(iii) A region of a coding DNA strand has (b) What does Central Dogma state in Mo-
the following nucleotide sequence: lecular Biology? How does it differ in some
viruses?
–ATGC–
What shall be the nucleotide sequence in 19. Answer the following questions based on
Meselson and Stahl’s experiment:
(a) sister DNA segment it replicates, and
(a) Write the name of the chemical
(b) m-RNA polynucleotide it transcribes?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
su bstance used as a sou rce of (a) Lobe fish (b) Dodo bird
nitrogen in the experi (c) Sea weed (d) Chimpanzee
ment by them.
(b) Why did the scientists synthesise the 4. Match the scientists listed under column
light and the heavy DNA molecules in ‘I’ with ideas listed column ‘II’. Column I
the organism Column II
used in the experiment? A. Darwin (i) Abiogenesis
(c) Ho w di d the sci en ti sts make it
possible to distinguish the heavy DNA B. Oparin (ii) Use and disuse of organs
mo le cul e from th e li gh t DNA C. Lamarck (iii) Continental drift theory
molecule? Explain.
D. Wagne r (iv) Evol uti on by natural
(d) Write the conclusion the scientists selection
arri ve d at after co mple ti ng the
experiment. (a) A-(i); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(iii)
20. Describe the experiment that proved that (b) A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii)
DNA is the genetic material. (c) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(iii); D-(i)
21. De scri be the el on gati on process of (d) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)
transcription in bacteria 5. Stabilising selection favours
22. Following the collision of two trains a large
number of passengers are killed. A majority (a) only one extreme form of a trait
of them are beyond recognition. Authorities (b) both the extreme forms of a trait
want to hand over the dead to their (c) intermediate form of a trait
re lati ve s. Name a modern scie ntific (d) none of these
method and write the procedure that would
help in the identification of kinship. 6. Disruptive selection favours
OR (a) only one extreme form of a trait
A number of passengers were severely (b) both the extreme forms of a trait
burnt beyond recognition during a train
accident. Name and describe a modern (c) intermediate form of a trait
technique that can help to hand over the (d) none of these
dead to their relatives. 7. The phenomenon of “Industrial melanism”
CHAPTER-06 demonstrates
EVOLUTION (a) natural selection
1. Which type of selection explains industrial (b) induced mutation
me lani sm o bserved i n mo th , Bi ston
bitularia? (c) genetic drift
(a) Stabilising (b) Directional (d) geographical isolation
(c) Disruptive (d) Artificial 8. In 1953, S. L. Miller created primitive earth
2. The most accepted line of descent in human conditions in the laboratory and gave
evolution is experimental evidence for origin of first
form of life from pre-existing non-living
(a) Australopithecus ’! Ramapithecus ’!
organic molecules. The primitive earth
Homo sapiens ’! Homo habilis
conditions created include
(b) Homo erectus ’! Homo habilis ’! Homo
sapiens (a) low temperature, volcanic storms,
atmosphere rich in oxygen
(c) Ramapithecus ’! Homo habilis ’! Homo
erectus ’! Homo sapiens (b) low temperature, volcanic storms,
reducing atmosphere
(d) Australopithecus ’! Ramapithecus ’!
Homo erectus ’! Homo habilis ’! Homo (c) high temperature, volcanic storms,
sapiens. non-reducing atmosphere
3. Which of the following is an example for link (d) high temperature, volcanic storms,
species? [NCERT Exemplar] reducing atmosphere containing
CH4 , NH3 etc.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
9. Wh ich is correct fo rmula o f Hardy- (ii) What conclusion was drawn by Urey
Weinberg’s law? and Miller through this experiment?
(a) p2 + pq + q2 = 0 (iii) Compare the conclusion drawn with
(b) p2 + pq + q2 = 1 the theory of spontaneous generation.
(c) p2 + pq + q2 = infinity 13. Darwin found the varieties of finches that
(d) p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 in travelled to Galapagos Islands and
observed variations in them.
In the following questions a statement of
assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given. Choose the correct answer out of the
following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statemen ts an d reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(i) What role does an individual organism
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct play as per Darwin’s theory of natural
statements but reason is not correct selection?
explanation for assertion.
(ii) How did Darwin explain the existence
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason of different varieties of finches on
is wrong statement. Galapagos Islands?
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason (iii) What is “fitness of an individual”
is correct statement. according to Darwin?
10. Assertion : Louis Pasteur’s experiments 14. Write the hypothetical proposals put forth
showed that new organisms appeared in an by Oparin and Haldane.
open flask with heat-killed yeast. 15. Identi ty the exampl es o f converge nt
evolution from the following: [CBSE Delhi
Reason : Life arises from pre-existing life
2013]
11. Assertion : Wings of butterfly and birds show (i) Flippers of penguins and dolphins
analogy.
(ii) Eyes of octopus and mammals
Reason : Analogous organs are anatomically (iii) Vertebrate brains
different but functionally similar.
16. Identify the examples of homologous
Case-based/Source-based Question structures from the following:
12. A student was simulating Urey and Miller’s (i) Vertebrate hearts
experiment to prove the origin of life. The (ii) Thorns in Bougainvillea and tendrils
set-up used by the student is given. of Cucurbita.
(iii) Food storage organs in sweet potato
and potato.
17. What is founder effect?
18. Co nverge nt evol utio n and diverge nt
evolution are the two concepts explaining
organic
evolution. Explain each one with the help
of an example.
19. Select two pairs from the following which
exhibit divergent evolution. Give reasons
for your
(i) Forelimbs of Cheetah and mammals
(ii) Flippers of dolphins and penguins
(i) Find out the reasons why he could not
get desired results. (iii) Wings of butterflies and birds
(iv) Forelimbs of whales and mammals
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
20. Describe the experiment of S.L. Miller on (a) Pineal (b) Pituitary
the origin of life. Write the conclusion drawn (c) Thymus (d) Thyroid
at the end of the experiment. 7. Haemozoin is a :
21. State the contribution of Louis Pasteur in (a) precursor of hemoglobin
understanding the origin of life on earth. (b) toxin released from Streptococcus
Explain the procedure that he followed to infected cells
arrive at his conclusion.
(c) toxin released from Plasmodium
22. How do fossils help us in understanding the infected cells
evolutionary history?
(d) toxin released from Haemophilus
. (a) Differentiate between analogous and infected cells
homologous structures.
8. Which of the following is not the causal
(b) Select and write analogous structures organism for ringworm?
from the list given below:
(a) Microsporum
(i) Wings of butterfly and birds (b) Trichophyton
(ii) Vertebrate hearts
(c) Epidermophyton
(iii) Tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita (d) Macrosporum
(iv) Tubers of sweet potato and potato In the following questions a statement of as-
23. How does industrial melanism support sertion followed by a statement of reason is
Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection? given. Choose the correct answer out of the fol-
Explain. lowing choices.
CHAPTER-7 (a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements and reason is correct expla-
Human Health and Diseases
nation for assertion.
1. The substance produced by a cell in viral
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct
infection that can protect other cells from
statements but reason is not correct ex-
further
planation for assertion.
infection is :
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason
(a) serotonin (b) colostrum is wrong statement.
(c) interferon (d) histamine
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
2. Transplantation of tissues/organs to save is correct statement.
certain patients often fails due to rejection
9. Assertion : Morphine is useful for patients
of such tissues/organs by the patient.
under depression.
Wh ich ty pe o f immu ne respo nse is
responsible for such rejections? Reason : Morphine is a very effective seda-
tive painkiller.
(a) Auto-immune response
(b) Humoral immune response 10. Assertion : Tobacco contains nicotine
which stimulates the adrenal gland.
(c) Physiological immune response
(d) Cell-mediated immune response Reason : Nicotine increases the blood pres-
sure and the heart rate.
3. Which of the following antibodies form
innate immunity? Case-based/Source-based Question
(a) IgE (b) IgD 11. Study the diagram showing replication of
(c) IgM (d) IgG HIV in humans and answer the following
quetions accordingly:
4. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate
secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline.
The component causing this could be :
(a) nicotine (b) tannic acid
(c) curamin (d) catechin
5. Which of the following is not a lymphoid
tissue?
(a) Spleen (b) Tonsils
(c) Pancreas (d) Thymus
6. Which of the following glands is large sized
at birth but reduces in size with ageing? (i) What type of virus causes AIDS? Name
its genetic material.
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(ii) Name the enzyme ‘B’ acting on ‘X’ to 20. (a) Name the stage of Plasmodium that
produce molecule ‘C’. Name ‘C’. gains entry into the human body.
(iii) Name the type of cells the AIDS virus (b) Trace the stages of Plasmodium in the
enters into after getting in the human body of female Anopheles after its en-
body. try.
12. Given below is the structure of an antibody. (c) Explain the cause of periodic recur-
rence of chill and high fever during
malarial attack in
humans.
21. Study a part of the life cycle of malarial
parasite given alongside. Answer the ques-
tions that
follow:
(a) Mention the roles of ‘A’ in the life
cycle of the malarial parasite.
(i) A boy of ten years had chicken pox.
(b) Name the event ‘C’ and the organ
He is not expected to have the same
where this event occurs.
disease for the rest of his life. Men-
tion how it is possible. (c) Identify the organ ‘B’ and name the
cells being released from it.
(ii) Why is secondary immune response
more intense than the primary im- 22. (a) Name the causative agents of pneu-
mune response in humans? monia and common cold.
(iii) Some allergens trigger sneezing and (b) Ho w do the se diffe r in the ir
wheezing in human beings. What symptoms ?
causes this type of response by the (c) Mention two symptoms common to
body? both.
13. Name any two physiological barriers that CHAPTER-8
provide innate immunity?
MICROBES IN HUMAN WELFARE
14. What is it that prevents a child to suffer 1. Select the correct statement from the
from a disease he/she is vaccinated
following
against? Give one reason.
(a) Biogas is produced by the activity of
15. Ho w do es colo stru m provi de i ni ti al
aerobic bacteria on animal waste
protection against diseases to new born
infants? Give one (b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic
bacterium found in rumen of cattle
reason.
