Matter in Our Surroundings

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Q1. The property to flow is unique to fluids. Which one of the following statements is
correct about fluids?
(a) Only gases behave like fluids (b) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids (d) Only liquids are fluids
Q2. During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the

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phenomenon of
(a) diffusion (b) transpiration (c) osmosis (d) evaporation
Q3. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of 'forces of attraction',
between their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement?
(a) Water < air < wind (b) Air < sugar < oil
(c) Oxygen < water < sugar (d) Salt < juice < air
Q4. 𝐂𝐎𝟐 can be easily liquified and even solidified because:
(a) It has weak forces of attraction.
(b) It has comparatively more force of attraction than other gases.

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(c) It has more intermolecular space.
(d) It is present in atmosphere.
Q5. Which of the following has highest kinetic energy?
(a) Particles of ice at 𝟎∘ 𝐂 (b) Particles of water at 𝟎∘ 𝐂
(c) Particles of water at 𝟏𝟎𝟎∘ 𝐂 (d) Particles of steam at 𝟏𝟎𝟎∘ 𝐂
Q6. The kinetic energy of particles is directly related to which of the following factors?
(a) Temperature (b) Pressure
(c) Both temperature and pressure (d) Atmospheric pressure
Q7. Under which of the following conditions we can boil water at room temperature?
(a) At low pressure (b) At high pressure
(c) At very high pressure (d) At atmospheric pressure
Q8. Which of the following is not an endothermic process ?
(a) Fusion (b) Vaporization (c) Evaporation (d) None of these
Q9. Which of the following does not affect the rate of evaporation ?
(a) Wind speed (b) Surface area (c) Temperature (d) Insoluble heavy impurities

Q10. Give two characteristics of solids.

Q11. Why do the gases exert more pressure on the walls of the container than the
solids?
Q12. Why the smell of food being cooked in the kitchen does reach us even from a
considerable distance?
Q13. Convert the temperature of 𝟐𝟓∘ 𝐂 to the Kelvin scale.
Q14. Why do naphthalene balls vanish over time without leaving any solid residue?
Q15. Give an example of diffusion of solid into liquids.
Q16. Give an example of diffusion of gases into liquids.
Q17. Why the particles of gases move around freely.
Q18. Give three points of differences between solid, liquid and gas.
Q19. Name any two factors which affect the rate of evaporation.

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Q20. Give an example of diffusion of liquid into liquid.
Q21. What is latent heat of vaporisation?
Q22. What happens when the temperature of the gases is decreased ?
Q23. What is dry ice?
Q24. Convert the temperature 𝟒𝟎∘ 𝐂 to the Kelvin scale.
Directions: Questions 25 and 30 are Assertion and Reason type Questions:

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(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.
Q25. Assertion : Solids do not flow.
Reason : They have fixed shape and volume.
Q26. Assertion : The movement of solute particles from lower concentration to higher
concentration is called osmosis.

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Reason : During summer, water kept in an earthen pot becomes cool because of the
phenomenon of osmosis.
Q27 Assertion : The solid particles are unable to move freely.
Reason : Solid particles are comparatively bigger in size.
Q28. Assertion : Solids cannot maintain their shape when subjected to force.
Reason : Solids are incompressible.
Q29. Assertion : By applying force, particles of the matter can be brought closer.
Reason : The particles of the matter have spaces between them.
Q30. Assertion : It is easier to cook food at sea level as compared to higher altitudes.
Reason : The boiling point of water increases at high altitudes.

Q31. Complete the following flowchart :

Q32.Questions (i) to (iv) are based on the Table A and Table B. Study
these tables related to boiling points of different substances
and humidity and answer the following questions.
Table A : Boiling points of different substances
Substance Boiling point ( ∘ 𝐂)
Methanol 64.7
Ethanol 78.4
 Nitric Acid 83

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Water 100
Iodine 184.3

Table B : Humidity percentage in three situations

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Situation Humidity (%)
Situation A > 𝟕𝟓
Situation B 𝟓𝟎 − 𝟕𝟓
Situation C < 𝟓𝟎
(i) Refer Table B and find out in which situation, water from the bowl will evaporate
away the fastest?
(a) Situation 𝐀 (b) Situation B (c) Situation C (d) Situation 𝑨 and 𝑪

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(ii) If a bowl of water and a bowl of ethanol are placed inside a room. Which bowl will
get empty first?
(a) Bowl of water (b) Bowl of ethanol
(c) Both the bowls will get empty altogether (d) None of these

(iii) Impure salt is purified by the technique called :

(a) Crystallization (b) Sublimation (c) Filtration (d) Evaporation

(iv) Refer Table A and Table B and find in which situation out of the following, the
substance will evaporate the fastest :
(a) Methanol in situation 𝐂 (b) Iodine in situation A
(c) Nitric acid in situation 𝐀 (d) Iodine in situation 𝐂

(v) The evaporation depends upon

(a) wind speed (b) humidity percentage (c) surface area (d) All of these

Q33. Complete the following table :

Characteristics States of
Nature
matter
Volume Fixed
Shape Liquid
Tendency to flow Flow easily

Q34. Answer question numbers 12(i)-12(v) on the basis of your understanding of the
following paragraph and the related studied concepts.
(i) By which method impure salt is obtained from sea water?
(a) Crystallization (b) Humidification (c) Evaporation (d) Condensation
(ii) Impure salt is purified by the technique called:

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(a) Crystallization (b) Sublimation (c) Filtration (d) Evaporation

(iii) Which of the following phenomena always results in the cooling effect?
(a) Condensation (b) Evaporation (c) Sublimation (d) None of these

(iv) Which condition out of the following will increase the evaporation of water?
(a) Increase in temperature of water (b) Decrease in temperature of water

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(c) Less exposed surface area of water (d) Adding common salt to water

(v) Evaporation of material takes place:

(a) above its boiling point (b) above its melting point
(c) below its boiling point (d) below its melting point

Q35. Arrange the following in increasing order of forces of attraction between the
particles and correct the box that contains the incorrect order:
Water < Oxygen = Sugar

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Q36. Every substance around us is considered as matter. Matters are grouped on the
basis of their properties and characteristics like shape and appearance. There are three
different forms of matter. These forms are solid, liquid and gas.
Solid has a definite shape and volume. This means that the particles that form solid are
closely packed. Liquid takes the shape of the container in which it is filled. This means
that the particles that form liquid slide over each other but liquids do have definite
volume. Gas is usually invisible form of matter. Gases do not have any fixed shape
and volume. This means that the particles that form gas are floating in the space
between them. The temperature effect on heating a solid varies depending on the
nature of the solid and the conditions required in bringing the change. On increasing
the temperature of solids, the kinetic energy of the particles increases which
overcomes the forces of attraction between the particles thereby solid melts and is
converted to a liquid.
The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric
pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of ice is 𝟐𝟕𝟑. 𝟏𝟔 𝐊. The process
of melting, that is, change of solid state into liquid state is also known as fusion.
Increasing or decreasing the pressure can change the state of matter. Applying
pressure and reducing temperature can liquefy gases.
(i) What are the factors responsible for the' change of the states of matter?

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(a) Temperature (b) Pressure (c) Volume (d) All of these

(ii) What happens to a gas when its pressure is reduced and temperature is increased?
(a) Condensation of gas (b) Liquefaction of gas
(c) Vaporization of gas (d) Expansion of gas

(iii) Why do solid has a definite shape and volume?

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(a) Particles of solid are closely packed
(b) Force of attraction between particles is strong
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) None of the above

(iv) What happens to the particles? When the temperature of solids increases?
(a) Kinetic energy of particles is increased (b) Particles start melting
(c) Force of attraction between particles decreases (d) All of these

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(v) Gases are liquefied under :
(a) high pressure, high temperature (b) high pressure, low temperature
(c) low pressure, high temperature (d) low pressure, low temperature
 CHEMISTRY
Is matter around us Pure ?

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Q1. Mixture can be :
(a) homogeneous (b) heterogeneous
(c) pure substance (d) Both (a) and (b)
Q2. In sugar solution :

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(a) Sugar is solute, water is solvent (b) Sugar is solvent, water is solute
(c) Both are solutes (d) Both are solvents.

Q3. Brass is a solution of molten copper in :

(a) solid zinc (b) molten zinc (c) gaseous zinc (d) molten tin
Q4. Rusting of an article made up of iron is called:
(a) corrosion and it is a physical as well as chemical change
(b) dissolution and it is a physical change

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(c) corrosion and it is a chemical change
(d) dissolution and it is a chemical change.
Q5. A mixture of sulphur and carbon disulphide is:
(a) heterogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(b) homogeneous and shows Tyndall effect
(c) heterogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect
(d) homogeneous and does not show Tyndall effect.
Q6. Two chemical species X and Y combine together to form a product P
which contains both X and Y : X+X→P
X and Y cannot be broken down into simpler substances by simple chemical
reactions. Which of the following concerning the species X,Y and P are
correct?
(i) P is a compound (ii) X and Y are compounds
(iii) X and Y are elements (iv) Phas a fixed composition
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii), (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Q7. White gold is used in jewellery and contains two elements, gold and
palladium. A jeweller has two different samples that are both identical in
appearance and have a uniform composition throughout. What could be
said about the samples?
(a) They are homogeneous mixtures and be classified as metallic alloys.
(b) The materials are heterogeneous mixtures and can be classified by their
components.
(c) The samples have variable compositions and are classified as metallic

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solutions.
(d) The samples are heterogeneous mixtures that can be separated using
magnetic properties.

Q8. If we burn graphite:

(a) residue will be left (b) no residue will be left

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(c) it will not burn (d) it will change into diamond
Q9. Which of the following are example of chemical changes ?
(i) Decaying of wood (ii) Burning of wood
(iii) Sawing of wood (iv) Hammering of a nail into a piece of wood
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
Q10. Name one metal which is the good conductor of electricity?
Q11. Give an example of foam colloid.

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Q12. Name the following:
(a) A non-metal which is required for combustion.
(b) A non-metal other than carbon which shows allotropy.
(c) A metal which has low melting point.
Q13. Give three properties of colloids.
Q14. Give the two propertieses of suspensions.
Q15. Sea water can be classified as homogeneous as well as heterogeneous
mixture. Comment.
Q16. What is the name of the clear liquid formed when a solid dissolves in a
liquid?
Q17. State whether colloidal solutions are homogeneous or heterogeneous.
Q18. Give the differences between pure substances and mixture.
Q19. In what respect does a true solution differ from a colloidal solution?
Q.20. How can you change a saturated solution to an unsaturated solution
without adding any more solvent to it?
Q21. Explain why particles of a colloidal solution do not settle down when
left undisturbed, while in the case of a suspension they do.
Q22. Give an example each for the mixture having the following
characteristics.
(a) A volatile and a non-volatile component.
(b) Two volatile components with appreciable difference in boiling points.
(c) Two immiscible liquids.
(d) One of the components changes directly from solid to gaseous state.
(e) Two or more colored constituents soluble in same solvent.
Q23. Differentiate between unsaturated, saturated and supersaturated
solutions.
Q24. What would you observe when:

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(a) A saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at 60^∘ C is allowed
to cool at room temperature?
(b) An aqueous sugar solution is heated to dryness?
(c) A mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated strongly?

Directions : Questions 24 and 29 are Assertion and Reason

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type Questions:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but
reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.

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Q24. Assertion : Aluminium is used in making foils for packing food.
Reason : Aluminium is malleable.
Q25. Assertion : Mixture is made up of two or more components.
Reason : A mixture is made up of homogeneous components only.
Q 26. Assertion : When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution
placed in a dark place the path of the beam becomes visible.
Reason : Light gets scattered by the colloidal particles.
Q27. Assertion : Water is a compound.
Reason : Hydrogen and oxygen in any variable amounts to produce water.
Q.28. Assertion : True solution exhibits Tyndall effect.
Reason : Particles are very large in size.
Q29. Assertion : In a separating funnel, oil layer is formed above the water.
Reason : Density of water is more than oil.
Q30. In an experiment the common salt was dissolved in water at room
temperature and following observations were observed. Complete the blanks
using the words provided in the box :
Opaque, transparent, chromatography, filtration, settle down, float, gravity,
pressure.
A common salt is dissolved in water and a solution is formed, the true
solution of salt in water is …………. and the salt cannot be separated by
………… and the solute particles .................... under the effect of
…………….
Q31. Read the following and answer any four questions from 12 (i) to 12(v)
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. Usually a
solution as a liquid that contains either a solid, liquid or a gas dissolved in it.
But we can also have solid solutions (alloys) and gaseous solutions (air).
Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of metals and cannot be separated into

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their components by physical methods.
(i) Brass is mixture of:
(a) 30% zinc and 70% copper (b) 70% zinc and 30% copper
(c) 60% zinc and 40% copper (d) 40% zinc and 60% copper
(ii) What does the following figure depict?

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(a) Filtration (b) Sublimation (c) Crystallization (d) Distillation
(iii) Heterogeneous mixture in which the solute particles do not dissolve
and remain suspended throughout the solvent and the solute particles can
be seen with the naked eye is known as :
(a) Colloidal solution (b) Super saturated solution
(c) Sublimation (d) Suspension
(iv) Which of the following mixtures are homogeneous in nature?
(A) ice (B) wood (C) soil (D) air
(a) (A) and (C) (b) (B) and (D)
(c) (A) and (D) (d) (C) and (D)
(v) A and B combine together to form a product P: A+B→P
A and B cannot be broken down further into simpler substances. Which of
the following statements regarding A,B and P are correct?
(1) P is a compound (2) A and B are compounds
(3) A and B are elements (4) P has a fixed composition
(a) (1), (2) and (3) (b) (1), (2) and (4)
(c) (2), (3) and (4) (d) (1), (3) and (4)
Q32. Complete the following table based on the characteristics of solutions,
Suspension and Colloids
Suspensions
Homogeneous Heterogeneous
Opaque Translucent
Filtration
Q33. Read the following and answer any four questions from 12(i) to 12 (v):

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In a solution, the relative proportion of the solute and solvent can be varied.
Depending upon the amount of solute present in a solution, it can be called a
dilute, concentrated or a saturated solution.
(i) When no more sugar can be dissolved in a water at a given temperature,
it is called a :

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(a) Unsaturated solution (b) Concentrated solution
(c) Saturated solution (d) Dilute solution
(ii) Which of the following statements is correct about solution?
(a) The concentration of a solution is the amount of solution present in a
given specific volume.
(b) The solute particles cannot be separated from the mixture by the process
of filtration.
(c) A solution is a heterogeneous mixture.

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(d) The particles of a solution are greater than "1nm " in diameter.
,
(iii) In the given diagram below, light is passed through two different
solutions (1) and (2) to show Tyndall effect. Which solutions show Tyndall
effect?

(a) Milk and mist

(b) Salt and sugar solution
(c) Fog and copper sulphate solution
(d) Copper sulphate solution and salt solution
(iv) In tincture of iodine, find the solute and solvent:
(a) Alcohol is the solute and iodine is the solvent
(b) Iodine is the solute and alcohol is the solvent
(c) Any component can be considered as solute or solvent
(d) Tincture of iodine is not a solution
(v) Which among the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Air is a heterogeneous mixture.
(b) Aerated drinks are gas in liquid solution.
(c) Mass by mass percentage of a solution = (Mass of solute)/(Mass of

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solution )×100
(d) An alloy is considered as a mixture because it shows the properties of its
constituents and can have variable composition.

Q34. Complete the following table based on the differences between the pure
substances and Mixtures

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Pure substance Mixture
Mixture consists of two or more
pure susbtances
Mixture can be separated into
its components by physical
Pure substance has its own
definite properties

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Q35. Read the following and answer any four questions from 12(i) to 12(v):
The components of a colloidal solution are the dispersed phase and the
dispersion medium. The solute-like component or the dispersed particles in
a colloid form the dispersed phase, and the component in which the
dispersed phase is suspended is known as the dispersing medium. Colloids
are classified according to the state (solid, liquid or gas) of the dispersing
medium and the dispersed phase.
The following table shows the some of the examples of colloids, we can find
in everyday life.
Dispersed phase Dispersing medium Example
Solid Liquid Mud
Gas Solid Rubber
Liquid Gas Clouds

(i) Rubber is an example of:

(a) Aerosol (b) Sol (c) Emulsion (d) Foam

(ii) Which of the following is the dispersed phase in smoke?

(a) Solid (b) Liquid (c) Gas (d) Nitrogen
(iii) Which of the following have same dispersed phase and dispersing
medium?
(a) Milk (b) Jelly (c) Pumice stone (d) None of these

(iv) Choose the odd one out from the following colloids:
(a) Fog (b) Clouds(c) Smoke (d) Mist
(v) Which of the following statements are correct?

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(a) Colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.
(b) The size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by
naked eyes.
(c) Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and
make its path visible.
(d) All of these

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 Atoms and Molecules

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Q1. The symbol of cadmium is :
(a) Ca (b) Cu (c) Co (d) Cd

Q2. All noble gas molecules are :

(a) Monoatomic (b) Diatomic (c) Triatomic (d) Both (a) and (b)

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Q.3. The formula of ethanol is 𝐂𝟐 𝐇𝟓 − 𝐎𝐇 What will be its molecular mass?
(a) 46u (b) 34u (c) 34 g (d) 46 g

Q4. The atomicity of 𝐊 𝟐 𝐂𝐫𝟐 𝐎𝟕 is :

(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 12

Q5. The formula of quicklime is:

(a) 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐥𝟐𝟏 (b) 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐨𝟑 (c) 𝐂𝐚(𝐎𝐇)𝟐 (d) 𝐂𝐚𝐎

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Q.6. The molecular mass of 𝒙 is 𝟖𝟎. 𝒙 can be :
(a) 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐎𝟑 (b) 𝐒𝐎𝟑 (c) 𝐍𝐚𝟐 𝐂𝐎𝟑 (d) 𝐍𝐚𝐂𝐥

Q7. The chemical symbol for nitrogen gas is :

(a) Ni (b) 𝐍𝟐 (c) 𝐍+ (d) N

Q8. Which of the following would weigh the highest?

(a) 0.2 mole of sucrose (𝐜𝟏𝟐 𝐇𝟐𝟐 𝐎𝟏𝟏 ) (b) 2 moles of 𝐂𝐎𝟐
(c) 2 moles of 𝐂𝐚𝐂𝐎𝟑 (d) 10 moles of 𝐇𝟐 𝐎

Q9. 6.023×𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑 is known as :

(a) Avogadro's number (b) Dalton's constant
(c) Mendeleev's number (d) None of them

Q10. What is law of conservation of mass ?

Q11. What is the symbol of Aluminium?
Q12. Give two postulates of Dalton's atomic theory.
Q13. What is the significance of the symbol of an element?
Q14. Name the elements which have the following symbols :
(a) Al (b) K (c) U (d) Zn
Q15. Who gave the law of conservation of mass ?
Q16. What is law of constant proportion?
Q17. Give the formula and atomicity of the following elements :
(a) Argon (b) Helium (c) Oxygen
Q18. What is an ion? Give the types of ions with examples.
Q19. Give the formulae of the compounds formed from the following sets of

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elements :
(a) Calcium and fluorine (b) Hydrogen and sulphur
(c) Nitrogen and hydrogen (d) Carbon and chlorine
(e) Sodium and oxygen (f) Carbon and oxygen
Q20. Name the elements which have the atomic mass 40.4 and 32.4
respectively.

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Q21. What is the full form of IUPAC?
Q22. Who gave the law of constant proportions?
Q23. What are the characteristics of chemical formulae?
Q24. Which of the following symbols of elements are incorrect ? Give their
correct symbols :
(a) Cobalt (CO) (b) Carbon (c) (c) Aluminium (AL)
(d) Helium (He) (e) Sodium (So)

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Directions: Questions 25 and 29 are Assertion and Reason type
Questions:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.

Q25.Assertion : Isobars are different in chemical properties.

Reason : Isobars have same atomic number.
Q26. Assertion : Mass have different expressions ' u ' and ' g '.
Reason : The mass of an atom or a molecule is expressed in ' g ', whereas,
the molar mass is expressed in ' u '.
Q27. Assertion : Sodium forms a positive ion.
Reason : This is because sodium loses electrons.
Q28. Assertion : It is not possible to see atoms with our naked eyes.
Reasons : This is because atoms are too small of the order 𝟏𝟎−𝟐 inch.
Q29. Assertion : Dalton's theory could be proved wrong.
Reason : As per Dalton, atom is indivisible, but there are sub-atomic
particles present in it.
Q30. Fill in the missing table :

Species 𝐇𝟐 𝐎 𝐂𝐎𝟐 Na 𝐌𝐠𝐂𝐈𝟐

atom
 Property 2 -

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No. of
moles
No. of - 3.011 × - -
particles 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟑
Mass 36 g - 115 -
g

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Q31. Read the following and answer any four questions from 12 (i) to 12(v) :
A chemical formula shows the elements that make up the compound and the
numbers of atoms of each element in the smallest unit of that compound, be
it a molecule or a formula unit. A chemical equation is a written statement
that uses chemical symbols and chemical formulas instead of words to
describe the changes that occur in chemical reactions. Chemical symbols are
considered the letters of chemical language and formulas are considered the

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words of the language; chemical equations can be considered the sentences
of chemical language.
The combining power (or capacity) of an element is known as its valency.
Valency can be used to find out how the atoms of an element will combine
with the atom(s) of another element to form a chemical compound. The
valency of the atom of an element can be thought of as hands or arms of that
atom.
(i) Which of the following represents a correct chemical formula?
(a) CaCl (b) 𝐁𝐢𝐏𝐎𝟒 (c) 𝐍𝐚𝐒𝐎𝟒 (d) NaS
(ii) The valency of nitrogen in 𝐍𝐇𝟑 is :
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
(iii) The formula of ethanol is 𝐂𝟐 𝐇𝟓 𝐎𝐇. What will be its molecular mass?
(a) 46 g (b) 46u (c) 34u (d) 34g
(iv) The atomicity of 𝐤 𝟐 𝐂𝐫𝟐 𝐎𝟕 is :
(a) 9 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 12
(v) What will be the chemical formula for the molecule formed by element
calcium and oxygen combination
(a) 𝐂𝐚𝟐 𝐎𝟐 (b) 𝐂𝐚𝐎 (c) 𝐂𝐚𝐎𝟐 (d) (𝐂𝐚𝐎)𝟐

Q32. Complete the following table based on the molecular formulae for the
following compounds :

Compound Molecular formulae

Copper (II) 𝐂𝐮𝐁𝐫𝟐
brominde
AI(𝐀𝐥(𝐍𝐎𝟑 )𝟑
 Calcium (II)

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Phosphate
Iron (III)
Sulphide

Q. 33. Read the following and answer any four questions from 𝟏𝟐(𝒊) to
𝟏𝟐(𝐯) :

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Atoms are very small; they are smaller than anything that we can imagine
or compare with. More than millions of atoms when stacked would make a
layer barely as thick as this sheet of paper. Atomic radius is measured in
nanometres.
𝟏𝟎−𝟗 𝐦 = 𝟏 𝐧𝐦
𝟏 𝐦 = 𝟏𝟎𝟗 𝐧𝐦
The following graph shows the relation between atomic number and atomic
radii.

(i)
(a) molecule

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
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A group of atoms chemically bonded together is a(an):

Element
Barium
Gold
Sodium
Potassium
(b) ion

(a) anion, positive (b) cation, positive

(c) anion, negative (d) cation, negative

Symbol
Ba
G
Na
K
(c) salt

(iii) Which of the following option is incorrect?

S.No
(d) element
(ii) When an atom loses electrons, it is called a(an) _________and has a
________ charge.
(iv) The atomic mass of sodium is 23. The number of moles in 46g of

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sodium is
(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) ½

(v) Select the correct option :

S.No Element Symbol

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(a) Monoatomic 𝐍𝐚+ , 𝐌𝐠 + , 𝐂𝐥−
(b) Diatomic 𝐎𝐇 − , 𝐌𝐠 + , 𝐂𝐥− , 𝐍𝐇𝟒+
(c) Polyatomic 𝐎𝐇𝟒− , 𝐇𝐂𝐎− 𝟑 , 𝐍𝐇𝟒
+

(d) Polyatomic 𝐍𝐇𝟒+ , 𝐇𝐂𝐎− 𝟑,𝐍

𝟑−

Q. 34. Write the cations and anions present (if any) in the following
compounds:
(a) 𝐂𝐇𝟑 𝐂𝐎𝐎𝐍𝐚 (b) 𝐍𝐚𝐂𝐥 (c) 𝐇𝟐 (d) 𝐍𝐇𝟒 𝐍𝐎𝟑

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Q35. Read the following and answer any four questions from 12 (i) to 12 (v):
Dalton's atomic theory, formulated by the English chemist John Dalton in
the early 19th century, laid the foundation for our modern understanding of
atoms and their behaviour. This theory consists of several postulates that
describe the fundamental properties and interactions of atoms. Firstly,
Dalton proposed that all matter is composed of indivisible particles called
atoms, which are indestructible and retain their identities during chemical
reactions. Additionally, he stated that atoms of the same element are
identical in size, mass, and other properties, while atoms of different
elements have different properties. Dalton's theory also introduced the
concept of compounds, stating that chemical reictions occur when atoms
combine in fixed, whole number ratios to form compounds. According to his
postulates, atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction;
they are simply rearranged. Another important aspect of Dalton's theory is
the notion of conservation of mass. He postulated that the total mass of the
reactants in a chemical reaction is equal to the total mass of the products
formed. Furthermore, Dalton's atomic theory proposed that elements are
made up of tiny, indivisible particles called atoms, and that these atoms are
rearranged during chemical reactions but are not divided into smaller
particles. Lastly, Dalton's theory emphasized that atoms combine to form
compounds in definite proportions, and different compounds can be formed
by combining atoms in different ratios. Overall, Dalton's atomic theory
provided a framework for understanding the nature of matter and chemical
reactions. While some of the specifics of his postulates have been modified or
expanded upon with new scientific discoveries, the core principles of

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Dalton's theory continue to be relevant in modern chemistry.
(i) Which among the following is not a postulate of Dalton's atomic theory ?
(a) Atoms cannot be created nor destroyed
(b) Atoms of different elements have different sizes, masses and chemical
properties

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(c) Atoms of same elements can combine in only one ratio to produce more
than any one compound
(d) Atoms are very tiny particles which cannot be further divided
(ii) The formation of 𝐒𝐎𝟐 and 𝐒𝐎𝟑 explain :
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of definite properties
(c) Boyle's law (d) The law of multiple proportions
(iii) Noble gases exist as:
(a) Monoatomic (b) Diatomic (c) Triatomic (d) Both (a) and (b)

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(iv) In a chemical reaction, the sum of the masses of the reactants and
products remain unchanged. This is called:
(a) Law of conservation of mass (b) Law of definite properties
(c) Boyle's law (d) The law of multiple proportions
(v) Loss of electrons to an atom will result in a/an :
(a) Molecules (b) Cation (c) Anion (d) salt
 Biology
The Fundamental Unit of life

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Q1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Anthocyanins are found dissolved in cell sap.
(b) Nucleus regulates cell cycle.
(c) The two sister chromatids are held at centrosome.
(d) Cytosol is the ground substance of the cytoplasm.

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Q2. ___________process plays an important role in gaseous exchange
between cells as well as the cell and its external environment.
(a) Reverse Osmosis (b) Diffusion (c) Transportation (d)
Circulation

Q3. Which of the following is concerned with storage of materials like

starch, oils, proteins?
(a) Chromoplasts (b) Leucoplasts (c) Chloroplasts (d)
Lysosomes

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Q4. An unripe green fruit changes color when it ripens. The reason
being:
(a) Chromoplasts change to chlorophyll (b) Chromoplasts change to
chromosomes
(c) Chromosomes change to chromoplasts (d) Chloroplast changes to
chromoplasts.

Q5. Why glycerine is used while preparing temporary mount of human

cheek cells ?
(a) To stain the cells
(b) To remove extra stain
(c) To prevent the tissues/cells from getting dried
(d) To make the cells appear more distinct.

Q6. In which of the following forms glucose is stored in an animal cell?

(a) Starch (b) Peptides (c) Glycogen (d) Amino acids

Q7. Which pigments are found dissolved in cell sap?

(a) Carotene (b) Xanthophyll (c) Chlorophyll (d) Anthocyanins

Q8. Coverslip is put on the mounted material on a slide very gently to:
(a) avoid the crushing of mounted material
(b) avoid the entry of air bubble
(c) avoid oozing of stain
(d) avoid oozing of glycerine

Q9. The cellular component not seen in the temporary mount of onion
peel under the compound microscope is :
(a) Cell wall (b) Nucleus (c) Cytoplasm (d) Chromosomes
Q10. A single membrane bound organelle is :
(a) Ribosome (b) Lysosome (c) Plastis (d) Endoplasmic reticulum

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Q11. Which of the following organelles is not visible in the slide of onion
peel even under high power microscopy ?
(a) Nucleus (b) Cell wall (c) Cytoplasm (d) Mitochondria

Q12. Cheek epithelial cells are examples of:

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(a) Squamous epithelial cells (b) Columnar epithelial cells
(c) Cuboidal epithelial cells (d) Ciliated epithelial cells
Q13. Which of the following cell organelles is found both in prokaryotes
and eukaryotes?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosomes (c) Plastids (d) Ribosomes

Q14. Swollen feet and ankles can be naturally cured by dipping them in
salt water. Name the mechanism involved in this process.
(a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Active transport (d) Plasmolysis

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Q15. Which one of the following cell organelles is found in both mango
plant cell and monkey cell ?
(a) Centrioles (b) Cell wall (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast

Q16. Name the following:

(a) Plastid involved in the conversion of green color of tomato to red
color.
(b) The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotic cell.
Q17. What do you mean by plasmodesmata?
Q18. Why do the animal cells not have cell wall?
Q19. Give one point of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells.
Q20. What would happen to the cell if there is no Golgi apparatus?
Q21. Explain why :
(a) Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags.
(b) Mitochondria are known as power house of the cell.
Q22. Pick the odd one out from the following organelles :
Golgi apparatus, cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes. Give
reason for your answer.
Q23. Discuss the role of :
(a) Cellulose in cell wall
(b) Presence of deeply folded membrane in mitochondria
(c) Digestive enzymes in lysosomes
Q24. Name the following:
(a) The scientist who is credited with discovery of cells.
(b) The scientist who observed the living cells for the first time.
(c) The smallest and the largest cell in the world.
(d) The longest cell in the human body.
Q25. Write the main postulates of the cell theory ? Who proposed the cell
theory?

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Q26. Give three main points of differences between rough and smooth
endoplasmic reticulum.
Q27. What will happen if:
(a) Excess amount of fertilizers is added to green grass lawn.
(b) Salt is added to cut pieces of mango.
Q28. What is plasmolysis ? What happens to a plasmolysed cell when it

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is placed in water ?
Q29. A student put some dried apricots in two beakers A and B. Beaker A
contained 100ml of distilled water and beaker B had 100ml of saturated
sugar solution. What changes would he observe and why?
Q30. Answer the following briefly:
(a) Which is known as selectively permeable membrane and why?
(b) If the organization of a cell is destroyed due to some physical and
chemical influence, what will happen?
(c) How do substances like carbon dioxide and water move in and out of
the cell?

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Q31. If the cells of onion peel and RBCs are separately kept in hypotonic
solutions, what will happen to them? Give reason in support of your
answer.
Q.32. Label and name the cell organelles present in a cell based on the
analogy written below :
(a) Transporting channels of the cell
(b) Packaging and dispatching unit of the cell
(c) Storage sacs of the cell
(d) Control room of the cell
(e) Kitchen of the cell
(f) Digestive bag of the cell
Q33. What are the consequences of the following conditions:
(a) A cell having higher water concentration than the surrounding
medium.
(b) A cell having lower water concentration than the surrounding
medium.
(c) A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium.
Q34. Why is endocytosis found in animals only?
Q35. Name a cell organelle without any membrane and state one of its
important functions.
Q36. What are two important factors that determine the shape of a cell?
Provide examples to support your answer.
Q37. Why does a leaf appear green, mango yellow and tomato red?
Explain in detail.
Q38. (a) What happens when an egg is first put in hydrochloric acid for
some time and then placed in a concentrated salt solution?
What mechanisms are involved in absorption of digested food and
water?
Q39. Study the figure given below.
Potato cups A, B and C are made from unboiled potatoes, whereas 𝑫 is
boiled potato cup. Potato cup 𝑨 is empty whereas 𝑩 and 𝑪 have sugar and

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salt solution in them respectively. Boiled potato cup 𝑫 has sugar solution
in it. Each potato cup is placed in trough containing water.
The apparatus is kept undisturbed for few hours.

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(a) In which potato cup will you observe increase in water level and why?
(b) What is the purpose of potato cup 𝐀 in this experiment?
(c) In which potato cup would you observe no increase/decrease of
water level and why?
(d) Which process does this experiment demonstrate?
Q40. Draw the human cheek cell with correct labelling.
Q41. Mention two precautions while preparing the mount of a human
cheek cells.

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Q42. Draw a well labelled diagram of an animal cell and label the main
organelles, also write the functions of each organelle labelled by you in
the figure.

Q43. Identify the cell and answer the given below :

Name the parts labelled in the above diagram.

(b) Which organelles are present only in plant cells?
(c) What is the importance of organelle ' 𝒈 '?
(d) What is the specific name of organelle ' 𝒉 ' in plant cell?
(e) Parts ' 𝐚 ' and ' 𝐛 ' are present both in plant and animal cell. State true
or false.
Q44. Study the diagram below and answer the following questions.
(a) Identify the structure and state its main role.
(b) Label the parts 1-5.