(c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is
16. Name two diseases whose spread can be
pure methane
controlled by the eradication of Aedes
mosquitoes. (d) Acti vate d sl udge -sedimen t in
settlement tanks of sewage treatment
17. Name and explain the two types of immune
responses in humans. plant is a rich source
of aerobic bacteria.
18. State the functions of primary and second- 2. The vitamin whose content increases
ary lymphoid organs in humans. following the conversion of milk into curd
19. (a) Name the respective forms in which the by lactic acid
malarial parasite gains entry into bacteria is :
(i) Human bodyand (a) vitamin C (b) vitamin D
(ii) Body of female Anopheles. (c) vitamin B12 (d) vitamin E.
3. Wastewater treatment generates a large
(b) Name the hosts where the sexual and quantity of sludge, which can be treated by
the asexual reproductions of malarial (a) anaerobic digesters
parasites occur respectively. (b) floc
(c) Name the toxin responsible for the (c) chemicals
appearance of symptoms of malaria in (d) oxidation pond
humans. Why 4. Methanogenic bacteria are not found in
do these symptoms occur periodically? (a) rumen of cattle
(b) gobar gas plant
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(c) bottom of water-logged paddy fields R eason : Pri mary se wag e tre atme nt
(d) activated sludge. depends only on density of materials in
5. Match the following list of bacteria and their sewage.
co mmerci al ly i mpo rtan t products 10. Assertion : Baculoviruses control growth of
Bacterium Product many insects and arthropods.
A. Aspergillus niger (i) Lactic acid Reason : Lady bird and Trichoderma are
B. Acetobacter aceti (ii) Butyric acid used as biocontrol agents.
C. Clostridium butylicum (iii) Acetic acid Case-based/Source-based Question
D. Lactobacillus (iv) Citric acid 11. Given below is a figure of a biogas plant.
Choose the correct match. (i) Name the group of organisms and the
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i) substrate they act on to produce biogas.
(b) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
6. Bottled fruit juices from market are clearer
than that at home because of
(a) antibiotics (b) hormones
(c) enzymes (d) filtration
7. Match the following list o f bioactive
su bstances and thei r ro le sBio acti ve
Substance Role
A. Statin (i) Removal of oil stains (i) Name the group of organisms and the
B. Cyclosporin A (ii) Removal of clots from substrate they act on to produce biogas
blood vessels
C. Streptokinase (iii) Lowering of blood (ii) Identify the products A and B and
cholesterol discuss their significance.
D. Lipase (iv) Immuno-suppressive agent (iii) What are methanogens? How do they
Choose the correct match. generate biogas?
(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv) 12. Following is the process of curd formation
(b) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii) from milk.
(c) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(d) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(ii), D-(i)
8. Mycorrhiza does not help the host plant in
(a) enhancing its phosphorus uptake
capacity
(b) increasing its tolerance to drought
(c) enhancing its resistance to root
pathogens
(d) increasing its resistance to insects.
Assertion-Reason Questions
In the following questions a statement of 13. Mention the information that the health
assertion followed by a statement of reason is workers derive by measuring BOD of a
given. Choose the correct answer out of the water body.
following choices. 14. The excreta of cattle does not contain any
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct cellulose but human excreta may contain
statemen ts an d reason is correct cellulose. Why?
explanation for assertion.
15. What for Nucleopolyhedroviruses are being
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct
used nowadays?
statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion. 16. How is the presence of cyanobacteria in the
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason paddy fields beneficial to rice crop?
is wrong statement. 17. Mention a product of human welfare
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason obtained with the help of each one of the
is correct statement. following microbes:
9. Assertion : Primary treatment of sewage
is also called bilogical treatment.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(a) LAB
(b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(c) Propionibacterium sharmanii
(d) Aspergillus niger
18. Why are some molecules called bioactive (a) Replication completed
molecules? Give two examples of such (b) Deletion mutation
molecules. (c) Start codon at the 52 level
19. (a) Why are the fruit juices bought from (d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
market clearer as compared to those 5. There is a restriction endonuclease called
made at home? Eco RI. What does “co” part in it stand for?
(b) Name the bio acti ve mol ecul es (a) Colon (b) Coelom
produced by Trichoderma polysporum (c) Coenzyme (d) Coli
and Monascus purpureus. 6. Agarose extracted from sea weeds is used
in
20. Explain the different steps involved during
(a) spectrophotometry
primary treatment phase of sewage.
(b) tissue culture
21. Describe the steps that are followed during
(c) PCR
secondary treatment of sewage. (d) gel electrophoresis
OR 7. An enzyme catalysing the removal of
Effluent from the primary treatment of the nucleotides from the ends of DNA is
sewage is passed through large aeration (a) endonuclease (b) exonuclease
tanks for (c) DNA ligase (d) Hind-II
biological treatment. Explain the complete 8. The transfer of genetic material from one
process that follows till the water is ready bacteriu m to ano th er throu gh the
to be released into the natural water bodies. mediation of a viral vector is termed as:
22. Describe how do ‘flocs’ and ‘activated sludge’ (a) transduction (b) conjugation
help in sewage treatment. (c) transformation (d) translation
In the following questions a statement of
CHAPTER-9
assertion followed by a statement of reason is
BIOTECHNOLOGY: PRINCIPLES & given. Choose the correct answer out of the
PROCESSES following choices.
1. Restriction endonuclease (a) Assertion and reason both are correct
(a) synthesizes DNA
statemen ts an d reason is correct
(b) cuts the DNA molecues randomly
explanation for assertion.
(c) cuts the DNA molecule at specific
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct
sites
statements but reason is not correct
(d) restricts the synethesis of DNA inside
explanation for assertion.
the nuclease
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason
2. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene
is wrong statement.
with the plasmid vector became possible
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
with
is correct statement.
(a) DNA polymerase
9. Assertion : Insertion of recombinant DNA
(b) exonucleases
withi n the co ding sequ ence of beta-
(c) DNA ligase
galactosidase results in colourless colonies.
(d) endonucleases
Reason : Presence of insert results in
3. Stirre d-tank bi oreactors h ave be en
inactivation of enzyme beta-galactosidase
designed for
known as insertional inactivation.
(a) addition of preservatives to the product
6. Assertion : E.coli having pBR322 with DNA
(b) purification of the product
insert at BamHI site cannot grow in
(c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the
medium containing tetracycline.
culture vessel
Reason : Recognition site for BamHI is
(d) availability of oxygen throughout the
present in tetr region of pBR322.
process
Case-based/Source-based Question
4. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA
(i) Name the organism in which the
strand giving the base sequence on the
vector shown is inserted to get the
opposite
copies of the desired
strands. What is so special shown in it?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
gene. CHAPTER-10
(ii) Mention the area labelled in the BIOTECHNOLOGY AND ITS
vector responsible for controlling the APPLICATION
copy number of the inserted gene. 1. What is antisense technology?
(iii) Name an d ex plai n th e ro le o f a (a) Wh en a pie ce of RNA that is
se lectabl e marke r i n the vector complementary in sequence is used
shown. to stop expression of a specific gene.
(b) RNA polymerase producing DNA.
(c) A cell displaying a foreign antigen
used for synthesis of antigens.
(d) Production of somaclonal variants in
tissue cultures.
2. Cry I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
thuringiensis are effective against
(a) nematodes (b) bollworms
(c) mosquitoes (d) flies
3. Human insulin is being commercially
7. Rajesh was doing gel electrophoresis to produced from a transgenic species of
purify DNA fragments. Given below is the (a) Rhizobium
sketch of the observations of the experiment (b) Saccharomyces
performed by him. (c) Escherichia
(d) Mycobacterium
4. Which one of the following is commonly
used in transfer of foreign DNA into crop
plants?
(a) Meloidogyne incognita
(b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Penicillium expansum
8. Mention the uses of cloning vector in (d) Trichoderma harzianum
biotechnology. 5. What is true about Bt toxin?
9. What is the function of restriction enzyme? (a) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the
10. Why is the enzyme cellulase needed for Bacillus.
isolating genetic material from plant cells (b) The activated toxin enters the ovaries
and not from the animal cells? of the pest to sterilise it and thus
11. Name the compound used for staining the prevent its multiplication.
isolated DNA in the gel electrophoresis. (c) Th e co ncern ed Baci ll us h as
12. Explain the role of the enzyme EcoRI in antitoxins.
recombinant DNA technology. (d) The inactive protoxin gets converted
13. Wh y and how bacteria can be made into active form in the insect gut.
‘competent’? 6. Genetic engineering has been successfully
14. List the steps involved in rDNA technology. used for producing
15. Write the steps you would suggest to be (a) transgenic mice for testing safety of
undertaken to obtain a foreign-gene- polio vaccine before use in humans
product. (b) transgenic models for studying new
16. (a) Ex pl ai n th e sig ni fi cance of treatmen ts fo r ce rtain cardi ac
‘palindromic nucleotide sequence’ in the diseases
formation of (c) transgenic cow-Rosie which produces
recombinant DNA. high fat milk for making ghee
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as
(b) Write th e use of restricti on
they have super power
endonuclease in the above process.
7. GEAC stands for
17. Draw a schematic sketch of pBR322 plasmid
(a) Ge no me Eng ine erin g Acti on
and label the following in it: Committee
(a) Any two restriction sites. (b) Grou nd Enviro nmen t Acti on
(b) ori and rop genes. Committee
(c) An antibiotic resistant gene. (c) Ge ne ti c En gi ne erin g Approval
Committee
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(d) Genetic and Environment Approval
committee
8. a-1-antitrypsin is
(a) an antacid
(b) an enzyme
(c) used to treat arthritis
(d) used to treat emphysema
In the following questions a statement of
assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given. Choose the correct answer out of the
following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statemen ts an d reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct 12. Name a recombinan t vaccine that is
statements but reason is not correct cu rren tl y bei ng used i n vacci nati on
explanation for assertion. program?
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason 13. State the cause of adenosine deaminase
is wrong statement. enzyme deficiency.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason 14. Suggest any two possible treatments that
is correct statement. can be given to a pati ent exhibiting
9. Assertion : The RNAi can be introduced in adenosine deaminase deficiency.
an organism only by inserting the gene 15. What are transgenic animals? Give an
encoding example.
complementary RNA. 16. cryIAb is introduced in a plant to control
Reason : The complement of the mRNA infestation by corn borer.
se nse strand u suall y co ntai ns the (a) Name the re su ltan t plant after
sequence of codons for producing functional successful insertion of the gene
protein. desired.
10. Assertion : ‘Cry’ proteins are named so (b) Summarise the action of the gene
because they are crystal proteins. introduced.
Reason : ‘Cry’ proteins solubilise in alkaline 17. Nematode-specific genes are introduced
pH of the insect’s gut and activate Bt toxin. into the tobacco plants using Agrobacterium
Case-based/Source-based Question vectors
11. Refer to the diagram of maturation of to develop resistance in tobacco plants
proinsulin into insulin to answer the against nematodes. Explain the events that
following questions. occur in
tobacco plant to develop resistance.
OR
How has RNAi technique helped to prevent
the infestation of roots in tobacco plants by
a nematode Meloidogyne incognita?
18. What is GMO? List any five possible
advantages of a GMO to a farmer.
19. Mention some transgenic plants and their
potential applications.
20. Why do lepidopterans die when they feed
on Bt cotton plant? Explain how does it
happen.
21. Name the pest that destroys the cotton bolls.
(i) How are two short polypeptide chains
Explain the role of Bacillus thuringiensis
of insulin linked together?
in protecting the cotton crop against the
(ii) State the role of C-peptide in human
pest to increase the yield.
insulin.
(iii) Mention the chemical change that
proinsulin undergoes, to be able to act
as mature insulin.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
CHAPTER-11 7. At which point in the graph shown below
would there be zero population growth (DN/
ORGANISMS & POPULATION
Dt = 0)?
1. Which of the following is a characteristic of
biological community?
(a) Startification (b) Natality
(c) Morality (d) Sex-ratio
2. Wh at type of h uman popul atio n is
represented by the following age pyramid?
(a) a (b) b
(a) Vanishing population (c) c (d) d
(b) Stable population 8. The birth and death rates of four countries
(c) Declining population are given below. Which one will have the
(d) Expanding population least population growth rate?
3. The logistics population growth is expressed
Country Birth rate100 Death rate1000
by the equation
M 15 5
dt K N N 25 10
(a) Nr
dN K O 35 18
P 48 41
dN K N
(b) rN (a) M (b) N
dt K (c) O (d) P
dN In the following questions a statement of as-
(c) rN sertion followed by a statement of reason is
dt
given. Choose the correct answer out of the
dN N K following choices.
(d) rN
dt N (a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statemen ts an d reason is correct
4. Cuscuta is an example of explanation for assertion.
(a) ectoparasitism (b) Assertion and reason both are correct
(b) brood parasitims statements but reason is not correct
(c) predation explanation for assertion.
(d) endoparasitims (c) Assertion is correct statement but reason
5. Which of the following is the most accurate is wrong statement.
comment on Earth’s carrying capacity (K)? (d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason
(a) K is smal ler no w than it was a is correct statement.
thousand years ago. 9. Assertion : Population pyramid (graphically)
(b) The human population is still a long depicts the rate at which population will
way from K. grow in future.
(c) Our technology has allowed us to keep Reason : A triangular population pyramid
increasing K. depicts population size is stable.
(d) Wh en i t co me s to h uman s, the 10. Assertion : A stable population is depicted
concept of K is irrelevant. by bell-shaped age pyramid.
6. When birth rate equals death rate, Reason : The proportion of individuals in
(a) a population grows rapidly reproductive age group is higher than those
(b) the size of a population remains in pre reproductive age group.
constant. Case-based/Source-based Question
(c) density-dependent limiting factors do 11. The graph shown alongside represents the
not affect the population. organi smic respo nse to a certain
(d) a population is in danger of extinction. environmentalcondition(e.g., temperature):
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(b) Explain with the help of an example
how the percentage cover is a more
meaningful measure of population
size than mere numbers.
20. (a) List any three ways of measuring
population density of a habitat.
(b) Mention the essential information
that can be obtained by studying the
population density
of an organism.
21. (a) State how the constant internal/
(i) Which one of these, ‘A’ or ‘B’, depicts en vi ro nmen t is ben eficial to
conformers? organisms.
(ii) What does the other line graph depict? (b) Explain any two alternatives by which
organisms can overcome stressful
(iii) How do these organisms differ from
external conditions.
each o th er w ith re fe re nce to 22. De scri be the spe cific adaptatio n of
homeostasis? xerophytes with respect to root system, stem
12. Study the three different age pyramids for and leaves.
human population given below and answer CHAPTER-12 ECOSYSTEM
the questions that follow:
1. Mass of living matter at a trophic level in
an area at any time is called
(a) standing crop (b) detritus
(c) humus (d) standing state
2. Identify the possible link “A” in the follow-
ing food chain.
(i) Write the names given to each of
Plant insect frog “A” ’! eagle
these age pyramids.
(a) rabbit (b) wolf
(ii) Mention the one which is ideal for
(c) cobra (d) parrot
human population and why.
3. The upright pyramid of number is absent
(iii) What would be the growth rate pattern
in
when the resources are unlimited?
(a) pond (b) forest
13. In a pond there were 20 Hydrilla plants.
(c) lake (d) grassland
Through reproduction 10 new Hydrilla
4. The rate of formation of new organic mat-
plants were added in a year. Calculate the
ter by rabbit in a grassland, is called
birth rate of the population.
(a) net productivity
14. What does J-shaped growth curve of a
(b) second productivity
population indicate?
(c) net primary productivity
15. What does sigmoid growth curve of a
(d) gross primary productivity
population indicate?
5. Productivity is the rate of production of bio-
16. Give an example of an organism that enters
mass expressed in terms of
‘diapause’ and why.
17. Explain relationship between biotic poten- (i) (kcalm 3 ) yr 1
tial and environmental resistance.
(ii) g 2 yr 1
18. Ex pl ai n re lati on shi p be tw ee n bi otic
potential and environmental resistance. (iii) g 1 yr 1
(iv) (kcal m 2 ) yr 1
6. An inverted pyramid of biomass can be
found in which ecosystem?
(a) Forest (b) Marine
(c) Grass land (d) Tundra
7. Which of the following ecosystems is most
(a)
Label the three tiers 1, 2, 3 given in
productive in terms of net primary produc-
the above age pyramid.
(b) What type of population growth is tion?
represented by the above age pyramid? (a) Deserts
19. (a) Write the importance of measuring (b) Tropical rain forests
the size of a population in a habitat or (c) Oceans
an ecosystem. (d) Estuaries
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
8. Pyramid of numbers is 17. Compare the two ecological pyramids of bio-
(a) always upright mass given below and explain the situations
(b) always inverted in which this is possible. Also, construct
(c) either upright or inverted an ideal pyramid of energy, if 200,000 joules
(d) neither upright nor inverted of sunlight is available.
In the following questions a statement of as- 18. State the difference between the first
sertion followed by a statement of reason is trophic levels of detritus food chain and
given. Choose the correct answer out of the fol- grazing food chain.
lowing choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statemen ts an d reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason 19. Describe the inter-relationship between
is wrong statement. productivity, gross primary productivity and
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason net productivity.
is correct statement. 20. Name the pioneer species on a bare rock.
9. Assertion : In a terrestrial ecosystem, de- How do they help in establishing the next
tritus food chain is the major conduit for type of vegetation? Mention the type of cli-
energy flow. max community that will ultimately get
Reason : Solar energy is the direct source established.
for energy supply in a detritus food chain. OR
10. Assertion : Net primary productivity is gross Explain how does a primary succession start
primary productivity minus respiration. on a bare rock and reach a climax commu-
Reason : Secondary productivity is produced nity.
by heterotrophs. 21. Differentiate between primary and second-
Case-based/Source-based Question ary succession. Provide one example of
11. What will happen to an ecosystem if each.
(a) All producers are removed; 22. (a) Name the type of detritus that decom-
(b) All organisms of herbivore level are poses faster. List any two factors that
eliminated; and enhance the rate of decomposition.
(c) All top carnivore population is removed. (b) Write the different steps taken in hu-
12. (a) Colonisation of a rocky terrain is a mification and mineralisation during
natural process. Mention the group of the process of decomposition.
organisms which invade this area CHAPTER-13
first. Give an example.
(b) Over the years, it has been observed BIODIVERSITY & CONSERVATION
that some of the lakes are disappear- 1. Wh ich on e of the fo ll ow in g pairs of
ing due to urbanisation. In absence organisms are exotic species introduced in
of human interference, depict by mak- India?
ing a flow chart, how dothe succes- (a) Lantana camara, water hyacinth
(b) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cinereria
sional series progress from hydric to
(c) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
mesic condition. (d) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara
(c) Identify the climax community of 2. Which one of the following is not observed
hydrarch and xerarch succession. in biodiversity hot spots?
13. What is net primary productivity? (a) Lesser inter-specific competition
14. Why is the rate of assimilation of energy at (b) Species richness
the herbivore level called secondary produc- (c) Endemism
tivity? (d) Accelerated species loss
15. Write the equation that helps in deriving 3. Which one of the following is an example of
the net primary productivity of an ecosys- ex situ conservation?
tem (a) Wildlife sanctuary
16. What is a detritus food chain made up of? (b) Seed bank
How do they meet their energy and nutri- (c) Sacred groves
tional requirements? (d) National park
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
4. Which one of the following is correct 10. Assertion : Species with high genetic vari-
expanded form of the following acronyms? ability are at greater risk of extinction than
(a) IPCC = I nte rn atio nal Pan el for species with low genetic variability.
Climate Change R eason : S pe ci es w ith l ow g en etic
(b) UNEP = United Nations Environmental variability are more vulnerable to predators
Policy and environmental challenges.
(c) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency 11. The following graph shows the species–area
(d) IU CN = In te rnati onal Un ion for re lati on sh ip. A nswe r the fol lo wi ng
Conservation of Nature and Natural questions as directed.
Resources
5. A collection of plants and seed having
diverse alleles of all the genes of a crop is
called
(a) herbarium (b) germplasm
(c) gene library (d) genome
6. Biodiversity of a geographical region
represents
(a) endangered species found in the
region
(b) the diversity in the organisms living (i) Name the naturalist who studied the
in the region kind of relationship shown in the
(c) genetic diversity in the dominant graph. Write the observations made
species of the region by him.