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(c) What is the functions of parts labelled 1 and 5 ?
(d) Is this structure present in all cells ? If not, name the cell in which it
is absent.
Q45. Draw a labelled diagram of the observations of the temporary
mount of an onion peel.

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Directions : Questions is Assertion and Reason type Question:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.

Q46. Assertion: Rough endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with protein

synthesis.

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Reason : In rough endoplasmic reticulum ribosomes are attached to its
outer surface which take an important part in protein synthesis.
Q47. Assertion : Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags.
Reason : It contains hydrolytic enzymes that destroy worn out cells.
Q48. Assertion : Mitochondria have large surface area for cellular
respiration.
Reason : The outer membrane is thrown into folds called cristae which
increases the surface area.
Q49. Assertion : Vacuoles are osmoregulatory organs in protozoans.
Reason : They maintain the water balance.
Q50. Assertion : Granum is the site for dark reaction of photosynthesis.
Reason : It contains various enzymes required for light reaction.

Q51. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related concepts.
Ravi was going to his school to give his final 𝟗th class exams. Today it

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was the science exam and he was nervous. The teacher had told that
there will be a surprise element in the exam that he didn't know of.
When he reached the school, he found out that there will be a vivavoce
exam for each of the students. When his turn came, he was given a very
small task. First he was shown the above two images.
(a) Help Ravi to correlate between these two images.
(b) What is the reason behind that correlation?

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(c) Mark the solution to the above two questions in the given image.
(d) Name two other cell organelles in a plant cell.
Q52. Questions (a) to (d) are based on the Table A and B. Study this table
and answer the following questions
Table A : 6 persons and their serum osmolality levels
PERSON SERUM OSMOLALITY
(mmol/kg)
A 260
B 243

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C 220
D 280
E 276
F 315
G 342
Table B : Range for normal and dangerous levels of serum osmolality of
a person’s blood
Situation Serum
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
Should visit the doctor <275
Normal range 275-295
Should visit the doctor >295
G 342

Osmolality can be used to measure the amount of solute dissolved in a

solution. If the level of solute of a solution is higher than the
concentration of solute inside of the cell, water will flow out of the cell
by osmosis. If the level of solute outside the cell is lower than the level of
solute inside of the cell, water will flow into the cell.
(a) If we place a red blood cell ( 𝐨𝐬𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐚𝐥𝐢𝐭𝐲 is 𝟐𝟖𝟎 𝐦 𝐦𝐨𝐥/𝐤𝐠 ) in the serum
of person 𝐅, will the plasma flow into the cell or out of the cell?
(b) Which person (refer A and B) should visit the doctor ?
(c) Define osmosis.
(d) What is the difference between diffusion and osmosis?
Q53. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 20
(i) to 20 (v). A cell is capable of independent existence and can carry out
all the functions which are necessary for a living being. A cell carries out
nutrition, respiration, excretion, transportation and reproduction; the
way an individual organism does. Unicellular organisms are capable of

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independent existence which shows a cell's capability to exist
independently. Due to this, a cell is called the fundamental and
structural unit of life. All living beings are composed of the basic unit of
life, i.e., cell.
(i) Cells were first discovered by:
(a) Leeuwenhoek (b) Purkinje

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(c) Robert Brown (d) Robert Hooke
(ii) The following is a picture of the compound microscope, which of the
following options correctly represents its parts?

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(a) A-eyepiece, B - condenser, C-objective lens
(b) A- condenser, B - objective piece, C - eyepiece
(c) A- condenser, B-eye, C-lens
(d) A-condenser, B - eyepiece, C - objective lens

(iii) Select the odd one out.

(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Hydra (c) Plasmodium (d) Amoeba
(iv) 1μm is:
(a) 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 m (b) 𝟏𝟎−𝟗 m (c) 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟎 m (d) 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 m

(v) According to cell theory,

(a) all the plants and animals are composed of cells.
(b) the cell is the basic unit of life.
(c) all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(d) certain cells arise from pre-existing cells.

Q54. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied
concepts.
 S R
In plants and some algae, organelles known as chloroplasts serve as the
site of photosynthesis. Chloroplasts contain a pigment known as
chlorophyll, which captures the energy from sunlight to transform water

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and carbon dioxide into glucose for food. Chloroplasts allow autotrophic
organisms to meet their energy needs without consuming other
organisms.
(a) What are organelles, and why are they important for the cells?
(b) Is chloroplast an organelle? In what types of cell is a chloroplast
found?
(c) State the most vital function that is performed by the chloroplast?
(d) Are chloroplasts found in the animal cell? State the reason for your
answer?
Q55. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 19
(i) to 19 (v). Each living cell has the capacity to perform certain basic
functions that are characteristics of all living forms. There is a division
of labour in multicellular organisms such as human beings. This means
that different parts of the human body perform different functions. The
human body has a heart to pump blood, a stomach to digest food and so
on. Similarly, division of labour is also seen within a single cell in many
cases. In fact, each such cell has got certain specific components within
it known as cell organelles. Each kind of cell organelle performs a
special function, such as making new material in the cell, clearing up the
waste material from the cell and so on. A cell is able to live and perform
all its functions because of these organelles. These organelles together
constitute the basic unit called the cell.
(i) Which of the following is not a constituent in cell wall of plants?
(a) Pectin (b) Hemicellulose (c) Chitin (d) Cellulose
(ii) Which of the following is correctly matched with respect to the
plant cell?
(a) 4-Suicidal Bags of the cell (b) 2-production of Ribosomes
(c) 7 - powerhouse of the cell (d) 5 -Storage sacs of the cell
(iii) Who coined the term protoplast?
(a) Virchow (b) Leeuwenhoek (c) Robert Hooke (d) Purkinje

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(iv) Examples of double-membraned organelles are:
(a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria (c) Plastid (d) All of these
(v) Which of the following options are the functions of ribosomes?
(i) It helps in manufacture of protein molecules.
(ii) It helps in manufacture of enzymes.
(iii) It helps in manufacture of hormones.

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Q56. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 20
(i) to (v).
An organism may be a single cell, such as the organisms seen in water.
Others, like the plants and animals with which you are most familiar,
are multicellular, or made up of many cells. The cell is the basic unit of
structure and organisation of organisms. Although organisms such as
humans, dogs, and trees can become very large and complex, the cell
remains the simplest, most basic component of any organism. Study the
given figure carefully and answer the following questions.

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(i) 'All cells arise from the pre-existing cells' is proposed by:
(a) Rudolf Virchow (b) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(c) Matthias Schleiden (d) Theodor Schwann

(ii) Which of the following scientists made improved microscope to

discover free living cells in the pond water for the first time?
(a) Theodor Schwann
(c) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(b) Robert Hooke
(d) Rudolf Virchow

(iii) Dead cork cells are seen in the microscope as given in the figure.
Who discovered it for the first time?
(a) Theodor Schwann (b) Robert Hooke

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(c) Anton von Leeuwenhoek (d) Rudolf Virchow

(iv) The cell theory is made up of three main ideas:

(1) All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
(2) The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of organisms.
(3) All cells come from pre-existing cells.

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(4) Cell divide to form two identical cells.

(v) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of
these

(v) Which of the following is correctly matched?

Column A Column B
Smallest cells Mycoplasma (PPLO)
Longest cells White blood cells

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Largest cell c. Nerve cells
Cell which shows amoeba like c. Ostrich egg
movement

Q57. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied
concepts.

Prokaryotes are simple, small cells, whereas eukaryotic cells are

complex, large structured and are present in trillions which can be
single-celled or multicellular. Prokaryotic cells do not have a well-
defined nucleus, but DNA molecule is located in the cell, termed as
nucleoid, whereas eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus, where
genetic material is stored. Based on the structure and functions, cells
are broadly classified as prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cell.
(a) A scientist is working on a cell. He observed the cell under a
microscope and found that the cell has a well-defined nucleus. State
whether the cell belongs to the prokaryotic organism or eukaryotic
organism. Also, tell the reason for your answer.
(b) Give two examples of the prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
(c) The eukaryotic cells have been categorized into two major types.

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What are these two types?
(d) Define the term "nucleoid".

Questions (a) to (c) are based on the Table A and B. Study this table and
answer the following questions.
Table A : Osmolality of water in large intestine

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Person Water
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
A 150
B 200
C 175
D 195
E 225
Table B : Range for normal and dangerous levels of water in large

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intestine of a person
Situation Water
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
Should visit the <175
doctor
Normal range 175-195
Should visit the >195
doctor

(a) Who all (Table A) are in the dangerous level of water in their small
intestine?
(b) Define osmosis.
(c) What is the difference between diffusion and osmosis ?

Q58. Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Benu was helping his mother in laying the table when they had some
guest for dinner. Benu was about to sprinkle salt on salad for dressing.
His mother stopped him from doing so and told him that it is too early to
sprinkle salt on the salad, he should do so only when they are seated for
having the dinner.
(a) What would happen if salt is sprinkled on the salad?
(b) Which property of cells is seen in adding salt to it?
(c) What value of Benu is seen?
 BIOLOGY
Tissues

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Q1. What is called as secondary growth in plants ?
(a) The increase in height of the plants.
(b) The increase in length of an organ in plants.
(c) The increase in diameter and girth of stems and roots of plants.
(d) None of these
Q2. Choose the option that accurately represents the types of permanent tissues in

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plants, as shown in the figures below.

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(a) A-parenchyma; B-collenchyma; C-sclerenchyma
(b) A-sclerenchyma; B-parenchyma; C-collenchyma
(c) A-collenchyma; B-sclerenchyma; C-parenchyma
(d) A-parenchyma; B-sclerenchyma; C-collenchyma
Q3. Contractile proteins are found in :
(a) Bones (b) Muscles (c) Cartilage (d) Blood
Q4. A person met with an accident in which two long bones of leg were dislocated.
What may be the possible reason?
(a) Tendon break
(b) Areolar tissue breakage
(c) Breakage of ligaments
(d) Breakage of striped muscle
Q5. Identify the indicated parts from diagram below :
(a) 1- apical meristem; 2- intercalary meristem; 3-lateral meristem
(b) 1-intercalary meristem;2-lateral meristem; 3-apical meristem
(c) 1-lateral meristem; 2-apical meristem; 3-intercalary meristem
(d) 1-apical meristem; 2-lateral meristem; 3-intercalary meristem

Q6. Select the incorrect statement from the following :

(a) Adipose tissue is an aggregation of fat cells or adipocytes.
(b) Tendon is made up of white fibres.
(c) Fibrin is an important protein for blood clotting.
(d) Axon carry impulses away from cell body.
Q7. Which of the following is not a granulocyte?
(a) Neutrophils (b) Eosinophils (c) Basophils (d) Monocytes
Q8. Jute and coir are obtained from :

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(a) Parenchyma (b) Sclerenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) Meristematic tissue

Q9. A slide shows many cells which have thickened corners. The slide is of :
(a) Parenchyma (b) Sclerenchyma (c) Collenchyma (d) Cardiac muscle

Q10. The movement of food along the alimentary canal is caused by :

(a) Smooth muscle (b) Striated muscle (c) Nervous tissue (d) Cardiac muscle

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Q11. Which of the following neurons carry impulses towards the brain?
(a) Sensory neuron (b) Association neuron (c) Relay neuron (d) Motor neuron

Q12. Which type of WBCs are abundant in lymph?

(a) Monocytes (b) Basophils (c) Neutrophils (d) Lymphocytes

Q13. In which type of tissue cell wall is thickened at the corners ?

(a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Aerenchyma

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Q14. Sieve tubes and companion cells are present in:
(a) xylem (b) phloem (c) cork (d) cambium

Q15. Which of the following options correctly describes the mechanism of organ
movement during work and running?
(a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
(b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
(c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
(d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligaments to move the bones.

Q16. Which plant tissue provide mechanical strength as well as elasticity ?

Q17. What specific functions are associated with the areas where cuboidal epithelium is
found in the body?
Q18. Name the tissue present in the husk of coconut. State three important functions of
this tissue.
Q19. Voluntary muscles are also known as skeletal muscles. Justify.
Q20. You can see some blood vessels on the outside of the hands especially in older
people. Are those veins or arteries? How can you confirm your answer?
Q21. Name the living component common to both the complex permanent tissues found
in plants.
Q22. Why do animals in colder region and cold water fishes have thick layer of
subcutaneous fat?
Q23. A specialized tissue is present in animals that smoothens the surface of a bone at a
joint.
(a) Name the tissue.
(b) Explain the structure of this tissue with a diagram.
Q24. There are different types of epithelial tissues present in human beings.
Identify the specific type of epithelial tissue based on the features given below :
(a) It helps in removing the dust and other foreign particles from respiratory tract.
(b) It protects the underlying parts of the body from mechanical injury.
(c) They are present in intestine and help in absorption of digested food.

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Q25. Identify the tissues A and B

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Give four points of difference between them.

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Q26. Identify the tissues shown below and label its parts
State the location
State the location of this tissue.
Give some characteristic features of this tissue.
State some major functions of this tissue.

Q27. Read the passage carefully and answer the following questions: A 60
year old paralytic patient was unable to walk. The doctor diagnosed that this condition
was due to the impairment of certain tissues. One of her major concerns was the
inability to effectively produce a smile on the left partially paralysed side of her face.
The family member of the patient took the utmost care of the patient. It is crucial that
we take good care of our body so that it functions smoothly.
(i) Name the tissues responsible for the movement of body.
(a) Muscular tissue (b) Epithelial tissue (c) Nervous tissue (d) Connective tissue

(ii) Name the tissue present in the brain and the spine.
(a) Muscular tissue (b) Epithelial tissue (c) Nervous tissue (d) Connective tissue

(iii) What is the nervous tissue composed of?

(a) Neurons (b) Neuroglia (c) Choanocytes (d) Both (a) and (b)

(iv) Which tissue in the body is responsible for providing insulation to the body?
(a) Adipose tissue (b) Areolar tissue (c) Nervous tissue (d) Striated tissue

(v) Is the structural and functional unit of the nervous tissue.

(a) Nephron (b) Cyton (c) Neuron (d) Axon

Q28. Answer briefly :

(a) What is fluid connective tissue? State its two types.
(b) Give four points of differences between these two types of fluid connective
tissues.
(c) State two major functions of two types of fluid connective tissues.
Q29. In the transverse section of stem which tissue occupies larger space-

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parenchyma or sclerenchyma?

Q30. A student observed three slides of muscle tissues and identified them as
striated, smooth and cardiac muscles tissues. Under what basis he could have made
this classification?

Q31.What minerals are present mainly in bone matrix?

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Q32. Which type of WBCs are most abundant in lymph?

Q33. Differentiate between the three types of muscular tissue based on their
location.

Q34. What is a neuron? Write the structure and functions of a neuron.

Q35. Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues? Give four points of
differences between xylem and phloem tissues.

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Q36. Study the figure given alongside and answer the following
questions:
(a) Identify the figure. Label the parts indicated in the figure.
(b) To which type of tissue do part 2 and 4 belong?
(c) Give two points of difference between part 2 and part 4.

Q37. Identify tissues A, B and C

Differentiate the three tissues based on their:
(a) Occurrence (b) Structure (c) Function

Q38. What is cork? How is it formed? State its important characteristic features. State
its major functions.

Q39. Differentiate between parenchyma and

sclerenchyma tissue.

Q40. A student correctly identified the slide of

muscular tissue as cardiac. State the distinguishing
feature that helps him to identify the tissue?

Q41. Give reasons :

(a) In desert plants, epidermis has thick waxy coating.
(b) Water hyacinth plant floats on water surface.
(c) Blood is a fluid connective tissue.
Q42. What will happen if :
(a) Ligament gets over stretched.
(b) Apical meristem is damaged or cut.
(c) Heparin is absent in blood.
Q43. Study the diagram given below and answer the following questions.
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(a) What does the figure represent? Name the neurotransmitter secreted by synaptic
knob of axonal terminals.

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(b) Label the parts 1-6.
(c) What is the function of this cell?
(d) What is the function of the parts labelled 1 and 6 ?
(e) Where is this cell likely to be found in the human body?

Q44. Study the diagram given below and answer the following questions :

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(a) Identify the type of tissue and give a reason to support your answer.
(b) Identify parts 1-4 labelled in the figure above.
(c) What are the functions of parts labelled 1-4.
(d) Where is this tissue located?
Q45. Study the figures given below and answer the following
questions :
(a) Identify tissue 𝑨 and 𝑩.
(b) State the location of tissue A and B.
(c) Give two characteristic features each of tissue A and B.
(d) Give one major function each of tissue 𝐀 and 𝐁.
Directions : Questions are Assertion and Reason type Questions:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.

Q46. Assertion : Ciliated epithelium is present in the inner lining of trachea and
bronchi which keeps our respiratory tract clean.
Reason : The continuous movement of cilia removes the mucus and any foreign
particle out from the trachea and bronchi.

Q47. Assertion : Cuticle prevents the loss of water by transpiration process

partioipatin xerophytic plants.
Reason : Cuticle is very thick in xerophytic plants.

Q48. Assertion : The cell walls of sclerenchyma are very thick.

Reason : The presence of lignin makes the cell wall thick.
Q49. Assertion : Aerenchyma provides buoyancy to water plants like hydrilla.
Reason : They have lignin, suberin deposits which provide buoyancy.

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Q50. Assertion : Bones provide structural support and enable movement in the body.
Reason : Ligaments are strong, flexible connective tissues that attach bones to each
other, providing stability and facilitating joint movement.
Q51. Assertion : Sclerenchyma cells are dead.
Reason : High chitin content present in the cell wall of these cells makes it impermeable
to various substances, so protoplasm is not present.

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Q52. Blood has a fluid (liquid) matrix called plasma, in which red blood cells (RBCs),
white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets are suspended. The plasma contains proteins,
salts, and hormones. Blood flows and transports gases, digested food, hormones, and
waste materials to different parts of the body.
(a) Is blood a type of tissue? If yes, tell what type of tissue it is?
(b) The blood plasma is composed of a particular protein. State the name of this
protein.
(c) Name two other examples of connective tissues except for blood.
(d) Are the cells of connective tissues loosely packed or tightly packed?

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Q53. Questions (a) to (d) are based

Types of Tissues Characters

Epithelial Tissue Epithelium covers most
organs and cavities
Connective Tissue These tissues connects or
binds organs
Muscular Tissue This is responsible for
movement in our body
Nervous Tissue These tissue respond to a
stimuli

(a) What is the cell of nervous tissue called ?

(b) What are the four different types of epithelial tissues?
(c) Give any two examples of connective tissue.
(d) What is the special protein present in the muscles?
Q54. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 54 (i) to 54
(v):
Blood is a vital fluid that circulates throughout our bodies, delivering oxygen,
nutrients, and hormones while removing waste products. It is composed of various
components, including red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells (WBCs), platelets,
and plasma. RBCs carry oxygen to body tissues and contain haemoglobin, a protein
that binds to oxygen. WBCs are essential for our immune system, defending against
infections and diseases. Platelets help in blood clotting, preventing excessive
bleeding. Plasma, the liquid component of blood, transports nutrients, hormones,
and waste products.
(i) What are the functions of red blood cells?
(ii) How do white blood cells contribute to the body's defense mechanism?
(iii) Explain the role of platelets in blood clotting and why it is important for our
health.
(iv) How does the structure of red blood cells enable them to carry oxygen
efficiently?
Q55. The covering or protective tissues in the animal body are epithelial tissues.
Epithelium covers most organs and cavities within the body. It also forms a barrier

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to keep different body systems separate. The skin, the lining of the mouth, the lining
of blood vessels, alveoli of lungs, and kidney tubules are all made of epithelial
tissues. Epithelial tissue cells are tightly packed and form a continuous sheet.
(a) What is the function of the epithelial tissue?
(b) State the major types of epithelial tissues?
(c) The skin is composed of epithelial tissue. Name the type of epithelial tissue that
forms the skin.

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(d) Name the type of epithelial tissue that contains cilia. Also, tell the body part
where this type of epithelial tissue can be found.
Q56. Questions (a) to (d) are based on the Table A and B. Study these tables and
answer the following questions.
Table A : Thickness of epidemis
Plant Thickness of
epidermis (mm)
A 0.05
B 2.3
C 0.02

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D 1.9
E 2.7
F 0.1
Table B : Terrains and thickness of the epidermis of the plants found in the terrain
Terrains Thickness of epidermis
(mm)
Desert >2.0
Grasslands 1.0 > x >0.5
Forests <0.5

(a) Which plants (from Table A) can be found in desert?

(b) What is the reason plants found in deserts have a thicker epidermis than the
plants found in grasslands or forests?
(c) What is the name of the thick waxy coating found on the leaves of the plants
found in desert?
(d) Give one example of a desert plant.

Q57. Name the following:

(i) Tissue that forms the inner lining of the mouth.
(ii) Tissue that connects the muscle to bones in humans.
(iii) Tissue that transports the food in plants.
(iv) Tissue that stores fat in our body.
(v) Connective tissue with a fluid matrix.
(vi) Tissue presents in the brain.
(vii) Tissue found in the lining of kidney tubules.
(viii) Tissue found in the vascular bundles of the plants.
(ix) Tissue found in the pith of stem and roots.
(x) Tissue found in the hard coat of seeds and nuts.

Q58. Rohan went to watch his sister, who is an athlete, participate in a race. As the
rac progressed, Rohan noticed his sister experiencing pain and struggling to run
properly. 𝐇 observed the doctor responding quickly by applying ice to her knees.
State one function of a skeletal connective tissue.
What is ligament ?
(d) What are tendons?

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Rohan is confused as to why the doctor is applying ice on his sister's knees. Can you
clear his confusion by stating an appropriate reason?

Q59. Questions (a) to (d) are based on the table. Study this table and answer the

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following questions.

Jar 1 Jar 2
Days (cm) (cm)
Day 1 1
1
Day 1.3 1.4
2
Day 1.7 0.8
3
Day 2.1 0.8
4
Day 2.5 0.8
5

Two glass jars filled with water are taken. Two onion bulbs are taken and placed in
each of the jars. Observe the growth of roots in both the jars. Measure the length of
the roots daily. On Day 3 cut the root tips of the onion in Jar 2 by 𝟏 𝐜𝐦 and measure
their lengths each day for 2 to 3 more days. By this activity, the table was
constructed.
(a) Does the root of onion in Jar 2 continue growing even after its tip is removed?
(b) Why does it stop growing after the root tip is removed?
(c) What is apical meristem?
(d) What happens to the cells formed by meristematic tissue?

Q60. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 20 (i) to 20 (v):
The animal cells are grouped together to form animal tissues. These tissues vary in
their structure, function, and origin. There are more than 100 visibly-
distinguishable kinds of differentiated cells in the vertebrate animals. These are
organized into tissues; the tissues into organs. Groups of organs make up the various
systems - digestive, excretory, etc. - of the body. The actual number of differentiated
cell types is surely much larger than 100. All lymphocytes, for example, look alike
but actually represent a variety of different functional types, e.g., B cells, T cells of
various subsets. The neurons of the central nervous system must exist in a thousand
or more different functional types, each representing the result of a particular
pathway of differentiation.

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(i) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

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(a)

(b)

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(c)

(d)

(ii) Which one of the following is true about cardiac muscles?

(a) They can be controlled. (b) They lack mitochondria.
(c) Cells are bi-nucleate. (d) Found only in heart.
(iii) Voluntary muscles are found in:
(a) alimentary canal (b) limbs (c) iris of the eye (d) bronchi of lungs
(iv) Which of the following does not lose their nucleus at maturity?
(a) Companion cells (b) Red blood cells (c) Vessel (d) Sieve tube cells

(v) Chose the correct labelling.

(a) A - Cell body, B - Axon, C-Dendrites
(b) E-Cell body, D - Dendrites, 𝐂 − Axon
(c) A - Cell body, B-Axon, C-Nerve ending, E-Nucleus
(d) B-Axon, C-Nerve endings, D-Cell body , E-Dendrites
 Chapter – I [Motion]

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Q1. Which of the following equation explains the relationship between position and
velocity of the object?
𝟏
(a) 𝟐𝒂𝒔 = 𝒗𝟐 − 𝒖𝟐 (b) 𝒗 = 𝒖 + 𝒂𝒕 (c) 𝒖 = 𝟐𝒂𝒔 − 𝒗𝟐 (d) 𝒔 = 𝒖𝒕 + 𝟐 𝒂𝒕𝟐

Q.2. Arun drives a bike to attain a velocity of 𝟒 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 in 𝟐𝟎 𝐬 and then applies brakes
such that the velocity of the bike comes down to 𝟐 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 in the next 𝟒 𝐬. Calculate the
acceleration of the bike in both the cases :

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(a) 𝟎. 𝟐 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 and −𝟎. 𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 (b) 𝟎. 𝟑 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 and −𝟎. 𝟐 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐
(c) 𝟎. 𝟒 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 and −𝟎. 𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 (d) 𝟎. 𝟒 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 and −𝟎. 𝟐 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐
Q.3. What does the slope of distance-time graph indicate?
(a) Speed (b) Velocity (c) Acceleration (d) Momentum
Q.4. Which type of motion is seen in a flying butterfly?
(a) Circular Motion (b) Linear Motion
(c) Random Motion (d) Translational motion

Q.5 The displacement covered by a second's hand of radius 𝒓 in a clock after one
revolution is:

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(a) Zero (b) 𝟐𝒓 (c) 𝟑𝒓 (d) 𝟑𝟔𝟎∘

Q. 6. If a motorist travels from 𝑨 to 𝑩 with speed 𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡 and returns with speed
𝟔𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡, what is the average speed?
(a) 𝟒𝟔 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (b) 𝟒𝟐 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (c) 𝟒𝟖 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (d) 𝟒𝟒 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫

Q. 7. A player moves along the boundary of a square ground of side 𝟏𝟎 𝐦 from one of
its corner in 𝟒𝟎 𝐬. The magnitude of displacement of the player at the end of 2
minutes 20 seconds from his initial position is :
(a) 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟒𝟏/𝟐 (b) 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟑𝟏/𝟐 (c) 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟐𝟏/𝟐 (d) 𝟏𝟎 × 𝟏𝟏/𝟐

Q. 8. An object travels 𝟒𝟎 𝐦 in 𝟓𝐬𝐞𝐜 and then another 𝟖𝟎 𝐦 in 𝟓𝐬𝐞𝐜. What is the average
speed of the object?
(a) 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 (b) 𝟏𝟐 𝐦/𝐬 (c) 𝟓 𝐦/𝐬 (d) 𝟔 𝐦/𝐬

Q. 9. In travelling from Pune to Nagpur, Rahul drove his bike for 2 hours at 𝟔𝟎𝐤𝐦𝐩𝐡
and 3 hours at 𝟕𝟎𝐤𝐦𝐩𝐡. Calculate the average speed:
(a) 𝟔𝟔 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (b) 𝟔𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (b) 𝟔𝟐 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 (d) 𝟔𝟒 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫

Q. 10. What does the slope of distance-time graph give ?

(a) Velocity (b) Speed (c) Distance (d) Displacement

Q. 11. An example of a body moving with constant speed but still accelerating is :
(a) A body moving with constant speed on a straight road.
(b) A body moving in a straight path with constant speed.
(c) A body moving with constant speed in a circular path.
(d) A body moving with constant speed on a straight railway track.

Q. 12. A body moving along a straight line at 𝟐𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 undergoes an acceleration of

𝟒 𝐦/𝐬 𝟐. After 2 seconds, what will be its exact speed?
(a) 𝟐𝟓 𝐦/𝐬 (b) 𝟐𝟖 𝐦/𝐬 (c) 𝟐𝟕 𝐦/𝐬 (d) 𝟐𝟗 𝐦/𝐬

Q. 13. If an object moves some distance, can it have a zero displacement ? If yes,
support your answer with an example.
Q. 14. The distance of the gunman from a cliff is 560 metres. How much time will he

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take to hear an echo of the gunshot fired by him? (Speed of sound = 𝟑𝟒𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 )

Q. 15. A box is dropped vertically from a height of 𝟑𝟎 𝐦. Find the initial velocity of the
box, time taken by it to reach the ground and its final velocity. (𝒈 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 )

Q. 16. The displacement of a moving object in a given interval of time is zero. Would
the distance travelled by the object also be zero? Justify your answer.

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Q. 17. A wave pulse on a string moves at a distance of 𝟏𝟎 𝐦 in 𝟎. 𝟔 𝐬.
(a) Find the velocity of the pulse.
(b) What would be the wavelength of the wave on the same string if its frequency is
𝟏𝟓𝟎 𝐇𝐳 ?

Q. 18. An object goes from point 𝒙 to 𝒚 and then back from 𝒚 to 𝒙. What is the
displacement and average velocity ?

Q. 19. Differentiate between speed and velocity.

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Q. 20. A car on national highways starts after a pit stop and attains a speed of
𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 in 10 minutes. Find its rate of acceleration.

Q. 21. A car is moving with a speed of 𝟗𝟎 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 . The driver sees a road sign stating
that there is a block on the road in 𝟏 𝐤𝐦. He applies the brake to produce a uniform
acceleration of −𝟎. 𝟓 𝐦 𝐬−𝟐 . Find how far before the block the car stops.

Q. 22. A man-made satellite is orbiting around the earth in a circular path of radius
𝟓𝟐𝟑𝟓𝟎 𝐤𝐦. Find the velocity of the satellite if it takes 𝟐𝟎𝐡𝐫𝐬. to finish one revolution
around the earth.

Q. 21. Define velocity. State its S.I. unit. State whether it is a scalar or a vector
quantity.

Q. 22. (a) What are the two ways of changing the velocity of a body?
(b) What is uniform velocity?

Q. 23. If bodies 𝑨 and 𝑩 of different masses are dropped at the same time from the
same height, which object will reach the ground first? Explain.

Q. 24. (a) What is acceleration? Write the formula for acceleration. Give an example
where it acts on a body.
(b) A car starting from rest attained a velocity of 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 in 15 minutes. What is its
acceleration?
(c) What is the distance travelled during this time?

Q. 25. (a) What is retardation also called? Why is it called so? State whether it is a
scalar or vector quantity.
(b) The speed of a bike decreases from 𝟒𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 to 𝟑𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 in 5 seconds. Calculate the
acceleration of the bike.
(c) What is the distance travelled during this time by bike?

Q. 26. A train travels a distance of 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝐤𝐦 from Delhi to Jaipur towards the west in 4
hours in the evening and returns to Delhi in the morning covering a distance of
𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝐤𝐦 in 4 hours. Find (a) average speed and (b) average velocity.
Q. 27. (a) A car accelerates uniformly from 𝟏𝟖 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 to 𝟑𝟔 𝐤𝐦 𝐡−𝟏 in 𝟓 𝐬. Calculate (i)
the acceleration and (ii) the distance covered by the car in that time.

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(b) The brakes applied to a car produce an acceleration of 𝟔 𝐦 𝐬 −𝟐 in the opposite
direction to the motion. If the car takes 𝟐 𝐬 to stop after the application of brakes,
calculate the distance it travels during this time.

Q. 28. Define vector quantities. Give examples.

Q. 29. Define scalar quantities. Give examples.

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Q. 30. Discuss whether the walls of your classroom are at rest or in motion.

Q. 31. A car starts from the rest with an uniform acceleration of 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐦/𝐬 𝟐. In two
minutes, find (a) the speed it reaches, (b) the distance travelled.

Q. 32. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 . If

the acceleration of the stone during its motion is 𝟏𝟎 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 in the downward direction,
(a) how much time will stone take to reach the maximum height. (b) Also, calculate
the height attained by the stone.

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Q. 33. A car is travelling along a straight road and is decelerating.
(a) Does the car's acceleration necessarily have a negative value?
(b) If yes, then explain.

Q. 34. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝐦 in 𝟒𝟎 𝐬.

(a) What will be the distance covered in 2 minutes 20 s?
(b) The displacement at the end of 2 minutes 𝟐𝟎 𝐬.

Q.35. Differentiate between distance and displacement.

Q. 36. A honey bee leaves the hive and travels 𝟐 𝐦 before returning. Is the
displacement for the trip the same as the distance travelled? If not, explain why?

Q. 37. A particle is thrown vertically upwards under gravity. What

are the signs of displacement and velocity in the given situations
(a) & (b) (P to Q)?

Q. 38. An object moving with constant acceleration can certainly

slow down. But can an object ever come to a permanent halt
(stop) if its acceleration truly remains constant ? Explain.

Q.39. What are the points that should be kept in mind while choosing the scale for
drawing graph?

Q. 40. What are the two types of motion when the object is projected vertically up ?

Q. 41. Draw the displacement-time graph and give the slope formula.

Q. 42. Define uniform circular motion.

Q. 43. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 for 2
minutes. Find :
(a) The speed acquired.
(b) The distance travelled.
Q. 44. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be
𝟐𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the

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average speed is 𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡.
(a) Derive the equation for total time to calculate the average speed.
(b) What is the average speed for Abdul's trip?

Q. 45. The speed-time graph for a car is shown here.

(a) Find how far the car travels in the first 4 seconds. Shade the area on the graph
that represents the distance travelled by car during this period.

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(b) Which part of the graph represents the uniform motion of the car?

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Q. 46. A driver of a car travelling at 𝟓𝟐𝐤𝐦𝐩𝐡 applies the brakes and accelerates
uniformly in the opposite direction. The car stops in 𝟓 𝐬. Another driver going at
𝟑𝐤𝐦𝐩𝐡 in another car applies the brakes slowly and stops in 𝟏𝟎 𝐬. On the same graph
paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars.
(i) Calculate the distance travelled by car,
(ii) Which of the two cars travelled farther after the brakes were applied?

Directions : For question numbers 47 and 52 , two statements are given

one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the
correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as
given below:
(a) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true and (𝑹) is correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true but (𝑹) is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) (𝑨) is true but (𝑹) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Q. 47. Assertion : If an object has moved through a distance then it cannot have zero
displacement. Reason : Displacement is the minimum distance between the starting
and end point.