(d) species endemic to the region (ii) Write the situations as discovered by
7. Which of the following countries has the the ecologists when the value of ‘Z’
highest biodiversity? (slope of the line) lies between (a) 0.1
(a) South America (b) South Africa and 0.2 (b) 0.6 and 1.2.What does ‘Z’
(c) Russia (d) India stand for?
8. Which of the following is not a cause for (iii) When would the slope of the line ‘b’
loss of biodiversity? become steeper?
(a) Destruction of habitat 12. Observe the global biodiversity distribution
(b) Invasion by alien species of major plant taxa in the diagram alongside
(c) Keeping animals in zoological parks and answer the questions that follow.
(d) Over-exploitation of natural resources
In the following questions a statement of as-
sertion followed by a statement of reason is
given. Choose the correct answer out of the fol-
lowing choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct
statemen ts an d reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct
statements but reason is not correct (i) Which group of plants are most
explanation for assertion. endangered?
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason (ii) Why are mosses/ferns so few? Give
is wrong statement. reason.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but\ reason (iii) How do fungi that are heterotrophs
is correct statement. su stai n th emsel ve s as a l arge
9. Assertion : According to broadly utilitarian population?
arguments, biodiversity needs to be con- (iv) Wh ich grou p of pl an ts i s mo st
served asit plays important role in many advanced and which one is most
ecosystem services. primitive?
Reason : Species diversity at molecular and 13. Name the unlabelled areas ‘a’ and ‘b’ of the
genetic levels are explored to obtain prod- pie chart (given alongside) representing the
ucts of economic importance. global biodiversity of invertebrates showing
their proportionate number of species of
major taxa.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
tion, which is a desirable approach in situ
or ex situ? Justify your answer and explain
the difference between the two approaches.
19. Explain ‘rivet popper’ hypothesis. Name the
ecologist who proposed it.
20. The given graph alongside shows species–
area relationship. Write the equation of the
curve ‘a’ and explain.
14. Why is genetic variation important in the
plant Rauwolfia vomitoria?
15. According to David Tilman, greater the
di ve rsity greate r is the pri mary
productivity. Can you
think of a very low diversity man-made
ecosystem that has high productivity.
16. What is the difference between endemic
and exotic species?
21. Many plant and animal species are on the
17. What does the term genetic diversity refer
verge of their extinction because of loss of
to? What is the significance of large genetic
forest land by indiscriminate use by the
diversity in a population?
humans. As a biology student what method
18. A particular species of wild cat is endan-
would you suggest along with its advantages
gered. In order to save them from extinc-
that can protect such threatened species
from getting extinct?
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
MATHEMATICS
CHAPTER-1
(a) f 1 o g 1 (b) f o g
RELATION AND FUNCTION –1 –1
(c) g o f (d) g o f
1. If a relation R on the set {1, 2, 3} be
8. Let A = {1, 2, 3} and consider the
defined by R = {(1, 2)}, then R is
relation
(a) reflexive (b) transitive
R = {1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 3)}
(c) symmetric (d) none of these
Then R is
2. Let us define a relation R in R as aRb if
(a) reflexive but not symmetric
a b. Then R is
(b) reflexive but not transitive
(a) an equivalence relation
(c) symmetric and transitive
(b) reflexive, transitive but not
symmetric (d) neither symmetric, nor transitive
(c) symmetric, transitive but not Each question consists of two statements,
reflexive namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
(d) neither transitive nor reflexive but correct answer, use the following code:
symmetric
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
3. Let A = {1, 2, 3,….n} and B = {a, b}. Then
and Reason is a correct explanation of
the number of surjections from A into Bis
(a) n P2 (b) 2n – 2 Assertion.
(c) 2n – 1 (d) None of these (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
3 but Reason is not a correct explanation
4. Let f : R R be defined by
5 of Assertion.
3x 2 (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
f ( x) . Then
5x 3 (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
(a) f 1 ( x) f ( x ) (b) f 1 ( x) f ( x) 9. Assertion: Let A = (a, b, c), B = (4, 5, 6, 7)
1 1 and let f = {(a, 4), (c , 5), (b, 7)} be a function
(c) (f o f)x = – x (d) f ( x) f ( x)
19 from A to B. Then f is one-one
5. Let f : [2, ) R be the function defined Reason: f is bijective function
by f (x) = x2 – 4x + 5, then the range of f 10. Assertion: The relation R on the set
is N N, defined by (a, b) R (c, d) a + d = b
(a) R (b) [1, ) + c for all (a, b), (c, d) N N is an
(c) [4, ) (d) [5, ) equivalence relation.
6. Let f : N R be the function defined by Reason: Any relation R is an equivalence
2x 1 relation, if it is reflexive, symmetric and
f ( x) and g : Q R be another
2 transitive.
function defined by g (x) = x + 2. Then 11. If f : R R is defined by f (x) = x2 – 3x + 2,
3 find f (f (x)).
(g o g) is
2 12. Let f : N Y be a function defined as
(a) 1 (b) 3 f (x) = 4x + 3, where, Y = {y N : y = 4x + 3
7 for some x N}. Show that f is invertible.
(c) (d) none of these
2 Find the inverse.
7. Let f : A B and g : B C be the bijective 13. Let A = R {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the
functions. Then (g o f) is –1
fu ncti on f : A B defin ed by
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
f (x) = (x – 2) / (x – 3). Is f one-one and 20. Let L be the set of all lines in xy plane
onto? Justify your answer. and R be the relation in L define as
14. If R = {(x, y): x + 2y = 8) is a relation on N, R = {(L1, L2) : L1 | | L2}
then write the range of R. Show then R is on equivalence relation.
15. Show that the function f : R R is given Find the set of all lines related to the line
by f (x) = x3 is injective. y = 2x + 4.
16. If A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the 7 3
21. Sh ow that if f : R R is
fu ncti on f : A B defin ed by 5
5
f (x)= x – 2/ x – 3 for all x A. Then show
3x 4
that f is bijective. Find f –1 (x). de fi ni ng by f ( x) an d
5x 7
17. Case Study: An organization conducted
3 7
bike race under two different categories g :R R is de fi ne d by
5 5
– Bo ys and g irls. The re w ere 28
participants in all. Among all of them, 7x 4
g ( x) , then fog – I and gof – I when
finally three from category 1 and two from 5x 3 A B
category 2 were selected for the final race. 3 7
A R , B R ; I A ( x) x , fo r al l
Ravi forms two sets B and G with these 5 5
participants for his college project. x A IB(x) = x, for all x B are called
Let B = {b1, b2, b3} and G = {g1, g2}, where B iden tify fun ction o n set A an d B
represents the set of Boys selected and G respectively.
the set of Girls selected for the final race. 22. Co nsider f : R [5, ] g iven by
Based on the above information answer 2
f (x) = 9x + 6x – 5. Show that f is invertible
the following questions.
(i) How many relations are possible from
f 1
( y )
y 6 1
B to G? with 3 .
(ii) among all the possible relations from
CHAPTER-2
B to G, how may functions can be
INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTION
formed from B to G?
1. If the inverse trigonometric function
(i ii ) Let R : B B be de fi ne d by
take principal values, then
R = {(x, y) : x and y are students of the
same se x} . Che ck if R is an 3 4 2 4
cos1 cos tan1 sin tan1 is equal to
equivalence relation. 10 3 5 3
OR
A function f : B G be defined by f = {(b1, (a) 0 (b)
4
g1), (b2, g2), (b3, g1)}. Check if f is bijective.
Justify your answer, (c) (d)
3 6
18. Sh ow that re lati on R i n th e
set A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} given by R = {(a, b) 1 1
2. The value of sin sin is
: |a – b| is divisible by 2} is an equivalence 3 2
relation. 1
(a) 1 (b)
19. Let A = R – {3} and B = R – {1}. Consider 2
th e fun cti on f : A B define d by 1 1
(c) (d)
x2 3 4
f ( x) . Is f one-one and onto?
x3 3. cos1 cos 5 sin1 sin 6 tan 1 tan 12
Justify your answer.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
is equal to (The inverse trigonometric 1 1
function take the principal values) Reason: tan x cot x , xR
2
(a) 3 11 (b) 4 9 10. Assertion: The function f (x) = sin x does
(c) 4 11 (d) 3 1 not possess inverse if x R
Reason: The fucntion f (x) = sin x is not
4. The value of tan
2
sec 2 +cot cosec 3
-1 2 -1
one-one onto if x R .
(a) 13 (b) 15 11. Determine the principal value of cos–1 (–
(c) 11 (d) None of these 1/2).
2 12. The vaule of tan 1 3 sec1 (2) is equal to
1
5. The principal value of sin sin is 13. Prove that
3
sin 1 (3 / 5) sin 1 (8 / 17) cos 1 (84 / 85)
2 2
(a) (b) 14. Find the value of cos 1 (1 / 2) 2 sin 1 (1 / 2) .
3 3
4 1 3
(c) (d) None of these 15. Write the principal value of sin sin
3 5
6. The domain of sin–1 2x is 16. Using the principal values, evalaute
(a) [0, 1] (b) [– 1, 1] 1
tan 1 (1) sin 1
1 1 2
(c) , (d) [–2, 2]
2 2 1 cos x 1 cos x
1
7. The domain of the function y = sin–1 (– 17. Show that tan
1 cos x 1 cos x
x2) is
(a) [0, 1] (b) (0, 1) x
, x [0, ]
(c) [– 1, 1] (d) 4 2
1 cos x 1
1 cos
Show that tan 1 sin x cot 1 cos x
1 1
8. If sin x sin y , then value of cos–1x 18.
2
+ cos–1 y is
, x 0,
(a) (b) 4 2
2
19. Show that
2
(c) 0 (d)
3 x 1 x
a2 x2
tan 1 1
sin cos
Each question consists of two statements, 2
a x
2
a a
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the 20 Wh at i s th e value o f th e fu ncti on
correct answer, use the following code: cos ec 1 2 sec 1
( 2)
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true 21. Write the value of the function
(i) What is the value of the function
and Reason is a correct explanation of
Assertion. 1 1 2
tan 1 sec
3 3
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(ii) What is the value of the function
but Reason is not a correct explanation
1 3
sin 1 cos 1
of Assertion.