Q. 48. Assertion : Both speed and velocity are vector quantities.

Reason : Speed has only magnitude while velocity has both magnitude and direction.
So, Speed is a scalar quantity but velocity is a vector quantity.

Q. 49. Assertion : The displacement of the car is zero but the car travelled some
distance and came back to its starting point.
Reason : The displacement is the relative position of final and initial points.

Q. 50. Assertion : A fly is moving with a uniform rate. The average velocity of the fly
is determined with its final and initial velocity.
Reason : The average speed of an object obtained by dividing total distance and time
taken to travel that distance.

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Q. 51. Assertion : A girl was running and was carrying a pot. She dropped the pot and
the pot broke.
Reason : An object experiences negative acceleration when it is travelling in the
opposite direction to its velocity.

Q. 52. Assertion : The velocity of the moon is changing constantly.

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Reason : When the object is in a circular motion, its velocity does not change
constantly.

Q. 53. Using the following information form a pathway explaining the speed with a
direction. And also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.
Rate of motion, Velocity, Direction of motion, Average velocity
Rate of motion, Velocity, Direction of motion, Average velocity

Q. 54. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the force
experienced by the coin when it is tossed. And also include information that is not

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mentioned below to complete it.
Upward direction, motion, maximum height, flipping,
acceleration, opposite direction.

Q. 55. Using the following information form a pathway showing relative velocity
experienced by a man in the train. And also include information that is not
mentioned below to complete it.

Train, stationary, relative velocity, beside track.

Q. 56. Using the following information form a pathway showing circular motion
experienced by a satellite. And also include information that is not mentioned below
to complete it.

Earth, satellite, circular motion, change in velocity.

Q. 57. Using the following information form a pathway showing average velocity
experienced by an object moving in a straight line. And also include information that
is not mentioned below to complete it.

Straight line, variable speed, change in displacement, 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 .

Q. 58. Take a piece of thread and tie a small piece of stone at one of its ends. Move
the stone to describe a circular path with constant speed by holding the thread at the
other end. Can you tell the direction in which the stone moves after it is released?

Q. 59. Distance is the actual path covered by an object while displacement is the
shortest path covered between initial and final point.
Riya travels a distance by her car in the circular path of radius 𝟐𝟏 𝐜𝐦. Answer the
following questions based on the given data.
(a) Calculate the distance covered by Riya?
(b) How much displacement has been covered in this case?
OR
(c) What will be the ratio of displacement to distance?
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Q. 60. Study this v-t graph. A car starts it's moving after 𝟏𝐬𝐞𝐜 with uniform

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acceleration and then applies brakes for some time and again attains uniform
acceleration. Answer the following questions based on the data.

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(a) Describe the motion of the car from 𝑩 to 𝑪.
(b) Find the acceleration of the car in the last 𝟐𝐬𝐞𝐜 ?
(c) Find the distance covered in 6 seconds by the car?
OR
(d) Find the total distance covered by the body(car)?

Q. 61. A truck is moving as shown. The speed-time graph is shown in figure.

(a) What does the slope of the speed-time graph represent?

(b) Which part of the graph represents constant speed and zero acceleration?
(c) Calculate the distance travelled by the truck in the first 8 hours.
OR
(d) Which part shows varying retardation?
 Chapter - z [Force and Laws of Motion]
Q. 1. When the net force that acts on a hockey puck is 𝟏𝟎 𝐍, the puck

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accelerates at a rate of 𝟓𝟎 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 . Determine the mass of the puck:
(a) 𝟎. 𝟐 𝐤𝐠 (b) 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐤𝐠 (c) 𝟏𝟐 𝐤𝐠 (d) 𝟔 𝐤𝐠
Q. 2. The momentum of a toy bus of 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝐤𝐠 moving with a velocity of
𝟓 𝐦/𝐬 is:
(a) 𝟎. 𝟎𝟓 𝐤𝐠 𝐦/𝐬 (b) 𝟓 𝐤𝐠 𝐦/𝐬 (c) 𝟓. 𝟓 𝐤𝐠 𝐦/𝐬 (d) 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟓 𝐤𝐠 𝐦/𝐬

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Q. 3. How much force is needed to accelerate a 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 car at 𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 ?
(a) 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍 (b) 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍 (c) 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝐍 (d) 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍
Q. 4. There will be a change in the speed or in the direction of motion of
a body when it is acted upon by :
(a) Zero force (b) Balanced force
(c) An unbalanced force (d) Uniform force
Q. 5. Name the physical quantity corresponds to rate of change of
momentum ?

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(a) Velocity (b) Mass (c) Force (d) Energy
Q. 6. A bullet of mass 𝟐𝟎𝐠𝐦 is fired from a gun of mass 𝟖 𝐤𝐠 with a
velocity of 𝟒𝟎𝟎 𝐦/𝐬, calculate the recoil velocity of the gun :
(a) 𝟏. 𝟓 𝐦/𝐬 (b) 𝟐 𝐦/𝐬 (c) 𝟑 𝐦/𝐬 (d) 𝟏 𝐦/𝐬
Q. 7. The law that gives a qualitative definition of force is :
(a) Newton's second law of motion (b) Newton's first law of motion
(c) Newton's third law of motion (d) Law of gravitation

Q. 8. An athlete can take a longer jump if he comes running from a

distance as compared to that when he jumps suddenly. Identify the type
of inertia:
(a) Inertia of rest (b) Inertia of motion
(c) Inertia of direction (d) Inertia of position
Q.9. The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to:
(a) Velocity of the body (b) Net force applied to the body
(c) Friction of the body (d) Mass of the body
Q.10. A hammer of mass 𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝐠, moving at 𝟓𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 strikes a nail. The nail
stops the hammer in a very short time of 𝟎. 𝟎𝟏 𝐬. What is the force of the
nail on the hammer ?
(a) 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍 (b) 𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍 (c) 𝟐𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝐍 (d) 𝟐𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝐍
Q.11. A force of 𝟏𝟎 𝐍 is acting on an object of mass 𝟏𝟎 𝐤𝐠, what is the
acceleration produced ?
(a) 𝟏. 𝟓 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 (b) 𝟏 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 (c) 𝟐 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 (d) 𝟏. 𝟕 𝐦/𝐬𝟐

Q. 12. When a bus starts suddenly the passengers standing on it lean

backwards in the bus. This is an example of :
(a) Newton's first law (b) Newton's second law
(c) Newton's third law (d) None of Newton's law

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Q. 13. While riding the bicycle if we stop peddling, why the bicycle begin
to slow down ?
Q.14. What are the applications of Newton's first law of motion?
Q. 15. A 𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐠 object in an elevator is accelerated upward. If the

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elevator's floor exerts 𝟓𝟐𝟎 𝐍 on object and acceleration due to gravity is
𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 , what is the acceleration of the elevator ?
Q. 16. Define unbalanced forces.
Q. 17. What is the gravitational force?
Q. 18. A 𝟔𝟎 𝐤𝐠 object in an elevator is accelerated downward at 𝟑 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 .
What is the force exerted by object on the elevator's floor?
Q. 19. Give the reason for the statement "that there must be a force
acting on earth and directed towards Sun".
Q. 20. Calculate the force needed to speed up a car at a rate of 𝟓 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 , if
the mass of the car is 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠.

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Q. 21. If 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍 force is required to accelerate an object at the rate of
𝟓 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 , what will be the mass of the object?
Q. 22. Define inertia.
Q. 23. What is meant by momentum ?
Q. 24. An object requires the force of 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝐍 to achieve the acceleration ' 𝒂
If the mass of the object is 𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠, what will be the value of ' 𝒂 '?
Q. 25. Describe why you hold your gun next to your shoulder while deer
hunting.
Q. 26. What is the difference between contact and non-contact forces?
Q. 27. Two types of a tractor are very wide and huge. Why?
Q. 28. Object's mass = 𝟐 𝐤𝐠, 𝐅𝟏 = 𝟓 𝐍, 𝐅𝟐 = 𝟑 𝐍. The magnitude and
direction of the acceleration is :

Q.29. What happens when a comb rubbed against hair is brought near
the small pieces of paper?
Q. 30. A force of 𝟏𝟐𝟎 𝐍 is applied to an object of area 𝟑 𝐦𝟐 . Calculate the
pressure.
Q. 31. What is the effect of change of force when the body is in motion?
Q. 32. List the different types of forces.
Q. 33. Explain some characteristics of force.
Q. 34. Define linear momentum.
Q. 35. A bullet of mass 𝟏𝟎 𝐠 is fired from a rifle. The bullet takes 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟑 𝐬 to
move through its barrel and leaves with a velocity of 𝟑𝟎𝟎 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏. What is
the force exerted on the bullet by the rifle?
Q. 36. What are the effects of force on the shape of an object?
Q. 37. In the following example, try to identify the number of times the
velocity of the ball changes : "A football player kicks a football to another

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player of his team who kicks the football towards the goal. The
goalkeeper of the opposite team collects the football and kicks it towards
a player of his own team". Also, identify the agent supplying the force in
each case.
Q. 38. A car of mass 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 is moving along a straight line with a
uniform velocity of 𝟕𝟐 𝐤𝐦/𝐡. The velocity of the car is slowed down to

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𝟐𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡 in 𝟔 𝐬 by an external unbalanced force. Find the acceleration and
change in momentum of the car. Also, calculate the magnitude of the
force required.
Q. 39. Find the initial momentum and final momentum of the body, if
the body of mass 𝟖𝟎 𝐤𝐠 is accelerated with a uniform velocity from 𝟕 𝐦/𝐬
to 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 in the time interval of 𝟕 𝐬. In addition to this, calculate the
magnitude of the force exerted on the body.
Q. 40. A car of mass 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 is moving with velocity 𝟐𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 suddenly
apply brakes and comes to rest in 5 seconds. Calculate distance travelled

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by car before coming to rest?
Q. 41. Two objects 𝑨 and 𝑩, having mass 𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 and 𝟕𝟓 𝐤𝐠, moving with
velocity 𝟒𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫 and 𝟔𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡𝐫, respectively. Answer the following :
(a) Which will have greater inertia?
(b) Which will have greater momentum?
(c) Which will stop first if equal negative acceleration is applied on both?
(d) Which will travel greater distance?
(e) Which will impart greater impulse if collides with a wall?
Q. 42. 𝟔𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 engine has the capacity to pull a train of 6 compartments,
each being 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 along the track. If 𝟔𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍 is the force exerted by the
train engine and the track gives a frictional force of 𝟒𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐍,
Calculate :
(a) Net accelerating force of the engine
(b) The total acceleration of the train
Q. 43. An arrow of mass 𝟖 𝐠 travelling horizontally with a velocity of
𝟏𝟔𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 hits a tree and comes to rest in 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐 𝐬. Find the depth of
penetration of the arrow into the tree. Calculate the magnitude of the
force exerted by the tree on the arrow?
Q.44. A bullet of mass 𝟏 𝐤𝐠 is travelling along the same line with a
velocity of 𝟖 𝐦/𝐬 collides and sticks with a wooden board of mass 𝟒 𝐤𝐠
and they move together in the same line. Find the total momentum
before the impact and after the impact and also calculate the combined
velocity of the object (bullet and wooden board)
Q. 45. A constant force acts on an object of mass 𝟓 𝐤𝐠 for a duration of
𝟐 𝐬. It increases the object's velocity from 𝟑 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 to 𝟕 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 .
(a) Find the magnitude of the applied force.
(b) If the force was applied for a duration of 𝟓 𝐬, what would be the final
velocity of the object?
Q. 46. The following is the distance-time table of an object in motion :

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Time in seconds (𝒕) Distance in meters(s)
0 0
1 1
2 8

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3 27
4 64
5 125
6 216
7 343

(a) What conclusion can you draw about the acceleration? Is it constant,
increasing, decreasing, or zero?

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(b) What do you infer about the forces acting on the object?
Q. 47. The velocity-time graph of a ball of mass 𝟐𝟎 𝐠 moving along a
straight line on a long table is given in the below diagram.

(a) Calculate the acceleration.

(b) How much force does the table exert on the ball to bring it to rest?

Q. 48. A car of mass 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 is moving along a straight line with a

uniform velocity of 𝟗𝟎 𝐤𝐦/𝐡. Its velocity is slowed down to 𝟏𝟖 𝐤𝐦/𝐡 in 𝟒 𝐬
by an unbalanced external force.
(a) Calculate the acceleration and change in momentum.
(b) Also, calculate the magnitude of the force required.

Directions : For question numbers 49 and 55 , two statements are

given one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below :
(a) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true and (𝑹) is correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true but (𝑹) is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (𝑹) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (𝑹) is true.
Q. 49. Assertion : When a cyclist applies the brake it stops the cycle.
Reason : The friction is a resistive force which opposes the motion of the

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object.
Q. 50. Assertion : A pendulum is in to and for motion until it is stopped
by someone.
Reason : For every sort of activity there is an equal and opposite
reaction.
Q. 51. Assertion : A bullet is small in size but it can kill a human which is

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bigger as compared to the bullet.
Reason : The product of mass and velocity does not depend on force
applied to the object.
Q. 52. Assertion : The bird flaps their wings to fly.
Reason : For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Q. 53. Assertion : A boy kicks a brick which is placed on the ground, but
the brick remains in the same state.
Reason : The pushing force should be lesser than frictional force to move
an object which is placed on the ground.
Q. 54. Assertion : The impact of the ball on the player is less when the

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player catches the ball without pulling his/her hands back.
Reason : The rate of change of momentum is proportional to the applied
force.
Q. 55. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the
illustration of Newton's third law of motion. And also include
information that is not mentioned below to complete it.
Same weight, hit, force, opposite direction.

Q. 56. Using the following information, form a pathway showing inertia

on a motorcycle. And also include information that is not mentioned
below to complete it.
Brake, slows down, motorcycle, inability, inertia,
suddenly.

Q. 57. Some students in a school were playing cricket with the cork ball.
Sakshi, a senior student told them about the accidents that can occur
due to cork ball in the campus and also advised them to bring soft cosco
ball to play the game.
(a) Why did Sakshi advise the students to play with cosco ball and not
with the cork ball?
(b) Why does one student who is fielding in the cricket ground pulls his
hands backwards after holding a ball shot at high speed?
OR
(c) How will you calculate the force with which the ball is coming after
hitting?
Q. 58. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the
relationship between mass and inertia. And also include information
that is not mentioned below to complete it.
Metal box, paper box, lift, inertia, mass, object.
Q. 59. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the
illustration of Newton's second law. And also include information that is

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not mentioned below to complete it.
Cricket ball, beyond boundary, hurts spectator, smaller,
momentum, unbalanced force.
Q. 60. Using the following information, form a pathway showing
proportionality of rate of change of momentum and force. And also

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include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.
Forward, backward, force, catch, rate of momentum.
Q. 61. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the
movement of fish. And also include information that is not mentioned
below to complete it.
Backward motion, forward motion, force given by the
fins, force to move the fish, Newton's third law of
motion.

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Q. 62. Read the following and answer any four questions from 21(i) to 21
(v) :
In the figure below the card is flicked with a push. It was observed that
the card moves ahead while coin falls in glass.

(i) Give reason for the above observation.

(a) The coin processes inertia of rest, it resists the change and hence
falls in the glass.
(b) The coin processes inertia of motion; it resists the change and hence
falls in the glass.
(c) The coin processes inertia of rest, it accepts the change and hence
falls in the glass.
(d) The coin processes inertia of rest, it accepts the change and hence
falls in the glass.
(ii) Name the law involved in this case.
(a) Newton's second law of motion.
(b) Newton's first law of motion.
(c) Newton's third law of motion.
(d) Law of conservation of energy.
(iii) If the above coin is replaced by a heavy five-rupee coin, what will be
your observation. Give reason.
(a) Heavy coin will possess more inertia so it will not fall in tumbler.
(b) Heavy coin will possess less inertia so it will fall in tumbler.
(c) Heavy coin will possess more inertia so it will fall in tumbler.
(d) Heavy coin will possess less inertia so it will not fall in tumbler.

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(iv) Name the law which provides the definition of force.
(a) Law of conservation of mass
(b) Newton's third law
(c) Newton's first law
(d) Newton's second law

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(v) State Newton's first law of motion.
(a) Energy can neither be created not destroyed, it can be converted
from one form to another, total amount of energy always remains
constant.
(b) A body at rest remains at rest or, if in motion, remains in motion at
constant velocity unless it is acted upon by an external unbalanced force.
(c) For every action in nature there is an equal and opposite reaction.
(d) The acceleration in an object is directly related to the net force and
inversely related to its mass.