2 2
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
1 sin x 1 sin x x
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. 22. cos 1 , x 0,
1 sin x 1 sin x 2 4
1 1
9. Assertion: If x < 0, tan–1x + tan
x
2
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
CHAPTER-3 MATRICES (a) m m (b) n n
(c) n m (d) m n
0 0 1
Each question consists of two statements,
1. Let A 0 1 0 . The only correct
1 0 0 namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
statement about the matrix A is correct answer, use the following code:
(a) A 1 does not exist (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(b) A (1)I , where I is a unit matrix. and Reason is a correct explanation of
(c) A is a zero matrix. Assertion.
(d) A 2 I (b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
2. If A is singular matrix, then Adj A is but Reason is not a correct explanation
(a) singular (b) non-singular of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(c) symmetric (d) not defined.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
5 5
1 2 4
A 0 5 . A 2 25, A 2 3 1
3. Let If then 9. Assertion: Matrix is
0 0 5 4 1 5
equals. symmetric matrix.
1 0 1 2
(a) (b) 5
5 B 1 0 3
R eason: Matrix is
(c) 52 (d) 1 2 3 0
0 0 4 a skew-symmetric matrix.
P 0 4 0 10. Assertion: For any square matrix B with
4. The matrix is a
4 0 0 real number enteries, B B ' is a skew-
symmetric matrix and B B ' is a
(a) square matrix (b) diagonal matrix symmetric matrix.
(c) unit matrix (d) none Reason: A square matrix B can be
5. If matrix A [aij ]22 where a ij 1 if expressed as the sum of a symmetric
i j = 0 if i = j then A2 is equal to matrix and skew-symmetric matrix.
(a) I (b) A 5 0 4 3
(c) 0 (d) None of these 11. If 3 A B and B 2 5 then
1 1
1 0 0 find the value of matrix A.
0 2 0 12. Solve the following matrix equation forx.
6. The matrix is a
0 0 4 1 0
[ x 1] 0
(a) identity matarix 2 0
(b) symmetric matrix
x .y 4 8 w
(c) skew symmetric matrix 13. If z 6 x y 0 6 , then write
(d) none of these
7. If A is a square matrix such that A2 = I, the value of (x + y + z).
then (A – I)3 + (A + I)3 – 7A is equal to
14. The elements a of a 3 3 matrix are
(a) A (b) I – A
(c) I + A (d) 3A 1
8. If A is matrix of order m n and B is a given by a ij | 3i j |. Write the value
2
matrix such that AB ' and B ' A are both
of element a32.
defined, then order of matrix B is
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
1 0 1 1 (d) A 2 I
15. If [213] 1 1 0 = A, then write 1 2 1
0 1 1 1
A 1 1 2
2. If then det[adj (adj A )]
the order of matrix A. (Foreign 2015) 2 1 1
x 0 1 0 is equal to
16. If A and B 5 1 , then find
1 1 (a) 124 (b) 134
the value of x for which A2 = B.
17. Two classes, Class 1 and Classes 2 are (c) 144 (d) none of these
raising fund for charity. They sold 3. If A is singular matrix, then Adj A is
burger and maggi during a funfair. The (a) singular (b) non-singular
details of their business on the funfair
is given below
(c) symmetric (d) not defined.
Burger Maggi
Class 1 27 14 5 5
Class 2 32 21 A 0 5 . A 2 25,
4. Let If then
0 0 5
They sold each unit of burager at Rs. 90
and each maggi at Rs. 50. It cost them
equals.
Rs. 70 per unit to buy burger and Rs. 35
to buy one maggi. 1
(a) (b) 5
27 14 70 5
Given that A 32 21 , C 35
(c) 52 (d) 1
5. If the system of equations ax y z 0 ,
90
and S 50 x by z 0 and
(i) Find QC x y cz 0 (a, b, c 1) has a non-trivial
(ii) Find S – C solution, then the value of a
(iii) Find Q(S – C) is
1 0 2 (a) – 1 (b) 0
A 0 2 1 (c) 1 (d) none of these
18. If , then show that
2 0 3 1 2
6. The adjoint of the matrix A 3 4 is
A 3 6A2 7A 2I 0
19. If Find matrix X, if 4 2 4 2
(a) 3 1 (b) 3 1
7 8 9
1 2 3 4 2 1 2
X 2 4 6
4 5 6
(c) 3 1 (d) 3 4
11 10 9
7. If A is square matarix such that
|A| = 2, then |AAT| is equal to
CHAPTER-4 DETERMINANTS (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 16
0 0 1 8. If |A| = 2, where A is a 2 2 matrix,
1. Let A 0 1 0 . The only correct then |4A–1| equal to
1 0 0 (a) 4 (b) 2
statement about the matrix A is 1
(c) 8 (d)
32
(a) A 1 does not exist
Each question consists of two statements,
(b) A (1)I , where I is a unit matrix.
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
(c) A is a zero matrix.
correct answer, use the following code:
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true CHAPTER-5
and Reason is a correct explanation of CONTINUITY & DIFFERENTIABILITY
Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true 1. The function
but Reason is not a correct explanation sin x
of Assertion. cos x , if x 0
f (x ) x
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
k, if x 0
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
is continuous at x = 0, then the value of
0 1 2 k is
1 0 3 0 (A) 3 (b) 2
9. Assertion: (c) 1 (d) 1.5
2 3 0
2. The function f (x) = [x], where [x]
Reason: Determinant of odd ordered denotes the greatest integer function,
skew-symmetric is zero. is continuous at
10. Assertion: If A is non-singualr matrix, (a) 4 (b) – 2
then A–1 exist. (c) 1 (d) 1.5
Reason: Determinant of a non-singular 3. The number of points at which the
matrix is zero.
1
11. If A is skew-symmetric matrix of order 3, function f (x ) x [ x ] is not continuous is
then prove that det A = 0
12. Show that the points (a + 5, a – 4), (a –2, a (a) 1 (b) 2
+ 3) and (a, a) do not lie on a straight line (c) 3 (d) none of these
for any value of a. 4. The function f (x) = |x| + |x – 1| is
13. If the value of a third order detaerminant (a) continuous at x = 0 as well as at x = 1
is 12, the n fi nd the valu e of the (b) continuous at x = 1 b ut not at x = 0
determinant formed by replacing each
element by its cofactor. (c) discontinuous at x = 0 as well as at x
14. If for the non-sigular matrix A, A2 = I, then =1
find A–1. (d) continuous at x = 0 but not at x = 1
5. The value of k which makes the
1 3 3
function defined by
15. If A 1 4 3 , then verify that A. adj (A)
1 3 4 1
sin , if x 0
f (x ) x , continuous at x
= |A| I. Also, find A–1 k , if x 0
3 2 = 0 is
16. If A 4 2 , then find the value of ,
(a) 8 (b) 1
so that A 2 A 2I . Hence, find A–1. (c) –1 (d) none of these
6. The set of points where the functions f
2 2 1 given by f (x) = |x – 3| is differentiable is
A 2 1 2 (a) R (b) R – {3}
17. Su ppose an d
1 2 2 (c) (0, ) (d) none of these
7. Differential coefficient of sec (tan –1 x)
w.r.t. x is
1 3 2
B 1 1 1 x x
, verify that (AB)–1 = B–1A–1 (a) (b)
2 3 1 1 x 2
1 x2
18. Using matrices, solve the system of 1
equations (c) x 1 x 2 (d)
1 x2
4x 3y 2z 60 ,
1 2x 2x
x 2y 3z 45 8. If u sin 2 and
v tan1 2
,
1 x 1 x
and 6x + 2y + 3z = 70.
du
then is
dv
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
1 3ax b, if x 1
(a) (b) x
2 f (x ) 11, if x 1
16. if the function is
5ax 2b, if x 1
1 x2
(c) (d) 1
1 x2 continuous at x = 1, then find the values
Each question consists of two statements, of a and b.
17. Let f (x) be a function defined in 1 x
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
2 x for 1 x 2
correct answer, use the following code: by f (x ) 3x x 2
for x 2
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
Answer the following questions
and Reason is a correct explanation of (i) Is the function at x = 2 continuous or
not?
Assertion.
(ii) Find the left hand derivative of f (x) at
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true x = 1.5.
but Reason is not a correct explanation 18. If x a cos 3 and y a sin3 , then find
of Assertion. d 2y
the value of at .
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false. dx 2 6
19. If y = e x sin x , th en prove th at
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
9. Assertion: If f (x) is an odd function, then d 2y dy
2 2y 0 .
f '( x ) is an even function. dx 2 dx
Reason: If u = f (x), v = g(x), then the CHAPTER-6
deri vative of f wi th respect to g is APPLICATION OF DERIVATIVE
du du / dx 1. The abscissa of the point on the curve
3y = 6x – 5x3, the normal at which
dv dv / dx
10. Assertion: If exy + log (xy) + cos (xy) + 4 = passes through origin is
dy y 1
0, then . (a) 1 (b)
dx x 3
d dy y 1
Reason: (xy ) 0 (c) 2 (d)
dx dx x 2
3 2
2. The two curves x – 3xy + 2 = 0 and
x
dy 3x2y – y3 = 2
11. If y = log sin (e + 5x + 8), then is equal
dx (a) touch each other
to (b) cut at right angle
dy x y
12. If x = ex/y, then is equal to x log x . (c) cut at an angle
dx 3
d 2y
13. If y = x cosx, then is (d) cut at an angle
dx 2 4
3. The tangent to the curve given by
14. Find the second derivative of log x.
15. Find the value of k, so that the function f
x = et. cost t, y = et. sin t at t makes
is con ti nu ou s at x / 2, 4
with x-axis an angle
k cos x
2x , if x 2
(a) 0 (b)
f (x ) 4
3,
if x
2
(c) (d)
3 2
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
4. The point on the curve y2 = x, where the
dv 2
.3r 2
tangent makes an angle of with x- dr 3
4 10. Assertion: The function
axis is f (x) = x2 –4 x + 6
1 1 1 1 is strictly increasing in the interval
(a) , (b) , (2, )
2 4 4 2
(c) (4, 2) (d) (1, 1) Reason: The function f (x) = x2 – 4x + 6
5. If f (x) = a (x – cos x) is strictly is strictly decreasing in the interval
decreasing in R, then a belongs to ( , 2) .