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Q. 63. The third law of motion states that when one object exerts a force
on another object, the second object instantaneously exerts a force back
on the first. These two forces are always equal in magnitude but opposite
in direction. These forces act on different objects and never on the same
object.
Sonia read the third law and she started pushing the wall and she
noticed that the wall doesn't move after applying force.
Based on the observation, answer the following questions :

(a) Why does the wall not move if the third law holds true?
(b) State some more examples of Newton's third law?
(c) Even though the action and reaction forces are always equal in
magnitude; these forces may not produce accelerations of equal
magnitudes. Give your justification on this statement.
OR
(d) State all the properties of action reaction forces.
 Chapter - 3 [Gravitation]

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Q1. What is the gravitational force between two objects?
(a) Attractive at large distances only.
(b) Attractive at small distances only.
(c) Attractive at all distances.
(d) Attractive at large distances but repulsive at small distances.
Q2. The value of acceleration due to gravity :

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(a) is the same on equator and poles. (b) is least on poles.
(c) is least on the equator. (d) increases from pole to equator.
Q3. The mass of a solid iron cube of side 𝟑 𝐜𝐦 is to be determined by using a spring
balance. If the density of iron is about 𝟖. 𝟓 𝐠 𝐜𝐦−𝟑 . Calculate the weight of the cube:
(a) 𝟐𝟐𝟐. 𝟓 𝐠 wt (b) 𝟐𝟐𝟗. 𝟓 𝐠 wt (c) 𝟑𝟑𝟒. 𝟐 𝐠 wt (d) 𝟏𝟐𝟑. 𝟑𝟒 𝐠 wt
Q. 4. Mass per unit volume of a substance is called :
(a) density (b) relative density (c) specific gravity (d) relative mass

Q.5. SI unit of gravitational constant is:

(a) 𝐍𝐦𝟐 𝐤𝐠 𝟐 (b) 𝐍𝐦𝟐 𝐤𝐠 −𝟐 (c) 𝐍𝐦𝟐 𝐬 −𝟐 (d) 𝐍𝐦𝐤𝐠 −𝟐

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Q.6. The value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth at sea level
is :
(a) 𝟒. 𝟗 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 (b) 𝟔 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 (c) 𝟖 𝐦/𝐬 𝟐 (d) 𝟗. 𝟖 𝐦/𝐬 𝟐
Q.7. Name the factors on which the buoyant force does not depend:
(a) Buoyant force does not change with density.
(b) Buoyant force does not change with volume.
(c) Buoyant force does not change with depth.
(d) Buoyant force does not change with liquid displaced volume.
Q.8. The S.I. unit of buoyancy is :
(a) Armstrong (b) gram (c) newton (d) pascal
Q. 9. If the distance between two bodies is doubled, the force of attraction 𝐅 between
them will be:
𝟏 𝟏
(a) 𝟒 𝐅 (b) 𝟐 𝐅 (c) 𝟐 𝐅 (d) 𝐅

Q. 10. Gravitation is inversely proportional to :

(a) Distance between masses. (b) Product of magnitude of masses.
(c) Direction of masses. (d) Square of distance between masses.
Q.11. Mass of a cubical copper block of 𝟐 𝐜𝐦 side is 𝟔𝟒 𝐠. Calculate the density of
copper :
(a) 𝟏𝟔 𝐠/𝐜𝐦𝟑 (b) 𝟖 𝐠/𝐜𝐦𝟑 (c) 𝟐𝟎 𝐠/𝐜𝐦𝟑 (d) 𝟐𝟓 𝐠/𝐜𝐦𝟑
Q.12. The normal force acting on a unit surface area of the fluid is called :
(a) Thrust (b) Friction (c) Sensitivity (d) Relativity

Q. 13. A floating object displaces a fluid having weight equal to the weight of object as
per the :
(a) Principle of flotation (b) Einstein principle
(c) Pascal's principle (d) Newton's principle

Q. 14. Unit of pressure is :

(a) 𝐍/𝐦𝟐 (b) 𝐦𝟐 /𝐍 (c) 𝐍𝐦𝟐 (d) 𝐍𝐦
Q.15. The mass of an object is the measure of its :
(a) Pressure (b) Weight (c) Inertia (d) Thrust

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Q. 16. An object that revolves around a planet is called :
(a) Robot (b) Modulus (c) Solar cars (d) Satellite

Q. 17. Unit of density is:

(a) 𝐤𝐠𝐦−𝟑 (b) 𝐦/𝐬 (c) 𝐠𝐜𝐦 (d) 𝐜𝐦−𝟐

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Q. 18. What is a lactometer used for ?
(a) Finding purity of milk (b) Finding purity of iron
(c) Finding purity of solids (d) Finding purity of copper
Q.19. Which of the following hypothesis was made by Newton?
(a) That heavier body in the universe exerts a gravitational force on the lighter
bodies.
(b) That everybody in the universe exerts a gravitational force on every other body.
(c) That gravitational force only exerts on the bodies on earth.
(d) That only the Sun gravitational force is responsible for all the motion in this
universe.

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Q.20. When an object is thrown up, the force of gravity :
(a) Is opposite to the direction of motion.
(b) Is in the same direction as the direction of motion.
(c) Becomes zero at the highest point.
(d) Increases as it rises up.

Q. 21. Which of the following will double the pressure?

(a) Doubling the area (b) Making the area half
(c) Making the velocity half (d) Doubling the pressure

Q. 22. A force is applied on a metal block lying on the floor in one direction. Still, the
block does not move. Name the force which is balancing it :
(a) Centripetal force (b) Rotational force (c) Mechanical force (d) Friction force

Q. 23. What is the centripetal force that makes moon revolve around the earth ?
(a) Gravitational force (b) Electrostatic force
(c) Magnetic force (d) None of these

Q. 24. What is the value of Universal gravitational constant on Moon if its value is 𝐆
on Earth ?
(a) 𝐆 (b) 𝐆/𝟔 (c) 𝑮/𝟑 (d) 𝐆/𝟐
Q.25. The value of ' 𝑮 ':
(a) Increases as we go above the earth's surface.
(b) Decreases as we go to the centre of the earth.
(c) Remains constant.
(d) Is more at equator and less at poles.
Q. 26. When the planet comes closer to, the sun, it moves :
(a) Faster (b) Slower (c) Constant at every point (d) None of these
Q. 27. What is the value of the density of water?
(a) 𝟐𝟐𝟑. 𝟒𝟑 𝐤𝐠/𝐦𝟑 (b) 𝟗𝟗𝟕 𝐤𝐠/𝐦𝟑 (c) 𝟐𝟑𝟒𝟓. 𝟒𝟑 𝐤𝐠/𝐦𝟑 (d) 𝟗. 𝟖 𝐤𝐠/𝐦𝟑
Q. 28. Pressure is inversely proportional to:
(a) Acceleration (b) Momentum (c) Area (d) Gravity
Q. 29. Why is the gravitational force the most important force ? Is it a strong force or
weak force ?

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Q. 30. According to Newton's law of gravitation, the apple and the earth experience
equal and opposite forces due to gravitation. But is it the apple that falls towards the
earth and not vice-versa. Why ?
Q. 31. What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Moon?
Q. 32. Define Kepler's second law.
Q. 33. Explain why, a piece of glass sinks in water but it floats in mercury ?
Q. 34. What happens to the buoyant force as more and more volume of a solid object

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is immersed in a liquid? When does the buoyant force become maximum ?
Q. 35. A cube of mass 𝟏 𝐤𝐠 with each side of 𝟏 𝐜𝐦 is lying on the table. Find the
pressure exerted by the block on the table. (Take 𝒈 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 𝟐 )
Q. 36. Why does the diver wear metallic cover while going into the sea ?
Q. 37. Why will a sheet of paper fall slower than one that crumpled into a ball?
Q. 38. Explain the universal law of gravitation.
Q. 39. What is the importance of law of gravitation as applied to the planets ?
Q. 40. When a body dropped from the same height reaches the ground quicker at
poles than at the equator. Why ?
Q.41. What is the source of centripetal force that a planet requires to revolves
around the Sun? On what factors does the force depend?

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Q. 42. The volume of 𝟓𝟎𝐠𝐦 of a substance is 𝟐𝟎 𝐜𝐦𝟑 . If the density of water is
𝐠/𝐜𝐦𝟑 will the substance float or sink ?
Q. 43. State a condition for an object to float when placed on the surface of the water.
Q. 44. Why the cutting edge of a knife should be as sharp as possible?
Q. 45. A cork floats while the nail sinks in water. Give reason.
Q. 46. A cricket ball is dropped from a height of 20 metres.
(i) Calculate the speed of the ball when it hits the ground.
(ii) Calculate the time it takes to fall through this height. (𝒈 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬𝟐 )
Q. 47. What is gravity?
Q. 48. What is gravitational field ?
Q. 49. State two factors on which value of ' 𝒈 ' depends.
Q.50. The gravitational force exerted by the sun on the moon is greater than (about
twice as greater as) the gravitational force exerted by the earth on the moon. Why
then doesn't the moon escape from the earth (during a solar eclipse, for example)?
Q. 51. What do you mean by the acceleration due to gravity?
Q. 52. Name the instrument used to determine the density of liquid in which balance
and graduated cylinder are not required. Why this instrument is made heavy near
the bottom?
Q. 53. Discuss about pressure in liquid.
Q. 54. State the laws of floatation.
Q. 55. In the experiment of "observing and comparing pressure exerted by iron
cuboid on sand bed", what is the conclusion drawn from the experiment? Does it
match with the theoretical aspect?
Q. 56. Name two forces which act on a body immersed in a liquid. Give the directions
in which they act.
Q. 57. The volume of a solid mass 𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝐠 is 𝟑𝟓𝟎 𝐜𝐦𝟑 .
(a) What will be the density of the solid?
(b) What will be the mass of water displaced by this solid
Q. 58. Why do needles have sharp edge?
Q. 59. What are the two forces acting on a body floating in a liquid?
Q. 60. Define fluid.
Q. 61. A 𝟔𝟎𝟎 𝐍 clown on stilts says to two 𝟔𝟎𝟎 𝐍 clowns sitting on the ground, "I am
exerting twice as much pressure as the two of you together! "Could this statement be
true ? Explain your reasoning.
Q. 62. Does the concentration of the Earth's mass near its center change the
variation of 𝒈 with height compared with a homogeneous sphere? How ?
Q. 63. Define the law of orbits.
Q. 64. Why do artificially launched satellite lose height with time?

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Q. 65. At which place on earth's surface, the value of 𝒈 is largest and why ?
Q. 66. How do a submarine sink and float on water ?
Q. 67. Mass doesn't change with position while weight changes with position why?
Q. 68. Do I weigh less on the equator than at the North Pole?
Q. 69. Which is the strongest force in the Universe?
Q. 70. The Earth and the Moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force.
Does the Earth attract the Moon with a force that is greater or smaller or the same as

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the force with which the Moon attracts the Earth? Why?
Q. 71. Two identical geostationary satellites are moving with equal speeds in the
same orbit but their sense of rotation brings them on a collision course. What will
happen to the debris ?
Q. 72. What is the importance of the universal law of gravitation?
Q. 73. Why does the weight of a body become zero at the centre of the Earth ?
Q.74. What is the specific gravity of a substance?
Q. 75. Why do needles have sharp edge ?
Q. 76. Bucket of water weighs less inside the well water. Why?
Q. 77. Find the force acting on an area of 𝟎. 𝟓 𝐦𝟐 will produce a pressure of 𝟓𝟎 𝐏𝐚.
Q. 78. How do spaceships make artificial gravity?

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Q. 79. Newton's law of gravitation applies to what kind of body?
Q. 80. Calculate the value of 𝒈 on Earth if 𝐆 = 𝟔. 𝟔𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐦𝟐 /𝐤𝐠 𝟐 , Mass of Earth, 𝐌 =
𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟒 𝐤𝐠, Radius of Earth = 𝟔. 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎𝟔 𝐦.
Q. 81. A sphere of mass 𝟓 𝐤𝐠 and volume 𝟐. 𝟐 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟒 𝐦𝟑 is completely immersed in
water. Find the buoyant force exerted by water on the sphere. Density of water =
𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 𝐦−𝟑 . (Given: 𝒈 = 𝟗. 𝟖 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 )
Q. 82. (a) By putting an electric charge inside a hollow conductor you can shield it
from the influences of electrical forces. Can a body be shielded from the
gravitational influences of nearby matter in a similar fashion?
(b) In what direction does the buoyant force on an object immersed in a liquid act?
(c) The Sun's gravitational force on Earth is greater than that on Moon's. However,
the Moon affects the tidal waves much more than the Sun. Why?
Q. 83. Why does an object float or sink when placed over the surface of water?
Q. 84. Why does a camel walk easily on sand but it is difficult for a man to walk on
sand, though a camel is much heavier than a man ?
Q. 85. The volume of a 𝟓𝟎𝟎𝐠𝐦 sealed packet is 𝟑𝟓𝟎 𝐜𝐦𝟑 . Will the packet float or sink in
water if the density of water is 𝟏 𝐠/𝐜𝐦𝟑 ? What will be the mass of the water displaced
by this packet?
Q.86. What do you mean by buoyancy?
Q. 87. What does Archimedes' principle state?
Q. 88. Why does an object float or sink when placed on the surface of the water?
Earth, object, force, height, attraction, velocity.
Directions : For question numbers 89 and 98 , two statements
are given one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the
codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below :
(a) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true and (𝑹) is correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true but (𝑹) is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (𝑹) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Q. 89. Assertion : The universal gravitational constant is different from acceleration
due to gravity. Reason : Gravitational constant and acceleration due to gravity have

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same dimensional formula.
Q. 90. Assertion : The army tank has large weight.
Reason : The steel track reduces the pressure of the ground.
Q. 91. Assertion : An object floats if it displaces an amount of liquid whose weight is
greater than the actual weight of the object.
Reason : During floatation an object experiences no net force in the downward
direction.

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Q. 92. Assertion : Weight of a body on earth is equal to the force with which the body
is attracted towards the earth.
Reason : Weight of a body is independent of the mass of the body.
Q. 93. Assertion : The ratio of inertial mass to gravitational mass is equal to one.
Reason : The inertial mass and gravitational mass of a body are equivalent.
Q. 94. Assertion : The force acting normally (perpendicular) on a surface is called
thrust.
Reason : The thrust is a vector quantity and is measured in the unit of force.
Q. 95. Assertion : The mountains on moon are way taller than Mount Everest.
Reason : The force of gravity is stronger on earth than on the moon.
Q. 96. Assertion : The value of acceleration due to gravity does not depend upon

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mass of the body on which force is applied.
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity is a constant quantity.
Q. 97. Assertion: The value of acceleration due to gravity does not depend upon mass
of the body on which force is applied.
Reason : Acceleration due to gravity is a constant quantity.
Q. 98. Assertion: There is no effect of rotation of the earth on acceleration due to
gravity at poles. Reason : Rotation of earth is about the polar axis.

Q.99 . Using the following information, form a pathway showing the gravitation. And
also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.

Earth, gravitation, height, attraction, moon, objects.

Q. 100. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the Archimedes'
principle. And also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.

Force, body, fluid, weight, direction, center of mass.

Q. 101. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the freefall. And
also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.

Q. 102. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the Buoyancy. And
also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.
Fluids, force, surface, object, pressure, weight, water, floats.

Q. 103. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the acceleration
due to gravity. And also include information that is not mentioned below to complete
it.
Earth, acceleration, force, body, magnitude, direction.
Q. 104. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the buoyancy. And
also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.
Fluids, force, surface, object, pressure, weight, water, floats.
Q. 105. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the thrust and
pressure. And also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.
 Force, object, thrust, surface, pressure, sand, body.

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Q. 106. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the Universal law
of gravitation. And also include information that is not mentioned below to complete
it.

Object, universe, gravitation, mass, attraction, square.

Q. 107. Siya and Riya are playing a game. Siya observed that when she is throwing a

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ball upwards then the ball comes downwards. Siya was in the dilemma of why this is
so? They asked the same question in their school the next day. Their teacher
explained to them that every object in the universe attracts every other object with a
force which is proportional to the product of their masses and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them. Then Siya and Riya got the
concept of ball coming downwards. Answer the following questions based on the
observation.

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(a) If every object attracts every other object in this universe as explained by the
teacher above, then why shouldn't two cars collide with each other on the road?
(b) What are the factors on which force of gravity depends?
OR
(c) Explain the importance of universal law of gravitation.

Q. 108. Read the following and answer any four questions from 21(i) to 21(v) :
Newton said that an apple falls down from a tree because the earth exerts a force of
attraction on it. This force of attraction is called gravitational force of earth or
gravity.

(i) What is the expression of force of gravitational between the two bodies of masses
𝐌𝟏 and 𝐌𝟐 and placed at a distance 𝒓 ?
(a) 𝐅 = 𝐆𝐌𝟏 /𝒓𝟐 (b) 𝐅 = 𝐆𝐌𝟏 𝐌𝟐 /𝒓 (c) 𝐅 = 𝐆𝐌𝟏 𝐌𝟐 /𝒓𝟐 (d) None of these

(ii) What does the 𝑮 indicate in the universal law of gravitation and what is its value?
(a) Gravitational constant, 𝟔. 𝟑 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐦𝟐 /𝐤𝐠 𝟐
(b) Gravitational constant, 𝟔. 𝟔𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟑 𝐍𝐦𝟐 /𝐤𝐠 𝟐
(c) Gravitational constant, 𝟔. 𝟔𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐦𝟐 /𝐤𝐠 𝟐
(d) Acceleration due to gravity, 𝟔. 𝟗 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟑 𝐍𝐦𝟐 /𝐤𝐠 𝟐

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(iii) Calculate the force of gravitation due to the earth on a ball of 𝟏 𝐤𝐠 mass lying on
the ground: (𝒎𝒆 = 𝟔 × 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝟒 𝐤𝐠, 𝒓𝒆 = 𝟔. 𝟒 × 𝟏𝟎𝟑 𝐤𝐦 and 𝐆 = 𝟔. 𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟏 𝐍𝐦𝟐 /𝐤𝐠 𝟐 )
(a) 𝟏𝟎 𝐍 (b) 𝟏𝟎. 𝟎𝟓 𝐍 (c) 𝟗. 𝟖 𝐍 (d) 𝟗. 𝟔 𝐍

(iv) What is the value of gravitational constant on the moon?

(a) Data is insufficient (b) Same as on the earth

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(c) 𝟔. 𝟕 × 𝟏𝟎 𝐍𝐦 /𝐤𝐠
−𝟏𝟏 𝟐 𝟐
(d) Both (b) and (c)

(v) What force is responsible which keeps the earth in uniform circular motion
around the sun?
(a) Thrust force (b) Gravitational force (c) Friction force (d) Electrical force

Q. 109. Janvi and Manvi were going on a trip of Earth. Their they saw a weighing
machine. They thought that they should measure their weight. So after measuring
their weights, the results came out to be 𝟔𝟎 𝐍 and 𝟒𝟖 𝐍 respectively.
Now after sometime they plan to go on Moon, and again they measure their weight
and on moon their weight came out to be less. Now both are confused which one is

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correct.

Answer the following question based on above observation

(a) Do mass and weight are same thing?
(b) How will you define weight?
(c) How much does the weight reduced on moon of Janvi and Manvi?
OR
(d) The weight of an object on moon is 𝟑𝟎 𝐍. Calculate its weight on earth?
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Chapter - 4 [Work and Energy]
Q. 1. When ball is thrown vertically upward which of the following quantity
remains constant?
(a) Force (b) Potential energy (c) Energy (d) None of these

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Q.2. A bullet fired from a gun can pierce a target due to its :
(a) Mechanical energy (b) Heat energy
(c) Kinetic energy (d) Acceleration
Q. 3. What is the S.I. unit of Work?
(a) joule (b) erg (c) 𝒈 − 𝐜𝐦 (d) watt
Q. 4. The gravitational potential energy of an object is due to :
(a) it's mass (b) it's acceleration due to gravity
(c) it's height above the Earth's surface (d) All of these
Q.5. In order to do work, energy is :

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(a) transferred or converted (b) used up
(c) lost (d) lost or transferred
Q.6. Water in the dam possesses:
(a) No energy (b) Conservative energy
(c) Kinetic energy (d) Potential energy
Q. 7. A truck driver is trying to push a loaded truck with an applied force.
Unfortunately, his attempt was unsuccessful. The truck stays stationary no
matter how hard the driver pushes. How much work is done by the driver?
(a) 𝐅𝒅 (b) −𝐅𝐝 (c) 𝐅/𝒅 (d) Zero
Q. 8. What happens to the kinetic energy of a moving object if the net work
done is positive ?
(a) The kinetic energy increases. (b) The kinetic energy decreases.
(c) The kinetic energy remains the same. (d) The kinetic energy is zero.
Q. 9. Define work and state its S.I. unit.
Q. 10. Define work.
Q. 11. Define one joule.
Q. 12. A certain household has consumed 250 units of energy during a
month. How much energy is this in joules?
Q.13. When do we say that work is done?
Q. 14. Define work done by a force.
Q. 15. Define power.
Q. 16. Define the S.I. unit of power.
Q. 17. Identify the kind of energy possessed by a running athlete.
Q.18. An electrical heater is rated 𝟏𝟐𝟎𝟎 𝐖. How much energy does it use in
10 hours.
Q. 19. What is the law of conservation of energy?
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Q. 20. The commercial unit of energy is kilowatt hour (kWh). Explain it in
brief.
Q. 21. A person pushes a 𝟏𝟎 𝐤𝐠 cart to a distance of 𝟐𝟎 𝐦 by exerting a 𝟔𝟎 𝐍
horizontal force. The frictional resistance force is 𝟓𝟎 𝐍. How much work is
done by each force acting on the cart ? How much kinetic energy does the
cart have at the end of the 𝟐𝟎 𝐦 if it started from rest?

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Q. 22. Two bodies of equal masses move with uniform velocities 𝒗 and 𝟑𝒗
respectively. Find the ratio of their kinetic energies.
Q. 23. On an object the work done does not depend upon?
Q.24. What happens to the body on which work is done?
Q. 25. The kinetic energy of an object of mass, 𝒎 moving with a velocity of
𝟓 𝐦/𝐬 is 𝟐𝟓 𝐉 what will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is doubled?
What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased three times.
Q. 26. A force of 𝟕 𝐍 acts on an object, the displacement is found to be 𝟖 𝐦,
in the direction of the force. Let us take it that the force acts on the object
through the displacement, what is the work done in this case?

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(a) What is the amount of work done in joules?
(b) When do we say that work is done?
Q. 27. (a) A pair of bullocks exerts a force of 𝟏𝟒𝟎 𝐍 on a plough. The field
being ploughed is 𝟏𝟓 𝐦 long. How much work is done in ploughing the
length of the field?
(b) Derive the kinetic energy of mass of the body moving with a velocity 𝒗,
find its kinetic energy (𝐄𝒌 ).
Q.28. (a) What is power?
(b) Define 1 watt of power.
(c) A lamp consumes 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐉 of electrical energy in 𝟏𝟎 𝐬. What is its power?
Q. 29. (a) Write the formula for work done.
(b) Calculate the work done by the brakes of a car of mass 𝟏𝟎𝟎𝟎 𝐤𝐠 when its
speed is reduced from 𝟐𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 to 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 ?
Q. 30. (a) Define potential energy. Write its formula.
(b) A skier is at the top of a hill. At the bottom of the hill, she has a velocity
of 𝟏𝟐 𝐦/𝐬. How tall was the hill?
(c) Is the potential energy same as the work done?
Q. 31. (a) Define kinetic energy. Write its formula.
(b) A car is travelling at a velocity of 𝟏𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 and has a mass of 𝟐𝟓𝟎 𝐤𝐠.
Compute its kinetic energy.
(c) What is the S.I. unit of kinetic energy?
Q. 32. (a) Define force.
(b) A car of mass 𝟏𝟒𝟖𝟓 𝐤𝐠 is travelling South at 𝟏𝟏𝟔 𝐤𝐦/𝐡. After applying
brakes, the car comes to rest slows to a stop in 10.25 seconds. What is the
magnitude of the net force that acted on the car?
(c) What is the S.I. unit of force?
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Directions : For question numbers 33 and 36 , two statements
are given one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below :
(a) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true and (𝑹) is correct explanation of
the assertion.

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(b) Both 𝑨 and (𝑹) are true but (𝑹) is not the correct explanation
of the assertion.
(c) (A) is true but (𝑹) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (𝑹) is true.

Q. 33. Assertion : A person walking on a horizontal road with a load on his

head does zero work against gravity.
Reason : No work is said to be done if directions of force and displacement
of load are perpendicular to each other.

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Q. 34. Assertion: A light body and heavy body have the same momentum.
Then they also have same kinetic energy.
Reason : Kinetic energy depends on mass of the body.
Q. 35. Assertion : Internal forces can change the kinetic energy but not the
momentum of the system.
Reason : The rate of change of total momentum of a many particle system
is proportional to the sum of the internal forces of the system.
Q. 36. Assertion : Water at the foot of the waterfall is always at a different
temperature from that at the top.
Reason : The potential energy of water at the top is converted into heat
energy during falling.

Q. 37. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the work.
And also include information that is not mentioned below to complete it.
Power, time, system, amount, flight, person.

Q.38 . Using the following information, form a pathway showing the

Power. And also include information that is not mentioned below to
complete it.
Work, force, object, displacement, product, Joule.

Q. 39. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the law of
conservation of energy. And also include information that is not
mentioned below to complete it.
Energy, transformation, loss, amount, universe, violation.
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Q. 39. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the
energy. And also include information that is not mentioned below to
complete it.
Capacity, work, energy, latter, object.

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Q. 40. Work done in physics has a different definition. It is not the same as
that of real life work. Work done by force acting on an object is equal to the
magnitude of the force multiplied by the distance moved in the direction of
the force. Work has only magnitude and no direction. Work done is
negative when the force acts opposite to the direction of displacement.
Work done is positive when the force is in the direction of displacement.
The unit of work is newton meter ( 𝐍 m)or joule (J).
Answer the following questions
(a) Work done is which type of quantity?
(b) You are lifting stones from the floor. Work is done by the force exerted

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by you on the stone. The object moves upwards. The force you exert is in
the direction of displacement. However, there is the force of gravity acting
on the object. Which one of these forces is doing positive work?
OR
(c) A cyclist is able to stop his cycle because of friction force. Which type of
work has been done by frictional force.
Q. 41. The given figure shows a watch glass embedded in a clay. A tiny
spherical ball is placed at the edge B at a height 𝒉 above the center A. This
ball has various kinds of energy at different points. There are two types of
Mechanical energy,one of them is Kinetic energy and the other is potential
energy.

Answer the following questions based on the observation.

(a) At which point, the kinetic energy of the ball is maximum?
(b) Potential energy refers to the energy which an object holds due to its
position relative to other objects, stresses within itself, its electric charge,
or other factors. At which point the potential energy will be maximum?
(c) State the difference between kinetic and potential energy.
OR
(d) Which mechanical energy exists in moving bodies and in an object
suspended on a spring?
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Chapter - 5 [ [sound]
Q. 1. Which part of human ear converts sound vibrations into electrical
signals ?
(a) Hammer (b) Stirrup (c) Tympanic membrane (d) Cochlea
Q. 2. The phenomenon where a sound produced is heard again due to

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reflection is called :
(a) An echo (b) Sound bounce (c) Mirage (d) None of these
Q. 3. Children under the age of 5 can hear up to :
(a) 𝟐𝟓 𝐇𝐳 (b) 𝟐𝟓𝐤𝐇𝐳 (c) 𝟐𝟎 𝐇𝐳 (d) 𝟐𝟎𝐤𝐇𝐳
Q. 4. The transmitter produces and transmits;
(a) Infrasonic waves (b) Ultrasonic waves
(c) Longitudinal (d) Both (a) and (c)
,
Q. 5. To hear a distinct echo each time interval between the original sound

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and the reflected sound must be :
(a) 𝟎. 𝟐 𝐬 (b) 𝟏 𝐬 (c) 𝟐 𝐬 (d) 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐬
Q. 6. Sound is produced due to :
(a) Propagation of compound (b) Density of the medium
(c) Vibration of different objects (d) None of these

Q.7. Loud sound can travel a larger distance, due to :

(a) Higher amplitude (b) Higher energy
(c) High frequency (d) High speed

Q. 8. What is the role of middle ear?

(a) Collects sound waves.
(b) Amplifies the sound waves.
(c) Converts amplified sound energy into electrical energy.
(d) Conveys to the brain as nerve impulse for interpretation.

Q.9. What is echo?

Q. 10. Earthquake produces which kind of sound before the main shock
wave begins?
Q.11. What is the frequency of wave with time period 𝟎. 𝟎𝟐𝟓 𝐬 ?
Q. 12. Define medium.
Q. 13. Explain how sound is produced by your school bell.
Q. 14. An echo is returned in 6 seconds. What is the distance of reflecting
surface from source? [Given that speed of sound is 𝟑𝟒𝟐 𝐦/𝐬.].
Q. 15. Define wave.
Q. 16. Why sound waves are called mechanical waves?
Q. 17. (a) How are the frequency and wavelength of a sound wave related to
its speed?
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(b) A baby recognises her mother by her voice. Name the characteristic of
sound involved.
Q. 18. (a) Define the time period of a wave.
(b) Give the relation among speed of sound 𝒗, wavelength 𝝀 and its
frequency 𝒗.
(c) A wave is introduced into a thin wire held tight at each end. It has an

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amplitude of 𝟑. 𝟖 𝐜𝐦, a frequency of 𝟓𝟏. 𝟐 𝐇𝐳 and a distance from a crest to
the neighbouring trough of 𝟏𝟐. 𝟖 𝐜𝐦. Determine the time period of a such
wave.
Q. 19. What are the characteristics of a wave?
Q. 20. Guess which sound has a higher pitch : guitar or car horn?
Q. 21. Define time period.
Q.22. How can you define amplitude of a wave?
Q. 23. How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to its
speed ?
Q. 24. An echo returns in 𝟑 𝐬. What is the distance of the reflecting surface

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from the source, given that the speed of sound is 𝟑𝟒𝟐 𝐦𝐬−𝟏 ?
Q. 25. Discuss about rich quality and tone.
Q. 26. A sound wave has a frequency of 𝟐𝐤𝐇𝐳 and wavelength 𝟑𝟓 𝐜𝐦. How
long will it take to travel 𝟏. 𝟓 𝐤𝐦?
Q. 27. (a) Define 1 hertz.
(b) Name two animals which can produce infrasonic waves.
Q. 28. What is reverberation?
Q. 29. A body is vibrating 12000 times in one minute. If the velocity of
sound in air is 𝟑𝟔𝟎 𝐦/𝐬, find:
(a) Frequency of vibration in hertz,
(b) Wavelength of the wave produced.

Q. 30. (a) A device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo
𝟓 𝐬 later. Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object
from the submarine is 𝟑𝟔𝟐𝟓 𝐦.
(b) If a thunder is heard by a man 𝟒 𝐬 after the lightning is seen, how far is
the lightning from the man?
(Speed of sound in Air is 𝟑𝟑𝟎 𝐦/𝐬 )

Q. 31. Sound cannot travel in vacuum. Describe an experiment to

demonstrate this.Q. 16. (a) What type of waves can travel in vacuum? Give
examples.
(b) A vibrating body produces sound. However, no sound is heard when a
simple pendulum oscillates in the air why?
(c) A stone is dropped from the top of a tower 𝟓𝟎𝟎 𝐦 high into a pond of
water at the base of the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? (Given,
𝒈 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐦 𝐬−𝟐 and speed of sound = 𝟑𝟒𝟎 𝐦 𝐬−𝟏 )
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Directions : For question numbers 32 and 35 , two statements
are given one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from
the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below :
(a) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true and (𝑹) is correct explanation of
the assertion.

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(b) Both (𝑨) and (𝑹) are true but (𝑹) is not the correct
explanation of the assertion.
(c) (𝑨) is true but (𝑹) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (𝑹) is true.

Q. 32. Assertion : An alarm clock is buzzing inside the bottle in vacuum.

The sound of the alarm is non-audible.
Reason : Particles undergo rarefaction and compression processes for the
propagation of sound.
Q. 33. Assertion : The sound produced by the mosquito is different from

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the sound produced by the bee but both are placed at the same distance.
Reason : Sound produced differs according to the pitch of the sound.
Q. 34. Assertion : The velocity of sound increases with increase in
humidity.
Reason : Velocity of sound does not depend upon the medium.
Q. 35. Assertion : The sound engineers prefer curved ceiling to flat ceilings
to improve the hearing of sound.
Reason : The speed of the sound depends on the pressure and density of
the medium.

Q. 36. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the

production and propagation of sound. And also include information that is
not mentioned below to complete it.
Energy, sensation, mechanical, momentum, speed, particle
Q. 37. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the range
of hearing in humans. And also include information that is not mentioned
below to complete it.
Human, range, audible, sound, vibration, pendulum.

Q. 38. Using the following information, form a pathway showing the

reflection of sound. And also include information that is not mentioned
below to complete it.
Sound, light, wave, surface, reflection, angle, obstacle

Q. 39. Two boys are doing one activity of hearing sound on the table.If one
of the boy makes some sound then the other boy could hear that sound. So
the boys wonders do can we hear sound on water. They did one more
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experiment with water and they found out that yes they can hear sound in
water as well.

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Based on the following observation, answer the following question.

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(a) Does sound need a material medium for its propagation?
(b) What is the speed of sound in steel, water and air?
(c) In which medium sound travels fastest?
OR
(d) "Sound is produced by vibrations". Comment on this statement.

Q. 40. If Mayank claps near a suitable reflecting object such as a tall

building or a mountain, he will hear the same sound again a little later.
This sound which we hear is called an echo. The sensation of sound
persists in our brain for about 𝟎. 𝟏 𝐬. To hear a distinct echo the time
interval between the original sound and the reflected one must be at least
𝟎. 𝟏 𝐬. Hence, for hearing distinct echoes, the minimum distance of the
obstacle from the source of sound must be 𝟏𝟕. 𝟐 𝐦. This distance will
change with the temperature of air. Another phenomenon of reflection of
sound is reverberation. A sound created in a big hall will persist by
repeated reflection from the walls until it is reduced to a value where it is
no longer audible. The repeated reflection that results in this persistence
of sound is called reverberation. Excessive reverberation is highly
undesirable.
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Based on the data, Answer the following questions
(a) What is the difference between Echo and Reverberation?
(b) If an object is placed at 𝟏𝟔 𝐦 from the source of sound. Will he able to
hear echo?
(c) A person makes a sound near an obstacle and hears the echo after 𝟏 𝐬.