(a) {0} (b) (0, ) 11. A Stone is dropped into a quiet lake and
waves moves in circles at a speed of 5
(c) (, 0) (d) ( , )
cm/s. At the instant when the radius of
3
6. The function f (x) = x + 3x is increasing the circular wave is 8 cm, how fast is
in an interval the enclosed area increasing?
(a) (,0) (b) (0, ) 12. If the radius of a circle increasing from
(c) R (d) (0, 1) 5 cm to 5.1 cm, then find the increase
area.
13. Show that the function
7. For 0 , the value of , if it
2 f (x) = x3 – 3x2 + 6x – 100 is increasing
increases twice as fast as its sine, is on R.
14. Show that the funciton f (x ) cos 2 x is a
(a) (b)
2 3
decreasing function on 0,
2
(c) (d) None of these
6 15. If x and y are the sides of two squares
8. The smallest value of polynomial x3 – such that y = x – x2, then find the rate of
18x2 + 96 x in [0, 9] is change of the area of seocnd square
(a) 126 (b) 0 with respect to the area of first square.
(c) 135 (d) 160 16. Find the intervals in which the function
Each question consists of two statements, f (x ) 4 sin3 x 6 sin2 x 12sin x 100
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the is strictly decreasing.
17. In order to set up a rainwater
correct answer, use the following code: harvesting system, a tank to collect
rainwater is to be dug. The tank should
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
have a square base and a capacity of
and Reason is a correct explanation of 250 m3. The cost of land is Rs. 5000 per
square metre and cost of digging
Assertion. increases with depth and for the whole
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true tank, it is Rs. 40000 h2, where h is the
depth of the tank in metres x is the side
but Reason is not a correct explanation of the square base of the tank in
of Assertion. metres.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
9. Assertion: A balloon, which always
remains spherical, has a variable radius.
th e rate , at w hi ch i ts vol ume is
increasing with the radius when the
radius is 10 cm, is 400 cm 3 / cm .
Reason: Rate of change of volume (v) of
balloon with respect to radius (r) is
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
Based on the above information, answer b b
the following questions. f (x c )dx
(i) Find the total cost C of digging the
(a)
a
(b) f (x c )dx
a
tank in terms of x. b b c
(ii) Find
dC (c) f (x )dx
a
(d)
a c
f (x )dx
dx
(iii) (a) Find the value of x for which cost y
dt d 2y
C is minimum 5. If x and
dx 2
ay , then a is
(b) Check whether the cost function 0 1 9t 2
C (x) expressed in terms of x is equal to
increasing or not, where x > 0 (a) 3 (b) 6
18. Show that a cylinder of a given volume, (c) 9 (d) 1
which is open at the top has minimum x 2
total surface area, when its height is 6. 2 dx is equal to
equal to the radius of its base. (a) 2 x+2
+C
19. The demand function of an output is x = (b) 2x + 2 log 2 + C
106 – 2p, where x is the number of
units and p be the price per unit and 2x 2
(c) C
x log 2
the average cost per unit is 5 . If
50
2x
the total revenue is px, then determine (d) 2. C
the number of units for maximum log 2
profit. 2 x3
CHAPTER-7 INTEGRALS
7. x e dx is equal to
x 1 x3 1 x2
1. e (cos x sin x )dx is equal to
(a) e C (b) e C
3 3
(a) ex cos x+ C (b) ex sin x + C
(b) – ex cos x + C (d) – ex sin x + C 1 x3 1 x2
(c) e C (d) e C
dx 2 2
2. sin 2
x cos 2 x
is equal to
1
8. dx is equal to
(a) tan x + cot x + C 9x 4x 2
(b) (x + cotx)2 + C
(c) tan x – cotx + C 1 9x 8
(d) (tan x – cot x)2 + C (a) sin1 C
9 8
3e x 5e x
3. If 4e x 5e x dx ax b log 1 8x 9
(b) sin1 C
2 9
|4e x 5e x | C , then
1 9x 8
(c) sin1 C
1 7 3 8
(a) a ,b
8 8
1 9x 8
1 7 (d)sin 1 C
(b) a , b 2 9
8 8 Each question consists of two statements,
1 7 namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
(c) a ,b correct answer, use the following code:
8 8
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
1 7 and Reason is a correct explanation of
(d) a ,b
Assertion.
8 8
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
b c
f (x )dx is equal to
but Reason is not a correct explanation
4.
a c of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
2
1 1 1 2x
9. Assertion: 9 4x 2 dx 6 tan 3 C (ii) Find the value of 2x[x ]dx
0
1 1 x 4
Reason: 2 dx tan1 C
x a 2
a a Find the value of | x 1|dx
0
2
10. Assertion: x tan x dx 0 3x 5
dx
18. x 3
x2 x 1
Reason: If f (x) is an even function, then
a 1 x
f (x )dx 2 f (x )dx 19. Prove that 1 cos sin x dx sin
0
a 0
cos x CHAPTER-8
11. dx
x APPLICATION OF INTEGRAL
1. Area of the region in the first quadrant
sin4 x cos4 x
12. sin3 x cos3 x dx enclosed by the x-axis, the line y = x and
the circle x2 + y2 = 32 is
2 x x (a) 16 sq. units (b) 4 sq. units
13. sin cos 2 dx
0
2 2 (c) 32 sq. units (d) 24 sq. units
2. Area of the regeion bounded by the curve
x 2
14. dx y = cos x between x = 0 and x = is
x 2x 3 (a) 2 sq. units (b) 4 sq. units
/2 (c) 3 sq. units (d) 1 sq. units
3. The area of the region bounded by
15. log sin x dx
0 parabola y2 = x and the straight line 2y =
x is
x dx
16. a
0
2
cos 2 x b 2 sin2 x (a)
4
sq units (b) 1 sq units
3
17. In a school, Madam Sharma explains the
additive property of definite integration 2
which is as (c) sq. units (d) 1 sq. units
3
b c1 4. The area of the region bounded by the
f (x )dx f (x )dx
a a x 2 y2
ellipse 1 is
c2 b
25 16
f (x )dx ... f (x )dx (a) 20 sq. units (b) 202 sq. units
ca c
(c) 162 sq. units (d) 25 sq. units
where, a < c1 < c2.... < cn < b
5. The area of the region bounded by the
After explai nin g it, she asks so me
curve x = 2y + 3 and the y lines. y = 1 and
questions to ther class which are as
y = – 1 is
follows. Now, answer these questions.
3
(a) 4 sq. units (b)
sq. units
4 2
(i) Find the value of f (x )dx,
a
(c) 6 sq. units (d) 8 sq. units
6. The area of the region bounded by the
7 x 3, 1 x 3 curve y = x + 1 and the lines x = 2 and x =
where f (x ) 8 x , 3x 4
3 is
7 9
2 (a) sq. units (b) sq. units
2 2
(ii) Find the value of |sin x |dx
0
11 13
(c) sq. units (d) sq. untis
2 2
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
7. Area of the region bounded by the curve 16. Find the area of the region lying in the
y = |x + 1| + 1, x = – 3, x = 3 and y = 0 is first quadrant and bounded by y = 4x2, x =
(a) 8 sq. units 0, y = 1 and y = 4,
(b) 16 sq. units 17. Draw a rough sketch of the given curve
(c) 32 sq. units y = 1 + |x + 1|, x = – 3, x = 3 and y = 0 and
(d) None of the above find the area of the region bounded by
8. The area bounded by the curve y = x|x|, them, using integration.
X-axis and the coordinates x = – 1 and x 18. Sketch the graph of y = |x + 3| and
= 1 is given by evaluate the area un der the curve
y = |x + 3| above X-axis and between
1
(a) 0 sq. units (b) sq. units x = – 6 to x = 0
3
2 4 CHAPTER-9
(c) sq. units (d) sq. units DIFFERENTIAL EQUATION
3 3
Each question consists of two statements, 1. The degree of the differential equation
2 2
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the d 2y dy dy
2 x sin is
correct answer, use the following code: dx dx dx
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) nota defined
and Reason is a correct explanation of 2. The order and degree of the differential
Assertion. 1
1
d 2y dy 4 5
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true equation x 0,
dx 2 dx
but Reason is not a correct explanation respectively are
of Assertion. (a) 2 and not defined
(b) 2 and 2
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false. (c) 2 and 3
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. (d) 3 and 3
9. Assertion: The area bounded by the line dy
3. The solution of y e x , y(0) 0 is
dx
1
y = x and the curve y = x3 is sq. units (a) y e x (x 1) (b) y = xe–x
2
1
3 1 (c) y xe x 1 (d) y (x 1)e x
Reason: (x x )dx 4. Integrating factor of the differential
0
4
10. Assertion: The area bounded by the curve dy
y = sin x between x = 0 and x = 4 is 4 sq. equation cos x y sin x 1 is
dx
units. (a) cos x (b) tan x
/2 (c) sec x (d) sin x
Reason: sin x dx 1 5. The sum of the order and the degree of
0 th e di fferential equati on
11. The area of the region bounded by the 3
circle x2 + y2 =1 is d 2y dy
sin y is
12. Area of the region bounded by the curve y dx 2 dx
= cos x between x = 0 and x = is (a) 5 (b) 2
13. Find the area of the region bounded by (c) 3 (d) 4
y = –1, y = 2, x = y3 and x = 0. 6. Th e orde r an d the deg re e of the
14. The area bounded by the curve y2 = x, line
y = 4 and Y-axis is dy d 3y
di ffe ren tial equation 1 e 4 3
15. Find the area of the region b ounded by dx dx
y2 = 9x, x= 2, x = 4 and the X-axis in the respectively are
first quadrant.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
2 11. Solve the initial value problem
(a) 1, (b) 3, 1 dy e 2 x y dx , y (0) 0
3
(c) 3, 3 (d) 1, 2
7. What is the product of the order and 12. 1 x dy
2
dx
x 2 tan 1
x
de gree of the di ffe re nti al e quati on
3 13. Find the particular solution of the
d 2y dy
sin y cos y y ?
dx 2
dx dy
differential equation 2xy + y2 – 2x2 0,
(a) 3 (b) 2 dx
(c) 6 (d) Not defined y = 2, when x = 1.