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What is the distance of the obstacle from the person if the speed of the
sound, 𝒗 is taken as 𝟑𝟒𝟔 𝐦/𝐬 ?
OR
(d) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of reverberation.

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 Biology
The Fundamental Unit of life

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Q1. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Anthocyanins are found dissolved in cell sap.
(b) Nucleus regulates cell cycle.
(c) The two sister chromatids are held at centrosome.
(d) Cytosol is the ground substance of the cytoplasm.

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Q2. ___________process plays an important role in gaseous exchange
between cells as well as the cell and its external environment.
(a) Reverse Osmosis (b) Diffusion (c) Transportation (d)
Circulation

Q3. Which of the following is concerned with storage of materials like

starch, oils, proteins?
(a) Chromoplasts (b) Leucoplasts (c) Chloroplasts (d)
Lysosomes

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Q4. An unripe green fruit changes color when it ripens. The reason
being:
(a) Chromoplasts change to chlorophyll (b) Chromoplasts change to
chromosomes
(c) Chromosomes change to chromoplasts (d) Chloroplast changes to
chromoplasts.

Q5. Why glycerine is used while preparing temporary mount of human

cheek cells ?
(a) To stain the cells
(b) To remove extra stain
(c) To prevent the tissues/cells from getting dried
(d) To make the cells appear more distinct.

Q6. In which of the following forms glucose is stored in an animal cell?

(a) Starch (b) Peptides (c) Glycogen (d) Amino acids

Q7. Which pigments are found dissolved in cell sap?

(a) Carotene (b) Xanthophyll (c) Chlorophyll (d) Anthocyanins

Q8. Coverslip is put on the mounted material on a slide very gently to:
(a) avoid the crushing of mounted material
(b) avoid the entry of air bubble
(c) avoid oozing of stain
(d) avoid oozing of glycerine

Q9. The cellular component not seen in the temporary mount of onion
peel under the compound microscope is :
(a) Cell wall (b) Nucleus (c) Cytoplasm (d) Chromosomes
Q10. A single membrane bound organelle is :
(a) Ribosome (b) Lysosome (c) Plastis (d) Endoplasmic reticulum

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Q11. Which of the following organelles is not visible in the slide of onion
peel even under high power microscopy ?
(a) Nucleus (b) Cell wall (c) Cytoplasm (d) Mitochondria

Q12. Cheek epithelial cells are examples of:

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(a) Squamous epithelial cells (b) Columnar epithelial cells
(c) Cuboidal epithelial cells (d) Ciliated epithelial cells
Q13. Which of the following cell organelles is found both in prokaryotes
and eukaryotes?
(a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosomes (c) Plastids (d) Ribosomes

Q14. Swollen feet and ankles can be naturally cured by dipping them in
salt water. Name the mechanism involved in this process.
(a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Active transport (d) Plasmolysis

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Q15. Which one of the following cell organelles is found in both mango
plant cell and monkey cell ?
(a) Centrioles (b) Cell wall (c) Mitochondria (d) Chloroplast

Q16. Name the following:

(a) Plastid involved in the conversion of green color of tomato to red
color.
(b) The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotic cell.
Q17. What do you mean by plasmodesmata?
Q18. Why do the animal cells not have cell wall?
Q19. Give one point of difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic
cells.
Q20. What would happen to the cell if there is no Golgi apparatus?
Q21. Explain why :
(a) Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags.
(b) Mitochondria are known as power house of the cell.
Q22. Pick the odd one out from the following organelles :
Golgi apparatus, cytoplasm, endoplasmic reticulum, lysosomes. Give
reason for your answer.
Q23. Discuss the role of :
(a) Cellulose in cell wall
(b) Presence of deeply folded membrane in mitochondria
(c) Digestive enzymes in lysosomes
Q24. Name the following:
(a) The scientist who is credited with discovery of cells.
(b) The scientist who observed the living cells for the first time.
(c) The smallest and the largest cell in the world.
(d) The longest cell in the human body.
Q25. Write the main postulates of the cell theory ? Who proposed the cell
theory?

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Q26. Give three main points of differences between rough and smooth
endoplasmic reticulum.
Q27. What will happen if:
(a) Excess amount of fertilizers is added to green grass lawn.
(b) Salt is added to cut pieces of mango.
Q28. What is plasmolysis ? What happens to a plasmolysed cell when it

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is placed in water ?
Q29. A student put some dried apricots in two beakers A and B. Beaker A
contained 100ml of distilled water and beaker B had 100ml of saturated
sugar solution. What changes would he observe and why?
Q30. Answer the following briefly:
(a) Which is known as selectively permeable membrane and why?
(b) If the organization of a cell is destroyed due to some physical and
chemical influence, what will happen?
(c) How do substances like carbon dioxide and water move in and out of
the cell?

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Q31. If the cells of onion peel and RBCs are separately kept in hypotonic
solutions, what will happen to them? Give reason in support of your
answer.
Q.32. Label and name the cell organelles present in a cell based on the
analogy written below :
(a) Transporting channels of the cell
(b) Packaging and dispatching unit of the cell
(c) Storage sacs of the cell
(d) Control room of the cell
(e) Kitchen of the cell
(f) Digestive bag of the cell
Q33. What are the consequences of the following conditions:
(a) A cell having higher water concentration than the surrounding
medium.
(b) A cell having lower water concentration than the surrounding
medium.
(c) A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium.
Q34. Why is endocytosis found in animals only?
Q35. Name a cell organelle without any membrane and state one of its
important functions.
Q36. What are two important factors that determine the shape of a cell?
Provide examples to support your answer.
Q37. Why does a leaf appear green, mango yellow and tomato red?
Explain in detail.
Q38. (a) What happens when an egg is first put in hydrochloric acid for
some time and then placed in a concentrated salt solution?
What mechanisms are involved in absorption of digested food and
water?
Q39. Study the figure given below.
Potato cups A, B and C are made from unboiled potatoes, whereas 𝑫 is
boiled potato cup. Potato cup 𝑨 is empty whereas 𝑩 and 𝑪 have sugar and

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salt solution in them respectively. Boiled potato cup 𝑫 has sugar solution
in it. Each potato cup is placed in trough containing water.
The apparatus is kept undisturbed for few hours.

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(a) In which potato cup will you observe increase in water level and why?
(b) What is the purpose of potato cup 𝐀 in this experiment?
(c) In which potato cup would you observe no increase/decrease of
water level and why?
(d) Which process does this experiment demonstrate?
Q40. Draw the human cheek cell with correct labelling.
Q41. Mention two precautions while preparing the mount of a human
cheek cells.

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Q42. Draw a well labelled diagram of an animal cell and label the main
organelles, also write the functions of each organelle labelled by you in
the figure.

Q43. Identify the cell and answer the given below :

Name the parts labelled in the above diagram.

(b) Which organelles are present only in plant cells?
(c) What is the importance of organelle ' 𝒈 '?
(d) What is the specific name of organelle ' 𝒉 ' in plant cell?
(e) Parts ' 𝐚 ' and ' 𝐛 ' are present both in plant and animal cell. State true
or false.
Q44. Study the diagram below and answer the following questions.
(a) Identify the structure and state its main role.
(b) Label the parts 1-5.

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(c) What is the functions of parts labelled 1 and 5 ?
(d) Is this structure present in all cells ? If not, name the cell in which it
is absent.
Q45. Draw a labelled diagram of the observations of the temporary
mount of an onion peel.

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Directions : Questions is Assertion and Reason type Question:
(a) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the
correct explanation of the assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not
the correct explanation of the assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong, but reason is correct statement.

Q46. Assertion: Rough endoplasmic reticulum is concerned with protein

synthesis.

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Reason : In rough endoplasmic reticulum ribosomes are attached to its
outer surface which take an important part in protein synthesis.
Q47. Assertion : Lysosomes are known as suicidal bags.
Reason : It contains hydrolytic enzymes that destroy worn out cells.
Q48. Assertion : Mitochondria have large surface area for cellular
respiration.
Reason : The outer membrane is thrown into folds called cristae which
increases the surface area.
Q49. Assertion : Vacuoles are osmoregulatory organs in protozoans.
Reason : They maintain the water balance.
Q50. Assertion : Granum is the site for dark reaction of photosynthesis.
Reason : It contains various enzymes required for light reaction.

Q51. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related concepts.
Ravi was going to his school to give his final 𝟗th class exams. Today it

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was the science exam and he was nervous. The teacher had told that
there will be a surprise element in the exam that he didn't know of.
When he reached the school, he found out that there will be a vivavoce
exam for each of the students. When his turn came, he was given a very
small task. First he was shown the above two images.
(a) Help Ravi to correlate between these two images.
(b) What is the reason behind that correlation?

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(c) Mark the solution to the above two questions in the given image.
(d) Name two other cell organelles in a plant cell.
Q52. Questions (a) to (d) are based on the Table A and B. Study this table
and answer the following questions
Table A : 6 persons and their serum osmolality levels
PERSON SERUM OSMOLALITY
(mmol/kg)
A 260
B 243

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C 220
D 280
E 276
F 315
G 342
Table B : Range for normal and dangerous levels of serum osmolality of
a person’s blood
Situation Serum
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
Should visit the doctor <275
Normal range 275-295
Should visit the doctor >295
G 342

Osmolality can be used to measure the amount of solute dissolved in a

solution. If the level of solute of a solution is higher than the
concentration of solute inside of the cell, water will flow out of the cell
by osmosis. If the level of solute outside the cell is lower than the level of
solute inside of the cell, water will flow into the cell.
(a) If we place a red blood cell ( 𝐨𝐬𝐦𝐨𝐥𝐚𝐥𝐢𝐭𝐲 is 𝟐𝟖𝟎 𝐦 𝐦𝐨𝐥/𝐤𝐠 ) in the serum
of person 𝐅, will the plasma flow into the cell or out of the cell?
(b) Which person (refer A and B) should visit the doctor ?
(c) Define osmosis.
(d) What is the difference between diffusion and osmosis?
Q53. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 20
(i) to 20 (v). A cell is capable of independent existence and can carry out
all the functions which are necessary for a living being. A cell carries out
nutrition, respiration, excretion, transportation and reproduction; the
way an individual organism does. Unicellular organisms are capable of

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independent existence which shows a cell's capability to exist
independently. Due to this, a cell is called the fundamental and
structural unit of life. All living beings are composed of the basic unit of
life, i.e., cell.
(i) Cells were first discovered by:
(a) Leeuwenhoek (b) Purkinje

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(c) Robert Brown (d) Robert Hooke
(ii) The following is a picture of the compound microscope, which of the
following options correctly represents its parts?

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(a) A-eyepiece, B - condenser, C-objective lens
(b) A- condenser, B - objective piece, C - eyepiece
(c) A- condenser, B-eye, C-lens
(d) A-condenser, B - eyepiece, C - objective lens

(iii) Select the odd one out.

(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Hydra (c) Plasmodium (d) Amoeba
(iv) 1μm is:
(a) 𝟏𝟎−𝟔 m (b) 𝟏𝟎−𝟗 m (c) 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟎 m (d) 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 m

(v) According to cell theory,

(a) all the plants and animals are composed of cells.
(b) the cell is the basic unit of life.
(c) all cells arise from pre-existing cells.
(d) certain cells arise from pre-existing cells.

Q54. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied
concepts.
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In plants and some algae, organelles known as chloroplasts serve as the
site of photosynthesis. Chloroplasts contain a pigment known as
chlorophyll, which captures the energy from sunlight to transform water

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and carbon dioxide into glucose for food. Chloroplasts allow autotrophic
organisms to meet their energy needs without consuming other
organisms.
(a) What are organelles, and why are they important for the cells?
(b) Is chloroplast an organelle? In what types of cell is a chloroplast
found?
(c) State the most vital function that is performed by the chloroplast?
(d) Are chloroplasts found in the animal cell? State the reason for your
answer?
Q55. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 19
(i) to 19 (v). Each living cell has the capacity to perform certain basic
functions that are characteristics of all living forms. There is a division
of labour in multicellular organisms such as human beings. This means
that different parts of the human body perform different functions. The
human body has a heart to pump blood, a stomach to digest food and so
on. Similarly, division of labour is also seen within a single cell in many
cases. In fact, each such cell has got certain specific components within
it known as cell organelles. Each kind of cell organelle performs a
special function, such as making new material in the cell, clearing up the
waste material from the cell and so on. A cell is able to live and perform
all its functions because of these organelles. These organelles together
constitute the basic unit called the cell.
(i) Which of the following is not a constituent in cell wall of plants?
(a) Pectin (b) Hemicellulose (c) Chitin (d) Cellulose
(ii) Which of the following is correctly matched with respect to the
plant cell?
(a) 4-Suicidal Bags of the cell (b) 2-production of Ribosomes
(c) 7 - powerhouse of the cell (d) 5 -Storage sacs of the cell
(iii) Who coined the term protoplast?
(a) Virchow (b) Leeuwenhoek (c) Robert Hooke (d) Purkinje

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(iv) Examples of double-membraned organelles are:
(a) Nucleus (b) Mitochondria (c) Plastid (d) All of these
(v) Which of the following options are the functions of ribosomes?
(i) It helps in manufacture of protein molecules.
(ii) It helps in manufacture of enzymes.
(iii) It helps in manufacture of hormones.

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Q56. Read the following passage and answer any four questions from 20
(i) to (v).
An organism may be a single cell, such as the organisms seen in water.
Others, like the plants and animals with which you are most familiar,
are multicellular, or made up of many cells. The cell is the basic unit of
structure and organisation of organisms. Although organisms such as
humans, dogs, and trees can become very large and complex, the cell
remains the simplest, most basic component of any organism. Study the
given figure carefully and answer the following questions.

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(i) 'All cells arise from the pre-existing cells' is proposed by:
(a) Rudolf Virchow (b) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(c) Matthias Schleiden (d) Theodor Schwann

(ii) Which of the following scientists made improved microscope to

discover free living cells in the pond water for the first time?
(a) Theodor Schwann
(c) Anton von Leeuwenhoek
(b) Robert Hooke
(d) Rudolf Virchow

(iii) Dead cork cells are seen in the microscope as given in the figure.
Who discovered it for the first time?
(a) Theodor Schwann (b) Robert Hooke

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(c) Anton von Leeuwenhoek (d) Rudolf Virchow

(iv) The cell theory is made up of three main ideas:

(1) All organisms are composed of one or more cells.
(2) The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of organisms.
(3) All cells come from pre-existing cells.

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(4) Cell divide to form two identical cells.

(v) Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of
these

(v) Which of the following is correctly matched?

Column A Column B
Smallest cells Mycoplasma (PPLO)
Longest cells White blood cells

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Largest cell c. Nerve cells
Cell which shows amoeba like c. Ostrich egg
movement

Q57. Answer question numbers (a) - (d) on the basis of your

understanding of the following paragraph and the related studied
concepts.

Prokaryotes are simple, small cells, whereas eukaryotic cells are

complex, large structured and are present in trillions which can be
single-celled or multicellular. Prokaryotic cells do not have a well-
defined nucleus, but DNA molecule is located in the cell, termed as
nucleoid, whereas eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus, where
genetic material is stored. Based on the structure and functions, cells
are broadly classified as prokaryotic cell and eukaryotic cell.
(a) A scientist is working on a cell. He observed the cell under a
microscope and found that the cell has a well-defined nucleus. State
whether the cell belongs to the prokaryotic organism or eukaryotic
organism. Also, tell the reason for your answer.
(b) Give two examples of the prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms.
(c) The eukaryotic cells have been categorized into two major types.

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What are these two types?
(d) Define the term "nucleoid".

Questions (a) to (c) are based on the Table A and B. Study this table and
answer the following questions.
Table A : Osmolality of water in large intestine

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Person Water
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
A 150
B 200
C 175
D 195
E 225
Table B : Range for normal and dangerous levels of water in large

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intestine of a person
Situation Water
osmolality
(mmol/kg)
Should visit the <175
doctor
Normal range 175-195
Should visit the >195
doctor

(a) Who all (Table A) are in the dangerous level of water in their small
intestine?
(b) Define osmosis.
(c) What is the difference between diffusion and osmosis ?

Q58. Read the passage and answer the following questions.

Benu was helping his mother in laying the table when they had some
guest for dinner. Benu was about to sprinkle salt on salad for dressing.
His mother stopped him from doing so and told him that it is too early to
sprinkle salt on the salad, he should do so only when they are seated for
having the dinner.
(a) What would happen if salt is sprinkled on the salad?
(b) Which property of cells is seen in adding salt to it?
(c) What value of Benu is seen?