8. The solution of the differential equation 14. Show that the family of curves for which
dx dy dy x 2 y 2
0 is , is given by x2 – y2 = cx.
x y dx 2xy
1 1
(a) C dy
x y 15. y sin x
dx
(b) logx – log y = C
(c) xy = C 16. Find the particular solutoin of the
(d) x + y = C dy 1 y 2
differential equation , given
Each question consists of two statements, dx 1 x 2
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the that y(0) = 3
correct answer, use the following code: 17. Reshma a Mathematics teacher of Class
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true XI I, w ri te s a di ffe re ntial equati on
and Reason is a correct explanation of dy
(sec x )y tan x on the blackboard
dx
Assertion.
and asks some questions which are based
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true on above differential equation to check
but Reason is not a correct explanation the preparation of the topic, then answer
the following questions.
of Assertion.
(i) What is the form of given equation?
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false. (ii) Write the value of (P2 – Q2)
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. (iii)Find the integration factor of equation
9. Assertion: The general solution of the dy
y sec x tan x
dx
dy
differential equation x 2y x 2 (x 0) Or
dx
dy
What is the solution of Py Q ?
x2 dx
is y kx 2 .
4 18. Find the equation of a curve passing
Reason: The number of arbitrary constant
in the general solution is equal to the through the point 1, if the slope of the
4
order of the differential equation.
tangent to the curve at any point P (x, y)
10. Assertion: The order of the differential
equati on wh ose sol utio n is y y
is cos 2 .
x x
y c1e 2x c 2 c 3e 2x c 4 is 4.
19. Solve the particular solution of the
Reason: Order of the differential equation di fferen tial equati on
is the order of the highest order derivative
dy 1
occurring in the differential equation. (1 x 2 ) e m tan x y , given that y = 1,
dx
when x = 0.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
CHAPTER-10 Each question consists of two statements,
VECTOR ALGEBRA
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
1. The magnitude of the vector 6iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ
correct answer, use the following code:
is
(a) 5 (b) 7 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(c) 12 (d) 1 and Reason is a correct explanation of
1 Assertion.
2. If a . b |a ||b |, then the angle between
2
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
a and b is
but Reason is not a correct explanation
(a) 0° (b) 30°
(c) 60° (d) 90° of Assertion.
3. ABCD is a rhombus whose diagonals (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
intersect at E. Then, EA EB EC ED
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
equals
9. Assertion: The points A, B and C with
(a) 0 (b) AD
position vectors,
(c) 2BC (d) 2AD
a 3iˆ 4 jˆ 4kˆ, b 2iˆ jˆ kˆ
4. The value of for which the two vectors
and c iˆ 3 jˆ 5kˆ respectively, form the
2iˆ ˆj 2kˆ and 3iˆ ˆj kˆ are
perpendicular is vertices of a right angled triangle.
(a) 2 (b) 4 Reason: Three points A, B, C from a right
(c) 6 (d) 8 angled triangle, then sum of squares of
magn itudes o f any two vecto rs
5. If |a | 8,|b | 3 and |a b | 12 , the n (corresponding to sides) equals square of
magnitude of third vector (corresponding
the value of a . b is
to the third side).
(a) 6 3 (b) 8 3 10. Assertion: The projection of the vector
(c) 12 3 (d) None of these
a 2iˆ 3 jˆ 2kˆ on th e ve ctor
6. The position of the point which divides
5
the join of points 2a 3b and a b in the b iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ is 6.
3
ratio 3 : 1 is
Reason: The projection of vector a on
3a 2b 7a 8b
(a) (b) 1
2 4 vector b is |a |(a .b )
3a 5a
(c) (d) 11. Write the direction ratios of the vector
4 4
7. The value of for which the vectors 3a 2b , wh ere a iˆ jˆ 2kˆ an d
3iˆ 6 ˆj kˆ and 2iˆ 4 ˆj kˆ are parallel b 2iˆ 4 jˆ 5kˆ .
is 12. For what value of , the vectors iˆ 2ˆj kˆ
2 3
(a) (b) and 2iˆ ˆj 3kˆ are perpendicular ?
3 2
5 2 13. Fi nd | x | , if for a un it ve ctor
(c) (d)
2 5 aˆ, (x aˆ ).(x aˆ ) 15 .
8. Fo r any vector a , the val ue o f 14. If is the angle between any two vectors
(a iˆ)2 (a ˆj )2 (a kˆ )2 is equal to a and b , then |a .b ||a b |, then find
(a) a–2 (b) 3a–2 the value of .
–2
(c) 4a (d) 2a–2
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(c) (0, 0, 7) (d) (0, 5, 7)
15. Find the value of such that a iˆ ˆj kˆ ,
2. If P is a point on the line segment joining
b 2iˆ ˆj kˆ and c iˆ ˆj kˆ are the points (3, 2, – 1) and (6, 2, –2). If x co-
ordinate of P is 5, then its y co-ordinate
coplanar.
is
16. Show that the four points (– 1, 4, –3),
(a) 2 (b) 1
(3, 2, –5), (– 3, 8, – 5), (– 3, 2, 1) are coplanar
(c) – 1 (d) – 2
17. A person is standing at point P(0, 0, 0) on
a ground at some distance from a building. 3. If , , are the angles that a line makes
The three corner points of a building are with the positive direction of x, y, z axis,
A (0, 1, 2), B(2, –1, 3) and C (1, – 3, 1). And respectively, then the direction cosines
the height of the building is equal to the of the line are
magnitude of the perpendicular vector at (a) sin , sin
point B.
The angle of elevation made by the person (b) cos , cos , cos
to the top of the building is . (c) tan , tan , tan
(d) cos 2 , cos 2 , cos 2
4. The reflection of the point (, , ) in the
XY-plane is
(a) (, ,0) (b) (0,0, )
(c) (, , ) (d) (, , )
5. Distance of the point (p, q, r) from Y-axis
is
(a) q (b) |q|
On the basis of the given information,
answer the following (c) |q| + |r| (d)p2 r 2
6. The equations of x-axis in space are
(i) Find the angle between the vector AB
(a) x = 0, y = 0 (b) x = 0, z = 0
and BC . (c) x = 0 (d) y = 0, z = 0
(ii) Find a vector, which is perpendicular 7. The locus represented by xy + yz = 0 is
(a) A pair of perpendicular lines
to BA and BC
(b) A pair of parallel lines
(iii) Find the angle . (c) A pair of parallel planes
Find the area of base region covered by (d) A pair of perpendicular planes
the building. 8. The plane 2x – 3y + 6z – 11 = 0 makes an
18. If a iˆ 4 jˆ 2kˆ, b 3iˆ 2 ˆj 7kˆ an d angle sin1 ( ) with x-axis. The value of
is equal to
c 2iˆ jˆ 4kˆ . Find a vector p which is
3 2
(a) (b)
perpendicular to both a and b and 2 3
p . c 18 . 2 3
(c) (d)
7 7
19. If a , b and c are three vectors such that
Each question consists of two statements,
|a | 5 , |b | 12,|c | 13 and a b c 0 ,
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
then find the value of a . b b . c c .a .
correct answer, use the following code:
CHAPTER-11
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
THREE DIMENSIONAL GEOMETRY
1. Th e co ordi nates o f th e foo t of the and Reason is a correct explanation of
perpendicular drawn from the point Assertion.
(2,5, 7) on the x-axis are given by
(a) (2, 0, 0) (b) (0, 5, 0)
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true angles. Also, find whether the lines are
intersecting or not.
but Reason is not a correct explanation 16. Find the angle between the following lines
of Assertion. r 2iˆ 5 jˆ kˆ (3iˆ 2 ˆj 6kˆ)
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
and r 7iˆ 6kˆ (iˆ 2 jˆ 2kˆ)
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. 17. Find the foot of perpendicular from
9. Assertion: The points (1, 2, 3), (– 2, 3, 4)
x 1 y 3 z
and (7, 0, 1) are collinear. P(1, 2, – 3) to the line .
2 2 1
3 Also, find the image of P in the given line.
Reason: If a line makes angle , and
2 4 18. Find value of p, so that the lines
1 x 7y 14 z 3
with X, Y and Z-axes respectively, then l1 :
4 3 p 2
1 1
its direction cosines are 0, and
. 7 7x y 5 6 z
2 2 and l 2 : 3 p 1 5
10. Assertion: The cartesian equation of the
line which passes through the point are perpendicular to each other. Also, find
(– 2, 5, –5) and parallel to the line given
the equation of a line passing through a
x 3 y 4 z 8 piont (3, 2, –4) and parallel to line l1.
by is
3 5 6 19. Show that the lines
x 3 y 4 z 8
r (iˆ ˆj ) (2iˆ 3 ˆj kˆ )
2 4 5
Reason: If the cartesian equation of a line and r (iˆ 2 jˆ 2kˆ ) (5iˆ jˆ) do not a
x 5 y 4 z 6 intersect.
is , then its vector 20. Show that the shortest distance between
3 7 2
the lines r (2iˆ 3kˆ ) (iˆ 2 jˆ 3kˆ ) and
form is r 5iˆ 4 jˆ 6kˆ (3iˆ 7 jˆ 2kˆ ) .
11. If the direction cosines of a line are k, k r (2iˆ 6 ˆj 3k ) (2i 3 jˆ 4kˆ ) is zero.
and k, then find the value of k. 21. Find the shortest distance between the
12. If a line makes angles 90° and 60°
respectively with the positive directions 1 x 2 y z 3
li nes an d
of X and Y-axes, find the angle which it 2 3 4
makes with the positive direction of
Z-axis. x 2 y 4 z 5
13. A line makes the same angle with each 3 4 5
of the x and Z-axes. If the angle , which 22. Find the distance between the lines
it makes with Y-ax is, is su ch that L1 and L2 given by
sin2 3 sin2 , then find the values of
r iˆ 2 ˆj 4kˆ (2iˆ 3 jˆ 6kˆ ) an d
cos2 .
r 3iˆ 3 ˆj 5kˆ (4iˆ 6 ˆj 12kˆ )
14. If a line in the space makes angles CHAPTER-12
, and with the coordinate axes, then LINEAR PROGRAMMING
find the value of 1. Which of the term is not used in a linear
cos 2 cos 2 cos 2 sin2 sin2 sin2 programming problem?
(a) Optimal solution
15. Find the value of , so that the lines
(b) Feasible solution
1 x 7y 14 z 3 (c) Concave region
and
3 2 (d) Objecative funcon
2. The objective function of an LPP is
7 7x y 5 6 z (a) a constraint
are at right
3 1 5 (b) a function to be optimised
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
(c) a relation between the variables (a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
(d) None of the above
3. The number of corner points of the and Reason is a correct explanation of
fe asible reg io n determi ne d by the Assertion.
constraints
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
x y 0, 2y x 2, x 0, y 0 is
(a) 2 (b) 3 but Reason is not a correct explanation
(c) 4 (d) 5 of Assertion.
4. The graph of the inequality 2x + 3y > 6 is
(a) half plane that contains the origin (c) Assertion is true and Reason is false.
(b) half plane that neither contains the (d) Assertion is false and Reason is true.
origin nor the points of the line
2x + 3y = 6 9. Assertion: The points (10, 50), (0, 60) or
(c) whole XOY – plane excluding the points (20, 0) are feasible solutions.
on the line 2x + 3y = 6 R eason: Po in ts w ithi n an d on the
(d) entire XOY plane
boundary of the feasible region represent
5. Th e so luti on set of the inequati on
3x + 5y < 7 is feasible solutions of the constraints.
(a) whole XY-plane except the points lying 10. Assertion: If a L.P.P. admits two optimal
on the line 3x + 5y = 7 solutions then it has infinitely many
(b) whole XY-plane along with the points optimal solutions.
lying on the line 3x + 5y = 7 Reason: If the value of the objective
(c) open half plane containing the origin function of a LPP Is same at two corners
except the points of line 3x + 5y = 7 then it is same at every point on the line
(d) open half plane not containing the joining two corner points.
origin. 11. De te rmin e the max imum valu e of
6. Which of the following sets are not Z = 11x + 7y subject to the constraints
convex?
2x y 6, x 2, x 0, y 0 .
(a) {(x , y ) : 8 x 2 6y 2 24}
12. Maximise Z = 3x + 4y, subject to the
(b) {(x , y ) : 6 x 2 y 2 36} constraints: x y 1, x 0, y 0
(c) {(x , y ) : y 3, y 30} 13. A first has to transport 1200 packages
2
using large vans which can carry 200
(d) {(x , y ): x y }
packages each and small vans which can
7. In a LPP, if the objective function has Z = take 80 packages each. The cost for
ax + by has the same maximum value on engaging each large van is Rs. 400 and
two corner points of the feasible region, each small van is Rs. 200. Not more than
then the number of points at which Zmax Rs. 3000 is to be spent on the job and the
occurs is number of large vans can not exceed the
(a) 0 (b) 2 number of small vans. Formulate this
(c) finite (d) infinite problem as a LLPP given that the objective
8. The number of feasible solutions of the is to minimise cost.
linear programming problem given as 14. A manufacturer of electronic circuits has
Maximise Z = 15 x + 30y, subject to a stock of 200 resistors. 120 transistors
co nstrain ts 3x y 12, x 2y 10 , and 150 capacitors and is required to
produce two types of circuits A and B. Type
x 0, y 0 is A requires 20 resistors, 10 transistors and
(a) 1 (b) 2 10 capacito rs. Ty pe B requi re s 10
(c) 3 (d) infinite re si stors, 20 tran si stors an d 30
Each question consists of two statements, capacitors. If the profit on type A circuit
is Rs. 50 and that on type B circuit is Rs.
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the
60, formulate this problem as a LPP so that
correct answer, use the following code: the manufacturer can maximise his
profit.
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII
15. Mi ni mi se the fo ll ow in g li ne ar 7 17
programming problem graphically 2. If P ( A B ) and P (B ) , the n
10 20
Z = 18 x + 10 y
Subject to the constraints are P ( A |B ) equals
4x y 20, 2x 3y 30 and x , y 0 . 14 17
16. Mi ni mi se the fo ll ow in g li ne ar (a) (b)
17 20
programming problem graphically
Z = 6x + 3y 7 17
(c) (d)
Subject to the constraints are 8 20
4x y 80, x 5y 115, 3 2 3
3. If P ( A ) ,P (B ) and P ( A B ) ,
3x 2y 150 10 5 5
then P (B | A ) P (A |B ) equals
x , y 0
17. Mi ni mi se the fo ll ow in g li ne ar 1 1
(a) (b)
programming problem graphically 4 3
Z = 2x + 3y
Subject to the constraints are 5 7
(c) (d)
12 12
2x 5y 100, 8x 5y 200; x , y 0
4. If A and B are two events such that
18. Maxi mi se the fo ll ow in g li ne ar
programming problem graphically 1 1 1
P (A ) , P (B ) , P ( A / B ) , th en
Z = 2x + 3y 2 3 4
Subject to the constraints are P ( A ' B ') equals
x 2y 10, 2x y 14 and x 0, y 0
1 3
19. Maxi mi se the fo ll ow in g li ne ar (a) (b)
12 4
programming problem graphically
Z = – x + 2y, 1 3
Subject to the constraints are (c) (d)
4 16
x 3, x y 5, x 2y 6 and x , y 0 5. Three dice are thrown simultaneously.
20. Mi ni mi se the fo ll ow in g li ne ar The probability of obtaining a total score
programming problem graphically of 5 is
Z = 2x + 3y
5 1
Subject to the constraints ae (a) (b)
216 6
2x 5y 100, 8x 5y 200; x, y 0
21. Maxi mi se Z = 3x + 2y, su bj ect to 1 1
(c) 9d)
constraints are x y 8 , 3x 5y 15 36 49
6. A die is thrown once. Let A be the event
and x , y 0 that the number obtained is greater than
22. Mi ni mi se Z = 2x + 4y, su bj ect to 3. Let B be the event that the number
co nstraints are x y 8, x 4y 12 , obtained is less than 5. Then, P ( A B )
x 3, y 2 and x , y 0 is
2 3
(a) *v(
CHAPTER-13 PROBABILITY 5 5
7
(c) 0 (d) 1
4
1. If P ( A ) , and P ( A B ) , th en 7. From the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}, two numbers a
5 10
and b (a b ) are chosen at random. The
P(B | A) is equal to
1 1 a
(a) (b) probability that is an integer, is
10 8 b
7 17 1 1
(c) (d) (a) (b)
8 20 3 4
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EXPECTED QUESTION BANK FOR CBSE BOARD CLASS -XII Permutation and Combinations
1 3
Find whether the events are independent
(c) (d) or not.
2 5
14. If two cards are drawn from a well-shuffled
A de ck o f 52 play in g cards wi th
8 If P 0.3, P ( A ) 0.4 and P (B ) 0.8 , replacement, then find the probability
B
that both cars are queen.
B 15. If P(not A) = 0.7, P(B) = 0.7 and P(B/A) =
then P is equal to 0.5, then find P(A/B).
A
(a) 0.6 (b) 0.3 16. Given that E and F are events such that
(c) 0.06 (d) 0.4 P(E) = 0.6, P(F) = 0.3 and P (E F ) 0.2 .
Each question consists of two statements,
E F
namely, Assertion and Reason. For selecting the Find P and P .
F E
correct answer, use the following code: 17. If A and B are two events such that
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are the true 1 1 1
P (A ) , P (B ) and P ( A B ) .
and Reason is a correct explanation of 4 6 7
Assertion. B
Then, find (i) P ( A B ) (ii) P A
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are the true
but Reason is not a correct explanation 18. Three groups of children contains 2 boys
and 2 girls; 1 boy and 3 girls and 3 boys
of Assertion.
and 1 girl. If one child is selected from
(c) Assertion is true and Reason is false. each group, then find the chance that the
(d) Assertion is false and Reason is true. selected children are 1 body and 2 girls.
9. Assertion: If E : tail appears on one coin 3
19. Fi nd [P (B / A ) P (A / B )], i f P ( A ) ,
and F : one coin shows head, then P(E/F) 10
is 1. 2 3
P (B ) and P ( A B )
Reason: If E : no tail appears and F : no 5 5
head appears, hen P(E/F) is 0. 20. A can hit a target 4 times out of 5 times,
B can hit the target 3 times out of 4 times
3 1
10. Assertion: If P ( A ) and P (B ) , then and C can hit the target 2 times out of 3
5 5 times. They fire simultaneously. Find the
P ( A B ) . If A and B are independent probability that
(i) any two out of A, B and C will hit the
3 target.
events, is .
25 (ii) None of them will hit the target.
Reason (R): Two cards are drawn at 21. A co uple has 2 chi ldre n. Fi nd the
random and without replacement from a probability that both are boys, if it is
pack of 52 playing cards. Then, the known that
probability that both the cards are black, (i) one of them is a boy
(ii) the older child is a boy.
25
is . 22. A and B throw a pair of dice alternately. A
102 wins the game, if the gets a total of 7 and
11. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck B wins the game, if he gets a total of 10. If
of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting A starts the g ame, the n fi nd the
an ace card. probability that B wins.
12. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. Find
the probability of getting a doublet.
13. Let E and F be th e even ts w ith
3 3 1
P (E ) , P (F ) an d P (E F ) .
5 10 5
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Batches Start :
21 March & 9,18 April & 16 May Onwards
Salient Features
Classes will be 5 Days in a Week and 4.30 Hrs Daily
Fortnighly Regular Topic Wise Test.
Complete set of Updated Topic Wise Modules
Daily Practice Test (DPT) will be Conducted
Special Doubt clearing Sessions
Regular Career Guidance & Memory Tips
After Completion of syllabus All India Test Series (AITS) Will be Conduced.
782 178 1472
NEET JEE-ADV. JEE-MAIN
NEET
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SARITA AMIT GUPTA
JEE-Advanced
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JEE-Main
100 99.82* 99.75* 99.40
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